Question 1-3

In most of Europe, farmers' homes and outbuildings are generally located within a village, and
tools and animals are housed there. Every morning, the farmers and farm laborers leave their village
to work their land or tend their animals in distant fields, and return to the village at the end of the
day. Social life is thus centripetal; that is, it is focused around the community center, the village. Only
in certain parts of Quebec has this pattern been preserved in North America.
Throughout most of North America, a different pattern was established. It was borrowed from
northern Europe, but was pushed even further in the New World where land was cheap or even free.
It is a centrifugal system of social life, with large isolated farms whose residents go to the village
only to buy goods and procedure services. The independence associated with American farmers
stems from this pattern of farm settlement. The American farmer is as free of the intimacy of the
village as the urbanite.
1. The main topic of the first paragraph is
_____ (A) European farm product
_____ (B) Social life in Quebec
_____ (C) The European pattern of rural settlement
2. The main topic of the second paragraph is
_____ (A) the relative isolation of North American farm families
_____ (B) the relationship between farmers and urbanites in North America
_____ (C) the low cost of farmland in North America.
3. The main topic of the entire passage is
_____ (A) a comparison of farming in northern and southern Europe
_____ (B) the difference between farming in Quebec and the rest of North America
_____ (C) European influence on American Agriculture
_____ (D) a contrast between a centripetal system of rural life and a centrifugal system

Questions 4-8
A quilt is a bed cover made of squares of material pieced together. Each square consists of two
layers filled with a layer of wool or cotton cloth, feathers, or down. Often, the squares are decorated
with fancy stitches and designs. According to legend, the earliest pieced quilt was stitched in 1704 by
Sarah Sedgewick Everett, wife of the governor of the Massachusetts colony. By 1774 George
Washington was buying quilts in Belvoir, Virginia, to take back to Martha in Mount Vernon. As the
frontier moved westward, quilting went along. In addition to sleeping under them, homesteaders
kept out drafts by hanging quilts over doors and windows. And if the money ran out, quilts were
used to pay debts.
For isolated pioneer women, quilts were a source of comfort. Mary Wilman, whose family moved
to Texas from Missouri in 1890, recalled the first time she and her mother had to spend a week alone
and a dust storm came up. "The wind blew for three days and the dust was so thick that you couldn't
see the barn. My mother quilted all day,and she taught me how to quilt.If it hadn't been for quilting,
I think we would have gone crazy."
Quilting provided an important social function for the women of the frontier as well. At quilting
bees, women met to work on quilts and to share the latest news.
Today, however, the homely quilt has become a costly cultural phenomenon. The International
Quilt Festival in Houston, Texas, the "world's fair of quilting;' attracted only 2,500 people and
displayed only 200 quilts when it began a dozen years ago. This year there were over 20,000 visitors
and 5,000 quilts, some of which sold for as much as $50,000.
4. According to legend, who made the first American quilt?
___ (A) Sarah Sedgewick Everett
___ (B) the governor of the colony of Massachusetts
___ (C) Martha Washington
___ (D) Mary Wilman
5. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as one of the benefits of quilts for
pioneers?
___ (A) They could be used to pay debts.
___ (B) They could be used to help insulate houses.
___ (C) They could provide psychological comfort.
___ (D) They could be worn as warm clothing.
6. According to the passage, what is a "quilting bee?"
___ (A) A type of insect
___ (B) A gathering where women socialized and made quilts
___ (C) A type of quilt
___ (D) A place where people buy and sell quilts
7. In what state is the International Quilt Festival held?
___ (A) Massachusetts
___ (B) Texas
___ (C) Virginia
___ (D) Missouri
8. How many quilts were displayed at the first International Quilt Festival?
___ (A) 200
___ (B) 2,500
___ (C) 5,000
___ (D) 20,000

Questions 9-12
Design is the arrangement of materials to produce certain
effects. Design plays a role in visual arts and in the creation of
commercial products as well. Designers are concerned with the
direction of lines, the size of shapes, and the shading of
colors. They arrange these patterns in ways that are satisfying
to viewers. There are various elements involved in creating a
pleasing design.
Harmony, or balance, can be obtained in a number of ways. It
may be either symmetrical (in balance) or asymmetrical (out of
balance, but still pleasing to the eye). Or a small area may
balance a large area if it has an importance to the eye (because
of color or treatment) which equals that of the larger area.
Contrast is the opposite of harmony.The colors red and orange
harmonize, since orange contains red. A circle and oval
harmonize, as they are both made up of curved lines. But a short
line does not harmonize with a long line. It is in contrast.
Unity occurs when all the elements in a design combine to form
a consistent whole.Unity resembles balance.A design has balance
if its masses are balanced, or if its tones and colors
harmonize. But unity differs from balance because it implies that
balanced elements work together to form harmony in the design
as a whole.
9. The word "They" in line 5 refers to
___ (A) designers
___ (B) lines, shapes, and colors
___ (C) directions, size, and shape
___ (D) visual arts
10. The word "that" in line 12 is used as a reference to
___ (A) a color
___ (B) an area
___ (C) importance
___ (D) balance
11. The word "It" in line 16 is used as a reference to
___ (A) a circle
___ (B) the color red
___ (C) a long line
___ (D) a short line
12. In line 20, the word "it" refers to
___ (A) unity
___ (B) balance
___ (C) a design
___ (D) a consistent whole

Questions 13-17
The Hopi people of Arizona stress the institutions of family and
religion in a harmonious existence which makes the self-sacrificing
individual the ideal. The Hopi individual is trained to feel his or
her responsibility to and for the Peaceful People-the Hopi's
own term for themselves. Fighting, bullying, or attempting to
surpass others bring automatic rebuke from the community.
Implicit in the Hopi view is an original and integrated theory of
the universe. With this they organize their society in such a way
to obtain a measure of security from a harsh and hazardous
environment made up of human foes, famine, and plagues. They
conceive of the universe-humans, animals, plants, and supernatural
spirits-as an ordered system functioning under a set of rules
known to them alone. These rules govern their behavior, emotions,
and thoughts in a prescribed way.
13. The word "stress" in line 1 is closest in meaning to
___ (A) emphasize
___ (B) define
___ (C) describe
___ (D) persuade
14. Which of the following could best substitute for the word "harmonious" in line 2?
___ (A) Cooperative
___ (B) Dangerous
___ (C) Philosophical
___ (D) Exclusive
15. The word "term" in line 5 is closest in meaning to
___ (A) era
___ (B) name
___ (C) area
___ (D) law
16. The word "bullying" in line 5 is closest in meaning to
___ (A) lying
___ (B) organizing
___ (C) entertaining
___ (D) tormenting
17. Which of the following can replace the word "rebuke" in line 6 with the least change in
meaning?
___ (A) Prestige
___ (B) Criticism
___ (C) Reaction
___ (D) Acknowledgment

Questions 18-20
For most modern airports, the major design problem is scale-how to allow
adequate space on the ground for maneuvering wide-body jets while permitting
convenient and rapid movement of passengers departing, arriving, or transferring from
one flight to another.
Most designs for airport terminals take one of four approaches. In the linear
plan, the building may be straight or curved. The passengers board aircraft parked next
to the terminal. This plan works well for small airports that need to provide boarding
areas for only a few aircraft at a time.
In the pier plan, narrow corridors or piers extend from a central building. This
plan allows many aircraft to park next to the building. However, it creates long walking
distances for passengers.
In the satellite plan, passengers board aircraft from small terminals that are
separated from the main terminals. Passengers reach the satellites by way of shuttle
trains or underground passageways that have shuttle trains or moving sidewalks.
The transporter plan employs some system of transport to move passengers
from the terminal building to the aircraft. If buses are used, the passengers must climb a
flight of stairs to board the aircraft. If mobile lounges are used, they can link up directly
with the aircraft and protect passengers from the weather.
18. It can be inferred that scale would not pose a major design problem at airports if
___ (A) airports were larger
___ (B) aircraft did not need so much space to maneuver on the ground
___ (C) other forms of transportation were more efficient
___ (D) airplanes could fly faster
 19. The linear plan would probably be best at
___ (A) a busy airport
___ (B) an airport used by many small aircraft
___ (C) an airport with only a few arrivals or departures
___ (D) an airport that serves a large city
20. The passage implies that the term "satellite plan" is used because
___ (A) satellites are launched and tracked from these sites
___ (B) small terminals encircle the main terminal like satellites around a planet
___ (C) the plan makes use of the most modern, high-technology equipment
___ (D) airports that make use of this plan utilize data from weather satellites

Question 21-26
The first Dutch outpost in New Netherlands was made at Fort Orange (21)___ in 1624; it became a
depot of the fur trade. But the most important settlement was at the southern tip of Manhattan,
commanding the great harbor at the mouth of the Hudson River. Peter Minuit, first governor-general
of New Netherlands (22)___ title to the island from the Canarsie Indians for the equivalent of
twenty-four dollars worth of trinkets. However, the Canarsie Indians might be described as tourists
from Brooklyn; Minuit had to make a later payment to the group that was actually resident there.
In 1626 engineers from Holland arrived in Manhattan to construct Fort Amsterdam. Within its
rectangular walls, permanent houses were built, replacing (23)___. The fort became the nucleus of
the town of New Amsterdam. Soon Manhattan had its first skyline: the solid outline of the fort, the
flagstaff, the silhouette of a giant windmill, and the masts of trading ships.
The Dutch West India Company established (24)___. Each morning, the cattle were driven to the
"Bouwerie" (now the Bowery), a large open common in the city. Just southwest of the Bouwerie was
the Bowling Green, a level area where the burghers played ninepins, the ancestor of modern
bowling. The Bowling Green became (25)___ where livestock were marketed; beer and sausage was
available from booths; cheese, lace, and linen were sold by farmers' wives; and Indian women sold
baskets and other handicrafts. These colorful gatherings and other aspects of everyday life in New
Amsterdam are described in Washington Irving's rollicking book, Diedrich Knickerbocker's History of
New York.
The last and most powerful governor-general of New Netherlands was Peter Stuyvesant, famous for
his temper and his wooden leg. He annexed the Swedish colony of Delaware and ordered the streets
of New Amsterdam laid out in an orderly manner and numbered. He did his best to obtain military
and financial aid from Holland against the British. When the British sent emissaries demanding the
(26)___, he wanted to fight.
Four British warships, commanded by Colonel Richard Nicolls, sailed into the harbor in 1664. The fort
was long out of repair, and there was a shortage of ammunition. Stuyvesant had no choice but to
surrender. New Netherlands became the British colony of New York, and New Amsterdam became
New York City.

21. The first Dutch outpost in New Netherlands was made at Fort Orange ______ in 1624; it became a
depot of the fur trade.
- (A) (now Albany)
- (B) (later New York)
- (C) (currently Boston)
- (D) (known as Montreal)

22. Peter Minuit, first governor-general of New Netherlands, ______ title to the island from the
Canarsie Indians for the equivalent of twenty-four dollars worth of trinkets.
- (A) sold
 - (B) "purchased"
- (C) traded
- (D) leased

23. Permanent houses were built, replacing ______.

- (A) the modern skyscrapers
- (B) the colonial structures
- (C) the thatched dwellings of the original Manhattanites
- (D) the commercial buildings

24. The Dutch West India Company established ______.

- (A) dairy farms in the vicinity of New Amsterdam
- (B) fishing villages along the coast
- (C) large plantations in the south
- (D) mining operations in the mountains

25. The Bowling Green became ______.

- (A) a public park
- (B) the site of a cattle fair
- (C) a military training ground
- (D) a residential area

26. When the British sent emissaries demanding the ______, he wanted to fight.
- (A) evacuation of the town
- (B) signing of a treaty
- (C) surrender of the colony
- (D) rebuilding of the fort

Question 27-32
Ambient divers, unlike divers who go underwater in submersible vehicles or pressure-resistant suits,
are exposed to the pressure and temperature of the surrounding (27)___. Of all types of diving, the
oldest and simplest is free diving. Free divers may use no equipment at all, but most use a face mask,
foot fins, and a snorkel. Under the surface, free divers must hold their breath. Most free divers can
descend only (28)___, but some skilled divers can go as deep as 100 feet.

Scuba diving provides greater range than free diving. The word scuba stands for (29)___. Scuba divers
wear metal tanks with compressed air or other breathing gases. When using (30)___, a scuba diver
simply breathes air from the tank through a hose and releases the exhaled air into the water. A
closed-circuit breathing device, also called a (31)___, filters out carbon dioxide and other harmful
gases and automatically adds oxygen. This enables the diver to breathe the same air over and over.

In surface-supplied diving, divers wear helmets and waterproof canvas suits. Today, sophisticated
plastic helmets have replaced the heavy copper helmets used in the past. These divers get their air
from a hose connected to (32)___. Surface-supplied divers can go deeper than any other type of
ambient diver.
27. Ambient divers, unlike divers who go underwater in submersible vehicles or pressure-resistant
suits, are exposed to the pressure and temperature of the surrounding ______.
- (A) (cold) water
- (B) (deep) water
- (C) (ambient) water
- (D) (salty) water

28. Most free divers can descend only ______, but some skilled divers can go as deep as 100 feet.
- (A) 10 to 20 feet
- (B) 20 to 30 feet
- (C) 30 to 40 feet
- (D) 40 to 50 feet

29. The word scuba stands for ______.

- (A) self-contained underwater breathing apparatus
- (B) submersible controlled underwater breathing apparatus
- (C) specialized compressed underwater breathing apparatus
- (D) simple contained underwater breathing apparatus

30. When using ______, a scuba diver simply breathes air from the tank through a hose and releases
the exhaled air into the water.
- (A) closed-circuit equipment
- (B) half-circuit equipment
- (C) full-circuit equipment
- (D) open-circuit equipment

31. A closed-circuit breathing device, also called a ______, filters out carbon dioxide and other
harmful gases and automatically adds oxygen.
- (A) regulator
- (B) respirator
- (C) rebreather
- (D) retainer

32. These divers get their air from a hose connected to ______.
- (A) tanks on the shore
- (B) compressors on a boat
- (C) bottles in the suit
- (D) cylinders in the helmet

Question 33-38
In most of the earliest books for children, illustrations were (33)___. But in the Caldecott "toy books,"
pictures were as important as the few lines of copy, and they occupied far more space. One can
almost read the nursery rhymes from the dramatic action in the pictures.

Since then, thousands of successful picture books have been (34)___. In the best, the text and
illustrations seem to complement each other perfectly. Often (35)___-for example, Robert McCloskey
(Make Way for Ducklings) and Arnold Loebel (Frog and Toad Together). Many others have been
produced by an author-artist team, as in The Happy Lion, written by Louise Fatio and illustrated by
Roger Duvoisin.

(36)___ have also become popular. With a little help, three- or four-year-olds can follow the
sequence of events and they can understand the stories suggested in them. One of the most (37)___
is Jan Ormerod's Sunshine.

American publishers have also drawn on artists from other countries whose (38)___ have brought
their different visions to American children's book illustration. Among them are Leo Lionni from Italy,
Feoddor Rojankowski from Russia, and Taro Yashima from Japan.

33. In most of the earliest books for children, illustrations were ______.
- (A) a highlight
- (B) an afterthought
- (C) a focal point
- (D) the main feature

34. Since then, thousands of successful picture books have been ______.
- (A) illustrated by famous artists
- (B) published in the United States and in many countries around the world
- (C) printed in various formats
- (D) written by different authors

35. Often ______-for example, Robert McCloskey (Make Way for Ducklings) and Arnold Loebel (Frog
and Toad Together).
- (A) two people collaborate on a book
- (B) one person is the author and illustrator
- (C) the illustrator works alone
- (D) a team of writers creates the text

36. ______ have also become popular.

- (A) Long novels
- (B) Illustrated dictionaries
- (C) Wordless picture books
- (D) Science fiction stories

37. One of the most ______ is Jan Ormerod's Sunshine.

- (A) famous illustrated novels
- (B) delightful examples of a wordless book
- (C) complex storybooks
- (D) educational textbooks

38. American publishers have also drawn on artists from other countries whose ______ have brought
their different visions to American children's book illustration.
- (A) original, imaginative works
- (B) realistic paintings
- (C) classic styles
- (D) traditional methods
Question 39-44
Canadian researchers have discovered (39)___ that determine the lifespan of the common
nematode, a type of worm. This finding sheds new light on (40)___ that may eventually allow
scientists to delay the inexorable process of aging and death.

By manipulating the newly discovered genes, the team at McGill University in Montreal was able to
(41)___ fivefold. Altering the genes apparently (42)___ to a more leisurely pace. This in turn may
slow the accumulation of (43)___.

Although the causes of aging in humans are undoubtedly more involved, researchers are confident
that the discoveries will (44)___.

39. Canadian researchers have discovered ______ that determine the lifespan of the common
nematode, a type of worm.
- (A) a species of bacteria
- (B) a set of genes
- (C) a type of enzyme
- (D) a kind of protein

40. This finding sheds new light on ______ that may eventually allow scientists to delay the
inexorable process of aging and death.
- (A) the immune response
- (B) the genetic code
- (C) the aging process
- (D) the cellular structure

41. By manipulating the newly discovered genes, the team at McGill University in Montreal was able
to ______ fivefold.
- (A) increase the lifespan of the nematode
- (B) alter the appearance of the nematode
- (C) change the diet of the nematode
- (D) improve the health of the nematode

42. Altering the genes apparently ______ to a more leisurely pace.

- (A) accelerated the growth of the worms
- (B) stopped the reproduction of the worms
- (C) sped up the metabolism of the worms
- (D) slowed the metabolism of the worms

43. This in turn may slow the accumulation of ______.

- (A) harmful bacteria
- (B) the DNA defects thought to cause aging
- (C) unnecessary proteins
- (D) excessive fats

44. Researchers are confident that the discoveries will ______.

- (A) cure all known diseases
 - (B) provide invaluable clues about this heretofore mysterious process
- (C) eliminate genetic mutations
- (D) enhance physical performance

Question 45-50
The sea has been rising (45)___ for at least 100 years, geologists say. During that same period, the
Atlantic Coast has eroded an average of (46)___, the Gulf Coast even faster. Many engineers
maintain that (47)___ are necessary to protect the nation's shoreline. Too many people live or
vacation in Miami Beach, Atlantic City, or Martha's Vineyard to allow their roads and buildings to
simply fall into the sea.

The problem with seawalls is that they simply don't work. One study has shown that, in fact, seawalls
(48)___.

Faced with the loss of their beaches, other communities have tried a simple but expensive solution:
(49)___. These replenishment programs, however, are costly and of dubious value. Another study has
shown that only (50)___.

45. The sea has been rising ______ for at least 100 years, geologists say.
- (A) above the sky
- (B) relative to the land
- (C) alongside the coast
- (D) parallel to the shore

46. During that same period, the Atlantic Coast has eroded an average of ______.
- (A) 5 to 6 feet per month
- (B) 2 to 3 feet per year
- (C) 1 to 2 inches per decade
- (D) 4 to 5 meters per century

47. Many engineers maintain that ______ are necessary to protect the nation's shoreline.
- (A) steel barriers
- (B) seawalls and replenished beaches
- (C) floating docks
- (D) concrete piers

48. One study has shown that, in fact, seawalls ______.

- (A) reduce beach erosion
- (B) stabilize the coastline
- (C) accelerate the erosion of beaches
- (D) increase beach width

49. Faced with the loss of their beaches, other communities have tried a simple but expensive
solution: ______.
- (A) build taller buildings
- (B) replace the lost sand
- (C) plant more trees
- (D) construct more piers
50. Another study has shown that only ______.
- (A) 50% of seawalls are effective
- (B) 20% of beaches are natural
- (C) 10% of replenished beaches lasted more than 5 years
- (D) 30% of coastal areas need protection

KUNCI JAWABAN DAN PEMBAHASAN

Questions 1-3
1. The main topic of the first paragraph is:
_____ (C) The European pattern of rural settlement

Explanation: The first paragraph discusses how European farmers typically live in villages and travel
to their fields each day, with a focus on this pattern of rural settlement in Europe.

2. The main topic of the second paragraph is:

_____ (A) the relative isolation of North American farm families

Explanation: The second paragraph contrasts the North American pattern of isolated farms with the
European pattern, highlighting the isolation and independence of North American farmers.

3. The main topic of the entire passage is:

_____ (D) a contrast between a centripetal system of rural life and a centrifugal system

Explanation: The passage compares the centripetal social life in European villages with the centrifugal
social life in North American farms, focusing on these contrasting systems.

Questions 4-8
4. According to legend, who made the first American quilt?
___ (A) Sarah Sedgewick Everett

Explanation: The passage states that according to legend, Sarah Sedgewick Everett made the earliest
pieced quilt in 1704.

5. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as one of the benefits of quilts for
pioneers?
___ (D) They could be worn as warm clothing.

Explanation: The passage mentions that quilts could be used to pay debts, insulate houses, and
provide psychological comfort, but it does not mention quilts being worn as clothing.

6. According to the passage, what is a "quilting bee?"

___ (B) A gathering where women socialized and made quilts

Explanation: The passage describes quilting bees as social gatherings where women worked on quilts
and shared news.
7. In what state is the International Quilt Festival held?
___ (B) Texas

Explanation: The passage mentions that the International Quilt Festival is held in Houston, Texas.

8. How many quilts were displayed at the first International Quilt Festival?
___ (A) 200

Explanation: The passage states that the first International Quilt Festival displayed 200 quilts.

Questions 9-12
9. The word "They" in line 5 refers to:
___ (A) designers

Explanation: "They" refers to designers, who arrange lines, shapes, and colors in satisfying patterns.

10. The word "that" in line 12 is used as a reference to:

___ (B) an area

Explanation: "That" refers to an area which has importance to the eye, balancing a larger area.

11. The word "It" in line 16 is used as a reference to:

___ (D) a short line

Explanation: "It" refers to a short line which does not harmonize with a long line and is in contrast.

12. In line 20, the word "it" refers to:

___ (B) balance

Explanation: "It" refers to balance, which is discussed in relation to unity and design elements.

Questions 13-17
13. The word "stress" in line 1 is closest in meaning to:
___ (A) emphasize

Explanation: "Stress" means to emphasize, which fits the context of the Hopi people emphasizing
family and religion.

14. Which of the following could best substitute for the word "harmonious" in line 2?
___ (A) Cooperative

Explanation: "Harmonious" means cooperative or peaceful, fitting the description of the Hopi way of
life.

15. The word "term" in line 5 is closest in meaning to:

___ (B) name
Explanation: "Term" means name in this context, as it refers to the Hopi's own name for themselves,
"Peaceful People."

16. The word "bullying" in line 5 is closest in meaning to:

___ (D) tormenting

Explanation: "Bullying" means tormenting, which is a behavior that the Hopi community rebukes.

17. Which of the following can replace the word "rebuke" in line 6 with the least change in meaning?
___ (B) Criticism

Explanation: "Rebuke" means criticism, which fits the context of community disapproval.

Questions 18-20
18. It can be inferred that scale would not pose a major design problem at airports if:
___ (B) aircraft did not need so much space to maneuver on the ground

Explanation: The design problem of scale arises from the need for space for wide-body jets to
maneuver, so if this need did not exist, scale would not be a major problem.

19. The linear plan would probably be best at:

___ (C) an airport with only a few arrivals or departures

Explanation: The linear plan works well for small airports with a few aircraft at a time.

20. The passage implies that the term "satellite plan" is used because:
___ (B) small terminals encircle the main terminal like satellites around a planet

Explanation: The term "satellite plan" refers to small terminals (satellites) surrounding the main
terminal, similar to how satellites orbit a planet.

Structure Fill The Blank Parts in Text 21 - 50

21. (now Albany):
 _____ “now Albany”
 Structure Explanation: Parenthetical phrase providing additional information about the location
of Fort Orange.
22. "purchased":
 _____ “purchased”
 Structure Explanation: Quotation marks indicating that the term is being used in a specific or
ironic sense.
23. the thatched dwellings of the original Manhattanites:
 _____ “the thatched dwellings of the original Manhattanites”
 Structure Explanation: Noun phrase providing a description of the initial homes in Manhattan.
24. dairy farms in the vicinity of New Amsterdam:
 _____ “dairy farms in the vicinity of New Amsterdam”
 Structure Explanation: Noun phrase describing the type and location of farms established by the
Dutch West India Company.
25. the site of a cattle fair:
 _____ “the site of a cattle fair”
 Structure Explanation: Noun phrase indicating what the Bowling Green became known for.
26. surrender of the colony:
 _____ “surrender of the colony”
 Structure Explanation: Noun phrase describing the action that Peter Stuyvesant was asked to
perform by the British.
27. (ambient) water:
 _____ “(ambient) water”
 Structure Explanation: Parenthetical phrase providing additional information about the type of
water surrounding the divers.
28. 30 to 40 feet:
 _____ “30 to 40 feet”
 Structure Explanation: Noun phrase indicating the typical depth range for most free divers.
29. self-contained underwater breathing apparatus:
 _____ “self-contained underwater breathing apparatus”
 Structure Explanation: Noun phrase explaining the acronym “scuba.”
30. open-circuit equipment:
 _____ “open-circuit equipment”
 Structure Explanation: Noun phrase describing the type of scuba equipment where exhaled air is
released into the water.
31. rebreather:
 _____ “rebreather”
 Structure Explanation: Noun referring to a type of closed-circuit breathing device.
32. compressors on a boat:
 _____ “compressors on a boat”
 Structure Explanation: Noun phrase describing the source of air supply for surface-supplied
divers.
33. an afterthought:
 _____ “an afterthought”
 Structure Explanation: Noun phrase describing the status of illustrations in the earliest children's
books.
34. published in the United States and in many countries around the world:
 _____ “published in the United States and in many countries around the world”
 Structure Explanation: Verb phrase describing where successful picture books have been
published.
35. one person is the author and illustrator:
 _____ “one person is the author and illustrator”
 Structure Explanation: Noun clause providing information about who creates some of the best
picture books.
36. wordless picture books:
 _____ “wordless picture books”
 Structure Explanation: Noun phrase referring to a type of picture book that has become popular.
37. delightful examples of a wordless book:
 _____ “delightful examples of a wordless book”
 Structure Explanation: Noun phrase describing a type of wordless book.
38. original, imaginative works:
 _____ “original, imaginative works”
  Structure Explanation: Adjective phrase describing the contributions of international artists to
American children's book illustration.
39. a set of genes:
 _____ “a set of genes”
 Structure Explanation: Noun phrase describing what the Canadian researchers have discovered.
40. the aging process:
 _____ “the aging process”
 Structure Explanation: Noun phrase explaining the focus of the new discovery.
41. increase the lifespan of the nematode:
 _____ “increase the lifespan of the nematode”
 Structure Explanation: Verb phrase indicating the effect of gene manipulation by the McGill
University team.
42. slowed the metabolism of the worms:
 _____ “slowed the metabolism of the worms”
 Structure Explanation: Verb phrase describing the result of altering the genes.
43. the DNA defects thought to cause aging:
 _____ “the DNA defects thought to cause aging”
 Structure Explanation: Noun phrase providing the reason behind slowing the worms'
metabolism.
44. provide invaluable clues about this heretofore mysterious process:
 _____ “provide invaluable clues about this heretofore mysterious process”
 Structure Explanation: Verb phrase describing the potential benefits of the discoveries for
understanding aging in humans.
45. relative to the land:
 _____ “relative to the land”
 Structure Explanation: Prepositional phrase describing the sea's movement in comparison to the
land.
46. 2 to 3 feet per year:
 _____ “2 to 3 feet per year”
 Structure Explanation: Numerical phrase indicating the average rate of erosion on the Atlantic
Coast.
47. seawalls and replenished beaches:
 _____ “seawalls and replenished beaches”
 Structure Explanation: Noun phrase describing the measures suggested by engineers to protect
the shoreline.
48. accelerate the erosion of beaches:
 _____ “accelerate the erosion of beaches”
 Structure Explanation: Verb phrase explaining the effect of seawalls on beach erosion.
49. replace the lost sand:
 _____ “replace the lost sand”
 Structure Explanation: Verb phrase describing the goal of beach replenishment programs.
50. 10% of replenished beaches lasted more than 5 years:
 _____ “10% of replenished beaches lasted more than 5 years”
 Structure Explanation: Numerical phrase indicating the success rate of replenished beaches.