Principles of Inheritance and Variations PRACTICING QUESTIONS
Principles of Inheritance and Variations PRACTICING QUESTIONS
Codes
A B C A B C
a) 1 2 3 b) 1 3 2
c) 3 2 1 d) 3 1 2
31.The first hybrid progenies obtained by Mendel were called
a) F1-progeny b) F0 – progeny c) F2 – progeny d) F3 – progeny
32.F1 – progeny of a cross between pure tall and dwarf plant is always
a) tall b) short c) intermediate d) None of these
33.Mendel observed that …… generation shows always phenotype of dominant parent.
a) F4 b) F2 c) F1 d) F0
34.The Mendel crossed true breeding tall and dwarf plant varieties in his experiment. The tall
character was dominant and recessive character was dwarf. The recessive characterwas
appeared in
a) F1 b) F2 c) F3 d) F2 and F3
35.Mendel obtained recessive character in F 2 by …A… the …B… plants. Here A and B
refers to
a) A – self – pollinating ; B – F1 b) A – self-pollinating ; B – F2
c) A – cross – pollinating ; B – F1 d) A – cross – pollinating ; B – F2
36.Mendel crossed tall and dwarf plant. In F 2 – generation both the tall and dwarf plantswere
produced. This shows
a) blending of characters b) atavism
c) non-blending of characters d) intermediate characters
37.Mendel’s principle of segregation means that the germ cells always receive
a) one pair to alleles
b) on quarter o the genes
c) either one allele of father or one allele of mother
d) any pair of alleles
38.The phenotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross in F2 – generation is
a) 3 : 1 b) 1 : 2 : 1 c) 2 : 1 : 1 d) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
39.The genotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross in F 2 – generation is
a) 3 : 1 b) 1 : 2 : 1 c) 2 : 1 : 1 d) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
40.Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding law of segreagation?
a) alleles separate with each other during gametogenesis
b) The segregation o factor is due to the segregation of chromosomes during meiosis
c) Law of segregation is called as law of purity of gametes
d) All of the above
41.The crossing of F1 to any one of the parents is called
a) back cross b) test cross c) F1 cross d) All of these
42.The major reason for the success of Mendelian experiments was
a) garden pea was true breeding b) garden pea was cross breeding
c) garden pea was heterozygous d) garden pea was not easily available
43.When alleles of two contrasting characters are present together, one of the character
express itself during the cross while the other remains hidden. This is the
a) law of purity of gametes b) law of segregation
c) law of dominance d) law of independent assortment
44.The character that is expressed in the F 1 – generation is called the
a) recessive character b) dominant character
c) codominant character d) None of these
45.Mendel choose the garden pea plant for his experiment and his finding were based on
a) artificial pollination b) cross-pollination
c) self and artificial pollination d) None of the above
46.Emasculation is the removal of
a) flower buds b) anthers before dehiscence
c) carpels before dehiscence d) mature flowers
47.Mendel’s experiments were based on hybridization between two plants differing in
a) a pair of contrasting character b) three pairs of contrasting character
c) many pairs of contrasting character d) None of these
48.A cross in which parents differ in a single pair of contrasting character is called
a) monohybrid cross b) dihybrid cross c) trihybrid cross d) tetrahybrid cross
49. By seeing the ratio of F1 and F2 – generation Mendel proposed that something was
stably passed down unchanged over successive generation and called this something as
a) alleles b) genes c) chromosome d) factros
50. Unit of inheritance that required to express a particular trait of organism is called
a) factors b) genes c) phenotype d) genotype
51. Alleles are
a) alternative form of a gene
b) alternative form of a gene that govern similar character of trait
c) which govern only single character of trait
d) all of the above
52. Match the following columns.
Column – I Column – II
A. TT 1. Homozygous
B. Tt 2. Heterozygous
C. Tt
Codes
A B C A B C A B C A B C
a) 1 2 1 b) 1 1 2 c) 2 2 1 d) 2 1 1
53. Monohybrid cross deals with
a) one character b) two character c) three characters d) four characters
54. Chances of segregation of alleles in gametes are
a) 25% b) 35% c) 50% d) 75%
55. If male is TT and female is tt than they contribute pollen and egg respectively with
a) T and T gametes b) tt and TT gametes
c) TT and tt gametes d) T and t gametes
56. Punnett square was developed by
a) RC Punnett b) RB Punnett c) RD Punnett d) RE Punnett
57. Graphical representation to calculate the probability of all possible genotype of an
offspring in genetic cross is called
a) Bunett square b) Morgan square c) Punnet square d) Mendel square
58. Test cross is
a) recessive F1 – plant crosses with dominant F2 plant
b) recessive F2 – plant crosses with dominant F3 plant
c) dominant F2 – plant crosses with recessive parent plants
d) dominant F2 – plant crosses with heterozygous parent plants
59. Mendel performed test cross to know the
a) genotype of F1 b) genotype of F2 c) genotype of F3 d) genotype of F4
60. The genes for seven characters of pea plant that were considered in Mendel
hybridization experiment are present on
a) 4 chromosome b) 5 chromosome c) 7 chromosome d) 8 chromosome
61. The allele which expresses itself in both homozygous and heterozygous condition is
called
a) dominant allele b) recessive allele
c) incomplete dominant allele d) split allele
62.3 : 1 ratio in F2 – generation is explained by
a) law of partial dominant b) law of dominant
c) law of incomplete dominant d) law of purity of gametes
63. Which factor expresses itself in homozygous and even in heterozygous condition?
a) Dominant factor b) Weak factor c) Recessive factor d) Incomplete factor
64. The factors which expresses only in homozygous condition is
a) dominant b) recessive c) hidden d) cryptic
65. Genes are made up of
a) histones b) hydrocarbons c) polynucleotides d) lipoproteins
66. Theoretically in incomplete dominance one allele function as normal, while another
allele may function as
a) normal allele b) non-functional allele
c) normal but less efficient allele d) all of the above
67. Incomplete dominance is different from complete dominance in having
a) phenotypic ratio b) genotypic ratio c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
68. When F1 – generation progeny resembles both the parents this is called
a) codominance b) incomplete dominance
c) both (a) or (b) d) complete dominance
69. Blood grouping is the example of
a) multiple allele b) codominance
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Independent assortment
70. The ABO blood group are controlled by
a) I-gene b) c-gene c) B-gene d) n-gene
71. The plasma membrane of the red blood cells has …A… polymers that protrude from it
surface and the kind of sugar is controlled by the gene. The gene I has three alleles
…B… . The alleles IA and IB produce a slightly different form of the sugars, while allele I
doesn’t produce any …C…
Choose the correct option for A, B and C.
a) A – protein, B-|A|B|O, C – protein b) A – protein, B - |A|B|O, C – sugar
c) A – sugar, B - |A|B|O, C – protein d) A – sugar, B - |A|B|, C – sugar
72. Dominance is found in
a) plants b) animal c) both (a) and (d) d) prokaryote
73. How many phenotype and genotypes are possible in ABO blood group systems?
a) Four, five b) four, six c) Four, seven d) three, four
74. When there are more than two allele controlling the same character. These are called
a) many alleles b) polyalleles c) multiple alleles d) all of these
75. Starch synthesis gene in pea plant is the example of
a) single gene produce more than one effects
b) multiple genes products more than one effects
c) two gene produce more than one effects
d) multiple genes produce less than one effects
76. Starch synthesis gene in pea plant in heterozygous condition produces starch grian of
intermediate size. This shows
a) complete dominance b) incomplete dominance
c) codominat d) dominant
77. Ratio of progeny, when a red coloured heterozygous crossed with a white coloued plant
in which red colour is dominant to white colour.
a) 3 : 1 b) 1 : 1 c) 1 : 2 : 1 d) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
78. All of this obeys Mendel’s laws except.
a) codominance b) Independent assortment c) Dominance d) Purity of gametes
79. The best method of determine the homozygosity and heterozygosity of an individual is
a) self-fertilisation b) back cross c) test cross d) inbreeding
80. If heterozygous dominant (tT) crossed with homozygous dwarf plant, then the
percentage of progeny having dwarf character is
a) 60% b) 40% c) 50% d) 70%
81.A cross between F1 – hybrid and a heterozygous parent (Tt × tT) gives the phenotypic
ratio of
a) 1 : 1 b) 3 : 1 c) 2 : 1 d) 4 : 1
82. Which statement about Mendel is true?
a) His discoveries concerning genetic inheritance were generally accepted by scientific
community at his time
b) He discovered linkage
c) He believed that genetic traits of parents will usually blend in their children
d) His principles about genetics apply usually to plants and animals
83. Match the following columns.
Column – I Column – II
A. Removal of anther 1. Human blood group
B. Laws of inheritance 2. Emasculates
C. Multiple allelism 3. Blood group O
D. Universal donor 4. Mendel
Codes
A B C D A B C D
a) 2 4 1 3 b) 3 4 1 2
c) 2 4 3 1 d) 2 1 4 3
84. The types of gametes formed by the genotype RrYy are
a) RY, Ry, rY, ry b) RY, Ry, ry, ry c) Ry, Ry, Yy, ry d) Rr, RR, Yy, YY
85. Mendelism was rediscovered by
I. morgan II. De Vries III. Correns IV. Tschemark
Choose the correct option.
a) I, III and IV b) I, II, III and IV c) II, III and IV d) I, II and III
86. How many different kinds of gametes will be produced by a plant having genotype
AABbcc?
a) three b) Four c) Nine d) Two
87. The law of segregation of characters is also called the law of purity of gametes because
a) gametes have only one of the two alleles for each characters
b) gametes cannot be contaminated
c) gametes are very different type of cells
d) both tall and dwarf plants in 1 : 2
e) it was just another name adopted accidentally
88. Match the following columns.
Column – I Column – II
A. Monohybrid cross 1. T and t
B. Test cross 2. TT
C. Alleles 3. Tt × Tt
D. Homozygous tall 4. Tt
5. Tt × tt
Codes
A B C D A B C D
a) 3 5 4 2 b) 5 3 2 4
c) 3 5 1 2 d) 3 1 5 2
89. Which of the following law was discovered first by Mendel?
a) Law ofdominance b) Law of segregation
c) law of independent assortment d) law of sex determination
90. Which one of the following traits of garden pea studied by Mendel was a recessive
feature?
a) Green pod colour b) Round seed colour
c) Axial flower position d) Green seed colour
91. Incomplete dominance is shown by
a) primrose b) Mirabilis c) Helianthus d) China rose
92. Which of the following is best suited for codominance? The genes involved in
codominance.
a) Both are recessive b) Both are dominant
c) One is recessive d) One is dominant
93. Which principle / law has been called the 2nd law of inheritance?
a) law of independent assortment b) law of segregation
c) Law of dominance d) Law of paired factor
94. In law of independent assortment. How many factors are involved? (for a dihybrid cross)
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 1
95. Which cross was used to study the independent assortment?
a) Monohybrid cross b) dihybrid cross c) Trihybrid cross d) Tetrahybrid cross
96. Ratio observed in dihybrid cross (phenotypically)
a) 3 : 1 b) 1 : 2 : 1 c) 9 : 7 d) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
97. Types of genotype observed in a dihybrid cross are
a) 9 b) 12 c) 4 d) 6
98. In cross between yellow round (YYRR) and green wrinkled (yyrr) find out the ratio
between seeds having yellow and green seed colour.
a) 3 : 2 b) 3 : 1 c) 9 : 7 d) 7 : 9
99. What is genotypic ratio in a dihybrid cross?
a) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4: 2 : 1 : 2 : 1 b) 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1 : 1 : 2 : 1
c) 1 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 2 : 1 d) 4 : 2 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 2 : 1 : 1
100. Total number of round seed in a cross between pure yellow round and pure green
wrinkled seeds in F2 is (out of total 16 resulted)
a) 9 b) 12 c) 11 d) 10
101. A tall plant was grown in nutrient deficient soil and remained dwarf. When it is
crossed with dwarf plant then
a) all hybrid plants are dwarf b) all hybrid plants are tall
c) depended upon genotype of tall plant d) 75% tall and 25% dwarf
102. Dihybrid ratio of test cross 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 proves that
a) F1 – hybrid produces four different progenies
b) F1 – hybrid produces two different progenies
c) parents produces two different progenies
d) None of these
103. Mendel’s work remain unrecognized for long time due to
I. Communication was not easy.
II. Concept of factors which did not blend was not accepted.
III. Use of mathematics of explain biological problems was unacceptable.
IV. the could not provide any physical proof for the existence of factors.
Choose the right combination.
a) I and II b) II and III c) III and IV d) all of these
104. In which year Mendel’s work rediscovered
a) 1900 b) 1901 c) 1902 d) 1903
105. The literal meaning of chromosome is
a) painted body b) coloured body c)doubling body d) thread like body
106. In which phase of meiosis – I the two chromosome can align at the metaphase plate
independently of each other
a) metaphase – II b) metaphase – I c) anaphase – I d) telophase – I
107. Who proposed the chromosomal theory of inheritance?
a) Sutton and Mendel b) Boveri and Morgan
c) Morgan and Mendel d) Sutton and Boveri
108. Experimental evidences of chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by
a) HT Morgan b) TH Morgan c) H de Vries d) DH Vries
109. Morgan worked with tiny fruit fly named as
a) Drosophila melanogaster b) Mangifera indica
c) Mirabilis jalapa d) Drosophia indica
110. Fruitly is excellent model for genetics because of
I. Small life cycle (two week)
II. can be feed on simple synthetic medium
III. Single mating produce large number of progeny.
IV. Clear differentiation of sexes.
V. Many heredity variation can be seen with low power microscopes.
Choose the correct option.
a) I, II and III b) III, IV and V c) I, IV and V d) All of these
111. The chromosomal number in meiocytes of housefly are
a) 8 b) 12 c) 21 d) 23
112. Walter Sutton is famous for his contribution to
a) genetic engineering b) totipotency
c) quantitative genetics d) chromosomal theory of inheritance
113. Linkage was first suggested by
a) sutton and Boveri b) Morgan c) de Vries d) Pasteur
114. Linked gene are present on
a) same chromosome b) different chromosome
c) heterologous chromosome d) paired chromosome
115. Strength of the linkage between the two genes is
a) proportionate to the distance between them
b) inversely properties to the distance between them
c) depend on the chromosome
d) depend upon the size of chromosomes
116. Linkage an crossing over are
a) same phenomena b) different phenomena
c) opposite phenomena d) identical phenomena
117. Frequency of crossing over is …..A…. in linked gene …B… in unlinked gene.
Choose correct combination for A and B.
a) A – more ; B – less b) A – less ; B – more
c) A – same ; B – same d) A – same ; B – happened
118. Dihybrid ratio of the linked gene is
a) 1 : 1 b) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 d) 3 : 1
119. First time who used the term frequency of recombination?
a) Alfred Sturtevant b) Alfred Nobel c) Pasteur d) Mendel
120. Linkage group is
a) linearly arranged group of linked gene
b) non-linearly arranged group of linked gene
c) non-linearly arranged group of unlinked gene
d) non-linearly arranged group of single gene
121. Linkage gene do not shows
a) Independent assortment b) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
c) segregation d) all of the above
Level – II
122. During …A… both numbers of chromosome pair as well as ….B… separate and pass
to different gametes. Choose the correct option for A and B.
a) A – mitosis : B – allele pair b) A – meiosis ; B – allele pair
c) A – allele pair ; B – meiosis d) A – allele pair ; B – mitosis
123. The two …A… separate and pass into two daughter nuclei and cells during mitosis.
Similarly, each … B… replicates, which one pair passing into each daughter cell
during mitosis. This maintains the similar …C… of all the cells.
Find out correct option for A, B and C.
a) A – chromatid, B – allele pair, C – morphology
b) A – chromatid, B – allele pair, C – genetic composition
c) A – organ, B – organ pair, C – individuality
d) A – unliked gene, B – linked gene, C – morphology
124. The genes located in the same chromosome do not separate and are inherited together
over its generations due to the phenomenon of
a) complete linkage b) incomplete linkage
c) incomplete recombination d) complete independent assortment
125. When the number recombinant progeny is usually less than the number expected in
independent assortment it is called
a) complete linkage b) incomplete linkage
c) incomplete recombination d) complete independent assortment
126. Incomplete linkage is …A… Complete linkage is ….B…. choose correct option for A
and B.
a) A – common, B – rare b) A – rare, B – common
c) A – impracticle, B – particle d) A – particle, B – impracticle
127. Linkage groups are always present on the
a) homologous chromosomes b) analogous chromosomes
c) sex chromosomes d) heterologous chromosomes
128. The specific pair of chromosomes which determine the sex of the individual calle d
a) sex chromosomes b) allosomes c) heterosomes d) all of these
129. How many conditions exhibit in dissimilar sex chromosomes?
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
130. The similar and dissimilar sex chromosome of females and males are described as
a) homomorphic b) heteromorphic c) both (a) and (b) d) isomorphic
131. In XX and XY type of sex determination, the males are
a) homogametic b) heterogametic c) both (a) and (b) d) isogametic
132. XX and XY chromosomal sex determination, females are
a) homogametic b) heterogametic c) cannot determine d) all of the above
133. Sex linked traits are the traits determined by
a) sex chromosome b) autosomes c) allosomes d) all of these
134. Sex limited traits are the
a) traits appeared in particular sex
b) traits which governed by genes present in both sexes
c) traits which influenced by the sex hromoens
d) all of the above
135. Milk secretion and balancess, both the traits belongs to
a) sex limited b) sex linked c) sex influenced d) autosomal traits
136. Low pitched voice, beared and moustaches, belong to the
a) sex limited traits b) sex linked trait c) nulsomi traits d) sex influenced traits
137. In XX and XO chromosomal sex determination there is absence of one chromosome in
a) male b) female c) both (a) and (b) d) None of these
138. In bugs and cockroaches, the sex determination takes place by
a) XX and XO chromosomes b) XX and XY chromosomes
c) ZZ – ZW chromosomes d) ZO – ZZ chromosomes
139. Female is hetermorphic and male is homomoorphic in
a) fishes and bird b) reptiles c) butterflies and moth d) All of these
140. The chromosomal denotation for heterogametic female and homogametic males are
a) ZW and ZZ b) ZO – ZZ c) XX – XO d) Both (a) and (b)
141. When one sex chromosomes is lacking in female and males are homogametic, in that
condition, the sex chromosomal representation is
a) ZO – ZZ b) XY – XX c) XX – XO d) ZW – ZZ
142. Haploid – diploid mechanism of sex determination (haplodiploidy) takes place in
a) bees b) wasps c) Ants d) All of these
143. Which the following is not a correct match?
A. Sex determination - A chromosomal
phenomenon
B. Y-chromosome - Autosomal
C. Red-green colour blindness in - A sex-linked
human character
D. An abnormal chromosomes - A case of polyploidy
number in each cell
Mutation :
Level – I
148. Mutation is phenomena which results in alternation of
a) sequence b) carbohydrates c) proteins d) fat
149. Mutation may results in the
a) change in genotype b) change in phenotype
c) change in metabolism d) all of these
150. Classical example of point mutation is
a) sickle-cell anaemia b) thalassaemia c) cancer d) all of the above
151. Frameshift mutation arises due to
a) deletion of base pair of DNA b) insertion of base pair of DNA
c) both (a) and (b) d) Change in single base pair of DNA
152. Mutagens are
a) chemical agents which cause change in DNA
b) physical agents which cause mutation
c) cancer producing agents
d) both (a) and (b)
153. Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by
a) fertilization of an XX egg by normal of bearing sperm
b) loss of half of the short arm of chromosome-5
c) loss of half of the long arm of chromosomes-5
d) trisomy of 21st chromosome
154. Loss of chromosomal segment due to
a) plyploidy b) deletion c) duplication d) inversion
155. The cri-du-chat syndrome is caused by change in chromosome structure involving
a) deletion b) duplication c) inversion d) translocation
156. Arrangement of genes on chromosome is
a) linear b) ovoid c) diffused d) spiral
157. Mutation can be induced with
a) IAA b) gamma radiation c) ethylene d) infrared radiation
158. Point mutation involves
a) insertion b) change in single base pair c) duplication d) deletion
159. Hugo de Vries is famous for
a) natural selection theory b) mutation theory
c) organic theory d) chemical theory
160. Sudden inheritable change in a character of an organism is called
a) mutation b) heterosis c) inbreeding d) selection
161. Frameshift mutation and base pair substitution change the
a) nucleotide structure b) nucleotide sequence
c) nucleoside sequence d) sugar phosphate sequence
162. How many pairs of autosomal chromosomes are found in human?
a) 23 pairs b) 1 pair c) 22 pairs d) 46 pairs
163. Match the following columns.
Column – I Column – II
A. Linkage 1. Recombination of genes
B. Mutation 2. More than two set of
chromosomes
C. Crossing over 3. Morgan
D. Polyploidy 4. De Vries
Codes
A B C D A B C D
a) 3 4 1 2 b) 1 2 3 4
c) 4 3 2 1 d) 1 2 4 3
164. Mutation can’t change
a) RNA b) enzyme c) DNA d) None of these
165. Given diagram indicates which type of mutation?
a) deletion b) duplication
c) pericentric inversion d) reciprocal translocation
Genetic Disorders
Pedigree Analysis :
166. Analysis of traits of several generation of a family in the form of diagram is called
a) gene analysis b) chromosomes analysis
c) allele analysis d) spedigree analysis
167. Pedigree analysis is very important in human beings because
a) it helps genetic counselers to avoid disorders
b) it shows origin of traits
c) it shows the flow of traits in family
d) all of the above
168. Identify the correct choice for given symbols (A and B).
Mendelian disorders :
172. Phenylketonuria disease is a
a) autosomal dominant b) autosomal recessive
c) sex linked recessive d) sex linked dominant
173. Broadly the genetic disorders may be classified in …A… group Mendelian disorder and
…B… disorders. Mendelian disorder are mainly determined by …C… in single gene.
Choose the correct option for A, B and C.
a) A – two, B – chromosomal, C – genetic
b) A – two, B – chromosomal, C – inversion
c) A – two, B – chromosomal, C – alteration
d) A – three, B – chromosomal, C – deficiency
174. Disorder inherited as Mendel’s law of inheritance called
a) mendelian disorder b) chromosomal disorder
c) maternal inheritance d) Polygenic inheritance
175. Mendelian disorder may be of
a) recessive b) dominant c) both (a) and (b) d) can’t be determined
176. Haemophilia is also called
a) bleeders disease b) blood disease c) RBC diseases d) All of these
177. Genetic or chromosomal symbol used for the person who is having sickle-cell anaemia
is
a) Hbs Hbs b) Hba Hba c) Hbg Hbg d) Hbm Hbm
178. In sickle-cell anaemia, glutamic acid (glu) is replaced by
a) valine b) Ieucine c) Isolucine d) methionine
179. in sickle-cell anaemia, GAG is replaced by
a) GGA b) GUG c) AAG d) GGG
180. Phenylalanine does not changed to tyrosine. This condition is seen in
a) sickle-cell an aemia b) sphenylketonuria c) thalassaemia d) haemphilia
181. The enzyme missing in phenylketonuria is
a) phenylalanine hydroxylase b) phenylalanine reductase
c) phenylalanine oxidase d) phenylalanine oxidoreductase
182. In phenylketonuria, the phenylalanine gets converted to
a) acetic acid b) phenyl acetic acid c) phenyl pyruvic acid d) pyruvic acid
183. Thalassaemia is
a) autosomal recessive diseases b) autosomal dominant disease
c) sex-linked dominant disease d) sex-linked recessive disease
184. Colour blindness is
a) sex-linked recessive diseases b) sex-linked dominant diseases
c) autosomal dominant diseases d) autosomal recessive disease
185. Gene for colour blindness is present on
a) X – chromosome b) Y – chromosome c) Both (a) and (b) d) Either (a) or (b)
186. Colour blindess is a failure to discriminate between
a) red and blue b) red and green c) red and black d) red and white
187. Night blindness can be corrected by giving vitamin …A… but colour blindness can’t be
cured because it is ….B… diseases.
Choose the correct option for A and B.
a) A – A : B – genetic b) A – B : B – autosomal
c) A – C : B – non – genetic d) A – D : B – genetic
188. Human females have
a) 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosome
b) 21 pairs of autosomes and two pairs of sex chromosome
c) 23 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosome
d) 20 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosome
189. 21 trisomy in humans causes
a) Klinefelter’s syndrome b) Down’s syndrome
c) Turner’s syndrome d) Patau’s syndrome
190. I. short statured with small round head.
II. Furrowed tongue and partially opened mouth.
III. Palm is broad with characteristic palm creases.
IV. Slow physical, psychomotor and mental development.
These are the characters of
a) Down’s syndrome b) Turner’s syndrome
c) Klinefeltr’s syndrome d) Edward syndrome
191. I. trisomy of sex (X) chromosome.
II. XXY + 44
III. 21st trisomy
IV. Sterile male
V. Gynaecomastia
Choose the correct option from Klinefelter’s syndrome.
a) I, II, III and IV b) I, II, IV and V c) II, III, IV and V d) I, III, IV and V
192. Turner’s syndrome caused due to the absence of
a) one X-chromosome (44 with XO) b) one Y-chromosome
c) one X-and Y-Chromosome d) two X-chromosome
193. In Turner’s syndrome
a) female is fertile b) male is fertile c) female is sterile d) male is sterile
194. Gynaecomastia is common feature seen in
a) Down’s syndrome b) Turner’s syndrome c) pKU d) Kinefelter’s syndrome
195. Trisomy stands for
a) 2n – 1 b) 2n + 2 c) 2n + 3 d) 2n + 1
196. Riticale has been produced by the intergenic hybridization of
a) wheat and rice b) wheat and rye c) wheat and aegilops d) rice and maize
197. Syndrome stands for
a) a group of symptoms b) viral diseases
c) diseased condition d) dwarf organism
198. Match the following columns.
Column – I Column – II
A. Sickle-cell anaemia 1. Sex-linked
B. Colour blindness 2. Autosomal chromosome-7
C. Phenylketonuria 3. Autosomal chromosome – 11
D. Cystic fibrosis 4. Autosomal chromosome – 4
E. Huntington’s diseases 5. Autosomal chromosome – 12
Codes
A B C D E A B C D E
a) 3 5 1 2 4 b) 5 1 2 3 4
c) 4 1 5 2 3 d) 3 1 5 2 4
199. Match the following columns.
Column – I Column – II
A. Autosomal linked recessive 1. Down’s syndrome
trait
B. Sex linked recessive 2. Phenylketonuria
diseases
C. Metabolic error linked to 3. Haemophila
autosomal recessive trait
D. Additional 21st 4. Sickle-cell anaemia
chromosome
Codes
A B C D A B C D
a) 4 1 2 3 b) 4 3 2 1
c) 2 1 4 3 d) 3 4 1 2
200. Following pedigree chart shows.
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