VAECO Ngân hàng Docwise Type 4

Phụ lục III: ĐỌC HIỂU CÁC ĐOẠN VĂN KỸ THUẬT

(Kèm theo Biên bản nghiệm thu số 03/HĐTN-T4, ngày 12 tháng 12 năm 2022)

1.Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best option to fit
each space by choosing A, B, or C
OXYGEN
You can find the passenger oxygen masks stowed in passenger service units _ (1) the
passenger seats. When the passenger oxygen system (2) the oxygen masks drop
down (3) the overhead stowage boxes to be (4) for the passengers….
Here you can see the release logic _ (5) the passenger oxygen system. The system is
normally activated (6) by a pressure switch in pressurized area.
If, for some (7), automatic activation by the altitude pressure switch fails, there is a
manual control in the cockpit which (8) the passenger oxygen system. After
activation,
the passenger oxygen system must (9) by pushing the reset button in the cockpit.
For maintenance purposes there is a special tool for opening single stowage boxes without
activating the whole system.
The passenger oxygen system is activated (10) on most aircraft, but the actual supply
of oxygen can be different. There are two ways that oxygen is supplied to the system., with
a chemical system and with a gaseous system.
1. A. on B. over C. above
2. A. is activated B. activates C. activated
3. A. in B. from C. into
4. A. able B. available C. availably
5. A. for B. to C. with
6. A. automatic B. auto C. automatically
7. A. reasons B. reasonable C. reason
8. A. activate B. will activate C. activated
9. A. be reset B. reset C. been reset
10. A. the same way B. the same C. in the same way

2.Read the following passage carefully and then fill in the missing spaces by
choosing A, B, or C
The two outflow valves (1) the front side of the rear pressure bulkhead just above
floor level in a sound-proofed box with a quick-removable cover. Each valve (2) two
major sections: an outflow poppet section and a control chamber section. The main
diaphragm (3) the two sections and (4) a flexible air-tight partition between them.
The outflow poppet section consists of a spider-type base, to the center of which a

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pedestal and a baffle-type support (5).

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The spring-loaded outflow poppet, consisting of two parts, _ (6) the main diaphragm and
is guided in its center by a pin, which _ (7) a bush in the pedestal. A vacuum relief
diaphragm is clamped at its periphery between the two parts of the outflow poppet and
(8) its center to the pedestal. Normally it rests on the baffle-type support and _ (9) the
outflow poppet head a separate chamber, which (10) cabin pressure via holes in the
poppet valve.

1. A. are flange-mounting to B. are flange-mounted toC. are flange-mounted at

2. A. consists of B. consisting C. consisting of
3. A. separated B. separate C. separates
4. A. formation B. formed C. forms
5. A. are mounted B. is mounted C. is mounting
6. A. is mounted in B. is mounted on C. is mounting to
7. A. slides in B. sliding on C. sided on
8. A. is attached with B. is attached to C. is attached at
9. A. formed with B. forms together with C. formed together by
10. A. is connecting to B. is connecting with C. is connected to

3.Read the following passage carefully and then fill in the missing spaces by
choosing A, B, or C
The centrifugal pumps (1) in the bottom part of each tank provide for transfer of fuel
toward the engines under all conditions of flight, altitude and temperature.
The pumps (2) to deliver fuel under pressure to the engine high pressure pumps, so
as to avoid vapor lock phenomena which could occur in plumbing affected by a rise in
temperature or a drop in pressure due to (3).
Each pump (4) by an electric motor.
The pump and motor form an explosion-proof unit, installed in a canister at the tank
(5) and submerged in fuel;
Each pump draws in fuel (6) a non-icing filter
Delivery pressure of (7) pump is transmitted to a low pressure switch.
Furthermore:
- Part of each inboard tank outer pump output (8) to the refueling system drain
valve.
- Part of each outboard tank pump output is directed to a sequence valve which limits
pump delivery pressure (9) 1.2 bars (17.5 psi) _ (10) fuel from the inboard
tanks is delivered on a priority basis at 2.6 bars (38 psi).
1. A. installation B. installed C. are installed

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2. A. are designed B. have designed C. designed

3. A. altitudinal B. altitude C. high
4. A. drove B. is driving C. is driven
5. A. centre B. heart C. bottom
6. A. across B. through C. throughout
7. A. ‘- “ B. each C. every
8. A. is directed B. are directed C. has directed
9. A. to B. in C. on
10. A. so far B. so as C. so that

4.Read the following passage carefully and then fill in the missing spaces by
choosing A, B, or C
The fire ……… (1) system is designed to operate when fire sensing elements located on
the engine and on the pylon.......(2) overheat or fire.
The system is activated manually and ……… (3) means of two fire handles ………. (4) on
the flight compartment overheat panel. After ……… (5) of the fire extinguisher bottles, the
system............(6) two main effects:
- To extinguish, ……… (7) its early stages, any fire ……… (8) in the fan and compressor
areas.
- To prevent engine fire ……… (9) spreading by isolating the engine from the rest of the
aircraft. This is achieved by closing the various ……… (10), bleed and conditioning lines
from the engine to the wings.
1. A. extinguish B. extinguisher C. extinguishing
2. A. sensor B. sense C. senses
3. A. by B. with C. of
4. A. located B. locates C. locating
5. A. discharger B. discharge C. discharging
6. A. have had B. have C. has
7. A. in B. on C. with
8. A. occurs B. occurring C. occurred
9. A. away B. from C. for
10. A. supplies B. supplier C. supply

5.Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best option to
fit each space by choosing A, B, or C
VALVE BODY CORROSION

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Wing anti-icing valves returned from service (1) a secondary corrosion problem. The
condition takes the form (2) white corrosion products on, and blistering of the
chromed bore of the valve body assembly. Corrosion around the shaft and its bearings has
also (3). The extent of this corrosion fault is not known nor if it is time – or time-
and temperature – related.
Description:
This Service Bulletin (4) that any wing anti-icing valve (5) exhibits any
sign of malfunction (6) from the aircraft and (7) for signs of corrosion as
detailed in Section 2. A (8) wing anti-icing valve shall be subjected to the same
inspection prior to installation on an aircraft. Inspected wing anti-icing valves that show
signs of corrosion must be returned to the manufacturer to be fitted with new valve body
assemblies. Wing anti-icing valves that (9) are identified by
0
striking off N . 2 on the nameplate. Existing wing anti-icing valves identified with strike
off number 2 do not (10) application of this Service Bulletin.
1. A. has revealed B. revealed C. have revealed
2. A. of B. in C. about
3. A. reported B. been reported C. not reported
4. A. requires B. required C. requiring
5. A. what B. that C. which
6. A. may be removed B. shall be removed C. can be removed
7. A. exam B. examined C. examination
8. A. replacing B. replaceable C. replacement
9. A. have been repaired B. has been repaired C. has repaired
10. A. required B. require C. requires

6.Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best option to fit
each space by choosing A, B, or C
BEARING CORROSION
Traces of chlorine _ (1) on the raceway of the bearings (2) to the assumption
that during maintenance work the handling (3) cleaning fluid and subsequent
expelling of grease (4) the corrosion followed by the bearing jam.
In all three cases the failure did not (5) in any anomaly of the THSA function, neither
(6) electrical nor (7) mechanical mode, until the cracked/ ruptured flange of
the interconnecting shaft was detected (8) maintenance.
The consequence of a complete failure of the (9) shaft flange ( disconnection of the
mechanical control linkage) is the (10) the mechanical control of the pitch trim and
consequently the loss of aural warning (whooler) in the event of a pitch trim runaway.
1. A. are found B. were found C. been found
2. A. leading B. leads C. leader

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3. A. on B. in C. with
4. A. has caused B. had caused C. caused
5. A. result B. resulted C. results
6. A. of B. in C. on
7. A. on B. in C. of
8. A. while B. within C. during
9. A. interconnecting B. interconnected C. interconnect
10. A. lost of B. lot of C. loss of

7.Read the following passage carefully and then choosing the best answer A, B,
or C (Level 2)
Recently, two CFM 56-3C operators experienced oil leaking from the aft cowl area. Both
engines were within 600 to 850 flight hours since new. Troubleshooting revealed an
external oil leak in the LPT frame, located at the oil supply and scavenge tube exits from
struts 5 and
6. Origin of the leak was determined to be a crack in the number 5 bearing oil damper
cavity supply tube, close to the inlet cover fitting weld joint. In both cases, the faulty tube
was replaced on wing and the aircraft was released for revenue service. The affected
hardware is under investigation to establish the cause of the crack and define corrective
actions. If leaks from a No. 5 bearing oil damped cavity supply tube are confirmed, a
procedure is available to replace the tube on-wing. This procedure will be incorporated in
service bulletin 72-472, targeted to be issued before June 30. We will keep you informed
as further information becomes available.
1. What was the problem of the operators?
A. Cracks on the aft cowl area of the
engines B. Engine oil leak
C. Damage on fuel supply tube
2. What does “CFM 56-3C” refer to?
A. An engine type B. An airline’s name C. A location of
a component
3. According to the passage, which of the following is true?
A. The faulty tube was sent to the manufacture for repair
B. The aircraft was on ground to wait for procedure incorporated in the SB 72-472
C. The manufacture would inform the airlines of the related information soon
4. After troubleshooting, what was the cause of the failure?
A. Loose fitting B. Bearing breaking C. Tube cracking
5. According to the passage, which statement is NOT true?
A. The failure tube was investigated to define corrective actions
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B. The old engine might be the reason of the failure

C. Only two operators experienced the problem
6. The engines were relative new?
A. Yes. B. No. C. It’s not given
7. When will the SB be issued?
A. Early of Jun B. the end of Jul C. Before Jun 30

8. Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best option to
fit each space by choosing A, B, or C (Level 2)
CRACK A320 TFU 78.11.12.01
Four operators _ (1) one case each (2) cracked center body assemblies, both
cracks (3) station 291.6 adjacent to the weld. The cracks propagated
circumferentially
(4) 260 degrees.
Rohr all operators letter AOL-CFM56-003 Rev B. (5) march 1991. This revision
(6) the inspection interval from “A” check to 150 flight hours, Rohr all operators letter
CFM56- 003 issued November 19th 1990 _ (7) with this revision. Included in A.O.L
CFM56-003 are the flight (8) limits and repairs.
Rohr are continuing to vibration test center bodies. Initial results (9) vibration induced
failure. We (10) operators of the results of these further tests, and if any service action
is required.
1. A. report B. has reported C. have reported
2. A. on B. of C. in
3. A. occurred at B. ocurred in C. ocurred from
4. A. about B. of C. out
5. A. is issued B. was issued C. to be issued
6. A. is changing B. are changed C. changes
7. A. concurrently runs B. runs concurrently C. concurrently run
8. A. of B. in C. on
9. A. indicate B. indicates C. indicating
10. A. will inform B. are informed C. need informed

9. Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best option
The main component of the air-cycle machine (1) a rotating shaft. A turbine, a
compressor and a fan (2) along the shaft. The shaft rotates (3) two
self-acting foil-air bearings, a double self-acting air-thrust bearing (4) _ the axial
thrust loads. Air tapped from the turbine inlet, is used to cool the bearing and then
discharged
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(5) the ram airflow. Labyrinth seals (6) _ air leakage between static

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and rotating parts. The light-alloy turbine (7) with air through a stainless-steel
nozzle and a light-alloy scroll. In case of turbine break up, the stainless-steel nozzle (8)
as a containment ring. The light-alloy centrifugal compressor is mounted (9)
the center of the rotating shaft. Air is supplied (10) a light-alloy scroll.
An outer scroll has a stainless-steel diffuser.
1. A. are B. be C. is
2. A. are mounted B. is mounted C. being mounted
3. A. in B. on C. above
4. A. took B. is taken C. takes
5. A. inside B. to C. into
6. A. reduce B. reduced C. is reduced
7. A. are supplied B. is supplied C. is supplying
8. A. acting B. is acted C. acts
9. A. to B. in C. on
10. A. from B. to C. into

10. Read the text and complete the missing word-endings

The wing tank pump (1) ……… are located in a collect (2) ……… box form (3) ……...
by root Rib 1 and Rib 2. Rib 2 is sealed except for vent holes at the top and clack valves at
the bottom through which fuel gravitate (4) ……… into the enclosure. Two inward-opening
hinged panels in Rib 2 provide (5)............access into this area. This configuration make
(6)
……… sure that the pumps are fully in fuel during flight maneuvers. Each pump (7) ………
has an intake pipe fitt(8)............with a strainer. A bypass pipe with suction valve enable (8)
……… the engine to get fuel by suction if the pump (10)............do not work.
1. A. ing B. s C. or
2. A. or B. ing C. ed
3. A. s B. ed C. ing
4. A. s B. ed C. ing
5. A. “-“ B. s C. ing
6. A. ing B. ed C. s
7. A. s B. “-“ C. er
8. A. ed B. ing C. s
9. A. ing B. “-“ C. s
10. A. s B. “-“ C. ing

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11. Pumps General

The centrifugal pumps installed …..(1)…. the bottom part of each tank…..(2)….for transfer
of fuel toward the engines under all conditions of flight, altitude and temperature.
The pumps …..(3)….to deliver fuel under pressure to the engine high pressure pumps, so
as to avoid vapor lock phenomena which could …..(4)…. in plumbing affected …..(5)…. a
rise…..(6)….temperature or a drop …..(7)….pressure due to altitude.
Each pump …..(8)….an electric motor. The pump and motor form an explosion-proof unit,
(9)….in canister …..(10)…. the tank bottom and submerged in fuel.
Each pump …..(11)…. in fuel through a non-icing filter. Delivery pressure of each pump
…..(12)…. to a low pressure switch.
Furthermore, part of each outboard tank pump output …..(13)….to a sequence valve which
…..(14)….pump delivery pressure to 1.2 bars (17.5 psi) so that fuel …..(15)…. the inboard
tanks is delivered on a priority basis …..(16)….2.6bars (38 psi).

1. A. on B. in C. at
2. A. provided B. provides C. provide
3. A. design B. designed C. are designed
4. A. occurs B. occur C. be occurred
5. A. by B. of C. to
6. A. on B. in C. at
7. A. at B. on C. in
8. A. drives B. drove C. is driven by
9. A. install B. are installed C. installed
10. A. on B. in C. at
11. A. is drawn B. drew C. draws
12. A. is transmitted B. transmitted C. transmits
13. A. is directed B. directed C. directs
14. A. limit B. limits C. is limited
15. A. at B. of C. from
16. A. on B. in C. at

12. Find the word with the same meanings as

1. Lower
A. upper B. bottom C. behind
2. Toward
A. Afward B. in the meaning of C. in the direction of
3. Occur
A. open B. provide C. happen
4. Rise
A. design B. decrease C. increase

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5. Canister
A. canal B. container C. pulley
6. Suck
A. draw in B. draw out C. input
7. external
A. inner B. outer C. internal
8. supply
A. logistc B. outline C. out put
9. ensure
A. provide out B. provide of C. provide for
10. submerged
A. out of B. in order to C. covered

13. Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best answer below
Corrosion Detection and Control
Metal corrosion is the deterioration of the metal by chemical or electrochemical attack
and can occur internally, as well as on the surface. This deterioration may change the
smooth surface, weaken the interior, or damage or loosen adjacent parts.
Water or water vapor containing salt combines with oxygen in the atmosphere to
produce the main source of corrosion in aircraft. Aircraft operating in a marine
environment or in areas where the atmosphere contains corrosive industrial fumes are
particularly susceptible to corrosive attacks.
Corrosion can cause eventual structural failure if left unchecked. The appearance of
the corrosion varies with the metal. On aluminum alloys and magnesium, it appears as
surface pitting and etching, often combined with a grey or white powdery deposit. On
steel, it forms a reddish rust. When the grey, white, or reddish deposits are removed,
each of the surfaces might appear etched and pitted, depending on the length of
exposure and the severity of attack. If these surface pits are not too deep, they might
not significantly alter the strength of the metal; however, the pits might become sites
for crack development. Some types of corrosion can travel beneath surface coatings
and can spread until the part fails.

1. Environmental factors that cause metal corrosion.

A. Water vapor containing salt
B. Oxygen
C. Both A and B
2. Corrosion is occurred due to mixture of iron and …….
A. Hydrogen
B. Nitrogen
C. Oxygen
3. Preventive action on corrosion is necessary and economical.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. NOT GIVEN

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4. Corrosion of steel on the seacoast is more times is more corrosive than in a desert area.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. NOT GIVEN
5. Aluminum alloys undergoes corrosion to produce ……… colored hydrated ferric oxide.
A. Red
B. Grey
C. Blue

14. Read the text and complete the missing word-endings

The wing tank pump (1) ……… are located in a collect (2) ……… box form (3) ……...
by root Rib 1 and Rib 2. Rib 2 is sealed except for vent holes at the top and clack valves at
the bottom through which fuel gravitate (4) ……… into the enclosure. Two inward-opening
hinged panels in Rib 2 provide (5)............access into this area. This configuration make
(6)
……… sure that the pumps are fully in fuel during flight maneuvers. Each pump (7) ………
has an intake pipe fitt(8)............with a strainer. A bypass pipe with suction valve enable (8)
……… the engine to get fuel by suction if the pump (10)............do not work.
1. A. ing B. s C. or
2. A. or B. ing C. ed
3. A. s B. ed C. ing
4. A. s B. ed C. ing
5. A. “-“ B. s C. ing
6. A. ing B. ed C. s
7. A. s B. “-“ C. er
8. A. ed B. ing C. s
9. A. ing B. “-“ C. s
10. A. s B. “-“ C. ing

15. ISO (the International Organization for Standardization) is a worldwide federation

of national standards bodies (ISO member bodies). The work of preparing
International Standards is normally carried out through ISO technical committees.
Each member body interested in a subject for which a technical committee has been
established has the right to be represented on that committee. International
organizations, governmental and non-governmental, in liaison with ISO, also take
part in the work. ISO collaborates closely with the International Electrotechnical
Commission (IEC) on all matters of electrotechnical standardization.
1. What is ISO?

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a. International Organization for Standardization

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b. International Safety Organization

c. International Sociality Organization
2. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. ISO is a worldwide federation of national standards bodies
b. ISO is a South-East Asia federation of national standards bodies
c. ISO is a worldwide federation of national nonstandards bodies
3. What is the work of preparing International Standards?
a. It is normally carried out through ISO technical committees
b. It is normally carried out through USA technical committees
c. It is normally carried out through ISO economical committees
4. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. ISO collaborates with IEC on all matters of electrotechnical standardization
b. ISO collaborates with CEI on all matters of electrotechnical standardization
c. ISO collaborates with EIC on all matters of electrotechnical standardization

16. Nondestructive testing (NDT) is the process of inspecting, testing, or

evaluating materials, components or assemblies for discontinuities, or differences in
characteristics without destroying the serviceability of the part or system. In other
words, when the inspection or test is completed the part can still be used.
In contrast to NDT, other tests are destructive in nature and are therefore done on a
limited number of samples ("lot sampling"), rather than on the materials, components or
assemblies actually being put into service.
These destructive tests are often used to determine the physical properties of
materials such as impact resistance, ductility, yield and ultimate tensile strength,
fracture toughness and fatigue strength, but discontinuities and differences in material
characteristics are more effectively found by NDT.
Today modern nondestructive tests are used in manufacturing, fabrication and in-
service inspections to ensure product integrity and reliability, to control manufacturing
processes, lower production costs and to maintain a uniform quality level. During
construction, NDT is used to ensure the quality of materials and joining processes
during the fabrication and erection phases, and in-service NDT inspections are used to
ensure that the products in use continue to have the integrity necessary to ensure their
usefulness and the safety of the public.
It should be noted that while the medical field uses many of the same processes, the
term "nondestructive testing" is generally not used to describe medical applications.
(Level 2)
1. What Is Nondestructive Testing?
a. It is the process of inspecting, testing, or evaluating materials, components
or assemblies for discontinuities
b. It is the process of inspecting, testing, or evaluating materials, components or
assemblies for discontinuities, or differences in characteristics without
destroying the serviceability of the part or system

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c. It is the process of inspecting, testing components or assemblies for

discontinuities, or differences in characteristics without destroying
the serviceability of the part or system
2. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. NDT is used to ensure the quality of materials and joining processes during
the fabrication and erection phases
b. In-service NDT inspections are used to ensure that the products in use
continue to have the integrity necessary to ensure their usefulness and the
safety of the public
c. Both answer are corect

17. Test method names often refer to the type of penetrating medium or the
equipment used to perform that test. Current NDT methods are: Acoustic Emission
Testing (AE), Electromagnetic Testing (ET), Laser Testing Methods (LM), Leak
Testing (LT), Magnetic Flux Leakage (MFL), Liquid Penetrant Testing (PT),
Magnetic Particle Testing (MT), Neutron Radiographic Testing (NR), Radiographic
Testing (RT), Thermal/Infrared Testing (IR), Ultrasonic Testing (UT), Vibration
Analysis (VA) and Visual Testing (VT).
The six most frequently used test methods are MT, PT, RT, UT, ET and VT. Each of these
test methods will be described here, followed by the other, less often used test methods.
1. What are the most common types of NDT
inspection? a. MT, PT, RT, UT, ET, VT
b. ET, IRT, MT, PT, MN
c. ET, UT, MT, LT, AB
2. What does UT in NDT stand for?
a. Ultrasonic Testing
b. Upside Testing
c. Ultra Testing
3. What does ET in NDT stand
for? a. Electromagnetic Testing
b. Electrical Testing
c. Easter Testing
4. What does PT in NDT stand
for? a. Liquid Penetrant Testing
b. Photograph Testing
c. Platform Testing
5. What does MT in NDT stand
for? a. Magnetic Particle Testing
b. Movement Testing
c. Maximum Testing
6. What does RT in NDT stand for?
a. Ranger Testing
b. Radiographic Testing
c. Reaching Testing

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7. What does VT in NDT stand for?

a. Video Testing
b. VAR Tesing
c. Visual Testing
8. What do you think the above passage could be
called? a. NDT Test Methods
b. Ultrasonic Testing
c. Platform Testing
9. How many types of NDT inspection are there now?
a. 14
b. 15
c. 13
10. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Test method depends on the type of penetrating medium or the equipment
used to perform that test
b. The test method is independent of the type of penetration medium or the
equipment used to perform the test
c. Any test method can be used on any material

---
18. D95 Test Method for Water in Petroleum Products and Bituminous
Materials by Distillation (Level 2)
D6304 Test Method for Determination of Water in Petroleum Products,
Lubricating Oils, and Additives by Coulometric Karl Fischer Titration
E165/E165M Practice for Liquid Penetrant Testing for General Industry
E203 Test Method for Water Using Volumetric Karl Fischer Titration
E543 Specification for Agencies Performing Nondestructive Testing
E1135 Test Method for Comparing the Brightness of Fluorescent Penetrants
E1136Terminology for Nondestructive Examinations
E2297 Guide for Use of UV-A and Visible Light Sources and Meters used in
the Liquid Penetrant and Magnetic Particle Methods
E3022 Practice for Measurement of Emission Characteristics and
Requirements for LED UV-A Lamps Used in Fluorescent Penetrant and
Magnetic Particle Testing

1. What is the purpose of the El 135 test method?

A. E1135Test Method for Comparing the Brightness of Fluorescent
Penetrants
B. El 315 Terminology for Nondestructive Examinations
C. El 315 Guide for Use of UV-A and Visible Light Sources and Meters used
in the Liquid Penetrant and Magnetic Particle Methods
2. What is the difference between the D95 method and the D6304 method?

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A. D95 Test Method for Water in Petroleum Products and D6304 Test Method
for Determination of Water in Petroleum Products.
B. D95 Test Method for Water in Petroleum Products and Bituminous
Materials by Distillation and D6304 Test Method for Determination of Water
in Petroleum Products, Lubricating Oils, and Additives by Coulometric Karl
Fischer Titration
C. D95 Test Method for Water in Petroleum Products and D6304 Test Method
for Determination of Water
3. E2297 Guide use for what?
A. E2297 Test Method for Determination of Water in Petroleum
Products, Lubricating Oils, and Additives by Coulometric Karl Fischer
Titration
B. E2297 Practice for Measurement of Emission Characteristics and
Requirements for LED UV-A Lamps Used in Fluorescent Penetrant
and Magnetic Particle Testing
C. E2297 Guide for Use of UV-A and Visible Light Sources and Meters used
in the Liquid Penetrant and Magnetic Particle Methods
4. Which method uses volumetric Karl Fischer titration?
A. E543 Specification for Agencies Performing Nondestructive Testing
B. E203 Test Method for Water Using Volumetric Karl Fischer Titration
C. El 135 Test Method for Comparing the Brightness of Fluorescent Penetrants
5. What is the terminology non-destructive testing?
A. E1136 Terminology for Nondestructive Examinations
B. E1135Test Method for Comparing the Brightness of Fluorescent
Penetrants
C. E3022 Practice for Measurement of Emission Characteristics and
Requirements for LED UV-A Lamps Used in Fluorescent
Penetrant and Magnetic Particle Testing

---
19. Drying Oven—When components are oven dried, the dryer must be a forced-air
recirculating type. In automated systems, where parts are dried by radiant heat and
forced air, the travel speed of the system shall be such as to preclude overdrying
of parts. The forced air does not have to be recirculating but must preclude
contamination of the parts. The temperature shall be controlled with a calibrated
device ca-pable of maintaining the oven temperature at ± 15 OF [±8.3 oc] of the
temperature for which it is set. The oven shall not exceed 160 OF [71 cc]. The
temperature indicator shall be accurate to ± 10 OF [±5.6 cc] of the actual oven
temperature.

1. How many degrees the oven should not exceed?

A. The oven shall not exceed 160 OF [71 cc]
B. The oven shall not exceed 160 OF [70 cc]
C. The oven shall not exceed 161 OF [71 cc]

2. What type of dryer is used when components are oven dried?

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A. When components are oven wetted, the dryer must be a forced-air

recirculating type
B. When components are oven dried, the dryer must be a forced-air
recirculating type
C. When components are oven wetted, the wetted must be a forced-air
recirculating type
3. Is forced air necessarily recirculating?
A. The forced air have to be recirculating but must preclude contamination
of the parts
B. The forced air must preclude contamination of the parts
C. The forced air does not have to be recirculating but must preclude
contamination of the parts
4. What is the purpose of the system travel speed In automated systems,
where parts are dried by radiant heat and forced air?
A. In automated systems, where parts are dried by radiant heat and forced
air, the travel speed of the system shall be such as to preclude overdrying
of parts
B. In automated systems, when parts are dried by radiant heat and forced
air, the travel speed of the system shall be such as to preclude overdrying
of parts
C. In non-automated systems, when parts are dried by radiant heat and forced
air, the travel speed of the system shall be such as to preclude overdrying of
parts

5. Can uncalibrated equipment be used for temperature control?

A. No,The temperature shall be controlled with a calibrated device
B. Yes
C. Yes, The temperature shall be controlled with a calibrated device

---
20. Manual Spray—For handheld spray guns, water pressure adequate to remove the
penetrant shall be used but shall not exceed 40 psi [275 kPa]. Water temperature
shall be between 50 to 100 O F [10 to 38 oc]. When hydro-air nozzles are used, the air
pressure shall not exceed 25 psi [172 kPa]. A coarse spray shall be used with a
minimum distance of 12 in. [30 cm], when possible, between the spray nozzle and
the part. Washing shall be conducted under appropriate illumination. Caution shall be
exercised to ensure that over-washing does not occur. If over-washing occurs, the
component(s) shall be thoroughly dried and reprocessed. After rinsing, drain water
from the component and utilize repositioning, suction, blotting with clean absorbent
materials, or filtered shop air at less than 25 psi [172 kPa] to prevent pooling in
cavities, recesses, and pockets. (Over-removal of the surface penetrant shall require
that the component be cleaned and reprocessed. A good indicator of over-wash or
over-removal of the surface penetrant is evidenced by the total lack of residue that
may occur on all or a specific area of the part; see Practice E165/E165M.)
1. State the procedure after rinsing:

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A. After rinsing, drain water from the component and utilize repositioning,
suction, blotting with clean absorbent materials, or filtered shop air at less
than 40 psi [275 kPa] to prevent pooling in cavities, recesses, and
pockets.
B. After rinsing, drain water from the component and utilize repositioning,
suction, blotting with clean absorbent materials, or filtered shop air at less
than 25 psi [172 kPa] to prevent pooling in cavities, recesses, and pockets.
C. After rinsing, drain water from the component and utilize repositioning,
suction, blotting with clean absorbent materials, or filtered shop air at less
than 25 psi [170 kPa] to prevent pooling in cavities, recesses, and
pockets.

2. What is the maximum water pressure of the handheld spray guns?

A. For handheld spray guns, water pressure adequate to remove the penetrant
shall be used but shall not exceed 41 psi [275 kPa].
B. For handheld spray guns, water pressure adequate to remove the penetrant
shall be used but shall not exceed 40 psi [275 kPa].
C. For handheld spray guns, water pressure adequate to remove the penetrant
shall be used but shall not exceed 25 psi [170 kPa].
3. What is minimum distance between the spray nozzle and the part?
A. A coarse spray shall be used with a minimum distance of 12 in
B. A coarse spray shall be used with a maximum distance of 12 in
C. A coarse spray shall be used with distance of 12 in
4. What to do in case of over-washing?
A. Unless over-washing occurs, the component(s) shall be thoroughly dried and
reprocessed
B. If over-washing occurs, the component(s) shall not be thoroughly dried
and reprocessed
C. If over-washing occurs, the component(s) shall be thoroughly dried and
reprocessed
5. What is the allowable water temperature range?
A. Water temperature shall be between 50 to 100 O F
B. Water temperature shall be between 40 to 100 O F
C. Water temperature shall be between 60 to 100 O F
6. What is the maximum air pressure in the hydro-air nozzles?
A. When hydro-air nozzles are used, the air pressure shall not exceed 26 psi
[172 kPa]
B. When hydro-air nozzles are used, the air pressure shall not exceed 25 psi
[172 kPa]
C. When hydro-air nozzles are used, the air pressure shall not exceed 40 psi
[275 kPa]

---
21. Nonaqueous Developers (Level 2)
Components, or areas requiring examination, shall be dry before application of the
developer. Nonaqueous developer shall be applied by spraying. For Type I

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penetrants, the developer shall be applied as a uniform thin coating over the entire
surface to be inspected. For Type Il penetrants, the developer shall be applied over

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the entire surface to form a uniform, white coating to provide suitable color contrast
for the penetrant indications. The uniformity and thickness of the developer coating is
important for both types of penetrant systems. If the developer coating thickness is
too heavy for Type I systems such that the metallic surface is completely masked,
the component shall be cleaned and reprocessed. Unless otherwise specified, the
minimum and maximum development times for nonaqueous developers are 10 min
and I h, respectively. For nonaqueous suspendable developer, the developer
container shall be frequently agitated between applications.
1. How will the non-aqueous developer be applied?
A. Aqueous developer shall be applied by spraying
B. Nonaqueous developer shall be applied
C. Nonaqueous developer shall be applied by spraying
2. What is the maximum development time non-aqueous developers?
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 3 hours
3. How will the developer shall be applied for Type II penetrants?
A. For Type I penetrants, the developer shall be applied as a uniform
thin coating over the entire surface to be inspected
B. For Type Il penetrants, the developer shall be applied over the entire
surface to form a uniform, white coating to provide suitable color contrast
for the penetrant indications.
C. For Type II penetrants, the developer shall be applied as a uniform
thin coating over the entire surface to be inspected
4. How to handle If the developer coating thickness is too heavy for Type
I systems?
A. If the developer coating thickness is too heavy for Type I systems
such that the metallic surface is completely masked, the component
shall be cleaned and reprocessed
B. If the developer coating thickness is too heavy for Type II systems such
that the metallic surface is completely masked, the component shall be
cleaned and reprocessed
C. If the developer coating thickness is too light for Type I systems such
that the metallic surface is completely masked, the component shall be
cleaned and reprocessed
5. How will the developer shall be applied for Type I penetrants?
A. For Type I penetrants, the developer shall be applied over the entire
surface to form a uniform, white coating to provide suitable color contrast
for the penetrant indications
B. For Type I penetrants, the developer shall be applied as a uniform
thick coating over the entire surface to be inspected
C. For Type I penetrants, the developer shall be applied as a uniform
thin coating over the entire surface to be inspected

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22. HP System - Compressor Blades

The high-pressure compressor (HPC) is made up of ten stages of compressor
blades.
• The first stage is identified as stage 3.
• The last stage is identified as stage 12.
The compressor blades in stages 3 to 5 are attached to the discs in axial dovetail
slots and secured by lock plates.
Rubber strips bonded to the underside of the platform seal gaps between the
blades.
Stages 6 to 12 are installed in a slot around the circumference of the discs. Each
circumferential slot has two axial loading slots to enable the blades to be
installed into the disc.
Four lock blades are installed on each circumferential slot, two on each side of
the loading slot, which are locked by lock nuts and lock screws (two each per
stage).

1. Where are four lock blades fitted?

A. Four lock blades are installed on each circumferential slot, three on
each side of the loading slot, which are locked by lock nuts and lock
screws
B. Four lock blades are installed on each circumferential slot, one on each
side of the loading slot, which are locked by lock nuts and lock screws
C. Four lock blades are installed on each circumferential slot, two on each
side of the loading slot, which are locked by lock nuts and lock screws
2. What is the first stage identified?
A. The first stage is identified as stage 3
B. The first stage is identified as stage 4
C. The first stage is identified as stage 2
3. Where are stages 6 to 12 fitted?
A. Stages 2 to 12 are installed in a slot around the circumference of the discs.
B. Stages 6 to 12 are installed in a slot around the circumference of the discs.
C. Stages 6 to 10 are installed in a slot around the circumference of the discs.
4. How many stages of High Pressure Compressor?
A. 10 stages
B. 9 stages
C. 11 stages
5. What is the purpose of the rubber strips?
A. Rubber strips bonded to the underside of the platform seal gaps
B. Rubber strips bonded to the underside of the platform seal gaps
between the blades
C. Rubber strips bonded to the overside of the platform seal gaps between the
blades

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23. ---
Borescope equipment permits the inspection of gas turbine engine parts that
would otherwise be inaccessible with the engine installed and in service.
In order to prevent costly or premature engine removal, it is advantageous to
allow an engine to remain in service until defects are revealed by one or more of
the following:
• Performance analysis.
• Oil analysis.
• Borescope inspection.
• Repetitive monitoring of allowable damage.
Borescope inspection requirements fall into 3 categories:
• Scheduled inspection.
• Non-scheduled inspection.
• Special inspection.
Scheduled Inspections
These are regular inspections carried out as part of an approved maintenance
schedule, the frequency of which is dependent upon either engine cycles, flying
hours or calendar based, i.e.:
• A-check: 600 hours, 750 cycles or 100 days.
• 2A-check: 1200 hours, 1500 cycles or 200 days.
• C-check: 6000 hours, 4500 cycles or 20 months.
The combustion and turbine sections are of primary concern due to the high
stresses and temperatures in these areas. All defects should be documented,
ideally on a specific chart, to record any deterioration and assessments can then
be made to establish whether the engine:
• Continues in service to the next scheduled inspection.
• Continues in service with reduced periodicity checks.
• Is removed either immediately or within a specified
time. Non-scheduled Inspections
Borescope inspection can be used to great effect to assess the serviceability of
an engine after such incidents as:
• Ingestion of foreign objects.
• Engine surge.
• EGT or RPM
exceedences. Special
Inspection
Defects may be identified by either service experience or during shop inspection.
Introduction of Special Inspections is through Service Bulletins, All Operators
Wires (AOWs) or Service Information Letters (SlLs), which detail the
requirements of the inspection criteria.

1. How should all defects be handled?

A. All defects should be documented, to record any deterioration and
assessments can then be made
B. All defects should be documented, ideally on a specific chart, to record any
deterioration

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C. All defects should be documented, ideally on a specific chart, to record any

deterioration and assessments can then be made
2. What is the purpose of borescope equipment?
A. Borescope equipment permits the inspection of gas turbine engine
parts that would otherwise be inaccessible with the engine uninstalled
and in service.
B. Borescope equipment permits the inspection of gas turbine engine
parts that would otherwise be inaccessible with the engine installed and
in service.
C. Borescope equipment permits the inspection of gas turbine engine parts
that would otherwise be inaccessible with the engine remove and in service.
3. What are the abbreviation of Service Information Letters?
A. Slls
B. SlLs
C. SlL

4. what is allowed to avoid premature engine removal?

A. In order to prevent costly or premature engine removal, it is advantageous
to allow an engine to remain in service until defects are revealed by one
or more of the following: Performance analysis, Oil analysis, Borescope
inspection and Repetitive monitoring of allowable damage
B. In order to prevent costly or premature engine removal, it is advantageous
to allow an engine to remain in service until defects are revealed by one
or more of the following: Performance analysis, Oil analysis
C. In order to prevent costly or premature engine removal, it is advantageous
to allow an engine to remain in service until defects are revealed by one or
more of the following: Performance analysis, Oil analysis of allowable
damage
5. Why is the combustion and turbine sections are of primary concern?
A. Due to the high stresses and temperatures in these areas
B. Due to the temperatures in these areas
C. Due to the high stresses in these areas
6. How many categories of borescope inspection requirements?
A. 3 categories
B. 2 categories
C. 4 categories
7. What circumstances can borescope inspection of the Non-scheduled
Inspections be used?
A. Ingestion of foreign objects, Performance analysis, Engine surge and EGT
or RPM exceedences
B. Ingestion of foreign objects, Engine surge and EGT or RPM exceedences
C. Ingestion of foreign objects EGT or RPM exceedences
8. Where are Special Inspection introduced?
A. Introduction of Special Inspections is through Service Bulletins, All
Operators Wires (AOWs) or Service Information Letters (SlLs), which
detail the requirements of the inspection criteria.

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B. Introduction of Special Inspections is through Service Bulletins, All

Operators Wires (AOWs) which detail the requirements of the inspection
criteria.
C. Introduction of Special Inspections is through Service Bulletins, r Service
Information Letters (SlLs), which detail the requirements of the
inspection criteria.
9. What is a Scheduled Inspections?
A. These are regular inspections carried out as part of an approved
maintenance schedule, the frequency of which is dependent upon
either engine cycles, flying hours or calendar based
10. What are the abbreviation of All Operators Wires?
A. AOW
B. AOWs
C. SILs

---
24. LP Turbine (LPT)
The low pressure turbine (LPT) is designed to maintain the rotational
momentum of the LPC system. It drives the fan and the LP booster
compressor.
The LPT module is attached to the HP system module and is linked to the
LPC by a single shaft.
The primary parts of the LPT module are:
• LPT Five Stage Rotor.
• LPT Five Stage Stator Vanes.
• Air Seals.
• LPT Case.
• Inner and Outer Duct.
• LPT Shaft.
• Turbine Exhaust Case (TEC).
The LPT has a five-stage rotor, which supplies power to drive the fan and
LP booster compressor through the LPT shaft.
The LPT rotor is installed in the LPT case where it is in alignment with the
LPT stators. The LPT case is made from high heat resistant nickel alloy and
is a one-part welded assembly.
The LPT case has two borescope inspection ports, one each on the left and
right hand sides. The ports are used to internally examine the adjacent
engine sections:
• Trailing Edge {TE), Stage 2, HPT Blades.
• Leading Edge (LE), Stage 3, LPT Blades.
The remaining stages of the LP system do not have borescope access
ports. However, the trailing edge of LPT Stage 7 can be inspected from the
Common Nozzle Assembly.
The five LPT discs are made from high heat resistant nickel alloy.
The shrouded LPT blades are also made from nickel alloy and are attached
to the discs by fir-tree roots.

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• Stage 3: 97 blades.
• Stage 4: 99 blades.
• Stage 5: 87 blades.
• Stage 6: 85 blades.
• Stage 7: 89 blades.

1. What are the primary parts of LP Turbine?

A. LPT Five Stage Rotor, LPT Five Stage Stator Vanes, Air Seals, LPT
Case, Inner and Outer Duct, Turbine Exhaust Case (TEC).
B. LPT Five Stage Rotor, LPT Five Stage Stator Vanes, Air Seals,
LPT Case, Inner and Outer Duct, LPT Shaft and Turbine Exhaust
Case.
C. LPT Five Stage Rotor, LPT Five Stage Stator Vanes, Air Seals, LPT
Case, LPT Shaft and Turbine Exhaust Case (TEC).
2. What is the purpose of a five-stage rotor in LP Turbine?
A. The LPT has a four-stage rotor, which supplies power to drive the fan
and LP booster compressor through the LPT shaft
B. The LPT has a five-stage rotor, which supplies power for drive the fan
and LP booster compressor through the LPT shaft
C. The LPT has a five-stage rotor, which supplies power to drive the fan and
LP booster compressor through the LPT shaft
3. How many inspection ports of the LP Turbine?
A. The LPT case has two borescope inspection ports.
B. The LPT case has borescope inspection ports.
C. The LPT case has three borescope inspection ports.
4. Where is the trailing edge of LPT Stage 7 inspected located?
A. The trailing edge of LPT Stage 7 can be inspected under the
Common Nozzle Assembly.
B. The trailing edge of LPT Stage 7 can be inspected over the
Common Nozzle Assembly.
C. The trailing edge of LPT Stage 7 can be inspected from the
Common Nozzle Assembly.
5. How many balde in stage 6?
A. Stage 6: 85 blades
B. Stage 6: 89 blades.
C. Stage 6: 87 blades.
6. What is the structure of LPT case?
A. The LPT case is made from high heat resistant nickel alloy and are
a tow-part welded assembly.
B. The LPT case is made from low heat resistant nickel alloy and is a one-
part welded assembly.
C. The LPT case is made from high heat resistant nickel alloy and is a one-
part welded assembly.
7. What is the purpose of LP Turbine?
A. The low pressure turbine (LPT) is designed to maintain the
rotational momentum of the LPC system. It drives the fan and the
LP booster compressor.

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B. The high pressure turbine (HPT) is designed to maintain the

rotational momentum of the HPC system. It drives the fan and the HP
booster compressor.
C. The low pressure turbine (LPT) is designed to maintain the rotational
momentum of the HPC system. It drives the fan and the HP booster
compressor.

8. What are LPT's inspection ports used for?

A. The ports are used to internally examine the adjacent engine sections:
Trailing Edge {TE), Stage 2, HPT Blades and Leading Edge (LE), Stage
2, LPT Blades.
B. The ports are used to internally examine the adjacent engine sections:
Trailing Edge {TE), Stage 3, HPT Blades and Leading Edge (LE),
Stage 3, LPT Blades.
C. The ports are used to internally examine the adjacent engine sections:
Trailing Edge {TE), Stage 2, HPT Blades and Leading Edge (LE),
Stage 3, LPT Blades.
9. Where is location of LP Turbine?
A. The LPT module is attached to the LP system module and is linked to
the LPC by a single shaft.
B. The LPT module is attached to the HP system module and is linked to
the LPC by a single shaft.
C. The LPT module is not attached to the HP system module and is
linked to the LPC by a single shaft.
10. What is the structure of LPT disc?
A. The five LPT discs are made from high heat resistant nickel alloy
B. The five HPT discs are made from high heat resistant nickel alloy
C. The five LPT discs are made from low heat resistant nickel alloy

---
25. HP System: Combustor
The combustor is designed to mix the compressed air with fuel and ignite the
mixture. The resultant hot expanding gases drive the turbines.
The combustor is located between the HPC and HPT.
The combustion system is made up of the following:
• The diffuser section.
• The combustion inner and outer liners.
• The No: 4 bearing
assembly. Diffuser Casing
The diffuser section is the primary structural part of the combustion section
and has 20 mounting pads for the installation of the Fuel Spray Nozzles (FSN).
Next to two of these (No: 7 & 8 FSN) are the positions of the two igniters.
Combustion Chamber
• The inner and outer liners form the combustion chamber.
• Five locating pins that pass through the diffuser casing locate the outer liner.

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• The inner combustion liner is attached to the stage 1 turbine nozzle

guide vane assembly.
• The inner and outer liners are manufactured from sheet metal, each
supporting 50 liner segments.
• Each segment is secured to the liner by five nuts.
• The liner segments can be replaced independently during engine overhaul.

1. What is the combustion system made up of?

A. The diffuser section, the combustion inner and outer liners and the No: 3
bearing assembly.
B. The diffuser section, the combustion inner and outer liners and the No:
4 bearing assembly.
C. The diffuser section, the combustion inner and outer liners and the No:
2 bearing assembly.
2. Where is location of the two igniters?
A. Next to two of these (No: 6 & 8 FSN).
B. Next to two of these (No: 6 & 7 FSN).
C. Next to two of these (No: 7 & 8 FSN).
3. What is the purpose of Combustor in HP System?
A. The combustor is designed to mix the compressed air with fuel and ignite
the mixture.
B. The resultant hot expanding gases drive the turbines
C. The combustor is designed to mix the compressed air with fuel and
ignite the mixture. The resultant hot expanding gases drive the turbines
4. Where is location of Combustor?
A. The combustor is located between the HPC and HPT
B. The combustor is located under the HPC, HPT
C. The combustor is located over the HPC and HPT
5. What holds each segment together?
A. Each segment is secured to the liner by five nuts.
B. Each segment are secured to the liner by four nuts.
C. Each segment is secured to the liner by four nuts.

26. Read the following paragraph and choose the correct the answer:
Trent XWB Line and Base Maintenance Preface
Issue 2 February 2015 Preface Page 3
Rolls-Royce/Airbus Business Agreement
The business agreement introduces new business and technical interfaces. The
propulsion system is divided into two work packages:
RR Responsibilities
- The bare engine and associated engine systems.
- The Engine Section Stators (ESS) anti-icing system.

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- The Variable Frequency Generator Oil Cooling System.

- The technical definition of the nacelle internal aerodynamics.
- Engine Mounts.
- Fire and Overheat detection system.
- Engine Fire Extinguishing System.
- Hydraulic pipe-work.
- Engine Bleed Air System (EBAS) pipe-work and IP check valve
- Inlet anti-icing valves, controllers including pipe-work.
Airbus Responsibilities
- Variable Frequency Generators (VFG) and QAD adaptor.
- Hydraulic Pumps.
- Aircraft mounted Airborne Vibration Monitoring equipment.
- Engine Bleed Air System (EBAS) valves only (not IP check valve).
- Engine Inlet Cowl assembly (Manufacture).
UTAS Responsibilities
- Fan Cowl Assembly.
- Thrust Reverser Assembly including actuation system.
- Inlet Cowl (In service maintainability).
- Power Door Operating System (PDOS).
- Nacelle Hold Open Rods.
- Primary Exhaust Nozzle.
- Primary Exhaust Plug.

1. Which organization is responsible for the Fan Cowl Assembly?

a. Rolls – Royce
b. Airbus
c. UTAS
2. Which organization is responsible for the Hydraulic Pumps?
a. AIRBUS
b. Rolls-Royce
c. UTAS
3. Which organization is responsible for the Variable Frequency Generator Oil Cooling
System?
a. AIRBUS
b. Rolls-Royce
c. UTAS
4. How many parts of the engine that RR is responsible for?
a. 10
b. 5
c. 7
5. How many parts of the engine that Airbus is responsible
for? a. 5

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b. 10
c. 7
6. How many parts of the engine that UTAS is responsible for?
a. 7
b. 10
c. 5

27. Read the following paragraph and choose the correct the answer:

PREPARING TO BORESCOPE
Follow preparation procedures set out in the Aircraft Maintenance Manual (AMM) to
ensure safe practices and the best inspection outcome.
Read and have access to all required maintenance documents that contain specific
inspection criteria and intervals, e.g. AMM, Service Bulletins (S .B.), All Operator Wires
(AOW) and Airworthiness Directives (A.D.). Check the latest supplemental information
before conducting borescope inspection.
1. Before starting inspection:
Wait for internal temperatures to go below 150 oF (65oC), or engine parts or borescope
equipment may be damaged. Assemble all the required equipment and materials
examine the condition of all equipment. Clean parts and tools, as necessary.
2. Install and remove protective covers as necessary to prevent damage to the
engine. Safety Conditions
WARNING:
PERFORM BORESCOPE INSPECTION IN AN AREA WHICH IS PROTECTED FROM
WEATHER. IF A BORESCOPE INSPECTION IS DONE IN WET CONDITIONS,
PROTECT THE EQUIPMENT TO PREVENT POSSIBLE ELECTRICAL SHOCK TO THE
OPERATOR OR DAMAGE TO THE UNIT.
CAUTION:
ENSURE THE ENGINE TEMPERATURE IS LESS THAN 150°F (65.6°C) BEFORE
INSERTING A BORESCOPE. IF THE ENGINE IS HOTTER THAN 150°F (65.6°C), THE
BORESCOPE CAN BE DAMAGED.
CONTINUOUS CRANKING OF THE STARTER IS LIMITED TO FOUR MINUTES
MAXIMUM FOLLOWED BY A 30 MINUTE COOL DOWN PERIOD.
DAMAGE TO THE STARTER WILL OCCUR IF THIS LIMIT IS EXCEEDED.
KEY FACT
The engine can be "dry motored" with the starter to shorten
the wait time required for the core temperature of the engine
to be lower than 150"F (65"C)

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1. What should we do before inserting a borescope?

a. Make sure the A/C is grounded
b. Make sure the electrical is supplied
c. Make sure the engine temperature is less than the limit
2. What is the engine temperature limit before inserting a borescope?
a. Higher than
65.6°C b. Less than
65.6°C
c. Depends on the outside temperature
3. What should we do to carry out borescope in wet condition?
a. Stop the borescope procedure
b. Protect the equipment to prevent possible electrical shock.
c. Tow the A/C in the hangar.
4. What can occur if the engine temperature is greater than 150°F?
a. The operator can be burned
b. The borescope can be damaged
c. The engine must be “dry motored"
5. What should we do when the engine temperature is higher than
65.6°C? a. “Dry motored” the engine.
b. Run up the engine
c. Borescope the engine

28. Read the following paragraph and choose the correct the answer:

TYPES OF BORESCOPES
Borescopes can be rigid or flexible. Rigid borescopes are available in a variety of probe
diameters and working lengths, with either adjustable or fixed focus eyepieces called
oculars.
Flexible borescopes are manufactured in different diameters, with the most common being
4 millimeter (mm), 6 mm, and 8 mm. These scopes use digital camera technology to
transmit views from inside the engine to portable display screens.

The tip of the flexible scope can be controlled to bend in many directions, allowing views to
internal engine components that are inaccessible to rigid borescopes. Earlier flexible
borescope probes transmitted the image to the eyepiece with fiber optics. The latest
probes use digital signals to provide the image to a display screen. This advance in
technology improves the flexible scope image and light quality, making it equal to rigid
scope systems with their high quality optical lenses and more powerful light sources.

Compressor and Turbine Rotation

Pratt & Whitney recommends stopping the rotation of the rotor each time the next blade

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moves into the correct position to be examined.

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This permits atl blades to be fully examined.

The person performing the inspection is responsible for telling the person turning the rotor
when to start and stop. Poor communication may cause damage to the engine and scope.
Turning the Low Pressure Compressor and Turbine (N1 Rotor)
1. Turn the fan by hand to rotate the N1 rotor during an LPC/LPT blade inspection. Wear
gloves when turning the fan.
2. Count the blades for each stage to ensure all blades have been inspected. One- third
fan rotation is equal to one full rotation of the LPC/LPT.

1. How many types of borescope are there?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
2. What are the 2 types of borescope?
a. Rigid and flexible
b. Rigid only
c. Flexible only
3. When the next blade moves into the correct position to be examined, what does PW
recommend?
a. Stopping the rotation of the rotor
b. Continuing the rotation of the rotor
c. Rotate the rotor slowly
4. What should happen if the person performing the inspection had poor
communication to the person turning the rotor?
a. The rotor had rotated too fast
b. The rotor had rotated too slow
c. It may cause damage to the engine and scope
5. How can we turn the N1 rotor?
a. Turn the fan
b. Turn the HPT rotor
c. Cannot turn
6. To ensure all blades of LPC/LPT have been inspected, how many circles you
must turn the fan?
a. 01
b. 1/3
c. 1/2

29. Read the following paragraph and choose the correct the answer:
OVERVIEW
Access ports are external engine openings for inspecting internal gas path parts without
engine disassembly. A borescope probe inserted through an access port can reveal
damage such as cracks, wear, and missing material. Blend repair of damage found during
inspection is accomplished using compressor stage access ports.

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The PW1100G-JM engine has 16 access ports (abbreviated as AP) located externally
along the gaspath, and two igniter plug ports that can also be used for inspection. All
access ports on this engine are located on the right side. Two of the HPC access ports are
located on the diffuser/combustor case.
Access ports are named by module and stage location. For example, AP LPC-1 is an
external port located near the LPC Stage vane. From this port, internal components such
as the LPC variable inlet vanes and Stage blades can be inspected. The table shows the
total number of access ports for each module.
AP locations are referenced clockwise as seen from the rear of the engine, and are found
on the external casings.
1. What does the “AP” stand for?
a. Access point
b. Access port
c. Access pin
2. How many access ports on the PW1100G (except 2 igniter plug ports)
a. 15
b. 16
c. 17
3. Where are the 2 HPC AP locate?
a. On the AGB
b. On the MGB
c. On the diffuser/combustor case
4. What is the function of the AP?
a. Reveal damage inside and blend repair
b. Reveal damage only
c. Blend repair only
5. The total number of access ports for each module is?
a. The same at all modules
b. It shows on the table of each engine
c. I do not know

30. Read the following paragraph and choose the correct the answer:

RESPONSIBLE LEVEL 3
The employer shall identify in writing a "Responsible Level 3" to action its behalf in matters
regarding the NDT qualification and certification process. The Responsible Level 3 shall be
certified in accordance with this standard as a Level 3 in one or more NDT methods and
shall have a thorough knowledge of the written instructions, codes, specifications and
standards used by the employer. He/she shall also have a thorough knowledge of the
materials, components, product technologies, NDT methods and NDT techniques used by
the employer. Additional Examiners as defined in this standard may be identified and
delegated in writing as necessary to provide coverage for all methods used by the
employer. The Responsible Level 3 may be an outside agency but in this case he/she can

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only qualify personnel, as only the employer can certify personnel. The Responsible Level
3 shall be responsible for implementation of this standard and the overall administration
of the qualification and certification program.
1. The “Responsible Level 3” NDT staff shall be certified in only one NDT methods –
TRUE or FAULT? And why?
a. It’s fault. The Responsible Level 3 shall be certified in accordance with this
standard as a Level 3 in one or more NDT methods
b. It’s TRUE. NDT staff shall be certified in only one NDT methods
c. I do not know
2. Name some elements that the “Responsible Level 3” NDT staff have to a
thorough knowledge?
a. Written instructions, codes, specifications and standards used by the employer
b. Speak English fluently, codes, specifications and standards used by the employer
c. Written instructions, codes, issue NDT program used by the employer

3. Except the “Responsible Level 3” NDT staff shall have a thorough knowledge of
the written instructions, codes, specifications and standards used by the employer,
whats he should have to know also?
a. He/she may be identified and delegated in writing as necessary to
provide coverage for all methods used by the employer
b. He/she must have the Level 1 anh 2 certificate
c. All are correct
4. What shall be the “Responsible Level 3” NDT staff responsible for?
a. The Responsible Level 3 shall be responsible for implementation of this standard
and the overall administration of the qualification and certification program
b. The Responsible Level 3 improves the NDT quality
c. The Responsible Level 3 trains the trainee

31. Read the following paragraph and choose the correct the answer:
GENERAL
The four basic levels of certification are Level I-Limited, Level 1, Level 2 and Level 3.
The employer may subdivide, add or limit levels as appropriate, but cannot eliminate or
reduce the minimum requirements for each level. If the employer does not wish to use
all of the levels, those levels to be used shall be documented in the employer's written
practice. Where other variations or subdivisions are implemented, the requirements
and responsibilities shall also be detailed in the employer's written practice.
NDT personnel shall not independently perform the functions listed in 5.1.3, 5.1.4, 5.1.5
and 5.1.6 if not certified to the appropriate level in the applicable technique/method.
1. How many basic levels of
certification? a. There are 4 basic
levels.
b. There are 3 basic levels
c. There are 5 basic levels
2. What are the 4 basic levels of NDT certification?
a. They are: Level I-Limited, Level 1, Level 2 and Level 3
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b. They are Level 1, Level 2 , Level 3 and Level 4

c. They are Type A, Type B1, Type B2 and Type C

3. How can the employer control each level?

a. The employer may subdivide, add or limit levels as appropriate,
b. Each level is can not changeable
c. The employer may remove some minimum requirements
4. Can the employer remove some minimum requirements for a level? And why?
a. No, the employer cannot eliminate or reduce the minimum requirements for each
level
b. Yes, the employer cannot eliminate or reduce the minimum requirements
c. Neither a & b is correct

32. Read the following paragraph and choose the correct the answer:
TRAINEE
An individual who is documented as participating in a training program for an NDT
method and is in the process of becoming qualified for certification to Level I-Limited,
Level I or directly to Level 2 shall be considered a trainee. In the technique/method in
which they are preparing for certification, trainees shall:
- Be documented as a trainee and be actively participating in a training program
for a stated NDT method for a limited and specified period of time.
- Obtain experience under the direct observation Of a Level 2 or Level 3 in the
same method.
- Obtain experience under the direct observation of a Level I or instructor only
when approved by the responsible Level 3.
- Not make accept or reject decisions.
- Not independently conduct tests.
• Not independently perform any other NDT function.
1. What does a “Trainee” mean?
a. It’s an individual who is documented as participating in a training program for an
NDT method and is in the process of becoming qualified for certification to Level I-
Limited, Level I or directly to Level 2
b. It’s an individual who is documented as participating in a training program for
an NDT method and is in the process of becoming qualified for certification to
Level I-
Limited, Level I or directly to Level 3
c. It’s an individual who is documented as participating in a training program for
an NDT method and is in the process of becoming qualified for certification to
Level I- Limited, Level I or directly to Level 2 and Level 3
2. In this paragraph, what’s the second requirement when a Trainee prepare for getting
certificate in a technique/method?
a. Obtain experience under the direct observation Of a Level 2 or Level 3 in the
same method
b. Not make accept or reject decisions.

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c. Obtain experience under the direct observation of a Level I or instructor only

when approved by the responsible Level 3.

33. Read the following paragraph and choose the correct the answer: (Level 2)
ANNEX C - NATIONAL AEROSPACE NON-DESTRUCTIVE TESTING BOARDS
(NANDTB)
SCOPE
This annex specifies the requirements for qualification of NDT personnel under the general
control of a National Aerospace Non-destructive Testing Board (NANDTB) in accordance
with this standard.
REQUIREMENTS
A NANDTB is an independent national aerospace organization representing a nation's
aerospace industry and is recognized by the nation's Regulatory Agency to provide or
support NDT qualification services in accordance with this standard. Each NANDTB
shall be recognized formally in writing by the nation's Regulatory Agencies.
Each NANDTB shall define, organize, administer and manage activities in accordance
with this standard.
Each NANDTB shall have a written constitution, deciding entity and be governed
according to administrative and working procedures and shall issue a statute or similar
document containing:
The constitution, terms of reference and methods of working of the Board;
• The aims and objectives of the Board;
Rules of procedure for voting and agreeing
resolutions; The criteria to be met by member
organizations;
• The procedure for applying for membership and election of member
organizations, together with rules regarding termination of membership;
The names and status of the organizations in membership of the Board;
• Duties, responsibilities and tenure of appointed officers (e.g. chairman, secretary,
convener of working groups); The method(s) by which the NANDTB controls
qualification examinations administered by internal and external examination
bodies;
Examination body criteria, including the audit and approval process;
Guidance to examination bodies under its control on the content of certificates issued
for training and examinations;
Policy on recognition of examination body approvals issued under the control of other
national boards.
1. What is a NANDTB?
a. A NANDTB is an independent national aerospace organization representing a

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nation's aerospace industry and is recognized by the nation's Regulatory Agency
to provide or support NDT qualification services in accordance with this standard.

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b. The constitution, terms of reference and methods of working of the Board;

c. Guidance to examination bodies under its control on the content of
certificates issued for training and examinations;
2. Which orgnisation recognized formally in writing for a NANDTB?
a. NANDTB shall be recognized formally in writing by the nation's
Regulatory Agencies
b. NANDTB shall be recognized formally in writing by the Airlines
c. NANDTB shall be recognized formally in writing by the AMO

3. What is “NANDTB” stand for:

a. NATIONAL AEROSPACE NON-DESTRUCTIVE TESTING BOARDS
b. NON-DESTRUCTIVE TESTING AND DATABASE
c. NATIONNAL AIRLINES NON-DESTRUCTIVE TESTING BASE
4. What document Each NANDTB shall have:
a. Each NANDTB shall have a written constitution, deciding entity and be
governed according to administrative and working procedures and shall issue a
statute or similar document
b. Each NANDTB shall have a written constitution, and be governed according
to administrative and working procedures and shall issue a statute or similar
document
c. Each NANDTB shall have a written constitution, deciding entity and be
governed according to administrative and working.

34. Read the following paragraph and choose the correct the answer:
Verification procedure
The characteristics to be verified are dependant on the application. The essential
characteristics and the level of verification shall be specified in a verification procedure.
The examination procedure for the application shall refer to the verification procedure.
This can restrict the number of characteristics to be verified for a defined application.
Sufficient data on the characteristics featured in an instrument, probe and reference piece
shall be provided, in order that verification can be performed within the scope of this part
of ISO 15548.
1. What is the characteristics to be verified are dependant on?
a. It depends on the application
b. It depends on the character
c. It depends on the method
2. In which document that the essential characteristics and the level of verification shall
be specified in?
a. It specified in a verification procedure.
b. It specified in a document of the NDT staff.
c. It specified in a manufacture document.

3. Where do the examination procedure for the application shall refer to?
a. It refers to the verification procedure

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b. It refers to the AMM

c. It refer to the CMM

35. Read the following paragraph and choose the correct the answer:
Corrective actions
Level 1: When the performance is not within the specified limits, a decision shall be
made concerning the product examined since the previous successful verification.
Corrective actions shall be made to bring the performance within the acceptable
limits.
Level 2: When the deviation of the characteristic is greater than the acceptable
limits specified by the manufacturer or in the application document, a decision shall
be made concerning the instrument, the probe or the accessory being verified.
Level 3: When the characteristic is out of the acceptable range specified by the
manufacturer or by the application document, a decision shall be made concerning
the instrument, the probe or the accessory being verified.
1. In level 1, when the performance is not within the specified limits, what can we do?
a. A decision shall be made concerning the product examined since the
previous successful verification
b. A decision shall be made concerning the instrument, the probe or the
accessory being verified
c. A decision shall be made concerning the instrument, the probe or the
accessory being verified
2. In level 2, When the deviation of the characteristic is greater than the acceptable
limits specified by the manufacturer, what can we do?
a. A decision shall be made concerning the instrument, the probe or the
accessory being verified
b. A decision shall be made concerning the product examined since the
previous successful verification
c. A decision shall be made concerning the instrument, the probe or the
accessory being verified

36. Read the following paragraph and choose the correct the answer:
Signal processing
6.4.1 General
The signal processing stage comprises high-frequency and low-frequency signal
processing, as specified on the block diagram in Figure-l.
6.4.2 Measurement conditions
These measurement conditions apply for 64.3 to unless indicated otherwise.
The resistor terminating the input (see 6.1) shall be shielded. The gain of the
instrument shall be set to its minimum value. The instrument shall be balanced with
zero input voltage. All filters shall be set to have a minimum effect.

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It should be noted that the filter settings used for a specific application will modify
characteristics, for example, bandwidth, gain setting accuracy and phase-setting
accuracy. In this case, the measurement conditions for verification shall be
specified in the application document.
Since the measured value is the output value, no distinction can be made between
the filtering effect of the HF filter and the demodulator. I f the HF filter is adjustable,
it should be set to the value recommended by the manufacturer for the selected test
frequency.
Using the frequency beat method (see Annex A), adjust the output voltage of an external
signal generator, connected to the input, to half of the maximum allowable input voltage of
the instrument related to linearity.
The difference fd between the frequency of the signal generator and the selected
frequency of the instrument shall not be greater than 10 % of the bandwidth of the
instrument, as specified by the manufacturer.
1. What is the resistor terminating measurement conditions?
a. The resistor terminating the input shall be shielded
b. There is no requirement for the resistor
c. Make sure the voltage is set to zero
2. What is the instrument measurement conditions?
a. The gain of the instrument shall be set to its minimum value
b. The gain of the instrument shall be set to its maximum value
c. The gain of the instrument shall be set to Zero
3. What is the filters measurement conditions?
a. All filters shall be set to have a minimum effect.
b. The filters shall be set to Zero
c. There is no requirement for the filter
4. Why no distinction can be made between the filtering effect of the HF filter and the
demodulator?
a. Because the measured value is the output value
b. Because the measured value is the input value
c. Because the measured value is the maximum value
5. What is the value of the HF filter if it can be adjusted?
a. It should be set to the value recommended by the manufacturer for the selected test
frequency
b. It should be set to the maximum value that the manufacturer required
c. It should be set to the minimum value that the manufacturer ordered

37. Read the following paragraph and choose the correct the
answer: Quality Control Provisions
This section provides the controls necessary to ensure that the penetrant system,
materials, and equipment provide an acceptable level of performance. The frequencies of
the required checks in Table I are based on a facility operating daily. For facilities
operating less frequently, the frequency of daily and weekly checks and those required at

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the start of each shift may be reduced accordingly but must be performed prior to
processing of parts. Other checks shall be performed at the same frequency as for full-
time operations. The NDT facility may perform these process control operations or contract
for their performance with an independent laboratory. Records of tests, except as noted in
Table I, shall be maintained and available for audit by the customer, the cognizant
engineering organization, or regulatory agencies. Penetrant materials that are provided
ready for-use and do not require mixing to a concentration, and are not recovered, or
reused, or both, and are stored as recommended by the manufacturer, are not subject to
the in-use penetrant requirements of 7.8.2. Examples include materials packaged in
aerosol containers, closed drums, or materials poured into containers, and are not reused
1. Which elements be controlled by Quality Control?
a. The penetrant system, materials, and equipment
b. The element, requirement and verification procedure
c. The verification procedure, material and the quality system

2. What does the frequencies of the required checks In Table 1 based on?
a. It based on a facility operating daily
b. It based on the verification procedure
c. It based on the Level 3 NDT staff decision

38. Scope*
1.1 This practice establishes the minimum requirements for conducting liquid penetrant
examination of nonporous metal and nonmetal components.
NOTE I—This practice replaces MIL-STD-6866.
1.2 The penetrant examination processes described in this practice are applicable to in-
process, final, and maintenance (in-service) examinations. These processes are
applicable for the detection of discontinuities, such as lack of fusion, corrosion, cracks,
laps, cold shuts, and porosity, that are open or connected to the surface of the component
under examination.
1.3 Caution must be exercised in the usage of elevated temperature with components
manufactured from thermoplastic materials. Also, some cleaners, penetrants, and
developers can have a deleterious effect on nonmetallic materials such as plastics. Prior
to examination, tests should be conducted to ensure that none of the cleaning or
examination materials are harmful to the components to be examined.

1. What is practice establishes the minimum requirements for ?

A. Solid
B. Gas
C. conducting liquid penetrant examination of nonporous metal and
nonmetal components.
(This practice establishes the minimum requirements for conducting liquid penetrant
examination of nonporous metal and nonmetal components.)
NOTE I—This practice replaces MIL-STD-6866.

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2. What are the penetrant examination processes described in this

practice applicable ?
A. to in-process
B. to final
C. to in-process, final, and maintenance (in-service) examinations.
(The penetrant examination processes described in this practice are applicable to in-
process, final, and maintenance (in-service) examinations.)
3. What are these processes applicable for ?
A. cracks, laps, cold shuts, and porosity
B. such as lack of fusion, corrosion
C. the detection of
discontinuities D. All of above
(These processes are applicable for the detection of discontinuities, such as lack of
fusion, corrosion, cracks, laps, cold shuts, and porosity)
4. What kind of cleaner, penetrant and developers can have a deleterious
effect on nonmetallic materials?
A. Metal
B. Composite
C. Plastic
(some cleaners, penetrants, and developers can have a deleterious effect on
nonmetallic materials such as plastics.)
5. Should you do test before examination?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Yes, tests should be conducted to ensure that none of the cleaning or
examination materials are harmful to the components

- -------
39. Signifieance and Use
4.1This practice establishes the basic parameters for controlling the application of
the liquid penetrant method. This practice is written so it can be specified on the
engineering drawing, specification, or contract. It is not a detailed how-to procedure
to be used by the inspector and, therefore, must be supplemented by a detailed
procedure that conforms to the requirements of this practice. Practice El 65/E165M
contains information to help develop detailed requirements.

1. What is the purpose of practice?

A. Test
B. establishes the basic parameters for controlling the application of the liquid
penetrant method
C. None of above
(This practice establishes the basic parameters for controlling the application of the
liquid penetrant method)

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7.3.1.3 Manual Wipe—Excess penetrant shall be removed with a clean, dry, lint-free
cloth or absorbent toweling. The remainder of the surface penetrant shall then be
removed with a water-dampened cloth or towel. The surface shall not be flushed with
water and the cloth or towel shall not be saturated with water. The component shall be
examined under appropriate illumination to ensure adequate removal of the surface
penetrant. The surface shall be dried by blotting with a clean, dry towel or cloth, or by
evaporation.
1. What kind of Manual Wipe—Excess penetrant shall be remove ?
A. Brush
B. Lint-free cloth
C. None of above

2. What kind of Manual Wipe—Excess penetrant shall be remove ?

A. Lint-free cloth
B. Absorbent
toweling C. Both A
and B
(Manual Wipe—Excess penetrant shall be removed with a clean, dry, lint-free cloth or
absorbent toweling.)
3. What kind of the surface shall be dried by ?
A. Dry towel
B. Evaporation
C. All of above

(The surface shall be dried by blotting with a clean, dry towel or cloth, or by
evaporation.)
7.3.1 Method A Process—Water-washable penetrants shall be removed with a
manual or automated water spray, or a manual wipe, or an air agitated immersion
wash, or a combi-nation thereof.

4. What kind of the Method A Process—Water-washable penetrants can be removed with

?
A. Water spray
B. Manual wipe
C. an air agitated immersion wash or a combi-nation thereof
D. All of above

- -----
40. (Method A Process—Water-washable penetrants shall be removed with a
manual or automated water spray, or a manual wipe, or an air agitated
immersion wash, or a combi-nation thereof.)
7.3.1.1 Manual Spray—For handheld spray guns, water pressure adequate to
remove the penetrant shall be used but shall not exceed 40 psi [275 kPa]. Water
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temperature shall be between 50 to 100 O F [10 to 38 oc]. When hydro-air nozzles

are used, the air pressure shall not exceed 25 psi [172 kPa]. A coarse spray shall be
used with a minimum distance of 12 in. [30 cm], when possible, between the spray
nozzle and the part. Washing shall be conducted under appropriate illumination.
Caution shall be exercised to ensure that over-washing does not occur. If over-
washing occurs, the component(s) shall be thoroughly dried and reprocessed. After
rinsing, drain water from the component and utilize repositioning, suction, blotting
with clean absorbent materials, or filtered shop air at less than 25 psi [172 kPa] to
prevent pooling in cavities, recesses, and pockets. (Over-removal of the surface
penetrant shall require that the component be cleaned and reprocessed. A good
indicator of over-wash or over-removal of the surface penetrant is evidenced by the
total lack of residue that may occur on all or a specific area of the part; see Practice
E165/E165M.)

1. What is the water pressure limit with Manual Spray—For handheld spray
guns adequate to remove the penetrant ?
A. 48 psi
B. Not exceed 40 psi
C. Nothing
(Manual Spray—For handheld spray guns, water pressure adequate to remove the
penetrant shall be used but shall not exceed 40 psi [275 kPa].)
2. Does the coarse spray shall be used with a minimum distance of ?
A. 10 cm
B. 15 cm
C. minimum distance of 12 in. [30 cm]
(A coarse spray shall be used with a minimum distance of 12 in. [30 cm], when
possible, between the spray nozzle and the part.)
3. What is the temperature when you use Manual Spray—For handheld spray guns ?
A. 40 F
B. 30 F
C. 50 to 100 O F [10 to 38 oc].
(Water temperature shall be between 50 to 100 O F [10 to 38 oc].)
4. What is the air pressure When hydro-air nozzles are used ?
A. 24 psi
B. 30 psi
C. not exceed 25 psi [172 kPa]
(the air pressure shall not exceed 25 psi [172 kPa])

41. III- Read the following paragraph and choose the correct answer:
The V2500 engine has been designated the 'V' because International Aero Engines
(IAE) were originally a five-nation consortium. 'V' being the Roman numeral for 'five'.

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The V2500 numbering indicates the first engine type, A1, to be released into production
rated at 25,000lbs of thrust.
An engine designation system has been established for easy identification of present
and future variants of the V2500 engines:
• The designation 'V2500-A' collectively describes all the applications for the Airbus
lndustrie A320 family aircraft.
• 'V2500-D' collectively describes all applications for the Boeing McDonnell
Douglas MD-90 aircraft.
• This is irrespective of engine thrust rating.
Furthermore, this system is intended to provide a clear designation of present and
future variants of the V2500 A5/D5 engines as well as a simple way of grouping by
name, engines with similar characteristics:
• All engines will retain 'V2500' as a generic name.
• The first three characters of the full designation are V25. This will identify all
the engines in the family.
• The next two numerals indicate the rated sea level take-off thrust. (See Note)
• The following alphabet, 'A' or 'D', denotes the aircraft manufacturer.
• The last numeral represents the mechanical standard of the engine.
Hence, 'V2524-A5' is an engine of the V2500 series with a sea level take-off thrust of
24,000 lbs, built to a mechanical build standard of '5' for an aircraft of Airbus lndustrie
A320 family.
Note: The 'V2500' denoting an A1-engine is exempt from these additional identifications
and will stay with '00' as it is the original certified engine with only one thrust rating of
25,000 lbs.
The A5 engine has undergone further modifications to decrease fuel burn,
increase time on wing and reduce miscellaneous shop visits. This engine is
designated A5 SelectOne ™.
1. Where is the mechanical standard of the engine shown?
a. The last numeral represents the mechanical standard of the engine.
b. The first three characters.
c. The following alphabet, 'A' or 'D'
2. How much thrust is
V2500? a. 25,000lbs
b. 20,000lbs
c. 30,000lbs
3. What does the letter V in V2500 mean?
a. 'V' being the Roman numeral for 'five'
b. “V” is the type of engine
c. “V” is the name of the manufacture
4. What is the purpose of modifications the A5 engine?
a. The A5 engine has undergone further modifications to decrease fuel
burn, increase time on wing and reduce miscellaneous shop visits.
b. The A5 engine has undergone further modifications to increase fuel
burn, increase time on wing and reduce miscellaneous shop visits
c. The A5 engine has undergone further modifications to decrease fuel
burn, decrease time on wing and remain miscellaneous shop visits
5. What mechanical standards is the V2524-A5 built to?

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a. V2500 built to a mechanical build standard of '5' for an aircraft of Airbus lndustrie
A320 family
b. 'V2524-A5' is an engine of the V2500 series with a sea level take-off thrust of
30,000 lbs
c. 'V2524-A5' is an engine for all aircraft of Airbus lndustrie A320, A350 family
6. What's the difference between 'V2500-D' and 'V2500-A'?
a. The designation 'V2500-A' collectively describes all the applications for the
Airbus lndustrie A320 family aircraft and 'V2500-D' collectively describes
all applications for the Boeing McDonnell Douglas MD-90 aircraft
b. 'V2500-A' collectively describes all applications for the Boeing
McDonnell Douglas MD-90 aircraft
c. The designation 'V2500-D' collectively describes all the applications for
the Airbus lndustrie A320 family aircraft.
7. What do the next two digits of V25 mean?
a. The next two numerals indicate the rated sea level take-off thrust.
b. The next two numerals indicate the denotes the aircraft manufacturer.
c. The next two numerals indicate the mechanical standard of the engine
8. The original IAE was a consortium of how many countries?
a. International Aero Engines (IAE) were originally a five-nation consortium
b. International Aero Engines (IAE) were originally a four-nation consortium
c. International Aero Engines (IAE) were originally a six-nation consortium
9. What is the generic name of the V2500 engine
family? a. V2500
b. V2500-A1
c. V2500-D1

42. III- Read the following paragraph and choose the correct answer:
Low Pressure Compressor (LPC)

The low-pressure compressor (LPC) is designed to move a large volume of air

rearwards, which constitutes the majority of the engine's thrust.
The low-pressure compressor is attached to the LPC stubshaft via a curvic
coupling. The LPC stubshaft is attached to the LP Turbine shaft.
The low pressure compressor is the complete fan assembly and comprises:
• 22 fan blades.
• 22 annulus fillers.
• The fan disc.
• The front and rear blade retaining rings.
The blades are retained in the disc radially by the dovetail root with the front and
rear blade retaining rings providing axial retention. Blade removal/replacement is
achieved by removing the front blade retaining ring as also the annulus fillers on
either side of the blade and then sliding the blade along the dovetail slot in the disc.
In between the fan blades are annulus fillers forming the fan inner annulus for
smooth gas path entry to the core engine.
The nose cone and fairing streamline the airflow into the fan but do not form part of
the module 31. They are non-modular parts and are individually balanced.

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1. How to replace blade of the low-pressure compressor?

a. Blade replacement is achieved by removing the front blade retaining ring
as also the annulus fillers on either side of the blade and then sliding the
blade along the dovetail slot in the disc.
b. Blade removal/replacement is achieved by removing the annulus fillers on
either side of the blade and then sliding the blade along the dovetail slot in
the disc
c. It can not be replaced
2. What is the purpose of low pressure compressor?
a. The low-pressure compressor (LPC) is designed to move a large volume
of air rearwards, which constitutes the majority of the engine's thrust.
b. The low-pressure compressor (LPC) is designed to compress air
c. The low-pressure compressor (LPC) is designed to mix the air with fuel

3. How does the air enter the core smoothly?

a. In between the fan blades are annulus fillers forming the fan inner annulus
for smooth gas path entry to the core engine
b. It depends on the airflow and contour of the blade
c. Because it’s the compressed air
4. Where is location of low pressure compressor?
a. The low-pressure compressor is attached to the LPC stubshaft via a
curvic coupling. The LPC stubshaft is attached to the LP Turbine shaft.
b. The LPC stubshaft is attached to the HP Turbine shaft.
c. The LPC is is attached to the HPC stubshaft via a curvic coupling
5. What does the low pressure compressor include?
a. The low pressure compressor is the complete fan assembly and
comprises: 22 fan blades, 22 annulus fillers, the fan disc and the front and
rear blade retaining rings.
b. The low pressure compressor is the complete fan assembly and
comprises: 24 fan blades, 24 annulus fillers, the fan disc and the front and
rear blade retaining rings.
c. The low pressure compressor is the complete fan assembly and
comprises: 18 fan blades, 18 annulus fillers, the fan disc and the front and
rear blade retaining rings.

43. III- Read the following paragraph and choose the correct answer: (Level 2)
HP Compressor
The High Pressure Compressor (HPC) is designed to provide the combustion
chamber with high pressure compressed air.
The HPC is located between the LPG booster and the combustion chamber.
The HP compressor assembly is a 10-stage axial flow compressor.
It has a rotor assembly and stator case. The stator case gives support for the
rotor assembly.
The ten compressor stages are numbered from the front starting at the LPC
booster outlet. The HPC numbering starts from 3 through to 12.

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Airflow through the compressor is controlled by variable inlet guide vanes (VIGV),
variable stator vanes (VSV) and bleed valves.
A1 standard has:
1 stage VIGV.
4 stages VSV.
A5 & D5 standards have:
1 stage VIGV.
3 stages VSV.
The rotor assembly has five sub-assemblies:
• Stages 3 to 8 HP compressor discs.
• A vortex reducer ring (between stages 8 & 9).
• Stages 9 to12 HP compressor discs.
• HP compressor shaft.
• HP compressor rotating air seal.
The five sub-assemblies are bolted together to make the rotor.
The compressor blades in stages 3 to 5 are attached to the compressor discs.

1. What is the difference between A1 and A5?

a. A1 has 4 stages VSV and A5 has 3 stages VSV
b. A1 has 5 stages VSV and A5 has 4 stages VSV
c. A1 has 6 stages VSV and A5 has 5 stages VSV
2. What is airflow through the compressor control by?
a. Airflow through the compressor is controlled by variable inlet guide
vanes (VIGV), variable stator vanes (VSV) and bleed valves.
b. Airflow through the compressor is controlled by variable inlet guide
vanes (VIGV), variable stator vanes (VSV) and annulus fillers.
c. Airflow through the compressor is controlled by variable bleed valve
(VBV), variable stator vanes (VSV) and control valves.
3. What is the purpose of the High Pressure Compressor?
a. The High Pressure Compressor (HPC) is designed to provide the
combustion chamber with high pressure compressed air
b. The HPC is designed to compress air
c. The HPC is designed to mix the air with fuel
4. Where is location of High Pressure Compressor?
a. The HPC is located between the LPG booster and the combustion chamber.
b. The HPC is located next to the fan
c. The HPC is located between the fan and the combution
5. The rotor assembly support for the stator case gives true or false?
a. False
b. True
c. I do not know
6. What does five sub-assemblies of the rotor include?
a. Stages 3 to 8 HP compressor discs, a vortex reducer ring, stages 9 to12 HP
compressor discs, HP compressor shaft and HP compressor rotating air
seal
b. Stages 3 to 8 HP compressor discs, HP compressor shaft and
HP compressor rotating air seal.

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c. Stages 3 to 8 HP compressor discs, a vortex reducer ring and stages 9 to

12 HP compressor discs
7. How many sub-assemblies of the rotor assembly?
a. The rotor assembly has five sub-assemblies
b. The rotor assembly has six sub-assemblies
c. The rotor assembly has seven sub-assemblies
8. How many stage axial flow compressor of HP compressor assembly?
a. 10-stage axial flow compressor
b. 8-stage axial flow compressor
c. 9-stage axial flow compressor
9. The five sub-assemblies are bolted together to make the rotor true or false?
a. True
b. False
c. I do not know

44. III- Read the following paragraph and choose the correct answer: (Level 2)
The bypass air, which has a greater mass flow and produces the majority of the overall
thrust of the engine, passes through the raked Fan Outlet Guide Vanes (FOGV) into the
by-pass duct before exiting the outside of the cold exhaust nozzle. The IP and HP
Compressors compress the core flow further before entering the combustion chamber.
Fuel is added to the compressed air and the resulting mixture is ignited. The gases
expand through the turbines where the energy is extracted to drive the compressors
before being exhausted through the hot side of the centre body of the exhaust nozzle.
The combustion system is of annular construction incorporating 20 fuel spray nozzles
through which fuel is supplied from the aircraft fuel system, in response to engine
throttle setting and aircraft operating conditions.
1. How does the bypass air work?
a. The bypass air passes through the raked Fan Outlet Guide Vanes (FOGV) into the
by-pass duct before exiting the outside of the cold exhaust nozzle.
b. The bypass air passes through the Variable Stator Vane into the by-pass duct
before exiting the outside of the cold exhaust nozzle
c. The bypass air passes through the Variable Bleed Valve into the by-pass duct
before exiting the outside of the cold exhaust nozzle
2. Is it only HP Compressor compress the core flow further before entering the
combustion chamber? And why?
a. No, it isn’t. The IP and HP Compressors compress the core flow further before
entering the combustion chamber.
b. Yes it is.
c. No it depends on the quantity of fuel mixed
3. Where do the gases expand before being exhausted through the hot side of
the centre body of the exhaust nozzle?
a. The gases expand through the turbines where the energy is extracted to drive the
compressors before being exhausted through the hot side of the centre body of the
exhaust nozzle

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b. The gases expand through the combution chamber where the energy is extracted to
drive the compressors before being exhausted through the hot side of the centre
body of the exhaust nozzle.
c. The gases expand through the compresors where the energy is extracted to drive
the turbines before being exhausted through the hot side of the centre body of the
exhaust nozzle.
4. What is the structure of the combustion system?
a. The combustion system is of annular construction incorporating 20 fuel spray
nozzles through which fuel is supplied from the aircraft fuel system
b. The combustion system is of annular construction incorporating 22 fuel spray
nozzles through which fuel is supplied from the aircraft fuel system
c. The combustion system is of annular construction incorporating 24 fuel spray
nozzles through which fuel is supplied from the aircraft fuel system

45. III- Read the following paragraph and choose the correct answer: (Level 2)

Safe Operation of Engine during EGR

 Refer to the Engine Operation Limits in the AMP. Run the engine to the minimum power
for the required task.
 If throttle movements are required move them slowly to prevent quick changes in engine
temperature. Fast movement will ultimately decrease the life of the engine.
 Ensure the wind direction and velocity limits are observed and are in Operating limits.
 Turbulence, gusting and crosswind conditions can cause Thrust (THR), Exhaust Gas
Temperature (EGT) and Revolutions per Minute (RPM) indications on the Electronic
Centralised Aircraft Monitoring (ECAM) screen to be unstable at middle power and above.
A variation in the tone of the engine inlet may also be heard. This will require immediate
action by the operator to prevent operational exceedance. It is therefore not permitted to
run in these conditions.
 A surge during engine ground running can be identified by an increase in EGT and a
sudden noise from the engine. If the surge is large enough flames may be seen forward of
the engine inlet. In this case the relevant steps should be taken in accordance with the
Engine Operating Manual and the AMP. The Rolls-Royce Field Service Representative
should also be informed.
 If the engine is operated on the ground in certain ambient conditions static electricity may
be seen to discharge from the LP Compressor Nose Cone. This will not cause damage to
the engine.
 Only carry out engine ground runs if the local weather conditions permit, e.g. icing
conditions or side wind conditions allow, in accordance with the Engine Operating Manual
and the AMP.
1. What is the first thing to do when starting the engine?
a. Refer to the Engine Operation Limits in the AMP. Run the engine to the minimum
power for the required task

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b. Refer to the Engine Operation Limits in the AMM

c. Refer to the Engine Operation Limits in the AMP. Run the engine to the maximum
power for the required task
2. Why are throttle movements required to move them slowly?
a. If throttle movements are required move them slowly to prevent quick changes in
engine temperature. Fast movement will ultimately decrease the life of the engine.
b. Fast movement will ultimately increase the life of the engine
c. Fast movement will shutdown the engine.
3. Is it necessary to ensure that wind direction and speed limits are observed
and within the Operating limits?
a. Yes, it is.
b. No, it is not
c. It depends on out side temperature.
4. What bad conditions affect Thrust (THR), Exhaust Gas Temperature (EGT) and
Revolutions per Minute (RPM) indications on the Electronic Centralised
Aircraft Monitoring (ECAM)?
a. Turbulence, gusting and crosswind conditions can cause Thrust (THR), Exhaust
Gas Temperature (EGT) and Revolutions per Minute (RPM) indications on the
Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring (ECAM) screen to be unstable at middle
power and above
b. Gusting and crosswind conditions can cause Thrust (THR), Exhaust Gas
Temperature (EGT) and Revolutions per Minute (RPM) indications on the Electronic
Centralised Aircraft Monitoring (ECAM) screen to be unstable at middle power and
above
c. Turbulence and crosswind conditions can cause Thrust (THR), Exhaust Gas
Temperature (EGT) and Revolutions per Minute (RPM) indications on the Electronic
Centralised Aircraft Monitoring (ECAM) screen to be unstable at middle power and
above
5. How can a surge in ground run engine be determined?
a. A surge during engine ground running can be identified by an increase in EGT and a
sudden noise from the engine
b. A surge during engine ground running can be identified by an increase of RPM and
the EGT
c. A surge during engine ground running can be identified by an increase in RPM and
a sudden noise from the engine
6. If we see static electricity that can be discharged from the LP compressor
nose cone, is this dangerous to the engine?
a. No, it isn’t. This will not cause damage to the engine
b. Yes, it may cause damage to the engine
c. I cannot decide
7. In your opinion, what can be the title of the passage above?
a. The title of the passage above can be: Safety Operation of Engine during EGR.
b. The title of the passage above can be: Engine run up procedure
c. The title of the passage above can be: Engine run up limit

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46. III- Read the following paragraph and choose the correct answer:
HP System: Combustor
The combustor is designed to mix the compressed air with fuel and ignite the
mixture. The resultant hot expanding gases drive the turbines.
The combustor is located between the HPC and HPT.
The combustion system is made up of the following:
• The diffuser section.
• The combustion inner and outer liners.
• The No: 4 bearing
assembly. Diffuser Casing
The diffuser section is the primary structural part of the combustion section and
has 20 mounting pads for the installation of the Fuel Spray Nozzles (FSN). Next
to two of these (No: 7 & 8 FSN) are the positions of the two igniters.
Combustion Chamber
• The inner and outer liners form the combustion chamber.
• Five locating pins that pass through the diffuser casing locate the outer liner.
• The inner combustion liner is attached to the stage 1 turbine nozzle
guide vane assembly.
• The inner and outer liners are manufactured from sheet metal,
each supporting 50 liner segments.
• Each segment is secured to the liner by five nuts.
• The liner segments can be replaced independently during engine overhaul.

1. What is the combustion system made up of?

a. The diffuser section, the combustion inner and outer liners and the No:
4 bearing assembly.
b. The diffuser section, the combustion inner and outer liners and the No: 5
bearing assembly.
c. The diffuser section, primary structural part of the combustion section
and has 20 mounting pads
2. Where is location of the two igniters?
a. Next to two of No 7 & 8 FSN.
b. Next to two of No 5 & 6 FSN.
c. Next to two of No 3 & 4 FSN.
3. Where is location of
Combustor?
a. The combustor is located between the HPC and HPT
b. The combustor is located between the HPT and the fan case
c. The combustor is located between the HPT and LPT
4. What holds each segment together?
a. Each segment is secured to the liner by five nuts.
b. Each segment is secured to the liner by ten nuts.
c. Each segment is secured to the liner by twenty nuts.
5. What is the function of the Combustor?
a. The combustor is designed to mix the compressed air with fuel and
ignite the mixture.
b. The combustor is designed to suppy high pressure compressed air

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c. The combustor is designed to expand the air to drive the compressor shaft
6. What do hot expandent gases do?
a. The resultant hot expanding gases drive the turbines
b. The resultant hot expanding gases drive the fan
c. The resultant hot expanding gases drive the compressor

47. Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best option to
fit each space by choosing A, B, or C (Level 2)
ACOUSTIC (TAP TESTING)
Tap Testing
Tap testing is widely used for a quick evaluation of any accessible aircraft surfaces to
detect presence of disbonds.
The tap testing procedure consists of lightly tapping the surface of the part with a coin,
light hammer, or other suitable objects. The acoustic response is compared with that at
a known good area.
A “flat” or “dead” response is considered unacceptable. The acoustic response of a
good part can vary dramatically with changes in geometry, in which case a standard of
some sort is required. The entire area of interest must be tapped.
The method is limited to finding relatively shallow defects. In a honeycomb structure,
for example, the far side bondline cannot be evaluated. Thus, two-side access is
required for a complete inspection of honeycomb structures. The method is portable,
but no records are produced. The method is also highly dependent on the inspector‘s
subjective interpretation of the test response.
1. What is tap testing is widely used for a quick evaluation of any accessible aircraft
surfaces to detect ?
A. presence of record.
B. presence of objects.
C. presence of disbonds.
2. What is the tap testing procedure ?
A. The tap testing procedure consists of strong tapping the surface of the part with a coin,
light hammer, or other suitable objects.
B. The tap testing procedure consists of lightly tapping the surface of the part with a coin,
light hammer, or other suitable objects.
C. The tap testing procedure consists of lightly tapping the surface of the part without a
coin, light hammer, or other suitable objects.
3. What is The acoustic response is compared with ?
A. The acoustic response is compared with that at a known good area.
B. The acoustic response is compared without that at a known good area.
C. The acoustic response is’t compared with that at a known good area.

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4. What is considered unacceptable ?

A. A “flat” response is considered unacceptable.
B. A “dead” response is considered unacceptable.
C.. A “flat” or “dead” response is considered unacceptable.
5. What can the acoustic response of a good part vary ?
A. vary dramatically with changes in geometry
B. vary dramatically without changes in geometry
C. vary dramatically without changes out geometry
6. What must the entire area of interest be ?
A. The entire area of interest must be replaced.
B. The entire area of interest must be removed.
C. The entire area of interest must be tapped.
7. What is limited to finding relatively shallow defects ?
A. The method
B. The poster
C. The matrix
8. In a honeycomb structure, for example, the far side bondline can be evaluated.
A. True
B. Fail
c. Not Given
9. What is required for a complete inspection of honeycomb structures ?
A. two-side access is required for a complete inspection of honeycomb structures

B. one-side access is required for a complete inspection of honeycomb structures

C. three-side access is required for a complete inspection of honeycomb structures

10. What is The method is also highly dependent on ?
A. The method is also highly dependent on the inspector interpretation of the test response

B. The method is’t also highly dependent on the inspector‘s subjective interpretation of
the test response.
C. The method is also highly dependent on the inspector‘s subjective interpretation of
the test response.
48. Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best option to fit
each space by choosing A, B, or C (Level 2)

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Emergency Procedures
Take great care in setting up chemical reactions that are to be left unattended for any
period of time. Note that unattended operation should be avoided if at all possible.
The possible hazards that might arise from failure of a heating mantle (overheating),
failure of a water cooling system (hose becoming disconnected or bursting), and
failure of an exhaust (if flammable solvents or toxic gases are involved), are obvious
points to check before leaving a reaction unattended.
Any reaction that is left unattended should be clearly labeled as to the nature of the
reaction and its components, the possible hazards (i.e., poisonous vapors), and the
name and phone number of the technican. A notice describing the nature of the
unattended work procedure, emergency procedures, and who to contact in case of
emergencies should be posted on the in/outside of the door to the workshop in which
the work procedure is being conducted.
Before beginning a chemical reaction the technican should have an idea of how it will
proceed.
Thus, ice baths can be ready if it is exothermic, a vent is available if gases are
generated, automatic shutdown incorporated in the event of loss of electrical power,
cooling water, etc.
The technican should also notify his/her advisor that the work procedure will be
running overnight. If your research presents a hazard of chemicals being splashed
into your face, locate the nearest eye bath for emergency use.
CAUTION: DO NOT MIX TOO MUCH
CAUTION: AIR COOLING AND VENTING MUST BE ENOUGH
1. What ‘s the possible hazards that might arise from failure of a heating mantle ?
A. overheating
B. flammable solvents or toxic gases are involved
C. hose becoming disconnected or bursting
2. What ‘s the possible hazards that might arise from failure of a water
cooling system?
A. overheating
B. flammable solvents or toxic gases are involved
C. hose becoming disconnected or bursting
3. What ‘s the possible hazards that might arise from failure of an exhaust ?
A. overheating
B. flammable solvents or toxic gases are involved
C. hose becoming disconnected or bursting
4. How many obvious points to check before leaving a reaction unattended ?
A. 3

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B. 5
C. 7
5. What should any reaction that is left unattended do ?
A. clearly posted
B. clearly hazards
C. clearly labeled
6. What ‘s any reaction that is left unattended should be clearly labeled ?
A. the nature of the reaction and its components
B. the nature of the reaction and its components, the possible hazards
(i.e., poisonous vapors)
C. the nature of the reaction and its components, the possible hazards (i.e.,
poisonous vapors), and the name and phone number of the technican
7. A notice describing the nature of the unattended work procedure, emergency
procedures. What should we do to contact in case of emergencies ?
A. replaced on the in/outside of the door to the workshop in which the
work procedure is being conducted.
B. removed on the in/outside of the door to the workshop in which the
work procedure is being conducted.
C. posted on the in/outside of the door to the workshop in which the
work procedure is being conducted.
8. What should we do before beginning a chemical reaction the technican ?
A. Before beginning a chemical reaction the technican should have an idea of
how it will proceed.
B. Before beginning a chemical reaction the technican should have a poster of
how it will proceed.
C.Before beginning a chemical reaction the technican should have no an idea of
how it will proceed.
9. What is type of chemical reaction ?
A. ice baths can be ready if it is exothermic, a vent is available if gases are
generated, automatic shutdown incorporated in the event of loss of
electrical power, cooling water, etc.
B. ice baths can be ready if it is exothermic, a vent is unavailable if gases are
generated, automatic shutdown incorporated in the event of loss of
electrical power, cooling water, etc.
C.ice baths can’t be ready if it is exothermic, a vent is unavailable if gases are
generated, automatic shutdown incorporated in the event of loss of electrical
power, cooling water, etc.
10. If your research presents a hazard of chemicals being splashed into your face,

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what ‘ll you do ?

A. find the any locate eye bath for emergency use.
B. find the farest eye bath for emergency use.
C. find locate the nearest eye bath for emergency use.

49. Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best option to fit
each space by choosing A, B, or C
SHELF LIFE / OUT TIME
Record adhesive validation expiration date and cumulative out of refrigeration time
traceable to each roll of adhesive.
Shelf life limited material should be stored in its original container. In case of
repackaging the original shelf life is decreased, if not otherwise approved, by 50%.
The reduced shelf life shall be clearly labeled on each unit. Polymer matrix prepreg
tape and broadgoods, adhesives, potting compounds, and resins should be handled
and stored in accordance with approved specifications to ensure retention of material
properties.
Thermoset matrix composites and structural adhesives in current use should be stored
in sealed containers or bags in accordance with the requirements specified in the
appropriate material or process specification, often near 0oF (-18oC). This retards the
,,aging‖, or partial curing, of the polymer and extends the shelf life.
The sealed containers or bags prevent moisture condensation on the cold material and
moisture absorption. When the material is removed from the freezer for processing, it is
allowed to thaw within the sealed container or bag until the condensation on the
exterior has dissipated. Thin rolls of prepreg and adhesives do not need a long thaw
period. The period of time the material is outside the freezer should be documented in
an ,out time‖ ledger. In order to keep track of shelf life and out-time, a maintenance
organizations approved system should include record keeping procedures for these
items.
- When any out-of-date or nearly out-of-date material is found, report to Material
Engineer and separate them with identified labels.
Once material has reached it‘s expiry date the following procedure will apply.
- The Material Engineer will contact the supplier to establish whether the shelf
life maybe extended or not.
- If shelf life cannot be extended then disposal of the material must be investigated.
The material will be immediately removed to scrap store awaiting disposal. It shall be
checked whether the supplier will take the material back for re-cycling or disposal at his
premises.
- All correspondence in relation to the above system will be kept on a file in the Main
Store.
1. Where should Shelf life limited material be stored ?

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A. container
B. box
C. store
2. What case the original shelf life is decreased by 50% ?
A. repackaging
B. adhesive
C. maintenance
3. What shall The reduced shelf life do ?
A. The reduced shelf life shall be remove labeled on each unit
B. The reduced shelf life shall be replace labeled on each unit
C. The reduced shelf life shall be clearly labeled on each unit.
4. What be handled and stored in accordance with approved specifications to ensure retention
of material properties ?
A. Polymer matrix prepreg tape and broadgoods, adhesives and resins
B. Polymer matrix prepreg tape and broadgoods, adhesives, potting compounds, and resins

C.Polymer matrix prepreg tape and broadgoods, adhesives, potting compounds,resins and
Thermoset matrix
5. Where should thermoset matrix composites and structural adhesives in current use be
stored ?
A. in sealed containers or bags in accordance with the requirements specified in the
appropriate material
B. in sealed containers or bags in accordance with the requirements specified in the
appropriate material or process specification
C. in sealed containers or bags in accordance with the requirements specified in the proces
specification
6. What is the temperature for store ?
A. often near 0*F (-18*C)
B. above near 0*F (-18*C)
C. below near 0*F (-18*C)
7. What is prevent moisture condensation on the cold material and moisture absorption ?
A. The sealed containers
B. The sealed bags
C. The sealed containers or bags
8. What should the period of time the material is outside the freezer do ?
A. The period of time the material is outside the freezer should be documented in an ,out

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time‖ ledger
B. The period of time the material is outside the freezer should be read in an ,out time‖
ledger
C. The period of time the material is outside the freezer should be speak in an ,out time‖
ledger
9. In order to keep track of shelf life and out-time, What should a maintenance organizations
approved system do ?
A. should include speak keeping procedures for these items.
B. should include read keeping procedures for these items.
C. should include record keeping procedures for these items.
10. What should we do when any out-of-date or nearly out-of-date material is found ?
A. report to Material Engineer and separate them with identified labels.
B. report to Material Engineer and separate them without identified labels.
C. report to Material Engineer with identified labels.

50. Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best option to fit
each space by choosing A, B, or C
STRUCTURE DOCUMENTATION
Damage investigation
When a damage is discovered on structural parts, and before further corrective
action/repair, the damage needs to be fully assessed, classified and accurately
examined. For this important task, the SRM is the prime document to be used chapter
51 for damage evaluation/classification/reporting, chapter 52-57 for allowable damage
determination. The NTM is used for accurate damage recognition. For the full
identification of the damaged area and surrounding structures, the relevant
chapter/sections/subsections of chapter 52-57 are also to be used.
From the SRM identification page blocks, you can gain access:
- to the concerned drawings and assembly drawing numbers,
- to the SM using standard numbers.
For damage investigation and following repair execution the applicable corrective
action/repair is determined:
- application of a standard repair/ rework of SRM chapter 51,
- application of a specific repair solution given in the relevant chapter (52- 57),
- replacement
- design of a new repair solution.,
- adaptation of existing repair solution.

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1. What do you need to do When a damage is discovered ?

A. The damage needs to be fully assessed
B. The damage needs classified and accurately examined
C. The damage needs to be fully assessed, classified and accurately examined
2. For this important task, What documents are commonly
used? A. SRM
B. AMM
C. CMM
3. What chapter for damage evaluation/classification/reporting?
A. 51
B. 52-57
C. A & B
4. What chapter for allowable damage determination?
A. 51
B. 52-57
C. A & B
5. What is used for accurate damage recognition ?
A. The SRM
B. The NTM
C. The AMM
6. What chapter for the full identification of the damaged area and surrounding structures ?
A. 51
B. 52-57
C. A & B
7. From the SRM identification page blocks, what can you gain access ?
A. to the concerned drawings and assembly drawing numbers,
B. to the SM using standard numbers
C. A & B
8. What chapter for application of a standard repair/ rework ?
A. 51
B. 52-57
C. A & B
9. What chapter for application of a specific repair solution ?
A. 51
B. 52-57
C. A & B
10. Damage investigation and following repair execution, for what ?
A. The applicable corrective action
B. The applicable corrective repair
C. The applicable corrective action/repair

51. Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best option to fit
each space by choosing A, B, or C (Level 2)
DEFINITION OF COMPOSITES AND BONDED STRUCTURES
Composites

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A combination of two or more materials (reinforcing elements, fillers, and

composite matrix binder), differing in form or composition on a macro scale. The
constituents retain their identities, that is, they do not dissolve, or otherwise merge
completely into one another although they act in concert. Normally, the
components can be physically identified and exhibit an interface between one
another.
The individual ingredients within the composite interact to give the new material its
own unique set of properties. The mechanical and physical properties of the
composite material may vary depending on the direction .
There have always been traditional ―composite‖ products, used in daily life for
ages. Industry uses more and more composite, trying to improve materials
capabilities.
A composite material is an inhomogeneous material that has been created by the
synthetic assembly of two or more materials to obtain specific characteristics or
properties. Unlike metal alloys, which are homogeneous, the component materials
in composites retain their identities.
Materials wich differ by their nature or origin are combined in order to take benefit
from their different properties. Composite materials are widely presented in the
nature (e.g. wood, bones...) and also designed and produced by humans (e.g
concrete, reinforced plastics, plywood,...).
For technical applications, the definition can be restricted to include only those
materials that contain a reinforcement (such as fibers or particles) supported by a
binder (matrix) material. Thus, composites typically have a discontinuous fiber or
particle phase that is stiffer and stronger than the continuous matrix phase.
For aeronautical applications, mainly fiber reinforced composites are used.
According to their performance and properties, composite materials may also be
classified as:
- general purpose composites
- or advanced composites
Composites used for aircraft structures are mainly classified as advanced
composites
1. Which materials for combination ?
A. reinforcing elements , fillers
B. composite matrix binder
C. reinforcing elements, fillers, and composite matrix binder
2. Why does Industry use composite ?
A. To improve materials capabilities.
B. To indentify materials capabilities.
C. To classsify materials capabilities.
3. What ‘s composite material is an inhomogeneous material ?

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A. that has been created by the synthetic assembly of two materials to obtain specific
characteristics or properties.
B. that has been created by the synthetic assembly of two or more materials to obtain
specific characteristics or properties.

C. that has been created by the synthetic assembly of one material to obtain specific
characteristics or properties.
4. What ‘s Composite materials in the nature ?
A. concrete, reinforced plastics, plywood, wood, bones...
B. concrete, reinforced plastics, plywood...
C. wood, bones...
5. What ‘s Composite materials designed and produced by humans ?
A. concrete, reinforced plastics, plywood, wood, bones...
B. concrete, reinforced plastics, plywood...
C. wood, bones...
6. What for technical applications, the definition can be restricted to include ?
A. The definition can be restricted to include only those materials that contain a
reinforcement (such as fibers or particles) supported by a binder (matrix)
material.
B. The definition can’t be restricted to include only those materials that contain a
reinforcement (such as fibers or particles) supported by a binder (matrix)
material.
C. The definition can be restricted to include only those materials that contain a
reinforcement (such as fibers or matrix) supported by a binder (particles) material.
7. What is composites typically ?
A. Composites typically have a discontinuous fiber phase that is stiffer and
stronger than the continuous matrix phase.
B. Composites typically have a discontinuous particle phase that is stiffer and
stronger than the continuous matrix phase.
C. Composites typically have a discontinuous fiber or particle phase that is stiffer
and stronger than the continuous matrix phase.
8. What for aeronautical applications ?
A. Mainly fiber reinforced composites are used.
B. Mainly matrix reinforced composites are used.
C. Mainly plastics reinforced composites are used.
9. What classify of composite materials ?
A. General purpose composites

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B. Advanced composites

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C. A & B
10. What is composite use for ?
A. Composites used for aircraft entertainment.
B. Composites used for aircraft powers.
C. Composites used for aircraft structures

52. RESPONSIBLE LEVEL 3 (Level 2)

The employer shall identify in writing a "Responsible Level 3" to action its behalf in matters
regarding the NDT qualification and certification process. The Responsible Level 3 shall be
certified in accordance with this standard as a Level 3 in one or more NDT methods and
shall have a thorough knowledge of the written instructions, codes, specifications and
standards used by the employer. He/she shall also have a thorough knowledge of the
materials, components, product technologies, NDT methods and NDT techniques used by
the employer. Additional Examiners as defined in this standard may be identified and
delegated in writing as necessary to provide coverage for all methods used by the
employer. The Responsible Level 3 may be an outGide agency but in this case he/she can
only qualify personnel, as only the employer can certify personnel. The Responsible Level
3 shall be responsible for implementation of this standard and the overall administration of
the qualification and certification program.
1. The “Responsible Level 3” NDT staff shall be certified in only one NDT methods –
TRUE or FAULT? And why?
A ) It’s fault. The Responsible Level 3 shall be certified in accordance with
this standard as a Level 3 in one or more NDT methods
B) It is true
C) It depend on employer
2. Name some elements that the “Responsible Level 3” NDT staff have to a
thorough knowledge?
A).They are: written instructions, codes, specifications and standards used by the
employer
Not mentioned in the document
Responsible Level 3” NDT thorough knowledge of the materials, components,
product technologies
3. Except the “Responsible Level 3” NDT staff shall have a thorough knowledge of the
written instructions, codes, specifications and standards used by the employer,
whats he should have to know also?
Not mentioned in the document
Do not need more.
He/she may be identified and delegated in writing as necessary to provide coverage
for all methods used by the employer

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4. What shall be the “Responsible Level 3” NDT staff responsible for?

The Responsible Level 3 shall be responsible for implementation of this standard
and the overall administration of the qualification and certification program
Responsible Level 3 in matters regarding the NDT qualification and certification
process
Not mentioned in the document
53. Read the following paragraph and write the answer: (Level 2)
D95 Test Method for Water in Petroleum Products and Bituminous Materials by
Distillation
D6304 Test Method for Determination of Water in Petroleum Products,
Lubricating Oils, and Additives by Coulometric Karl Fischer Titration
E165/E165M Practice for Liquid Penetrant Testing for General Industry
E203 Test Method for Water Using Volumetric Karl Fischer Titration
E543 Specification for Agencies Performing Nondestructive Testing
E1135 Test Method for Comparing the Brightness of Fluorescent Penetrants
E1136 Terminology for Nondestructive Examinations
E2297 Guide for Use of UV-A and Visible Light Sources and Meters used in
the Liquid Penetrant and Magnetic Particle Methods
E3022 Practice for Measurement of Emission Characteristics and
Requirements for LED UV-A Lamps Used in Fluorescent Penetrant and
Magnetic Particle Testing

1. What is the purpose of the E1135 test method?

A. E1135 Test Method for Comparing the Brightness of Fluorescent
Penetrants
B. Test Method for Water in Petroleum Products and Bituminous
Materials by Distillation
C. Practice for Liquid Penetrant Testing for General Industry
2. What is the difference between the D95 method and the D6304 method?
A. D95 Test Method for Water in Petroleum Products and Bituminous
Materials by Distillation and D6304 Test Method for Determination of Water
in Petroleum Products, Lubricating Oils, and Additives by Coulometric Karl
Fischer Titration
B. It is the same
C. No information
3. E2297 Guide use for what?
A. Terminology for Nondestructive Examinations
B. Test Method for Comparing the Brightness of Fluorescent Penetrants
C. E2297 Guide for Use of UV-A and Visible Light Sources and Meters used
in the Liquid Penetrant and Magnetic Particle Methods
4. Which method uses volumetric Karl Fischer titration?
A. E203 Test Method for Water Using Volumetric Karl Fischer Titration

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B. E543 Specification for Agencies Performing Nondestructive Testing

C. E165/E165M Practice for Liquid Penetrant Testing for General Industry
5. What is the terminology non-destructive testing?
A. E1136 Terminology for Nondestructive Examinations
B. E1135 Terminology for Nondestructive Examinations
C. E203 Test Method for Water Using Volumetric Karl Fischer Titration
54. Read the following paragraph and write the answer:
Drying Oven—When components are oven dried, the dryer must be a forced-air
recirculating type. In automated systems, where parts are dried by radiant heat and
forced air, the travel speed of the system shall be such as to preclude overdrying of
parts. The forced air does not have to be recirculating but must preclude
contamination of the parts. The temperature shall be controlled with a calibrated
device ca-pable of maintaining the oven temperature at ± 15 OF [±8.3 oc] of the
temperature for which it is set. The oven shall not exceed 160 OF [71 cc]. The
temperature indicator shall be accurate to ± 10 OF [±5.6 cc] of the actual oven
temperature.

1. How many degrees the oven should not exceed?

A. The oven shall not exceed 15 OF [8 cc]
B. The oven shall not exceed 80 OF [35 cc]
C. The oven shall not exceed 160 OF [71 cc]
2. What type of dryer is used when components are oven dried?
A. When components are oven dried, the dryer must be a forced-air
recirculating type
B. When components are oven dried, the dryer may be a forced-air
recirculating type
C. No need a forced-air recirculating type oven
3. Is forced air necessarily recirculating?
A. The dryer must be a forced-air recirculating type
B. The forced air have to be recirculating and must preclude contamination
of the parts
C. The forced air does not have to be recirculating but must preclude
contamination of the parts
4. Can uncalibrated equipment be used for temperature control?
A. Yes,The temperature shall not be controlled with a calibrated device
B. Yes,The temperature shall be controlled with a calibrated device
C. No,The temperature shall be controlled with a calibrated device
5. Can uncalibrated equipment be used for temperature control?
A. No,The temperature shall be controlled with a calibrated device
B. Yes, you can use
C. It depend on NDT manual

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