2014 Evaluation OL
2014 Evaluation OL
) Examination - 2014
Evaluation Report
31 - English Language
Curriculum
Assessment
&
Evaluation
Teaching Learning
N E T S
Evaluation Report
31 - English Language
Curriculum
Assessment
&
Evaluation
Teaching Learning
N E T S
English Language
Evaluation Report - G.C.E.(O.L.) Examination - 2014
Financial Aid
TRANSFORMING THE SCHOOL EDUCATION SYSTEM AS THE
FOUNDATION OF A KNOWLEDGE HUB PROJECT (TSEP - WB)
Out of all public examinations in Sri Lanka the largest number of candidates
sit the G.C.E.(O.L.) Examination. The certificate received on the results of this
examination which is conducted at national level, is used not only to select those
who are eligible for higher education but also to secure medium level jobs and it is a
basic requirement to follow certain courses of study in International Universities.
It is thus accepted due to its validity and reliability as well as its high quality.
This Evaluation Report consists of three parts, I, II and III. Part I contains
the objectives of the subject and information on subject achievement. Part II
contains expected answers for Paper I and Paper II, the marking scheme and the
observations regarding answering questions and suggestions for further improvement.
In Part III the factors to be considered by the candidate and suggestions for
improvement regarding the learning - teaching process are highlighted. This part
will be very useful to organize the learning - teaching process of the students for them
to acquire various competencies and competency levels.
W.M.N.J. Pushpakumara
Commissioner General of Examinations
01st December 2016
Research & Development Branch
National Evaluation & Testing Service
Department of Examinations.
Pelawatta, Battaramulla.
G.C.E. (O.L) English Language Evaluation Report 2014
- iii -
Guidance ( W.M.N.J. Pushpakumara
Commissioner General of Examinations
Direction and Organization ( Gayathri Abeygunasekera
Commissioner of Examinations
(Research & Development)
Co-ordination ( Hasantha Kuruppu Munasinghe
Assistant Commissioner of Examinations
D. L. P. C. Senanayake
Coordinator
Regional English Support Center
Divisional Education Office
Hanwella.
Shiroma Manthreerathna
Teacher of English
Seethadevi Balika Vidyalaya
Kandy.
Part II
* To create opportunities for the Sri Lankan child to achieve the competencies in
a link language.
* To create facilities to learn a language which can be used to build
ethnic harmony.
* To enable the students to learn an International Language which could be made
use of in their later life for employment purposes.
Table 1
Table 2
Number
Number
Number
Number
Number
Number
] ] ] ] ] ]
1. Colombo 28990 6265 21.61 2756 9.51 5498 18.97 5852 20.19 20371 70.27 8619 29.73
2. Gampaha 24715 1795 7.26 1653 6.69 4153 16.80 5364 21.70 12965 52.46 11750 47.54
3. Kalutara 14283 908 6.36 793 5.55 2328 16.30 3141 21.99 7170 50.20 7113 49.80
4. Kandy 18635 1443 7.74 1154 6.19 2796 15.00 3863 20.73 9256 49.67 9379 50.33
5. Matale 6310 236 3.74 275 4.36 803 12.73 1174 18.61 2488 39.43 3822 60.57
6. Nuwara Eliya 9077 221 2.43 242 2.67 860 9.47 1691 18.63 3014 33.20 6063 66.80
7. Galle 14693 1083 7.37 732 4.98 2117 14.41 2990 20.35 6922 47.11 7771 52.89
8. Matara 10540 625 5.93 486 4.61 1491 14.15 2200 20.87 4802 45.56 5738 54.44
9. Hambantota 7811 316 4.05 271 3.47 1018 13.03 1759 22.52 3364 43.07 4447 56.93
10. Jaffna 8635 307 3.56 260 3.01 867 10.04 1382 16.00 2816 32.61 5819 67.39
11. Kilinochchi 1641 8 0.49 11 0.67 58 3.53 164 9.99 241 14.69 1400 85.31
12. Mannar 1280 24 1.88 20 1.56 75 5.86 198 15.47 317 24.77 963 75.23
13. Vavuniya 2277 64 2.81 48 2.11 213 9.35 401 17.61 726 31.88 1551 68.12
14. Mullaitivu 1391 4 0.29 9 0.65 64 4.60 133 9.56 210 15.10 1181 84.90
15. Batticaloa 6434 166 2.58 170 2.64 667 10.37 1269 19.72 2272 35.31 4162 64.69
16. Ampara 8014 193 2.41 216 2.70 879 10.97 1814 22.64 3102 38.71 4912 61.29
17. Trincomalee 5664 108 1.91 120 2.12 603 10.65 1169 20.64 2000 35.31 3664 64.69
18. Kurunegala 20451 1084 5.30 951 4.65 2856 13.97 4286 20.96 9177 44.87 11274 55.13
19. Puttalam 9212 451 4.90 397 4.31 1110 12.05 1792 19.45 3750 40.71 5462 59.29
20. Anuradhapura 11362 335 2.95 357 3.14 1275 11.22 2019 17.77 3986 35.08 7376 64.92
21. Polonnaruwa 4832 81 1.68 115 2.38 482 9.98 895 18.52 1573 32.55 3259 67.45
22. Badulla 11390 446 3.92 409 3.59 1300 11.41 2085 18.31 4240 37.23 7150 62.77
23. Monaragala 5606 129 2.30 120 2.14 504 8.99 862 15.38 1615 28.81 3991 71.19
24. Ratnapura 13131 537 4.09 600 4.57 1524 11.61 2275 17.33 4936 37.59 8195 62.41
25. Kegalle 10270 531 5.17 466 4.54 1361 13.25 2030 19.77 4388 42.73 5882 57.27
All Island 256644 17360 6.76 12631 4.92 34902 13.60 50808 19.80 115701 45.08 140943 54.92
Table 3
Number
Number
Number
Number
Number
Number
] ] ] ] ] ]
1. Colombo 13680 5012 36.64 1708 12.49 2509 18.34 2191 16.02 11420 83.48 2260 16.52
2. Homagama 3293 44 1.34 103 3.13 469 14.24 734 22.29 1350 41.00 1943 59.00
3. Jayawardanapura 6639 694 10.45 548 8.25 1490 22.44 1641 24.72 4373 65.87 2266 34.13
4. Piliyandala 5378 515 9.58 397 7.38 1030 19.15 1286 23.91 3228 60.02 2150 39.98
5. Gampaha 7172 757 10.55 589 8.21 1348 18.80 1449 20.20 4143 57.77 3029 42.23
6. Minuwangoda 4527 119 2.63 179 3.95 578 12.77 885 19.55 1761 38.90 2766 61.10
7. Negombo 6598 604 9.15 472 7.15 1122 17.01 1448 21.95 3646 55.26 2952 44.74
8. Kelaniya 6418 315 4.91 413 6.44 1105 17.22 1582 24.65 3415 53.21 3003 46.79
9. Kalutara 7054 512 7.26 445 6.31 1270 18.00 1679 23.80 3906 55.37 3148 44.63
10. Matugama 2920 123 4.21 130 4.45 408 13.97 559 19.14 1220 41.78 1700 58.22
11. Horana 4309 273 6.34 218 5.06 650 15.08 903 20.96 2044 47.44 2265 52.56
12. Kandy 6870 1185 17.25 828 12.05 1495 21.76 1353 19.69 4861 70.76 2009 29.24
13. Denuwara 1785 27 1.51 44 2.46 193 10.81 409 22.91 673 37.70 1112 62.30
14. Gampola 3286 133 4.05 134 4.08 416 12.66 750 22.82 1433 43.61 1853 56.39
15. Teldeniya 1596 4 0.25 7 0.44 76 4.76 192 12.03 279 17.48 1317 82.52
16. Wattegama 2333 41 1.76 73 3.13 294 12.60 529 22.67 937 40.16 1396 59.84
17. Katugastota 2765 53 1.92 68 2.46 322 11.65 630 22.78 1073 38.81 1692 61.19
18. Matale 3321 224 6.74 229 6.90 549 16.53 632 19.03 1634 49.20 1687 50.80
19. Galewela 1994 10 0.50 35 1.76 187 9.38 401 20.11 633 31.75 1361 68.25
20. Naula 470 1 0.21 7 1.49 49 10.43 90 19.15 147 31.28 323 68.72
21. Wilgamuwa 525 1 0.19 4 0.76 18 3.43 51 9.71 74 14.10 451 85.90
22. Nuwara Eliya 2433 36 1.48 65 2.67 238 9.78 512 21.04 851 34.98 1582 65.02
23. Kotmale 1277 32 2.51 38 2.98 138 10.81 231 18.09 439 34.38 838 65.62
24. Hatton 2595 81 3.12 58 2.24 232 8.94 476 18.34 847 32.64 1748 67.36
25. Walapane 1188 12 1.01 22 1.85 97 8.16 234 19.70 365 30.72 823 69.28
26. Hanguranketha 1584 60 3.79 59 3.72 155 9.79 238 15.03 512 32.32 1072 67.68
27. Galle 6793 808 11.89 468 6.89 1225 18.03 1405 20.68 3906 57.50 2887 42.50
28. Elpitiya 2995 39 1.30 54 1.80 299 9.98 598 19.97 990 33.06 2005 66.94
29. Ambalangoda 3231 214 6.62 164 5.08 438 13.56 641 19.84 1457 45.09 1774 54.91
30. Udugama 1674 22 1.31 46 2.75 155 9.26 346 20.67 569 33.99 1105 66.01
31. Matara 4609 530 11.50 349 7.57 813 17.64 988 21.44 2680 58.15 1929 41.85
32. Akuressa 1836 52 2.83 56 3.05 277 15.09 383 20.86 768 41.83 1068 58.17
33. Mulatiyana 1923 18 0.94 38 1.98 184 9.57 401 20.85 641 33.33 1282 66.67
34. Morawaka 2172 25 1.15 43 1.98 217 9.99 428 19.71 713 32.83 1459 67.17
Number
Number
Number
Number
Number
Number
] ] ] ] ] ]
35. Tangalle 2261 88 3.89 71 3.14 294 13.00 497 21.98 950 42.02 1311 57.98
36. Hambantota 3366 122 3.62 109 3.24 416 12.36 767 22.79 1414 42.01 1952 57.99
37. Walasmulla 2184 106 4.85 91 4.17 308 14.10 495 22.66 1000 45.79 1184 54.21
38. Jaffna 3163 158 5.00 155 4.90 463 14.64 594 18.78 1370 43.31 1793 56.69
39. Islands 575 0 0.00 1 0.17 7 1.22 34 5.91 42 7.30 533 92.70
40. Thenmarachchi 876 33 3.77 16 1.83 87 9.93 144 16.44 280 31.96 596 68.04
41. Valikamam 2537 33 1.30 30 1.18 150 5.91 349 13.76 562 22.15 1975 77.85
42.Vadamarachchi 1484 83 5.59 58 3.91 160 10.78 261 17.59 562 37.87 922 62.13
43. Kilinochchi 1641 8 0.49 11 0.67 58 3.53 164 9.99 241 14.69 1400 85.31
44. Mannar 1021 23 2.25 20 1.96 72 7.05 182 17.83 297 29.09 724 70.91
45. Madu 259 1 0.39 0 0.00 3 1.16 16 6.18 20 7.72 239 92.28
46. Vavuniya 1871 64 3.42 47 2.51 203 10.85 376 20.10 690 36.88 1181 63.12
47. Vavuniya North 406 0 0.00 1 0.25 10 2.46 25 6.16 36 8.87 370 91.13
48. Mullaitivu 955 4 0.42 7 0.73 53 5.55 105 10.99 169 17.70 786 82.30
49.Thunukkai 436 0 0.00 2 0.46 11 2.52 28 6.42 41 9.40 395 90.60
50. Batticaloa 1968 100 5.08 88 4.47 266 13.52 387 19.66 841 42.73 1127 57.27
51. Kalkudah 1006 4 0.40 10 0.99 58 5.77 160 15.90 232 23.06 774 76.94
52. Paddirippu 1223 10 0.82 15 1.23 86 7.03 214 17.50 325 26.57 898 73.43
53. Batticaloa Central 1434 52 3.63 57 3.97 251 17.50 443 30.89 803 56.00 631 44.00
54. Batticaloa Weast 803 0 0.00 0 0.00 6 0.75 65 8.09 71 8.84 732 91.16
55. Ampara 2259 11 0.49 31 1.37 212 9.38 412 18.24 666 29.48 1593 70.52
56. Kalmunai 2076 94 4.53 88 4.24 300 14.45 546 26.30 1028 49.52 1048 50.48
57. Sammanthurai 1151 31 2.69 27 2.35 114 9.90 254 22.07 426 37.01 725 62.99
58. Mahaoya 549 1 0.18 6 1.09 25 4.55 106 19.31 138 25.14 411 74.86
59. Dehiattakandiya 942 10 1.06 13 1.38 81 8.60 168 17.83 272 28.87 670 71.13
60. Akkaraipattu 1037 46 4.44 51 4.92 147 14.18 328 31.63 572 55.16 465 44.84
61. Trincomalee 1632 63 3.86 62 3.80 262 16.05 407 24.94 794 48.65 838 51.35
62. Thirukkovil 711 21 2.95 11 1.55 75 10.55 125 17.58 232 32.63 479 67.37
63. Mutur 926 4 0.43 14 1.51 36 3.89 123 13.28 177 19.11 749 80.89
64. Kantale 826 12 1.45 15 1.82 97 11.74 183 22.15 307 37.17 519 62.83
65. Kinnya 1074 8 0.74 16 1.49 106 9.87 258 24.02 388 36.13 686 63.87
66. Trincomalee North 495 0 0.00 2 0.40 27 5.45 73 14.75 102 20.61 393 79.39
67. Kurunegala 5133 592 11.53 367 7.15 858 16.72 1075 20.94 2892 56.34 2241 43.66
68. Kuliyapitiya 3551 197 5.55 168 4.73 508 14.31 720 20.28 1593 44.86 1958 55.14
69. Nikaweratiya 2554 47 1.84 83 3.25 340 13.31 611 23.92 1081 42.33 1473 57.67
70. Maho 3140 58 1.85 85 2.71 308 9.81 604 19.24 1055 33.60 2085 66.40
71. Giriulla 3410 99 2.90 127 3.72 493 14.46 817 23.96 1536 45.04 1874 54.96
72. Ibbagamuwa 2663 91 3.42 121 4.54 349 13.11 459 17.24 1020 38.30 1643 61.70
73. Puttalam 4326 74 1.71 94 2.17 333 7.70 770 17.80 1271 29.38 3055 70.62
74. Chilaw 4886 377 7.72 303 6.20 777 15.90 1022 20.92 2479 50.74 2407 49.26
Number
Number
Number
Number
Number
Number
] ] ] ] ] ]
75. Anuradhapura 3984 246 6.17 222 5.57 593 14.88 709 17.80 1770 44.43 2214 55.57
76. Tambuttegama 2005 16 0.80 42 2.09 164 8.18 339 16.91 561 27.98 1444 72.02
77. Kekirawa 2254 56 2.48 66 2.93 285 12.64 495 21.96 902 40.02 1352 59.98
78. Galenbidunuwewa 1416 6 0.42 13 0.92 114 8.05 243 17.16 376 26.55 1040 73.45
79. Kebithigollewa 1703 11 0.65 14 0.82 119 6.99 233 13.68 377 22.14 1326 77.86
80. Polonnaruwa 1545 33 2.14 54 3.50 224 14.50 366 23.69 677 43.82 868 56.18
81. Hingurakgoda 1936 46 2.38 58 3.00 209 10.80 325 16.79 638 32.95 1298 67.05
82. Dimbulagala 1351 2 0.15 3 0.22 49 3.63 204 15.10 258 19.10 1093 80.90
83. Badulla 3258 180 5.52 132 4.05 400 12.28 650 19.95 1362 41.80 1896 58.20
84. Bandarawela 2958 204 6.90 192 6.49 465 15.72 522 17.65 1383 46.75 1575 53.25
85. Mahiyanganaya 1763 14 0.79 24 1.36 123 6.98 262 14.86 423 23.99 1340 76.01
86. Welimada 2453 44 1.79 55 2.24 277 11.29 542 22.10 918 37.42 1535 62.58
87. Passara 958 4 0.42 6 0.63 35 3.65 109 11.38 154 16.08 804 83.92
88. Monaragala 1779 59 3.32 40 2.25 174 9.78 295 16.58 568 31.93 1211 68.07
89. Wellawaya 2566 31 1.21 46 1.79 194 7.56 360 14.03 631 24.59 1935 75.41
90. Bibile 1261 39 3.09 34 2.70 136 10.79 207 16.42 416 32.99 845 67.01
91. Ratnapura 5572 352 6.32 360 6.46 824 14.79 1036 18.59 2572 46.16 3000 53.84
92. Balangoda 2379 94 3.95 91 3.83 276 11.60 382 16.06 843 35.44 1536 64.56
93. Nivitigala 2070 24 1.16 47 2.27 171 8.26 296 14.30 538 25.99 1532 74.01
94. Embilipitiya 3110 67 2.15 102 3.28 253 8.14 561 18.04 983 31.61 2127 68.39
95. Kegalle 3926 319 8.13 222 5.65 571 14.54 739 18.82 1851 47.15 2075 52.85
96. Mawanella 3273 183 5.59 170 5.19 451 13.78 675 20.62 1479 45.19 1794 54.81
97. Dehiowita 3071 29 0.94 74 2.41 339 11.04 616 20.06 1058 34.45 2013 65.55
All Island 256644 17360 6.76 12631 4.92 34902 13.60 50808 19.80 115701 45.08 140943 54.92
Table 4
Cumulative
Frequency Cumulative
Class Interval Frequency Frequency
Percentage Frequency
Percentage
91 - 100 820 0.20 404247 100.00
00 - 00 85 0.02 85 0.02
Table 5
The following example describes how the information is indicated in the above table.
Index
G.C.E.(O.L.)Examination
Facility Indices of G.C.E.(O.L.)Examination
Parts- and
2014Sub parts - 2014
0.5 G.C.E.(O.L.)Examination - 2014 English
English Language Paper I Language - Paper I
1.3. Analysis of Subject Achievement
0.4 1.0 English Language - Paper I- Facility Indices of Parts and Sub parts
Facility Indices of Parts and Sub parts
Facility Indices of Parts and Sub parts
Facility
Facility
0.3 0.9
Facility
1.0 1.0
1.00.2 0.8
0.9
-8-
0.9
0.90.1 0.7
0.8 0.8
0.80.0 0.6
0.7 0.7
0.7 0.5 (a) (b)
0.6 0.6
0.6
(3) (4) (5)
(2)0.5 0.4(6) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (C)(L) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (C)(L)
0.5
Facility Index
0.5 0.3
Facility Index
0.2
Facility Index
0.3
Facility Index
0.3
0.3 0.1
0.2
Vocabulary 0.2
Reading Parts and Writing
Sub parts Language Function
0.2 0.0
0.1 & Grammar
0.1 Questions ( Tests)
0.1 (a) (b)
0.0 0.0
Graph
0.0 1 - Based on the information gathered from RD/16/04/OL form.
(2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (C)(L) (1) (2) (a)(3)
(b)(4) (5) (C)(L)
e.g. According to the above graph, The highest facility of test 2 (5) is 87%. The lowest facility of test 3 (3) is 8%. (a) (b)
(2) (3) (4) (5) (6) 1(2) (3) (4) (5)
(2)(6)
(3)2(2)
(4)(3)
(5)(4)
(6)(5)
(2)(6)
(3)3(2)
(4)(3)
(5)(4)
(6)(5)
(2)(6)
(3)4(2)
(4)(3)
(5)(4)
(6)(5)
(2)(6)
(3)5(C)(L)
(4) (5)(1) 6
(6)(2)
(2)(3) (4) (5)
(3)(4) (5) 7 (C)(L) (1) 8
(6)(C)(L) (2) (3) (
(2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (C)(L) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (C)(L)
1 2 1 3 2 4 3 5 46 7 5 86 7
1 2 3 4 Parts 5and Sub parts 6 7 8
G.C.E.(O.L.)Examination
G.C.E.(O.L.) Examination - 2014
- 2014
English Language - Paper
31 - English Language - Paper
IIII
Facility
FacilityIndices
indicesof
ofParts
tests inand
theSub
question
partspaper
1.0
0.9
0.8
G.C.E.(O.L.)Examination - 2014
0.7 G.C.E.(O.L.)Examination
G.C.E.(O.L.)Examination - 2014
- 2014
English Language - Paper II
Facility Indices of Parts and Sub English
English
parts Language
Language - Paper
- Paper II II
0.6
Facility
Facility Indices
Indices of Parts
of Parts and Sub Sub parts
andparts
1.3.2. Achievement in Paper II
1.0 0.5
1.0 1.0
0.9 0.4
Facility Index
Facility
0.9 0.9
0.8 0.3
0.8 0.8
0.7 0.2
0.7 0.7
-9-
0.6 0.1
0.6 0.6
0.5 0.0
0.5 0.5
0.4 (i) (ii)
Facility Index
0.4 0.4
Facility Index
Facility Index
0.3 (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9)(10)(11)(12)(13)(14)
0.3 0.3
0.2
1.0
0.9
0.8
0.7
0.6 G.C.E.(O.L.)Examination - 2014
English Language - Paper II
0.5 G.C.E.(O.L.)Examination - 2014
Facility Indices of Parts and Sub parts
English Language - Paper II
Facility Index
0.4
1.0
Facility Indices of Parts and Sub parts
0.3
Facility
- 10 -
0.9 0.2
0.8 0.1
0.7 0.0
0.6 (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) C L O M C L O M C L O M C L O M
0.5
Facility Index
0.4
14 15 16
0.3
0.2 Reading Parts and Sub parts Writing
0.1 Questions ( Tests)
0.0
Graph 2(b) - Based on the information gathered from RD/16/04/OL form.
(a) (b)
e.g. According to the
(c)above
(d) graph, facility of test 15
(a)(1)(b)
(d) is
C 69%.
L i.e.
O the
Mhighest
C Land O
it is M L O M C
a T/FCquestion. L O M
C L (a)
O (b)
M (c) (d) 1 2 3 4 (a)5 (b)6 C 7L O M (a)
C L O M (b)
C L O M(C)
C L O M (d)
90
0.9
80
0.8
70
0.7
60
0.6
50
0.5
Percentage
Facility Index
40
0.4
- 11 -
33%
33% 27%
27%
30
0.3
1.3.3. Facility of each area tested in the question paper
21%
21%
20
0.2
11%
11% 8%
8%
10
0.1
-20-
Part II
Question
Area of testing Marks Distribution Total
(Test) No.
1 Vocabulary 1×5 05
2 Reading 1×5 05
3 Writing 1×5 05
4 Grammar 1×5 05
5 Reading 1×5 05
6 Writing C - 2, L - 3 05
7 Reading 1×5 05
8 Writing C - 2, L - 3 05
* Observations and comments for the given answers for all the questions in Paper I are based on Graphs
1 and 3 given in page 8 and 11 respectively.
• Test 1 − Vocabulary
Objective : Assess the ability to use appropriate words to complete a simple text
Technique : Filling the blanks
Test 1
Complete Hiruni's diary entries. Select the most suitable word from the box.
The first one is done for you.
popular
We are going to sing, dance and also (2) .......f....... a short play.
(a)
Tuesday 24th
(b) practising
Wednesday 25th I'm going to sing a very (3) .......a....... English song. (c) wonderful
(d) happy
Thursday 26th Great day! Started (4) .......b....... my song.
(e) variety
(f) present
Friday 27th My teacher said, (5) ".......c....... ! You really can sing well."
It made me feel so (6) .......d.......
6060
5050 Part (3) - 63%
4040
33%
33% 32%
32% Part (4) - 32%
3030 Part (5) - 64%
2020 Part (6) - 64%
1010
00
(2) (3) (4) (5) (6)
The highest facility of 64% is recorded for parts
5 and 6, whereas the lowest facility of 32% is
(2) (3) (4) (5) (6)
COMMENTS :
This test item has not been easy for the students though it is intended to give a motivational start
for the candidates to proceed with the rest of the question paper.
The low performance of the candidates in part (2) may be due to lack of knowledge in the use
of different verb forms in sentences and also their inability to identify the word class of certain
words that have to be used in blanks.
We are going to sing, dance and also present a short play. Here the word present is used as a
verb. The students are familiar with the word present as a noun but not as an adjective or a verb.
So the teachers should identify such words and teach the students to use them in sentences. It's
better if the teachers can highlight relevant grammar rules in classroom teaching.
Eg: to infinitive is followed by the base form of the verb.
In part (4) the expected answer was practising. However, candidates had not been able to answer
successfully due to the lack of knowledge in the grammar rule. Here the teachers should focus the
attention of the students on the use of - ing form in different positions in sentences.
It's better if the teacher can identify such grammatical and stuctural clues and help the students in
their classroom practice.
Constant practice should be given through activities based on day to day situations emphasizing
the grammar rules and on the use of appropriate vocabulary.
Objective − Assess the ability to read and understand indirectly stated information.
Technique − Matching
In a bookshop you see the following signs above the book shelves.
G.C.E.(O.L.)Examination - 2014
Facility
English Language - Paper I OBSERVATIONS :
Facilityof parts
of Parts andin Test 2
Test 2 is based on Reading. Facility of parts in test 2 is
Indices Sub parts
100
as follows.
100
86%
86% 85%
85% 87%
87% 87%
87%
9090
81%
81%
8080
7070
Part (2) - 86%
Part (3) - 81%
Facility Index
Facility
6060
5050 Part (4) - 85%
4040 Part (5) - 87%
3030 Part (6) - 87%
2020
1010 Facility of all parts is over 80%. The lowest facility is
00 in part 3 which is 81%.
(2)
(2) (3)
(3) (4)
(4) (5)
(5) (6)
(6)
2
Parts in Test 2
Parts and Sub parts
Compared to the other parts of the question, the facility of part 3 is little bit lower. The candidates
may have misunderstood the two options 5 and 4 as both sign boards contain similar concepts
like health, sports, fitness and nutrition etc.
Furthermore, to perform well in such test items, the candidates should be provided with similar
activities based on different authentic situations.
• Test 3 − Writing
Test 3 :
Look at the pictures. Write what each student is doing. Each Sentence should have at least five words.
The first one is done for you.
50
50 Part (2) - 34%
42% Part (3) - 8%
40
40
Part (4) - 42%
Index
34%
34%
Facility
30
30
Part (6) - 15%
20
20
15%
15% 15% The highest facility, 42% was recorded for part 4.
10
10
8%
8% The lowest facility is recorded for part 3 which is
8%. The facility shown by candidates for each part
00 is under 50%.
(2)
(2) (3)
(3) (4)
(4) (5)
(5) (6)
(6)
Parts in Test
3 3
COMMENTS :
Test 3 is to assess the ability to describe a picture using present continuous tense. The overall
facility is below 42%. It may be due to the reason that the candidates have not followed the
given instructions (use at least five words) and the inability to understand the given example.
Furthermore, it has not been possible for them to use prepositions and articles appropriately
and to use the appropriate 'verb' in the given situation. For part (2) most of the students had
used 'erase' instead of 'clean'. For part (3) most of the students had been unable to use the
verb 'arranging' and they had made mistakes by using 'flower vase' which can be considerd as
direct translation from Sinhala. For part (6) many had written, "Ravi is flying kites in the sky".
Therefore, the candidates must be directed to study the picture carefully.
Some students had blindly followed the given example and used 'Amila' for all the sentences.
Students should be given a variety of pictures with more action verbs for further practice.
The teacher can select the incorrect sentences written by the students for error correction
activities.
It is suggested to use the same marking criteria given in marking scheme and make the students
aware of it, when practising activities with pictures in classroom testing.
eg : Each grammatically correct sentence carries a mark. If there are more than three spelling
errors deduct one mark from the total mark.
Fill in the blanks with the most suitable words. one is done for you.
Lasith : Happy birthday Manori. Here are some cards for you.
While
They came (1) ....................you were having breakfast. Well, all your friends seem to
When
know (2) .................... your birthday is.
50
Part (3) - 58%
50
Facility
40
40 Part (4) - 53%
30
30 Part (5) - 57%
20
20
Part (6) - 48%
10
10
The highest facility recorded here is 58% for part (3),
00 and the lowest is 48% for part (4). In Test 04, facility for
(2)
(2) (3)
(3) (4)
(4) (5)
(5) (6)
(6)
all the parts is between 48% and 58%.
Parts in4Test 4
Parts and Sub parts
COMMENTS :
This test is based on a dialogue to test the ability to use appropriate conjunctions. In this
test, the performance of the candidates is at the average level. It is clear that around 50% of
candidates have not been able to use conjunctions appropriately. Students should be encouraged
to use conjunctions in different contexts using a variety of text types such as stories, processes,
dialogues, paragraphs etc.
Teachers can provide different types of activities such as re-ordering, re-arranging, filling in the
blanks with conjunctions, and matching etc to provide practice for the students.
Objective − Assess the ability to select the correct response for a simple statement
Technique − Matching
Read what the students say. Match them with the teacher's responses.
The first one is done for you.
G.C.E.(O.L.)Examination - 2014
English Language - Paper I OBSERVATIONS :
Facility
Facility Indices ofof parts
Parts inparts
and Sub Test 5
Test 05 is based on Reading. Facility of parts in Test
100
100
9090
05 is as follows.
81%
81% 82%
82%
8080
72%
72%
7070
69%
69% 68%
68%
Part (2) - 69%
Facility Index
50
50
Part (4) - 82%
40
Part (5) - 72%
40
30
30
20
20 Part (6) - 68%
10
10
00 The facility of all parts in Test 05 is between 68%
(2)
(2) (3)
(3) (4)
(4) (5)
(5) (6)
(6)
and 82%. The highest facility of 82% is for part 4.
The lowest facility of 68% is for part 6.
5
Parts in Test 5
Parts and Sub parts
Test 5 is based on a dialogue to select the correct response for simple statements. The
facility shown is satisfactory. The test contains conversational English. Students prefer to
read the text types such as dialogues, instructions, notices and advertisements. The texts are
of low density and it is easy to grasp the context / content. It is further recommended that
the students should be provided with similar types of test items with familiar situations for
further practice.
• Test 6 − Writing
Test 6 :
1. A visit to a fair
2. A journey by train
Expected Answer :
30
30
23%
23%
23% language, although more marks are allocated for
Facility
20
20 language.
10
10
00
Test 66
G.C.E.(O.L.)Examination - 2014
English Language - Paper I
Facility
Facility Indices of Parts ofSub
Parts
and andparts
Sub parts
content and Language
5050
4040
33%
33%
Facility Index
3030
Facility
2020
13%
13%
1010
00
(C) (L)
(out of 2 6 (out of 3
marks) marks)
Parts and Sub parts
Test 6
COMMENTS :
Test 6 is a free writing task, to assess the ability to write a short paragraph on a given topic.
The facility of task 6 is 23% which is very low. As shown in the graph, the candidates
have scored more marks for content than language. That is 33% for content and 13% for
language. The low performance facility for language of the candidates reflects their inability
to construct grammatically correct sentences. Some students had used a mixture of different
tenses.
As a remedy free writing should be encouraged through a variety of topics focusing on the
construction of grammatically correct sentences. In addition, the attention of students should
be drawn towards writing sentences with correct spelling, capitalization and punctuation. It
is further suggested that the students should be encouraged to write paragraphs from simple
to complex and from guided to free writing. It is also suggested to use the marking criteria
used in the marking scheme in classroom assements.
The teachers should recognize the frequent student errors and do remedial lessons
highlighting the areas of weaknesses.
Dear Uncle,
After the carom tournament which ended with our team winning the championship trophy,
our coach took us to an island here in Malaysia. We are having a great time. We spend a
lot of time swimming in the sea. The water is warm and inviting. In fact, we are enjoying
ourselves so much that we get out of the water only when the sun sets. We also enjoy
watching people doing water sports like surfing and sailing.
Yesterday, we took a boat to the west coast of the island because my team mates wanted
to do some fishing. As you know I dislike catching fish. Fortunately what they were able
to catch were an old shoe and a plastic bottle.
We also went on a day tour round this island and saw some historical sites that looked
really amazing. The tour also included visits to some places where batic printing is done. Here the
streets come alive in the night with little stalls selling all sorts of thing and we really like strolling
along the streets buying gifts for everyone at home.
We will be leaving the island tomorrow to catch our flight to Sri Lanka. Uncle, I hope
to see you in April during the new year holidays.
Lots of love,
Gimhan
(to) Malaysia
(1) Where did Gimhan go for the tournament? ...................................................
in April / April
(3) When does Gimhan hope to see his uncle? ..................................................
(5) Write two things that Gimhan saw when he went round the island,
70
70 Test 07 is based on Reading. Facility of parts in Test
60%
07 is as follows.
60%
60
60
50
50
Facility
43%
43% 42%
42%
37% 35%
Part (2) - 21%
37% 35%
40
40
30
30
21%
21%
Part (3) - 60%
20
20
Part (4) - 37%
10
10
Part (5) (a) - 42%
00
(a)
(a) (b)
(b)
Part (5) (b) - 35%
(1)
(1) (2)
(2) (3)
(3) (4)
(4) (5)
(5)
Parts and
7 Sub parts
Test 7
Facility for part 2 in test 7 is below 25%. The
highest facility of 60% is for part 3.
COMMENTS :
Test 7 is based on Reading, to assess the ability to read and understand directly stated
information in a given text. The facility indicated is fairly good. Part 2 shows the lowest
facility which is 21%. Similarly part 5(b) also has a low facility which is 35%. These two
parts show that the students are unable to answer questions when they are asked indirectly.
Therefore, more practice should be given to improve not only the skill of skimming but also
scanning in order to enhance them to find indirectly stated information in a text.
Furthermore, they should be given practice to copy the words with correct spelling because
some students have lost marks due to incorrect spelling.
This is a very familiar item both in teaching and testing contexts but the candidates find it
difficult to extract the exact answers which cause the deduction of mark.
In part (1) the answer expected was Malaysia but some students had written 'here in
Malayasia'. That was not accepted as the correct answer. This indicates the need to get the
exact word, phrase or sentence so the students should be trained to find specific information
in relation to basic directive questions (Wh questions). Here teachers should discuss as to
why some answers are not accepted as correct.
Although there are many reading passages in the text book the teachers have not handled
them technically that the students master the different reading skills. More teacher prepared
exercises may be helpful for the students.
Test 8 :
You received two tickets to see an event (e.g. Drama, Cricket Match) held in your town or village.
Write a note to your friend inviting him/her to join you using about 50 words.
Include the following.
- Who gave you the tickets - What the event is and where it is held
- The day, the date and the time of the event
Expected Answer :
G.C.E.(O.L.)Examination - 2014
English Language - Paper I
Facility
Facility of parts
Indices inandTest
of Parts 8
Sub parts OBSERVATIONS :
50
Test 08 is based on writing. The facility of Test 08 is
50
40
40
27%. According to the 2 nd graph, the facility of content is
27%
27%
33% and facility of language is 13%. Comparatively the
Index
30
Facility
30
20
20
10
10
00
8
Test 8
Facility of
G.C.E.(O.L.)Examination - 2014
50
50
38%
38%
40
40
Facility Index
30
30
Facility
20
20
16%
16%
10
10
00
Content
(C) (L)
(out of 3
Language
(out of 2 8
marks)
(out of 3
marks) Parts and Sub parts marks)
Test 8
COMMENTS :
Test 8 is a guided writing task, that is to write a note. The facility shown is 27% which is not
satisfactory. The candidates have scored 38% for content and 16% for language. It shows
that the students are very poor in performing writing skills. It was noticed that there was a
slow improvement in writing notes and notices throughout the years 2012, 2013 and 2014
and the percentages of facility were 25%, 26% and 27% respectively. Therefore, special at-
tention should be paid on writing notes and notices using different situations. It is advisable
to encourage the students to write simple and correct sentences in order to avoid grammati-
cal errors.
Marking of writing should be done using the criteria given in the marking scheme. Students
should be made aware of the bandings and it would be useful for students to score more
marks.
Process writing should be encouraged, so that the students have the opportunity to improve
their writing.
Question (Test)
Area of testing Marks Distribution Total
No.
9 Grammar 1×5 05
10 Vocabulary 1×5 05
11 Reading 1×5 05
12 Grammar ½ × 10 05
13 Reading ½ × 14 07
14 Writing C - 3, L - 3, O - 2, M - 2 10
15 Reading 1 - ½×4
02
2 - 1×1
01
3 - 1×1
01
4 - 1×1
01
5- ½×4
02
6 -½×2
01
08
16 Writing C - 5, L - 5, O - 2, M - 3 15
* Observations and comments on answering all the questions in Paper II are based on Graphs 2(a), 2(b) and 3.
• Test 9 − Grammar
Objective − Assess the ability to identify and correct the errors in a sentence.
Technique − Editing
The following sentences are taken from a letter written by a student. There is a mistake in each
sentence. Rewrite the sentences correcting the mistake. The first one is done for you.
There are forty students in our class./ We have forty students in our class
..........................................................................................................................................
I'm / I am looking forward to hearing from you. / I look forward to hearing from you
...........................................................................................................................................................
G.C.E.(O.L.)Examination - 2014
English Language - Paper I
OBSERVATIONS :
Facility of parts in Test 9
Facility Indices of Parts and Sub parts
40
The Test 09 is based on Grammar. The facility of parts
40
in Test 09 is as follows.
30
30
Part (2) - 4%
Facility Index
Facility
21%
18%
Part (3) - 13%
18% 21%
20
20
13%
13%
Part (4) - 18%
11%
11%
Part (5) - 11%
10
10
Part (6) - 21%
4%
4%
COMMENTS :
Test 9 is based on editing, to assess the ability to identify and correct the errors in a text. The
overall facility of test 9 is below 21% and the performance of the candidates is very low.
Overall facility for the test is below 25%. This indicates the candidates' lower proficiency
in grammar.
This could be due to the candidates inability to identify the error (Preposition followed by
the verb in - 'ing' form) In part 5, the facility is very low; (11%) as the accepted answer was
'is'. It is a grammatical error.
In order to select incorrect sentences, different text types such as notices, notes, stories,
biographies, paragraphs and their day to day writing activities could be used.
Select a word from the box which has a similar meaning to the phrases given within brackets and write
it in the space given. There are three extra words.
If you want something to read, you can either buy a book from a bookshop or borrow
novel
one from a library. You can either read a (1) ................................ (a book which tells
story)
If you want recommendations for which book to choose you can read the
(4) ..........................
reviews (people's opinion about the book) in the papers. A book
Observationents on Test 10 :
G.C.E.(O.L.)Examination - 2014
English Language - Paper I
Facility of parts
Facility Indices of Parts in
andTest 10
Sub parts OBSERVATIONS :
70
70 Test 10 is based on Reading. Facility of parts in Test
60
60 10 is as follows.
50
50
45%
Part (1) - 45%
45%
Index
38%
38%
Facility
40
40
Part (2) - 31%
Facility
31%
31% 31%
31%
30
30
20
Part (3) - 31%
20
10
12%
12% Part (4) - 12%
10
00
Part (5) - 38%
(1)
(1) (2)
(2) (3)
(3) (4)
(4) (5)
(5)
Test 10 is based on completion of a paragraph to assess the ability to use appropriate words
in a text. The performance of the candidates is not satisfactory as the facility value ranges
between 12% - 45%. It seems that the candidates are not much familiar with the given
vocabulary and also they had made mistakes in spellings when filling the blanks.
It is suggested to give more practice on this kind of test items by selecting a variety of
vocabulary and text types.
This test seems to be difficult for the candidates because the facility remains below 50% for
all the parts. Though this technique has not frequently been used the context and vocabulary
selected are familiar.
In this test, the candidates are expected to know the exact meaing of the words in the box
to find the appropriate answer. Providing three extra words also would have resulted in low
performance.
Read the poem and answer the questions given below it.
(3) Whom did Mrs. Spider expect as visitors? Mention two types.
moth fly / beetle
..........................................
.............................................. ,
fled
(4) What did Mr. Fly do when Mrs. Spider invited him? ...............................................
(5) Write the line which says what Mrs. spider wanted the fly to do after walking into the living
Rest your tired wings awhile
room. .................................................................
G.C.E.(O.L.)Examination - 2014
OBSERVATIONS :
English Language - Paper I
Facility of parts in Test 11
Facility Indices of Parts and Sub parts
50
The Test 11 is based on Reading. The facility of parts
50
40
40 in Test 11 is as follows.
33%
33%
32%
32%
Part (1) - 24% Part (4) - 19%
Index
30
30
Facility
24%
Part (2) - 18% Part (5) - 7%
24%
Facility
18%
18% 19%
19%
20
20
Part (3) (i) - 33%
10
10
7%
7% Part (3) (ii) - 32%
00
(i)
(i) (ii)
(ii)
The highest facility recorded in test 11 is for part 3
(1)
(1) (2)
(2) (3)
(3) (4)
(4) (5)
(5)
(i). That is 33% whereas the lowest facility is 7% for
Test 1111
Parts and Sub parts
part 5.
COMMENTS :
Test 11 is based on answering questions to assess the ability to read and understand a poem.
Candidates’ performance on this task is not satisfactory as the facility ranges between
7% - 33%. This shows that the students need more practice on reading and understanding
poems. The candidates had misunderstood the phrase “ Wanted the fly to do” as “ What he
did ” and they were unable to write the correct answers and it is shown by the lowest facility
index of 7%. On the whole the candidates have been unable to comprehend the poem.
The reason for low facility of 24% in part 2, may be the candidates inability to trace the
answer shy, very shy and instead writing the pharase 'Should be so very shy' which was not
accepted as the answer.
In part (2) most of the candidates had answered without the preposition 'in' which was not
accepted.
It is advisable to use different types of poems for comprehension and improve the
competencies and sub skills related to reading.
Complete the following passage using the passive form of the given verb in the correct tence. There
are present, past and future passive forms. The first one is done for you.
are held
The Olympic Games (5) ................................ (hold) every four years. Do you know where the next
will be held
games (6) ........................... hold?
50
50
The Test 12 is based on Grammar and Reading. Facility
40
40 of parts in Test 12 is as follows.
32%
32%
Facility Index
30
Part (2) - 11%
Facility
30
20
17%
17%
21%
21% Part (3) - 32%
20
Part (4) - 8%
11%
Part (5) - 17%
11%
8%
8%
10
10
Part (6) - 21%
00
(2) (3) (4) (5) (6)
According to the graph shown in Test 12 the highest
(2) (3) (4) (5) (6)
below 25%.
This test is based on completion of a paragraph using passive form which assesses the
ability to use the correct form of the verb.
The students have applied the structure of the example for all parts . In part 2 candidates had
made mistakes in spelling the word “ banned”. This reveals that the overall ability to use the
passive forms needs improvement.
Students should be provided with real life situations where they can use passive voice.
This test had been difficult for the candidates. It reveals the fact that their lack of competency
in grammar. Though an example had been provided for the candidates they had not been
able to identify the grammar point i.e. passive voice .To answer this test item, candidates
must have a sound knowledge in subject verb agreement, singular plural forms, tense etc.
Further, they need to understand the given clues. For example in answer (2) the facility
remains the highest as the time indicator given would have helped them to find the answer.
So it’s necessary to practise grammar in context paying attention to language clues. Constant
classroom discussions would help the candidates to clarify doubts in basic grammar.
Fill in the blanks in the following text using the words given in the box.
A young man while walking through the desert came across a spring of crystal-clear
water. The water was so sweet he took some in a container
(1) ................................ to give his
After
teacher. (2) ................................ presented
a four-day journey he (3) ................................ the water to the
old
(4) ....................... teacher who took a deep
(5) ................................ drink, smiled warmly
and thanked
(6) ................................ his student lavishly for the sweet
(7) ................................ water.
The returned
young man (8) ................................ happy
to his village with a (9) ................................
heart. Later, the teacher asked
(10) ............................... another student to taste the
water
(11) ............................ He spat it out, saying
(12) ............................ it was horrible. The
teacher
(13) .............................. said " You tasted only the
(14) .............................. water. I tasted
the gift. The water was a simple gift which showed his loving - kindness and nothing could
be sweeter."
70
70
58%
58%
60
60
50%
50%
Index
50
Facility
50
43%
43%
36%
36% 37%
37%
40
40
Facility
24%
24% 28%
28% 26% 27%
26% 30%
27% 30% 31%
31%
30
30 26%
26%
22%
22%
15%
15%
20
20
10
10
00
(1)
(1) (2)
(2) (3)
(3) (4)
(4) (5)
(5) (6)
(6) (7)
(7) (8)
(8) (9)
(9) (10)
(10) (11)
(11) (12)
(12) (13)
(13) (14)
(14)
Test 13
13
OBSERVATIONS :
Test 13 is based on Reading. Facility of parts in Test 13
is as follows.
The graph has shown the highest facility 58% for part
13 and the lowest facility, 15% for part 5. There are only
3 parts above 40% and all the other parts in Test 13 are
below 40%.
Test 13 is based on reading, to assess the overall proficiency of language. The lowest facility
is on part 5 which is 15%. Most of the candidates had interchanged the answers for part 5
and 7 (“ deep ” and “ sweet ”).
In order to help the students to do this kind of activities it is better guide the students to
identify the word classes seperately.
eg : verbs, nouns
Guide them on how to fill in the blanks by guessing clues and identifying word classes.
Most probably an adjective is used before a noun.
Students need more practice in similar techniques. Teacher can prepare similar tests from
text books.
Objectives − (1) Assess the ability to write an informal letter using the guidelines
(2) Assess the ability to interpret tabulated information and write a description
Technique − Guided writing
Test 14 :
Last August your school organized a programme to help the people affected by the drought in the dry
zone. You were the chief organizer of the team. Write a letter to your friend who is in England about
your programme. Use about 100 words.
Include :
- What you collected - how goods were transported
- how you distributed them - your feeling about the event
Expected Answer :
No 20,
Kasun Mawatha
Kiribathgoda,
Sri Lanka.
17 th December 2014.
Dear Shekana,
How are You? I'm doing well. Hoping you are keeping fine.
I am writing this letter to inform you about a special event. Last August our school
organized a programme to help the people affected by the prolonged drought in the dry
Zone. I was the chief organizer of the team. We went to 'Siyambalanduwa' which was
the most affected area. Mainly, people in six districts faced many difficuilties due to the
unavailability of pure drinking water. This programme helped them a lot.
We collected dry rations, water bottles, clothes, vegetables, fruits, toys and other
essential things. Students, teachers OGA and well wishers helped us a lot. Social workers
in the area and voluntary services also helped us in supplying goods. We transported the
goods by two lorries and a small van. We all went in a bus.
The principal, teachers and grade 11 students helped us to distribute the goods.
Each family was given an ample amount of food and Water. Toys were given to the small
children.
I feel very happy as I could help them, when they needed help. I was so happy to
see the happiness in their faces. I Consider it a blessing to all. I'll stop for today. Give my
regards to all. God bless you.
Your friend,
Ruchira
G.C.E. (O.L) English Language Evaluation Report 2014
- 39 -
OR
The following table shows the amount of money spent during the years 2013 and 2014 by the
Friendship Club of Horana, on various social service activities.
Study the table and write a description about it. The following words will help you. Use about
100 words.
Expenditure of Friendship Club of Horana
(In Rs. millions)
2013 2014
50
50 Test 14(a) is based on guided writing. Facility of Test 14(a)
40
40 in this question is 19%.
Index
3030
Facility
20%
20%
2020
Content – 29%
10
10
Language – 15%
00 Format and Organization – 15%
Mechaincs of Writing – 19%
14
Test 14
G.C.E.(O.L.)Examination
Parts and Sub parts- 2014
English Language - Paper I
Facility of Test 14
Facility Indices of Parts and Sub parts
5050
4040
29%
29%
Facility Index
3030
Facility
19%
19%
2020
15%
15% 15%
15%
1010
00
Language
Organization
Format and
Mechanics of
Writing
Content
C L O M
14
COMMENTS :
Test 14 assesses the writing skill. It assesses the ability to write an informal letter using the given
guidelines and to assess the ability to interpret tabulated information and write a description.
Both parts are based on guided writing. The overall facility is 20%.
As shown in the 2 nd graph the highest facility lies on content which is 29%. It may be the reason
that the candidates have failed to include all the given guidelines. The lowest facility is indicated
for language, format and organization. It is 15%. The low facility for language depicts the inability
to construct grammatically correct sentences with a good range of vocabulary. Therefore, they
have been unable to organize the facts logically and meaningfully. From grade 6 onwards, the
competency of Mechanics of writing should be developed.
The teachers should provide a variety of reading texts and organize writing tasks to improve
vocabulary, mechanics of writing and writing skills.
When interpreting graphs/ charts it was found that most of the students were unable to use
comparative form of adjectives (more / less) properly. More ‘compare and contrast’ activities
should be given to avoid this weaknesses. When writing the percentages they had written the
symbol and the word together.
eg : 20% Percent , 20% Percentage
Constant practice should be given to overcome these common mistakes.
T
F
small misunderestanding
(by) holding each other's hand / they held each other's hand
carpenter
the bridge
60
60
53%
50% 53%
50% (b) - 50% Part 5 - 17%
Facility
50
50
41%
41% 39%
39% (c) - 53% Part 6 - 39%
40
40
(d) - 69% Part 7 – (a) - 21%
30
Part 2 - 9% (b) - 15%
30
17% 21%
21%
17% 15%
15%
20
Part 3 - 8%
20
9%
9% 8%
8% 7%
7%
10
10
00
((a)
a) ((b)
b) ((c)
c) ( d)
(d) ((a)
a) ((b)
b) The facility of part 1 sub part (d) shows the
(1)
1 (2)
2 (3)
3 (4)
4 (5)
5 (6)
6 (7)
7 highest facility in Test 15. The lowest facility of
Parts and Sub
15 parts of test 15
this test (7%) is for part 4.
Parts and Sub parts
COMMENTS :
In test 15 it is expected to assess candidates ability to read, understand and interpret directly
and indirectly stated information in a long descriptive text.
The graph indicates that the test has been somewhat difficult for the candidates. Part (1) and
(6) are based on T/F and MCQ and according to the graph those two parts show the best
performance with the highest facility recorded. As the answers are already provided, even
the candidates with poor writing ability can score marks.
Part 2, 3 and 4 are recorded as the lowest facility in the graph. In part 2 though the word
“two” is highlighted, candidates had not paid attention to that and they had used more than
"two words". Part 3, 4 indicates their inability to do meaningful reading and comprehension.
This shows that they need to improve their scanning skills.
Furthermore, students should be directed to read longer and complex texts and improve
reference skills, identify indirectly stated information and infer implied information and to
extract the main idea of paragraphs and extract the general idea of a text.
This test item contains a variety of questions to check comprehension, reference skills and
vocabulary.
Test 16 :
(a) Your principal is retiring from your school. You have been asked to make a speech at the
assembly thanking the principal for his service and wishing him a successful retirement.
It was a beautiful day. I was in my flower garden. Mother came out of the
house smiling and saying I have have some good news ............
14%
14%
Option (1) – 14%
10%
10% 9%
9%
10
10 Option (2) – 10%
Option (3) – 9%
Option (4) – 19%
00
1616 ((a)a) 16 ((b
16 b)
16 (b) )
16((cc))
16
16 (c) 16 (d)
16 (d)
Option of Test 16
Parts and Sub parts
16 (a)
G.C.E.(O.L.)Examination - 2014
English Language - Paper I
Facility
Facility of Testof 16
Indices Parts and Sub parts
30
30
20
20
Facility Index
Facility
14%
14%
10
10
00
(a)
16 16
Option of Test 16
16%
16%
Facility
13%
ability to write a speech is not satisfactory. When
13%
9%
9% considering the marks received for different
10
10
bandings candidates have scored 18% for content
and 16% for format and organization. 13% for
00 mechanics of writing and 9% for language. This
reveals that although the candidates have some facts
Organization
Format and
Mechanics of
Writing
Language
C L O M
Content
(a)
16 they need to impove their writing skills. Therefore,
improving sub skills of writing is essential in order
(out of 5 (out Parts
of 5and Sub(out
parts of 2
to score marks for writing tasks.
(out of 3
marks) marks) marks) marks)
16 (a)
30
The facility for this guided writing is 10%.
30
20
20
Facility
Facility Index
10%
10%
10
10
00
1616(b)
Option of Test 16
Parts and Sub parts
G.C.E.(O.L.)Examination - 2014
English Language - Paper I
Facility of Test 16 (b)
Facility Indices of Parts and Sub parts COMMENTS:
30
Test 16 (b) is a guided writing task to assess the
30
18%
12%
11%
11% 10%
10%
10
10
7%
7% and organization respectively and very low
performance is on language i.e. 7%. Though the
00 topic is familiar students' performance is very poor.
Mechanics of
Writing
Language
C L O M
Organization
Format and
Content
9%
9%
1010
00
16 (16c)
Option of Test 16
Parts and Sub parts
G.C.E.(O.L.)Examination - 2014
English Language - Paper I
Facility of of
Test COMMENTS:
Facility Indices Parts16
and(C)
Sub parts
30
30 Test 16 (c) is based on guided writing to assess the
ability to write an eassy on argumentative writing.
20
Overall performance is very poor in this option.
20
Content, format and organization show the equal
Facility Index
Facility
Organization
Format and
Content
20
20
Index
10
10
00
1616(d)
Option of Test 16
G.C.E.(O.L.)Examination - 2014
Parts and Sub parts
English Language - Paper I
Facility of Test
Facility Indices 16(d)
of Parts and Sub parts
COMMENTS:
This test is based on free writing to assess the
30
30
24%
24%
ability to write a story on a given topic. As on
21%
21%
20
20
the other writing tasks here also the candidates
Index
17%
have scored more marks for content and format
17%
Facility
14%
14%
and organization which shows 24% and 21%
Facility
10
10 respectively. When compared with part (a), (b) and
(c) candidates have scored more marks i.e.14% for
language. This reveals that out of the other 3 parts
00
C L O M of question 16, part (d) seems the most popular
Organization
Content
Language
Format and
Mechanics of
Writing
(d) topic and they have scored more marks for this
question than the other parts (a), (b) and (c).
16
Parts and Sub parts
(out of 5 (out of 5 (out of 2 (out of 3
marks) marks) marks) marks)
16 (d)
(a) Speech
(b) Article
(c) Essay
(d) Story
Test 16 - (1)
(a) Your principal is retiring from your school. You have been asked to make a speech at the
assembly thanking the principal for his service and wishing him a successful retirement.
I take this opportunity to speak a few words about our Principal, Mr. K.M. Jayalath who is
retiring from our school. First of all, let me remind you of the great service he has done to our school.
The most important service done by him is the conversion of our school to a popular Maha Vidyalaya
in our Zone. Dear sir, because of you, we are studying in a big school today. You worked hard to
develop our school in every possible way. The playground, new four storeyed building, auditorium,
fully equipped science laboratory and the library are some of the achievements of your untiring effort.
Because of these things our school has been able to improve results and bring achievements in sports.
Not only that, but also the new computer and multi media lab is another token of your dedication
and outstanding service to the school. Today we are reaping benefits from these, thanks to our dear
principal.
Dear brothers and sisters, you all know that he is not just a principal. He is a father to us. He
is loving and kind to children. He is a very understanding and caring father for us. Whenever a child
is sick, he never hesitates to take him to a doctor by his car. He helps children financially too when in
need. We will never forget his generous heart. Dear sir, how generous you are! The new aesthetic room
is your own donation to our school. You’re always ready to listen to our problems and slove them. Dear
sir, I have no words to admire your kindness, generosity and affection.
All the students like you, love you, as you developed the school and understood us as a father.
We remember how you enjoyed with us like a child at the Sinhala - Hindu new year festival. You
also observed sil with us on every Vesak Poya day. You gave a wonderful leadership when organizing
educational trips for us. You also sang songs with us. Your eyes were full of tears of happiness when
we showed our achievements. You also strictly warned us when we did anything wrong. Dear sir, you
directed us, guided us to the right path.
But now the time has come to say good bye. We feel really sorry to miss you. We wish you
a successful retirement. At last, dear sir, let me extend my gratitude to you from the bottom of my
heart.
May you live long with good health and happiness. May the noble Triple Gem Bless you and
your family!
Thank You
Test 16 - (2)
Travelling is a part of one’s life and it enhances and expands our knowledge in various
ways through our experiences which help to broaden our minds. It has become an essential need to
fulfill day to day human needs.
In the past people travelled from place to place mainly on foot, or using animals. With the
development of technology and the invention of the wheel they started using carts, bicycles and
other modes of motor vehicles. Later on train became the most popular mode of travel in visiting
long distances. Some people like to use ships, boats and aircrafts in the modern era.
All these modes of travelling provide a variety of enjoyment according to the economic
level of the users. People enjoy sight seeing by cycling, travelling by train, using sea vouyages and
air travel. This helps to get away from the monotony of their tired lives and at the same time they
get mental relaxation as they refresh their minds.
When travelling from place to place they meet different people, get different kinds of
experiences and enjoy a wide range of activities. When meeting people they exchange ideas, learn
through observation, gain knowledge and it helps their mutual understanding.
Meeting and visiting places encourage and help to overcome misunderstandings among
ethnic groups, exchange their cultural backgrounds, overcome cultural barriers, learn about various
types of food items too. On the other hand they learn about beliefs, habits, costumes, religions
which result in expanding their knowledge and broadening their minds.
Test 16 - (3)
(c) An essay on Advertisements - Are they benefical or not?
They persuade people through their attractive colour combination, appealing language and
artistic creations. Many people think that advertisements are beneficial because they give information
regarding latest products such as food items, clothing, cosmetics and also, real estate, employment
opportunities, sales, marriage proposals and many more.
Advertisements change our life styles in many ways. We make our lives easier, healthier and
comfortable. For example good living conditions such as personal cleanliness, hygine, nutrition can be
mentioned. Advertisements provide us entertainment and amusement. We get lots of pleasure through
advertisements on TV, radio, internet, news papers and other electronic media. The music, pun words,
dramatization, artistic creativity in advertisements make people forget their troubles and enjoy life.
On the otherhand it directs us to buy unnecessary things such as instant food, cosmetics,
clothing and embrace fashions etc. As a result it badly affects the economy of the family and mostly
the children are the victims of unsuitable advertisements.
There is no proper way to monitor advertisements and therefore it gives wrong information
sometimes. As a result people are misled, because they try to follow them blindly without knowing
that it is a wastage of time and money. Sometimes advertisements make people want things they cannot
afford such as sophisticated electronic items, cosmetics etc.
Therefore people should be intelligent enough to select beneficial aspects of advertisements
and to avoid unnecessary and harmful aspects.
Test 16 - (4)
It was a beautiful day. I was in my flower garden. Mother came out of the
house smiling and saying I have some good news ............
I was so eager to know what it was. I ran to my mother and asked what it was. But she didn't
reply. Instead, she asked me to guess what it was. I did many guesses, "was it a preset for me", "was it
my O/L results?" or "coming of my cousin for the vacation?". No all my guesses were utter failures.
By the time my father too was moving towards the garden and we all sat on a bench. Then I
embrased my father and asked him what it was. He slowly showed me a small book. I grabbed it from
his hand and tried to open.
'Oh' What a surprise. I have won a scholarship to Australia. I remembered how my teacher
appreciated my art work at the "All Island Art Exhibition". I was the winner of the All Island school
Art competition and was rewarded with this scholorship.
Tears of happiness started rolling down and my parents too were so emotional we all embrassed
each other and shared the joy.
While we were sharing our past memories and the achievements and awards I have gathered
so far, I heard the telephone ringining. It was my Principal madam. She said that she had arrangd a
special essembly the next day and I must attend it. It was a busy day for me. I had no time to move
away from the telephone, I got repeated calls wishing and congratulating, from allover the country. I
was so thrilled and overjoyed on that day.
The next day I went to school with my parents and I was welcomed with the school band. The
principal and my teachers, specially the art teachers made speeches appreciating my achievements.
I received many presents and I was given a chance to address the audience. I was shivering and
emotional and it was the first time I faced such a big audience. Anyway at the end of my speech a heard
a big applause which I had never heard in our school assembly.
3.0 Factors to be considered when answering questions and suggestions for improvement
* The index number of the candidate should be written clearly and accurately in the spaces
provided for it.
* Candidates should always use a blue or black pen to answer questions. They should
never answer using a red pen or a pencil.
* Each question should be read carefully and the candidates should adhere to the instructions
given in the question paper.
* The candidates have to answer all the tests in the question paper itself.
* The candidates are expected to utilize the full time allocated for the paper at the
examination.
* The space allocated for the writing tests provides guidance to the candidates about the
required length of the answer.
Specific Instructions :
* The candidates must pay their attention to the examples given when answering
questions.
* Attention should be paid to spelling when transferring information from a text and
copying it as the answer. Candidates will lose marks for spelling errors.
* In reading tasks, the candidates must understand the main idea of the text before
answering questions.
* The candidates must apply the reading techniques like scanning, skimming and inferring
when attempting to answer questions related to reading.
* The candidates must not copy chunks from the passages as answers when one specific
answer (a sentence, a phrase or a word) is expected. Marks will not be awarded for such
answers.
* The candidates should be able to guess the meaning of a new word according to the
context.
* In writing tasks the candidates must pay their attention to the grammatical accuracy,
appropriateness (relevance), mechanics of writing and organization.
* When the options are available for the writing tests, the candidates are advised to follow
the instructions thoroughly.
* The teachers should be familiar with the syllabus, the textbooks and the Teachers' Instructional
Manual (TIM).
* The teachers should plan their lessons well to make teaching more interesting and
productive.
* The teachers should use resources available to them to facilitate the teaching
learning process.
* The candidates should be given more opportunities to read and write and listen and speak
English in the classroom.
* The teachers should encourage maximum pupil interaction in English in the classroom through
group work and pair work.
* The teacher's questioning techniques in classroom teaching helps the performance of the
candidates in the examination.
* The teachers who prepare students for the G.C.E.(O/L) examination should read the
'Examination and Assessment Guidelines' issued by the Department of Examinations and
follow the instructions.
* If there are candidates with weak performance, the teachers should help them to reach at
least the basic level performance standards mentioned in the 'Examination and Assessment
Guidelines'.
* In teaching vocabulary, the teachers should go beyond the level of memorizing the spelling
and practising pronunciation making students aware of word classes and their use.
* The teachers should use new strategies to make teaching more interesting.
* In teaching reading, the teachers should expose pupils to a variety of authentic text types to
develop their reading skills.
* In answering reading tests, pupils should be informed that short and grammatically correct
answers can earn full marks.
* In answering 'Wh' questions (especially in test 15), the students should be advised not to copy
the full sentences unnecessarily from the reading passage. Copying chunks from passages will
be a waste of time.
* Teachers should encourage students to attempt all the writing activities of the question paper.
Most of the students do not even attempt the basic writing tests in paper I.
* The teachers should use the same criteria used in the marking scheme, in their classroom tests
and term tests too.
* The teachers should pay individual attention to the students, especially in teaching
writing and they should make sure that all writing activities of every child are marked and
comments given. It is always better to ask students to rewrite the tasks after the teachers'
comments.
* Attention should be paid to 'Language Focus' and 'Language Expressions' given at the
beginning of each unit.
* Every teacher who prepares the students for G.C.E.(O/L) examination should be thorough with
the question paper and the marking criteria every year so that he/she would be able to improve
the performance level of the students.
* The teachers must get their knowledge updated to be competent in teaching the subject using
correct methodology to facilitate and motivate the learners.