The Opium Wars

The 18th and 19th century were times of great change in much of Asia. Contact and trade with
western nations such as Britain and France brought new products and technologies to Asia.
While trade with the West brought some beneficial changes to Asia, not all of the contact b
etween Asia and the West was positive, or even peaceful. An excellent example of this would
be the Opium Wars of the mid-19th century.
In the early 19th century, trade between China and Britain was growing very quickly, as Britai
n imported huge amounts of Chinese tea, porcelain, and silk. In return, Britain sent large qua
ntities of opium, a highly addictive drug, to China. By the 1830, Britain was sending over 4.5
million pounds of opium to China each year, and China was quickly becoming a nation of dr
ug addicts. To solve the problem, the Chinese government made the import of opium illegal.
The English, however, continued to bring more of the drug into the country because it was
the basis for all of their trade with China.
Faced with the threat of the destruction of their society through drug addiction, the Chines
e government decided to take action. In 1893, they gathered over 2 million pounds of illegal
opium from English traders and destroyed it. The English were furious. In response, they se
nt war ships to China and attacked its port cities. The war that followed was never an even
match. The British had far better weapons than the Chinese and easily defeated them. In 184
2, they forced the Chinese to sign the Treaty of Nanking.
The treaty was highly unfair. It forced the Chinese to make opium legal. Furthermore, the Ch
inese were forced to give the port of Hong Kong to the British. Hong Kong would remain Bri
tish territory until 1997, over one hundred fifty years later. Other Chinese ports were forced t
o sign unfair trade agreements with British traders. In effect, the Chinese lost the right to ch
oose whom they traded with and what items they wanted to trade.

1. The word ‘beneficial’ in the 1st paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.

helpful
large
important
many
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: helpful

2. According to paragraph 2, the British imported all of the following from China EXCE
PT __________.
opium
silk
porcelain
tea
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: opium

3. According to the passage, why was making opium illegal an effective move by the C
hinese government?
Because the British were much more powerful than the Chinese.
Because the British continued to import opium illegally.
Because China was becoming a nation of drug addicts.
Because they wanted to trade with the British.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Because the British continued to import opium illegally.
4. The word ‘it’ in the 2nd paragraph refers to __________.
drug
country
problem
import
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: drug

5. According to the passage, what action started the Opium Wars?
The illegal import of opium
The destruction of illegal opium by the Chinese
The signing of the Treaty of Nanking
The taking of Hong Kong by the British
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The destruction of illegal opium by the Chinese
6. The word ‘furious’ in the 3rd paragraph refers to ________.
angry
insulted
surprised
concerned
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: angry

7. According to the passage, why were the British able to easily defeat the Chinese?
They had a larger army.
The Chinese army was full of drug addicts.
They had superior military technology.
They had war ships and the Chinese did not.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: They had superior military technology.

8. The word ‘they’ in the third paragraph refers to _______.
the British
the weapons
the war
the Chinese
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: the British

9. Based on the information in paragraph 4, it can be inferred that ________.
opium imports increased after the Treaty of Nanking
the Treaty of Nanking was signed in Hong Kong
the Chinese could only trade with the British after the Treaty of Nanking
many Chinese ports became the property of England
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: opium imports increased after the Treaty of Nanking
10. Which of the information is NOT true according to the passage?
The Opium Wars were fought over the British import of opium into China.
The war started because the British reacted violently to Chinese attempts to stop the opium
trade.
The Chinese lost the Opium Wars because they didn’t have war ships.
After the war, the Treaty of Nanking forced the Chinese to make unfair agreements with the
English.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The Chinese lost the Opium Wars because they didn’t have war ships.

The New York Times is a daily newspaper published in New York City. For a long time, it has
been the newspaper of record in the United States and one of the world’s great newspapers.
Its strength is in its editorial excellence; it has never been the largest newspaper in terms of
circulation.
The New York Times was established in 1851 as a penny paper whose editors wanted to rep
ort the news in a restrained and objective fashion. It enjoyed early success as its editors set
a pattern for the future by appealing to a cultured, intellectual readership instead of a mass
audience. However, in the late nineteenth century, it came into competition with more popu
lar, colorful, if not lurid, newspapers in New York City. Despite price increases, the Times was
losing $1,000 a week when Adolph Simon Ochs bought it in 1896.
Ochs built the Times into an internationally respected daily. He hired Carr Van Anda as edito
r. Van Anda placed greater stress than ever on full reporting of the news of the day, and his
reporters maintained and emphasized existing good coverage of international news. The ma
nagement of the paper decided to eliminate fiction from the paper, added a Sunday magazi
ne section, and reduced the paper’s price back to a penny. In April 1912, the paper took ma
ny risks to report every aspect of the sinking of the Titanic. This greatly enhanced its prestig
e, and in its coverage of two world wars, the Times continued to enhance its reputation for e
xcellence in world news.
In 1971, the Times was given a copy of the so-called “Pentagon Papers,” a secret governmen
t study of U.S. involvement in the Vietnam War. When it published the report, it became inv
olved in several lawsuits. The U.S. Supreme Court found that the publication was protected
by the freedom-of-the-press clause in the First Amendment of the U.S. Constitution. Later in
the 1970s, the paper, under Adolph Ochs’s grandson, Arthur Ochs Sulzberger, introduced sw
eeping changes in the organization of the newspaper and its staff and brought out a nation
al edition transmitted by satellite to regional printing plants.
1. What is the main idea of the passage?
The New York Times publishes the best fiction by American writers.
The New York Times became highly respected throughout the world.
The New York Times broadcasts its news to TV stations via satellite.
The New York Times lost its prestige after the Vietnam War.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The New York Times became highly respected throughout the world.
2. It can be inferred from the passage that the circulation of the Times is _________.
not the largest in the world.
not the best in the world.
the smallest in the world.
the worst in the world.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: not the largest in the world.

3. Which phrase is closest in meaning to the word “restrained” as it is used in the seco
nd paragraph?
Put in prison
In handcuffs
Without education
With self-control
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: With self-control

4. According to the passage, what caused the loss of money at the Times?
Other newspapers were more colorful.
Other newspapers had better reporters.
Other newspapers added a Sunday magazine.
Other newspapers were better managed
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Other newspapers were more colorful.

5. What word or phrase does the word “his” as used in the 3rd paragraph refer to?
Van Anda
Reporters
News of the day
International news
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Van Anda

6. Where can the following sentence best be added to the passage?
“Their publishers ran sensational stories, not because they were true, but bec
ause they sold newspapers.”
At the end of the first paragraph
After the word “City” in the second paragraph
At the end of the third paragraph
After the phrase “lawsuits” in the fourth paragraph
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: After the word “City” in the second paragraph
7. To improve its circulation, the management of the Times did all of the following EX
CEPT _________.
emphasized good coverage of international news
added a Sunday magazine section
increased the number of lurid stories, even if they were not true
eliminated fiction from the paper
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
The correct answer is: increased the number of lurid stories, even if they were not true
8. The passage implies that the newspaper’s reputation ________.
decreased when it lowered its price to a penny
grew because Adolph Ochs bought it in 1896
increased because of its coverage of the Titanic’s sinking
decreased because it could not compete with other New York papers
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: increased because of its coverage of the Titanic’s sinking
9. What word or phrase does the word “publication” as used in the 3rd paragraph refer
to?
The Times
“The Pentagon Papers”
The Report
The Constitution
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The Times

10. According to the passage, the Times has a national edition that is _________.
protected by the Supreme Court
printed in the form of a Sunday magazine
shipped by train and air transport daily
transmitted by satellite to regional printing plants.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: transmitted by satellite to regional printing plants.

Termites
Termites are small, ant-like insects that rely on wood as a food source. While they are somet
imes called "white ants" or "flying ants," termites are not actually ants. [A] They do, however,
share many of the characteristics common to all social insects. [B] Like ants and bees, a ter
mite colony has a queen, workers, and soldiers. The queen lays all the eggs in the colony. W
orkers do most of the work in the colony. And soldiers protect the colony from other insects.
[C] Depending on the type of termite, there can be from several thousand to several million
termites in a colony. [D] When a termite colony starts to get overcrowded, some of the term
ites will develop wings and fly off to create a new colony. Termites eat dead wood because i
t is easier to consume than live wood. This is good news for logging companies. However, it
is bad news for home owners because the wood used to build their homes makes a tasty m
eal for termites. For this reason, termites are seen as pests. The two most worrying types of
termites are dry-wood termites and subterranean termites.
Dry-wood termites are named for their ability to take all their water from the wood they eat.
Therefore, they can live in very dry climates. They make their colonies directly in the wood th
at they eat. As a result, their colonies are smaller than those of subterranean termites, which
have more room to build their colonies. Like most termites, dry-wood termites only leave th
eir colonies when it has become overcrowded. Since they do not leave their colony, dry-woo
d termites must constantly remove waste from their colonies. Little piles of light, sandy mate
rial below a wooden structure, are a sure sign of these pests.
Subterranean termites live in the ground and dig tunnels to the wood they eat. Since they le
ave their colony to reach the wood, they do not have to remove any waste from their colony.
Therefore, they are much harder to see. In fact, these termites are only discovered by the da
mage they have caused. Subterranean termites are not found in dry climates because they r
equire a source of fresh water. Since they are located in the ground, subterranean termite co
lonies are much more likely to be attacked by ants or other insects. Therefore, they have lar
ge numbers of soldiers.
1. The word “characteristics” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
behaviors
features
jobs
colonies
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: features

2. According to paragraph 1, all of the following are true of termites EXCEPT _______.
they are social insects
they kill many trees
their colonies vary widely in size
they have the ability to fly
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: they kill many trees

3. The word “consume” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
eat
kill
damage
locate
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
The correct answer is: eat
4. The author mentions “home owners” in order to _______.
warn them about the risks of termites
contrast them with logging companies
illustrate the type of wood that termites prefer
introduce harmful effects of termites
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: introduce harmful effects of termites

5. The phrase “this reason” in paragraph 1 refers to the fact that _______.
termites only eat dead wood
termites commonly eat the wood in homes
termites do not damage logging companies
termites can fly to create new colonies
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: termites commonly eat the wood in homes
6. According to the passage, when do dry-wood termites leave their colonies?
When they remove waste from their colony.
When the population of a colony becomes too large.
When they have eaten all the wood in the colony.
When they are attacked by ants or other insects.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: When the population of a colony becomes too large.
7. According to the passage, it can be inferred that termite waste ________.
is removed from colonies in large amounts
is a problem for all kinds of termites
has a light, sandy appearance
can make termites sick if it is not removed
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: has a light, sandy appearance

8. Look at the 4 squares [ ] that indicate where the following sentence could be added
to the passage.
Termites have different body shapes and sizes depending on their jobs within the colo
ny.
Where would the sentence best fit?
[A]
[B]
[C]
[D]
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: [C]

9. Which of the following is true about dry-wood termites according to the passage?
They cause greater levels of damage.
They have more soldiers in the colonies.
They have smaller colonies.
They are more likely to create new colonies.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: They have smaller colonies.

10. All of the following are true about dry-wood termites, EXCEPT _______.
they cannot live in desert environments
they have to constantly remove waste
they must travel to reach the food source
their colonies are harder to locate
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: they have to constantly remove waste

John Harrison
In the early 1700s, sea travel was still very dangerous. One of the main reasons for this was t
hat ship captains often did not know exactly where their ships were. Using the position of t
he sun, they could calculate how far north or south they were. But they had no reliable way
to calculate their longitude, or how far east or west they were. The danger caused by this pr
oblem was shown in 1707. A British ship, which thought it was in the middle of the ocean, r
an into some rocks off the coast of England, and 2,000 men died. To prevent this sort of acci
dent, the British government offered the Longitude Prize in 1714. The Longitude Prize offere
d 20,000 British pounds (about $10,000,000 in today’s money) to anyone who could find a r
eliable way to calculate a ship’s longitude.
Many people, including some of the most famous scientists of the time, tried to win the Lon
gitude Prize, but the man who won it was a carpenter with little education. John Harrison st
arted his career as a carpenter, but he quickly moved into making clocks. When he heard ab
out the Longitude Prize, he made a system for calculating longitude by matching the time of
the day with the position of the sun. There was only one problem: clocks at that time were n
ot very accurate.
Harrison spent most of his life inventing a more accurate clock. He had two major problems.
The first was that most clocks had to be on a flat surface. If you titled them, it made the cloc
k go faster or slower. On a rocking ship, such a clock would never keep accurate time. The o
ther problem was that changes in temperature would also make a clock go faster or slower.
It took Harrison 34 years, but in 1762 he finally solved both of these problems. The scientific
community did not believe a simple carpenter could have solved one of the most important
science questions of the time. It took Harrison another 11 years before he finally received hi
s money.

1. The word ‘position’ in the 1st paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.

brightness
light
location
speed
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: location

2. The word ‘they’ in the 1st paragraph refers to _________.
ships
rocks
reasons
sea travel
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: ships

3. The author mentions ‘A British ship’ in order to ________.
give an example of why ship captains needed to know their longitude
give an example of how difficult it was to calculate longitude
show that rocks were very dangerous to ships
suggest that the coast of England was an unsafe area for ships
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: give an example of why ship captains needed to know their longitude
4. The word ‘it’ in the 2nd paragraph refers to ________.
people
prize
scientists
longitude
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: prize

5. The word ‘accurate’ in the 2nd paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
good
exact
safe
fast
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: exact

6. According to the passage, how did Harrison use his clock to calculate longitude?
He used it to time how fast the ship traveled.
He matched the time of the day with the position of the sun.
He timed how long sea voyage took.
He matched the time of day with the speed of the ship.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: He matched the time of the day with the position of the sun.
7. Based on the information in paragraph 3, it can be inferred that ________.
the temperature at sea can change a great deal
the temperature gets hotter as ships more to the east
clocks only work well in cold temperature
clocks need to be on a flat part of a ship
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: the temperature at sea can change a great deal
8. When did Harrison receive his prize money?
1707
1714
1762
1773
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: 1773

9. According to the passage, why did it take Harrison so long to receive his money?
Because his clocks were not accurate.
Because England did not have enough money to pay him.
Because the scientific community did not believe he could have solved the longitude proble
m.
Because he had to solve the problem with his clocks.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Because the scientific community did not believe he could have solve
d the longitude problem.
10. According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT _______.
An accurate way of calculating longitude was essential for sea travel.
Two hundred men died in a shipwreck just before the Longitude Prize was established.
John Harrison solved the longitude problem after years of work.
Despite his achievement, it took many years for Harrison to receive his money.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Two hundred men died in a shipwreck just before the Longitude Prize
was established.

BEST TIME TO VISIT BOSTON

Boston, the capital of Massachusetts and one of the oldest cities in the United States, has so
much to offer a tourist.

Shoulder season: June to August.

Best time for exploring the coast.

Summers can be busy, but they can also be hot and humid, discouraging some visitors. One
destination that’s perfect this time of year is The Emerald Necklace. It consists of a series of
parks and green spaces. Designed by Frederick Law Olmsted in the late 19th century, it offer
s up fresh air, green grass and flowing water. It’s well suited for cycling. The Charles River an
d the Boston Harbor offer opportunities for kayaking, sailing and even swimming.

High season: March to May, September to October.

Best time for experiencing the city on foot.

Peak seasons for travel are autumn and spring, especially at local colleges. [A] The weather i
s beautiful, and there are many activities going on. On a sunny spring or autumn day, there i
s so much to see and do in this compact area.
A whale-watching tour from Boston is the most rewarding boat ride. It sets sail for Stellwage
n Bank, a thriving feeding ground for marine life. Passengers are likely to see a variety of wh
ale species, as well as dolphins and many kinds of seabirds.

Low season: November to February.

Best time for Christmas magic and snow lovers.

Prices drop significantly from November, when temperatures also fall. [B] However, you sho
uld plan your visit carefully because Boston winters are not for the faint of heart. Outdoor i
ce-skating rinks are a convenient way to spend the winter in the area. There are also ski reso
rts, just a few miles from the city center.

January

January is the coldest, darkest month of the year. Temperatures will be cold, and there will b
e a lot of snow. The weather is typically ideal for sledding, skating, and other winter sports.
Chinatown comes alive in January or February with a vibrant parade, firecrackers, fireworks,
and plenty of food. The highlight is the traditional lion dances, which fill the streets followin
g the parade.

February

The weather remains cold, but the days are lengthening. Since tourists are few and far betw
een, prices are low.
Since 1952, local college hockey teams have competed in the Beanpot Tournament. [C] The
games are held at TD Garden on the first and second Mondays of February.

December
The massive Christmas trees at the Prudential Center and the Boston Common are lit in earl
y December. [D] Usually, there is at least one strong snowstorm. Costumed actors march fro
m Old South Meeting on the Sunday before December 16.

1. Why are visitors afraid of going to Boston in July?

Because it is hot and humid.
Because there are so many people.
Because it is cold and snowy.
Because they do not like swimming.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Because it is hot and humid.

2. The word “it” in the passage refers to _________.

The Emerald Necklace
Boston
The coast
The late 19th century
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The Emerald Necklace

3. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as an activity you can trav
el to Boston in June?
Swimming
Cycling
Kayaking
Skiing
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Skiing

4. The word “peak” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________.

highest
nicest
best
busiest
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
The correct answer is: busiest

5. Which paragraph contains the information about the cost?

Paragraph 1
Paragraph 2
Paragraph 3
Paragraph 4
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Paragraph 4

6. The phrase “faint of heart” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________.

Lacking courage
Lacking a heart
Being pessimistic
Being weak
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Lacking courage

7. Which of the following is disadvantage of visiting Boston in December?

The weather is hot.
The temperature drops.
The cold weather may harm some visitors
The price is high in Boston at that time.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The cold weather may harm some visitors

8. Which of the following is true about Boston, according to the passage?

Walking is the best activity in April
The weather is good in February.
People are hospitable and kind.
Cycling is the most suitable activity in May
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Walking is the best activity in April

9. According to the passage, when is the best time for those who want to explore the s
ea life?
January
April
June
December
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: April

10. Look at the four squares[ ] that indicate where the following sentence could be ad
ded to the passage?
Where would the sentence best fit?
They create a festive atmosphere in the city that lasts throughout the month.
A
B
C
D
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: D

The Discovery of Pluto

The first six planets have been known to mankind for all of our recorded history. [A] But the
final three planets, Uranus, Neptune, and Pluto, are not visible night sky without the help of
a telescope. [B] Their discovery had to wait until the invention of telescopes. Uranus, the sev
enth planet, was the first to be discovered in 1781 by William Herschel. [C] This proved to b
e an important breakthrough. By studying unexpected changes in the planet's orbit, scienti
sts could guess that it was being affected by the gravity of another, unknown planet. That u
nknown planet proved to be Neptune. It was found in 1846 with the help of calculations bas
ed on the abnormalities in Uranus’ orbit. These told scientists where in the sky to look for
Neptune. The discovery of the two planets proved to be easy because both are huge ga
s planets many times the size of the Earth. This made them relatively easy to find, even wi
th the telescopes of the 18th and 19th centuries. [D]
Finding the ninth planet, Pluto, proved to be a much harder task. It is not even as large as o
ur moon, and it is over a thousand times more distant. Again, the first clues to the planet's e
xistence came from the orbits of other planets. After studying Neptune, it did not seem that
it could explain all the changes in the orbit of Uranus. Scientists guessed there was another
planet out there, but they could not find it. They labeled the missing planet “Planet X.” The fi
rst serious attempt to find Planet X came in 1915, when astronomer Percival Lowell made it
his mission to find the planet. Lowell spent over a year studying the night sky. He discovere
d many other objects, including over 700 new stars. But he did not find the missing planet a
nd died a disappointed man.
Success came in 1930, when Clyde Tombaugh used a new method to search for the planet.
He took thousands of pictures of the night sky. Then he searched for any unknown objects t
hat were moving against the background of the stars, which remain in the same place in the
night sky. Using this method, he found a small point of light, turned out to be Pluto.

1. The word “This” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.

the invention of the telescope
the discovery of Uranus
the visibility of the final three planets
the discovery of gravity
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: the discovery of Uranus

2. According to paragraph 1, why was the discovery of Uranus important?
It made scientists want to look for other planets.
It directly led to the discovery of Neptune and Pluto.
It helped scientists understand
this allows us to better understand how ancient farms worked
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: It directly led to the discovery of Neptune and Pluto.
3. The word “breakthrough” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
advance
accident
experiment
task
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: advance

4. The word “abnormalities” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
important information
known facts
typical characteristics
unusual qualities
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: unusual qualities

5. Which is the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlig
hted sentence in the passage?
The discovery of Neptune and Uranus was only possible because they are such huge planets.
The fact that Uranus and Neptune are such enormous planets made finding them a relativel
y simple task.
Huge gas giants like Uranus and Neptune are much easier to find than planets as small as th
e Earth.
It is easier to prove the existence of gas giants like Neptune and Uranus because they are so
much larger than the Earth.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The fact that Uranus and Neptune are such enormous planets made fi
nding them a relatively simple task.
6. According to the passage, what can be inferred about telescopes?
The first telescopes were invented by William Herschel.
The telescopes of the 18th and 19th centuries were not very powerful.
They are required to view most of the planets in the night sky.
They are less useful than gravity in finding new planets.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The telescopes of the 18 th and 19th centuries were not very powerful.
7. Why does the author discuss the Earth’s moon in paragraph 2?
To better explain the orbit of Pluto
To better illustrate why Pluto was so hard to find
To give an example of an object that is easily visible
To suggest there are many similarities between the moon and Pluto
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: To better illustrate why Pluto was so hard to find
8. According to the passage, all of the following are true of Pluto EXCEPT ________.
it was discovered by tracking its motion
it was the last planet to be discovered
it was discovered accidentally
it was discovered using new methods of searching for planets
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: it was discovered accidentally

9. Look at the four squares [ ] that indicate where the following sentence could be add
ed to the passage.
While early civilizations may not have understood that these objects were planets, the
y were clearly visible in the sky.
Where would the sentence best fit?
[A]
[B]
[C]
[D]
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: [A]

10. According to the passage, what is true about Uranus?
Its existence was inferred before actual discovery.
It is first discovered through direct observation with a telescope.
It can only be seen when moving.
It is the most distant planet in the solar system.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: It is first discovered through direct observation with a telescope.

The Quest for the South Pole

The South Pole is the coldest place on Earth. In the winter, the temperature can drop as low
as -100 degrees. In addition, the South Pole is surrounded by mountains, so it is very difficul
t to reach. For these reasons, the South Pole was one of the last places in the world to be ex
plored by man.
The first attempts to reach the South Pole came in the early 1900s. In 1901, Robert Falcon Sc
ott, an Englishman, reached the shore of Antarctica and made his base camp. After his base
camp was finished, he set off to reach the South Pole. He took along many supplies and use
d mules to carry his equipment, but he only got 200 miles inland before he was forced to tur
n back. The severe cold killed all of his mules, and he had no way to carry his supplies.
In 1911, two teams started off for the South Pole. One team was led by Scott, who was maki
ng his second attempt. The other team was led by Roald Amundsen, a Norwegian. Scott dec
ided to use tractors to pull his supplies, but they quickly broke in the harsh weather. Amun
dsen had more luck. He used dog sleds and had few problems. Amundsen reached the Sout
h Pole before Scott and returned to Norway and gained worldwide fame. Scott also reached
the South Pole, but he was disappointed to find a Norwegian flag already planted there. Wit
h a heavy heart, he started the long trip back to his base camp. Scot and all the men in his e
xpedition died before reaching the base camp.
After the sad death of Scott and his men, there was little interest in exploring the South Pole.
Exploration did not restart until after the World War II, when the United States decided to b
uild a permanent camp in Antarctica. Amundsen-Scott research camp was completed in 195
7. The Americans started a new camp above the ground in 1974. This camp is still used toda
y by scientists from all around the world and still keeps the name of the two great explorers
who opened Antarctica to the world.

1. According to paragraph 1, all of the following are true of the South Pole EXCEPT ___
__.
it is the coldest place on Earth
it is ringed by tall mountains
there were many attempts to reach the South Pole throughout history
it is extremely difficult to reach
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: there were many attempts to reach the South Pole throughout history
2. According to the passage, why didn’t Scott reach the South Pole in 1901?
He had not finished his base camp.
His dogs were too slow.
His supplies ran out.
His mules all died in the cold.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: His mules all died in the cold.
3. The word ‘severe’ in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
extreme
very
deadly
frozen
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: extreme

4. According to paragraph 3, how did Scott know that he had lost the race to the Sout
h Pole?
He knew that Amundsen became world famous.
He found the Norwegian flag at the South Pole.
His tractors had broken down.
He knew that Amundsen had more luck than he did.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: He found the Norwegian flag at the South Pole.
5. The word ‘they’ in the 3rd paragraph refers to ________.
tractors
supplies
teams
Scott
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: tractors

6. The world ‘harsh’ in the 3rd paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
calm
strong
unkind
unpleasant
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: unpleasant

7. According to the passage, when did the exploration of the South Pole start again?
Just after World War II
In 1957
In 1974
In 1911
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Just after World War II

8. The word "he" in the 3rd paragraph refers to _________.
Scott
Amundsen
Norwegian
South Pole
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
The correct answer is: Scott
9. According to the passage, why is the American research camp named the Amundse
n-Scott research camp?
Because they were both Americans.
To honor the first explorers of the South Pole.
Because they built the camp.
Because they both died.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: To honor the first explorers of the South Pole.
10. Which of the sentences is NOT included in the summary of the passage?
The first attempt to reach the South Pole was done by Amundsen, but his expedition was un
successful.
The South Pole was one of the last places on Earth to be explored because of its difficult co
nditions.
In 1911, Robert Scott and Roald Amundsen led separate teams to the South Pole, and it was
Amundsen who reached there first.
After World War II, the US built a permanent camp named after Amundsen and Scott, and th
e exploration restarted
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The first attempt to reach the South Pole was done by Amundsen, but
his expedition was unsuccessful.

As computers have become powerful tools for the rapid and economic production of pictur
es, computer graphics has emerged as one of the most rapidly growing fields in computer s
cience. It is used routinely in such diverse areas as business, industry, art, government, educ
ation, research, training, and medicine.
One of the initial uses of computer graphics, and ultimately its greatest use, has been as an
aid to design, generally referred to as computer-aided design (CAD). One of its greatest adv
antages is that designers can see how an object will look after construction and make chang
es freely and much more quickly than with hand drafting. For three-dimensional rendering
or machine parts, engineers now rely heavily on CAD. Automobile, spacecraft, aerospace, an
d ship designers use CAD techniques to design vehicles and test their performance. Building
designs are also created with computer graphics systems. Architects can design a building la
yout, create a three-dimensional model, and even go for a simulated "walk" through the roo
ms or around the outside of the building.
Business graphics is another rapidly growing area of computer graphics, where it is used to
create graphs, charts, and cost models to summarize financial, statistical, mathematical, scie
ntific, and economic data. As an educational aid, computer graphics can be used to create w
eather maps and cartographic materials. Computer art also has creative and commercial art
applications, where it is used in advertising, publishing, and film productions, particularly fo
r computer animation, which is achieved by a sequential process.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

Routine uses of computers
Computer graphics applications
The rapidly growing field of computer science
Computers as the architects of the future
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Computer graphics applications

2. The word "It" in paragraph 1 refers to _________.
computer graphics
computer science
fields
computers
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: computer graphics

3. The paragraph following this passage would most likely be about _________.
computer animation
flight training
cost models
applications of CAD in medicine
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: computer animation

4. According to the passage, architects use CAD to _________.
inspect buildings
create graphs
make cartographic materials
create three-dimensional models
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: create three-dimensional models

5. What does the author discuss in the second paragraph?
The importance of computer
The greatest advantage of computer-aided design (CAD)
Business graphics
The use of computer graphics in film industry
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The greatest advantage of computer-aided design (CAD)
6. According to the passage, engineers use CAD for _________.
a simulated "walk" through model rooms.
rendering machine parts
making cost models
advertising
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: rendering machine parts

7. The word "applications" in the last paragraph means _________.
jobs
uses
creativity
layers
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: uses

8. The following vehicles are all mentioned in passage EXCEPT _________.
ship
plane
car
bike
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: bike

9. The word "drafting" in paragraph 2 could best be replaced with _________.
outlining
destroying
lifting
testing
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: outlining

10. The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to the _________.
computer art
educational aid
business graphics
computer animation
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: computer art

GEESE
The name geese is used for birds belonging to one family called Anatidae. They include swa
ns and ducks. However, there are two types of geese that people are acquainted with. Thes
e are gray geese from the Anser family and black geese from the Branta family. Geese are fo
und in Europe, Asia, and North America. They are migratory birds that breed in the north an
d go south for the winter.
Geese are generally the same wherever they may be found. They have a tail, head and neck
that are black. The cheeks have a white patch (1), and the body is white and various shades of
brown. Their length varies from about 25 to 45 inches. Male and female geese look very
much alike, although the male may be slightly bigger and have a higher-pitched voice.
Geese are more land birds than water birds. Their legs are farther up front on their bodies th
an those of ducks. This makes it easier for them to walk on land. They get their food by graz
ing grasses and grain in the spring field. A flock of geese can make a lot of noise, especially
when a stranger comes near.
The most unusual thing about geese is their behavior to imprint. When a baby goose is bor
n, it believes that it is the same species as any moving object it first sees. Thus, if it sees a hu
man being first, it will believe that it is also a human. Scientists do not know why imprinting
happens. They think it might be an instinct for survival. Imprinting allows the creation of a st
rong bond between the hatchling (2) and the parent or whoever the young bird sees. Geese t
hat imprint a human being at birth treat the human like a parent when young, and as the ge
ese grow older, they may not try to mate with the other geese. Therefore, it is important for
farmers or other people living with geese to make sure that the first living thing a baby goos
e sees is another goose. The capacity to imprint can also be seen in ducks, but animals such
as cats and dogs do not imprint. Although they are born and see a human being first, they k
now immediately that they are not humans.
(1)
patch: a small piece or part, especially that differs from the whole
(2)
hatchling: a baby bird or animal which has just come out of its shell
1. What is the main idea of the passage?
A comparison of Anatidae family such as geese, ducks, and swans
How geese migrate during the winter and their special features
The biological features of geese and their imprinting ability
The importance of geese’s imprinting and comparing geese with dogs
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The biological features of geese and their imprinting ability
2. The word “acquainted” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
available
complete
guarded
familiar
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: familiar

3. All of following are typical features of common geese EXCEPT _______.
are bluish-gray color with a white head
range between 25 and 45 inches long
have a black tail, head, and neck
are able to walk on land longer than ducks
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: are bluish-gray color with a white head
4. Male and female geese look very much alike, although the male may be slightly big
ger and have a higher-pitched voice.
Which of the sentences best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sen
tence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out es
sential information.
The male and female geese are similar, but the male is a bit larger, and its voice is higher.
Although male and female geese resemble each other, they are different in size.
Male geese are larger than female geese because their voice is higher.
The higher-pitched voice of the male geese is the only thing that differentiates it from the fe
male geese.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The male and female geese are similar, but the male is a bit larger, an
d its voice is higher.
5. The word “This” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
grazing grasses and grain
legs farther up front on their bodies
walk on land
more land birds than water birds
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: legs farther up front on their bodies

6. According to paragraph 4, some baby geese become attached to human beings bec
ause _______.
humans care for them properly
they walk on land just like human beings
a human being is the first thing they see when they are born
geese have an emotional connection for human beings
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: a human being is the first thing they see when they are born
7. What is the author’s opinion of newborn geese?
They can survive best by bonding to other geese.
They should develop an instinct for survival.
They should be exposed to their own kind.
They cannot grow properly on farms.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: They should be exposed to their own kind.
8. Why does the author mention cats and dogs?
To give an example of other animals that are able to imprint
To suggest that some animals do not imprint because they hate water
Tor argue that animals can develop the capacity to imprint
To explain that not all animals have the behavior pattern to imprint
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: To explain that not all animals have the behavior pattern to imprint
9. Which paragraph contains the information about geese migration route?
Paragraph 1
Paragraph 2
Paragraph 3
Paragraph 4
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Paragraph 1

10. The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
farmers
geese
ducks
animals
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: animals

GREEK THEATER

Plays are one of the oldest forms of literature we have. Long before there were any novels, p
eople around the world were writing and acting out plays. One society which did much to d
evelop plays as we know them today was the society of the ancient Greeks. Originally, Greek
s plays began as part as of a religious festival to the Greek god Dionysus, the god of song, w
ine, and nature. For the three days of the festival, Greek writers would present their plays. At
the end of the three days, judges would choose the best play.

Greek plays had two forms: tragedy and comedy. Greek tragedies are now by far the most fa
mous form of Greek play. Tragedies focus on a great character, such as a king or a great war
rior. During the play, this character would suffer terrible misfortune, until at the end of the
play, they either were dead or had lost their status. Their fall from their high position was us
ually caused by some flaw* in their personality. For example, in the famous tragedy Oedipus,
the main character is searching for the murderer of his father. Throughout the play, he recei
ves many warnings to stop his search, but he refuses to listen. At the end of the play, he disc
overs that he is actually his father’s murderer, and his life is destroyed. In this case, the chara
cter’s tragic flaw is his stubborn attitude. The Greeks watched tragedies because they believ
ed that they took negative emotions such as fear and disgust out of them and left them em
otionally clean. This process was called catharsis.

Greek comedies were not like the comedies we have today. Greek comedies were not neces
sarily funny. The basis of a Greek comedy was the opposite of a Greek tragedy: a normal per
son would enjoy a period of good luck and would rise in status at the end of the play. Greek
comedies were less serious than tragedies and were generally used to lighten the mood of t
he audience after they saw a tragedy.

*
flaw: a fault or weakness in someone’s character
1. According to the passage, all of the following are true of Greek plays EXCEPT _______
__.
They were the first plays in the world.
There were two kinds of Greek plays.
They began as part of a religious festival.
They were judged in contests to find the best play.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: They were the first plays in the world.

2. According to the passage, what influence did the ancient Greeks have on plays as an
art form?
They invented tragedies.
They created plays we know today.
They made up stand-up comedies.
They developed a variety of genres.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: They created plays we know today.

3. The word “misfortune” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________.

illness
pain
sadness
bad luck
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: bad luck

4. According to paragraph 2, what role did the tragic flaw play in Greek tragedies?
It was the cause of the main character’s downfall.
It made people hate the main character.
It showed that the main character deserved what happened to him.
It ended the play.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: It was the cause of the main character’s downfall.
5. Why does the author mention “Oedipus”?
Because it is the most famous Greek tragedy
To show that being stubborn is a very bad thing
To give an example of a tragic flaw
To better explain why Greeks liked tragedies
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: To give an example of a tragic flaw

6. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _________.

Greeks
emotions
tragedies
tragic flaws
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: tragedies

7. Based on the information in the passage, the term “catharsis” in paragraph 2 can be
st be explained as ________.
not wanting to have negative emotions
watching a story of terrible events to rid yourself of negative emotions
watching powerful people ruin their lives to free yourself of negative emotions
a ceremony to cleanse your emotions
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: watching a story of terrible events to rid yourself of negative emotion
s

8. Based on the information in the passage, it can be inferred that _________.

comedies were more popular than tragedies
comedies usually came after tragedies
tragedies required better actors
comedies were very exciting
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: comedies usually came after tragedies

9. Which of the following statements is true about Greek comedies?

They are used to lift people’s mood.
They are very funny.
They usually won play contests.
They are similar to modern comedies.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: They are used to lift people’s mood.

10. According to the passage, all of the following are true about Greek tragedies EXCE
PT _________.
they are about a significant individual.
they left people emotionally clean.
they are the most well-known type of Greek play.
they gave people negative emotions.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: they gave people negative emotions.

The Forbidden City is the former imperial palace in the center of Beijing, China. Construction
began in 1406, and the emperor’s court officially moved in by 1420. The Forbidden City got i
ts name because most people were barred from entering the 72-hectare site, surrounded by
walls. Even government officials and the imperial family were permitted only limited access.
Only the emperor could enter any section at will.
The architecture of the Forbidden City conforms rigidly to traditional Chinese principles. All
buildings within the walls follow a north-south line, and the most important ones face south
to honor the sun. The designers arranged the other buildings, and the ceremonial spaces be
tween them, to impress all visitors with the great power of the Emperor, while reinforcing th
e insignificance of the individual. This architectural concept was carried out to the smallest d
etail. For example, the importance of a building was determined not only by its height or wi
dth but also by the style of its roof and the quantity of statuettes placed on the roof’s ridges.
In recognition of the importance of its unparalleled architecture, UNESCO added the palac
e to its World Heritage List in 1987. Today, visitors from all over the world do not wait for an
imperial invitation to walk about this palace, now a museum of imperial art.
One of the most impressive landmarks of the Forbidden City is the Meridian Gate, the forma
l entrance to the southern side of the Forbidden City. The gate, with its auxiliary wings on eit
her side of the entryway, is 38 meters high at its roof ridge. When you stand in front of this
majestic structure, you understand how awed people felt when they stood there listening to
imperial proclamations.
As you walk through the gate, you come into a large courtyard, 140 meters long and 210 m
eters wide. Running through the courtyard is the Golden River, which is crossed by five paral
lel white marble bridges. These bridges lead to the Gate of Supreme Harmony, which, in tur
n, leads to the heart of the Forbidden City. Its three main halls stand atop a three-tiered mar
ble terrace overlooking an immense plaza. The plaza has enough space to hold tens of thou
sands of subjects paying homage to the emperor.
At the northernmost end of the Forbidden City is the Imperial Garden, which is totally differ
ent from the rest of the compound. Instead of rigid formality, you see a seemingly spontan
eous arrangement of trees, fishponds, flowerbeds, and sculpture. Here is the place of relaxat
ion for the emperor. The motion picture The Last Emperor (1987), which portrays the life of
Hsuan-t’ung P’ui, was filmed partly within the Forbidden City.
1. Which sentence in paragraph 1 explains who could go anywhere in the Forbidden Ci
ty at any time?
Sentence 2
Sentence 3
Sentence 4
Sentence 5
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Sentence 5

2. How long did it take to build the Forbidden City?
About five years
About seven years
About ten years
About fourteen years
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: About fourteen years

3. From the passage, it can be inferred that _________.
Chinese architects borrowed ideas from many different countries
the design of the Forbidden City is dull and colorless
the architecture of the Forbidden City exemplifies traditional Chinese values
the garden of the Forbidden City was laid out in a strict, rectangular pattern
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: the architecture of the Forbidden City exemplifies traditional Chinese
values
4. Which phrase is closest in meaning to the word “unparalleled” as used in the third p
aragraph?
At an angle from the main line
A high quality found nowhere else
Partially designed in a foreign country
Careless of small details in design
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: A high quality found nowhere else

5. Which word(s) does the word “its” refer to in paragraph 3?
UNESCO
an imperial invitation
Palace
World Heritage List
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Palace

6. From the passage, it is implied that the main entrance area to the Forbidden City is
_________.
surrounded by three tall walls
painted gold and green
decorated with statuettes
not very impressive
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: surrounded by three tall walls

7. Which word(s) does the word “them” refer to in paragraph 2
buildings
principles
walls
designers
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: buildings

8. All of the following are found in the Imperial Garden EXCEPT ________.
fishponds
sculpture
white marble bridges
flowerbeds
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
The correct answer is: white marble bridges
9. According to the passage, what do the bridges over the Golden River lead to?
The Meridian gate
The center of Beijing
The Gate of Supreme Harmony
The Imperial Gardens
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The Gate of Supreme Harmony

10. Which phrase is closest in meaning to the word “spontaneous” as used in the last p
aragraph?
Without meaning
Without thinking
Without planning
Without drawing
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Without planning

Jupiter is the largest and most massive planet and is fifth in order of distance from the sun. I
t is well placed for observation for several months in every year and on average is the bright
est of the planets apart from Venus, though for relatively brief periods Mars may outshine it.
Jupiter's less than 10-hour rotation period gives it the shortest day in the solar system insof
ar as the principal planets are concerned. There are no true seasons on Jupiter because the a
xial inclination to the perpendicular of the orbital plane is only just over 3°-less than that for
any other planet.
The most famous mark on Jupiter is the Great Red Spot. It has shown variations in both inte
nsity and color, and at times it has been invisible, but it always returns after a few years. At i
ts greatest extent it may be 40,000 kilometers long and 14,000 kilometers wide, so its surfac
e area is greater than that of Earth. Though the latitude of the Red Spot varies little, it drifts
about in longitude. Over the past century the total longitudinal drift has amounted to appro
ximately 1200°. The latitude is generally very close to -22°. It was once thought that the Red
Spot might be a solid or semisolid body floating in Jupiter's outer gas. However, the Pioneer
and Voyager results have refuted that idea and proven the Red Spot to be a phenomenon
or Jovian meteorology. Its longevity may well be due to its exceptional size, but there are si
gns that it is decreasing in size, and it may not be permanent. Several smaller red spots have
been seen occasionally but have not lasted.
1. According to the passage, Jupiter has the shortest day among the principal planets
because _________.
its rotation period is shorter than 10 hours
the axial inclination is only just over 3°
it is on the average the brightest of all the planets
there is the interference of the Great Red Spot
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: its rotation period is shorter than 10 hours
2. The word “It” in paragraph 1 refers to the ________.
Jupiter
Venus
Mars
Red Spot
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Jupiter

3. The author's tone in this passage is _________.
argumentative
supportive
enthusiastic
neutral
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: neutral

4. According to the passage, Mars outshines Jupiter _________.
on a regular basis
for a short time
every several months
less often than any other planet
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: for a short time

5. This passage would be of most interest to _________.
students of anthropology
geologists
mathematicians
amateur astronomers
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
The correct answer is: amateur astronomers
6. It can be inferred from this passage that Jupiter's Great Red Spot _________.
will become brighter with time
will one day disappear
will continue expanding
is made of floating gases
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: will one day disappear

7. The word "intensity" in the second paragraph could best be replaced with _________.
visibility
density
brilliance
surface area
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: density

8. The word "refuted" in the second paragraph could best be replaced with _________.
disagreed
confirmed
acknowledged
admitted
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: disagreed

9. The following aspects of Jupiter are all mentioned in passage EXCEPT _________.
size
shape
distance
mark
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: shape

10. The word “its” in the last paragraph refers to the _________.
Red Spot
Jupiter
latitude
gas
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
The correct answer is: Red Spot

Oil Spills
Oil is the world’s essential energy source. Every day, the world uses 3 billion gallons of oil. T
he United States alone uses 950 million gallons a day. Most of this oil is produced in the Mi
ddle Eastern countries like Saudi Arabia. Oil companies use oil tankers to move the huge am
ounts of oil the world need from the oil fields to the cities where they are used. Oil tankers a
re huge ships, some of the biggest in the world. An average oil tanker can hold over 50 milli
on gallons of oil.
Unfortunately, just like cars and planes, oil tankers sometimes have accidents. When this hap
pens, the oil they carry can spill into the sea, creating an environmental disaster. When it spi
lls into the sea, oil floats, and it spreads very quickly. Once it washes onto a beach, it mixes i
nto the sand, making it almost impossible to clean up. In addition to being very messy, spille
d oil is also very dangerous to animals. Furthermore, sea birds get oil on their feathers and a
re unable to fly. When they try to clean their feathers, the oil poisons them and they die as
well. Whales, seals, and dolphins are also often killed by oil spills.
Oil spills often caused by carelessness on the part of the ship’s crew. The case of the Exxon
Valdez oil spill is a perfect example. In 1989, the Exxon Valdez hit some underwater rocks an
d spilled over 11 million gallons of oil into the sea near Alaska. The oil spill polluted 1,300 mi
les of beach and killed hundreds of thousands of sea animals. The crash was caused because
the radar, which could have warned the crew of the underwater rocks, was broken. The radar
was very expensive to fix, so the Exxon company decided to leave it broken. Furthermore, th
e captain of the ship was drunk at the time of the crash. After the accident, the Exxon compa
ny was forced to pay for the clean-up, but much of the damage remains even ten years afte
r the spill.

1. The word ‘essential’ in the 1st paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.

useful
necessary
common
valuable
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
The correct answer is: necessary
2. According to paragraph 1, all of the following are true EXCEPT ________.
the United States uses almost one third of all the world’s oil
most oil is produced far from where it is used
Saudi Arabia has the largest oil tankers into the world
oil tankers are used to transport oil around the world
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Saudi Arabia has the largest oil tankers into the world
3. According to the passage, why is an oil spill difficult to clean after it reaches a beac
h?
It spreads very quickly.
It mixes into the sand.
It is very messy.
It is very dangerous.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: It mixes into the sand.

4. The word ‘it’ in the 2nd paragraph refers to __________.
oil tankers
disaster
accident
oil
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: oil

5. Which of the following animals are NOT mentioned as affected by oil spills?
sea birds
seals
octopus
whales
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: octopus

6. According to paragraph 3, why wasn’t the radar on the Exxon Valdez fixed?
The captain was drunk.
The company did not want to pay to have it fixed.
The screw did not know how to fix it.
It hit an underwater rock.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The company did not want to pay to have it fixed.
7. The word ‘it’ in the 3rd paragraph refers to ________.
crash
crew
radar
company
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: radar

8. According to paragraph 3, all of the following are true of the Exxon Valdez oil spill
EXCEPT _______.
its clean-up has not been completed
the Exxon company had to pay for the environmental damage
it occurred far out at sea
it polluted large amounts of beach
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: it occurred far out at sea

9. The word ‘remain’ in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
last
cause
keep
leave
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: last

10. Which of the information is NOT true according to the passage?
Oil tankers are used to transport much of the world’s oil.
Oil tankers are a very safe way to transport oil.
Oil spills cause great environmental damage and kill many sea animals.
Oil spills are often caused by the carelessness of oil companies or the crew of oil tankers.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Oil tankers are a very safe way to transport oil.

World Population and Climate Change

In many ways, the fast pace of climate change is a direct result of the development of the h
uman population. [A] In the last 100 years, the world population has increased more than th
ree times. From just under 2 billion at the beginning of the century, it is nearly 7 billion toda
y. [B] In addition, the average person uses more energy and natural resources than the aver
age person 100 years ago. It means that the rates of consumption are much higher than th
e increase in population would suggest. [C] For example, it took the world 125 years to use t
he first one trillion barrels of oil. The next trillion barrels be used in less than 30 years, which
is almost 5 times as fast, not three. [D]
All these activities: producing food and using energy and natural resources, contribute to cli
mate change in some way. The greater amounts of oil and other fuels are burned to create e
nergy. This process releases chemicals which add to global warming. To produce more food,
farmers cut down trees to gain more land for their fields. We also cut down trees to build th
e houses needed for a larger population. Those trees are an essential part of controlling glo
bal warming. These are just two examples of the effects that the growing population has on
global warming. Others are too many to mention.
Besides, the world also has a population that wants a higher standard of living than in the p
ast. A higher standard of living requires the use of even more natural resources. A look at on
e country will provide a clear example of this fact. China is the world's most populous nation,
with 1.3 billion people. Now the standard of living for most of those people is far below tha
t of people in first world nations. Therefore, the average Chinese person uses far fewer natur
al resources and less energy than the average person of the US or Japan. But China is growi
ng in power, and more and more of its people are beginning to expect a first-world lifestyle.
If every Chinese person reaches this lifestyle, the amount of energy and natural resou
rces needed in the world will double, even if the standard of living in every other natio
n on Earth remains the same as it is today.

1. The word “pace” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.

growth
speed
problem
pollution
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: speed

2. The word “consumption” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
development
usage
population
increase
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
The correct answer is: usage
3. All of the following are causes of climate change EXCEPT ________.
food production
decrease of human population
energy usage
the use of natural resources
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: decrease of human population

4. According to the passage, how does food production contribute to global warming?
Food production requires that the forests be cleared to create farmland.
Producing more food leads to growth in the world population.
Food production uses many chemicals which add to global warming.
Food production decreases the ability of the air to release heat.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Food production requires that the forests be cleared to create farmlan
d.
5. Why does the author mention the rate at which oil is being used in paragraph 1?
To suggest that most of the problems of global warming are associated to our fast use of oil
To suggest that our oil is likely to run out sometime in the next thirty years
To contrast the differences in lifestyle between people living 100 years ago and people livin
g today
To illustrate that we are using resources faster than the speed at which the population is gro
wing
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: To illustrate that we are using resources faster than the speed at whic
h the population is growing
6. The word “other” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
problems of global warming in the modern world
examples of the environmental consequences of population growth
ways in which our usage of oil will affect the world climate
the reasons why trees are essential in controlling global warming
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: examples of the environmental consequences of population growth
7. According to the passage, how does the standard of living affect global warming?
Higher standards of living are better for the environment.
First world nations create less pollution than developing nations.
The use of natural resources is directly related to the standard of living
High standards of living lead to increases in world population.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The use of natural resources is directly related to the standard of livin
g
8. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highli
ghted sentence in the passage?
If China becomes a first world nation, and all other nations keep their current standard of livi
ng, the usage of energy and natural resources will double.
If China doubles its usage of natural resources, it will reach a better standard of living, but ot
her nations will have to remain as they are today.
Even if the standard of living in every other nation on Earth remains as it is today, China will
still try to reach a first world standard of living.
When China reaches a first world lifestyle, the amount of energy and natural resources used
by other nations to keep their current standard of living will double.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: If China becomes a first world nation, and all other nations keep their
current standard of living, the usage of energy and natural resources will double.
9. Why does the author discuss China, Japan, and the United States?
To compare the standards of living of their citizens
To explain why China will not be able to become a first world nation
To better illustrate the effects of an increase in standards of living
To explain why the world's use of energy will need to double soon
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: To better illustrate the effects of an increase in standards of living
10. Look at the 4 squares [ ] that indicate where the following sentence could be adde
d to the passage.
Obviously, this has meant that the world has needed to produce three times as much f
ood, energy, and other natural resources.
Where would the sentence best fit?
[A]
[B]
[C]
[D]
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
The correct answer is: [B]

THE SEARCH FOR BEAUTY spans centuries and continents. Paintings of Egyptians dating bac
k over 4,000 years show both men and women painting their nails and wearing makeup. On
the other side of the globe, the ancient Maya of Central America considered crossed eyes be
autiful, and hung little balls between children’s eyes to develop this look. In 18th-century Fra
nce, wealthy noblemen wore large wigs of long white hair to make themselves attractive. In
cultures throughout the world, people have gone to extreme lengths to achieve the goal of
beauty.

Today, people continue to devote a lot of time and money to their appearance. According t
o a recent report, one out of three consumers globally say they are spending more money t
oday on beauty and health care products than ever before. Worldwide, sales of makeup, die
ting, hair- and skin-care products, as well as gym memberships and cosmetic surgery, gener
ate billions of dollars every year.

And there is at least one good reason for the desire to be attractive: Beauty is power. Studie
s suggest that good-looking people make more money, get called on more often in class, a
nd are perceived as friendlier.

But what exactly is beauty? Trying to define it is difficult, and yet we know it when we see it
—or so we think. “Beauty is health,” says one psychologist. “It’s a billboard saying ‘I’m health
y. I can pass on your genes.’” And our awareness of it may start at a very early age. In one se
t of studies, six-month-old babies were shown a series of photographs. The faces in the pict
ures had been rated for attractiveness by a group of college students. In the studies, the ba
bies spent more time looking at the attractive faces than the unattractive ones.

The idea that even babies judge appearance makes perfect sense to many researchers. In st
udies done by psychologists such as Victor Johnston at New Mexico State University and Da
vid Perrett at the University of St. Andrews in Scotland, men regularly showed a preference f
or women with certain features: larger eyes, clear skin, fuller lips, and a smaller nose and chi
n. Another study suggests that women prefer men with large shoulders and a narrow waist.
According to scientists, the mind unconsciously tells men and women that these traits—the
full lips, clear skin, strong shoulders—equal health and genetic well-being. In other words, it’
s a fundamental part of human nature to look for these qualities in a mate.
Not everyone agrees with this notion, however. “Our hardwiredness can be altered by all sor
ts of expectations—predominantly cultural,” says C. Loring Brace, an anthropologist at the U
niversity of Michigan. What is considered attractive in one culture might not be in another. L
ook in most Western fashion magazines, for example, and the women on the pages are thin.
But is this the “perfect” body type for women worldwide? Douglas Yu, a biologist from Great
Britain, and Glenn Shepard, an anthropologist at the University of California at Berkeley, say
no; what is considered beautiful is subjective and varies around the world. Yu and Shepard f
ound in one study, for example, that native peoples in southeast Peru preferred shapes rega
rded as overweight in Western cultures.

Take another example: In every culture, one’s hairstyle sends a clear message. In the Huli cul
ture of Papua New Guinea, men grow their hair long as a symbol of health and strength. Tee
nage boys in this culture learn from a young age to style and decorate their hair—a behavio
r more commonly associated with the opposite gender in many cultures. It is also the men i
n this culture who are the objects of beauty. For certain festivals and celebrations, men dress
up and paint their faces. The more colorful a man is, the more masculine—and attractive—h
e is considered.

For better or worse, beauty plays a role in our lives. But it is extremely difficult to define exac
tly what makes one person attractive to another. Although there do seem to be certain phys
ical traits that are considered universally appealing, it is also true that beauty does not alway
s conform to a single, uniform standard. A person’s cultural background, for example, may i
nfluence what he or she finds attractive in others. In the end, beauty really is, as the saying g
oes, in the eye of the beholder.

1. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _________.

people
consumers
products
sales
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: people

2. What is this reading mainly about?

what people think about beauty
the history of beauty
the world’s most beautiful people
how beauty is power
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: the world’s most beautiful people

3. The ancient Maya hung balls between children’s eyes _________.

because they hoped it would improve their eyesight
to differentiate boys from girls
because they thought crossed eyes were beautiful
to add an attractive “third” eye
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: because they thought crossed eyes were beautiful

4. In paragraph 3, “perceived” can be replaced with _________.

known
seen
treated
compared.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: seen

5. In paragraph 4, the babies in the study _________.

were shown photos of college students
were entered in a beauty contest
were rated for their beauty
were able to tell attractive from unattractive faces
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: were able to tell attractive from unattractive faces

6. What determines the beauty of a Huli man in Papua New Guinea?

how young he is
how colorful he is
how strong he is
how big his mask is
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
The correct answer is: how colorful he is

7. What do you think the saying in the last sentence means?

Beauty is subjective and is different for different people.
Beauty is something that first appeals to sight.
Beauty is something that is held in high esteem.
Beauty of a person depends on their eyes.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Beauty is subjective and is different for different people.

8. According to the writer, perceptions of beauty _________.

change over time
are the same for every person
have little influence on a person’s success
can be easily defined.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: change over time

9. Who thinks that people’ s perceptions of beauty depend on their own culture?
C. Loring Brace
Victor Johnston
David Perrett
Egyptians
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: C. Loring Brace

10. In which culture, men are considered healthy and strong if they have long hair?
In the culture of the ancient Maya of Central America
In Egyptian culture
In the Huli culture
In the Western culture
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: In the Huli culture

Before the age of the smartphone, aspiring photographers had to learn how to use high-tech came
ras and photographic techniques. Not everyone had cameras, and it took skill and a good eye to c
apture and create a great photograph. Today, with the huge range of camera apps on our smartph
ones, we’re all amateur photographers, and pretty good ones at that, since the quality of smartpho
ne images now nearly equals that of digital cameras.
The new ease of photography has given us a tremendous appetite for capturing the magical and t
he ordinary. We are obsessed with documenting everyday moments, whether it’s a shot of our br
eakfast, our cat—or the cat’s breakfast. And rather than collect pictures in scrapbooks, we share,
like, and comment on them with friends and strangers around the globe. Even photojournalists ar
e experimenting with mobile phones because their near invisibility makes it easier to capture un
guarded moments. And the Internet allows them to avoid traditional media, to act as their own p
ublishers—reaching huge audiences via social media sites such as Instagram. A photograph take
n in New York can get a response from someone in Lagos within seconds of being uploaded.[A]
In the past, magazines published unforgettable photos of important people and global events that
captured our imaginations. These photos had the power to change public opinion and even the co
urse of history. But if there are fewer memorable images today, it’s not because there are fewer g
ood images. It’s because there are so many, and no one image gets to be special for long.
Cameras are everywhere—a situation that is transforming the way we experience dramatic event
s. With surveillance cameras observing most urban centers, have we gotten to the point where ca
meras don’t need photographers and photographers don’t even need cameras? When there are po
litical events or natural disasters, it is ordinary citizens with cell phones—not photojournalists—
who often provide the first news images. Quality still matters, but it’s less important than what’s
relevant and instantly shared.
As people everywhere embrace photography and the media make use of citizen journalists, profe
ssional standards appear to be shifting. Before digital images, most people trusted photographs to
accurately reflect reality. Today, images can be altered in ways the naked eye might never notice.
Photojournalists are trained to accurately represent what they witness. Yet any image can be alter
ed to create an “improved” picture of reality. The average viewer is left with no way to assess th
e accuracy of an image except through trust in a news organization or photographer.
The question of the accuracy of images gets even trickier when photojournalists start experimenti
ng with camera apps—like Hipstamatic or Instagram—which encourage the use of filters. Image
s can be colored, brightened, faded, and scratched to make photographs more artistic, or to give t
hem an antique look. Photographers using camera apps to cover wars and conflicts have created
powerful images—but also controversy. Critics worry that antique-looking photographs romantic
ize war, while distancing us from those who fight in them.[B]
Yet photography has always been more subjective than we assume. Each picture is a result of a s
eries of decisions—where to stand, what lens to use, what to leave in and what to leave out of the
frame. Does altering photographs with camera app filters make them less true? There’s somethin
g powerful and exciting about the experiment the digital age has forced upon us. These new tools
make it easier to tell our own stories—and they give others the power to do the same. Many mem
bers of the media get stuck on the same stories, focusing on elections, governments, wars, and di
sasters, and in the process, miss out on the less dramatic images of daily life that can be as reveal
ing.
The increase in the number of photographs and photographers might even be good for democrac
y itself. Hundreds of millions of potential citizen journalists make the world smaller and help kee
p leaders honest. People can now show what they are up against, making it increasingly difficult
for governments to hide their actions. If everyone has a camera, Big Brother isn’t the only one wa
tching.
Who knows? Our obsession with documentation and constantly being connected could lead to a r
adical change in our way of being. Perhaps we are witnessing the development of a universal vis
ual language, one that could change the way we relate to each other and the world. Of course, as
with any language, there will be those who produce poetry and those who make shopping li
sts. [C]
It’s not clear whether this flowering of image-making will lead to a public that better appreciates
and understands images—or simply numb us to the profound effects a well-made image can have.
But the change is irreversible. Let’s hope the millions of new photographs made today help us se
e what we all have in common, rather than what sets us apart.[D]

1. According to the author, why are there fewer memorable photographs today?
Because the quality of many images is still poor.
Because most images are not interesting to a global audience.
Because traditional media refuse to allow amateur photos.
Because there are so many good images these days.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Because there are so many good images these days.

2. What kinds of images does the author think matter most these days?
images that are important to people and that can be shared quickly
images that are of a high quality that help show dramatic events
images that reflect reality but are presented in a traditional way
images that can be altered to improve one’s sense of reality
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: images that are important to people and that can be shared quickly

3. Why does the author put the word improved in quotation marks in paragraph 5?
The writer is using the exact word from another source.
The writer wishes to stress that the picture of reality is greatly improved.
The writer believes it is arguable whether the picture is truly improved.
The writer is not sure the reader understands the word, so draws attention to it.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The writer believes it is arguable whether the picture is truly improved.
4. Who does the author criticize in this reading?
citizen journalists
people who use surveillance cameras
some members of today’s media
people who alter photos
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: some members of today’s media

5. What does their refer to in the passage?

mobile phones
photojournalists
publishers
scrapbooks
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: mobile phones

6. The word “unguarded” in the passage is closest in the meaning to _________.

spontaneous
unthinking
unsafe
honest
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: spontaneous

7. What is the main idea of paragraph 8?

Big Brother is no longer watching us.
Democratic governments are the only governments that allow cameras.
People with cameras can help show how things really are in the world.
More governments are trying to ban the use of cameras in their countries.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: People with cameras can help show how things really are in the world.

8. When referring to visual language, what does the author mean by as with any language, t
here will be those who produce poetry and those who make shopping lists?
It will be most useful for shopping and for writing beautiful poetry.
It will be better because it can be used for a wide variety of things.
We can do the same thing with visual language as written language.
Some people will use it for everyday things and others for more creative things.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
The correct answer is: Some people will use it for everyday things and others for more creative t
hings.

9. Look at the 4 squares [ ] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to th
e passage.
Such images may be more useful in communicating how the person behind the cam
era felt than in documenting what was actually in front of the camera.

Where would the sentence best fit?

[A]
[B]
[C]
[D]
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: [B]

10. What is the main purpose of the last paragraph?

To explain why image-making is popular.
To make people understand the role of image-making.
To demonstrate that image-making is useful.
To give author’s opinion about the benefits of photographs.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: To give author’s opinion about the benefits of photographs.

THE X-PLANES

By the end of World War II, it was obvious that the days of propeller-driven aircraft were over. T
he British and the Germans had already developed jet-powered fighters that were much faster. T
here was only one problem: the new planes were not strong enough to travel faster than the speed
of sound. Aircraft engineers had encountered something that they called the “sound barrier.” As
aircraft approach the speed of sound (a little less than 700 mph), the air becomes very rough. Thi
s rough air was literally shaking planes apart. Before jet aircraft could advance any further, engi
neers had to solve the problem of the sound barrier.
In 1945, the American government started the X-program to solve this problem. The goal of the
program was to build an aircraft strong enough to fly faster than the speed of sound and to test w
hat happened to an aircraft at those speeds. [A] The first X-plane, the X-1, was shaped like a bull
et with short thin wings. [B] It did not take off on its own. It was lifted into the air by a larger air
plane and then dropped. [C] Then it started its rocket engine and picked up speed.

The X-1 was a very successful aircraft. In 1947, just two years after the program started, Chuck
Yeager became the first man to break the sound barrier at an altitude of 43,000 feet. [D] Over the
next years, more X-planes were built, each flying faster and higher. Furthermore, each X-plane l
ooked less and less like a plane. Their wings got shorter and shorter. By 1961, when the X-15 wa
s built, there were no wings on the aircraft at all, just three fins at the back. This was a result of t
he changing mission of the X-planes. Having solved the problem of the sound barrier, engineers
had turned their attention to the problems of space flight. The later X-planes, such as the X-15, w
ere designed to investigate these problems.

1. What is the main idea of the passage?

The greatest challenge to aircraft engineers
The disappearance of propeller-driven aircraft
The development of jet-powered fighters
The causes of the problem “sound barrier”
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The greatest challenge to aircraft engineers

2. According to paragraph 1, all of the following are true EXCEPT:

Propeller aircraft were becoming unnecessary after World War II.
Both the Germans and the British had built planes that flew faster than the speed of sound.
The first jet planes were not strong enough to fly at very high speeds.
Travelling near the speed of sound was destroying airplanes.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Both the Germans and the British had built planes that flew faster than the
speed of sound.

3. Based on the information in paragraph 1, the term “sound barrier” can best be explaine
d as _________.
a problem that engineers had to solve
an aircraft that had shaken apart
the problem caused by rough air near the speed of sound
the program to travel faster than the speed of sound
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: the problem caused by rough air near the speed of sound
4. The word “advance” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________.
fly
progress
change
go
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: progress

5. According to the passage, what was the original objective of the X-program?
To end the days of propeller-driven aircraft
To solve the problems of the sound barrier
To build a new fighter plane
To make planes more like missiles
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: To solve the problems of the sound barrier

6. Look at the 4 squares [ ] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the
passage.
Actually, the X-1 was more like a missile with wings than a real plane.
Where would the sentence best fit?
[A]
[B]
[C]
[D]
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: [B]

7. According to the passage, why was it necessary for later X-planes to fly much higher?
They had smaller wings.
They were used to investigate space flight.
They flew much faster.
The air was too rough.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: They were used to investigate space flight.

8. The word “this” in paragraph 3 refers to _________.

the construction of X-15
wings of X-planes getting shorter
replacing wings of X-15 with fins
three fins at the back
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: replacing wings of X-15 with fins

9. The word “investigate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________.

solve
discover
study
develop
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: study

10. What is the mission of the X-15?

To overcome the sound barrier problem
To research space flight problems
To test what occurred to an aircraft at the speed of sound
To deliver Chuck Yeager to the space
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: To research space flight problems

Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania, is located where the Allegheny and Monongahela rivers unite to form t
he Ohio River. Its fascinating history began in 1758 when General John Forbes and his British an
d colonial army captured Fort Duquesne from the French and renamed it Fort Pitt, for the British
statesman William Pitt the Elder. After an agreement between the Native American tribes and W
illiam Penn’s family, settlers began arriving. Pittsburgh was laid out (1764) by John Campbell i
n the area around the fort.
Following the American Revolution, the town became an outfitting point for settlers traveling w
estward down the Ohio River. Pittsburgh’s strategic location and wealth of natural resources spu
rred its commercial and industrial growth in the nineteenth century. A blast furnace, erected by G
eorge Anschutz about 1792, was the forerunner of the iron and steel industry that for more than a
century was the city’s economic power. By 1850, it was known as the “Iron City.” The Pennsylv
ania Canal and the Portage Railroad, both completed in 1834, opened vital markets for trade an
d shipping.
After the American Civil War, great numbers of European immigrants swelled Pittsburgh’s popu
lation, and industrial magnates such as Andrew Carnegie, Henry Clay Frick, and Thomas Mellon
built their steel empires there. The city became the focus of historic friction between labor and
management, and the American Federation of Labor was organized there in 1881. By 1900, the c
ity’s population had reached 321,616. Growth continued nearly unabated through World War II,
and during the war years, Pittsburgh was a boom town.
During this period of economic and population growth, Pittsburgh became a grimy, polluted ind
ustrial city. After the war, however, the city undertook an extensive redevelopment program, wit
h emphasis on smoke-pollution control, flood prevention, and sewage disposal. In 1957, it becam
e the first American city to generate electricity by nuclear power. By the late 1970s and early 80s,
the steel industry had virtually disappeared, but Pittsburgh successfully dip versified its econom
y through more emphasis on light industries and on such high-technology industries as computer
software, industrial automation (robotics), and biomedical and environmental technologies.
1. In the mid-eighteenth century, what two countries wanted to control the area now know
n as Pittsburgh?
England and the United States
England and France
England and Germany
England and Pennsylvania
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: England and France

2. When did settlers begin arriving in Pittsburgh?
After an agreement between the Native American and the Penn family
After the Allegheny and Monongahela rivers united
After the British captured Fort Pitt
After the American Revolution
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: After an agreement between the Native American and the Penn family
3. Which phrase is closest in meaning to the phrase “outfitting point” as used in the second
paragraph?
A store that sells gasoline and oil
A location of food and water
A place to buy business suits and accessories
A source of equipment and supplies
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: A source of equipment and supplies

4. What became the most important industry in Pittsburgh following the American Revolut
ion?
The shipping industry
The iron and steel industry
The outfitting industry
The computer software industry
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The iron and steel industry

5. Which of the following phrases is closest in meaning to the phrase “vital markets” as use
d in the third paragraph?
Hospitals and medical centers
Large stores for food and clothing
Places with customers for Pittsburgh’s products
Native American tribes and military forts
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Places with customers for Pittsburgh’s products
6. According to the passage, who moved to Pittsburgh in great numbers after the Civil War?
Native American tribes
British soldiers
Confederate veterans
European immigrants
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: European immigrants

7. Which of the following phrases is closest in meaning to the phrase “focus of historic
friction” as used in the third paragraph?
Center of an important conflict
Museum for historical photographs
Famous furniture factory
City of many professional sports
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Center of an important conflict

8. According to the passage, what can be inferred about Pittsburgh’s population during Wo
rld War II?
It did not grow.
It declined.
It grew enormously.
It stayed the same.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: It grew enormously.

9. Between the Civil War and World War II, all of the following happened in Pittsburgh E
XCEPT _________.
automobile factories produced most of the transportation for Americans
Carnegie, Frick, and Mellon created their steel empires
the American Federation of Labor was organized
the air became seriously polluted, and buildings were dirty
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: automobile factories produced most of the transportation for Americans
10. Where in the passage could the following sentence best fit?
“The elder Penn, who lived in Philadelphia, believed that peaceful settlements with t
he native American would help his young colony prosper.”
After the word “arriving” in the first paragraph
After the words “Ohio River” in the second paragraph
At the end of the third paragraph
After the words “polluted industrial city” in the fourth paragraph
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: After the word “arriving” in the first paragraph

ECLIPSES
The word eclipse refers to astronomical occasion when the light of one celestial object is par
tly or completely blocked by the shadow of another object. Eclipses are usually classified as
solar or lunar. They occur as often as seven times in a year.
A solar eclipse occurs when the Moon passes between the Earth and the Sun. It partly or tot
ally blocks the Earth's view of the Sun. This happens when the Moon is exactly between the
Sun and the Earth. A solar eclipse can only occur when the Moon is a new moon. Thousands
of years ago, solar eclipses were terrifying events because everything went dark, and no one
could understand why. Today, solar eclipses are no longer frightening, and hundreds of
people do travel to areas where a solar eclipse is occurring. A total solar eclipse occurs
when the Sun is completely blocked by the Moon, and only a faint corona can be seen. It is r
are and usually lasts for a few minutes. A partial eclipse occurs when the Moon covers parts
of the Sun. The longest solar eclipses occur when the Earth is farthest from the Sun, making
the solar disc smaller and the Moon is at closest to the Earth, making the Moon's diameter l
arger.
A lunar eclipse occurs when the Moon passes through a part of the Earth's shadow. The earl
iest recorded lunar eclipse happened on March 19, 721 B.C. A lunar eclipse can only occur w
ith a full moon and when the Sun, Earth, and Moon are in a single line. [A] The shadow of th
e Earth is divided into two parts. [B] The outer part of the shadow is called the penumbra. I
n the penumbra, the Earth can block only part of the Sun's rays which reach the Moon. A pe
numbral eclipse occurs when the Moon passes through the Earth's penumbra. [C] The inner
part is the umbra, a region where the Earth blocks all the direct sunlight. [D] When the Moo
n travels completely under the Earth's umbra, the Moon partly disappears or has a red glow.
Note:
celestial: belonging or relating to the sky
corona: the outermost region of the Sun’s atmosphere

1. What is the main idea of the passage?

Eclipses are heavenly events involving the Sun, Moon and Earth.
Solar eclipses do not occur as often as lunar eclipses.
Solar and lunar eclipses cannot occur unless the Moon is full.
Celestial objects are visible in the sky when an eclipse occurs.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Eclipses are heavenly events involving the Sun, Moon and Earth.
2. The word “blocked” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by _______.
tied
found
hidden
colored
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: hidden

3. According to the passage, which of the following is a reason why solar eclipses terri
fied ancient people?
The Moon appeared bigger than the Sun.
Both the Moon and the Sun were visible in the sky.
People did not know the reason why everything grew dark.
The Sun was not as bright as it used to be.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: People did not know the reason why everything grew dark.
4. Which of the sentences best expresses the essential information in the highlighted s
entence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out
essential information.
People travel to see solar eclipses for a religious reason.
People are not afraid of solar eclipses, and they want to see them.
Solar eclipses are now the most important events of the year.
People travel to see solar eclipses because they are terrified.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: People are not afraid of solar eclipses, and they want to see them.
5. All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 2 as a possible consequence of a so
lar eclipse EXCEPT that ________
the Sun appears as a shining band.
the Sun's rays are completely blocked out.
the Sun partly disappears for a short time.
the Sun's corona can be seen.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: the Sun's rays are completely blocked out.
6. The word “rare” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
complex
cold
uncommon
dangerous
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: uncommon

7. What can be inferred about solar eclipses?
They are not as attractive as they were in the past.
They are harder to study than lunar eclipses.
They are interesting events for a lot of people.
They occur only in the daytime.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: They are interesting events for a lot of people.
8. The phrase “outer part” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
the Earth's shadow
a single line
umbra
penumbra
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: penumbra

9. Look at the four squares [ ] that indicate where the following sentence could be add
ed to the passage.
The penumbra does not cause any noticeable darkening of the Moon's surface.
Where would the sentence best fit?
[A]
[B]
[C]
[D]
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
The correct answer is: [C]
10. According to the passage, what is true about lunar eclipse?
It has a reddish color when it passes under umbra.
It occurs when the Moon is in the middle of the Earth and Sun
It happens when light is blocked by the Moon.
Happens when the Moon is a new moon.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: It has a reddish color when it passes under umbra.

Pandemic Diseases
Diseases are a natural part of life on Earth. If there were no disease, the population would gr
ow too quickly, and there would not be enough food or other resources. So in a way, diseas
es are nature’s way of keeping the Earth in balance. But sometimes they spread very quickly
and kill large numbers of people. For example, in 1918, an outbreak of the flu spread across
the world, killing over 25 million people in only six months. Such terrible outbreaks of a dise
ase are called pandemics.
Pandemics happen when a disease changes in a way that our bodies are not prepared to fig
ht. In 1918, a new type of flu virus appeared. Our bodies had no way to fight this new flu vir
us, and so it spread very quickly and killed large numbers of people. While there have been
many different pandemic diseases throughout history all of them have a few things in comm
on.
First, all pandemic diseases spread from one person to another very easily. Secondly, while t
hey may kill many people, they generally do not kill people very quickly. A good example of
this would be the Marburg virus. The Marburg virus is an extremely infectious disease. In ad
dition, it is deadly. About 70-80% of all the people who get the Marburg virus die from the
disease. However, the Marburg virus has not become a pandemic because most people die
within three days of getting the disease. This means that the virus does not have enough ti
me to spread to a large number of people. The flu virus of 1918, on the other hand, generall
y took about a week to ten days to kill its victims, so it had more time to spread.
While we may never be able to completely stop pandemics, we can make them less commo
n. Doctors carefully monitor new diseases that they fear could become pandemics. For exa
mple, in 2002 and 2003, doctors carefully watched SARS. Their health warnings may have pr
evented SARS from becoming a pandemic.

1. According to paragraph 1, how are diseases a natural part of life on Earth?

They prevent pandemics.
They help control the population.
They help the world grow quickly.
They kill too many people.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: They help control the population.

2. Based on the information in the passage, the term ‘pandemic’ can best be explained
as _______.
diseases with no cure
a deadly kind of flu
diseases that spread quickly and kill large numbers of people
new diseases like SARS or the Marburg virus
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: diseases that spread quickly and kill large numbers of people
3. According to the passage, what causes pandemics?
Changes in a disease that the body cannot fight.
Careless doctors who do not watch the spread of diseases.
Population growth that the world cannot support.
The failure to make new medicine.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Changes in a disease that the body cannot fight.
4. According to the passage, all of the following are true of the 1918 flu pandemic EXC
EPT that ________.
it involved a new kind of flu virus
it killed over 25 million people
it was the last pandemic in history
it took a little over a week to kill its victims
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: it was the last pandemic in history

5. The word ‘it’ in the 2nd paragraph refers to _______.
disease
flu virus
pandemics
bodies
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
The correct answer is: flu virus
6. The word ‘they’ in the 3rd paragraph refers to _______.
doctors
diseases
pandemics
victims
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: doctors

7. According to paragraph 3, why hasn’t the Marburg virus become a pandemic?
It is not a deadly disease.
It does not spread from person to person easily.
Doctors have presented it from becoming a pandemic.
It kills people too quickly.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: It kills people too quickly.

8. The word ‘monitor’ in the 3rd paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
fight
prevent
watch
avoid
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: watch

9. The author mentions SARS in order to _________.
give an example of a highly dangerous disease
suggest that SARS will never become a pandemic
give an example of the successful prevention of a pandemic
suggest that there may be a new pandemic soon
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: give an example of the successful prevention of a pandemic
10. Which of the information is NOT true according to the passage?
Pandemics are diseases that spread quickly and kill many people.
The Marburg virus became a pandemic in ten days.
In order to become a pandemic, a disease must spread quickly and kill its victims relatively sl
owly.
Doctors can help prevent pandemic disease by closely watching the spread of diseases and
giving health warnings.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The Marburg virus became a pandemic in ten days.

THE LIFE CYCLE OF STARS

Stars are born in the dense clouds of gas found mostly in the arms of spiral galaxies. The thi
ckest part of the cloud falls apart and forms a protostar, which is an early stage before the o
bject becomes a star. The protostar keeps collapsing because it has a strong gravitational fo
rce in its core. When the protostar has contracted enough so that its core can burn hydroge
n into helium, the protostar is called a main sequence star. It is like a nuclear furnace which
produces energy and pushes the energy to the surface of the star. For most of its life, a star
will continue to undergo nuclear fusion. The radiation that is pushing forward is balanced b
y the gravity that is pulling it inward. This is the equilibrium state of stars.

The star will continue to grow older until the inner part of the star begins to produce
nuclear fusion too slowly. When this happens, the star becomes unstable. This usually occ
urs billions of years after the star was born. [A] The more mass a star has, the brighter it will
burn and the faster it will use up the hydrogen in its core. [B] An unstable star begins to con
tract and expand until it grows very large. This stage is called a red giant. When the red gian
t runs out of fuel, the star begins to get smaller. [C] The core heats up because of the contra
ction. However, because it has no fuel, the outer layers of the star begin to come off. [D] Th
e core of the star becomes a white dwarf. When the white dwarf uses all its energy, it is calle
d a black dwarf or dead star. Stars with very big masses collapse to a very small size called a
neutron star. Stars that are about forty times larger than the Sun may collapse into a black
hole, an area with so strong gravitational force that even light cannot escape from it. This is
an interesting phenomenon which is worth continued study.

1. What is the main idea of the passage?

Stars experience several stages from birth to death.
A star has several characteristics when it is in equilibrium.
Whether a star dies depends on the star’s characteristics.
Stars live billions of years before they die.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
The correct answer is: Stars experience several stages from birth to death.

2. The word “undergo” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.

run away
go through
turn on
pass through
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: go through

3. According to the passage, what causes a protostar to fall inward?

its mass
its gravitational pull
its equilibrium
hydrogen
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: its gravitational pull

4. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highli
ghted sentence in the passage? (Incorrect choices change the meaning in important w
ays or leave out essential information.)
The star grows old because it does not produce nuclear fusion fast enough.
As a star grows older, it starts to generate nuclear fusion much more slowly.
A star will not grow older if its inner part allows nuclear fusion to occur.
Unless a star produces slow nuclear fusion, it will not grow.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: As a star grows older, it starts to generate nuclear fusion much more s
lowly.

5. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ________.

nuclear fusion
mass
inner part
star
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
The correct answer is: star

6. Why does the author mention “a neutron star” in paragraph 2?

To give an example of the kind of star a protostar can become
To cite a type of star that is not common in the Universe
To describe a stage of a star before it reaches equilibrium
To explain what may take place when stars with great masses cave in
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: To explain what may take place when stars with great masses cave in

7. What is the author’s opinion about “a black hole” in paragraph 2?

It is hard to understand.
Scientists know nothing about it.
It should be researched further.
It is too difficult to study.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: It should be researched further.

8. Look at the 4 squares [ ] that indicate where the following sentence could be added
to the passage.
This is the reason larger stars die sooner than smaller stars like the Sun.
Where would the sentence best fit?
[A]
[B]
[C]
[D]
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: [B]

9. Which of the following statements relates to the formation of stars?
Hydrogen burns into helium.
Very dense clouds collapse.
Gravity at center pulls in matter.
Outer layers are shed.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
The correct answer is: Hydrogen burns into helium.

10. According to the passage, all of the following are true about what happens to unst
able stars EXCEPT ______.
Hydrogen is consumed.
The stars swell into a huge red object.
The star becomes a small white object.
Gravity pulls energy to core.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Gravity pulls energy to core.

Barn owls, of the family Tytonidae, are anatomically different enough from other owls to me
rit their own family in the order Strigiformes. Instead of the more or less rounded face of mo
st owls, the barn owl has a heart-shaped face and lacks the usual tufted earlike feathers. The
common barn owl is from 12 to 18 inches long and has a white face, cinnamon burr back, b
uff or white breast, and relatively small eyes. The legs are fairly long, feathered to the toes, a
nd, like those of all owls, very strong and equipped with sharp, powerful, curved claws, the o
uter ones being reversible, although they are usually directed backward.
Barn owls nest in hollow trees, caves, and buildings on every continent except Antarctica an
d have adapted so well to living near humans that in some areas they seem to have forsake
n natural nesting places in favor of man-made ones. They hunt in open spaces and have the
largest range of any nocturnal bird. They use their eyesight to locate prey, but their hearing
is so highly developed that they can hunt small mammals in total darkness. Barn owls are ec
onomically valuable because of their preference for small, crop-destroying mammals.

1. It can be inferred from the passage that owls hunt for food in _________.
forests
swampy areas
fields
caves
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: fields

2. According to the passage, barn owls have a highly developed sense of _________.
taste
sight
hearing
touch
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: hearing

3. All of the following are features of the barn owl EXCEPT _________.
small eyes
curved claws
white face
black breast
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: black breast

4. The word "those" in paragraph 1 refers to _________.
legs
eyes
faces
toes
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: legs

5. In paragraph 2, the word "forsaken" could best be replaced by _________.
abandoned
substituted
chosen
preferred
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: abandoned

6. The word "They" in paragraph 2 refers to _________.
natural nesting places
barn owls
humans
open spaces
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: barn owls

7. Which of the following is NOT a customary nesting place for barn owls?
Trees
Fields
Caves
Buildings
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Fields

8. The phrase "economically valuable" as used in the passage means that the barn owl
_________.
is a national treasure
is worth a lot of money
prevents farmers from losing money on crop losses
saves farmers money by eating bad crops
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: prevents farmers from losing money on crop losses
9. This passage would most likely be found in _________.
a book on agriculture
a photographer's handbook
a United States atlas
an encyclopedia of animal life
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: an encyclopedia of animal life

10. In paragraph 2, the word "prey" could best be replaced by _________.
victim
human
bird
hunter
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: victim

Most of the early houses built in America were suited to farm life, as it was not until cities be
came manufacturing centers that colonists could survive without farming as their major occ
upation. Among the earliest farmhouses in America were those built in Plymouth Colony. Ge
nerally, they consisted of one large rectangular room on the ground floor, called a hall or gr
eat room and having a fireplace built into one of the walls, and aloft overhead. Sometimes a
lean-to was attached alongside the house to store objects such as spinning wheels, firewoo
d, barrels, and tubs. The furnishings in the great room were sparse and crudely built. Tableto
ps and chest boards were split or roughly sawed and often smoothed only on one side. Ben
ches took the place of chairs, and the table usually had a trestle base so it could be dismantl
ed when extra space was required. One or two beds and a six-board chest were located in o
ne corner of the room. The fireplace was used for heat and light, and a bench often placed n
earby for children and elders in the area called the inglenook.
The original houses in Plymouth Colony were erected within a tall fence for fortification. Ho
wever, by 1630 Plymouth Colony had 250 inhabitants, most living outside the enclosure. By
1640 settlements had been built some distance from the original site. Villages began to eme
rge throughout Massachusetts and farmhouses were less crudely built. Windows brought lig
ht into homes and the furnishings and decor were more sophisticated.
As more diversified groups of immigrants settled the country, a greater variety of farmhous
es appeared, from Swedish log-style houses in the Delaware Valley to saltbox houses in Con
necticut, Dutch-Flemish stone farmhouses in New York, and clapboard farmhouses in Penns
ylvania. From Georgian characteristics to Greek revival elements, farmhouses of varied archit
ectural styles and building functions populated the landscape of the new frontier.

1. The main idea of the passage is _________.

life in Plymouth Colony
the history of the American farmhouse
how to build an American farmhouse
where immigrants settled in America
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: the history of the American farmhouse

2. In the first paragraph, the word "their" refers to the _________.
houses
colonists
cities
centers
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: colonists

3. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as part of the furnishings in a farmhouse?
Rocking chair
Six-board chest
Bench
Trestle-based table
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
The correct answer is: Rocking chair
4. According to the passage, the earliest farmhouses were built in _________.
Delaware Valley
Massachusetts
Pennsylvania
Connecticut
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Massachusetts

5. In the first paragraph, the word "It" refers to a _________.
trestle base
chest board
space
table
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: table

6. It can be inferred from the passage that _________.
sophisticated tools were available to the early Immigrants
the major occupation in Plymouth Colony was carpentry
the extended family lived together in the farmhouse
cloth was imported from England
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: the extended family lived together in the farmhouse
7. The passage was most probably written by a specialist in American _________.
urban planning
architecture
immigration
farming
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: architecture

8. The word “emerge” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced with _________.
proceed
come out
settle
appear
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
The correct answer is: appear
9. The word “diversified” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced with _________.
varied
important
poor
international
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: varied

10. Many farmhouses are mentioned in the passage EXCEPT _________.
log-style houses
saltbox houses
clapboard farmhouses
straw-pale houses
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: straw-pale houses

The Harlem Renaissance

In the early 20th century, the American South was a terrible place to live if you were an Africa
n American. The laws of the South treated African Americans very unfairly, and there were fe
w jobs available to them. At the same time, large numbers of factories were opening up in t
he northern cities such as New York and Philadelphia. Eager to leave the terrible conditions
of the South, thousands of African Americans left to find a better life in the North.
During this northern migration, one neighborhood in New York, Harlem, became the center
of cultural life for African Americans living in New York. From 1919 until the start of the Grea
t Depression in 1929, there was a huge increase in African American art and literature. This ti
me of artistic development became known as the Harlem Renaissance. The Harlem Renaissa
nce did not occur only in Harlem; it occurred in many cities, even in the South. But the home
of the Renaissance was always considered to be Harlem.
The Harlem Renaissance was a great time for all arts, but some of the greatest development
s came in music. The two great forms of African American music, blues and jazz, developed
greatly during this time. Of the two, blues was the older musical form. Blues originated in t
he slave plantations of the South, and the South always remained the most important place
for blues music. Blues was a very structured type of music because it was originally intended
to help the slaves pace their work. As it grew into a popular form of music, it kept the same
structure.
Jazz developed mostly in the northern cities. Unlike blues, jazz did not have a tight structure.
Jazz encourages musicians to experiment and try different things, so jazz had many forms. T
here were, however, a few common elements in jazz. First, jazz centered around woodwind i
nstruments, like trumpets and saxophones. Secondly, there was typically less singing in jazz
than in blues; jazz was mainly an instrumental type of music. Finally, jazz bands tended to be
large, informal groups of musicians. Musicians often only worked together for a short time b
efore changing bands, so that they could meet more musicians and learn new things.

1. According to paragraph 1, why did African Americans leave the South at the beginn
ing of the 20th century?
They wanted to join the Harlem Renaissance.
They wished to escape the harsh conditions of the South.
It was against the law for them to live in the South.
They wanted to open factories in the northern cities.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: They wished to escape the harsh conditions of the South.
2. The word ‘them’ in the 1st paragraph refers to _________.
laws
the South
jobs
African Americans
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: African Americans

3. Based on the information in the passage, it can be inferred that _______.
there was no African American art before the Harlem Renaissance
only artists moved to the northern cities
conditions were better for African Americans in the North
the art of African American in the South was not very good
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: conditions were better for African Americans in the North
4. Based on the information in the passage, the term ‘migration’ in the 2 nd paragraph c
an best be explained as _________.
an increase in art and literature
the development of a new form of music
the movement of a large number of people from one area to another
a neighborhood in a northern city with good conditions
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: the movement of a large number of people from one area to another
5. According to the passage, what event brought an end to the Harlem Renaissance?
The northern migration
The start of the Great Depression
The unfair laws of the South
The development of jazz
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The start of the Great Depression

6. According to the passage, all of the following are true of the Harlem Renaissance EX
CEPT ________.
it was unique to Harlem
it involved many different arts
it was centered in Harlem
it began in 1919
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: it was unique to Harlem

7. The word ‘originated’ in the 3rd paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
began
moved
played
developed
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: began

8. What is the purpose of blues at first?
To help the slaves speed up their work
To help the slaves relax after work
To remain the culture of the South
To help musicians learn new things
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: To help the slaves speed up their work
9. The word ‘they’ in the last paragraph refers to _________.
bands
groups
musicians
things
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: musicians

10. Which of the following is NOT related to jazz?
It was very structured.
There was not much singing.
There were large bands to perform.
It centered woodwind instruments
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: It was very structured.

NAT TURNER’S SLAVE REVOLT*

By 1804, slavery had existed in the American South for almost 200 years, and many white sla
ve owners assumed it would continue forever. In that yea, however, a slave revolt on the sm
all island of Haiti struck fear into the hearts of whites in the American South. The slave revolt
in Haiti was the first successful slave revolt, and it made whites nervous. The slave populati
on of the American South outnumbered the white population by eight to one. If the Americ
an slaves ever decided to revolt, it would be disaster for the white masters. After 1804, white
slave owners lived in almost constant fear of a slave revolt.

On August 21, 1831, those fears came true. A slave named Nat Turner organized a slave rev
olt in Virginia. [A] Nat Turner was a deeply religious man. He felt that God spoke directly to
him through visions. In 1828, he had seen a vision in which God had told him to fight agains
t his white masters. He spent the next years quietly planning his revolt. His hope was to free
enough slaves to form his own army. Then he would hide in the swamp and carry out a war
against slavery. On the night of August 21, Turner launched his attack. [B] Over the next two
days, Turner went from house to house killing any whites he found and bringing more slave
s into his rebellion. [C] Turner had no real military training, and when federal soldiers arrived,
they quickly defeated his small army. [D] By the time it was over, all 40 of Turner’s men had
been killed or captured and 55 whites were dead.
The white slave owners of Virginia were terrified. They even considered ending slavery for fe
ar of another slave revolt. In the end, however, they decided to simply place even harsher c
ontrol over their slaves. Most of the other slave states followed Virginia’s example, and the li
ves of slaves in the American South became even worse than they had been before.

*
revolt: strong and often violent action by a lot of people against their ruler or government

1. The word “assumed” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________.

believed
wanted
planned
feared
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: believed

2. The author mentions the “slave population” in order to _________.

show how important slavery was to the economy of the South
illustrate how dangerous a slave revolt would be in the South
suggest that there were far more slaves in the South than in Haiti
show how common slavery was in the South
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: illustrate how dangerous a slave revolt would be in the South

3. According to the passage, what effect did the slave revolt in Haiti have on white sla
ve owners in America?
It made them want to end slavery.
It made them create harsher controls for their slaves.
It made them fearful of a slave revolt.
It made them plan a defense against a slave revolt.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: It made them fearful of a slave revolt.

4. According to paragraph 2, all of the following are true of Nat Turner EXCEPT _______
__.
he believed that God had commanded him to kill white slave owners
he believed that God spoke to him in visions
he planned to create an army of slaves
he did not spend much time planning his revolt
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: he did not spend much time planning his revolt

5. Look at the 4 squares [ ] that indicate where the following sentence could be added
to the passage.
The revolt was actually very short, though.
Where would the sentence best fit?
[A]
[B]
[C]
[D]
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: [C]

6. How many years did Turner spend planning his revolt?

One
Two
Three
Four
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Three

7 According to the passage, why wasn’t Turner’s slave revolt successful?

No slaves would join his army.
He had no understanding of military tactics.
He could not hide in the swamp.
White slave owners were not afraid of his revolt.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: He had no understanding of military tactics.

8. The word “harsher” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________.

more carful
stricter
more unjust
angrier
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: stricter

9. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to _________.

white slave owners
slave states
the lives of slaves
slaves in American South
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: the lives of slaves

10. Which of the following statements is not true?

American slave owners lived in constant fear of a slave revolt after the incident in Haiti.
Although his revolt was unsuccessful, Turner killed 40 whites and spread fear among slave o
wners.
Although his objective was to end slavery, Turner’s revolt actually made life worse for the sla
ves.
Whites were greatly outnumbered by their slaves by eight to one.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Although his revolt was unsuccessful, Turner killed 40 whites and spre
ad fear among slave owners.

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Question text
Barn owls, of the family Tytonidae, are anatomically different enough from other owls to me
rit their own family in the order Strigiformes. Instead of the more or less rounded face of mo
st owls, the barn owl has a heart-shaped face and lacks the usual tufted earlike feathers. The
common barn owl is from 12 to 18 inches long and has a white face, cinnamon burr back, b
uff or white breast, and relatively small eyes. The legs are fairly long, feathered to the toes, a
nd, like those of all owls, very strong and equipped with sharp, powerful, curved claws, the o
uter ones being reversible, although they are usually directed backward.
Barn owls nest in hollow trees, caves, and buildings on every continent except Antarctica an
d have adapted so well to living near humans that in some areas they seem to have forsake
n natural nesting places in favor of man-made ones. They hunt in open spaces and have the
largest range of any nocturnal bird. They use their eyesight to locate prey, but their hearing
is so highly developed that they can hunt small mammals in total darkness. Barn owls are ec
onomically valuable because of their preference for small, crop-destroying mammals.

1. It can be inferred from the passage that owls hunt for food in _________.
forests
swampy areas
fields
caves
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: fields

2. According to the passage, barn owls have a highly developed sense of _________.
taste
sight
hearing
touch
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: hearing

3. All of the following are features of the barn owl EXCEPT _________.
small eyes
curved claws
white face
black breast
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: black breast

4. The word "those" in paragraph 1 refers to _________.
legs
eyes
faces
toes
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: legs

5. In paragraph 2, the word "forsaken" could best be replaced by _________.
abandoned
substituted
chosen
preferred
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: abandoned

6. The word "They" in paragraph 2 refers to _________.
natural nesting places
barn owls
humans
open spaces
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: barn owls

7. Which of the following is NOT a customary nesting place for barn owls?
Trees
Fields
Caves
Buildings
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Fields

8. The phrase "economically valuable" as used in the passage means that the barn owl
_________.
is a national treasure
is worth a lot of money
prevents farmers from losing money on crop losses
saves farmers money by eating bad crops
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: prevents farmers from losing money on crop losses
9. This passage would most likely be found in _________.
a book on agriculture
a photographer's handbook
a United States atlas
an encyclopedia of animal life
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: an encyclopedia of animal life

10. In paragraph 2, the word "prey" could best be replaced by _________.
victim
human
bird
hunter
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: victim

A Tropical Cyclone
A tropical cyclone is a violent low pressure storm that usually occurs over warm oceans of o
ver 80°F or 27°C. It winds counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the
Southern Hemisphere as it is described for the term, cyclone itself. This powerful storm is f
ueled by the heat energy that is released when water vapor condenses at high altitude
s, the heat ultimately derived from the sun.
The center of a tropical cyclone, called the eye, is relatively calm and warm. The eye, which is
roughly 20 to 30 miles wide, is clear, mainly because of subsiding air within it. The ring of cl
ouds around the eye is the eyewall, where clouds reach highest, and precipitation is heaviest.
The strong wind, gusting up to 360 kilometers per hour, occurs when a tropical cyclone's ey
ewall passes over land.
There are various names for a tropical cyclone depending on its location and strength. [A] In
Asia, a tropical cyclone is named according to its strength. [B] The strongest is a typhoon; its
winds move at more than 117 kilometers per hour. [C] In India, it is called a cyclone. Over th
e North Atlantic and in the South Pacific, they call it a hurricane. [D]
On average, there are about 100 tropical cyclones worldwide each year. A tropical cyclone p
eaks in late summer when the difference between temperature in the air and sea surface is t
he greatest. However, it has its own seasonal patterns. May is the least active month, while S
eptember is the most active.
The destruction associated with a tropical cyclone results not only from the force of the win
d, but also from the storm surge and the waves it generates. It is born and sustained over la
rge bodies of warm water. And then it loses its strength over inland regions that are compar
atively safe from receiving strong winds. Although the track of a tropical cyclone is very erra
tic, the Weather Service can still issue timely warnings to the public if a tropical cyclone is ap
proaching densely populated areas. If people ever experience a cyclone, they would know h
ow strong it could be.
*altitude: the height of anything above sea level on the earth
*precipitation: the amount of rainfall
*torrential: flowing with rapidity and violence
1. What is the main idea of the passage?
The tropical cyclone is the most powerful force on the earth.
The tropical cyclone can cause flooding and damage to structures.
A tropical cyclone forms over the oceans and has great power.
The tropical cyclone is called by different names around the world.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: A tropical cyclone forms over the oceans and has great power.
2. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highli
ghted sentence in the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important wa
ys or leave out essential information.
Water vapor reduces the sun's energy during strong storms.
Water vapor and the sun's heating are the ingredients of strong storms.
Water vapor disappears at higher altitudes because of the hot sun.
The energy of the storm decreases at higher altitudes.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Water vapor and the sun's heating are the ingredients of strong storm
s.
3. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is true about the eyewall?
The eyewall is formed in cold weather.
When the eyewall passes overhead, the wind weakens.
The temperature is highest around the eye.
The eyewall is a cloud band that surrounds the eye.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
The correct answer is: The eyewall is a cloud band that surrounds the eye.
4. Look at the four squares [ ] that indicate where the following sentence could be add
ed to paragraph 3.
The weakest is a tropical depression, with winds of less than 62 kilometers p
er hour.
Where would the sentence best fit?
[A]
[B]
[C]
[D]
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: [C]

5. What can be inferred about typhoons, cyclones and hurricanes?
Typhoons, cyclones and hurricanes form together above the oceans.
A typhoon is stronger than both the cyclone and the hurricane.
Typhoons, cyclones and hurricanes are all most powerful over a humid ocean.
Although tropical cyclones have different names, they are basically same.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Although tropical cyclones have different names, they are basically sa
me.
6. The word “peaks” in paragraph 4 could best be replaced by ________.
hits the bottom
reaches the highest point
falls down
is the most passive
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: reaches the highest point

7. The word “it” in paragraph 5 refers to ________.
a tropical cyclone
the wind
torrential rain
the storm surge
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: the storm surge

8. The word “erratic” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ________.
complicated
unpredictable
disastrous
explosive
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: unpredictable

9. All of the following are true about a tropical cyclone, EXCEPT that ________.
tropical cyclones are known by various names around the world.
there is the eye that has little or no rain, and the eyewall, which has the violent storm.
tropical cyclones can be very dangerous, especially in the coastal areas.
a tropical cyclone can grow as wide as fifty miles.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: a tropical cyclone can grow as wide as fifty miles.
10. Which paragraph contains the information about the average number of cyclones
every year?
Paragraph 1
Paragraph 2
Paragraph 3
Paragraph 4
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Paragraph 4

Ragtime, developed primarily by black pianists, is a style of composed piano music that was
popular from the 1890s to about 1915. It is a style of jazz characterized by an elaborately sy
ncopated rhythm in the melody and a steadily accented accompaniment. Ragtime quickly g
ained popularity after its first appearances, reaching millions on a national scale through sh
eet music, player pianos, ragtime songs, and arrangements for dance and marching bands. T
he leading ragtime composer was Scott Joplin, known as the "King of Ragtime," whose most
famous piano piece, "Maple Leaf Rag," was published in 1899.
Ragtime piano music has a generally standard form, duple meter (2/4, or two beats per mea
sure) performed at a moderate march tempo. The pianist's right hand plays a highly syncop
ated melody, while the left hand steadily maintains the beat with an "oom-pah" accompani
ment. A ragtime piece usually consists of several similar melodies that take such forms as A
A BB A CC DD or Introduction AA BB CC DD EE, where each letter represents a melodic phra
se. "Maple Leaf Rag" is a classic example of ragtime. About three minutes long, it has the sta
ndard AA BB A CC DD form, and each section is 16 bars in length. The opening melody, in m
arch tempo, features the typical ragtime right-hand syncopations.
The forms of ragtime derive from European marches and dances, but the rhythms are roote
d in African-American folk music, the same rich body of music that became a vital source of
jazz. Early jazz musicians often used ragtime melodies as introductions to their improvisatio
ns. With its syncopations, steady beat, and piano style, ragtime played an integral part in the
jazz legacy.

1. The author's main purpose in the passage is to _________.

compare ragtime and jazz
criticize the compositions of Scott John
show how ragtime is arranged
discuss the origin and elements or ragtime
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: discuss the origin and elements or ragtime
2. The word "its" in paragraph 1 refers to _________.
ragtime
pianist
rhythm
melody
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: ragtime

3. Ragtime reached people nationwide through all of the following EXCEPT _________.
compositions for orchestras
player pianos
sheet music
arrangements for marching bands
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: compositions for orchestras

4. According to the passage, the letters A in AA and B in BB each represent _________.
march tempo
oom-pah accompaniment
a melodic phrase
syncopated melody
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: a melodic phrase

5. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of ragtime?
Fast march tempo
Sixteen-bar sections
Left-hand accompaniment
Highly syncopated melody
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Fast march tempo

6. This passage would be part of required reading in which of the following courses?
African-American history
Music Appreciation
Art History
Social Studies
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Music Appreciation

7. The word "rooted" as used in paragraph 3 means _________.
attached to the ground
unmoving
derived from
never changing
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: derived from

8. The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to _________.
melodic phrase
each letter
ragtime
"Maple Leaf Rag"
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: "Maple Leaf Rag"

9. Which of the following conclusions can be made from this passage?
Ragtime music is complex and hard to identify.
Ragtime was popular only with African-Americans.
Ragtime has an easily recognizable rhythm.
Ragtime is a completely different form of music than jazz.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Ragtime has an easily recognizable rhythm.

10. The word "vital" as used in paragraph 3 means _________.
significant
complex
simple
national
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: significant

THE WORLD GAME

Throughout history, humans have played some kind of kicking game. What the world now c
alls football, or soccer in the U.S., began as far back as 2500 B.C.E. with the Chinese game of
tsu chu. The sport we know today originated in Britain. By the 1840s, England’s Football Ass
ociation established a set of rules, and the modern game was born. Today, more than 120 m
illion players all over the globe participate in the game, truly making soccer the world’s spor
t.

So, why is soccer so popular? Maybe it’s the game’s camaraderie: the feeling that the team o
n the field is your team; their win is your victory, and their loss is your defeat. Or maybe it’s
the game’s international quality. In countries like France, England, Spain, and Brazil, major te
ams have players from many different nations, and these clubs now have fans all over the w
orld. Or perhaps it’s the promise of great wealth. A number of professional soccer players, in
cluding Cameroon’s Samuel Eto’o and Portugal’s Cristiano Ronaldo, come from poor familie
s. Today, both of these players make millions of euros every year.

Soccer is popular for all of these reasons, but ultimately, the main reason for its universal ap
peal may be this: It’s a simple game. It can be played anywhere with anything—a ball, a can,
or even some bags tied together. And anyone can play it. “You don’t need to be rich . . . To
play soccer,” says historian Peter Alegi. “You just need a flat space and a ball.”

It is this unique simplicity that makes soccer the most popular sport in Africa. Here, even in r
ural areas far from the bright lights and big stadiums, children and adults play the game, oft
en with handmade balls.

A Passion for Soccer

The story of soccer in Africa is a long one. In the mid-1800s, European colonists brought the
game to Africa. Early matches were first played in the South African cities of Cape Town and
Port Elizabeth in 1862, and in time, the sport spread across the continent. In the past centur
y, as countries in Africa urbanized and became independent, they joined the International Fe
deration of Association Football (FIFA). Today, some of the game’s best players come from
African nations, including Cameroon, Ivory Coast, Ghana, and Nigeria, and all over the conti
nent, thousands of soccer academies now recruit boys from poorer cities and towns to play
the game. Many learn to play in their bare feet, and they are tough, creative competitors. Th
eir dream is to join a national team or one of the big clubs in Europe someday. For some, th
e dream comes true, but for most, it doesn’t.

But joining a professional team and making a lot of money isn’t the main reason that soccer
is so popular all over Africa, says Abubakari Abdul-Ganiyu, a teacher who works with youth c
lubs in Tamale, Ghana. “Soccer is the passion of everyone here,” he says. “It unifies us.” In fa
ct, more than once, the game has helped in the bonding of people. In Ivory Coast, for exam
ple, immigrants and Muslims faced discrimination for years. Yet many of the country’s best s
occer players are from Muslim and immigrant families. As a result, the national team has bec
ome a symbol of unity and has helped to promote peace throughout the country.

All over Africa, soccer is popular with parents and teachers for another reason: It keeps youn
g people—especially boys—in school and out of trouble. “Most clubs in Tamale, Ghana, do
n’t allow boys to play if they don’t go to school,” explains Abubakari. “We’re trying our best
to help young people and to make them responsible in society. Soccer helps us do this. For
us, soccer is also a tool for hope.”

1. What is this passage mainly about?

the history of soccer
soccer clubs
the popularity of soccer
how African soccer began
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: the popularity of soccer

2. In the second paragraph, which of these is NOT given as a possible reason for socce
r’s popularity?
the team spirit among players
famous players from many different countries
the number of soccer games shown on TV
the possibility of making a lot of money
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: the number of soccer games shown on TV

3. What does the author mean by It’s a simple game.

The rules are easy for people to understand.
You can play it anywhere with anything.
You don’t need talent to play soccer well.
There are many local versions of soccer.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: You can play it anywhere with anything.

4. Where did soccer originate in Africa?

Ivory Coast
Ghana
South Africa
Cameroon
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: South Africa

5. What does some refer to in the passage?

poor boys
soccer academies
national teams
cities and towns
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: poor boys

6. What does “they” refer to in the passage?

academies
boys
cities
clubs
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: boys

7. Which of these statements about the Ivory Coast national team is NOT true?
Many of its best players are from immigrant families.
There are Muslim players on the team.
One of its players is Abubakari Abdul-Ganiyu.
It has helped to encourage peace in the country.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: One of its players is Abubakari Abdul-Ganiyu.

8. The word “unifies” in the passage is closest in the meaning to _________.

gathers
brings together
cooperates
sticks together
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: brings together

9. What is the main idea of the last paragraph?

More schools in Africa are opening soccer clubs.
Soccer helps people get better grades in school.
Soccer helps young people be more responsible.
Older soccer players help younger ones fit into society.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Soccer helps young people be more responsible.

10. Why do teachers and parents like soccer?

The cost is not expensive.
Children are safe to play.
It forces children to attend the class.
It makes players stronger.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: It forces children to attend the class.

 Clara Barton
Clara Barton became known as "The Angel of the Battlefield" during the American Civil War.
She was born in Oxford, Massachusetts in 1821. Clara Barton's interest in helping soldiers on
the battlefield began when she was told army stories from her father. Another event that inf
luenced her decision to help soldiers was an accident brother had. His injuries were cared fo
r by Barton for 2 years. At the time, she was only 11 years old. Barton began teaching school
at the age of 15. She taught for 18 years before she moved to Washington, D.C. in 1854.
The civil war broke out 6 years later. Immediately, Barton started war service by helping the
soldiers with their needs. At the battle of Bull Run, Clara Barton received permission from th
e government to take care of the sick and hurt. Barton did this with great empathy and kind
ness. She acknowledged each soldier as a person. Her endurance and courage on the battl
efield were admired by many. When the war ended in 1865, she used 4 years of her life t
o assist the government in searching for soldiers who were missing during the war.
The search for missing soldiers and years of hard work made her feeble physically. In 1869, h
er doctors recommended a trip to Europe for a rest. [A] While she was on vacation, she beca
me involved with the International Red Cross, an organization set up by the Geneva Convent
ion in 1864. Clara Barton realized that the Red Cross would be a big help to the United State
s. [B] After she returned to the United States, she worked very hard to create an American R
ed Cross. She talked to government leaders and let American people know about the Red Cr
oss. [C] In 1881, the National Society of the Red Cross was finally established with its headqu
arters in Washington, D.C. Clara Barton managed its activities for 23 years. [D]
Barton never let her age stop her from helping people. At the age of 79, she helped flood vi
ctims flood victims in Galveston, Texas. Barton finally resigned from the Red Cross in 1904. S
he was 92 years old and had truly earned her title "The Angel of the Battlefield".

1. What is the main idea of the passage?

Clara Barton helped wounded soldiers, and she was the founder of the Red Cross.
Clara Barton was a kind and strong woman who helped people in need.
Clara Barton became a nurse during the American Civil War.
Clara Barton worked for disaster victims until she was old.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Clara Barton was a kind and strong woman who helped people in nee
d.
2. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true of the young Clara Barton?
She helped her father when he was a soldier.
She suffered from an accident when she was 11.
She helped her brother who was hurt in an accident.
She made a decision to live with her brother for 2 years.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: She helped her brother who was hurt in an accident.
3. The phrase “broke out” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
extended
broke down
closed
began
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: began

4. The word “this” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
recognized each soldier as a person
cooked for soldiers
took care of the sick and hurt
received permission
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: took care of the sick and hurt
5. The word “acknowledged” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by _______.
nursed
recognized
pleaded
believed
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: recognized

6. What can be inferred about the government?
It did not always agree with Clara Barton.
It did not have the money to help Clara Barton.
It showed Clara Barton great empathy and kindness.
It had respect for Clara Barton.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: It had respect for Clara Barton.

7. Which of the sentences best expresses the essential information in the highlighted s
entence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out
essential information.
She asked the government to help her look for soldiers who participated in the war.
She spent 4 years helping the government look for missing soldiers.
Many soldiers were missing when the government's war ended in 1865.
The war did not end until the government helped Clara Barton find some soldiers who were
missing.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: She spent 4 years helping the government look for missing soldiers.
8. Look at the four squares [ ] that indicate where the following sentence could be add
ed to the passage.
At that time, the United States was not a member of that convention.
Where would the sentence best fit?
[A]
[B]
[C]
[D]
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: [B]

9. What does the author mention about the American Red Cross?
It was disapproved again and again by the Geneva Convention.
Barton tried to have it set up in America.
The American people were not interested in the Red Cross.
It was first established in the United States.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The American people were not interested in the Red Cross.
10. All of the following are true about Clara Barton EXCEPT _______
she loved to help people even at a young age.
her father taught her to help people.
she played a big role in establishing an American Red Cross.
she continued to help people until she was old.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: her father taught her to help people.

Jonas Salk is the American physician and medical researcher who developed the first safe an
d effective vaccine for poliomyelitis. Salk received his M.D. in 1939 from New York Universit
y College of Medicine, where he worked with Thomas Francis Jr., who was studying how to d
evelop vaccines from killed viruses. Salk joined Francis in 1942 at the University of Michigan
School of Public Health and became part of a group that was working to develop a vaccine
against influenza.
In 1947, Salk became associate professor of bacteriology and head of the Virus Research La
boratory at the University of Pittsburgh School of Medicine, where he began research on pol
iomyelitis. Working with scientists from other universities in a program to classify the variou
s strains of the polio virus, Salk corroborated other studies in identifying three separate stra
ins. He then demonstrated that killed virus of each of the three, although incapable of prod
ucing the disease, could induce antibody formation in monkeys.
In 1952, he conducted field tests of his killed-virus vaccine, first on children who had recover
ed from polio and then on subjects who had not had the disease. The results of both tests s
howed that the children’s antibody levels rose significantly, and no subjects contracted polio
from the vaccine. His findings were published the following year in the Journal of the Ameri
can Medical Association. In 1954, a mass field trial was held, and the vaccine, injected by nee
dle, was found to safely reduce the incidence of polio. On April 12, 1955, the vaccine was rel
eased for use in the United States.
Salk served successively as professor of bacteriology, preventive medicine, and experimental
medicine at Pittsburgh, and in 1963, he became fellow and director of the Institute for Biolo
gical Studies in San Diego, California, later called the Salk Institute. Among many other hono
rs, he was awarded the Presidential Medal of Freedom in 1977.
1. What is the main idea of the passage?
How Jonas Salk trained to be a physician and medical researcher
How the medical research of Jonas Salk led to the development of the polio vaccine
How Salk and his colleagues learned to kill viruses
How Salk was promoted to important positions at the University of Pennsylvania
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: How the medical research of Jonas Salk led to the development of the
polio vaccine
2. Which of the following is the closest in meaning to the word “vaccine” as used in th
e first paragraph of the passage?
Medicine designed to cure a disease temporarily
Medicine that cures a disease after the patient gets sick
Medicine designed to kill viruses that are fatal to children
Medicine that creates immunity against a disease
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Medicine that creates immunity against a disease
3. In the first paragraph, what was Thomas Francis Jr. studying?
How to prevent the spread of influenza in Michigan
How to work with physicians from Manhattan
How to develop vaccines from killed viruses
How to get a degree in medicine from New York University
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: How to develop vaccines from killed viruses
4. Which sentence in the second paragraph describes Salk’s first work at the University
of Pittsburgh?
The first sentence
The second sentence
The third sentence
None of the above.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The second sentence

5. Which word is closest in meaning to the word “corroborated” as used in the second
paragraph of the passage?
Rejected
Published
Examined
Confirmed
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Confirmed

6. All of the following statements about the killed virus vaccine are true EXCEPT _______
_
it did not induce antibody formation in monkeys
it had three strains that scientists worked with
it was incapable of producing the disease
it helped monkeys form antibodies
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: it did not induce antibody formation in monkeys
7. Look at the word “findings” in paragraph 3. Which of the following words or phrase
s from the previous sentence does the word “findings” refer to?
Results
Antibody levels
Vaccine
Polio
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Results

8. From the passage, it can be inferred that the experimental polio vaccine was given t
o people by _________.
pill
injection
surgery
liquid
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: injection

9. In the passage, it is implied that the Salk Institute was _________.
originally called the Institute for Biological Studies
originally the University of Michigan School of Public Health
originally the Virus Research Laboratory at the University of Pittsburgh
originally the medical school at New York University
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: originally called the Institute for Biological Studies
10. Where in the passage could the following sentence best fit?
“Thousands of children and adults were free from the fears of contracting this terrible
disease.”
At the end of paragraph 1
At the end of paragraph 2
At the end of paragraph 3
At the end of paragraph 4
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: At the end of paragraph 3

Duncan Phyfe made some of the most beautiful furniture found in America. His family name
was originally Fife, and he was born in Scotland in 1768. In 1784, the Fife family immigrated
to Albany, New York where Duncan’s father opened a cabinetmaking shop. Duncan followed
in his father’s footsteps and was apprenticed to a cabinetmaker. After completing his traini
ng, Duncan moved to New York City.
Duncan Fife was first mentioned in the 1792 NYC Directory as a furniture “joiner” in business
at 2 Broad Street. Two years later, he moved, expanded his business, and changed his name
to Phyfe. He was a quiet-living, God-fearing young man who felt his new name would proba
bly appeal to potential customers who were definitely anti-British in this post– Revolutionary
War period.
Duncan Phyfe’s name distinguished him from his contemporaries. Although the new spellin
g helped him better compete with French émigré craftsmen, his new name had more to do
with hanging it on a sign over his door stoop.
The artisans and merchants who came to America discovered a unique kind of freedom. Th
ey were no longer restricted by class and guild traditions of Europe. For the first time in hist
ory, a man learned that by working hard, he could build his business based on his own nam
e and reputation and quality of work.
Phyfe’s workshop apparently took off immediately. At the peak of his success, Phyfe employ
ed 100 craftsmen. Some economic historians point to Phyfe as having employed division of l
abor and an assembly line. What his workshop produced shows Phyfe’s absolute dedication
to quality in workmanship. Each piece of furniture was made of the best available materials.
He was reported to have paid $1,000 for a single Santo Domingo mahogany log.
Phyfe did not create new designs. Rather, he borrowed from a broad range of the period’s cl
assical styles, Empire, Sheraton, Regency, and French Classical among them. Nevertheless, P
hyfe’s high-quality craftsmanship established him as America’s patriotic interpreter of Europ
ean design in the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries.
Although the number of pieces produced by Duncan Phyfe’s workshop is enormous, compa
ratively few marked or labeled pieces have been found extant. In antiques shops and auctio
ns, collectors have paid $11,000 for a card table, $24,200 for a tea table, and $93,500 for a s
ewing table.
1. Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about Duncan Phyfe?
He was an excellent businessman with a good sense of craftsmanship and design.
He regretted that Great Britain no longer governed New York City.
He built all his furniture by himself in a workshop in Santo Domingo.
He joined the cabinetmakers’ guild after he moved to Scotland in 1792.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: He was an excellent businessman with a good sense of craftsmanship
and design.
2. According to the passage, which of the following does the author imply?
Duncan Fife and his father had the same first name.
Duncan Fife worked for his father in Scotland.
Duncan Fife and his father were in the same business.
Duncan Phyfe made over 100 different kinds of tables.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
The correct answer is: Duncan Fife and his father were in the same business.
3. Which sentence in paragraph 2 explains Duncan’s name change?
The first sentence
The second sentence
The third sentence
None of the sentences
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The third sentence

4. What does the word “it” in paragraph 3 refer to?
His spelling
His chair
His French
His name
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: His name

5. Which choice is closest in meaning to the word “guild” in paragraph 4?
Verdict of a jury
Organization of craftsmen
Political party of émigrés
Immigrant’s club
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Organization of craftsmen

6. Which of the following does the word “freedom” in paragraph 4 refer to?
No longer restricted
Restricted
By working hard
Took off
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: No longer restricted

7. Where in the passage could the following sentence be added to the passage?
“Every joint was tight, and the carved elements were beautifully executed.”
After the word “workmanship” in paragraph 5
After the word “cabinetmaker” in paragraph 1
After the word “stoop” in paragraph 3
After the word “table” in the last paragraph
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: After the word “workmanship” in paragraph 5

8. In his business, Duncan Phyfe used all of the following EXCEPT _________.
division of labor
an assembly line
continental designs
the least expensive materials
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: the least expensive materials

9. Based on information in the passage, what can be inferred about Duncan Phyfe’s de
ath?
He died in the eighteenth century.
He died in Albany.
He died in the nineteenth century.
He died in Scotland.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: He died in the nineteenth century.

10. The author implies that _________.
furniture from Duncan Phyfe’s workshop no longer exists
furniture from Duncan Phyfe’s workshop costs a lot of money today
furniture from Duncan Phyfe’s workshop was ignored by New Yorkers
furniture from Duncan Phyfe’s workshop was made by his father
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: furniture from Duncan Phyfe’s workshop costs a lot of money today

People have been donating blood since the early twentieth century to help accident victims
and patients undergoing surgical procedures. Usually a pint of whole blood is donated, and
it is then divided into platelets, white blood cells, and red blood cells. People can donate blo
od (for red blood cells) about once every two months.
Transfusing the blood from the donor to the recipient is straightforward. It involves taking t
he blood from a donor’s arm vein by means of a hypodermic syringe. The blood flows throu
gh a plastic tube to a collection bag or bottle that contains sodium citrate, which prevents t
he blood from clotting.
When the blood is given to a patient, a plastic tube and hypodermic needle are connected t
o the recipient’s arm. The blood flows down from the container by gravity. This is a slow pro
cess and may last as long as 2 hours to complete the infusion of blood into the recipient. Th
e patient is protected from being infected during the transfusion. Only sterile containers, tu
bing, and needles are used, and this helps ensure that transfused or stored blood is not exp
osed to disease- causing bacteria.
Negative reactions to transfusions are not unusual. The recipient may suffer an allergic react
ion or be sensitive to donor leukocytes. Some may suffer from an undetected red-cell inco
mpatibility. Unexplained reactions are also fairly common. Although they are rare, other cau
ses of such negative reactions include contaminated blood, air bubbles in the blood, overloa
ding of the circulatory system through administration of excess blood, or sensitivity to dono
r plasma or platelets.
Today, hospitals and blood banks go to great lengths to screen all blood donors and their bl
ood. All donated blood is routinely and rigorously tested for diseases, such as HIV (which ca
uses AIDS), hepatitis B, and syphilis. When the recipient is a newborn or an infant, the blood
is usually irradiated to eliminate harmful elements. Donated blood is washed, and the white
blood cells and platelets are removed.
Storing the blood sometimes requires a freezing process. To freeze the red blood cells, a gly
cerol solution is added. To unfreeze, the glycerol is removed. The ability to store blood for lo
ng periods has been a boon to human health.
1. Which of the following words is closest in meaning to the word “donating” in the fi
rst paragraph?
Adorning
Giving
Taking
Distributing
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Giving

2. In the first paragraph, the word “it” refers to ________.
accident victims
surgical procedures
a pint of whole blood
surgery patients
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: a pint of whole blood

3. According to the passage, how often can people donate blood for red blood cells?
Every four months
Every three months
Every two months
Every month
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Every two months

4. Where in the passage is the best place for the following sentence?
“Inserting the needle into the recipient’s arm causes little pain.”
After the last sentence in the first paragraph
After the word “syringe” in paragraph 2
After the word “arm” in paragraph 3
After the word “transfusion” in paragraph 3
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: After the word “arm” in paragraph 3

5. Which sentence in paragraph 2 explains how clotting is prevented in the blood cont
ainer?
The first sentence
The second sentence
The third sentence
None of the sentences.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The third sentence

6. All of the following are mentioned as potential negative reactions to transfusions E
XCEPT _________.
allergies
red-cell incompatibility
air bubbles in the blood
sensitivity to donor leukocytes
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: air bubbles in the blood

7. What answer choice is closest in meaning to the word “undetected” in paragraph 4?
Not wanted
Not captured
Not found
Not illustrated
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
The correct answer is: Not found
8. In paragraph 4, the word “they” refers to ________.
Unexplained reactions
Transfusions
Recipients
Causes
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Unexplained reactions

9. Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about blood transfus
ed to infants and newborns?
It is as rigorously tested as blood for adults.
It is treated with radiant energy.
It is not treated differently from adults.
It is not dangerous for children.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: It is treated with radiant energy.

10. What does the author imply in the passage?
Transfusing blood is a dangerous process.
Storing blood benefits mankind.
Clotting cannot be prevented.
Freezing blood destroys platelets.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Storing blood benefits mankind.

Today's cars are smaller, safer, cleaner, and more economical than their predecessors, but th
e car of the future will be far more pollution-free than those on the road today. Several new
types of automobile engines have already been developed that run on alternative sources of
power, such as electricity, compressed natural gas, methanol, steam, hydrogen, and propan
e. Electricity, however, is the only zero-emission option presently available.
Although electric vehicles will not be truly practical until a powerful, compact battery or oth
er dependable source of current is available, transportation experts foresee a new assortme
nt of electric vehicles entering everyday life: shorter-range commuter electric cars, three-wh
eeled neighborhood cars, electric delivery vans, bikes, and trolleys.
As automakers work to develop practical electrical vehicles, urban planners and utility engin
eers are focusing on infrastructure systems to support and make the best use of the new car
s. Public charging facilities will need to be as common as today's gas stations. Public parking
spots on the street or in commercial lots will need to be equipped with devices that allow dr
ivers to charge their batteries while they shop, dine, or attend a concert. To encourage the u
se of electric vehicles, the most convenient parking in transportation centers might be reserv
ed for electric cars.
Planners foresee electric shuttle buses, trains, buses, and neighborhood vehicles all meeting
at transit centers that would have facilities for charging and renting. Commuters will be abl
e to rent a variety of electric cars to suit their needs: light trucks, one-person three-wheelers,
small cars, or electric/gasoline hybrid cars for longer trips, which will no doubt take place o
n automated freeways capable of handling five times the number of vehicles that can be car
ried by a freeway today.

1. The following electrical vehicles are all mentioned in the passage EXCEPT __________.
vans
trains
planes
trolleys
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: planes

2. The author's purpose in the passage is to ________.
criticize conventional vehicles
support the invention of electric cars
narrate a story about alternative energy vehicles
describe the possibilities for transportation in the future
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: describe the possibilities for transportation in the future
3. The passage would most likely be followed by details about _________.
automated freeways
pollution restrictions in the future
the neighborhood or the future
electric shuttle buses
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: automated freeways

4. In the second paragraph the author implies that _________.
a dependable source of electric energy will eventually be developed
everyday life will stay much the same in the future
a single electric vehicle will eventually replace several modes of transportation
electric vehicles are not practical for the future
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: a dependable source of electric energy will eventually be developed
5. According to the passage, public parking lots of the future will be _________.
more convenient than they are today
equipped with charging devices
much larger than they are today
as common as today's gas stations
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: equipped with charging devices

6. This passage would most likely be found in a _________.
medical journal
history book
popular psychology periodical
textbook on urban planning
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: textbook on urban planning

7. The word "charging" in last paragraph refers to _________.
electricity
credit cards
aggression
lightening
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: electricity

8. The word "foresee" in the last paragraph could best be replaced with _________.
count on
invent
imagine
rely on
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: imagine

9. The word “their” in paragraph 3 refers to the _________.
drivers
devices
facilities
gas stations
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: drivers

10. The word “their” in the last paragraph refers to the _________.
cars
commuters
planners
centers
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: commuters

Dating Archeological Sites

Archeologists are scientists who study past cultures. Much of what we know about these cul
tures comes from investigating the places where they lived. For example, an archeologist ma
y examine the site of an ancient farm, or that of an old city. As archeologists slowly and care
fully dig through these sites, the things they find, such as old tools, will tell us a great deal a
bout the people who lived or worked there. When archeologists find such an object, one of
the most difficult and important jobs is to figure out how old it is. This allows them to track t
he development of the culture the object belonged to.
Archeologists use layering to determine the age of the objects they find. The deeper under
ground an object is found, the older it is, because more time has passed to allow dirt to buil
d up over it. This gives archeologists a basic point of comparison. As they dig, archeologists
usually find objects in layers that basically stack one on top of another. Archeologists can t
hen guess that the objects they find in a particular layer all come from the same basic time
period. [A] One of the problems with layering, however, is that it only tells us if an object is
younger or older than other objects found at the same site. It does not tell us exactly how ol
d a particular object is. [B]
For that, archeologists must use radiocarbon dating. [C] Carbon exists in two basic forms. C
arbon-12 is stable while carbon-14 is unstable and, in the end, turns into carbon-12. [D]. All
living things have an equal percentage of carbon-12 and carbon-14 in their bodies. When th
ey die, however, they stop taking carbon-14 into their bodies. And that percentage slowly ch
anges as the carbon-14 turns into carbon-12. From measuring the amount of carbon-14 fou
nd in bones or in products that come from plants at a site, we can learn exactly how old the
y are.

1. What is the main idea of the passage?

Ways archeologists use to determine the age of objects
Places archeologists dig to find objects
Requirements to become archeologists
Factors affecting the results of age of objects
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Ways archeologists use to determine the age of objects
2. The word “site” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
view
location
evidence
wreckage
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: location

3. According to paragraph 1, it is important to decide the age of objects found during
an archeology dig because _______.
this is the most difficult part of the archeology dig
this allows us to understand how the civilization developed
this allows us to know which culture the object belonged to
this allows us to better understand how ancient farms worked
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: this allows us to understand how the civilization developed
4. The author mentions “old tool” in order to ________.
illustrate the equipment archeologists use to dig
give an example of objects archeologists can find
emphasize things ancient people used to work in farms
show the development in creating things of ancient people
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: give an example of objects archeologists can find
5. The word “determine” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
decide
control
discover
damage
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: discover

6. According to the passage, what can be inferred about a knife buried several inches
below a shovel?
The knife came from a more advanced culture than the shovel.
The shovel was used to bury the knife.
The knife and the shovel came from two different cultures.
The knife was older than the shovel.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The knife was older than the shovel.
7. The phrase “one on top of another” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
objects
layers
archeologists
archeology sites
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: layers

8. According to paragraph 3, all of the following are true of carbon-14 EXCEPT _______.
it eventually is converted into carbon -12
it is present in all living things
it is essential to layer dating
it is used to decide the exact age of an object
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: it is essential to layer dating

9. According to the passage, it can be inferred that radiocarbon dating ________.
is useless in dating metal tools
has allowed us to know the full history of ancient cultures
is a relatively new tool for archeologists
requires expensive equipment not available to all archeologists
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: is useless in dating metal tools

10. Look at the 4 squares [ ] that indicate where the following sentence could be adde
d to the passage.
 This happens at a steady pace.
Where would the sentence best fit?
[A]
[B]
[C]
[D]
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: [D]

NEGOTIATION
The increase in international business and in foreign investment has created a need for exec
utives with knowledge of foreign languages and skills in cross-cultural communication. Ame
ricans, however, have not been well trained in either area and, consequently, have not
enjoyed the same level of success in negotiation in an international arena as have thei
r foreign counterparts.
Negotiating is the process of communicating back and forth for the purpose of reaching an
agreement. It involves persuasion and compromise, but in order to participate in either one,
the negotiators must understand the ways in which people are persuaded and how compro
mise is reached within the culture of the negotiation.
In many international business negotiations abroad, Americans are perceived as wealthy an
d impersonal. It often appears to the foreign negotiator that the American represents a larg
e multimillion- dollar corporation that can afford to pay the price without bargaining further.
The American negotiator’s role becomes that of an impersonal purveyor of information an
d cash, an image that succeeds only in undermining the negotiation.
In studies of American negotiators abroad, several traits have been identified that may serve
to confirm this stereotypical perception, while subverting the negotiator’s position. Two trait
s in particular that cause cross-cultural misunderstanding are directness and impatience on t
he part of the American negotiator. Furthermore, American negotiators often insist on realizi
ng short-term goals.
Foreign negotiators, on the other hand, may value the relationship established between neg
otiators and may be willing to invest time in it for long-term benefits. In order to solidify the
relationship, they may opt for indirect interactions without regard for the time involved in g
etting to know the other negotiator.
Clearly, perceptions and differences in values affect the outcomes of negotiations and the s
uccess of negotiators. For Americans to play a more effective role in international business n
egotiations, they must put forth more effort to improve cross-cultural understanding.
1. What is the author’s main point?
Negotiation is the process of reaching an agreement.
Foreign languages are important for international business.
Foreign perceptions of American negotiators are based on stereotypes.
American negotiators need to learn more about other cultures.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: American negotiators need to learn more about other cultures.
2. According to the author, what is the purpose of negotiation?
To undermine the other negotiator’s position
To communicate back and forth
To reach an agreement
To understand the culture of the negotiators
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: To reach an agreement

3. The word “persuaded” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________
respected
accused
informed
convinced
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: convinced

4. The word “impersonal” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________.
indifferent
friendly
confident
humorous
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: indifferent

5. The word “undermining” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________.
making known
making clear
making brief
making weak
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
The correct answer is: making weak
6. The word “that” in paragraph 3 refers to _________.
bargaining
role
corporation
price
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: role

7. What does the author mean by the statement in paragraph 1?
“Americans, however, have not been well trained in either area and, consequently, have not e
njoyed the same level of success in negotiation in an international arena as have their foreign
counterparts”
Training is not available for Americans who must interact in international negotiations.
Foreign businesspersons negotiate less effectively than Americans because of their training.
Because their training is not as good, Americans are less successful as negotiators than their
international counterparts.
Foreign businesspersons do not like to negotiate with Americans, who are not well trained.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Because their training is not as good, Americans are less successful as
negotiators than their international counterparts.
8. According to the passage, how can American businesspersons improve their negotia
tion skills?
By living in a foreign culture
By getting to know the negotiators
By compromising more often
By explaining the goals more clearly
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: By getting to know the negotiators

9. The American negotiator is described as all of the following EXCEPT _________.
perceived by foreign negotiators as wealthy
willing to invest time in relationships
known for direct interactions
interested in short-term goals
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: willing to invest time in relationships

10. The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses _________.
ways to increase cross-cultural understanding
traits that cause cross-cultural misunderstanding
knowledge of foreign languages
relationships between negotiators
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: ways to increase cross-cultural understanding

FUNGI
Fungi are a group of organisms that, despite being plants, have no leaves or flowers. In fact,
fungi do not even share the green color that most other plants display. Scientists estimate t
hat there are over 1.5 million different species of fungi in the world. Though, to date, only 10
0,000 have been identified, leaving many more that have not been found. One interesting fe
ature of fungi is that they often interact with other organisms in order to survive. These relat
ionships are at times beneficial to both organisms. Other times, the fungus benefits without
causing harm to the other organism.
Many types of fungus have beneficial relationships with plants. Initially, many gardeners wo
uld be concerned to know that their plants were colonized by a fungus. This is because som
e fungi can cause plants to die. In fact, the Irish potato famine was caused by a fungus that k
illed entire crops of potatoes. However, many plants actually depend on certain types of fun
gi to help it stay healthy. Fungi are important to plants because they help plants absorb mo
re minerals from the soil than they could on their own. The reason for this has to do with ho
w fungi obtain food. Unlike green plants, fungi cannot make their own food. They must abs
orb their food. When the fungi absorb minerals from the soil, they draw the nutrients
closer to the roots of the plant, so the plant is able to use them as well. The fungus also
benefits from this relationship Using the minerals from the soil, as well as sunlight, the plant
is able to produce sugars and other nutrients. Then the fungus absorbs the nutrients from pl
ant roots and uses them to survive.
Not all relationships are beneficial for both organisms; in some interactions, only the fungu
s benefits. Still, for some fungus species, contact with other organisms is essential. And thou
gh the fungi do not provide any benefits for the other organism, they do not harm it either.
One example of this is a species called Pilobolus. This fungus relies on other animals to help
it reproduce: The pilobolus grows in animal dung. When it becomes mature, it shoots its spo
res away from the dung pile. The spores land in the grass where cows graze. The spores are
consumed by the animal but do not grow while inside the stomach. They travel through the
body of the animal until they are passed and deposited in another area, where they continu
e to grow.

1. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true of fungi?

Many species have yet to be discovered.
Fungi can grow on mushrooms.
They can have green or dull brown colors.
There are 100,000 species left to identify.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Many species have yet to be discovered.

2. The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to _________.
mushrooms
scientists
environments
fungi
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: fungi

3. The word “absorb” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
move
throw away
change
take in
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: take in

4. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 2 about how plants get foo
d?
They don’t absorb food from the soil.
They can't make food without sugar.
They can make their own food.
They use the fungus as food.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: They can make their own food.
5. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the following sen
tence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out es
sential information.
 “They must absorb their food. When the fungi absorb minerals from the soil, they dr
aw the nutrients closer to the roots of the plant, so the plant is able to use them as well.”
The plant is able to benefit when the fungus uses up all the nutrients in the soil.
The fungus uses the same minerals previously absorbed by the plant.
After the plant has absorbed the nutrients, the fungus is able to use them, too,
The plant uses nutrients that the fungus attracts to the nearby soil.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The plant uses nutrients that the fungus attracts to the nearby soil.
6. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT true about fungus growin
g on or near plants?
It can help maintain the plant’s health.
It neither benefits nor harms the plant.
It is sometimes dangerous for plants.
It grows near the roots of the plant.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: It neither benefits nor harms the plant.
7. The word “beneficial” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
rapid
direct
helpful
valuable
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: helpful

8. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is true of the Pilobolus fungus?
It doesn’t benefit from its relationship with animals.
It needs other organisms in order to reproduce.
It matures inside the stomachs of cows and horses.
It causes horses and cows to become ill.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: It needs other organisms in order to reproduce.

9. The word “graze” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________.
eat
live
view
grow
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
The correct answer is: eat
10. The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to the _________.
spores
animals
organisms
fungi
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: spores

CẬP NHẬT THÁNG 11/2022

A diver descends into an underwater cave, a scientist researches a dangerous disease, and a
n entrepreneur invests in a new business. Each time we try something new, we take a risk. S
ometimes, like the diver or the businessman, we take big risks, usually for obvious reasons—
for fame, for money, or to save lives. Most people will take some risk to achieve one of thes
e goals. But as the danger increases, the number of people willing to go forward decreases.
Only extreme risk-takers continue on. The question is: What exactly drives these people to g
o on when others would stop?
The Biology of risk
To answer this question, scientists are studying the biological factors involved in risk-taking.
Their research focuses on certain chemicals in the brain. An important chemical in risk-takin
g is dopamine. It motivates us to seek out and learn new things, and it helps us process emo
tions like anxiety and fear. People whose brains don’t produce enough dopamine often lack
motivation and interest in life. On the other hand, “someone who takes risks to accomplish s
omething—to climb a mountain or start a company—that’s driven by motivation, and motiv
ation is driven by dopamine,” says Larry Zweifel, a neurobiologist at the University of Washin
gton. “It’s what compels humans to move forward.”[A]
When we accomplish a task, dopamine produces a feeling of satisfaction; it makes us feel go
od. The riskier the task, the more dopamine we produce, and the better we feel. Given this,
why isn’t everyone trying to climb mountains or start businesses? In part, it’s because of sma
ll molecules called autoreceptors. These receptors control dopamine use in the brain. A pers
on with more autoreceptors tends to be more careful, as there is less dopamine moving free
ly around his or her brain. “Think of dopamine like gasoline,” says neuropsychologist David
Zald. The autoreceptors, on the other hand, are like the brakes on a car. A person who is less
able to use brakes is more likely to take risks.
Dealing with Fear
Dopamine production may make us feel good, but being in a high-risk situation for an exte
nded period of time is also stressful and can be dangerous. Successful risk-takers must learn
to deal with the fear associated with high-risk situations to reduce stress and stay safe. [B]
(PARAGRAPH 5) In reality, adapting to risk is something we all learn to do. Take, for examp
le, learning to drive a car. At first, a new driver may be afraid to travel on freeways. In time, t
hough, as the driver gains experience, he or she will move comfortably into speeding traffic
and will worry less about the danger. Similarly, a tightrope walker first learns to walk on a be
am on the ground. Later, he or she moves to a rope just off the ground, and then finally to t
he high wire. By this point, the tightrope walker is in control and the activity doesn’t feel dan
gerous. By practicing a challenging activity, humans can become used to the risk, manage th
e danger, and control the fear that they feel in those situations. [C]
The work that marine biologist and deep-sea diver Rhian Waller does illustrates this well. Sh
e studies life in some of the deepest and coldest waters on Earth. How does Waller control h
er fear and stay safe in these high-risk situations? “It comes with practice,” she says. “It’s kno
wing exactly what to do when something goes wrong. We prepare well for each of our expe
ditions, and we try to minimize the number of risks we take.”
Of course, a person doesn’t have to be a tightrope walker or a deep-sea diver to be a risk-ta
ker. Taking risks is part of being human. We are all motivated to experience new things. In o
rder to do so, we have to take chances and, of course, we may fail. [D]
1. What is the passage mainly about?
Success and failure
Taking risks
How to overcome fear
How to start businesses
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Success and failure

2. According to the article, what is a common reason for people to take large risks?
a desire for fame
a lack of dopamine
to control motivation
to learn new things
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: a desire for fame

3. What is one of the main functions of dopamine?
It allows us to talk.
It allows us to be alert.
It helps us process emotions.
It makes us fear dangerous situations.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: It helps us process emotions.

4. What does Larry Zweifel think about dopamine?
It makes people motivated.
It saves people’s lives
It is like gasoline
It helps people stay safe.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: It makes people motivated.

5. The word “just” in paragraph 5 could be replaced with ________.
slightly
only
recently
finally
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: slightly

6. What do autoreceptors do?
They make us less careful.
They make us feel better.
They control dopamine in our brain.
They connect molecules in our brain.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: They control dopamine in our brain.

7. The following sentence would best be placed at the end of which paragraph?
But with enough practice, we might also succeed.
[A]
[B]
[C]
[D]
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: [D]

8. What is the purpose of paragraph 5?
to show why driving and tightrope walking are such risky activities
to give examples of how practicing a risky activity can reduce fear of it
to illustrate how some people are attracted to risky activities while others aren’t
to explain why some activities are riskier and more dangerous than others
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: to give examples of how practicing a risky activity can reduce fear of it
9. What does the word “they” in paragraph 5 refer to?
humans
freeways
drivers
risks
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: humans

10. What can we infer about marine biologist Rhian Waller?
She has learned to adapt to risk.
She has been afraid of the ocean for most of her life.
She prefers to do her job when there is danger involved.
She thinks it is impossible to prepare for most risks.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: She has learned to adapt to risk.

DANGEROUS JOURNEY
IT’S AN ASTOUNDING FEAT: Every summer, three billion birds of some 300 species—song
birds, waterbirds, and many others—migrate from northern Africa to Europe and Asia. In the
winter, they return to Africa’s warmer shores. As they travel from one place to another, they
navigate using the sun, the stars, smells, and landforms to help them find their way.
Both large and small birds travel thousands of kilometers, often stopping at locations along
the way to rest. In late fall in the northern hemisphere, for example, golden orioles fly from
northern to southern Europe, and then cross the Mediterranean Sea into Africa. The birds of
ten stop at different oases in northern Africa before flying almost 1,600 kilometers (over 1,00
0 miles) across the Sahara Desert and then on to central and southern Africa.
The birds’ migration is long and difficult, and some of the animals inevitably die during each
trip. However, it is not this twice-a-year journey that poses the greatest risk to these animals.
The main threat to the birds’ survival comes from human hunters. All over the Mediterranea
n, millions of migrating birds are killed for food, profit, and sport every year. As a result, bird
populations are dropping all over the region.
In nations along the Mediterranean, many migratory birds are illegally trapped or shot. In ad
dition to traps, hunters also use electronic calls to catch birds. This tool, which a hunter can
operate from a cell phone, mimics bird sounds and is very effective in attracting the animals
—so effective that in some countries, bird populations have plummeted. “There are no bird
s,” says one Albanian man. “We walk for hours without seeing any. It’s really scary.” Some hu
nters also use nets to capture birds as they fly close to the sea. The nets are high—going fro
m ground level to just over 3 meters (11 feet)— and invisible to the birds, allowing hunters t
o trap hundreds of birds at a time.
Working for Change
Countries all over the Mediterranean are aware that bird populations are in danger, and ma
ny are working to address this problem. In the European Union, hunting migratory birds is ill
egal in some countries, while in others, it is strictly controlled—the birds can only be hunted
at a certain time of year. This hasn’t completely stopped bird poaching in Europe, but more
nature-protection groups are making sure that laws are obeyed. The organization WWF Italy,
for example, works with volunteers to stop poachers and destroy birdsong devices that attra
ct birds. This has been successful in many places throughout the country. Sicily, for example,
was once a hot spot for illegal bird hunting. Today, it has mostly eliminated poaching, and bi
rdwatching is becoming popular on the island.
Across the Mediterranean, another group—Nature Conservation Egypt—is working to incre
ase protection of its country’s natural scenery and wildlife, including its migratory birds. As p
art of a current project, the organization is trying to promote activities such as eco-tourism
along the coasts. The hope is that, as more tourists come to visit protected natural areas, th
ere will be an incentive to care for the birds and their habitats. If this happens, say conservat
ionists, bird populations will quickly return to normal.
Wildlife organizations around the Mediterranean are helping to bring about change. Huntin
g bans are working, says Martin Schneider-Jacoby, a bird specialist for the German organizat
ion EuroNature. But there is still more to do. Conservationists hope to stop hunting and rest
ore bird habitats all over the Mediterranean. If this can be done, the birds’ numbers will incr
ease. There’s a long way to go, Schneider-Jacoby says, but like an oasis in the desert after a l
ong journey, there is hope.
1. This reading is mainly about ________.
problems caused by migrating birds
how birds are being hunted worldwide
how tourism is causing a drop in bird population
dangers to migrating birds in the Mediterranean
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: dangers to migrating birds in the Mediterranean

2. The purpose of the first paragraph is to describe ________.
how many birds travel large distances to and from Africa
why some birds migrate while others do not
why bird numbers are starting to drop in the Mediterranean
how migrating birds are able to use stars as a tool for navigation
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: how many birds travel large distances to and from Africa
3. What is the biggest danger to migrating birds?
crossing the Sahara Desert
lack of food
being hunted by humans
storms in the Mediterranean
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: being hunted by humans

4. Which of these is NOT mentioned as a way of attracting and catching birds?
traps
offering food
nets
bird calls
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: offering food

5. What does the word they in paragraph 4 refer to?
birds
hunters
nets
countries
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: birds

6. Which is true about the nets?
The nets are big and expensive.
The nets cannot be seen by birds.
The nets must be colorful to attract birds.
The nets are high and visible.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The nets cannot be seen by birds.

7. Why has bird-watching become popular in Sicily?
The weather has changed and become more pleasant.
There is now very little poaching of birds.
Some extremely rare birds have been seen in Sicily.
Birdsong devices are attracting more birds to the area.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: There is now very little poaching of birds.
8. What is Nature Conservation Egypt doing to protect the birds?
eliminating hunting
promoting eco-tourism
banning birdsong devices
allowing hunting only at a certain time
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: promoting eco-tourism

9. Which of these statements would Martin Schneider-Jacoby probably agree with the
most?
More countries need to ban hunting to restore bird numbers.
It’s likely that bird populations will continue to decrease.
There needs to be more protection of desert oases.
The only way to increase bird populations is to allow limited hunting.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: More countries need to ban hunting to restore bird numbers.
10. What will happen when the hunting bans are put into practice?
There are more habitats for birds.
There are more tourists.
Hunters will decrease.
More studies on birds will be conducted.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: There are more habitats for birds.

MICKEY MOUSE

Mickey Mouse was not Walt Disney’s first successful cartoon creation, but he is certainly his
most famous one. It was on a cross- country train trip from New York to California in 1927 t
hat Disney first drew the mouse with the big ears. Supposedly, he took his inspiration from t
he tame field mice that used to scamper into his old studio in Kansas City. No one is quite s
ure why he dressed the mouse in the now-familiar shorts with two buttons and gave him th
e yellow shoes. But we do know that Disney had intended to call him Mortimer until his wife
Lillian intervened and christened him Mickey Mouse.
Capitalizing on the interest in Charles Lindbergh, Disney planned Mickey’s debut in the shor
t cartoon Plane Crazy, with Minnie as a co-star. In the third short cartoon, Steamboat Willie,
Mickey was whistling and singing through the miracle of the modern soundtrack. By the 19
30s Mickey’s image had circled the globe. He was a superstar at the height of his career.
Although he has received a few minor changes throughout his lifetime, most notably t
he addition of white gloves and the alterations to achieve the rounder forms of a mor
e childish body, he has remained true to his nature since those first cartoons. Mickey is
appealing because he is nice. He may get into trouble, but he takes it on the chin with a gri
n. He is both good-natured and resourceful. Perhaps that was Disney’s own image of himsel
f. Why else would he have insisted on doing Mickey’s voice in all the cartoons for twenty yea
rs? When interviewed, he would say. “There is a lot of the mouse in me.” And that mouse ha
s remained one of the most pervasive images in American popular culture.

1. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?

The image of Mickey Mouse
The life of Walt Disney
The history of cartoons
The definition of American culture
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The image of Mickey Mouse

2. What distinguished Steamboat Willie from earlier cartoons?
Better color
A soundtrack
Minnie Mouse as co-star
The longer format
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: A soundtrack

3. The word “miracle” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
effect
wonder
demonstration
alteration
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: wonder

4. The word “pervasive” in the last paragraph could best be replaced by _________.
well loved
widespread
often copied
expensive to buy
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: widespread

5. The word “appealing” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
attractive
famous
exceptional
distinguishable
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: attractive

6. The word “those” in the last paragraph refers to _________.
cartoons
forms
gloves
changes
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: cartoons

7. What does the author mean by the statement in the last paragraph?
“Although he has received a few minor changes throughout his lifetime, most notably the addi
tion of white gloves and the alterations to achieve the rounder forms of a more childish body,
he has remained true to his nature since those first cartoons”?
The current version of Mickey Mouse is different in every way from the early cartoons.
The original Mickey Mouse was one of the first cartoon characters.
In the first cartoons, Mickey Mouse looked more like a child.
The personality of Mickey Mouse has not changed over the years.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: The personality of Mickey Mouse has not changed over the years.
8. What did Disney mean when he said, “There is a lot of the mouse in me”?
He was proud of the mouse that he created.
He knew that the mouse would be a famous creation.
He created the mouse with many of his own qualities.
He had worked very hard to create the mouse.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
The correct answer is: He created the mouse with many of his own qualities.
9. The first image of Mickey Mouse is described as all of the following EXCEPT _________.
he was dressed in shorts with two buttons
he had big ears
he wore yellow shoes
he was wearing white gloves
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: he was wearing white gloves

10. The paragraph following this passage most probably discusses _________.
the history of cartoons
other images in popular culture
Walt Disney’s childhood
the voices of cartoon characters
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: other images in popular culture

VOLCANOES ARE BOTH CREATORS AND DESTROYERS. They can shape lands and culture
s, but can also cause great destruction and loss of life. Two of the best-known examples are
found at opposite ends of the world, separated by the Pacific Ring of Fire.
Japan’s Sacred Summit
(PARAGRAPH 3) It’s almost sunrise near the summit of Japan’s Mount Fuji. Exhausted climb
ers, many of whom have hiked the 3,776 meters (12,388 feet) through the night to reach this
point, stop to watch as the sun begins its ascent, spreading its golden rays across the mount
ain. For everyone, this is an important moment: They have witnessed the dawn on Mount Fu
ji—the highest point in the Land of the Rising Sun. Located in the center of Japan, Mount Fuj
i (whose name means “without equal”) is a sacred site. Japan’s native religion, Shintoism, co
nsiders Fuji a holy place. Other people believe the mountain and its waters have the power t
o make a sick person well. For many, climbing Fuji is also a rite of passage. Some do it as par
t of a religious journey; for others, it is a test of strength. Whatever their reason, reaching th
e top in order to stand on Fuji’s summit at sunrise is a must for many Japanese—and every J
uly and August, almost 400,000 people attempt to do so.
(PARAGRAPH 4) Fuji is more than a sacred site and tourist destination, however. It is also a
n active volcano around which four million people have settled, and sits just 112 kilometers
(70 miles) from the crowded streets of Tokyo. The last time Fuji exploded, in 1707, it sent ou
t a cloud of ash that covered the capital city and darkened the skies for weeks.
(PARAGRAPH 5) Today, new data have some volcanologists concerned that Fuji may soon
erupt again. According to Motoo Ukawa and his associates at the National Research Institut
e for Earth Science and Disaster Prevention, there has been an increase in activity under Fuji
recently, which may be caused by low-frequency earthquakes. Understanding what causes t
hese quakes may help scientists predict when Fuji, the largest of Japan’s 86 active volcanoes,
will come back to life. In the meantime, locals living near Fuji hold special festivals each year
to offer gifts to the goddess of the volcano—as they have for generations—so that she will
not erupt and destroy the land and its people below.
Mexico’s Smoking Mountain
(PARAGRAPH 6) Halfway across the globe from Fuji, Popocatépetl—one of the world’s talle
st and most dangerous active volcanoes—stands just 60 kilometers (37 miles) southeast of
Mexico City. Although the volcano (whose name means “smoking mountain”) has erupted m
any times over the centuries, scientists believe its last great eruption occurred around 820 A.
D. In recent years, however, El Popo, as Mexicans call the mountain, has been threatening to
explode once more; in December 2000, almost 26,000 people were evacuated when El Popo
started to send out ash and smoke. As with all active volcanoes, the question is not if it will
erupt again (an eruption is inevitable); the question is when it will happen.
(PARAGRAPH 7) “Every volcano works in a different way,” explains Carlos Valdés González,
a scientist who monitors El Popo. “What we’re trying to learn here are the symptoms signali
ng that El Popo will erupt.” These include earthquakes, or any sign that the mountain’s surfa
ce is changing or expanding. The hope is that scientists will be able to warn people in the su
rrounding areas so theyhave enough time to escape. A powerful eruption could displace ov
er 20 million people—people whose lives can be saved if the warning is delivered early enou
gh.
(PARAGRAPH 8) For many people living near El Popo— especially the farmers—abandonin
g their land is unthinkable. As anyone who farms near a volcano knows, the world’s richest s
oils are volcanic. They produce bananas and coffee in Central America, fine wines in Californi
a, and enormous amounts of rice in Indonesia.
1. Which of these statements is NOT true about volcanoes?
They can create more lands.
They are just destroyers.
They bring good things and bad things.
They can shape cultures.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: They are just destroyers.

2. What is the third paragraph mainly about?
how Mount Fuji became an important religious site
the healing properties of Mount Fuji
reasons people climb Mount Fuji
the visitors to Mount Fuji
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: reasons people climb Mount Fuji

3. Why do people think about water in Mount Fuji?
It can help people recover from illness.
It is very cold but clean.
It helps people younger
It is important in religious rituals.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: It can help people recover from illness.
4. Which of these statements about Mount Fuji is NOT true?
It is the largest volcano in Japan.
Scientists believe it may erupt soon.
It has erupted recently.
Locals have traditions concerning the mountain.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: It has erupted recently.

5. In paragraph 7, the word “symptoms” could be replaced with _________.
earthquakes
signs
sounds
lessons
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: signs

6. What does the word they in paragraph 7 refer to?
scientists
earthquakes
people in the surrounding areas
ashes and smokes from El Popo
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: people in the surrounding areas

7. Scientists can date the last great eruption of El Popo _________.
by talking to people who experienced the event
from videos of the eruption
from investigating geological evidence
from descriptions in religious books
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: from investigating geological evidence

8. What was the reason for the evacuation from El Popo in 2000?
Ash and smoke were seen coming from the mountain.
A large earthquake was felt.
A change in the mountain’s surface was noticed.
A powerful eruption took place.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Ash and smoke were seen coming from the mountain.
9. How many people must evacuate because of El Popo in 2000?
26,000 people
over 20 million people
almost 400,000
almost 10,000 people
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: 26,000 people

10. The following sentence would best be placed at the end of which paragraph?
For this reason, people will stay on their land, even if they face danger.
4
6
7
8
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: 8

THE POWER OF COLOR
Over the centuries, the sources of colors such as blue, purple, and red were carefully guarde
d and were often worth as much as gold. In the 19th century, a young chemistry student bec
ame the first to manufacture a synthetic dye, and suddenly the world became a much more
colorful place. By the 20th century, as scientists discovered the psychological effects of color
s, everyone from advertisers to educators found ways to make use of color to influence our f
eelings and behavior.
Red
Red, the color of human blood, has traditionally symbolized intensity, fire, love, and anger. I
n Eastern cultures, it also represents luck, wealth, and success. In humans, the color red can s
end different messages. Some people redden, for example, when they are angry or embarra
ssed, sending a clear signal to others about how they are feeling. British anthropologists Rus
sell Hill and Robert Barton of the University of Durham found that when opponents in a ga
me are equally matched, the team dressed in red is more likely to win. Why? According to B
arton, “red seems to be the color, across species, that signals dominance”—giving those dre
ssed in red an advantage in sporting events. In many animal species (including humans), con
tact with this bold color causes the heart rate to accelerate. However, one of red’s lighter sh
ades, pink, can have the opposite effect on people. Men in prisons 4 are reported to be more
passive when the walls are painted a specific shade of pink.
Humans have also used the color red in everything from politics to advertising. Many food p
roducts in the U.S., for example, are packaged in red containers. Why? The color makes the
product look as if it is advancing toward a shopper.
Yellow
Yellow, the color we most often associate with sunshine, is found throughout nature and the
man-made world as a color that commands attention; indeed, it is one of the easiest colors t
o see. This highly visible shade is found on everything from school buses to traffic signs and
pens used to highlight important information in a text. The color is also used to caution peo
ple. Soccer players, for example, are shown yellow as a reminder to behave. It can be used a
s a stimulant as well: In a number of studies, yellow has been found to help children focus o
n their work and do better in school.
Blue
Blue, the color of sky and sea, has long been associated in many cultures with water, holy or
religious objects, and protection against evil. Over the years, darker shades of the color have
also come to represent calm, stability, and power. Dark blue, for example, is the color of the
business suit or police uniform; it tells others, “I am in control” or “You can trust me.” In othe
r cultures, blue has been associated with sadness. It’s common in English, for example, whe
n feeling sad or depressed, to talk about “feeling blue,” while in Iran, blue is the color of mo
urning, worn when a person dies.
Like pink, blue has a neutral, calming effect on people. Rooms painted blue help people rela
x or sleep. (Sleeping pills are often colored blue to suggest exactly this idea.) The color also
seems to inhibit hunger. Blue food is rarely seen in nature, and when it is, such food is usuall
y no longer healthy to consume (with the exception of certain fruits like blueberries). Thus, e
ating off blue plates may reduce one’s hunger. So if you’re planning to lose weight, try addi
ng a blue light to your refrigerator—it will make the food inside look less appetizing. It’s just
one more example of the power that color can hold over us.
1. What is this reading mainly about?
how color influences our lives
the various sources for extracting color
how views about color have changed
how certain colors can have a calming effect
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: how color influences our lives

2. The first non-natural colors were produced ________.
many centuries ago
in the 19th century
in the 20th century
only recently
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: in the 19th century

3. According to the passage, which color can give a sports team a competitive advanta
ge?
black
yellow
blue
red
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: red

4. In paragraph 2, what does the word “accelerate” mean?
go slower
go faster
become uneven
become louder
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: go faster

5. Why does the author mention soccer players?
To demonstrate that yellow can caution people.
To prove that yellow can help people play sports well.
To give example about the role of yellow at work.
To prove that people can overcome negative feelings thanks to yellow.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: To demonstrate that yellow can caution people.
6. Which color has been used to help children study better?
red
yellow
blue
pink
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: yellow

7. Where does blue symbolize death?
in Iran
in the USA
in Eastern countries
everywhere in the world
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: in Iran

8. In paragraph 6, “this idea” refers to ________.
inhibiting hunger
blue food
relaxation
painting rooms
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: relaxation

9. According to the passage, what do the colors pink and blue have in common?
They both have a calming effect.
They both make people less hungry.
They both express sadness.
They both represent power.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: They both have a calming effect.

10. According to the passage, what should people do to lose weight?
light your refrigerator with blue
eat off blue plates
eat more fruits
take sleeping pills
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: light your refrigerator with blue

CHINA’S GRAND CANAL
(PARAGRAPH 1) For centuries, the power of Chinese emperors rose and fell with their cont
rol of the Grand Canal. Today, this important waterway is shorter than it once was, but it is st
ill the longest man-made river in the world, and continues to play an important cultural and
economic role in modern China.
Construction Begins
(PARAGRAPH 2) The original canal system began around the year 605, when Emperor Yang
realized that—in order to feed his army—he needed a way to move food quickly from Chin
a’s southern rice-growing region to the country’s north. An estimated one million people, m
ostly farmers, worked to build the first section of the Grand Canal, which connected existing
canals, lakes, and rivers. Construction took six years and was completed in 611.
(PARAGRAPH 3) Over the next 500 years, the canal’s importance grew throughout China, b
ut by 1127, parts were deteriorating. In 1279, Kublai Khan began to repair and build new par
ts of the canal. This renovation created a more direct north–south route to and from Beijing.
Future rulers then continued to expand and improve the canal.
A nation’s lifeline
(PARAGRAPH 4) In addition to moving rice around China, the Grand Canal was also an imp
ortant cultural conduit. Soldiers, merchants, and artists transported ideas, regional foods, an
d cultural practices from one part of China to another along the country’s watery highway.
According to legend, this is how Beijing acquired two of its best-known trademarks: Peking
duck, a dish from Shandong Province in the south, and Peking opera, from Anhui and Hubei,
also in the south.
The Modern Canal
(PARAGRAPH 5) For more than a thousand years, goods have been transported along the
Grand Canal. Even today, the country’s watery highway plays an important economic role in
China. Boats continue to carry tons of coal, food, and other goods to points between Hangz
hou and Jining. In addition, local governments—eager to increase tourism and real estate d
evelopment—are working to beautify areas along the canal.
(PARAGRAPH 6) This development comes at a price, though. In Yangzhou, the city has to
rn down almost all of the older canal-side buildings. Farther south in the cities of Zhenjiang,
Wuxi, and Hangzhou, the situation is similar. In Hangzhou, for example, almost all of the anc
ient buildings have been demolished. “Traditionally we talk about 18 main cities on the Gran
d Canal, and each had something unique and special about it,” explains Zhou Xinhua, the for
mer vice director of the Grand Canal museum in Hangzhou. “But now many of these cities ar
e all the same: a thousand people with one face.”
1. Why was the Grand Canal originally built?
to allow the army to move quickly from the north to the south
to transport food from the southern regions of China to the northern regions
to enable more people to visit remote parts of China
to promote the cultural and traditional diversity of the south of China
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
The correct answer is: to transport food from the southern regions of China to the northern
regions
2. When did people start to build the canal system?
around the year 605
in 611
in 1279
in 1127
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: around the year 605

3. What is NOT true about the Grand Canal?
It originally took six years to complete its construction.
Even today, it is the largest man-made river in the world.
Around a million people worked on the first section of the canal.
It allowed Peking duck and Peking opera to spread to southern China.
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The correct answer is: It allowed Peking duck and Peking opera to spread to southern China.
4. How long did people spend connecting the Grand Canal with others?
1 year
2 years
4 years
6 years
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The correct answer is: 6 years

5. What would be the best alternative heading for the fourth paragraph?
Renewed Importance
Cultural Connections
The Army’s Highway
The Origins of Peking Opera
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Cultural Connections

6. How was the canal system by 1127?
Parts of the canal system became worse.
It was expanded.
New parts of the canal were built.
It was totally destroyed.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Parts of the canal system became worse.
7. Regional foods and cultural practices were transported from China to other countri
es by groups of people EXCEPT?
soldiers
merchants
artists
teachers
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: teachers

8. In paragraph 4, the word “practices” could be replaced with _________.
traditions
repetitions
instructions
improvements
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The correct answer is: traditions

9. Which of the following is closest in meaning to
This development comes at a price, though?
But developing the canal involves spending a lot of money.
But even after spending money, people might not like the development.
But developing it is a lot more expensive than one can imagine.
But there are some negative consequences to having this development.
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The correct answer is: But there are some negative consequences to having this developmen
t.
10. The following sentence would best be placed at the end of which paragraph?
The city of Yangzhou, for example, has created a beautiful park near its waterf
ront.
1
4
5
6
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The correct answer is: 5

“WHEN A SNOW LEOPARD STALKS its prey among the mountain walls, it moves . . . softly,
slowly,” explains Indian biologist Raghunandan Singh
Chundawat, who has studied the animal for years. “If it knocks a stone loose, it will reach out
a foot to stop it from falling and making noise.” One might be moving right now, perfectly si
lent, maybe close by. But where? And how many are left to see?
Best known for its spotted coat and long distinctive tail, the snow leopard is one of the worl
d’s most secretive animals. These elusivecats can only be found high in the remote, mountai
nous regions of Central Asia. For this reason, and because they hunt primarily at night, they
are very rarely seen.
(PARAGRAPH 3) Snow leopards have been officially protected since 1975, but enforcing thi
s law has proven difficult. Many continue to be killed for their fur and body parts, which are
worth a fortune on the black market. In recent years, though, conflict with local herders has a
lso led to a number of snow leopard deaths. This is because the big cats kill the herders’ ani
mals, and drag the bodies away to eat high up in the mountains.
As a result of these pressures, the current snow leopard population is estimated at only 4,00
0 to 7,000, and some fear that the actual number may already have dropped below 3,500. T
he only way to reverse this trend and bring these cats back from near extinction, say conser
vationists, is to make them more valuable alive than dead.
Because farming is difficult in Central Asia’s cold, dry landscape, traditional cultures depend
mostly on livestock (mainly sheep and goats) to survive in these mountainous regions. At ni
ght, when snow leopards hunt, herders’ animals are in danger of snow leopard attacks. If a f
amily loses even a few animals, it can push them into desperate poverty. “The wolf comes an
d kills, eats, and goes somewhere else,” said one herder, “but snow leopards are always arou
nd. They have killed one or two animals many times . . . Everybody wanted to finish this leop
ard.”
To address this problem, local religious leaders have called for an end to snow leopard killin
gs, saying that these wild animals have the right to exist peacefully. They’ve also tried to con
vince people that the leopards are quite rare, and thus it is important to protect them.
Financial incentives are also helping to slow snow leopard killings. The organization Snow Le
opard Conservancy–India has established Himalayan Homestays, a program that sends visit
ors to herders’ houses. For a clean room and bed, meals with the family, and an introduction
to their culture, visitors pay about ten U.S. dollars a night. If guests come once every two we
eks through the tourist season, the herders will earn enough income to replace the animals l
ost to snow leopards. In addition, the organization helps herders build protective fences tha
t keep out snow leopards. It also conducts environmental classes at village schools, and train
s the organization’s members as nature guides, available for hire. In exchange, the herders a
gree not to kill snow leopards.
In Mongolia, a project called Snow Leopard Enterprises (SLE) helps herder communities earn
extra money in exchange for their promise to protect the endangered cat.
Women in Mongolian herder communities make a variety of products—yarn for making clot
hes, decorative floor rugs, and toys—using the wool from their herds. SLE buys these items f
rom herding families and sells them abroad. Herders must agree to protect the snow leopar
ds and to encourage neighbors to do the same.
The arrangement increases herders’ incomes by 10 to 15 percent, and elevates the status of
the women. If no one in the community kills the protected animals over the course of a year,
the program members are rewarded with a 20 percent bonus in addition to the money they’
ve already made. An independent review in 2006 found no snow leopard killings in areas wh
ere SLE operates. Today, the organization continues to add more communities.
Projects like the Homestays program in India and SLE’s business in Mongolia are doing well.
Though they cover only a small part of the snow leopard’s homeland, they make the leopar
ds more valuable to more people each year. If these programs continue to do well, the snow
leopard may just have a fighting chance.
1. What is the main idea of the third paragraph?
Local herders are uncooperative in attempts to save snow leopards.
The snow leopard’s endangerment is due in part to the black market.
Snow leopards are killed for their fur and body parts.
It is difficult to enforce the laws made to protect the snow leopard.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: It is difficult to enforce the laws made to protect the snow leopard.
2. Which of these statements is NOT true about the snow leopard.
It is silent and doesn’t make noise.
It has a long distinctive tail.
It is a secretive animal.
They can be seen in many mountainous regions.
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The correct answer is: They can be seen in many mountainous regions.
3. In paragraph 3, the word “bodies” refers to ________.
the big cats
snow leopards
local herders
the herders’ animals
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
The correct answer is: the herders’ animals
4. In the passage, “this trend” refers to ________.
the fall in the snow leopard population
the pressures caused by the black market
increasing conflict with the herders
the opinions of conservationists
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The correct answer is: the fall in the snow leopard population
5. According to conservationists, what’s the best way to save the snow leopard?
Create a nature park where they can be free.
Move herders away from where the snow leopard lives.
Pass laws to punish people who kill snow leopards for their fur.
Make people recognize the value of living snow leopards.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Make people recognize the value of living snow leopards.
6. In the passage, the word “address” can be replaced with ________.
solve
locate
discuss
change
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The correct answer is: solve

7. Which of these is NOT true about the Himalayan Homestays program?
The organization helps herders to build fences.
Herders provide accommodations to guests.
Some herders work as nature guides.
Visitors pay $10 a week to stay at a herder’s house.
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The correct answer is: Visitors pay $10 a week to stay at a herder’s house.
8. Women in Mongolian herder communities use the wool to create many products EX
CEPT
clothes
drugs
toys
houses
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: houses

9. Why is the Mongolian women’s status in the community “elevated”?
They can encourage their neighbors.
They are saving money for the snow leopards.
They are earning money for the community.
They are living higher up in the mountain.
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The correct answer is: They are earning money for the community.
10. What does the word “they” refer to in the last paragraph?
Mongolians
Projects
Leopards
People
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The correct answer is: Projects

SOME ANTHROPOLOGISTS ONCE THOUGHT that romance was a Western idea, develope
d in the Middle Ages. Non-Western societies, they thought, were too occupied with social an
d family relationships for romance. Today, scientists believe that romance has existed in hu
man brains in all societies since prehistoric times. In one study, for example, men and wome
n from Europe, Japan, and the Philippines were asked to fill out a survey to measure their ex
periences of passionate love. All three groups said that they felt passion with the same extre
me intensity.
But though romantic love may be universal, its cultural expression is not. To the Fulbe peopl
e of northern Cameroon, men who spend too much time with their wives are insulted and lo
oked down on. Those who fall deeply in love are thought to have fallen under a dangerous s
pell. For the Fulbe, to be controlled by love is seen as shameful.
In India, marriages have traditionally been arranged, usually by the bride’s and groom’s pare
nts, but today love marriages appear to be on the rise, often in defiance of parents’ wishes.
The victory of romantic love is celebrated in Bollywood films. However, most Indians still beli
eve arranged marriages are more likely to succeed than love marriages. In one survey of Indi
an college students, 76 percent said they would marry someone with all the right qualities e
ven if they weren’t in love with the person. Marriage is considered too important a step to le
ave to chance.
Finding the Right Person
Some psychiatrists, such as Thomas Lewis from the University of California, hypothesize that
romantic love is rooted in experiences of physical closeness in childhood—for example, how
we felt in our mother’s arms. These feelings of comfort and affection are written on our brai
n, and as adults, our constant inclination is to find them again. According to this theory, we
love whom we love not so much because of the future we hope to build, but rather because
of the past we hope to live again. The person who “feels right” has a certain look, smell, sou
nd, or touch that activates very deep memories.
Evolutionary psychologists explain, however, that survival skills are inherent in our choice of
a mate. According to this hypothesis, we are attracted to people who look healthy—for exa
mple, a woman with a 70 percent waist-to-hip ratio is attractive because she can likely bear
children successfully. A man with rugged features probably has a strong immune system an
d therefore is more likely to give his partner healthy children.
On the other hand, perhaps our choice of a mate is a simple matter of following our noses.
Claus Wedekind, a professor at the University of Lausanne in Switzerland conducted an inter
esting experiment with sweaty T-shirts. He asked 49 women to smell T-shirts previously wor
n by a variety of unidentified men. He then asked the women to rate which T-shirts smelled
the best and which the worst.
He found that women preferred the smell of a T-shirt worn by a man who was the most gen
etically different from her. This genetic difference means that it is likely that the man’s immu
ne system possesses something hers does not. By choosing him as the father of her childre
n, she increases the chance that her children will be healthy.
Is It All Just Chemicals?
According to other researchers, love may be caused by chemicals in the body. Donatella Ma
razziti, a professor at the University of Pisa in Italy, has studied the biochemistry of lovesickn
ess. Having been in love twice herself and felt its overwhelming power, Marazziti became int
erested in exploring the similarities between love and obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD).
Marazziti examined the blood of 24 people who had fallen deeply in love within the past six
months, and measured their levels of serotonin. Serotonin is a powerful chemical in the brai
n and body that is connected with our moods, emotions, and desires. She found that their le
vels of serotonin were 40 percent lower than normal people—the same results she found fro
m people with OCD. Her conclusion was that love and mental illness may be difficult to tell a
part.
Another scientist, anthropologist Helen Fisher, from Rutgers University, U.S.A., has been look
ing at love with the aid of an MRI machine.She recruited subjects who were “madly in love,”
and once they were inside the MRI machine, she showed them two photographs, one neutra
l, the other of their loved one.
What Fisher saw fascinated her. When each subject looked at his or her loved one, the parts
of the brain linked to reward and pleasure “lit up.” Love “lights up” these areas using a chem
ical called dopamine. Dopamine creates intense energy, exhilaration, focused attention, and
motivation to win rewards. Dopamine levels do eventually drop, though, and studies around
the world confirm that a decrease in passion is the norm.
Fisher has suggested that relationships frequently break up after about four years because t
hat’s about how long it takes to raise a child through infancy. Passion, that wild feeling, turn
s out to be practical after all. A couple not only needs to bring a child into this world; they al
so need a bond that continues long enough to raise a helpless human infant.
Maintaining Love
Eventually, all couples find that their passion declines over time. For relationships that get b
eyond the initial stage of passion to have a real chance of lasting, a chemical called oxytocin
may be the key. Oxytocin is a hormone our body produces that promotes mutual feelings of
connection and bonding. It is produced when we hug our long-term partners or our childre
n. In long-term relationships that work, oxytocin is believed to be abundant in both partners.
According to Helen Fisher, couples who want their relationship to last should make an effor
t to keep a close physical relationship. Through frequent physical contact, they can trigger t
he production of more oxytocin—and in this way feel closer to each other.
1. How many groups of people participated in the study about passionate love?
2
3
4
5
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: 3

2. Another title for this reading could be _________.
Science Can Conquer Passion
The Right Way to Choose a Mate
Explaining Why We Fall in Love
The Case for Arranged Marriage
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The correct answer is: Explaining Why We Fall in Love

3. How do the Fulbe people of Cameroon feel about love?
Everyone falls in love in the same way.
The men’s wives don’t want them around.
It is shameful to be controlled by love.
Men can fall in love, but women cannot.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: It is shameful to be controlled by love.

4. Where are arranged marriages favorable?
in India
in Italy
in the Philippines
in Japan
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: in India

5. Which choice best expresses the meaning of “this theory” in paragraph 4?
Marriage is too important to leave to chance.
Without the approval of family, romantic love rarely succeeds.
Romantic love is based on pleasant memories that we try to find again.
Memories of comfort and affection can satisfy our need for romantic love.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Romantic love is based on pleasant memories that we try to find agai
n.
6. According to evolutionary psychology, why would a woman choose a man with rug
ged features?
to improve her immune system
to have healthier children
to protect her from animals and other threats
because he is more likely to have a 70 percent waist-to-hip ratio
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: to have healthier children

7. Why did Marazziti probably choose to study similarities between love and OCD?
She wanted to better understand her own experiences.
She had naturally low serotonin levels.
Other researchers felt it was an important area to study.
She suffered from a mental illness.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: She wanted to better understand her own experiences.
8. According to researchers, which chemical is most closely related to successful long-t
erm relationships?
dopamine
oxytocin
serotonin
none of the above
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: oxytocin

9. What advice would Helen Fisher probably give to couples who want a long-term rel
ationship?
Hug each other often.
Avoid having children.
Keep your partner’s photo in your wallet.
Spend time apart so you appreciate each other when you’re together.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Hug each other often.

10. What does the word “they” refer to in the last paragraph?
couples
scientists
children
relationships
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is: couples