GENERAL EDUCATION REVIEWER 2024

SEPTEMBER 2024 LEPT EXAMINATION

MULTIPLE-CHOICE
1. Which of the following is not a component of effective communication?
A. Clarity
B. Brevity
C. Ambiguity
D. Feedback

2. Which type of communication involves a speaker delivering a message to a large audience?

A. Interpersonal communication
B. Small group communication
C. Public speaking
D. Intrapersonal communication

3. What is the primary purpose of a persuasive speech?

A. To entertain the audience
B. To inform the audience
C. To convince the audience
D. To motivate the audience

4. What does nonverbal communication include?

A. Tone of voice
B. Body language
C. Facial expressions
D. All of the above

5. In the context of public speaking, what is ethos?

A. Logical appeal
B. Emotional appeal
C. Ethical appeal
D. Visual appeal

6. Which of the following is a common method for managing speech anxiety?

A. Avoiding eye contact
B. Practicing deep breathing
C. Speaking faster
D. Using filler words

7. What is a key characteristic of an extemporaneous speech?

A. It is delivered with little or no preparation.
B. It is read from a manuscript.
C. It is memorized word-for-word.
D. It is delivered with the help of notes.

8. Which of the following best describes active listening?

A. Fully concentrating, understanding, responding, and remembering what is being said.
B. Nodding in agreement
C. Interrupting the speaker to ask questions
D. Preparing your response while the speaker is talking

9. What is paralanguage?
A. Written communication
B. The non-lexical component of communication by speech, including pitch, rate, and volume
C. Body language
D. Formal language

10. Which of the following is an example of a rhetorical question?

A. How old are you?
B. What time is it?
C. Isn't it a beautiful day?
D. Do you like pizza?

11. In a speech outline, what typically comes after the introduction?

A. Conclusion
B. Body
C. Thesis statement

If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”

 D. Title

12. What is the primary goal of an informative speech?

A. To entertain the audience
B. To persuade the audience
C. To educate the audience
D. To share personal experiences

13. Which type of speech is often used at special occasions such as weddings and funerals?
A. Informative speech
B. Persuasive speech
C. Ceremonial speech
D. Demonstrative speech

14. Which aspect of voice involves the highness or lowness of tone?

A. Pitch
B. Volume
C. Rate
D. Articulation

If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”

15. What is the term for the distinctness with which we say words?
A. Pronunciation
B. Articulation
C. Intonation
D. Modulation

16. Which of the following is a visual aid?

A. An anecdote
B. A statistic
C. A chart
D. A quotation

17. In speech communication, what is the term for adjusting one's speech to accommodate the listener?
A. Code-switching
B. Modulating
C. Paraphrasing
D. Synchronizing

18. What is the process of gathering and analyzing information about your audience called?
A. Audience segmentation
B. Audience profiling
C. Audience analysis
D. Audience targeting

19. Which of the following is an example of feedback in communication?

A. A speaker giving a presentation
B. An audience clapping after a speech
C. A person writing a speech
D. A person reading a speech

20. Which technique is useful for overcoming stage fright?

A. Avoiding eye contact
B. Visualizing a successful speech
C. Speaking without preparation
D. Relying heavily on notes

21. What is the term for the first sentence of a speech designed to grab the audience's attention?
A. Thesis statement
B. Attention-getter
C. Preview statement
D. Transition

22. Which type of listening involves evaluating the content and considering the speaker's intent?
A. Appreciative listening
B. Empathetic listening
C. Critical listening
D. Passive listening
If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”
23. What is one benefit of using storytelling in a speech?
A. It confuses the audience.
B. It makes the speech longer.
C. It helps illustrate a point more vividly.
D. It reduces the need for research.

24. Which term describes a speech delivered with little or no preparation?

A. Extemporaneous
B. Impromptu
C. Manuscript
D. Memorized

25. What does the term "audience engagement" refer to?

A. The length of the speech
B. The speaker's attire
C. The degree to which the audience is interested and involved in the speech
D. The number of visual aids used

26. Anong tumutukoy sa pagsasalin ng kaisipan sa pamamagitan ng sining?

A. Pang-aawit
B. Pagpapalabas
C. Masining na Pagpapahayag
D. Pagpipinta

27. Ano ang layunin ng masining na pagpapahayag?

A. Makapagpahayag ng kaisipan sa isang simpleng paraan
B. Makapagpakita ng kagandahan sa sining
C. Makapagpahayag ng damdamin sa tulong ng sining
D. Lahat ng nabanggit

28. Anong uri ng sining ang kadalasang ginagamit sa masining na pagpapahayag?

A. Musika
B. Sayaw
C. Panitikan
D. Lahat ng nabanggit

29. Saan maaaring makita ang masining na pagpapahayag?

A. Pelikula
B. Panitikan
C. Sining Biswal
D. Lahat ng nabanggit

30. Anong ginagamit na kasangkapang pandamdamin sa masining na pagpapahayag?

A. Salita
B. Musika
C. Kulay
D. Lahat ng nabanggit

31. Anong tawag sa pasalitang pagpapahayag ng damdamin?

A. Pintura
B. Pagsusulat
C. Pag-awit
D. Lahat ng nabanggit

32. Anong uri ng sining ang pagpapahayag ng damdamin sa pamamagitan ng kilos at galaw?
A. Musika
B. Sayaw
C. Pagpipinta
D. Lahat ng nabanggit

33. Anong kasanayang pandamdamin ang pinakamadalas na ginagamit sa sayaw?

A. Pintura
B. Pag-awit
C. Musika
D. Lahat ng nabanggit

34. Anong uri ng sayaw ang nagpapahayag ng kwento o mensahe sa pamamagitan ng galaw at pagkilos?
A. Modernong Sayaw
If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”
 B. Ballet
C. Hiphop
D. Lahat ng nabanggit

35. Anong tawag sa sining ng pagguhit o paglalarawan sa isang anuman?

A. Pintura
B. Musikero
C. Manunulat
D. Lahat ng nabanggit

36. Anong tawag sa pagpapahayag ng damdamin sa pamamagitan ng paggawa ng mga larawan?

A. Pagsusulat
B. Pintura
C. Musika
D. Lahat ng nabanggit

37. Anong tawag sa sining ng pag-awit ng mga tula o kanta?

A. Sayaw
B. Pagsusulat
C. Musika
D. Lahat ng nabanggit

38. Anong tawag sa pagpapahayag ng damdamin sa pamamagitan ng mga tunog?

A. Pagsusulat
B. Pag-awit
C. Musika
D. Lahat ng nabanggit

39. Anong tawag sa sining ng pagpapahayag ng damdamin sa pamamagitan ng mga salita?

A. Sayaw
B. Pagsusulat
C. Musika
D. Lahat ng nabanggit

40. Anong tawag sa mga taong nagsasagawa ng sayaw?

A. Tindera
B. Musikero
C. Mananayaw
D. Lahat ng nabanggit

41. Anong tawag sa mga taong nagsasagawa ng pagguhit o pagpipinta?

A. Pintor
B. Manunulat
C. Mananayaw
D. Lahat ng nabanggit

42. Anong tawag sa mga taong nagsasagawa ng pag-awit?

A. Tagasulat
B. Musikero
C. Manunulat
D. Lahat ng nabanggit

43. Anong tawag sa mga taong nagsusulat ng tula, kwento, at iba pa?
A. Tagasulat
B. Pintor
C. Mananayaw
D. Lahat ng nabanggit

44. Anong tawag sa mga taong gumagawa ng tunog gamit ang iba't ibang instrumento?
A. Tagasulat
B. Musikero
C. Pintor
D. Lahat ng nabanggit

45. Anong tawag sa isang masining na pagpapahayag na hindi gumagamit ng salita?

A. Sayaw
B. Pagsusulat
C. Musika
D. Lahat ng nabanggit
If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”
46. Ano ang layunin ng akademikong pagsulat sa Filipino?
A. Makapagpahayag ng personal na opinyon
B. Makapagbigay ng impormasyon sa mga kaibigan
C. Maghatid ng kaalaman at impormasyon sa iba
D. Magpakita ng kawalan ng pag-unawa

47. Anong dapat isaalang-alang sa pagbuo ng balangkas ng isang sanaysay?

A. Personal na emosyon at damdamin
B. Lojikal na pagkakasunod-sunod ng mga ideya
C. Paggamit ng maraming mga idyoma at salitang balbal
D. Pagsunod sa kasaysayan ng wika

48. Ano ang layunin ng bawat pangungusap sa isang sanaysay?

A. Pumili ng pinakamahahalagang salita
B. Ipakita ang husay sa pagsasalita
C. Magbigay ng suporta sa pangunahing ideya
D. Ibigay ang opinyon ng manunulat

49. Saan dapat nakabatay ang pagpili ng pamagat para sa isang sanaysay?
A. Sa personal na paborito ng manunulat
B. Sa tema at layunin ng sanaysay
C. Sa pinakamahaba at kakaibang salita
D. Sa salitang may pinakamalalim na kahulugan

50. Ano ang dapat isaalang-alang sa pagpili ng mga sanggunian para sa akademikong pagsulat?
A. Kasikatan ng may-akda
B. Pagkakaroon ng personal na kaugnayan sa paksa
C. Katumpakan at kredibilidad ng impormasyon
D. Damdamin at emosyon ng may-akda

51. Ano ang kahalagahan ng wastong pagbanggit ng sanggunian sa isang akademikong sulatin?
A. Pagpapakita ng galing sa pagsulat
B. Pagbibigay ng kredibilidad at paggalang sa orihinal na may-akda
C. Pagpapakita ng pagiging maalam sa wika
D. Pagpapakita ng pagiging masinop sa pagsulat

52. Anong uri ng wika ang dapat gamitin sa akademikong pagsulat?

A. Casual at conversational
B. Tekstong pampanitikan
C. Opisyal at pormal
D. Kolokyal at balbal

53. Anong bahagi ng sanaysay ang naglalaman ng pangunahing ideya o mensahe?

A. Simula
B. Katawan
C. Wakas
D. Pamagat

54. Ano ang dapat isaalang-alang sa pagbuo ng wakas ng isang sanaysay?

A. Pagbibigay ng maraming detalye
B. Pagsusummarize ng pangunahing punto
C. Pagpapakita ng personal na opinyon
D. Pagbibigay ng mga bagong argumento

55. Anong bahagi ng sanaysay ang naglalaman ng argumento o pagsusuri?

A. Simula
B. Katawan
C. Wakas
D. Pamagat

56. Ano ang ibig sabihin ng "balangkas" sa akademikong pagsulat?

A. Listahan ng mga salitang maganda gamitin
B. Organisadong plano ng mga ideya
C. Mga kuwento at halimbawa
D. Pagsasalin sa ibang wika

57. Ano ang layunin ng pagsasagawa ng pananaliksik sa akademikong pagsulat?

A. Magpakita ng personal na opinyon
If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”
 B. Magbigay ng impormasyon sa mga kaibigan
C. Maghatid ng kaukulang kaalaman
D. Magpakita ng kawalan ng pag-unawa

58. Anong bahagi ng sanaysay ang naglalaman ng pagsusuri o interpretasyon ng manunulat?

A. Simula
B. Katawan
C. Wakas
D. Pamagat

59. Ano ang kahulugan ng "pananaw" sa akademikong pagsulat?

A. Opinion o opinyon ng manunulat
B. Reaksyon ng mga mambabasa
C. Impormasyon galing sa mga eksperto
D. Panibagong ideya sa wika

60. Ano ang layunin ng pagsasalin sa akademikong pagsulat?

A. Magbigay ng personal na karanasan
B. Ihatid ang impormasyon sa ibang wika
C. Ipakita ang kaalaman sa gramatika
D. Magpakita ng mga kwento mula sa ibang bansa

61. Who is considered the "Father of Philippine Literature?”

A. Jose Garcia Villa
B. Francisco Balagtas
C. Nick Joaquin
D. Lualhati Bautista

62. What is the title of the first Filipino novel written in Spanish?
A. Noli Me Tangere
B. El Filibusterismo
C. Nínay
D. Banaag at Sikat

63. Who wrote "Noli Me Tangere?”

A. Andres Bonifacio
B. Emilio Aguinaldo
C. Jose Rizal
D. Apolinario Mabini

64. What is the sequel to "Noli Me Tangere?”

A. El Filibusterismo
B. La Solidaridad
C. Mi Ultimo Adios
D. Florante at Laura

65. Which of the following is a famous work by Nick Joaquin?

A. Banaag at Sikat
B. The Woman Who Had Two Navels
C. Sa mga Kuko ng Liwanag
D. Dekada '70

If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”

66. Which epic poem tells the story of Lam-ang?

A. Biag ni Lam-ang
B. Ibalon
C. Hinilawod
D. Hudhud

67. Who is the author of "Florante at Laura?”

A. Jose Garcia Villa
B. Francisco Balagtas
C. Amado V. Hernandez
D. F. Sionil Jose

68. Which literary period saw the emergence of social realist writing in the Philippines?
A. Spanish Period
B. American Period
If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”
 C. Japanese Period
D. Contemporary Period

69. "A Portrait of the Artist as Filipino" is a play by a Filipino author.

A. Lualhati Bautista
B. Nick Joaquin
C. Jose Garcia Villa
D. Bienvenido Lumbera

70. Who is known for the short story "How My Brother Leon Brought Home a Wife?”
A. Francisco Arcellana
B. N.V.M. Gonzalez
C. Manuel Arguilla
D. F. Sionil Jose

71. Which award is considered the most prestigious literary award in the Philippines?
A. National Book Awards
B. Palanca Awards
C. Gawad Urian
D. Ramon Magsaysay Award

72. Who wrote "Dekada '70", a novel about martial law in the Philippines?
A. Amado V. Hernandez
B. F. Sionil Jose
C. Lualhati Bautista
D. Jose Garcia Villa

73. Which Filipino novelist wrote "Sa Mga Kuko ng Liwanag?”

A. Edgardo M. Reyes
B. Nick Joaquin
C. Lualhati Bautista
D. F. Sionil Jose

74. Who is known as the "Prince of Philippine Literature" for his poetry and short stories?
A. Jose Garcia Villa
B. Alejandro Roces
C. N.V.M. Gonzalez
D. Francisco Balagtas

75. "Banaag at Sikat" is a novel written by a Filipino author.

A. Jose Rizal
B. Lualhati Bautista
C. Lope K. Santos
D. F. Sionil Jose

76. Who wrote "Ibong Adarna?”

A. Jose de la Cruz
B. Francisco Balagtas
C. Jose Rizal
D. Severino Reyes

77. Which Filipino writer is known for the novel "Po-on?”

A. N.V.M. Gonzalez
B. Amado V. Hernandez
C. F. Sionil Jose
D. Bienvenido Lumbera

78. Who is the author of "Mga Ibong Mandaragit?”

A. N.V.M. Gonzalez
B. Amado V. Hernandez
C. F. Sionil Jose
D. Lualhati Bautista

79. Which work is considered the first published Filipino short story in English?
A. "The Mats" by Francisco Arcellana
B. "Dead Stars" by Paz Marquez Benitez
C. "Footnote to Youth" by Jose Garcia Villa
D. "How My Brother Leon Brought Home a Wife" by Manuel Arguilla

If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”

80. Who wrote the play "Walang Sugat?”
A. Nick Joaquin
B. Lualhati Bautista
C. Severino Reyes
D. Amado V. Hernandez

81. Who is known as the "National Artist for Literature" and the author of "The Winds of April?”
A. N.V.M. Gonzalez
B. Jose Garcia Villa
C. Nick Joaquin
D. Amado V. Hernandez

82. Which novel by N.V.M. Gonzalez portrays the struggles of Filipino farmers?
A. The Bamboo Dancers
B. The Winds of April
C. The Woman Who Had Two Navels
D. A Season of Grace

83. Who is the Filipino author of the novel "The Pretenders?”

A. Amado V. Hernandez
B. F. Sionil Jose
C. N.V.M. Gonzalez
D. Jose Garcia Villa

84. Which poem is considered Jose Rizal's farewell to his country before his execution?
A. A La Juventud Filipina
B. El Filibusterismo
C. Mi Ultimo Adios
D. Noli Me Tangere

85. Who wrote "Ilustrado,” a novel that won the Man Asian Literary Prize?
A. Miguel Syjuco
B. Nick Joaquin
C. F. Sionil Jose
D. Jessica Hagedorn

86. Who painted the "Mona Lisa?”

A. Vincent van Gogh
B. Pablo Picasso
C. Leonardo da Vinci
D. Claude Monet

87. Which novel was written by Gabriel García Márquez and is a cornerstone of magical realism?
A. One Hundred Years of Solitude
B. Love in the Time of Cholera
C. Chronicle of a Death Foretold
D. The General in His Labyrinth

88. Which of the following is a famous work by Michelangelo?

A. The Birth of Venus
B. The Last Supper
C. The Creation of Adam
D. The Scream

89. Which author is "The Divine Comedy" a masterpiece by?

A. Geoffrey Chaucer
B. Dante Alighieri
C. Homer
D. Virgil

90. What is the title of the epic poem attributed to Homer?

A. The Aeneid
B. The Iliad
C. The Divine Comedy
D. The Epic of Gilgamesh

91. Which architectural masterpiece is found in Agra, India?

A. Eiffel Tower
B. Colosseum
If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”
 C. Taj Mahal
D. Parthenon

92. Who wrote "War and Peace?”

A. Leo Tolstoy
B. Fyodor Dostoevsky
C. Anton Chekhov
D. Ivan Turgenev

93. "The Starry Night" is a famous painting by which artist?

A. Edvard Munch
B. Claude Monet
C. Vincent van Gogh
D. Paul Gauguin

94. Which playwright wrote "Hamlet?”

A. Christopher Marlowe
B. William Shakespeare
C. Ben Jonson
D. John Webster

95. The "Mausoleum at Halicarnassus" is one of the Seven Wonders of the Ancient World. In which present-day
country is it located?
A. Greece
B. Egypt
C. Turkey
D. Italy

96. "Les Misérables" was written by which author?

A. Alexandre Dumas
B. Victor Hugo
C. Jules Verne
D. Honoré de Balzac

97. Which famous painting depicts a woman with a mysterious smile?

A. The Persistence of Memory
B. The Scream
C. Mona Lisa
D. Girl with a Pearl Earring

98. Which ancient civilization is known for building the pyramids?

A. Roman
B. Greek
C. Egyptian
D. Mayan

99. "The Thinker" is a famous sculpture by which artist?

A. Auguste Rodin
B. Donatello
C. Gian Lorenzo Bernini
D. Michelangelo

100. Who wrote the epic poem "Paradise Lost?”

A. Geoffrey Chaucer
B. William Blake
C. John Milton
D. William Wordsworth

101. Which artist painted the frescoes on the ceiling of the Sistine Chapel?
A. Raphael
B. Leonardo da Vinci
C. Michelangelo
D. Sandro Botticelli

102. Which famous novel was written by Jane Austen?

A. Wuthering Heights
B. Jane Eyre
C. Pride and Prejudice
D. Great Expectations
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103. Which artist is known for the painting "Guernica?”
A. Salvador Dalí
B. Pablo Picasso
C. Henri Matisse
D. Claude Monet

104. "Don Quixote" was authored by which writer?

A. Miguel de Cervantes
B. Gabriel García Márquez
C. Jorge Luis Borges
D. Federico García Lorca

105. Which ancient Greek poet is known for "The Odyssey?”

A. Hesiod
B. Homer
C. Sappho
D. Pindar

106. Who painted "The Persistence of Memory?”

A. Pablo Picasso
B. Salvador Dalí
C. René Magritte
D. Joan Miró

107. The "Statue of Liberty" was a gift to the United States from which country?
A. Germany
B. France
C. Italy
D. Spain

108. "The Great Gatsby" is a novel by an American author.

A. Ernest Hemingway
B. F. Scott Fitzgerald
C. John Steinbeck
D. Mark Twain

109. Which famous playwright wrote "A Doll's House?”

A. Henrik Ibsen
B. Anton Chekhov
C. George Bernard Shaw
D. Tennessee Williams

110. The "Great Wall of China" was primarily built during which dynasty?
A. Ming Dynasty
B. Han Dynasty
C. Qin Dynasty
D. Tang Dynasty

111. What is the sum of 12 and 15?

A. 25
B. 27
C. 30
D. 32

112. What is 45 divided by 5?

A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10

113. What is the product of 7 and 6?

A. 42
B. 48
C. 52
D. 54

114. What is the difference between 50 and 23?

A. 25
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 B. 27
C. 28
D. 30

115. What is eight squared?

A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 72

116. What is 1/4 + 3/4?

A. 1/2
B. 1
C. 1 1/4
D. 2

117. Convert 0.75 to a fraction.

A. 1/2
B. 2/3
C. 3/4
D. 4/5

If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”

118. What is 5/6 - 1/3?

A. 1/3
B. 1/2
C. 2/3
D. 3/4

119. What is 0.6 as a percentage?

A. 6%
B. 60%
C. 600%
D. 0.6%

120. Convert 5/8 to a decimal.

A. 0.5
B. 0.55
C. 0.625
D. 0.75

121. Solve for x: 2x + 5 = 13.

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

122. What is the value of y in the equation 3y = 12?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

123. What is the solution to the equation 5x - 10 = 0?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

124. What is the value of 3a + 2 if a = 4?

A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 18

125. Solve for x: x/2 = 7.

A. 14
B. 15
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 C. 16
D. 17

126. What is the perimeter of a rectangle with a length of eight and a width of 5?
A. 26
B. 24
C. 22
D. 20

127. What is the area of a triangle with base six and height 4?
A. 12
B. 16
C. 18
D. 24

128. What is the volume of a cube with a side length of 3?

A. 9
B. 18
C. 27
D. 36

129. What is the measure of each angle in an equilateral triangle?

A. 30 degrees
B. 45 degrees
C. 60 degrees
D. 90 degrees

130. What is the circumference of a circle with a radius of 7? (Use π = 3.14)

A. 21.98
B. 38.48
C. 43.96
D. 49.98

131. What is the mean of the numbers 2, 4, 6, 8, and 10?

A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

132. What is the median of the numbers 3, 5, 7, 9, 11?

A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

133. If a fair coin is flipped, what is the probability of getting heads?

A. 1/4
B. 1/3
C. 1/2
D. 2/3

134. What is the range of the numbers 15, 22, 7, 9, 30?

A. 15
B. 18
C. 23
D. 30

135. What is the mode of the numbers 4, 4, 5, 6, 7, 7, 7, 8?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

136. What is the sum of the interior angles of a triangle?

A. 90 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 270 degrees
D. 360 degrees

If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”

137. Which of the following is a property of all parallelograms?
A. Opposite angles are not equal
B. Opposite sides are equal
C. Adjacent angles are equal
D. All sides are equal

138. If two angles of a triangle are 45 degrees and 55 degrees, what is the measure of the third angle?
A. 80 degrees
B. 85 degrees
C. 90 degrees
D. 100 degrees

139. What is the area of a rectangle with a length of 10 units and a width of five units?
A. 15 square units
B. 25 square units
C. 50 square units
D. 100 square units

140. Which quadrilateral has only one pair of parallel sides?

A. Rectangle
B. Parallelogram
C. Square
D. Trapezoid

141. A triangle with all three sides of different lengths is called a:

A. Equilateral triangle
B. Isosceles triangle
C. Scalene triangle
D. Right triangle

142. The diagonals of a rectangle:

A. Are perpendicular
B. Bisect each other
C. Are not equal in length
D. Do not intersect

143. What is the hypotenuse length in a right triangle with legs measuring six and eight units?
A. 10 units
B. 12 units
C. 14 units
D. 16 units

144. What is the perimeter of a square with a side length of 7 units?

A. 14 units
B. 21 units
C. 28 units
D. 49 units

145. In an isosceles triangle, if one of the equal angles is 40 degrees, what is the measure of the third angle?
A. 40 degrees
B. 50 degrees
C. 60 degrees
D. 100 degrees

146. Which of the following is true for all rectangles?

A. Diagonals are perpendicular
B. All sides are equal
C. The opposite sides are parallel
D. All angles are equal to 90 degrees

147. What is the measure of each interior angle of a regular pentagon?

A. 90 degrees
B. 108 degrees
C. 120 degrees
D. 135 degrees

148. Which of the following statements about a rhombus is true?

A. All angles are equal
B. Opposite sides are parallel but not equal
If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”
 C. Diagonals bisect each other at right angles
D. It has one pair of parallel sides

149. What is the area of a triangle with a base of 8 units and a height of 5 units?
A. 20 square units
B. 30 square units
C. 40 square units
D. 50 square units

150. What is the measure of each exterior angle of a regular hexagon?

A. 45 degrees
B. 60 degrees
C. 72 degrees
D. 90 degrees

151. A right triangle has one angle measuring 30 degrees. What is the measure of the other non-right angle?
A. 30 degrees
B. 45 degrees
C. 60 degrees
D. 90 degrees

152. What is the length of the diagonal of a square with a side length of five units?
A. 5√2 units
B. 10 units
C. 10√2 units
D. 25 units

153. Which quadrilateral has all sides equal and all angles equal?
A. Rectangle
B. Rhombus
C. Parallelogram
D. Square

154. In a circle, a chord that passes through the center is called:

A. Radius
B. Diameter
C. Tangent
D. Secant

155. If the measure of an angle is 45 degrees, what is the measure of its complement?
A. 45 degrees
B. 90 degrees
C. 135 degrees
D. 145 degrees

156. A triangle has sides measuring seven units, 24 units, and 25 units. What type of triangle is this?
A. Acute triangle
B. Right triangle
C. Obtuse triangle
D. Scalene triangle

157. What is the sum of the exterior angles of any polygon?

A. 180 degrees
B. 270 degrees
C. 360 degrees
D. It depends on the number of sides

158. The length of one side of an equilateral triangle is six units. What is the height of the triangle?
A. 3√3 units
B. 6√3 units
C. 9 units
D. 12 units

159. Which of the following statements is true about the diagonals of a kite?
A. They are equal in length
B. They bisect each other
C. They are perpendicular
D. They are parallel

If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”

160. What is the measure of an angle formed by two intersecting perpendicular lines?
A. 30 degrees
B. 45 degrees
C. 60 degrees
D. 90 degrees

161. What is "writing in the discipline?”

A. Creative writing
B. Writing that adheres to the conventions of a specific academic field
C. Writing fictional stories
D. Writing for Entertainment

162. Which of the following is a primary characteristic of writing in the sciences?

A. Use of first-person narrative
B. Emphasis on emotional appeal
C. Clarity and precision
D. Use of poetic language

163. In writing within the humanities, which of the following is typically emphasized?
A. Quantitative data
B. Experimental methods
C. Critical analysis and interpretation
D. Statistical significance

164. What is the main purpose of a literature review?

A. To provide a summary of your research findings
B. To review the literature for grammatical errors
C. To survey existing research on a particular topic
D. To entertain the reader

165. Which citation style is commonly used in the social sciences?

A. MLA (Modern Language Association)
B. APA (American Psychological Association)
C. Chicago Manual of Style
D. IEEE (Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers)

166. What does the term "peer-reviewed" mean in academic writing?

A. Reviewed by students
B. Reviewed by experts in the same field
C. Reviewed by the general public
D. Reviewed by the author's family

167. Which of the following is an important aspect of writing in history?

A. Experimental data
B. Literary devices
C. Contextual analysis of primary sources
D. Numerical analysis

If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”

168. In technical writing, what is the primary focus?

A. Persuasive arguments
B. Poetic expression
C. Clear and concise communication of technical information
D. Storytelling

169. What is an abstract in a research paper?

A. A summary of the entire paper
B. A detailed explanation of the methodology
C. A review of the literature
D. A section listing references

170. Which of the following best describes the IMRaD format?

A. Introduction, Methods, Results, and Discussion
B. Introduction, Main Body, Review, and Data
C. Introduction, Materials, Research, and Data
D. Introduction, Methods, Review, and Discussion

171. What is typically included in the methods section when writing for the social sciences?
If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”
 A. Theoretical analysis
B. Experimental procedures
C. Literature review
D. Hypothetical scenarios

172. What is the role of a thesis statement in an academic essay?

A. To summarize the essay's main points
B. To provide background information
C. To state the main argument or position
D. To introduce the sources used

173. Which of the following characteristics of qualitative research writing?

A. Statistical analysis
B. Numerical data
C. Descriptive and thematic analysis
D. Laboratory experiments

174. In education, which writing style is most commonly used?

A. MLA
B. APA
C. Chicago
D. IEEE

175. When writing a research proposal, what is the primary purpose of the literature review section?
A. To introduce the research topic
B. To justify the need for the proposed study
C. To outline the research methodology
D. To present the research findings

176. Which of the following is a key component of a case study report?

A. Abstract theory
B. Numerical data
C. In-depth analysis of a single subject or case
D. Literary critique

177. What does " plagiarism “ mean in academic writing?

A. Copying and pasting from one's previous work
B. Using someone else's work without proper attribution
C. Citing sources in a bibliography
D. Paraphrasing information from a textbook

178. Which section of a research paper typically includes charts, graphs, and tables?
A. Introduction
B. Literature Review
C. Results
D. Conclusion

179. Which of the following is a common business writing element?

A. Metaphorical language
B. Data-driven analysis
C. Poetic devices
D. Historical Narrative

180. What does "peer-reviewed journal article" mean?

A. An article reviewed by friends and family
B. An article reviewed by the author’s peers in their field
C. An article reviewed by a magazine editor
D. An article that has not been reviewed

181. Which of the following best describes the tone of academic writing?
A. Casual and informal
B. Emotional and persuasive
C. Objective and formal
D. Humorous and light-hearted

182. In psychology, which writing style is most commonly used?

A. MLA
B. APA
C. Chicago
If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”
 D. IEEE

183. Which of the following is the purpose of an annotated bibliography?

A. To summarize each source
B. To provide a detailed argument
C. To list references alphabetically
D. To entertain the reader

184. In economics, what is a common focus in writing?

A. Theoretical frameworks and models
B. Personal narratives
C. Literary critique
D. Historical analysis

185. What is a key feature of writing in the legal field?

A. Use of poetic language
B. Precise and technical use of terminology
C. Informal tone
D. Emotional appeal

186. What is the median of the dataset: 10, 15, 20, 25, and 30?
A. 15
B. 20
C. 22.5
D. 25

187. What is the mode of the following dataset: 5, 7, 7, 8, 9, 9, 9, 10?

A. 5
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

188. In a standard normal distribution, what percentage of data falls within one standard deviation from the
mean?
A. 34.13%
B. 50%
C. 68.27%
D. 95.45%

189. Which of the following measures of central tendency is most affected by outliers?
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Mode
D. Range

190. If two events are mutually exclusive, what is the probability that both events will occur?
A. 0
B. 0.5
C. 1
D. -2

191. If P(A) = 0.4 and P(B) = 0.3, what is P(A and B) if A and B are independent events?
A. 0.12
B. 0.2
C. 0.7
D. 0.72

192. A fair six-sided die is rolled. What is the probability of rolling an even number or a number greater than four?
A. 1/2
B. 1/3
C. 2/3
D. 5/6

193. In a normal distribution, approximately what percentage of data falls within two standard deviations from the
mean?
A. 34.13%
B. 50%
C. 68.27%
D. 95.45%
If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”
194. What is the variance of the following dataset: 2, 4, 6, 8?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

195. Which of the following probability distributions is discrete?

A. Normal distribution
B. Exponential distribution
C. Poisson distribution
D. Uniform distribution

196. If the correlation coefficient between two variables is -0.8, what can be said about their relationship?
A. There is a strong positive linear relationship.
B. There is a strong negative linear relationship.
C. There is no linear relationship.
D. There is a weak negative linear relationship.

197. Which measure of dispersion is most affected by extreme values in a dataset?

A. Range
B. Variance
C. Standard deviation
D. Interquartile range

198. In a binomial distribution, if the probability of success is 0.3 and the number of trials is five, what is the
probability of exactly two successes?
A. 0.00243
B. 0.36015
C. 0.30870
D. 0.360

199. What is the formula for calculating the coefficient of variation?

A. (Standard deviation) / (Mean)
B. (Mean) / (Standard deviation)
C. (Range) / (Mean)
D. (Mean) / (Range)

200. If the z-score of a data point is negative, what does it indicate?

A. The data point is below the mean.
B. The data point is above the mean.
C. The data point is equal to the mean.
D. The data point is an outlier.

201. What is the probability of rolling a prime number on a fair six-sided die?
A. 1/2
B. 1/3
C. 1/6
D. 2/3

202. In a normal distribution, what percentage of data falls within three standard deviations from the mean?
A. 34.13%
B. 50%
C. 68.27%
D. 99.73%

203. What is the formula for calculating the interquartile range (IQR)?
A. Q3 - Q1
B. Q1 - Q3
C. (Q3 - Q1) / 2
D. (Q1 - Q3) / 2

204. What is P(A and B) if events A and B are independent?

A. P(A) + P(B)
B. P(A) - P(B)
C. P(A) * P(B)
D. P(A) / P(B)

205. What is the probability of selecting a red marble from a bag containing five red and three blue marbles?
If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”
 A. 3/5
B. 5/8
C. 5/3
D. 8/5

206. What is the standard deviation of the following dataset: 3, 6, 9, 12?

A. 2.5
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6

207. In a normal distribution, what is the z-score of the mean?

A. 0
B. 1
C. -1
D. -2

208. What is the complement of an event with a probability of 0.7?

A. 0.3
B. 0.5
C. 0.7
D. 1.0

209. Which of the following organelles is responsible for cellular respiration?

A. Golgi apparatus
B. Mitochondria
C. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Nucleus

210. What is the primary function of red blood cells?

A. Transporting oxygen
B. Producing antibodies
C. Regulating blood sugar levels
D. Storing fat

211. The following are types of connective tissues, except for ________.
A. Bone
B. Muscle
C. Cartilage
D. Blood

212. What is the basic unit of heredity?

A. Protein
B. DNA
C. Enzyme
D. Lipid

213. Which process produces genetically identical copies of a cell?

A. Meiosis
B. Mitosis
C. Fertilization
D. Transcription

214. Where does photosynthesis primarily occur in plants?

A. Chloroplasts
B. Mitochondria
C. Nucleus
D. Cytoplasm

215. The following are functions of the human skin, except for ________.
A. Regulation of body temperature
B. Protection against pathogens
C. Production of digestive enzymes
D. Sensory perception

216. What is the powerhouse of the cell?

A. Golgi apparatus
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Nucleus
If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”
 D. Mitochondria

217. What is the chemical formula for glucose?

A. C6H12O6
B. H2O
C. CO2
D. NaCl

218. Which of the following is not a type of RNA?

A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. rRNA
D. DNA

219. What is the function of the ribosomes in a cell?

A. Synthesizing proteins
B. Producing energy
C. Storing genetic information
D. Regulating cell division

220. Which of the following is a function of the circulatory system?

A. Transporting nutrients and oxygen
B. Producing hormones
C. Digesting food
D. Filtering waste products

221. What is the largest organ in the human body?

A. Liver
B. Brain
C. Skin
D. Heart

222. Which is responsible for breaking down carbohydrates during digestion?

A. Amylase
B. Lipase
C. Pepsin
D. Trypsin

223. What is the function of the enzyme amylase?

A. Break down starch into sugars.
B. Break down proteins into amino acids.
C. Break down fats into fatty acids and glycerol
D. Break down nucleic acids into nucleotides

224. The following are functions of the skeletal system, except for ________.
A. Providing structure and support
B. Producing red blood cells
C. Facilitating movement
D. Storing minerals

225. Which of the following is a function of the nervous system?

A. Transporting nutrients
B. Regulating body temperature
C. Transmitting signals
D. Producing hormones

226. What is the role of chlorophyll in photosynthesis?

A. Absorbing light energy
B. Producing glucose
C. Regulating water balance
D. Facilitating gas exchange

227. The following are types of tissues in the human body, except for ________.
A. Epithelial
B. Nervous
C. Cardiac
D. Cartilaginous

228. What is the function of the enzyme lactase?

If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”
 A. Break down lactose into glucose and galactose
B. Break down fats into fatty acids and glycerol
C. Break down proteins into amino acids
D. Break down starch into sugars

229. What is the function of the respiratory system?

A. Exchanging gases
B. Transporting nutrients
C. Regulating body temperature
D. Pumping blood

230. The following are types of blood vessels, except for ________.
A. Artery
B. Vein
C. Capillary
D. Tendon

231. What is the function of the enzyme pepsin?

A. Break down proteins into amino acids.
B. Break down starch into sugars.
C. Break down fats into fatty acids and glycerol
D. Break down nucleic acids into nucleotides

232. Which of the following is responsible for transporting oxygen in the blood?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Platelets
C. Plasma
D. White blood cells

233. What is the primary function of the digestive system?

A. Breaking down food
B. Regulating body temperature
C. Producing hormones
D. Pumping blood

234. Which of the following is an example of a physical change?

A. Burning wood
B. Rusting iron
C. Melting ice
D. Baking a cake

235. Which layer of the Earth is primarily composed of solid iron and nickel?
A. Crust
B. Mantle
C. Outer core
D. Inner core

236. What type of rock is formed from the cooling and solidification of magma or lava?
A. Sedimentary
B. Metamorphic
C. Igneous
D. None of the above

237. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

A. Carbon dioxide
B. Oxygen
C. Methane
D. Water vapor

238. What is the basic unit of all matter?

A. Atom
B. Molecule
C. Electron
D. Proton

239. Which layer of the atmosphere is closest to the Earth's surface?

A. Troposphere
B. Stratosphere
C. Mesosphere
If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”
 D. Thermosphere

240. What force causes objects to fall towards the Earth?

A. Gravity
B. Magnetism
C. Friction
D. Buoyancy

241. The following are renewable energy sources, except for ________.
A. Solar
B. Wind
C. Coal
D. Hydroelectric

242. What do you call the process by which plants use sunlight to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose
and oxygen?
A. Respiration
B. Photosynthesis
C. Fermentation
D. Combustion

243. Which of the following measures the average kinetic energy of the particles in a substance?
A. Temperature
B. Pressure
C. Volume
D. Density

244. What is the term for bending light as it passes from one medium to another?
A. Reflection
B. Absorption
C. Refraction
D. Diffraction

245. The following are fossil fuels, except for ________.

A. Natural gas
B. Coal
C. Uranium
D. Oil

246. What do you call the process when rocks are broken down into smaller particles by physical, chemical, or
biological means?
A. Erosion
B. Weathering
C. Deposition
D. Sedimentation

247. What is the SI unit of force?

A. Newton
B. Joule
C. Watt
D. Pascal

If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”

248. The following are characteristics of minerals, except for ________.

A. Naturally occurring
B. Organic origin
C. Definite chemical composition
D. Crystalline structure

249. Which is the hardest mineral on the Mohs scale?

A. Quartz
B. Feldspar
C. Talc
D. Diamond

250. What is the process by which liquid water changes into water vapor?
A. Condensation
B. Evaporation
If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”
 C. Sublimation
D. Melting

251. Which layer of the Earth's atmosphere contains the ozone layer?
A. Troposphere
B. Stratosphere
C. Mesosphere
D. Thermosphere

252. The following are greenhouse gases, except for ________.

A. Nitrous oxide
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Methane
D. Water vapor

253. What is the process by which a gas changes into a liquid?

A. Sublimation
B. Evaporation
C. Condensation
D. Freezing

254. Which layer of the Earth is the thickest?

A. Crust
B. Mantle
C. Outer core
D. Inner core

255. What is the process by which plants release water vapor into the atmosphere?
A. Condensation
B. Transpiration
C. Precipitation
D. Infiltration

256. Which of the following is a non-renewable energy source?

A. Solar
B. Wind
C. Nuclear
D. Geothermal

257. What is the SI unit of energy?

A. Joule
B. Watt
C. Newton
D. Pascal

258. Which layer of the Earth is divided into tectonic plates?

A. Crust
B. Mantle
C. Outer core
D. Inner core

259. Which of the following is a key critical thinking component?

A. Memorization
B. Active listening
C. Following instructions blindly
D. Emotional reasoning

260. What is the primary benefit of using a daily planner for studying?
A. Increased creativity
B. Better time management
C. Enhanced memory retention
D. Improved physical health

261. Which of the following strategies can help improve reading comprehension?
A. Speed reading without pausing
B. Highlighting key points
C. Skipping difficult sections
D. Reading once without review

If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”

262. Which of the following is an example of an effective note-taking method?
A. Writing down everything verbatim
B. Using symbols and abbreviations
C. Avoiding all forms of abbreviation
D. Only writing down headings.

263. What is a mind map primarily used for?

A. Linear note-taking
B. Organizing ideas visually
C. Writing essays
D. Memorizing vocabulary

264. Which of these is a critical reading strategy?

A. Skimming without understanding
B. Summarizing the text in your own words
C. Reading as fast as possible
D. Ignoring unfamiliar words

265. What does the SQ3R method stand for?

A. Survey, Question, Read, Recite, Review
B. Study, Query, Respond, Review, Repeat
C. Search, Question, Read, Recite, Record
D. Study, Quiz, Recall, Revisit, Revise

266. Which is the best approach to problem-solving?

A. Jumping to conclusions
B. Breaking the problem into smaller parts
C. Ignoring the problem
D. Copying others' solutions

267. Which technique can help reduce test anxiety?

A. Cramming the night before
B. Avoiding sleep before the test
C. Practicing relaxation techniques
D. Ignoring the test

268. What is the benefit of group study sessions?

A. Less accountability
B. Distraction from studies
C. Shared knowledge and perspectives
D. Less effective than studying alone

269. What is an essential step in the process of brainstorming?

A. Criticizing every idea immediately
B. Generating as many ideas as possible
C. Working alone in silence
D. Focusing only on practical ideas

270. Which of the following is a metacognitive skill?

A. Solving a math problem
B. Writing an essay
C. Monitoring one’s understanding
D. Reading a book

271. What should be done first when starting a research project?

A. Writing the conclusion
B. Gathering all possible sources
C. Defining the research question
D. Reading unrelated materials

272. How can flashcards be effectively used?

A. By creating long paragraphs on each card
B. By writing down questions and answers
C. By using only one card for the entire subject
D. By avoiding regular review

273. Which is an example of active learning?

A. Listening to a lecture without taking notes
B. Reading a textbook passively
If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”
 C. Engaging in a discussion about the topic
D. Watching a video without interaction

274. What is the benefit of summarizing information?

A. It takes a long time.
B. It helps to reinforce understanding.
C. It requires no effort.
D. It is an outdated technique.

275. What is a common characteristic of an effective goal?

A. It is vague and broad
B. It is specific and measurable
C. It is set by someone else
D. It is impossible to achieve

276. Which of the following helps prioritize tasks?

A. Doing the easiest tasks first
B. Using the Eisenhower matrix
C. Ignoring deadlines
D. Completing tasks randomly

277. What is critical thinking best described as?

A. Accepting information at face value
B. Evaluating and analyzing information
C. Memorizing facts
D. Agreeing with popular opinion

278. Which is a key part of self-regulated learning?

A. Relying solely on teachers for feedback
B. Setting personal learning goals
C. Avoiding self-assessment
D. Studying only when necessary

279. Which of the following is a mnemonic device?

A. Taking detailed notes
B. Creating acronyms for information
C. Reading aloud
D. Highlighting text

280. Which study method can help improve retention?

A. Cramming before exams
B. Spaced repetition
C. Multitasking while studying
D. Skipping difficult topics

281. What is the main purpose of a thesis statement in an essay?

A. To provide background information
B. To state the main argument or claim
C. To summarize the entire essay
D. To list all references

282. Which of these is a strategy for active reading?

A. Reading without stopping
B. Highlighting and annotating the text
C. Skipping challenging sections
D. Reading only once

283. What is one advantage of using concept maps?

A. They require no organization.
B. They visually represent relationships between ideas.
C. They are only useful for artistic subjects
D. They complicate simple topics

284. Anong layunin ng pagsasagawa ng pananaliksik?

A. Magkaroon ng mataas na grado
B. Makakuha ng impormasyon
C. Magpalawak ng kaalaman
D. Lahat ng nabanggit

If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”

285. Anong itinutukoy ng "pagbasa" sa konteksto ng pananaliksik?
A. Pagsusuri sa impormasyon
B. Pakikipag-usap sa mga eksperto
C. Pag-aaral ng teksto
D. Lahat ng nabanggit

286. Anong bahagi ng pananaliksik ang naglalaman ng mga datos at impormasyon na kinolekta?
A. Abstrak
B. Introduksyon
C. Layunin
D. Metodolohiya

287. Anong termino ang tumutukoy sa pagsusuri at interpretasyon ng datos sa pananaliksik?

A. Konklusyon
B. Resulta
C. Interpretasyon
D. Paksa

288. Anong hakbang sa pananaliksik ang nagsasaad ng mga tiyak na gawain o proseso na gagawin?
A. Metodolohiya
B. Layunin
C. Abstrak
D. Konklusyon

289. Anong uri ng pag-aaral ang naglalayong magbigay ng paglalarawan o pagsusuri sa isang pangyayari?
A. Deskriptibo
B. Eksperimental
C. Kwalitatibo
D. Kwantitatibo

290. Anong bahagi ng pananaliksik ang naglalaman ng mga inaasahang resulta ng pag-aaral?
A. Abstrak
B. Layunin
C. Konklusyon
D. Resulta

291. Ano ang tawag sa pagsasalin ng mga salita o teksto mula sa isang wika tungo sa isa pang wika?
A. Transliterasyon
B. Translasyon
C. Interpretasyon
D. Transkripsiyon

If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”

292. Ano ang kahulugan ng "bibliograpiya" sa konteksto ng pananaliksik?

A. Listahan ng mga sanggunian
B. Pagsusuri ng mga datos
C. Pagsulat ng layunin
D. Lahat ng nabanggit

293. Anong bahagi ng pananaliksik ang naglalaman ng buod ng kabuuan ng pagsasaliksik?

A. Layunin
B. Abstrak
C. Metodolohiya
D. Resulta

294. Ano ang layunin ng abstrak sa isang pananaliksik?

A. Magbigay ng background ng paksang pag-aaralan
B. Magbigay ng buod ng pagsasaliksik
C. Ilahad ang mga resulta ng pananaliksik
D. Lahat ng nabanggit

295. Anong hakbang sa pananaliksik ang naglalaman ng pagsusuri sa mga resulta ng mga eksperimento o
pagsusuri?
A. Interpretasyon
B. Layunin
C. Konklusyon
D. Metodolohiya

If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”

296. Ano ang kahalagahan ng pamagat sa isang pananaliksik?
A. Magbigay ng direksyon sa pagsasaliksik
B. Magbigay ng mga detalye ng metodolohiya
C. Ilahad ang mga resulta ng pagsasaliksik
D. Lahat ng nabanggit

297. Anong bahagi ng pananaliksik ang naglalaman ng mga konkretong detalye tungkol sa paksang pag-aaralan?
A. Konklusyon
B. Abstrak
C. Introduksyon
D. Metodolohiya

298. Anong uri ng pananaliksik ang naglalayong suriin ang ugnayan ng dalawang variables?
A. Kwalitatibo
B. Deskriptibo
C. Eksperimental
D. Kwantitatibo

299. Ano ang ibig sabihin ng "epekto" sa isang pananaliksik?

A. Pagpapaliwanag ng proseso
B. Resulta ng pag-aaral
C. Resulta ng pagtutok sa isang paksang pag-aaralan
D. Lahat ng nabanggit

300. Anong hakbang sa pananaliksik ang naglalaman ng layunin o mga gawain ng pag-aaral?
A. Interpretasyon
B. Abstrak
C. Layunin
D. Konklusyon

301. Which document serves as the fundamental law of the Philippines?

A. Philippine Declaration of Independence
B. Magna Carta
C. Philippine Constitution
D. Bill of Rights

302. What year was the current Philippine Constitution ratified?

A. 1986
B. 1946
C. 1973
D. 1898

303. How many articles are there in the current Philippine Constitution?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 18
D. 24

304. Which part of the Philippine Constitution outlines the declaration of state policies?
A. Article III
B. Article IV
C. Article II
D. Article V

305. According to the Constitution, what is the term length for the President of the Philippines?
A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. 8 years

306. Which of the following is not a branch of the Philippine government as outlined in the Constitution?
A. Executive
B. Legislative
C. Military
D. Judicial

307. How many justices sit on the Supreme Court of the Philippines?
A. 7
B. 9
If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”
 C. 11
D. 15

308. What is the minimum age requirement for a citizen to be eligible to run for President?
A. 35 years old
B. 40 years old
C. 45 years old
D. 50 years old

309. Which article of the Philippine Constitution emphasizes protecting human rights?
A. Article I
B. Article III
C. Article IV
D. Article V

310. How many amendments does the Philippine Constitution have as of 2022?
A. 15
B. 20
C. 10
D. 5

311. What is the term length for members of the House of Representatives?
A. 3 years
B. 4 years
C. 5 years
D. 6 years

312. According to the Constitution, who can declare martial law in the Philippines?
A. President
B. Supreme Court
C. Senate
D. Congress

313. How many senators are there in the Philippine Senate?

A. 18
B. 24
C. 12
D. 16

314. According to the Constitution, what is the official language of the Philippines?
A. Spanish
B. English
C. Filipino
D. Mandarin

315. What is the primary responsibility of the Commission on Human Rights (CHR) as mandated by the
Constitution?
A. Enforce laws
B. Protect human rights
C. Regulate elections
D. Manage public finances

316. According to the Philippine Constitution, how many terms can a President serve?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

317. Who has the power to approve or reject appointments made by the President, according to the Constitution?
A. Senate
B. House of Representatives
C. Supreme Court
D. Commission on Appointments

318. What is the age requirement to be eligible for membership in the House of Representatives?
A. 18 years old
B. 21 years old
C. 25 years old
D. 30 years old
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319. According to the Philippine Constitution, how many terms can a Senator serve?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

320. What is the term length for members of the Supreme Court of the Philippines?
A. 4 years
B. 6 years
C. 8 years
D. 10 years

321. Which part of the Philippine Constitution outlines the protection and promotion of social justice?
A. Article I
B. Article II
C. Article III
D. Article IV

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322. According to the Constitution, who is the Commander-in-Chief of the Armed Forces of the Philippines?
A. President
B. Secretary of Defense
C. Chief of Staff
D. Vice President

323. What is the term length for members of the Philippine Senate?
A. 3 years
B. 4 years
C. 6 years
D. 8 years

324. What is the term length for members of the House of Representatives?
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 4 years
D. 5 years

325. Which article of the Philippine Constitution emphasizes the separation of powers among the three branches
of government?
A. Article I
B. Article II
C. Article III
D. Article IV

326. Which of the following is not a factor influencing family planning decisions?
A. Socio-economic status
B. Cultural beliefs
C. Government regulations
D. Physical fitness

327. Which of the following regions is family planning often influenced by religious beliefs?
A. Western Europe
B. Southeast Asia
C. Scandinavia
D. Australia

328. Which contraceptive method involves the surgical blocking of the fallopian tubes?
A. Vasectomy
B. Tubal ligation
C. Condom
D. Intrauterine device (IUD)

329. Which cultural factor might discourage discussions about family planning in certain societies?
A. Collectivist values
B. Individualistic values
C. High literacy rates
D. Gender equality
If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”
330. What is a commonly cited benefit of family planning?
A. Increased poverty
B. Higher infant mortality
C. Improved maternal health
D. Reduced access to education

331. Which of the following contraceptive methods is hormone-based?

A. Condom
B. Diaphragm
C. Birth control pill
D. Copper IUD

332. Which cultural aspect might affect the acceptance of family planning in a society?
A. Language spoken
B. Cuisine preferences
C. Traditional gender roles
D. Fashion trends

333. Which organization often provides education and resources related to family planning?
A. UNESCO
B. WHO
C. FIFA
D. IMF

334. Which contraceptive method prevents ovulation by releasing hormones into the body?
A. Female sterilization
B. Male sterilization
C. Birth control patch
D. Contraceptive implant

335. Which cultural belief might influence certain societies' desire for large families?
A. Environmental conservation
B. Emphasis on career advancement
C. Importance of lineage and heritage
D. Support for gender equality

336. Which of the following is not considered a modern method of contraception?

A. Condoms
B. Birth control pills
C. Traditional herbs
D. Intrauterine devices (IUDs)

337. Which country did the "one-child policy" exist as a form of government-regulated family planning?
A. India
B. China
C. Brazil
D. Nigeria

338. Which contraceptive method involves the insertion of a small, T-shaped device into the uterus?
A. Diaphragm
B. Birth control shot
C. Contraceptive sponge
D. Intrauterine device (IUD)

339. Which cultural factor might influence the acceptance of family planning education in a community?
A. Access to technology
B. Traditional gender norms
C. High levels of urbanization
D. Universal healthcare

340. Which of the following barriers to family planning in some societies?

A. Lack of contraceptive options
B. Strong government intervention
C. High levels of education
D. Supportive social networks

341. Which contraceptive method involves the insertion of a small, flexible ring into the vagina?
A. Contraceptive sponge
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 B. Birth control patch
C. NuvaRing
D. Cervical cap

342. In which region is family planning often influenced by traditions of arranged marriages?
A. North America
B. Middle East
C. Scandinavia
D. Oceania

343. Which organization provides funding and support for family planning programs worldwide?
A. UNICEF
B. OPEC
C. USAID
D. NATO

344. Which contraceptive method involves the insertion of a small, flexible device into the vagina to cover the
cervix?
A. Contraceptive sponge
B. Cervical cap
C. Birth control patch
D. NuvaRing

If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”

345. In which cultural context might large families be seen as a source of social status and prestige?
A. Individualistic societies
B. Collectivist societies
C. Patriarchal societies
D. Egalitarian societies

346. Which of the following is not a potential consequence of lack of access to family planning?
A. Overpopulation
B. Maternal mortality
C. Reduced poverty
D. Increased strain on resources

347. Which contraceptive method involves the injection of hormones every few months?
A. Birth control pill
B. Birth control shot
C. Contraceptive patch
D. Contraceptive implant

348. In which cultural context might discussing family planning be considered taboo?
A. Highly educated societies
B. Patriarchal societies
C. Gender-equal societies
D. Industrialized societies

349. Which organization promotes family planning as a fundamental human right?

A. WHO
B. UNICEF
C. Planned Parenthood
D. UNFPA

350. Which contraceptive method involves a permanent surgical procedure for males?
A. Tubal ligation
B. Vasectomy
C. Birth control pill
D. Condom

351. What does ICT stand for?

A. Integrated Computer Technology
B. Information and Computer Technology
C. Internet and Communication Technology
D. Information and Communication Technology

352. Which of the following is not an example of ICT hardware?

A. Printer
If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”
 B. Software
C. Router
D. Webcam

353. What is the purpose of a firewall in ICT?

A. To prevent unauthorized access to a network
B. To speed up the internet connection
C. To enhance computer performance
D. To store large amounts of data

354. Which of the following is an example of a cloud computing service?

A. Microsoft Word
B. Google Drive
C. Adobe Photoshop
D. Windows Media Player

355. What does the abbreviation "URL" stand for in ICT?

A. Universal Reference Locator
B. Uniform Resource Locator
C. Unified Resource Locator
D. Universal Resource Link

356. The following are commonly used programming languages in ICT, except for ________.
A. Java
B. HTML
C. PHP
D. PDF

357. What is the purpose of a modem in ICT?

A. To convert digital data into analog signals for transmission over telephone lines
B. To regulate the speed of internet connection
C. To provide power backup to computer systems
D. To enhance graphics processing in computers

358. Which of the following is an example of a spreadsheet software in ICT?

A. Microsoft PowerPoint
B. Microsoft Excel
C. Adobe Photoshop
D. Windows Media Player

359. What is the function of an operating system in ICT?

A. To manage hardware resources and provide a user interface
B. To create documents and presentations
C. To design websites
D. To protect against viruses and malware

360. What does VoIP stand for in ICT?

A. Voice over Internet Protocol
B. Video over Internet Protocol
C. Virtual Office Internet Provider
D. Voice of Integrated Protocol

361. The following are types of computer network in ICT, except for ________.
A. LAN (Local Area Network)
B. WAN (Wide Area Network)
C. MAN (Metropolitan Area Network)
D. USB (Universal Serial Bus)

362. What is the purpose of encryption in ICT?

A. To compress data for storage
B. To convert data into a secret code to secure transmission
C. To increase the speed of data transfer
D. To improve the quality of images and videos

363. Which of the following is not a type of computer virus?

A. Trojan horse
B. Worm
C. Spyware
D. Microsoft Office
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364. What is the purpose of a router in ICT?
A. To connect multiple devices to a network and route data packets between them
B. To amplify sound output from a computer
C. To scan documents and convert them into digital format
D. To provide a backup power supply to computer systems

365. What does HTML stand for in ICT?

A. Hyper Text Markup Language
B. High Technology Markup Language
C. Hardware and Tools Markup Language
D. Home and Travel Markup Language

366. Which of the following is not a type of computer memory?

A. RAM (Random Access Memory)
B. ROM (Read-Only Memory)
C. CPU (Central Processing Unit)
D. Cache Memory

367. What is the purpose of a search engine in ICT?

A. To provide a graphical user interface for computer systems
B. To convert digital data into analog signals for transmission
C. To retrieve information from the internet based on user queries
D. To protect against cyber threats and attacks

368. What is the role of a domain name in ICT?

A. To identify the location of a website on the internet
B. To store and organize data on a computer system
C. To facilitate communication between computer networks
D. To provide security encryption for data transmission

369. Which of the following is a commonly used relational database management system (RDBMS) in ICT?
A. Microsoft Word
B. Microsoft Access
C. Microsoft Outlook
D. Microsoft PowerPoint

370. What is the purpose of a VPN (Virtual Private Network) in ICT?

A. To create a secure connection over the internet, ensuring privacy and anonymity.
B. To optimize internet speed and performance
C. To provide backup storage for computer files
D. To facilitate video conferencing between multiple users

371. The following are commonly used email protocols in ICT, except for ________.
A. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)
B. POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3)
C. FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
D. IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol)

372. What is the primary function of a web browser in ICT?

A. To create and edit text documents
B. To search and display web pages on the internet
C. To protect against computer viruses and malware
D. To provide audio and video streaming services

373. The following are components of a computer system unit, except for ________.
A. Monitor
B. CPU (Central Processing Unit)
C. Motherboard
D. RAM (Random Access Memory)

374. The following are characteristics of international folk dance, except for ________.
A. Reflects cultural traditions
B. Typically performed in formal dance studios
C. Passed down through generations
D. Often performed in groups

375. What is the purpose of international folk dance?

A. Commercial entertainment
If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”
 B. Preservation of cultural heritage
C. Individual expression
D. Competitive sport

376. Which dance form originated in Ireland and involves intricate footwork and rhythmic movements?
A. Salsa
B. Flamenco
C. Tap dance
D. Riverdance

377. Which country is the flamenco dance form associated with?

A. Brazil
B. Spain
C. Russia
D. India

378. Which of the following is a traditional dance form originating from India?
A. Hula
B. Belly dance
C. Bharatanatyam
D. Samba

379. Which dance form is characterized by its hip and torso movements and originated in the Middle East?
A. Samba
B. Belly dance
C. Tango
D. Swing Dance

380. What dance style originated in Brazil and is characterized by its energetic and rhythmic movements?
A. Flamenco
B. Samba
C. Tango
D. Capoeira

381. Which traditional dance form from Hawaii performed with rhythmic hip movements and hand gestures?
A. Flamenco
B. Hula
C. Ballet
D. Cha-cha

382. Which country did the tango originate in?

A. Argentina
B. Italy
C. France
D. Spain

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383. Which dance style is known for its intricate and fast-paced footwork, originating in Ireland?
A. Ballet
B. Tap dance
C. Salsa
D. Clogging

384. What dance form emerged in the African-American community in the United States, characterized by
syncopated rhythms and improvisation?
A. Hip-hop
B. Breakdance
C. Jazz dance
D. Ballet

385. Which of the following dance forms originated in Argentina and is characterized by its close embrace and
intricate footwork?
A. Salsa
B. Tango
C. Flamenco
D. Waltz

386. What is the solution to the equation (2x + 5 = 11)?

If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”
 A. (x = 3)
B. (x = 6)
C. (x = 8)
D. (x = 10)

387. Which of the following is equivalent to (3x - 7 = 11)?

A. (x = 4)
B. (x = 6)
C. (x = 6)
D. (x = 9)

388. Solve for (x): (4(x - 3) = 20).

A. (x = 4)
B. (x = 6)
C. (x = 8)
D. (x = 10)

389. Simplify: (2x2 + 3x - 5) when (x = 2).

A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12

390. Which expression is equivalent to (3x + 2(x - 4))?

A. (5x - 8)
B. (3x + 8)
C. (5x - 2)
D. (3x - 8)

391. Solve for (x): (2(3x - 4) = 10).

A. (x = 1)
B. (x = 2)
C. (x = 3)
D. (x = 4)

392. What is the solution to the equation (5x - 8 = 17)?

A. (x = 3)
B. (x = 5)
C. (x = 6)
D. (x = 9)

393. Simplify: (4(x + 2) - 2(3x - 1)).

A. (10x - 6)
B. (10x + 6)
C. (8x - 2)
D. (8x + 2)

394. Solve for (x): (frac{{3x - 1}}{2} = 5).

A. (x = 3)
B. (x = 4)
C. (x = 5)
D. (x = 6)

395. Which of the following expressions equals (2x + 3(x - 2))?

A. (5x - 6)
B. (5x - 3)
C. (5x - 2)
D. (5x - 1)

396. Solve for (x): (frac{{2x + 3}}{4} = 5).

A. (x = 8)
B. (x = 11)
C. (x = 14)
D. (x = 17)

397. What is the value of (x) in the equation (2(x - 3) = 10)?

A. (x = 5)
B. (x = 6)
C. (x = 7)
If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”
 D. (x = 8)

398. Simplify: (3(2x - 4) + 2(3x + 1)).

A. (9x + 5)
B. (9x - 5)
C. (11x - 10)
D. (11x + 10)

399. Solve for (x): (frac{{3x + 2}}{5} = 4).

A. (x = 6)
B. (x = 8)
C. (x = 10)
D. (x = 12)

400. Which expression is equivalent to (4x - 2(x + 3))?

A. (2x - 6)
B. (2x + 6)
C. (2x - 8)
D. (2x + 8)

401. Solve for (x): (5(2x - 1) = 15).

A. (x = 2)
B. (x = 3)
C. (x = 4)
D. (x = 5)

402. What is the solution to the equation (6x - 4 = 20)?

A. (x = 4)
B. (x = 5)
C. (x = 6)
D. (x = 7)

403. Simplify: (2(3x + 1) + 3(2x - 2)).

A. (10x + 4)
B. (10x + 5)
C. (11x + 4)
D. (11x + 5)

404. Solve for (x): (frac{{4x - 1}}{3} = 8).

A. (x = 6)
B. (x = 7)
C. (x = 8)
D. (x = 9)

405. Which philosopher is known for his concept of the "Cogito, ergo sum" (I think, therefore I am)?
A. Plato
B. Aristotle
C. René Descartes
D. Immanuel Kant

406. Who is considered the father of modern psychology?

A. Sigmund Freud
B. William James
C. John Dewey
D. Wilhelm Wundt

407. In aesthetics, what term describes the theory of beauty as being subjective and dependent on individual
perception?
A. Aesthetics
B. Subjectivism
C. Objectivism
D. Relativism

408. According to Aristotle, what is the highest form of happiness?

A. Hedonism
B. Eudaimonia
C. Utilitarianism
D. Nihilism

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409. Who wrote the influential work "Critique of Pure Reason," which delves into the limits and scope of human
knowledge?
A. Plato
B. Friedrich Nietzsche
C. Immanuel Kant

410. What is the primary focus of existentialist philosophy?

A. The existence of God
B. The nature of reality
C. Human freedom and responsibility
D. Political ideologies

411. The following are the main branches of philosophy, except for ________.
A. Metaphysics
B. Ethics
C. Epistemology
D. Sociology

412. Who developed the theory of classical conditioning in psychology?

A. B.F. Skinner
B. Ivan Pavlov
C. Albert Bandura
D. Jean Piaget

If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”

413. The following are components of Sigmund Freud's psychoanalytic theory, except for ________.
A. Id
B. Ego
C. Superego
D. Archetype

414. What term describes how individuals adjust their behavior to fit in with a group's norms?
A. Conformity
B. Obedience
C. Compliance
D. Deviance

415. Who is known for his concept of the "invisible hand" in economics, suggesting that individuals pursuing their
self-interest can unintentionally benefit society?
A. Karl Marx
B. Adam Smith
C. John Maynard Keynes
D. Milton Friedman

416. In which artistic movement did Pablo Picasso and Georges Braque play significant roles?
A. Impressionism
B. Cubism
C. Surrealism
D. Expressionism

417. Who painted the famous artwork "The Starry Night?”

A. Vincent van Gogh
B. Leonardo da Vinci
C. Claude Monet
D. Michelangelo

418. Which psychological perspective focuses on how unconscious motives and conflicts influence behavior?
A. Behaviorism
B. Humanistic psychology
C. Psychoanalytic theory
D. Cognitive psychology

419. What term describes the tendency to attribute one's thoughts, feelings, and motives to others?
A. Projection
B. Rationalization
C. Regression
D. Displacement

If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”

420. Who proposed the hierarchy of needs theory, suggesting that individuals are motivated to fulfill basic needs
before progressing to higher-level needs?
A. Abraham Maslow
B. Carl Rogers
C. B.F. Skinner
D. Erik Erikson

421. What term describes the process of encoding, storing, and retrieving information in memory?
A. Conditioning
B. Learning
C. Cognition
D. Memory

422. The following are stages in Jean Piaget's theory of cognitive development, except for ________.
A. Sensorimotor
B. Concrete operational
C. Formal operational
D. Reflexive

423. Who coined the term "TABULA RASA" to describe the mind as a blank slate at birth, ready to be written upon
by experience?
A. John Locke
B. David Hume
C. Thomas Hobbes
D. Jean-Jacques Rousseau

424. What term describes the tendency to seek information confirming one's beliefs while ignoring contradictory
evidence?
A. Confirmation bias
B. Availability heuristic
C. Anchoring bias
D. Hindsight bias

425. Which philosopher is associated with the "social contract," suggesting that individuals form societies
through mutual agreements?
A. Thomas Hobbes
B. John Locke
C. Jean-Jacques Rousseau
D. Montesquieu

426. Who developed the theory of operant conditioning, which focuses on how consequences shape behavior?
A. Ivan Pavlov
B. B.F. Skinner
C. Albert Bandura
D. John B. Watson

427. What term describes the phenomenon where group members exert less effort when working collectively than
individually?
A. Social loafing
B. Groupthink
C. Deindividuation
D. Social facilitation

428. Which of the following is a major theme in Friedrich Nietzsche's philosophy?

A. Utilitarianism
B. Nihilism
C. Existentialism
D. Absurdism

429. Who is known for his theory of moral development, which outlines stages of moral reasoning from pre-
conventional to post-conventional?
A. Lawrence Kohlberg
B. Erik Erikson
C. Jean Piaget
D. Lev Vygotsky

430. What is the first step in conducting research?

A. Data analysis
B. Formulating research questions
If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”
 C. Writing the conclusion
D. Collecting data

431. What is the purpose of conducting a literature review in research?

A. To summarize the findings of previous studies
B. To provide evidence to support the hypothesis
C. To critique the research methodology of previous studies
D. To identify gaps and trends in the existing literature

432. Which of the following is not a primary data source in research?

A. Survey responses
B. Newspaper articles
C. Interviews
D. Experimental results

433. Which of the following is an example of a qualitative research method?

A. Experimentation
B. Survey
C. Case study
D. Meta-analysis

434. What is the term used to describe organizing and interpreting data in research?
A. Data analysis
B. Hypothesis testing
C. Data collection
D. Literature review

435. In APA citation style, how should a book be cited within the text of a research paper?
A. (Author, year)
B. [Author, year]
C. {Author, year}
D. <Author, year>

436. What is the purpose of a research proposal?

A. To outline the researcher's qualifications
B. To provide a detailed plan for conducting the research
C. To present the results of the research study
D. To summarize the literature review

437. The following are characteristics of a good research question, except for ________.
A. It is broad and general
B. It is clear and specific
C. It is relevant to the research topic
D. It is feasible to answer with available resources

438. What is the purpose of an abstract in a research paper?

A. To provide a summary of the research findings
B. To introduce the research topic
C. To outline the research methodology
D. To present the author's conclusions

If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”

439. What is the term used to describe selecting a sample from a population for research purposes?
A. Sampling
B. Randomization
C. Stratification
D. Hypothesis testing

440. Which of the following is an example of a dependent variable in a research study?

A. Gender
B. Age
C. Test scores
D. Educational level

441. What is the purpose of a research hypothesis?

A. To summarize the research findings
B. To provide a tentative explanation for observed phenomena
C. To identify the variables being studied
If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”
 D. To outline the research methodology

442. What research design involves collecting data at a single point?

A. Longitudinal
B. Cross-sectional
C. Experimental
D. Descriptive

443. Which of the following is an example of quantitative data?

A. Interview transcripts
B. Survey responses
C. Case studies
D. Observational notes

444. What term is used to describe the consistency and stability of research findings?
A. Reliability
B. Validity
C. Generalizability
D. Replicability

445. What term describes analyzing data to identify themes and patterns in qualitative research?
A. Content analysis
B. Grounded theory
C. Thematic analysis
D. Ethnography

446. What is the purpose of conducting peer review in the research process?
A. To ensure the accuracy and reliability of research findings
B. To provide feedback and suggestions for improvement
C. To identify potential ethical issues
D. To select appropriate research methods

447. Which of the following is an example of a research objective?

A. To describe the characteristics of the study population
B. To test the relationship between two variables
C. To provide recommendations for future research
D. To summarize the findings of previous studies

448. What is the term used to describe the process of ensuring that research participants are fully informed about
the nature and purpose of the study?
A. Informed consent
B. Confidentiality
C. Debriefing
D. Anonymity

449. The following are common research methods in social science research, except for ________.
A. Case study
B. Meta-analysis
C. Randomized controlled trial
D. Ethnography

450. What term describes how research findings can be generalized to other populations or settings?
A. Reliability
B. Validity
C. Generalizability
D. Replicability

451. Which of the following is an example of a research limitation?

A. The sample size was small
B. The research findings were inconclusive
C. The research methodology was flawed
D. The research topic was not relevant

452. What is the purpose of conducting statistical analysis in research?

A. To summarize the findings of the literature review
B. To identify potential sources of bias
C. To test hypotheses and explore relationships between variables
D. To select appropriate research methods

If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”

453. Which of the following is an example of a research ethics violation?
A. Falsifying research data
B. Reporting research findings accurately
C. Obtaining informed consent from research participants
D. Conducting research in a culturally sensitive manner

454. Anong tayutay ang ginagamit sa pagsasama ng dalawang di-kapantay na bagay na may ibang kahulugan?
A. Pagtutulad
B. Pagwawangis
C. Pagmamalabis
D. Pagpapalit-saklaw

455. Alin sa mga tayutay ang nagpapahayag ng pahiwatig sa pamamagitan ng paggamit ng simili o metaphor?
A. Personipikasyon
B. Pagtutulad
C. Pagmamalabis
D. Pagmamalas

456. Anong tayutay ang ginagamit kapag ang isang bagay ay inihahalintulad sa isang tao?
A. Pagpapalit-saklaw
B. Pagwawangis
C. Pagtutulad
D. Pagmamalabis

457. Aling tayutay ang ginagamit sa pagbibigay ng buhay at katangian ng tao sa mga bagay-bagay na walang
buhay?
A. Pagbibigay-katauhan
B. Pagmamalas
C. Pagtutulad
D. Pagpapalit-saklaw

458. Ano ang tawag sa tayutay na nagbibigay-katauhan sa mga bagay na walang buhay?
A. Pagtutulad
B. Pagpapalit-saklaw
C. Pagbibigay-katauhan
D. Pagmamalabis

459. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang tayutay na nagpapalit ng karaniwang kahulugan ng isang salita?
A. Pagmamalas
B. Pagbibigay-katauhan
C. Pagtutulad
D. Pagpapalit-saklaw

460. Anong tayutay ang ginagamit sa pagpapahayag ng matinding damdamin o emosyon?

A. Pagtutulad
B. Pagbibigay-katauhan
C. Pagmamalas
D. Pagmamalabis

461. Alin sa mga tayutay ang nagbibigay ng katauhan o damdamin sa mga bagay na walang buhay?
A. Pagpapalit-saklaw
B. Pagmamalas
C. Pagmamalabis
D. Pagbibigay-katauhan

462. Anong tayutay ang ginagamit sa pagsasalaysay ng kuwento ng mga bagay-bagay na hindi kapani-paniwala?
A. Pagmamalabis
B. Pagpapalit-saklaw
C. Pagmamalas
D. Pagbibigay-katauhan

463. Alin sa mga tayutay ang nagpapahayag ng damdamin sa pamamagitan ng pagpapakilala ng isang bagay na
walang kahulugan?
A. Pagmamalabis
B. Pagtutulad
C. Pagbibigay-katauhan
D. Pagmamalas

464. Anong tawag sa tayutay na gumagamit ng salitang hindi eksaktong kahulugan?

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 A. Pagpapalit-saklaw
B. Pagmamalabis
C. Pagmamalas
D. Pagbibigay-katauhan

465. Alin sa mga tayutay ang nagpapahayag ng damdamin sa pamamagitan ng pagpapakilala ng isang bagay na
walang kahulugan?
A. Pagmamalabis
B. Pagtutulad
C. Pagbibigay-katauhan
D. Pagmamalas

466. Anong tayutay ang ginagamit sa pagsasama ng dalawang di-kapantay na bagay na may ibang kahulugan?
A. Pagtutulad
B. Pagwawangis
C. Pagmamalabis
D. Pagpapalit-saklaw

467. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang tayutay na gumagamit ng salitang hindi eksaktong kahulugan?
A. Pagpapalit-saklaw
B. Pagmamalabis
C. Pagmamalas
D. Pagbibigay-katauhan

468. Ano ang tawag sa tayutay na nagbibigay-katauhan sa mga bagay na walang buhay?
A. Pagtutulad
B. Pagmamalabis
C. Pagmamalas
D. Pagbibigay-katauhan

469. Alin sa mga tayutay ang nagpapahayag ng pahiwatig sa pamamagitan ng paggamit ng simili o metaphor?
A. Personipikasyon
B. Pagtutulad
C. Pagmamalabis
D. Pagmamalas

470. Ano ang tinatawag na "pinakabuod ng wika"?

A. Balarila
B. Alfabeto
C. Ponolohiya
D. Abakada

471. Ang pag-aaral sa pagsasalita ng mga tunog at kung paano ito binubuo ay bahagi ng aling aspeto ng
linggwistikang ________.
A. Ponolohiya
B. Morpolohiya
C. Sintaks
D. Semantika

472. Ang pag-aaral sa estruktura ng mga salita at ang kanilang mga parte ay bahagi ng aling aspeto ng
linggwistikang ________.
A. Ponolohiya
B. Morpolohiya
C. Sintaks
D. Semantika

473. Saan ipinakikita ang ugnayan ng Ponolohiya, Morpolohiya, Sintaks, at Semantika?

A. Phonemes
B. Grammar
C. Syntax
D. Morphemes

474. Ano ang tawag sa pinakamaliit na yunit ng tunog na may kahulugan?

A. Ponema
B. Morpema
C. Sintaks
D. Semantika

475. Ano ang tawag sa pinakamaliit na yunit ng kahulugan?

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 A. Ponema
B. Morpema
C. Sintaks
D. Semantika

476. Alin ang sangay ng linggwistika na may kinalaman sa pag-aaral ng istraktura at ugnayan ng mga
pangungusap?
A. Fonolohiya
B. Morpolohiya
C. Sintaks
D. Semantika

477. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang nagpapaliwanag sa kahulugan ng mga salita?

A. Fonolohiya
B. Morpolohiya
C. Sintaks
D. Semantika

478. What is the primary objective of agrarian reform in the Philippines?

A. Economic development
B. Land redistribution
C. Industrialization
D. Foreign investment

479. Which law initiated the Philippines' Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Program (CARP)?
A. Republic Act No. 6657
B. Republic Act No. 3844
C. Republic Act No. 9700
D. Republic Act No. 6655

480. What entity is primarily responsible for implementing agrarian reform programs in the Philippines?
A. Department of Agriculture
B. Department of Agrarian Reform
C. Bureau of Internal Revenue
D. Land Bank of the Philippines

481. The following are components of agrarian reform in the Philippines, except for ________.
A. Land tenure improvement
B. Land redistribution
C. Land tax exemption
D. Support services delivery

482. What is the primary funding source for agrarian reform programs in the Philippines?
A. International aid
B. Landowners' contributions
C. Government budget allocations
D. Agricultural export taxes

483. Which agency is responsible for collecting real property taxes in the Philippines?
A. Bureau of Internal Revenue
B. Department of Agrarian Reform
C. Local Government Units
D. Land Bank of the Philippines

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484. What is the primary purpose of imposing land taxes in the Philippines?
A. To generate revenue for the government
B. To discourage land ownership
C. To fund agrarian reform programs
D. To promote industrialization

485. Which of the following is a tax incentive provided to agrarian reform beneficiaries in the Philippines?
A. Exemption from income tax
B. Exemption from value-added tax (VAT)
C. Exemption from property tax
D. Exemption from excise tax

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486. What is the maximum retention limit for landowners under the Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Program
Extension with Reforms (CARPER)?
A. 5 hectares
B. 10 hectares
C. 15 hectares
D. 20 hectares

487. Which agency administers the Certificates of Land Ownership Award (CLOAs) distribution to agrarian reform
beneficiaries?
A. Department of Agriculture
B. Department of Agrarian Reform
C. Bureau of Internal Revenue
D. Land Bank of the Philippines

488. What is the primary objective of imposing estate taxes in the Philippines?
A. To encourage land consolidation
B. To promote land speculation
C. To generate revenue from inheritances
D. To discourage land inheritance

489. Which tax is imposed on transferring real property ownership in the Philippines?
A. Capital gains tax
B. Estate tax
C. Documentary stamp tax
D. Donor's tax

490. Under CARPER, what term describes converting Collective Certificate of Land Ownership Award (CLOA)
titles into individual titles?
A. Land consolidation
B. Land titling
C. Land conversion
D. Land fragmentation

491. Which agency provides support services to agrarian reform beneficiaries in the Philippines?
A. Department of Agriculture
B. Department of Agrarian Reform
C. Bureau of Internal Revenue
D. Land Bank of the Philippines

492. What is the purpose of imposing a capital gains tax on selling agricultural land in the Philippines?
A. To discourage land transactions
B. To generate revenue for the government
C. To fund agricultural development programs
D. To promote land redistribution

493. The following are forms of agricultural reform support services provided to beneficiaries in the Philippines,
except for ________.
A. Access to credit
B. Agricultural extension services
C. Health insurance coverage
D. Technical assistance

494. What is the primary objective of imposing a documentary stamp tax on real estate transactions in the
Philippines?
A. To discourage land transactions
B. To generate revenue for the government
C. To fund infrastructure projects
D. To promote land consolidation

495. What is the primary purpose of imposing donor tax in the Philippines?
A. To discourage donations of real property
B. To generate revenue from gifts and donations
C. To promote philanthropy
D. To fund agrarian reform programs

496. Which tax is imposed on transferring real property ownership through donation in the Philippines?
A. Capital gains tax
B. Estate tax
C. Documentary stamp tax
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 D. Donor's tax

497. What is the term that describes transferring land ownership from private individuals to the government for
redistribution to landless farmers?
A. Land consolidation
B. Land titling
C. Land acquisition
D. Land conversion

498. What is the primary objective of imposing property taxes in the Philippines?
A. To promote land ownership
B. To fund local government projects
C. To discourage land speculation
D. To generate revenue for local governments

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499. What is the term for combining small landholdings into larger, more economically viable farms?
A. Land consolidation
B. Land titling
C. Land conversion
D. Land fragmentation

500. What is the primary objective of imposing estate taxes in the Philippines?
A. To encourage land consolidation
B. To promote land speculation
C. To generate revenue from inheritances
D. To discourage land inheritance

If you want to know the answers, click “ANSWER KEYS.”