PART 1 DATE: 04.05.

2024

QUESTION BOOKLET
Part 1
Ph.D. Entrance Examination 2024-25
RESEARCH METHODOLOGY &
MEDICAL STATISTICS
Name of the Candidate: _________________________________

Roll No. of Candidate: ___________________________________

Signature of Candidate: __________________________________

Signature of Invigilator: __________________________________

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
QUESTION BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED TO TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC.
IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE QUESTION BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to fill in the roll number, subject etc carefully and without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR answer Sheet. Any omission/Discrepancy will
render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Roll No and signature on the Question Booklet. DO NOT write anything else on
the question booklet
4. This question booklet contains 40 Questions. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. 01
mark will be given for each correct response.
5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS: There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by a candidate.
a. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
b. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will same penalty as above to that question.
c. If a question is left blank, i.e. No answer is given by the candidate, there will no penalty for that question
6. The duration of the Entrance Examination (for both the parts) will be 75 minutes
7. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the provided OMR answer sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR answer sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator OMR Answer sheet and Question Booklet.
9. Blank page at the end of the question booklet may be used for rough work.

Page 1 of 9
PART 1 DATE: 04.05.2024

Page 2 of 9
PART 1 DATE: 04.05.2024

1. A rating system that is designed to measure people’s opinions, where a

subject can choose options from a range of responses that include “strongly
agree,” “agree,” “neutral,” “disagree,” and/or “strongly disagree” is
popularly known as ___

A. Likert Scale
B. Visual Analogous Scale
C. Dichotomous Scale
D. Nominal Scale

2. All the sources that were consulted during the research but not cited in the
document are known as _______

A. Bibliography
B. References
C. Source material
D. Databases

3. ___________ is a highly concentrated source of reports of randomized and

quasi-randomized controlled trials.

A. Web of Science
B. Lippincott
C. CENTRAL
D. Elsevier

4. Selecting participants considering their availability at a particular time and

place in research is familiar as _________

A. Convenience sampling
B. Purposive sampling
C. Snowball sampling
D. Stratified sampling

5. According to Charaka स नित्यो यत्र नि द्रव्यं ि तत्रानियतो गुण: is the

characteristic feature of _______

A. Abhyaasa (अभ्यास)
B. Sanshaya (संशय)
C. Pramaana (प्रमाण)
D. Samavaaya (समवाय)

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PART 1 DATE: 04.05.2024

6. The population-based, observational cohort study designed to prospectively

investigate the epidemiology and risk factors for cardiovascular disease is popularly
known as ____________. The first major finding of the study found a nearly 4-fold
increase in coronary heart disease incidence per 1000 persons among hypertensive
participants.

A. The MADIT-II trial

B. Framingham Study
C. The HOT trial
D. The RENAAL Trial

7. The scale developed to predict infection & mortality among surgical intermediate
and intensive care patients is _____

A. SAD PERSONS Scale

B. qSOFA Score
C. SOCRATES Score
D. HITTING Scale

8. Random assignment of the sample fulfilling the inclusion criteria in an experiment

helps in ___________

A. Ensuring that the outcomes are significant

B. Ensuring that each participant has an equal chance of being placed in a group
C. Selecting the control group
D. Defining the research question

9. Naranjo Algorithm is ________

A. Adverse Drug Reaction Probability Scale

B. Indicator of epidemiology of infectious disease burden in a locality
C. Assessment tool for grading inflammation
D. System identifies the herb-drug interactions

10. Hamilton Rating Scale is useful in assessing the effectiveness of _______

A. Anti-diabetic drugs
B. Anti-hypertensive drugs
C. Anti-depressants
D. Hepato-protective drugs

11. The type of research often used to measure the characteristics of a population at a
single point in time is __________

A. Descriptive Research
B. Randomized Trial
C. Cohort Study
D. Cross-Sectional Study

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PART 1 DATE: 04.05.2024

12. The APPENDIX section of a research report contains _____________

A. Key findings of the study

B. Bibliography and Citations
C. Supplementary material that provide additional information
D. Tables, Figures, and Graphs

13. A malnutrition survey was planned to be carried out in southern India by ICMR
team. Prevalence of malnutrition in south India is 22 percent. What should be the
sample size at 1 percent accuracy?

A. 60015
B. 141818
C. 5956
D. 45556

The larger the sample size:

14. Which of the following is correct for the above statement:

A. The smaller is the sample error

B. The lesser is the precision
C. The lower is the confidence level
D. None of the above

15. Which of the following is NOT a type of post hoc test?

A. Dunnett's test
B. Bonferroni
C. Cramér's V
D. Duncan's multiple range test

16. A researcher measured the same group of people’s psychological reactions while on
counselling and compared them to yoga therapy. The resulting data were skewed.
What test should be used to analyze the data?

A. Independent t-test
B. Wilcoxon signed-rank test
C. Dependent (related) t-test
D. Mann–Whitney test

17. Which one of the following designs is adopted when the researcher wishes to test
two different drugs with independent effects on the same population?

A. Randomized clinical trial

B. Non-Randomized clinical trial
C. Cross over trial
D. Factorial trial

Page 5 of 9
PART 1 DATE: 04.05.2024

18. Which of the following defines ‘Anonymity’ in clinical research?

A. Not telling anyone other than those listed on the ethics consent form (signed by
the participants) the names of individuals
B. Not recording the names of individuals or information that could reasonably be
used to identify individuals
C. Not telling anyone other than those listed on the ethics proposal (the document
given to the committee that granted approval) the names of individuals
D. All of these.

19. After conducting a study looking at the effectiveness of Yogasana for stroke
patients, the researcher concludes mistakenly that the Yogasana helped patients do
better on a series of well-being measures when in reality the patients did better
because they had simply had more time to adjust to their condition. Their study
lacks:

A. External validity
B. Internal validity
C. Construct validity
D. Reliability

20. Which of the numbers below might SPSS/Excel report as 10.574 E−05?

A. 0.00010574
B. 10.569
C. 1057400.0
D. 0000.10574

21. Which of the following is NOT true for A Cronbach’s alpha?

A. It is a measure of the internal consistency of a test or scale

B. Cronbach alpha is a measure of validity
C. It is expressed as a number between 0 and 1.
D. Cronbach’s alpha value of .85 for a questionnaire means that the questionnaire
has good reliability.

22. A researcher wishes to conduct a survey of PhD Scholars of a university, to

investigate Knowledge, Attitude and Practice (KAP) of Research publications. She
obtains a list of all of the university’s PhD Scholars, and selects 100 people from the
list using a random number table. What method of sampling method is this?

A. Systematic sampling.
B. Quota sampling.
C. Cluster sampling.
D. Simple random sampling

Page 6 of 9
PART 1 DATE: 04.05.2024

23. Which of the following aspects is a disadvantage of online surveys?

A. The population to which they are distributed cannot be described

B. A questionnaire has to be designed
C. Only people in one geographical area can be researched
D. It is slow and expensive

24. Which type of graph is suitable for displaying one categorical variable?

A. Scattergram
B. Line diagram
C. Pie chart
D. Histogram

25. Atal Innovation Mission, Government of India’s flagship initiative to create and
promote a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship across the length and
breadth of our country is set up under which of the following?

A. NITI Aayog
B. Department of Science and Technology
C. Ministry of Labour and Employment
D. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

26. Independent variables that are not related to the purpose of the study, but may
affect the dependent variable are termed as __________

A. Confounders
B. Extraneous Variables
C. Non-probable variables
D. Experimental variables

27. The Spearman’s rank correlation coefficient is a measure of association that is

based on the ranks of the ____ and not on the numerical values of the data.

A. Observations
B. Relations
C. Variables
D. Medians

28. The objective of _______ analysis is to make a prediction about the dependent
variable based on its covariance with all the concerned independent variables.

A. Multi-ANOVA
B. Canonical
C. Multiple regression
D. Multivariate

Page 7 of 9
PART 1 DATE: 04.05.2024

29. When a probably distorted change in the behaviour of persons or groups is

attributed to their being observed it is known as the ______ effect.

A. Hawthorne
B. Spearman
C. Halo
D. Elevation

30. How often and how much time do you spend on each visit? The statement is an
example of _______ question.

A. Leading
B. Double-barrelled
C. Correct
D. Simple

31. _________ is an internal consistency procedure, used for measuring the reliability
of a research instrument.

A. Test/retest
B. Parallel test
C. The split-half technique
D. Lincon Technique

32. _________ is a reference repository of Ayurveda-Siddha-Unani terminologies and

Morbidity Codes launched by Ministry of Ayush.

A. WHO-ICD 11
B. NAMASTE Portal
C. NIKSHAY
D. PURSE

33. The data and terminology relating to diseases based on Ayurveda, Siddha and
Unani Medicine have been included in the WHO ICD-11 as __________

A. Traditional Medicine Module 1

B. Traditional Medicine Module 2
C. Traditional Medicine Module 11
D. Traditional Medicine Module 10

34. _________ is also known as an Ogive

A. Scatter Diagram
B. Frequency Polygon
C. Cumulative Frequency Diagram
D. Frequency Curve

Page 8 of 9
PART 1 DATE: 04.05.2024

35. Reporting guidelines for reporting randomized trials is _________

A. PRISMA Guidelines
B. CONSORT Guidelines
C. CARE Guidelines
D. STROBE Guidelines

36. In Clinical trials, safety and tolerability of a new treatment are evaluated in which
of the following phases

A. Phase I
B. Phase II
C. Phase III
D. Phase IV

37. Which of the following is NOT the main focus area of WHO Global Centre for
Traditional Medicine (GCTM)?

A. Evidence and learning

B. Gender equality
C. Sustainability and equity
D. Data and analytics

38. The computational methodology that tries to identify the best matching between
two molecules, a ligand and receptor are known as _______?

A. Molecular matching
B. Molecule affinity checking
C. Molecular docking
D. Molecular fitting

39. IMPPAT is ________

A. Largest database for systematic reviews in health care

B. Largest database on phytochemicals of Indian medicinal plants to date
C. Largest prospective series and most extensive phase III trials
D. Medical research database for high-quality, comprehensive evidence

40. As per CPCSEA guidelines, the usage of animals of experiments, which of the
following should be first considered for any experimental procedure _______

A. Animals lowest on the phylogenetic scale which may give scientifically valid
results
B. Animals highest on the phylogenetic scale which may give scientifically valid
results
C. Animals intermediate on the phylogenetic scale which may give scientifically
valid results
D. None of the above

** * **
Page 9 of 9
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

QUESTION BOOKLET
Part 2
Ph.D. Entrance Examination 2024-25
01. AYURVEDA SAMHITA & SIDDHANTA

Name of the Candidate: _________________________________

Roll No. of Candidate: ___________________________________

Signature of Candidate: __________________________________

Signature of Invigilator: __________________________________

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
QUESTION BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED TO TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC.
IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE QUESTION BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to fill in the roll number, subject etc carefully and without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR answer Sheet. Any omission/Discrepancy will
render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Roll No and signature on the Question Booklet. DO NOT write anything else on
the question booklet
4. This question booklet contains 30 Questions. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. 01
mark will be given for each correct response.
5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS: There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by a candidate.
a. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
b. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will same penalty as above to that question.
c. If a question is left blank, i.e. No answer is given by the candidate, there will no penalty for that question
6. The duration of the Entrance Examination (for both Part 1 & 2) will be 75 minutes
7. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the provided OMR answer sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR answer sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator OMR Answer sheet and Question Booklet.
9. Blank page at the end of the question booklet may be used for rough work.

Page 1 of 8
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

Page 2 of 8
 PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

41. As per Acharya Charaka, following is advised in Raktapitta Chikitsa

A. मृदुमधुरशिशिरशिक्तकषायै रभ्यवहाययैः
B. शिग्धमधुरशिशिरशिक्तकषायैरभ्यवहाययैः
C. मृदुमधुरशिक्तकषायैरभ्यवहाययैः
D. मधुरशिक्तकषायैरभ्यवहाययैः

42. As per Charaka, ‘िमसश्चाशिदिशनम्’ is mentioned in the context of

A. Murcha
B. Raktapradoshaja roga
C. Apasmara
D. Sannipataja jwara

43. As per Charaka, ‘दोषाैः सन्दू ष्य शिष्ठन्ति रजोमोहावृिात्मनैः ’ is said in the context of ______
A. Mada-murcha-sanyasa
B. Apasmara
C. Atatvabhinivesha
D. Tandra

44. ‘_______ शवद् युिैः पािु _______स्तनशयत्नवैः Fill in the blanks

A. उदानं and समानं
B. अग्नी and वायु
C. वैश्वानरः and ववष्णु
D. सय
ू ो and चन्द्रमाः

45. As per Acharya Sushruta, among four ‘चचकित्साबीज’ the word ’औषध’ includes:
A. Dravya-Rasa-Guna-Virya-Vipaka-Prabhava
B. Rasa-Guna-Virya-Vipaka-Prabhava
C. Dravya-Rasa-Guna-Virya-Vipaka
D. Rasa-Guna-Virya-Vipaka

46. ‘असाधारणेन कारणेनेन्तियेण व्यपशदष्टा बुद्धय’ is called as ________

A. Indriya-buddhi
B. Pratyaksha
C. Yukti
D. Mano-buddhi
47. ‘इहागमनशमिश्च्युिानाशमशि’ is an example for
A. लक्षणोत्पशि
B. जाशिस्मरण
C. अनुमान
D. युन्तक्त

Page 3 of 8
 PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

48. ‘सोऽयमनुपियाि् पञ्चशवधन्तिशवधशवकल्पो भवशि’ is said with respect to _______

A. Asatmya-indriyartha-samyoga
B. Panchamahabhuta
C. Upashaya - Anupashaya
D. Panchapanchaka
49. ‘श्रवणं चाभ्युदयानां ’ is considered as Upakrama for _________
A. Vata
B. Pitta
C. Kapha
D. Agantuja-vyadhi

50. “िं शिष्यगुरुसब्रह्मचाररशवशिष्टश्रेयोशथशशभरनसूयुशभरभ्युपेयाि् ” is mentioned in _______

A. Nyayadasrhana
B. Vaisheshika darshana
C. Sankhyakarika
D. Tarkasangraha
51. “सूत्रहे िुप्रस्तावेन यत्रान्यत्प्रकरणम्” is the characteristic of __________
A. ववभव
B. प्रयोजनव्याख्या
C. उपनय
D. व्याहत

52. As per आयुवेद रसायन टीिा meaning of “हृदरव” mentioned in िफ क्षीण लक्षण is ______
A. शिशथलेव द्रवत्वं हृदयस्य
B. अनुकम्पयेव पीडा हृदयस्य
C. कंपनेव ग्लाशन हृदयस्य
D. बाहुल्याि् द्रवत्वम् हृदयस्य
53. As per Sarvanga Sundara Teeka “शवन्तिन्नं िूलम्” is ________
A. स्रन्स
B. अङ्गभङ्ग
C. व्यध
D. िोद
54. “पादत्राणं च सवशदा” is indicated in ________ ऋतुचयाा
A. ग्रीष्म
B. वषाश
C. वसि
D. हे मि

Page 4 of 8
 PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

55. Quantity of हे मचण

ू ा indicated post संशोधन to the patient who have ingested ववष as per
Ashtanga Hridaya is ________
A. 2 तोला
B. 1 शाण
C. 8 माषा
D. 1 रत्ती

56. कफवािानुबद्धाऽऽमशलङ्गा ित्समसाधना is the characteristic of ___________

A. रसिेषाजीणश
B. शवसुशचका
C. शवलन्तिका
D. अलसक

57. सन्तिग्धमुग्धवाक् छिानुवशिशनो दाराैः is indicated in __________

A. दशक्षण शदिा वायु लक्षण
B. वसि ऋिुचयाश
C. शपिस्योपक्रम
D. रसायन लाभ

58. सा यस्या उपलभ्यते ननममत्तं यथोक्तं ननदानेषु is _____ type of वविृनत as per Charaka.
A. लक्षण ननममत्ता
B. लक्ष्यननममत्ता
C. ननममत्तानुरूपा
D. प्रत्यात्माननयता

59. As per Acharya Sushruta “िमासाधनहे तवः”

A. व्याचध
B. चतुष्पाद
C. त्रिदोष
D. त्रिस्थूण

60. As per Acharya Sushruta “रागमोहमदद्वे षवशजशिो” is __________

A. वारुणिाय
B. ब्रह्मिाय
C. ऋवषिाय
D. याम्यिाय

Page 5 of 8
 PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

61. The symptom “सुखस्पिशप्रसन्तन्गत्वं दु खद्वे षणलोलिा” arises due to _____________

A. ग्लानन
B. आलस्य
C. क्लम
D. उत्क्लेश

62. िूलचराः, प्लवाः, िोषस्थाः, पाददनो comes under _______

A. प्रतुद वर्ा
B. त्रबलेशय वर्ा
C. जङ्र्ल वर्ा
D. आनप
ु वर्ा

63. “बस्स्ततन्द्िाणां श्रेष्ठं ”, here तन्द्िाणां means as per Chakrapani

A. चचकित्सानां
B. यन्द्िाणां
C. शास्िाणां
D. िमाणां

64. प्रमुख प्रनतबन्द्धि भाव of शुक्रववसर्ा as stated by Chakrapani is _______

A. क्रोध
B. ईष्याा
C. लज्जा
D. शोि

65. “श्रीमि् पाररषदं िस्तं” is the benefit of ________

A. रत्नधारण
B. र्न्द्धमाल्यननषेवनं
C. ननमालाम्बरधारणम ्
D. स्नानं

66. “स्मृशिमिो भन्तक्तमिैः कृिज्ाैः प्राज्ाैः िुचयो महोत्साहा” are the characteristic of____
A. कफज् प्रकृशि
B. सत्वसार पुरुष
C. आचार रसायन लाभ
D. ब्रह्मचयश लाभ

Page 6 of 8
 PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

67. ग्रहे ष्वनुर्ुणेषु is the characteristic of_____________

A. सख
ु साध्य व्याचध
B. कृच्छ्रसाध्य व्याचध
C. याप्य व्याचध
D. अनप
ु क्रम व्याचध

68. Which of these is responsible for “दृशष्टप्रसादपुष्ट्यायुैः ”

A. नस्य िमा
B. अभ्यङ्र्
C. स्नान
D. व्यायाम

69. As per Acharya Vagbhata, ‘िोषाङ्गसादबाशधयशसम्मोहभ्रमहृद्गदाैः ’ are features of ______

A. Trishna vegavarodha
B. Kshudha vegavarodha
C. Kasa vegavarodha
D. Udgara vegavarodha

70. As per Acharya Vagbhata, guna of ‘िोलमज्जा’ is similar to _____________

A. काश्मयशमज्जा
B. शप्रयालमज्जा
C. वािाम
D. िालमज्जा

** * **

Page 7 of 8
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

Page 8 of 8
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

QUESTION BOOKLET
Part 2
Ph.D. Entrance Examination 2024-25
02. Dravyaguna Vigyan

Name of the Candidate: _________________________________

Roll No. of Candidate: ___________________________________

Signature of Candidate: __________________________________

Signature of Invigilator: __________________________________

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
QUESTION BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED TO TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC.
IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE QUESTION BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to fill in the roll number, subject etc carefully and without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR answer Sheet. Any omission/Discrepancy will
render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Roll No and signature on the Question Booklet. DO NOT write anything else on
the question booklet
4. This question booklet contains 30 Questions. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. 01
mark will be given for each correct response.
5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS: There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by a candidate.
a. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
b. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will same penalty as above to that question.
c. If a question is left blank, i.e. No answer is given by the candidate, there will no penalty for that question
6. The duration of the Entrance Examination (for both parts) will be 75 minutes
7. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the provided OMR answer sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR answer sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator OMR Answer sheet and Question Booklet.
9. Blank page at the end of the question booklet may be used for rough work.

Page 1 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

Page 2 of 7
 PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

41. According to Ashtanga Hridaya, which of the following gana is beneficial for Sandhana?

A. Nygrodhadi and Ambashthadi Gana

B. Priyaguvadi and Eladi Gana
C. Mushkakadi and Nygrodhadi Gana
D. Mustadi and Ambashthadi Gana

42. According to Sarvanga Sundara Commentary of Arunadatta on Ashtanga Hridaya,

under Vellantaradi Gana, “Shweta Chamraka” refer to which of the following?

A. Nala
B. Morata
C. Gundra
D. Kasa

43. As per Charaka रूक्षो मदविषघ्नश्च प्रशस्तो रक्तविविनाम् is the property of _________

A. Shati Shaka
B. Tanduleeyaka
C. Vastuka Shaka
D. Kakamachi Shaka

44. According to Shushrut Samhita, Shukanasa, Peelu and Kushta are mentioned in ______

A. Tikta Varga
B. Katu Varga
C. Kashya Varga
D. Madhura Varga

45. Match the Aushadha Sevan Kala with the indications as per Sharangadhara Samhita

Aushaha Sevan Kala Indication

a) Prabhata i) Swarabhanga
b) Bhojana Madhya ii) Apann vayu Vigunata
c) Grasa-Grasantara iii) Lekhana
d) Bhojanaagre iv) Samana Vyau Vigunata

A. a) ii b) i c) iv d) iii
B. a) iii b) ii c) iv d) i
C. a) iii b) iv c) i d) ii
D. a) ii b) iv c) i d) iii

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 PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

46. Match the drugs with their specific pharmacodynamic action

Drug Pharmocodynamic action
a) Acetazolamide i) Selective serotonin Reuptake inhibitor
b) Verapamil ii) Osmotic diuretic
c) Ramipril iii) Potentiate GABAergic inhibition
d) Barbiturates iv) Calcium Channel blocker
v) ACE inhibitor
vi) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

A. a) iii b) vi c) iv d) ii
B. a) vi b) v c) iv d) i
C. a) vi b) iv c) v d) iii
D. a) iii b) iv c) v d) iii

47. According to Ashtanga Sangraha in “Agrya Sangraha” Lasuna is mentioned as ________

A. Kaphavatahara
B. Kapha Gulmahara
C. Gulma vatahara
D. Vrisya Gulmahara

48. स्थल
ू ः स्यात वन्धनकारकः is quoted by Acharya Sushruta depicting which guna and identify its
pathantara in Dalhana teeka?
A. Sthula guna with pathantara Sandra
B. Sthula guna with pathantara Shushka
C. Sandra guna with pathantara Shushka
D. Sandra guna with pathantara Sthula

49. वष्ृ यं रुचिकरं प्रोक्तं धातुपुचिचववधधनम् is said for _______ by Bhava Mishra?
A. Alabu
B. Karkati
C. Kushmanda
D. Kushmandi

50. CDX (Cell line-derived xenograft) model & PDX (Patient-derived xenograft) mouse
models are examples of Xenotransplantation models used for _______

A. Animal models in AIDS research

B. Animal models for West Nile Virus (WNV) research
C. Animal models for Covid-19 research
D. Animal models in Cancer research

Page 4 of 7
 PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

51. A patient of Peptic ulcer has earlier prescribed with 3 drug regimens therapy which
includes a Proton Pump Inhibitor (PPI), two antimicrobials including metronidazole at
the dose of 400 mg TDS. Unfortunately, due to faulty lifestyle; complete eradication of H.
Pylori is not possible and she is still suffering from the acute symptoms of the disease. In
this scenario, what should be the drug of choice by a Gastroenterologist for complete
eradication of the gram-negative bacillus in the Quadruple therapy?

A. Sucralfate at the dose of 1g, one hour before 3 measure meals

B. Colloidal Bismuth Subcitrate (CBS) at the dose of 60 mg QID before food
C. Sucralfate at the dose of 2g, in empty stomach, before three measure meals
D. Colloidal Bismuth Subcitrate (CBS) at the dose of 120 mg QID after food

52. Nakshatra Vriksha are mentioned in __ varga of Abhidhana chudamani

A. Anupadi
B. Dharanyadi
C. Shatavahadi
D. Guduchydi

53. According to Ashtanga Sangraha, _____ is mentioned in the Jwarahara Mahakashaya

A. Padmaka
B. Amruta
C. Nagara
D. Musta

54. Identify the herb with indication: ननहनन्त हृद्रुजाध्मानकण्डूशल

ू ोदरापच ः
A. Terminalia arjuna (Roxb.) Wight & Arn.
B. Rubia cordifolia L.
C. Achyranthes aspera L.
D. Ferula asafoetida

55. In the given question two facts are mentioned. Read the facts I & II and match them
appropriately.
I) Musta, Shati, Ela, Tagara, Kushta, Haridra are components of Sarvoshadhi
varga of Kaiyadeva Nighantu.
II) In Kaiyadeva Nighantu, the description of Sugandhaamlaka gana is also
mentioned.

A. Both I and II are True

B. I is correct but II is False
C. I is false and II is True
D. Both I and II are false

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 PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

56. Pravala Phala (प्रवालफल) is a synonym of _________

A. Terminalia arjuna L.
B. Caesalpinia sappan Linn.
C. Pterocarpus santalinus Linn. f.
D. Prunus puddum Roxb. ex Wall.

57. Which one is the potential metabolite of Bromhexine, derived from Adhatoda vasica and
used worldwide for the prevention and treatment of Covid-19 due to their interactions
with the cell receptors in the lungs?
A. Vasicine
B. Guaifenesin
C. Vascinone
D. Ambroxol

58. What is the substitute drug of Mustaka as per Bhavaprakasha?

A. Ativisha
B. Haridra
C. Dhataki
D. Nala

59. Fill in the blank. __________ Shonitapittatiyoga prashamananam

A. Gandhapriyangu
B. Kashmaryaphala
C. Ananta
D. Shalaparni

60. As per Raja Nighantu ____ type of Rasna is considered as Madhyama?

A. Moola Rasna
B. Patra Rasna
C. Kanda Rasna
D. Trina Rasna

61. Which varga is not mentioned in Dhanwantari Nighantu?

A. Karaviradi varga
B. Pippalyadi varga
C. Suvarnadi varga
D. Amradi varga

62. Bhallataka and Ashmantaka are included in which Mahakashaya of Charaka Samhita?
A. Purish Sangrahaniya
B. Mutra Samgrahaniya
C. Purish Virajaniya
D. Mutra Virajaniya
E.
63. Which type of stomata is found in Leaf of Adhatoda vasica?
A. Paracytic
B. Diacytic
C. Anisocytic
D. Anomocytic

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 PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

64. Amlodipine comes under which class of Antihypertensive drug?

A. Direct renin inhibitor
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Calcium channel blocker
D. Beta -adrenergic blocker

65. ________ is used in Chronic Gout but is not uricosuric?

A. Colchicine
B. Allopurinol
C. Probenecid
D. Sulfinpyrazone

66. Which of the following tree species is considered as one of the accepted sources of
Meshshringi?
A. Dolichondron falcata Seem
B. Gymnema sylvestre R.B
C. Pistacia integerima
D. Salvia plebeia R.B.

67. __________ is not considered as source plant of Pashanabheda

A. Rotula aquatica Lour
B. Kalanchoe pinnata Pers
C. Ocimum basilicum Linn
D. Carthamus tinctorius Linn

68. In the given question choose the correct options:

a. Prazosin is a highly selective alpha 1 blocker
b. Timolol is selective Beta 1 blocker
c. Sulfasalazine is anti-rheumatoid drug
d. Ergotamine is a specific Antimigraine drug

A. a, b and c Only
B. a, c and d Only
C. d and c Only
D. b and d Only

69. Literary work, computer programs and musical composition are come under the purview
of which type of IPR?
A. Patent
B. Geographical Indication (GI)
C. Trademark
D. Copy Right

70. The drug employed for anti-H pylori therapy include the following except?
A. Clarithromycin
B. Metronidazole
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Amoxycillin

** * **
Page 7 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

QUESTION BOOKLET
Part 2
Ph.D. Entrance Examination 2024-25
03. KAUMARABHRITYA

Name of the Candidate: _________________________________

Roll No. of Candidate: ___________________________________

Signature of Candidate: __________________________________

Signature of Invigilator: __________________________________

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
QUESTION BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED TO TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC.
IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE QUESTION BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to fill in the roll number, subject etc carefully and without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR answer Sheet. Any omission/Discrepancy will
render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Roll No and signature on the Question Booklet. DO NOT write anything else on
the question booklet
4. This question booklet contains 30 Questions. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. 01
mark will be given for each correct response.
5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS: There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by a candidate.
a. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
b. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will same penalty as above to that question.
c. If a question is left blank, i.e. No answer is given by the candidate, there will no penalty for that question
6. The duration of the Entrance Examination (for both the parts) will be 75 minutes
7. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the provided OMR answer sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR answer sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator OMR Answer sheet and Question Booklet.
9. Blank page at the end of the question booklet may be used for rough work.

Page 1 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

Page 2 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

41. As per Acharya Kashyapa, “Lohitam” in Garbha (fetus) is derived from ____ bhava?

A. Matrija
B. Pitrija
C. Rasaja
D. Satmyaja

42. Which of the following Udara (abdomen) is considered prashashta (praised) as per
Acharya Kashyapa in a child?

A. With single abdominal crease (ek valikam)

B. With double abdominal crease (Dwi valikam)
C. With three abdominal creases (Tri valikam)
D. With many abdominal creases (Bahu valikam)

43. Branched-chain keto-acids are excreted in urine in ____________.

A. Maple Syrup Urine Disease

B. Hartnup Disease
C. Albinism
D. Alkaptonuria

44. Sine wave pattern in ECG is seen in which of the following Condition?

A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypercalcemia

45. As per Acharya Charaka, “Durgandhita stanyapana” causes __________

A. Karshya
B. Hridroga
C. Pandu-Kamala
D. Atisara

46. As per Ashtanga Hridya “Sarvameva hi Moordhadhaira gyane cha sukhahdukhayo”

(सर्वमेर् हि मू र्धव र्ैर्ज्धव ने च सुख: दु खयो) is related to ________ month of pregnancy?
A. Second
B. Third
C. Fourth
D. Fifth

47. As per Kashyapa, Dukhat stri tatra jeevati: is the feature of which Jatiharini?

A. Parisruta
B. Mohini
C. Vikuta
D. Kalaratri

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PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

48. According to Kashyapa Samhita, “Sheeghra krodha prasadwana” is the feature of

which of the following satva?

A. Aarsha satva
B. Varuna satva
C. Yamya satva
D. Aindra satva

49. As per Acharya Kashyapa, Dhatri dvesha is a feature seen in which of the following
condition?

A. Jwara
B. Visuchika
C. Madatyaya
D. Kamala

50. According to Ashtanga Hridaya, Pathology in Bala shosha is _____________

A. Mamsavaha sroto rodha by Kapha dosha

B. Rasa vaha sroto rodha by vata dosha
C. Rasa vaha sroto rodha by kapha dosha
D. Mamsavaha sroto rodha by vata dosha

51. As per Kahsyapa Samhita the properties like Asha, Dharma, Kripa and Sneha will
be imparted to child by which of the following?

A. Stanya
B. Samskara
C. Dhatri
D. Lehana

52. According to Kashyapa Samhita “निनि स्नेह निमर्द िम्” to a child is indicated in which
of the following condition?
A. Mukha mandika Graha
B. Arumshika
C. Duhsaha Graha
D. Dadru

53. Uthpata Roga has been explained in relation to _____ of the following as per
Kashyapa ?
A. Arakeelaka
B. Guda Roags
C. Charma dala
D. Graha Roga

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PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

54. According to Kashyapa Samhita, Mother or the child visualizing the carnivorous
birds in their dream is the Arista Lakshana of which of the following graha?

A. Mukha mandika Graha

B. Sakuni Graha
C. Skanda Graha
D. Pithru Graha

55. According to Kashyapa, the clinical feature ि च क्षीिनि is observed in which of the
following paediatric disease?

A. Pratishyaya
B. Kukkunaka
C. Pothaki
D. Adi jihwaka

56. As per Kahsyapa, Deshantara gamana (Change of living place) is the treatment
principle of which of the following condition?

A. Prameha
B. Masurika
C. Romantika
D. Amla pitta

57. Most common pathogen, which cause the viral warts in children is _________

A. Ebstein bar virus

B. Human papilloma virus
C. Parvo virus
D. Entero virus

58. Steinberg sign is used to clinically diagnose which of the following condition?

A. Marfan syndrome
B. Homocysteinurea
C. Klinefelter syndrome
D. Williams syndrome

59. According to Acharya Atreya Punarvasu Anuvasana Basti in children should be

given at the age of ___________

A. Since Birth
B. 1 Month of Age
C. 4 Month of Age
D. 1 Year of Age

Page 5 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

60. According to Kashyapa Samhita, “Trisama Gutika” is administrated in which time

period of day to get relief from Sotha?

A. Morning
B. Afternoon
C. Evening
D. At bed time

61. According to Astanga Hridaya, हर्जृम्भिकध is the clinical feature seen in which for
the following condition?

A. Skanda Graha
B. Charmakila
C. Ksheeralaska
D. Vyadhija Phakka

62. According to Charakdutta, Kekishikhamul (केहकहिखधमूल) is externally tied on

which part of the body in Ahinidika disease?

A. Bahu Pardesh
B. Jaghan Pradesh
C. Shiro Pradesh
D. Apanga Pradesh

63. According to Bhaishajya Ratnawali, Rajakksharoudaka Snana (रजकक्षधरोदकस्नधन)

is mentioned under the treatment of which disease?

A. Atyaya Roga
B. Ahindika Roga
C. Anamaka Roga
D. Ulvanashana

64. According to Bhaishajya Ratnavali, ____ the Anupana of Kumara Kalayana Rasa?

A. Ksheera Madhu
B. Ksheera Sarpi
C. Ksheera Sita
D. Madhu Sarpi

65. तत्क्षीरपो बहुव्यधहर्: is feature found in ________ due to ingestion of milk in children?

A. Parigarbhika
B. Rajyakshama
C. Balgraha
D. Phakka

Page 6 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

66. Dysmetria is ____________

A. Errors in judging distance.

B. An inability to inhibit a muscular action.
C. An impaired performance of rapid alternating movements
D. Inability to walk straight forward.

67. Dosha involved in Ajagallika

A. Kapha Vata
B. Kapharakta
C. Pittarakta
D. Kapha

68. Which of the following is FALSE regarding Mitochondrial Inheritance?

A. All affected daughters transmit the disease

B. The inheritance is maternal
C. Affected sons transmit the disease
D. Sons are affected but do not transmit the disease

69. According to Ashtangahridaya, अक्षिक्षििपेिक्रिक्त्रत्िरक्तता: is found in _________

A. Sandapasmara
B. Naigmesha
C. Skanda
D. Revati

70. Triad of situs inversus, pansinusitis, and bronchiectasis is characteristic feature of

which disease?

A. Primary ciliary dyskinesia

B. Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia
C. Endobronchial Mass Lesions
D. Interstitial Emphysema

** * **

Page 7 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

QUESTION BOOKLET
Part 2
Ph.D. Entrance Examination 2024-25
04. KAYA CHIKITSA

Name of the Candidate: _________________________________

Roll No. of Candidate: ___________________________________

Signature of Candidate: __________________________________

Signature of Invigilator: __________________________________

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
QUESTION BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED TO TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC.
IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE QUESTION BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to fill in the roll number, subject etc carefully and without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR answer Sheet. Any omission/Discrepancy will
render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Roll No and signature on the Question Booklet. DO NOT write anything else on
the question booklet
4. This question booklet contains 30 Questions. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. 01
mark will be given for each correct response.
5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS: There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by a candidate.
a. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
b. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will same penalty as above to that question.
c. If a question is left blank, i.e. No answer is given by the candidate, there will no penalty for that question
6. The duration of the Entrance Examination (for both the parts) will be 75 minutes
7. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the provided OMR answer sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR answer sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator OMR Answer sheet and Question Booklet.
9. Blank page at the end of the question booklet may be used for rough work.

Page 1 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

Page 2 of 7
 PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

41. Vaatonmaade Trasanam (वातोन्मादे त्रासनम) is an example of ____ type of Upashaya (उपशय)?

A. Hetu Viparita Vihara (हे तु विपरीत विहार)

B. Hetu-vyadhi Viparit Vihara (हे तु-व्यावि विपरीत विहार)
C. Hetu Viparitarthakari Vihara (हे तु विपरीतार्थ कारी विहार)
D. Hetu-vyadhi Viparitarthkari Vihara (हे तुव्यावि विपरीतार्थकारी विहार)
42. As per current guidelines, ___ of the following is the correct compression depth for adult CPR.
A. 1 inch (2.5 centimetres)
B. 2 inches (5 centimetres)
C. 3 inches (7.5 centimetres)
D. 4 inches (10 centimetres)
43. According to Sushruta, fill in the blank with the most appropriate option from below:

सर्वथा ________ सर्ं ग्रहणीरोगिणाां गहतम् |

A. Deepanam दीपनं
B. Pachanam पाचनं
C. Graahi ग्राही
D. Anulomanam अनु लोमनं
44. A 35-year-old woman presents with a variety of symptoms including fainting spells, giddiness,
colic, burning sensation, and craving for cold things. She also experiences vomiting of acidic
gastric material and burning sensation. What is the likely diagnosis based on Ayurvedic
principles of Avarana (आवरण) of Vata (वात) ?

A. Avarana of Prana (प्राण) by Pitta (गित)

B. Avarana of Udana (उदान) by Pitta (गित)
C. Avarana of Samana (समान) by Pitta (गित)
D. Avarana of Apana (अिान) by Pitta (गित)
45. Which type of stem cell is commonly used in therapeutic applications due to its ability to
differentiate into various cell types?
A. Embryonic stem cells
B. Mesenchymal stem cells
C. Hematopoietic stem cells
D. Neural stem cells
46. According to Charaka, Langhana is indicated in which type of Hridroga?
A. Krimijanya Hridroga
B. Paittika Hridroga
C. Kaphaja Hridroga
D. Sannipataja Hridroga

Page 3 of 7
 PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

47. According to Charaka, if a patient of Kaphaja Kasa develops Tamaka Shwasa due to association
of Pitta, then he should be treated according to _______
A. Tamaka Shwasa chikitsa
B. Pittaja Kasa Chikitsa
C. Kaphaja Kasa chikitsa
D. Pitta-Kapha Nashaka chikitsa
48. “Egg shell calcification” in the hilar lymph node is the distinctive feature of _________
A. Silicosis
B. Asbestosis
C. Pulmonary Tuberculosis
D. Coal Worker’s Pneumoconiosis
49. According to Charaka, if a Pittaja Chardi patient is having excessive Pitta accumulated in
Amashaya then __________
A. Virechana should be given with madhura dravya
B. Vamana should be given with madhura dravya
C. Virechana should be given with Tikta dravya
A. D. Tarpana should be given with madhura dravya
50. According to Charaka, मोचरस ससद्ध क्षीर (Mocharasa Siddha Kshira) is indicated in _______

A. मू त्रमािवित रक्तगित्त (Mutra-margagata Raktapitta)

B. िुदमािवित रक्तगित्त (Guda-margagata Raktapitta)
C. उभयमािवित रक्तगित्त (Ubhaya-margagata Raktapitta)
D. सर्वित रक्तगित्त (Sarvagata Raktapitta)
51. Which one is correct regarding the complications of Shotha as per Charaka ?
A. Chhardi, Shwasa, Kasa, Aruchi, Trishana, Jvara, Atisara & Daurbalya
B. Chhardi, Shwasa, Aruchi, Trishana, Jvara, Atisara & Daurbalya
C. Hikka, Shwasa, Aruchi, Trishana, Jvara, Atisara & Daurbalya
D. Chhardi, Shwasa, Aruchi, Trishana, Jvara, Atisara & Pinasa
52. According to Charaka, the prodromal features व्रणामासिकम् शुलम् शीघ्रोत्पसिसिरस्थिसत:
(Vranamdhikam shulam Shighrotpattishchirasthitih) is mentioned in reference of ________
A. कुष्ठ (Kustha)
B. शोथ (Shotha)
C. गर्द्रधी (Vidradhi)
D. व्रण (Vrana)
53. As per Charaka, पञ्चाम्लक (Panchamalaka) as local application around oral cavity is indicated
in __________

A. ग्रहणी रोि (Grahni Roga)

B. दू षी गर्ष (Dushi Visha)
C. अरोचक (Arochaka)
D. मदात्यय- तृष्णा (Madatyaya-Trishna)

Page 4 of 7
 PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

54. Acharya Sushruta advocated Shatpala Ghrita (षटपल घृ त) in the management of __________

A. प्रमे ह रोि (Prameha Roga)

B. गर्सिव रोि (Visarpa Roga)
C. उदर रोि (Udara Roga)
D. कुष्ठ रोि (Kustha Roga)
55. According to Charaka, “Bhuktasya Sthambhanam” which of the following condition?
A. Apabahuka
B. Bhasmaka Roga
C. Raktagata Vata
D. Amlapitta
56. According to Charaka, the etiological factor “Virrudhanam ch sevanam” is mentioned in the
context of which of the following Strotodushti:
A. Vatavaha Strotas
B. Rasavaha Strotas
C. Artavavaha Strotas
D. Majjavaha Strotas
57. According to Ashtangahridaya, “Kapolagala dahakrut” is induced by ___________ Rasa?
A. Madhura rasa
B. Katu Rasa
C. Amla Rasa
D. Lavana Rasa
58. According to Charaka, “Krite api akrita sanjakah (कृतेऽप्यकृतसञ्ज्ञः )” is mentioned in the
context of __________
A. Gulma
B. Mutrashukra
C. Kaphaja Atisara
D. Sannipataja Arshas
59. Hyperuricaemia is the finding of ____________
A. Ankylosing Spondylosis
B. Gouty Arthritis
C. Rieter’s Disease
D. Raynauds Phenomenon
60. CA-125 is the tumor marker for Cancer of ___________
A. Breast
B. Ovary
C. Brain
D. Testicles

Page 5 of 7
 PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

61. According to Acharya Susruta, “Phena Meha” Management Consists of ___________

A. Triphala +Aragwadha +Mridvika
B. Durva + Shaivala+Karanja
C. Pata+ Agaru+Haridra
D. Saptaparni+Nimba+haridra
62. Acharya Charaka explained Hreeberadi Ghritha in the Rogadhikara of _________
A. Arsha
B. Rakta Pitta
C. Sopha
D. Vata Rakta
63. According to Ashtanga Hridaya, the time of administration of ‘Nasya’ in Manyasthambha is ___

A. Pratah kala प्रात: काल

B. Sayampratah सायम् प्रातः
C. Sayamnisih सायम् वनवि:
D. Nisih वनवि:
64. As per Sushruta, in ‘Utsanna Mamsa Sopha’ _________ is indicated.
A. Jalookavacharana जलू कािचरण
B. Vamana िमन
C. Swedana स्वेदन
D. Lepana ले पन
65. As per Sushruta, ‘Paneeya kshara’ is indicated in the treatment of _________

A. Bhagandara भगंदर
B. Arbuda अर्ुथद
C. Arsas अिथ स
D. Charmakeela चमव कील
66. As per Charaka, Bidalika Sopha located in ___________
A. Gala Sandhi
B. Shira Parswa
C. Danta Mamsagata
D. Asthi Sandhi
67. As per Madhava Nidana, ‘Neeruja mandalam gaatre’ is the lakshana of _________
A. Neelika
B. Vyanga
C. Nyaccha
D. Tilakalaka

Page 6 of 7
 PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

68. According to Vaghbhata, Swara Kshaya is the symptom of _______ Dhatugata Kushta.
A. Twak gata
B. Mamsa gata
C. Asthi majja gata
D. Rakta gata
69. According to Charaka, which of the following Drug is used for vamana in ‘amasayagata
kaphapittaja vyadhi (अमास्यागत कफसपिज व्यासि') ?
A. Triphala
B. Danti
C. Bimbi
D. Nimba
70. According to Charaka, Prameha pidaka that occurs in ‘prishte vaa api udare api vaa ('पृ ष्ठे वा
असप उदारे असप वा')’ is __________
A. Alaji
B. Vinata
C. Sarshapi
D. Kacchapi

** * **

Page 7 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

QUESTION BOOKLET
Part 2
Ph.D. Entrance Examination 2024-25
05. KRIYA SHARIRA

Name of the Candidate: _________________________________

Roll No. of Candidate: ___________________________________

Signature of Candidate: __________________________________

Signature of Invigilator: __________________________________

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
QUESTION BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED TO TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC.
IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE QUESTION BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to fill in the roll number, subject etc carefully and without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR answer Sheet. Any omission/Discrepancy will
render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Roll No and signature on the Question Booklet. DO NOT write anything else on
the question booklet
4. This question booklet contains 30 Questions. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. 01
mark will be given for each correct response.
5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS: There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by a candidate.
a. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
b. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will same penalty as above to that question.
c. If a question is left blank, i.e. No answer is given by the candidate, there will no penalty for that question
6. The duration of the Entrance Examination (for both parts) will be 75 minutes
7. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the provided OMR answer sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR answer sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator OMR Answer sheet and Question Booklet.
9. Blank page at the end of the question booklet may be used for rough work.

Page 1 of 8
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

Page 2 of 8
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

41. According to Acharya Charaka, among the following sentences, which of the following is
TRUE ?
A. सुखान्वितं is the characteristic feature of Dhatusaamya (धातुसाम्य)
B. सख
ु ान्वितं is the characteristic feature of Satva Saara (सत्त्िसार)
C. सख
ु ान्वितं is the characteristic feature of Vishuddha Rakta Purush (विशद्
ु धरक्तं परु
ु ष)
D. सुखान्वितं is the characteristic feature of Susamhata Shareera (सुसंहतशरीरााः)

42. In this question, two statements are given. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) आमाशयाः श्लेष्मस्थानम, वपत्ताशयस्योपररष्टात ्
Reason (R) तत्प्रत्प्यनीकत्प्िादर्धू िवगततत्प्िात्तेजसाः, चवर इि आददत्प्यस्य
In light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below,
as per Sushruta Samhita:

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true but (R) is false
D. (A) is false but (R) is true

43. Considering the Charaka Samhita, fill in the blanks with the correct choices:
Kshama (क्षमा) is the characteristic feature of _______,
Prasanna snigdha varna swara (रसवनन्स्नग्धिर्वस्िरा) of ____________,
Aklesha sahishnu (अक्लेशसदहष्र्)ु of ___________ and
Kleshsaha (क्लेशसहााः) of ___________

A. Rakta Saara, Meda Saara, Asthi Saara, Majja Saara

B. Mamsa Saara, Meda Saara, Majja Saara, Asthi Saara
C. Mamsa Saara, Shukra Saara, Rakta Saara, Asthi Saara
D. Asthi Saara, Shukra Saara, Rasa Saara, Majja Saara
44. According to Commentator Chakrapani on Charaka Samhita, what explains “सुखश्च
कालयोगाः” as one of the Bala Vriddhikara Bhaava (बलिद्
ृ धधकरा भािा:)
A. सुखश्च कालो हे मवतशशशशराददरूपाः
B. सुखश्च कालयोग इतत साधारर्कालयोगाः
C. सुखश्च कालयोग इतत पररर्ाम
D. सुखश्च कालयोग इतत िद्
ृ धधकारकयौिनाददकालयोगाः

Page 3 of 8
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

45. In context of “मनोविषय”, according to Chakrapani commentary on Charaka Samhita,

which among the following is TRUE?
A. सङ्कल्प्यं गर्
ु ित्तया दोषित्तया िाऽिधारर्ाविषयम ्
B. सङ्कल्प्यं कतवव्यतया अकतवव्यतया िा यवमनसा धचवत्प्यते
C. सङ्कल्प्यं भािनाज्ञानविषयम ्
D. र्धयेयं उपपत्त्यनुपपवत्तभयां यद्विमश्ृ यते

46. According to Acharya Sushruta, “Angamard (अङ्गमदव )”, is the symptom of which of the
following?
A. Vata Vriddhi
B. Artava Vriddhi
C. Purisha Vriddhi
D. Stanya Vriddhi

47. According to Ashtanga Sangraha, “गभावददशभतनस्सत

ृ स्याहाररसस्य मलााः सम्भिन्वत” has
been said for which of the following?
A. राकृत दोषा:
B. िैकृत दोषा:
C. राकृत धातु
D. िैकृत धातु

48. Which one of the following is NOT True in context of Marey’s Reflex?
A. Baroreceptors regulate the heart rate through Marey reflex
B. Marey reflex is a cardioinhibitory reflex
C. Marey reflex includes aortic reflex and carotid sinus reflex
D. Baroreceptors induce the Marey reflex during physical exertion

49. In context of action of antibodies through Complement system, what does Opsonization
mean?
A. Attraction of leukocytes to the site of antigen-antibody reaction
B. Activation of neutrophils and macrophages to engulf the bacteria, which are
bound with a protein
C. Clumping of foreign bodies
D. Activation of mast cells and basophils

Page 4 of 8
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

50. “सत्प्या बुद्धधररिागता” has been quoted by Acharya Charaka, in context to _________
A. Samyak Nidra
B. Satva Gunodaya
C. Naishthiki Chikitsa
D. Satvavajaya Chikitsa

51. According to Acharya Charaka, “लेखास्थित्त

ृ ”ं , is the characteristic feature of __________
Manasa Satva?
A. याम्य सत्त्िं
B. िारुर् सत्त्िं
C. कौबेर सत्त्िं
D. गावधिव सत्त्िं

52. Chakrapani commenting on Charaka Samhita, explains the term “सारमादौ गभवस्य”, in
context of Oja as __________
A. महाफलााः
B. रससाररूपतया
C. स्िलक्षर्युक्तम
D. शुक्रशोणर्तसाररूपतया

53. According to Charaka Samhita, the feature ममावण्यतततनपीडयन ् is stated for ________

A. िातश्लेष्म क्षीर्, िद्

ृ ध वपत्त (Vatashleshma kshina, Vridha Pitta)
B. िातश्लेष्म िद्
ृ ध, क्षीर् वपत्त (Vatashleshma Vruddha, Kshina Pitta)
C. वपत्त श्लेष्म क्षीर्, िद्
ृ ध िात (Pitta Shleshma kshena, Vriddha Vata)
D. वपत्त श्लेष्म िद्
ृ ध, क्षीर् िात (Pitta Shleshma Vriddha, Kshina Vata)

54. According to Sushruta, “रजागरर्” is the symptom found in _________

A. िात िद्
ृ धध (Vata Vriddhi)
B. वपत्त क्षय (Pitta Kshaya)
C. वपत्त िद्
ृ धध (Pitta Vriddhi)
D. कफ़ क्षय (Kapha Kshaya)

Page 5 of 8
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

55. As mentioned by Sushruta Samhita, महानुदकसञ्चयोऽततिद्

ृ धाः analogy is mentioned to
describe which Kriyakala?
A. स्थानसंश्रय (Sthanasamshraya)
B. संचय (Sanchaya)
C. रकोप (Prakopa)
D. रसर (Prasara)

56. According to Charaka, भीरुं भीषतयतारं is the characteristic features of ____ Satva

A. पैशाच (Paishacha)
B. सपव (Sarpa)
C. राक्षस (Rakshasa)
D. िारुर् (Varuna)

57. The Guna responsible for शशधथलमद

ृ स
ु न्वधमांसााः in Pitta Prakriti, as per Charaka is ____
A. तीक्ष्र् (Tikshna)
B. रि (Drava)
C. उष्र् (Ushna)
D. अम्ल (Amla)

58. In context of Endocytosis, which of the following statement is true?

A. Includes phagocytosis and pinocytosis, but not clathrin mediated or caveolae-
dependent uptake of extra cellular contents
B. Refers to merging of an intracellular vesicle with the plasma membrane to deliver
intracellular contents to the extracellular milieu
C. Refers to the invagination of the plasma membrane to uptake extracellular
contents into the cell
D. Refers to vesicular trafficking between Golgi stacks

59. Mean arterial pressure is ______________

A. Systolic BP + (Diastolic BP)/2
B. Systolic BP + 1/3rd Pulse Pressure
C. Diastolic BP + (Systolic BP)/2
D. Diastolic BP + 1/3rd Pulse Pressure

Page 6 of 8
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

60. According to Sushruta, the symptom ANNADWESHA is found in _____ Kriyakala

A. Prathama
B. Dwitiya
C. Tritiya
D. Chaturtha

61. According to Ashtanga Hridaya, ____________ of the following condition is characterized

by Tushti Pushti Balodaya
A. Ojo Vyapada
B. Ojo Visramsa
C. Oja Kshaya
D. Oja Vriddhi

62. According to Sushruta, ____ is the site of skin layer for the manifestation of Bhagandara
A. Rohini
B. Mamsadhara
C. Vedini
D. Shweta
63. As mentioned by Acharya Sushruta, व्यधथतास्यगतताः is the characteristic feature for ____
A. Pitta Prakriti
B. Vata Prakriti
C. Kapha Prakriti
D. Dwandwaja Prakriti

64. According to the commentary by Chakrapani on Charaka Samhita, _____ of the following
is true for ‘अनासाद्य’ Guna of Vata Dosha.
A. अनासाद्येति लघुत्वेनातनबिडावयत्वेन
B. अनासाद्येति रूक्षत्वेनातनबिडावयत्वेन
C. अनासाद्येति चलत्वेनातनबिडावयत्वेन
D. अनासाद्येति खरत्वेनातनबिडावयत्वेन

65. Glomerular Filtration Rate is inversely proportional to ___________

A. Glomerular capillary pressure
B. Colloidal osmotic pressure
C. Renal blood flow
D. Permeability of capillary membrane

Page 7 of 8
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

66. ______ of the following is the factor that stimulates the secretion of glucagon.
A. Cortisol
B. Somatostatin
C. Free fatty acid
D. Ketones

67. Choose the correct statement among the following:

A. Hamburger phenomenon is the process by which the exchange of a chloride ion
for a bicarbonate ion across RBC membrane occurs
B. Hamburger phenomenon is the process by which chloride ions are moved back
into plasma from RBC shift
C. Hamburger phenomenon is the process by which the exchange of a hydrogen ion
for a bicarbonate ion across RBC membrane occurs
D. Hamburger phenomenon is the process by which hydrogen ions are moved back
into plasma from RBC shift

68. According to Indu Commentary on Ashtang Sangraha, “बहलं” mentioned for Shukra
Swarupa is understood as _________
A. बहलं वपण्डीभूतं
B. बहलं न्स्नग्धं
C. बहलं नाततघनं
D. बहलं विदाहरदहतं

69. According to Ashtanga Hridaya, which of the following is the Varna mentioned for
Prakrita Pitta?
A. पाण्डुरारुर् सदहत :
B. पाण्डुरारुर् िन्जवत :
C. पाण्डुपीत सदहत:
D. पाण्डुपीत िन्जवत :

70. According to Ashtanga Sangraha Aniyata Toda is the feature of which of the following?
A. Vata Kshaya
B. Vata Vriddhi
C. Pitta Kshaya
D. Kapha Kshaya

** * **
Page 8 of 8
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

QUESTION BOOKLET
Part 2
Ph.D. Entrance Examination 2024-25
06. Panchakarma

Name of the Candidate: _________________________________

Roll No. of Candidate: ___________________________________

Signature of Candidate: __________________________________

Signature of Invigilator: __________________________________

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
QUESTION BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED TO TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC.
IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE QUESTION BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to fill in the roll number, subject etc carefully and without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR answer Sheet. Any omission/Discrepancy will
render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Roll No and signature on the Question Booklet. DO NOT write anything else on
the question booklet
4. This question booklet contains 30 Questions. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. 01
mark will be given for each correct response.
5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS: There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by a candidate.
a. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
b. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will same penalty as above to that question.
c. If a question is left blank, i.e. No answer is given by the candidate, there will no penalty for that question
6. The duration of the Entrance Examination (Part I and Part II) will be 75 minutes
7. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the provided OMR answer sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR answer sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator OMR Answer sheet and Question Booklet.
9. Blank page at the end of the question booklet may be used for rough work.

Page 1 of 11
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

Page 2 of 11
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

MAXIMUM MARKS:30

41. According to Acharya Sushruta, which type of Swedana is indicated in the

condition of “मत्र
ू कृच्छ्रे शकृज्जाते कार्ाा वातहरी क्रिर्ा”
A. Taap sweda
B. Avagaha
C. nadi sweda
D. Parisheka

42. ग्राम्र्ानप
ू ौदकं मांसं गड
ु ं दधि पर्स्ततलान ्| --------------- च तनेहने न प्रर्ोजर्ेत ् ||

Snehana should not done with meat of animals either domesticated, or of

marshy regions or those living in water. Jaggery, curd, milk and sesame
seeds in patient suffering from which of the following diseases?

A. Udar roga
B. Kanth roga
C. visarpa
D. Shotha

43. Madanphala kalpa indicated for Adhogata Raktapitta and Hrid Daha is

A. Ghreya yoga
B. Ksheera yoga
C. Lehya yoga
D. Kashaya yoga

44. According to Acharya Sharangdhara, dose of Ksheera for Nasya Karma is

A. 2 Shaan
B. 4 Shaan
C. 6 Shaan
D. 8 Shaan

Page 3 of 11
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

45. Which of the following Snehapaka is useful for Snehapana according to

Sushruta?

A. Mridu
B. Madhyama
C. Khara
D. Chikkana

46. Which of the following Svedana is specifically indicated for Kapha medasa
Avruta Vata?

A. Nadi svedana
B. Vashpa Svedana
C. Vyayama Svedana
D. Jentaka Svedana

47. In the context of Upanaha “Ratro Badhva Diva Munchet” is for -------

A. Vedana Parihartham
B. Vidaha Parihartham
C. Stambha Parihartham
D. Kleda Parihartham

48. According to Charaka Kalpsthan which of the following virechaka drug is

specially advised in Jvara, Hridroga and Vataasrug

A. Trivruta
B. Aragvadha
C. Tilvaka
D. Sudha

Page 4 of 11
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

49. Sadhyo Harati Doshanam Mahantamapi Cha Sanchayam” is specifically

described for which of the following

A. Sudha
B. Saptala Shankhini
C. Tilvalka
D. Danti Dravanti

50. What is the treatment for Ruja in Payu due to Ati utkshipta Basti Netra?

A. Vataghna
B. Pittaghna
C. Kaphaghna
D. D. Svedana

51. As per Ashtanga Sangraha, Rookshana is indicated prior to Snehana in

which type of Agni?

A. Samagni
B. Vishamagni
C. Mandagni
D. Teekshnagni

52. According to Acharya Charaka, which one is not enlisted under 10 types of
langhana?

A. Vyayama
B. Pipasa
C. Atapa
D. Bahupana

Page 5 of 11
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

53. “Akanthapana” in Vamana is not indicated in

A. Krisha
B. Sukumara
C. Balavana
D. Bheeru

54. As per Chakrapani, importance of sneha after shodhana is to get rid of……

““कमाणां वमनादीनामन्तरे ष्वन्तरे षु [१] च| तनेहतवेदौ प्रर्ञ्

ु जीत तनेहं चान्ते

प्रर्ोजर्ेत ्||”

A. Roukshya
B. Krishata
C. Utklesha
D. Glani

55. Sadatura are considered as........................., as per Ashtanga Sangraha.

A. Durvirechya
B. Durvamya
C. Durnasya
D. Durbastya

56. Maximum dosage of Sneha in Uttara Basti according to Sushruta Samhita is

A. 1 Prakuncha
B. 1 Kudava
C. 1 Shukti
D. 1 Karsha

Page 6 of 11
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

57. As per Charaka Samhita, ................... is part of the formulation used for
shodhana before administering Rasayana.

A. Trivrit
B. Madanaphala
C. Kapikacchu
D. Amalaka

58. In the condition of Keshashata ....................... procedure is indicated as per

Acharya Vagbhata?

A. Shiro Abhyanga
B. Shiro Seka
C. Shiro Pichu
D. Shiro Basti

59. Which disease has “अतनेहपव

ू े वा वमनववरे चने वपबतत” as one of the causative

factor?

A. Gulma
B. Kasa
C. Vatarakta
D. Udara

60. “Outara bhaktika snehapana” is not indicated in …..

A. Pureesha vega dharana

B. Kshavathu vega dharana
C. Sooryavarta
D. Bahushirsha gata vata

Page 7 of 11
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

“लाघवं वेदनाशास्न्तर्वर्ााघेवग
े पररक्षर्ः | सम्र्स्ववस्राववते ललङ्गं प्रसादो ____ ततथा | Su.
61.
Su. 14/33.
Complete the above quote

A. Indriya
B. Dhatu
C. Sharira
D. Manas

62. Nasya at night is not indicated in which among the below mentioned
conditions?

A. Shwasa
B. Pratishyaya
C. Pralapa
D. Kasa

63. According to Sushruta, Asthapana Basti is indicated in which month of

pregnancy?

A. 7th month
B. 8th month
C. 9th month
D. 10th month

64. Which disease is indicated for Purva and Paschat Swedana Yogya?

A. Moodhagarbha
B. Shalya
C. Normal delivered
D. Bhagandara

65. According to Krishna Atreya, Dhumapana is indicated from which age?

A. 7 year
B. 12 year
C. 14 year
D. 4 year

Page 8 of 11
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

66. According to Sushruta, Kavala is of how many types?

A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5

67. Following diseases are indicated for Swedana except -

A. Shwasa
B. Kasa
C. Visha
D. Hanugraha

68. Which disease is indicated for Vamana as per Vagbhata?

A. Sthaulya
B. Garbhini
C. Kasa
D. Udavarta

69. Who is contra-indicated for Navana?

A. Manyastambha
B. Apataanak
C. Sutika
D. Kushtha

70. Which is not synonym of Chaturangula?

A. Pragraha
B. Mridangaphala
C. Rajavriksha
D. Avaghataka

** * **

Page 9 of 11
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

Page 10 of 11
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

Page 11 of 11
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

QUESTION BOOKLET
Part 2
Ph.D. Entrance Examination 2024-25
07. PRASOOTI TANTRA - STREE ROGA

Name of the Candidate: _________________________________

Roll No. of Candidate: ___________________________________

Signature of Candidate: __________________________________

Signature of Invigilator: __________________________________

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
QUESTION BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED TO TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC.
IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE QUESTION BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to fill in the roll number, subject etc carefully and without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR answer Sheet. Any omission/Discrepancy will
render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Roll No and signature on the Question Booklet. DO NOT write anything else on
the question booklet
4. This question booklet contains 30 Questions. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. 01
mark will be given for each correct response.
5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS: There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by a candidate.
a. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
b. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will same penalty as above to that question.
c. If a question is left blank, i.e. No answer is given by the candidate, there will no penalty for that question
6. The duration of the Entrance Examination (for both the parts) will be 75 minutes
7. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the provided OMR answer sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR answer sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator OMR Answer sheet and Question Booklet.
9. Blank page at the end of the question booklet may be used for rough work.

Page 1 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

Page 2 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

41. As per Bhaishajya Ratnavali, Sarpanirmoka can be used in _______ form for
pain relief in Mudhhagarbha
A. Lepana
B. Dhoopana
C. Anjana
D. Nasya
42. According to Sushruta, the one who is born of पतू ि योति (foul smelling Vagina)
is known as ________
A. Saugandhika
B. Vakradhwaja
C. Asekya
D. Kumbhika
43. In Color Doppler in pregnancy, ‘Twin peak’ sign is seen in _________.
A. Monochorionic Diamniotic twins
B. Dichorionic Diamniotic Twins
C. Fetus Acardius
D. Vanishing Twin
44. Which prostaglandin is produced by Fetal membrane?
A. PGE2
B. PGF2
C. PGF2alpha
D. PGI2
45. ______ is the single best test to diagnose Iron Deficiency Anaemia in
Pregnancy.
A. Serum Iron
B. Serum Ferritin
C. Iron Binding Capacity
D. Hemoglobin Electrophoresis

46. HE4 and CYFRA 21 -1 are the markers of which Cancer?

A. Germ Cell Tumour
B. Trophoblastic Carcinoma
C. Carcinoma Cervix
D. Endometrial Cancer

Page 3 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

47. In Laparoscopy, ‘Violin String’ like adhesions in the pelvis are indicative of
__________ infection.
A. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
B. Haemophilus ducreyi
C. Donovan Bodies
D. Chlamydial
48. _________ has mentioned Vegavidharana as one of the causes of Vandhyatva
by resulting in Yonidushti.
A. Charaka
B. Vagbhatta
C. Harita
D. Bhela.
49. According to Bhavaprakasha, Agardhumadi Taila is mentioned in the
treatment of _________.
A. Raktagulma
B. Upadamsha
C. Mudhhagarbha
D. Sutika Roga

50. “Kulalakaramrutika” is indicated by Yogaratnakara to be given orally for the

treatment of_____________.
A. Asrigdara
B. Raktagulma
C. Garbhapata
D. Yonishaithilya
51. For the purification of Kashayanurasa dushita Stanya ________ is indicated.
A. Bilva + Agnimanth
B. Hingu + Saindhava
C. Palasha + Kakolidwaya
D. Avalgujphala
52. __________ Kashaya is indicated in Astanga Sangraha for the management
of Kunapagandhi Artavadushti.
A. Chandana
B. Madanaphala
C. Ashwagandha
D. Tinduka

Page 4 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

53. For emergency contraception, intrauterine device can be used within

________ days
A. 7 days
B. 5 days
C. 30 days
D. 10 days
54. Find the Reference: शुद्धे गर्भाशये मभगे रक्ते शुक्रेऽतिले हृति | वीयावन्िं सिु ं सिू े ििो न्यूिभब्ियोोः पुिोः||

A. Astanga Hridaya
B. Kashyapa Samhita
C. Charaka Samhita
D. Susruta Samhita
55. Complete the shloka: तथिरभणभं रुजिभं मन्िं कभयं ___________ र्वेि् |

A. स्वेदनं
B. ववम्लापनं
C. ववस्रावण
D. परिषेक

56. According to Acharya Sushruta, ‘mandam spandate cha’ (मन्िं थपन्ििे च) is the
feature seen in ___________
A. Upavistaka
B. Nagodara
C. Vatavipanna
D. Leena Garbha
57. Pathological retraction ring (Bandl’s ring) on the uterus in labour suggests
A. Cervical dystocia
B. Hypertonic lower uterine segment
C. Uterine tetany
D. Obstructed labour
58. As per Dalhana अतिसवं ृिभ in सच
ू ीवक्त्रभ refers to ____________
A. Ati Asamvritamukhi
B. Atyartha sankuchitamukhi
C. Ati anudwaramukhi
D. Ati vaktramukhi

Page 5 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

59. The most common benign solid tumor of vulva is __________

A. Lipoma
B. Neurofibroma
C. Hydradenoma
D. Fibroma
60. Tampon soaked with Sneha prepared with decoction of Shallaki, jingini, stem
bark of jambu and dhava along with panchavalkala is indicated in _________
A. Pradara
B. Kunapgandhi artava dushti
C. Vipluta yonivyapad
D. Rakta gulma
61. HAIR-AN syndrome is seen in ________
A. PCOS
B. Uterine synechie
C. Kallmann’S Syndrome
D. Masculizing Ovarian Tumour
62. Following people are at risk of developing Venous Thrombo embolism (VTE)
post Gynecological Surgery is ______
A. BMI 24 to 30
B. Age of more than 60 years
C. Age of 20 to 30
D. Actively Mobile patient
63. Type of Suture material used in Shirodkar’s Operation (Encerclage
operation) is ____________
A. Vicryl No : 0
B. Chromic Catgut No: 1
C. Vicryl No:1
D. Mersiline (Dacron)
64. According to charaka, _______ of the following is not a part of "Shonita
Sthanpana Mahakashaya"
A. Lodhra
B. Mocharasa
C. Nagakeshar
D. Laja
65. Who has not described "Vishati" word for yonivyapad?
A. Acharya Charaka
B. Acharya Sushruta
C. Acharya Vagbhatta
D. Acharya Bhavmishra

Page 6 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

66. Contraindication of Asthapan basti during Sutikavastha is described by ____

A. Bhava prakasha
B. Vagbhata
C. Charaka
D. Harita
67. Decoction of Pippalimoola, Chavya, Chitraka and Nagara has been indicated
by Charaka in ________ Stanya dushti
A. Guru
B. Pichchhila
C. Ati snigdha
D. Ruksha
68. According to Yogaratnakara, मातल
ु ंगु स्य मल
ू ानी मधक
ु ं मधसु ंयतु ं | घृतेन सह पातव्यं ......... ||
is mentioned in the context of _____
A. Garbhini Chhardi
B. Garbhini Aruchi
C. Sukha Prasava
D. Garbhini Apasmara
69. Free anastomosis between the superior rectal veins of the portal with the
middle and inferior rectal veins of the systemic circulation explains the
_________ metastasis from the genital organs.
A. Splenic
B. Liver
C. Heart
D. Kidney
70. Presence of diastolic notch at ___________ weeks gestation in the uterine
artery can predict the possible development of pre-eclampsia.
A. 18 weeks
B. 26 weeks
C. 24 weeks
D. 22 weeks

** * **

Page 7 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

QUESTION BOOKLET
Part 2
Ph.D. Entrance Examination 2024-25
08. Rasa Shastra & Bhaishajya Kalpana

Name of the Candidate: _________________________________

Roll No. of Candidate: ___________________________________

Signature of Candidate: __________________________________

Signature of Invigilator: __________________________________

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
QUESTION BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED TO TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC.
IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE QUESTION BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to fill in the roll number, subject etc carefully and without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR answer Sheet. Any omission/Discrepancy will
render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Roll No and signature on the Question Booklet. DO NOT write anything else on
the question booklet
4. This question booklet contains 30 Questions. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. 01
mark will be given for each correct response.
5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS: There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by a candidate.
a. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
b. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will same penalty as above to that question.
c. If a question is left blank, i.e. No answer is given by the candidate, there will no penalty for that question
6. The duration of the Entrance Examination (for both Parts) will be 75 minutes
7. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the provided OMR answer sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR answer sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator OMR Answer sheet and Question Booklet.
9. Blank page at the end of the question booklet may be used for rough work.

Page 1 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

Page 2 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

41. Percentage of Copper in Sandrita Swarna Makshikha as per Ayurvedic

Pharmacopoeia of India should be_____.
A. Not less than 5 %
B. Not less than 12 %
C. Not less than 20 %
D. Not less than 35 %

42. The specific metallic container used in the preparation of Kushmandavaleha ___.
A. Kansya
B. Suvarna
C. Tamra
D. Loha

43. According to Sharangdhara, the idea time for administration of medicines to

patients suffering from Urdhvajatru Vikaras:
A. Pratah
B. Bhojana Agre
C. Bhojana Paschat
D. Nishi

44. According to Siddha Bheshaja Manimala, in the context of Sheetala Parpati,

which of the following statement is FALSE:
A. Navasadara is one of the ingredients
B. Gandhaka is one of the ingredients
C. It is indicated in Mutrakriccha
D. It is to be taken with Jeeraka Churna

45. ________ Yantra is used for Taila Chyawanartham, as per Rasakamadhenu

A. Kinnara Yantra
B. Sthala Kurma Yantra
C. Aakash Yantra
D. Ishtika Yantra

46. According to Ayurvedic Pharmacopoeia of India, Part 1, Volume 9, permissible

limit for aflatoxin B1 in raw drug/extract is:
A. < 1ppm
B. < 2ppm
C. < 1ppb
D. < 2ppb

47. न विस्फुल्लिङ्गो न च बुद्बुदश्च यदा न रे खापटिं न शब्दः I

मुषागतं रत्नसमं ल्स्िरम ् च II refers to ________
A. Vishuddha Lauha
B. Dhatu Satva
C. Shilajatu
D. Kanta Pashana

Page 3 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

48. Find out correct pairs of Excipient category and their examples for manufacture
of semisolid topical medicated emulsions?

Excipient category i. Hydrocolloids, ii Surfactant, iii. Preservative

a. Gum acacia, gelatin b. benzalkonium cloride,
Example of excipient clorhexidine c. lauryl alcohol, lecithin, d. Carboxy vinyl
polymer, Alginates
A. i-b, i-d
B. ii-d, ii-c
C. i-a, i-d
D. iii-b, i-c

49. As per Sharangadhara Samhita, what is correct proportion of Drug: water for
preparation of Mantha kalpana?
A. 1:4
B. 1:16
C. 1: 14
D. 1:2

50. During tablet manufacturing process, the word ‘picking’ refers to ____________
A. Separation of the top or bottom crowns of a tablet
B. Separation of a tablet into two or more distinct layers
C. Removal of a tablet’s surface material by a punch
D. An unequal color distribution on a tablet

51. Which act provides regulation for objectionable advertisement?

A. Medicinal and toiletry preparation act
B. Pharmacy Act
C. Drugs and Magic Remedies Act
D. Poisonous Act

52. Quantity of Guggulu that should be added to kwath as prakshepa is ______

A. 1 Masha
B. 1 Shana
C. 1 Karsha
D. 2 Shana

53. According to Rasendra Sara sangraha the Panchmrittikas are ________

A. Isthika, Gairika, Bhasma Valmika Mrittika, Lavana
B. Khatika, Lavanam, Gairika, Kanshi, Isthika Churna
C. Valmika mrittika, Dhuma, Gairka, Ishtika, Patu
D. Isthika, Valmika mrittika, Loha Bhasma, Tankana

Page 4 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

54. Schedule D of Food Safety and Standards (Ayurveda Aahara) Regulations, 2022
explains _________
A. Categories of Ayurveda Aahara and Regulatory requirements
B. List of authoritative books for Ayurveda Aahara
C. Microbiological Standards for Ayurevda Aahara
D. Additives for Ayurevda Aahara

55. OECD Test 403 issues guidelines for conducting ________

A. Acute Inhalation toxicity
B. Repeated Dose Dermal toxicity
C. Genetic toxicity
D. Carcinogenecity

56. ___________ is used for swedana to get “Rase shadgunyakarakam”

A. Kachhapa Yantra
B. Valabhi Yantra
C. Hamsapaka Yantra
D. Mridanga Yantra
57. Which section of Drug and Cosmetic act 1940, deals with Misbranded drugs?
A. Section 33 EEA
B. Section 33 EE
C. Section 33 EED
D. Section 33 E

58. “Mad hatter’s Disease is caused due to the toxicity of _________

A. Lead
B. Cadmium
C. Arsenic
D. Mercury
59. As per Drug & Cosmetics Rule, 1945, Approval for carrying out tests or analysis
on Ayurvedic, Siddha and Unani drugs or raw materials used in the manufacture
thereof on behalf of licensees for manufacture for sale of Ayurvedic, Siddha and
Unani drugs is given in
A. Form 46
B. Form 47
C. Form 48
D. Form 49
60. Chronological order of Rasa texts as per their year of composition:
A. Rasendra Mangala, Rasa Hridaya Tantra, Rasa Prakasha Sudhakara,
Rasendra Chintamani, Ayurveda Prakasha
B. Rasendra Mangala, Rasa Prakasha Sudhakara, Rasa Hridaya Tantra,
Ayurveda Prakasha, Rasendra Chintamani
C. Rasendra Mangala, Rasendra Chintamani, Rasa Hridaya Tantra, Rasa
Prakasha Sudhakara, Ayurveda Prakasha
D. Rasendra Mangala, Ayurveda Prakasha, Rasa Prakasha Sudhakara, Rasa
Hridaya Tantra, Rasendra Chintamani

Page 5 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

61. For मात्रा ननर्णय (fixing the dose) of Somala, adding of _______ is advocated in
Rasa Tarangini
A. 21 parts of Shunthi Churna
B. 15 parts of Maricha Churna
C. 28 parts of Amalaki Churna
D. 15 parts of Trikatu Churna

62. As per the regulations of FSSAI; _______ is an indicator for Non-Vegetarian diet?

63. Ayurveda Prakasha referred the characteristic in

the context of _____
A. Loha Bhasma
B. Tamra Bhasma
C. Haritala Bhasma
D. Abhraka Bhasma
64. Rasa Vagbhata referred; in the context of
_______ Yantra
A. Vidyaadhara
B. Urdhwapaatana
C. Somaanala
D. Bhudhara
65. Situations in which a patient develops side effects that can occur with a drug or
therapy just because the patient believes they may occur is familiar as _____
A. Placebo effect
B. Nocebo effect
C. Sham situation
D. Idiosyncratic effect
66. According to Rasa Tarangini, are the
properties of ____________
A. Tankana
B. Kasisa
C. Navasadara
D. Shuddha Somala
67. The drugs that are responsible for are
categorized under _____________
A. Anulomana
B. Rechana
C. Sramsana
D. Bhedana

Page 6 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

68. Match correct names given to the chapters in respective classical Rasa texts from
the below:

1. Rasarnava a. Stavaka
2. Anandakanda b. Avabodha
3. Rasa Chintamani c. Ullasa
4. Rasa Hridaya Tantra d. Patala

A. 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b

B. B. 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a
C. C. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
D. D. 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a

69. Part 1, Volume X of Ayurvedic Pharmacopoeia of India hold monographs of ____

A. Single drugs of herbal source
B. Single drugs of metal/ mineral source
C. Single drugs of animal source
D. Hydro-alcoholic extracts of herbal drugs

70. A similar dose appropriate in majority of patients with wide safety margin is
defined as ____
A. Standard Dose
B. Triturated Dose
C. Regulated Dose
D. Target Level Dose

** * **

Page 7 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

QUESTION BOOKLET
Part 2
Ph.D. Entrance Examination 2024-25
09. ROGA NIDANA EVAM VIKRITI VIGYAN

Name of the Candidate: _________________________________

Roll No. of Candidate: ___________________________________

Signature of Candidate: __________________________________

Signature of Invigilator: __________________________________

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
QUESTION BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED TO TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC.
IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE QUESTION BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to fill in the roll number, subject etc carefully and without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR answer Sheet. Any omission/Discrepancy will
render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Roll No and signature on the Question Booklet. DO NOT write anything else on
the question booklet
4. This question booklet contains 30 Questions. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. 01
mark will be given for each correct response.
5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS: There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by a candidate.
a. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
b. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will same penalty as above to that question.
c. If a question is left blank, i.e. No answer is given by the candidate, there will no penalty for that question
6. The duration of the Entrance Examination (Part I and Part II) will be 75 minutes for both.
7. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the provided OMR answer sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR answer sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator OMR Answer sheet and Question Booklet.
9. Blank page at the end of the question booklet may be used for rough work.

Page 1 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

Page 2 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

41. सर्वेऽप्येतेऽपरिज्ञातााः परिसंर्वत्सिास्तथा| उपेक्षणादसाध्ााः स्युिथर्वा दु रुपक्रमााः

This shloka is described in context to…

A. Upadrava
B. Avarana
C. Arishtha
D. Atyagni

42. कफपपत्तं प्रकुपपत्तं बलर्वत् & श्लेष्मा र्वायुश्च प्रकोपमापद्यते !! The doshic
predominance mentioned in context to

A. Granthi & Kardama Visarpa respectively

B. Agni & Granthi Visarpa respectively
C. Kardama & Granthi Visarpa respectively
D. Granthi & Agni Visarpa respectively

43. Common cause of stroke in children is ____________

A. Hypoproliferative anemia
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Sickle cell anemia
D. Hemolytic anemia

44. Match the List I with List II

List I (Clinical feature) List II (Disease)
1. Keshan pachati i. Palita
2. Prachyavayati Romani ii. Arunshika
3. Bahuvakrani Bahukledani murdhni iii. Darunaka
4. Keshabhumi prapatyate iv. Khalitya

Choose the correct answer from the options given bellow

A. 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv.

B. 1-i, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-iii.
C. 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv.
D. 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i

45. अस्वप्नः सन्तता रुक् च’ (Aswapna Santata ruk) is observed in _____ Vata.
A. Twakgata
B. Raktagata
C. Mamsa-Medogata
D. Majja-Asthi gata

Page 3 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

46. According to Charaka Samhita “Tvak avadaranam” is a nanatmaja vikara

of which dosha?

A. Vata
B. Pitta
C. Kapha
D. Rakta

47. सोषाचोषो पर्वर्वणणाः स्यादङ् गुल्येर्वार्वघट्यते | आसने शयने स्थाने शान्तं र्वृ पश्चकपर्वद्धर्वत् ||
Above clinical features found in a case of ________
A. Vatarakta
B. Amavata
C. Pachyamana shotha
D. Tamaka Shwasa

48. Micturition with spasmodic pain संस्तम्भोद्वे ष्टनापतणमान् found in ______

A. Mutrakshaya
B. Ashmari purvarupa
C. Bastikundala
D. Vatika Mutrakrucchra

49. Watery blood अम्भोपनभं (Ambhonibha) is found in which condition?

A. Shonitakleda
B. Kaphaja Pandu
C. Asadhya Raktapitta
D. Kaphaja Raktadushti

50. A 60-year-old male presents with complaints of burning sensation in urinary

bladder, penile and anal region, passing dark yellow, sometimes blood mixed
urine or only bloody urine with difficulty every time. What is the probable
diagnosis according to Ayurveda __________

A. Mutragranthi
B. Mutrakrichra
C. Ushanavata
D. Pittaja Ashmari

51. A 50-year-old female presents with complaints of chronic constipation,

bloating, and indigestion. She reports feeling lethargic and heavy after meals
and has a history of irregular bowel movements, passing sometimes dry hard
stool and occasionally liquid frothy stool. On examination, her abdomen is
distended, and there is tenderness on palpation. What is the likely diagnosis
according to Ayurveda, and what factors contribute to this condition?

A. Grahani; Vata dosha

B. Ajeerna; Pitta dosha
C. Malabandha; Kapha dosha
D. Chhardi; Kapha dosha
Page 4 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

52. According to Charaka, symptom क्षमां धृपतमलौल्यं is associated with _______

A. Mamsa sara
B. Meda sara
C. Majja sara
D. Satva sara

53. हस्तापभघातान्नखदतपातादधार्वनाद्रत्यपतसेर्वनाद्वा are the causative factors of _____

A. Phirang
B. Upadamsha
C. Vidhradhi
D. Shotha

54. Haemoglobin D disorder in India is mainly seen in __________

A. Punjab
B. Kerala
C. West Bengal
D. Kashmir

55. As per Charaka, सगौिर्वं स्यादनर्वन्स्थतत्वं सोत्सेधमुष्माऽथ पसिातनुत्वम् | सलोमहषाणऽ

ङ्गपर्वर्वणणता च || is related to ________

A. Purvarupa of Shvayathu
B. Shvayathu Samanya lakshana
C. Kaphaja Shvayathu Lakshana
D. Tridoshaja Shvayathu Lakshana

56. As per Charaka, न्िष्टानामप्रतीकािाद्रौक्ष्याद्वे गपर्वधािणात् are the nidana of _____

A. Atisara
B. Udavarta
C. Grahani
D. Udara Roga

57. According to Acharya Charaka, पर्वशेषताः पसिायामशूलस्फुिणतोदनम् is the

clinical feature related to ______ Vatarakta

A. Vatika
B. Pittaja
C. Kaphaja
D. Raktaja

Page 5 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

58. A condition in which there is an association of peptic Ulcer with a gastrin

secreting pancreatic adenoma is called ________

A. Neiman Pick’s disease

B. Goodpasture’s syndrome
C. Zollinger – Ellison Syndrome
D. Gaucher’s Disease

59. Simon’s focus is associated with which disease –

A. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
B. Addison’s disease
C. Pneumonia
D. Tuberculosis

60. Choose correct options from the following sentences regarding duodenal ulcer
I. Duodenal ulcers are four times more common than gastric ulcers
II. They are more common in the age group of 25 -50 years
III. Malignant transformation occurs in less than 1 % of the cases

A. All sentences are correct

B. Only I and II are correct
C. Only II and III are correct
D. Both I and III are correct

61. Read the following sentences and choose the correct option -
I. Endocrine abnormalities like gynecomastia, impotence are frequent
abnormality in cirrhotic female patients
II. Death in cirrhosis occurs mainly due to causes like hepatic coma, massive
gastro intestinal haemorrhage, hepatorenal syndrome and hepatocellular
carcinoma.
III. Portal hypertension cause four major consequences – ascites, varices,
splenomegaly and hepatic encephalopathy.
A. All sentences are correct
B. Only I and II are correct
C. Only II and III are correct
D. Both I and III are correct

62. Duke criteria is used for the diagnosis of

A. Osteoarthritis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Infective endocarditis
D. Gout
A child comes with fever, cold, cough, membrane over tonsils; nasal swab is
63.
taken, culture should be done on which medium for earliest diagnosis?
A. Loeffler’s serum slope
B. L. J. media
C. MC Conkey's Agar
D. Citrate media

Page 6 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

64. Bence-Jones protein is seen in

A. Nephrotic syndrome
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Cirrhosis of liver
D. Hepatitis

65. The cardinal sign of inflammation called rubor is mainly the result of

A. Vasodilation of arterioles
B. Decreased vascular permeability of capillaries
C. Increased vascular permeability of venules
D. Decreased interstitial hydrostatic pressure

66. Which anti-coagulant is used for collecting blood for Prothrombin time-

A. EDTA
B. Sodium fluoride
C. Heparin
D. Trisodium citrate

67. The highest incidence of atherosclerotic lesions are seen in which of the
following coronary arteries __________

A. Anterior descending branch of the left coronary artery

B. Right coronary artery
C. Circumflex branch of the left coronary artery
D. Left coronary artery

68. Which of the following leukemia is most common in children less than 6 years
of age ______
A. Acute Lymphoid Leukemia
B. Chronic Lymphoid Leukemia
C. Acute Myeloid Leukemia
D. Chronic Myeloid Lymphoid Leukemia

69. Microalbuminuria is defined as daily excretion of albumin in the range of __

A. 20-100 mg/day
B. 30-300 mg/day
C. 50-500 mg/day
D. 300-500 mg /day

70. Dominance of Vayu and Pitta Dosha is observed in ______vyadhi.

A. Shakhashraya Kamala
B. Haleemaka
C. Kumbha Kamala
D. Panaki

** * **
Page 7 of 7
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

QUESTION BOOKLET
Part 2
Ph.D. Entrance Examination 2024-25
10. Shalakya Tantra

Name of the Candidate: _________________________________

Roll No. of Candidate: ___________________________________

Signature of Candidate: __________________________________

Signature of Invigilator: __________________________________

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
QUESTION BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED TO TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC.
IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE QUESTION BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to fill in the roll number, subject etc carefully and without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR answer Sheet. Any omission/Discrepancy will
render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Roll No and signature on the Question Booklet. DO NOT write anything else on
the question booklet
4. This question booklet contains 30 Questions. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. 01
mark will be given for each correct response.
5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS: There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by a candidate.
a. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
b. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will same penalty as above to that question.
c. If a question is left blank, i.e. No answer is given by the candidate, there will no penalty for that question
6. The duration of the Entrance Examination (Part I and Part II) will be 75 minutes
7. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the provided OMR answer sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR answer sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator OMR Answer sheet and Question Booklet.
9. Blank page at the end of the question booklet may be used for rough work.

Page 1 of 12
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

Page 2 of 12
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

MAXIMUM MARKS:30

41. Match the following corneal dystrophies according to New IC3D

classification

1. Epithelial and a. Fuchs endothelial corneal

subepithelial dystrophy dystrophy
2. Bowman layer dystrophy b. Thie-Behnke corneal dystrophy
3. Stromal dystrophy c. Schnyder corneal dystrophy
4. Descemet membrane & d. Gelatinous drop like corneal
endothelial dystrophy dystrophy

A. 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a

B. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d
C. 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c
D. 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a

42. According to Acharya Sharngadhara Apamarga kshara taila is indicated

in ----------

A. Karnasrava-Karnanada
B. Karnabadhirya-Karnanada
C. Karnakandu-Karnabadhirya
D. Karnasrava-Krimikarna

43. Match the following according to Bekesy Audiometry tracings -

1. Type I a. Non-organic lesions
2. Type II b. Retrocochlear/neural lesions
3. Type III c. Cochlear loss
4. Type V d. Normal hearing or conductive hearing loss

A. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a.

B. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d. 1-b, 2-a,
C. 3-d, 4-c
D. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b

44. Match the following according to Bekesy Audiometry tracings -

1. Large laryngeal foreign a. slap and palpatory thud
body
2. Sharp tracheal foreign b. Atelectasis or check valve
body obstruction
3. Loose tracheal foreign c. Sudden death Auditory
body
4. Bronchial foreign body d. Cough &haemoptysis

A. 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a

B. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
C. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
D. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d

Page 3 of 12
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

45. According to acharya Dalhana “Krimija shiroroga” lakshana are seen in -

-----------

A. Vataja Pratishyaya
B. Pittaja Pratishyaya
C. Kaphaja Pratishyaya
D. Raktaja Pratishyaya

46. Which is etiological factor of Palita roga According Astangahrudaya?

A. Shoka, Shrama & Kroda

B. Shoka, Shrama & Bhaya
C. Shrama, Kroda & Krimi
D. Kroda, Bhaya & Shrama

47. Who explained the Medorohini?

A. Acharya Sushruta
B. Acharya Vagbhatta
C. Acharya Charaka
D. Acharya Sharngadhara

48. Statement-I: Osteomyelitis of the maxilla is more often seen in infants

and children than adults because of the presence of spongy bone in the
anterior wall of the maxilla

Statement-II: Osteomyelitis of the frontal bone more often seen in adults

as frontal sinus is not developed in infants and children

In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the
options given below

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
C. Statement I true but Statement II false
D. Statement II true but statement I false

Page 4 of 12
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

49. Assertion A: Yogaratnakara advised to perform Raktamokshana in the

diseases of Gala, Dantamoola and Oshta

Reason R: Removing of vitiated Kapha & Rakta helps to manage disease

of Gala, Dantamoola and Oshta effectively

A. Both A and R are true and R is correct expiation of A

B. Both A and R are true but R is not correct expiation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

50. Which is the yapya roga amongst the following according to Astanga
Hrudaya?

A. Vidarika
B. Tantrika
C. Koochikarna
D. Karnapippali

51. According to Acharya Sushruta which dosha vitiated in Paridara?

A. Rakta,Vata & Kapha

B. Pitta, Vata & Kapha
C. Vata,Pitta & Kapha
D. Piitta, Rakta & Kapha

52. Statement-I: According to acharya Sushruta Karna dhoopana with

Vartaka is indicated in the treatment of Kramikarna

Statement-II: According to acharya Sushruta Karna dhoopana with

Guggulu is indicated in the treatment of Karnadourgandhya

In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the
options given below

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
C. Statement I true but Statement II false
D. Statement II true but statement I false

53. Where do you use A Pickford Nicholson anomaloscope?

A. Used for red - green colour vision anomalies

B. Used for green - yellow colour vision anomalies
C. Used for red - yellow colour vision anomalies
D. Used for blue - yellow colour vision anomalies

Page 5 of 12
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

54. In the Leber Congenital Amaurosis the blindness occurs in ------------

A. Early adulthood
B. Late adulthood
C. Early infancy
D. Elderly individuals

55. Which of the following is true for Shushkashipaka?

i. Darun rooksha vartma, Avila Darshanam are its clinical features.

ii. Nasya Karma is indicated in the treatment of Shushkshipaka.

iii. It should be treated on the line of Vataja Abhishyanda.

A. Only i and ii are correct

B. Only i and iii are correct
C. i, ii and iii are correct
D. Only ii and iii are correct

56. Which of the following statements are true in reference to Tarpana kriya
kalpa –

I. In Tarpana Upadrava - Dhumapana, Nasya, Parisheka and

Anjana of Ruksha type are indicated.

II. Vishadata and Varna Pataava are the features of Tarpana

heena yoga.

III. Ati snigdhata, increased watering and itching the features

of ati yoga of Tarpana

A. Only i and ii are correct

B. Only i and iii are correct
C. i, ii and iii are correct
D. Only ii and iii are correct

57. Which of the following layer constitute the development of crystalline

lens?

A. Surface ectoderm
B. Surface mesoderm
C. Surface endoderm
D. Surface ectoderm and mesoderm

Page 6 of 12
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

58. Functional hypermetropia is due to

A. Congenital absence of crystalline lens

B. Acquired absence of crystalline lens
C. Paralysis of accommodation as seen in patients with third nerve
paralysis and internal ophhtlmoplegia.
D. Congenital coloboma

59. Trachomatous inflammation intense is characterized by

A. Pronounced inflammatory thickening of the upper tarsal conjunctiva

obscures more than half of the normal deep tarsal vessels.

B. Presence of scaring in the tarsal conjunctiva

C. When at least one eyelash rubs the eyeball.

D. Trantas spots

60. Posterior staphyloma refers to bulging of the

A. Bulging of the weak sclera behind the equator

B. Bulging of the sclera

C. Bulging of the sclera and cornea

D. d. Bulging of the weak sclera lined by choroid behind the equator

61. Which of the state is correct in reference to Smokers palate.

i. Males with mean age of 50 years are affected, who are beedi
smokers, pipe smokers, .
ii. Marked erythema of the palate followed by numerous red papular
elevations around the opening of the excretory ducts of the palatal
minor salivary glands.
iii. ulcerative lesion on hard palate.
iv. Elevated keratinised nodules of various sizes, which are separated
by the small fissure with entire palatal surface, then, presents a
rough, irregular surface.
A. i, ii and iii are correct
B. i, ii and iv are correct
C. i, iii and iv are correct
D. ii,iii and iv are correct

62. Beaten –bronze or snail slime reflex is found in

A. Best’s disease
B. Solar retinopathy
C. Ushers syndrome
D. Stargardt’s diseases

Page 7 of 12
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

63. MacEwen’s triangle is important landmark to locate

A. Attic
B. Mastoid antrum
C. Branch of facial nerve
D. Incus bone

64. Eclipse sign indicates

A. Decreased axial anterior chamber depth

B. Increased axial anterior chamber depth
C. Glow in the anterior chamber
D. Sign of glaucoma

65. The mineral ingredient of Irimedadi Taila from the below is ____.

A. Gairika
B. Manashila
C. Haritala
D. Mandura

66. Krishna loha raja is ingredient of

A. Lekhana Putapaka
B. Ropana Putapaka
C. Lekhana Anjana
D. Ropana Anjana

67. कृच्छ्राच्छ्वसन्तं मृदुसर्वगात्रं संर्त्सरातीतमरोचकातवम्

(Krichra shvasantam, mridu sarva gaatram, samvatsarateetam,

arochakartam) are complications of which kantha roga?

A. Galaganda
B. Rohini
C. Galougha
D. Shataghni

68. According to Yogaratnakara, “Bhadramustadi gutika” is best medicine

for

A. Chala danta
B. Krimidanta
C. Danta harsha
D. Danta naadi

Page 8 of 12
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

69. Majority of glucose metabolism in lens is by

A. Glycolytic pathway
B. Pentose Hexose monophosphate shunt
C. Oxidative Kreb’s citric acid cycle
D. sorbitol pathway

70. The method used to promote nasal secretion in atrophic rhinitis

A. Painting nasal mucosa with 25% glucose in glycerine

B. Nasal irrigation
C. Oral administration of potassium iodide
D. Kemicetine spray

** * **

Page 9 of 12
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

Page 10 of 12
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

Page 11 of 12
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

Page 12 of 12
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

QUESTION BOOKLET
Part 2
Ph.D. Entrance Examination 2024-25
11. Shalya Tantra

Name of the Candidate: _________________________________

Roll No. of Candidate: ___________________________________

Signature of Candidate: __________________________________

Signature of Invigilator: __________________________________

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
QUESTION BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED TO TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC.
IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE QUESTION BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to fill in the roll number, subject etc carefully and without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR answer Sheet. Any omission/Discrepancy will
render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Roll No and signature on the Question Booklet. DO NOT write anything else on
the question booklet
4. This question booklet contains 30 Questions. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. 01
mark will be given for each correct response.
5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS: There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by a candidate.
a. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
b. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will same penalty as above to that question.
c. If a question is left blank, i.e. No answer is given by the candidate, there will no penalty for that question
6. The duration of the Entrance Examination (Part I and Part II) will be 75 minutes
7. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the provided OMR answer sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR answer sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator OMR Answer sheet and Question Booklet.
9. Blank page at the end of the question booklet may be used for rough work.

Page 1 of 12
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

Page 2 of 12
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

MAXIMUM MARKS:30

41. According to AstangaHridaya, ‘गुदमागगनिरोधत:’ is inferred for

A. Gudabhransa
B. Arsha
C. Udavarta
D. Gudarbuda

42. According to Ashtanga Hrudaya, the sign ‘मृद्नानतमेहिं’ is found in which of

the following?

A. Vataja Ashmari
B. Pittaja Asmari
C. Kaphaja Ashmari
D. Shukrashmari

43. ‘दु स्तरो दु स्तरतरो’ are the types of which of the following?

A. Vatavasti
B. Vatasthila
C. Mutratita
D. Mutragranthi

44. What is the meaning of आहवं in given shloka?

‘स मुह्यत्यातुरं प्राप्य प्राप्य भीरुररवाहवम्’

A. सङ्ग्राम
B. कममज्ञो
C. अर्मज्ञान
D. गमनेऽसमर्थौ

Page 3 of 12
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

45. What is the name of the suture as shown below

A. Modified Smead-Jones Suture

B. Gambee single layer full thickness suture
C. Lambert suture
D. Halsteid suture

46. What is the Madhyama Matra of Paniya Kshara according to

Dalhanacharya?

A. 1 Karsh
B. 1 Pala
C. 1/2 Pala
D. 3 Karsha

47. Aabhugnam-Vimukta Asthi is the clinical feature of which type of fracture

according to Sushruta?

A. Pichhita Bhagnah
B. Atipatita Bhagnah
C. Vakra Bhagnah
D. Kanda Bhagnah

48. Which drugs are used for Shodhana purpose after Darana of Pittaja
Granthi?

A. Yava Kalka & Madhuyashti Churna

B. Tila Kalka & Madhuyashti Churna
C. Goghrita & Madhuyashti Churna
D. Godugdha & Panchavalkal Churna

Page 4 of 12
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

49. Match the following wound condition with its Upakrama.

A Utasanna Mamsa Yukta Vrana 1. Avasadana, Daruna Karma

B Sthira Mamsa Yukta Vrana 2. Churna, Rasakriya
C Alpa Mamsa Yukta Vrana 3. Taila, Avasadana
D Mrudu Mamsa Yukta Vrana 4. Utsadana, Patradana

A. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

B. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
C. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
D. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

50. A 25-year-old male patient presented with clinical findings of injury to

“Mushka Srotas”, what could be the probable consequence of injury?

A. Dhwajabhanga
B. Klevyata
C. Mutrapurna Basti
D. Mutraksharana

51. “रक्षेतः बलंचानि िरस्य नित्यं तत् रनक्षतं व्यानधबलं निहन्ति”- Susrutha explains
this in the context of….

A. Arbuda
B. Vrudhi
C. Granthi
D. Vidradhi

52. महाग्रन्तिकं कण्टकैरुिनचतं is a feature of

A. Kaphaja sleepada
B. Mamsa arbuda
C. Kaphaja granthi
D. Padmini kantaka

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PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

53. Match the site and clinical features of Anatarvidradhi according to sushruta

I. Vrukka (A)Vata nirodha

II. Vankshana (B)Parswa sankocha
III. Guda (C)Maruta kopanam
IV. Kukshi (D)Katiprshtagraha

A. I-(B) II-(D) III-(C) IV-(A)

B. I-(B) II-(D) III-(A) IV-(C)
C. I-(D) II-(B) III-( A) IV-(C )
D. I -(D) II-(B) III-( C) IV- (A)

54. According to Sushruta, “बन्तस्तकटीमुष्क मेढेषु वेदिा” is prodromal symptom

( िुवगरुि) of which disease?

A. Arsha
B. Ashmari
C. Vruddhi
D. Shleepada

55. An elderly male patient presented to hospital with lumbar pain and
ballotable mass in lumbar region during inspiration and lassitude. On
laboratory investigations, RBCs were present in the urine without any pus
cells. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A. Polycystic kidney disease

B. Hydronephrosis
C. Renal cell carcinoma
D. Chronic pyelonephritis

56. Read the following statements: -

Statement a) In case of Awidagdha Shopha, Alepan is beneficial.

Statement b) It subsides the Dosha; Daha, Kandu and Vedana

A. Statement ‘a’ is correct and ‘b’ is correct explanation of ‘a’

B. Statement ‘a’ is correct and ‘b’ is wrong explanation of ‘a’
C. Statement ‘a’ is wrong but ‘b’ is correct statement
D. Statement ‘a’ is wrong and ‘b’ is also wrong statement

Page 6 of 12
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

57. According to Sushruta suturing is contraindicated in following wounds,

except in-

A. Wound due to Kshara

B. Wound due to Agni
C. Wound due to Poison (Visha)
D. Wound after Lekhan Karma

58. In Tridoshaj Bhagandar, ‘Shambukavarta’ feature denotes

A. Shape of pidika
B. Shape of fistulous tract
C. Character of pain
D. Character of discharge

59. “Vellate Prakampmanam” is the feature of

A. Karkatak Bhagna
B. Kanda Bhagna
C. Majjanugat Bhagna
D. Ashwakarna Bhagna

60. Carcinoma of prostate, usually originates in the

A. Lateral lobe of prostate

B. Peripheral zone of prostate
C. Central zone of prostate
D. Transitional zone of prostate

61. Budd-Chiari syndrome is occlusion or thrombosis of:

A. Hepatic vein
B. Renal Vein
C. Portal Vein
D. Splenic Vein

62. Fegan’s test is useful to confirm which of the following?

A. SFJ incompetence
B. Perforator site
C. Arterial insufficiency
D. Dry gangrene

Page 7 of 12
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

63. According to Sushruta “Takranto navadhanyadi varga” (तक्रािो

िवधान्यानदर्योऽर्यं वगग) aggravates which of the following?

A. Puya
B. Vedana
C. Agni
D. Varna

64. According to Sushruta which treatment is appropriate in Picchita Vrana?

A. Ushna lepanam
B. Pradeha
C. Shita Aalep
D. Avapidana

65. Karydakis Procedure is done for

A. Haemorrhoids
B. Pilonidal Sinus
C. Fistula in ano
D. Proctitis fugax

66. One of the following is not included in Alvarado Score

A. Anorexia
B. Tachycardia
C. Leucocytosis
D. Rebound tenderness

67. Whipple’s Triad is suggestive of

A. Seminoma
B. Insulinoma
C. Teratoma
D. Gasrinoma

68. Which diseases is not suitable for Aharana?

A. Dantapupputa
B. Vidradhi
C. Ashmari
D. Bhagandara

Page 8 of 12
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

69. According to Sushruta ‘Atipatit Bhagna’ is

A. Sadhya
B. Asadhya
C. Krichrasadhya
D. Yapya

70. According to Charaka Which is not ‘Vrana Sthana’

A. Mamsa
B. Sandhi
C. Meda
D. Twak

** * **

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Page 10 of 12
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

Page 11 of 12
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

Page 12 of 12
PART 2 DATE: 04.05.2024

QUESTION BOOKLET
Part 2
Ph.D. Entrance Examination 2024-25
12. Swasthavritta

Name of the Candidate: _________________________________

Roll No. of Candidate: ___________________________________

Signature of Candidate: __________________________________

Signature of Invigilator: __________________________________

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
QUESTION BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED TO TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC.
IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE QUESTION BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to fill in the roll number, subject etc carefully and without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR answer Sheet. Any omission/Discrepancy will
render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Roll No and signature on the Question Booklet. DO NOT write anything else on
the question booklet
4. This question booklet contains 30 Questions. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. 01
mark will be given for each correct response.
5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS: There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by a candidate.
a. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
b. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will same penalty as above to that question.
c. If a question is left blank, i.e. No answer is given by the candidate, there will no penalty for that question
6. The duration of the Entrance Examination (Part I and Part II) will be 75 minutes
7. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the provided OMR answer sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR answer sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator OMR Answer sheet and Question Booklet.
9. Blank page at the end of the question booklet may be used for rough work.

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MAXIMUM MARKS:30

41. “आलिङ्ग् यागुरुलिग्धाङ्ग ीं सुप्यात् समिमन्मथः |” has been mentioned in which of

the following Ritu?

A. Hemanta ritu
B. Sharad ritu
C. Vasanta ritu
D. Greeshma ritu

42. ____ धूमो िङ्घनीं रक्तमोक्षणम्| रूक्षान्नपानीं व्यायामो लिरे कश्चात्र शस्यते||

The above line of treatment has been mentioned for which of the following
Adharaneeya Vega Rodha janya Roga

A. Vata
B. Bashpa
C. Jrimbha
D. Chardi

43. Hibitane is

A. Chlorhexidine
B. Hexachlorphane
C. Chloroxylenol
D. Cresol

44. Chancroid is caused by which of the following species?

A. Neisseria
B. Treponema
C. Chlamydia
D. Heamophilus

45. According to Hatha Yoga Pradeepika, the dimensions of Vastra used for
Vastra dhouti is

A. 4 angula vistara & 15 hasta ayatam

B. 4 angula vistara & 16 hasta ayatam
C. 6 angula vistara & 14 hasta ayatam
D. 6 angula vistara & 16hasta ayatam

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46. In------------------- prevention, efforts are directed towards discouraging

children from adopting harmful lifestyles

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Primordial

47. According to Ashtanga Hrudaya, Aniyata kala is of ------------------types

A. 2
B. 3
C. 7
D. 5

48. Disability-adjusted life years (DALYs) measures

A. Morbidity & Mortality

B. Morbidity & disability
C. Mortality & disability
D. Nutritional status

49. शािगन् सयिगोधूमान् सेव्यानाहुर्घनात्यये|| In this shloka र्नात्यये means----------

A. Exit of Sharat kala

B. Entry of Shart kala
C. Entry of Varsha ritu
D. Exit of Greeshma ritu

50. In Naturopathy “Primum No Nocere” means__

A. Do no harm
B. Healing power of nature
C. Treat the cause
D. Prevention is best

51. सप्त साधन according to Gheranda samhita are

A. शोधन, दृढता, स्थिरता, धैर्य, लघुता, प्रत्यक्षीकरण व नननलयप्तता

B. शोधन, शमन, स्थिरता, धैर्य, लघुता, प्रत्यक्षीकरण व नननलयप्तता
C. शोधन, दृढता, धौनत, धैर्य, लघुता, प्रत्यक्षीकरण व नननलयप्तता
D. शोधन, दृढता, स्थिरता, धैर्य, लघुता, प्रत्यक्षीकरण व अनलप्त

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52. As per Ashtanga Hridaya, Tambula sevana is contra-indicated in the

following conditions

A. Kshata, Pitta and Rakta vyadhi, Vishamurchamada Pidita

B. Aruchi, Mukha daurgandhya, Kshata, Pitta and Rakta vyadhi,
C. Suptotthita kala, Snata kala, Visha Pidita, Kshata
D. Vamana pashchat kala, Aruchi, Kshata, Suptotthita kala

53. Which of the following laboratory tests is used for screening the lead
poisoning

A. Amino acid in urine

B. Levels of Coproporphyrin in urine
C. Ca-EDTA test
D. Basophilic stippling of platelets

54. Identify the false statement regarding Ty21a vaccine

A. Orally administered live attenuated Ty2 strain of S Typhi

B. Comprises of 3 days regimen, administered on 1st, 3rd, and 5th day
C. Storage at 2-8 deg C
D. The vaccine is licensed for individuals less than or equal to 2 years

55. The sanitary well should be located not less than ………………… from
likely sources of contamination to prevent bacterial contamination.

A. 15 meters
B. 100 meters
C. 50 meters
D. 15 feet

56. Uddiyana Bandha, is performed in which of the following stages?

A. Puraka
B. Abhyantara Kumbhaka
C. Bahya Kumbhaka
D. Kevala Kumbhaka

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57. योलगनग चक्र सींमान्यः सृलि सींहारकः | न क्षुधा न तृषा लनद्रा नैिािस्य प्रजायते ||

The above benefits have been explained for which of the following in
Gheranda Samhita

A. Sitkari Pranayama
B. Ujjayi Pranayama
C. Suryabhedana Pranayama
D. Bhramari Pranayama

58. As per Sushruta Samhita, Kaupa and Prasravana Jala should be

consumed in which of the following Ritu?

A. Varsha, Sharad
B. Hemanta, Vasanta
C. Greeshma, Varsha
D. Vasanta, Greeshma

59. The vaccine RTS,S and R21 is recommended by WHO to prevent which of
the following diseases in children?

A. Malaria
B. Dengue
C. Kyasanur Forest Disease
D. Brucellosis

60. As per Sushruta Samhita, which of the following is specially advocated in

3rd month of pregnancy?

A. सन्यिः ्ृिक्पर्ण्ायनिनसद्धम्
B. षनिकौिनं ्र्सा
C. ्र्ोमधुरकषार्नसद्धे न [२] तैलेनानुवासर्ेत्
D. श्विं िरानसद्धस्य सन्यषो मात्ां ्ार्र्ेि् र्वागं

61. The diseases arising of Kshudha Vega Dharana should be managed by

A. निग्धोष्णं लघु भोजनम्

B. शीतं त्यण
C. स्वप्नो मद्यं नप्रर्ािः किािः
D. नवश्रामो वातघ्न्यश्च निर्ा

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62. List of additives is given in which schedule of “Ayurveda aahar Regulations

of FSSAI”

A. Schedule B
B. Schedule C
C. Schedule D
D. Schedule E

63. Snow-blindness is an example of

A. Radiation effect
B. Insufficient light
C. Vitamin A deficiency
D. Water pollution

64. Pasteurization of milk is a type of

A. Concurrent disinfection
B. Percurrent disinfection
C. Terminal disinfection
D. Partial disinfection

65. The Human Development Index (HD) ls a composite of all the following
components EXCEPT

A. Life expectancy at birth

B. Adult literacy rate and mean years of schooling
C. GDP per capita in US dollars
D. Life expectancy at 1 year

66. Which of the following is NOT primary prevention?

A. Pulse polio immunization

B. Vitamin A supplementation
C. Breast self-examination for tumor
D. Isoniazid (INH) to a baby breastfed by a sputum positive tubercular mother

67. The well-known Framingham Heart Study' is an example of:

A. Case control study

B. Nested case control study
C. Cohort study
D. Randomization study

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68. A person aged 40 years, working as a laborer in grain market for the last 25
years presented with a history of repeated attacks of respiratory infections in
the last 1 year. X-ray showed pulmonary fibrosis. The likely diagnosis was:

A. Silicosis
B. Silicotuberculosis
C. Farmer‟s lung
D. Baggassosis

69. Six of the ten family members living in a single room house complain of
intense itching with scratching in axillae, groin and hands; it is more marked
at night. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Scabies
B. Dermatitis
C. Eczema
D. Psoriasis

70. A water sample was taken from a village. On chemical analysis fluoride level
was found to be 0.03 mg/lit. The likely effect on the body is:

A. Dental flourosis
B. Dental caries
C. Skeletal flourosis
D. Caries spine

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