DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, DURGAPUR

SAMPLE PAPER (2024-25)

CLASS- XII
Time: 3 Hours SUBJECT- ENGLISH CORE(301) Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
i) This question paper consists of 11 pages and 13questions.
ii) This question paper is divided into 3 sections: -
iii) All questions are compulsory. Marks are indicated against each question.

Section A: READING SKILLS (22 marks)

Reading Comprehension Through Unseen Passages
1. Read the following text. 12 m
1. Apollo, the Greek god of music and healing, always maintained that he was the greatest musician in
the world, until Marsyas, who was part animal and part human, played the flute. Apollo's jealousy and
insecurity drove him to eventually slay Marsyas so that his status as the greatest musician remained
unchallenged. One’s usual imagination of a god is a being who is all-knowing and pure in every
intention. What makes the Greek gods interesting is that they are shown as flawed beings who do not
always act like ‘Gods’.
2. In appearance, the gods resemble mortals, whom, however, they far surpass in beauty, grandeur, and
strength; they are also more commanding in stature, height being considered by the Greeks an attractive
feature in men or women. They resemble human beings in their feelings and habits, marrying and
having children with them. They require daily nourishment to maintain their strength, and sleep to
restore their energy. Their blood, a bright magical fluid called Ichor, never causes disease, and, when
shed, produces new life.
3. The Greeks believed that the mental qualifications of their gods were much higher than those of
men, but, nevertheless, displayed human passions like revenge, deceit, and jealousy. In mythological
tales, the gods always punish the evil-doer and administer dire punishments to any mortal who dares
to neglect their worship. They often visit mankind and partake of their hospitality, and in many tales,
both gods and goddesses become attached to mortals. Although there were so many points of
resemblance between gods and men, there remained the one great characteristic distinction:
immortality. Still, the gods were not invulnerable, and were often wounded and suffered so much that
they’d pray for death. The gods could transport themselves to incredible distances with the
speed of thought.
4. They could be invisible at will, and could take the forms of men or animals as it suited
their convenience. They could also transform human beings into trees, stones, or
animals. Their robes were like those worn by mortals, but were perfect in form and much
finer in texture. Their weapons also resembled those used by mankind. They often used
spears, shields, helmets, bows and arrows. Most of these divinities lived on the summit
of Mount Olympus, each having his or her own palace. Magnificent temples were
erected to their honour, rich gifts were presented to them, and living creatures were
sacrificed on their altars.

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5. In Greek mythology, the gods take every opportunity to reveal and establish their divinity but also
fall prey to human impulses. Perhaps the Greeks did so to help generations of readers reflect on
important life lessons to avoid tragic downfalls.
- E. M. Berens
Answer the following questions based on the passage above
i. they are shown as flawed beings who do not always act like 'Gods'. (paragraph 1)
Which of these are examples of the above statement? 1
I. Gods getting attached and falling in love
II. Gods punishing mortals for their wrongdoing
III. Gods showing kindness and compassion to all
IV. Gods deceiving everyone for their personal gain
V. Gods killing a mortal out of jealousy and insecurity
Select the correct option.
A. Only I and III B. Only II and V
C. Only I, IV, and V D. Only II, IV, and V
ii. Which of these would Apollo most likely say about Marsyas' musical ability? 1
A. 'Why does everyone think he plays music well? It is obvious that he doesn't have talent.'
B. 'Why is he challenging me like that? I wonder what is troubling him that I can heal.
C. 'How can an animal play the flute? Such creatures must know their place.'
D. 'How dare he play better than me? I am supposed to be the best in the world.
iii. Why does the author begin the passage with a description of Apollo? 1
A. to show that the Greek Gods have immense power and influence over the mortals
B. to emphasise the point that the Greek Gods are based in interesting stories
C. to highlight the point that the Greek Gods are more human-like in nature
D. to state that the Greek Gods are also allowed to make mistakes
iv. What is ironic about Apollo being the one who slays Marsyas? Answer in about 40 words. 2
v. Based on your reading of paragraph 3, explain what 'invulnerable' means. Answer in one
sentence. 1
vi. In 40 words, state any two ways that the Greek gods are superior to human beings. 2
vii. Complete the given sentence with ONE word.
From the fact that the Greek gods punish any mortal who neglects their worship, we can infer
that they are _ 1
viii. Imagine that someone was born from Ichor. In which of these situations would the Ichor be
most useful?
A. a natural disaster that causes the earth to split apart
B. a pandemic that has been caused by a contagious virus
C. a war that requires transforming into another form quickly
D. a competitive entrance exam that is very tough to qualify for
ix. What does the author mean by 'tragic downfalls' in paragraph 5? Give an example of a tragic
downfall in current times in about 40 words. 2

2. Read the following text. 10 m

(1) Zebras are known for their distinctive black and white stripes. The intriguing enigma of these
stripes lies in their function and nature. Specifically, two scientific studies have sought to
understand the purpose and underlying mechanisms of zebras' unique stripes.

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(2) Study 1- The Case of Alison & Stephen Cobb's Study:
(Published in The Journal of Natural History, Volume 53, Issue 13-14)
i) Researcher couple, Alison and Stephen Cobb, conducted an experiment that explored the idea of
zebras' stripes helping to keep them cool and shared that thermoregulation was the primary function
of zebra stripes.
ii) They measured the temperatures of black and white stripes on two zebras, throughout separate
sunny days in Kenya. There was a 12–15oC difference between zebras’ stripe temperatures
throughout the middle seven daytime hours.
iii) They shared that the movement of sweat away from the skin is accelerated by the surfactant
equid -protein -latherin - a vital component of cooling in racehorses.
iv) They noted that latherin decreases the surface tension of the sweat, facilitating evaporative
cooling at the hair tips.
v) Their theory was that the abrupt temperature difference between the stripes causes chaotic air
movement above the hair surface, thus enhancing evaporative heat dissipation.
(3) Study -2 The Case of Prof. Tim Caro's Experiment:
(Published in The Journal of Experimental Biology, Volume 226, Issue 4)
i) Prof. Caro and four other researchers investigated what deters horseflies from landing on zebras.
ii) Their experiment involved close-up observations of fly behaviour around zebras. They also
observed the flies' interactions with domestic horses, some of which were dressed in striped jackets,
and others left without.
iii) The results of the study showed that flies approached all three groups—the zebras, the horses
with striped jackets, and the plain horses—similarly. However, they behaved differently around the
zebras and the horses with striped jackets. Flies approaching these animals merely bounced off,
whereas they could land on plain horses.
iv) The researchers concluded that the sharply outlined and thin stripes are the deterrent to horseflies
as it is the occurrence of only large monochrome dark patches that are highly attractive to horseflies
at close distances.
[Created for academic usage / 350 words]
Answer the following questions, based on given passage.
i What might be the MOST likely purpose of the author’s use of "intriguing enigma”, while
referring to the zebra stripes? 1
ii Supply the response to the following, in a phrase, from (2) of the text given above.
According to the Cobb's study, what is the relation between zebras' stripes and thermoregulation? 1
iii Complete the sentence with an appropriate inference. 1
The choice of "middle...daytime hours" is likely driven by the need to study zebras under the
condition of ______________________
iv Select the option that DOES NOT display the nature of these experiments correctly. 1
A. Collaborative
B. Observational
C. Analytical
D. Fictional

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 v In the absence of latherin, a surfactant protein, what is the likely consequence for an equid, such
as a zebra or horse? 1
A. Improved thermoregulation in hot conditions.
B. Enhanced evaporative cooling.
C. Impaired sweating
D. Increased resistance to heat stress.
vi The text makes a mention of the studies being published. What implication does this hold for the
readers? (Answer in 30-40 words) 2
vii Which of the following can we cite as an example, to explain the meaning of “deterrent", as used
in the line - The researchers concluded that the sharply outlined and thin stripes are the deterrent to
horseflies ...? 1
A. Installing security cameras on a property will act as a deterrent for burglars.
B. Planting flowers in a garden will become a deterrent for pollinators like bees.
C. Painting a room in bright, for a welcoming atmosphere will be a perfect deterrent.
D. Hanging wind chimes on a porch is a common deterrent for the area’s visual appeal.
viii In terms of the purpose of the zebra stripes, examine, in 30-40 words, how the findings in the
Cobb's study and Prof. Caro's experiment align or differ? 2
SECTION B: CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS (18 marks)
3. Attempt ANY ONE of two in about 50 words. 4
A You are Asha, the Activity Coordinator of Vomaji Public School, Mumbai. Your school is
organising an excursion to Elephanta Caves for students of Class XI. Interested students will need to
make a payment of Rs 500 each. Draft a notice about this, in about 50 words, for your school notice
board, inviting registration of students interested in going for the excursion along with necessary
details. Also, inform that registrations would be invalid without parent-consent slips, available in the
Activity Room.
OR
B You are Mr. Afsal Ansari, the RWA Secretary of your residential society. While on your evening
walk in then neighbourhood park, you found a small faux-leather bag containing a few documents
and some cash. You write a notice in about 50 words to be put up on the RWA* notice board,
asking the owner to identify and collect it from you. Write this notice, with the necessary details.
[*Resident Welfare Association]
4 Attempt ANY ONE of two in about 50 words. 4
A You are a member of the Cultural Society at L.J. High School. Your school is organising a
cultural programme aimed at spreading awareness about environmental conservation. The
programme will have dance and song performances, poetry recitation, and art exhibitions by the
students throughout the day, in the school auditorium. In about 50 words, create an invitation for
parents and school teachers to attend. Mention the relevant details required for an invitation.
OR
B You and your parents have received an invitation for your elder cousin's wedding to be held in
Jaipur on 6th and 7th July. All of you would be delighted to attend. Draft a reply to your cousin
accepting the invite and sharing your excitement while congratulating him.

5.Attempt ANY ONE of two in about 120 – 150 words. 5

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A. You are Sheena Singh, a recent graduate of High Horizon School. You came across the
following advertisement about an internship in editing that you would like to apply for. Write a letter
to Books Galore, expressing your interest in the position along with your resumé.

OR
B. As Sarah Alter, a student at Lotus World Residential School, Nainital, you've observed the littering issue, in
and around the city, during the tourist season. Discuss the environmental and community impact of this
littering problem caused by most tourists and suggest measures to address it, in a letter to the Editor of 'The
Himalayan Bugle'. Use the given cues along with your own ideas to create this letter in about 120-150 words.

Description of the issue – Consequences (environmental) - Impact on the community (local residents) –
Solutions - Appeal for awareness & significance of a clean environment

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 6 Attempt ANY ONE of the two given below, in about 120-150 words. 5
A. With the rise of social media platforms and the ease with which information can be shared
online, false information can have m dire consequences. Write an article for the local daily, in 120-
150 words, highlighting the problem of the growing menace of fake news and misinformation,
analysing the issue and provide suggestions to tackle it. You are Kavita Bannerji, from Siliguri, West
Bengal. Use the given cues, along with your own ideas to create the article.
1. What is fake news, and why has it become a significant concern in the age of social media?
2. Analysing the Issue –
▪ How does misinformation affect public opinion and behaviour?
▪ What challenges do individuals and society face in combatting the spread of false information?
3. Suggestions to Tackle Fake News -
▪ What measures can social media platforms take to address the issue of fake news?
▪ How can individuals critically evaluate the information they encounter online?
4. Local Perspective -
• How does the issue of fake news affect the local community?
• What local resources or organisations can help address this problem?
OR
B. Your school recently organised a workshop on Active Listening for students of Classes XI and XII
on 21 January, 2024. As Simran Kaur, a member of the organising committee, draft a report covering
the event for your school's newspaper. Support your ideas with the outline cues given below to craft
your report.
→purpose of the workshop
→ who attended the workshop
→ activities that took place
→ key messages or takeaways from the workshop
→ post-workshop resources and information given to attendees
→ what impact the workshop would have on the students and their environment
SECTION C : LITERATURE TEXTBOOK AND SUPPLEMENTARY READING TEXT (40 marks)

7 Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two given 6
What I want should not be
confused
with total inactivity.
Life is what it is about;
I want no truck with death.
If we were not so single-minded
about keeping our lives moving,
and for once could do nothing,
perhaps a huge silence
might interrupt this sadness
of never understanding ourselves
and of threatening ourselves with death.
(Keeping Quiet)

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i.Which of these does the speaker imply through the following lines: 1
Life is what it is about;
I want no truck with death.
A. Life is meant to be lived and death should not be the focus here.
B. Life is meant to teach us lessons and near-death experiences are not always bad.
C. Life is full of adventures and the fear of death should not stop us from exploring them all.
D. Life is full of many choices and thoughts about death should not be a point of consideration.
ii. What does the speaker mean when he describes people as 'single-minded'? 1
A. People who only work towards understanding themselves.
B. People who are driven by only one passion in their life.
C. People who only focus on rushing through their life.
D. People who can focus on only one task at a time.
iii. Complete the given sentence appropriately. 1
Based on the extract, silence would help humanity to _________
iv. Justify the following statement as FALSE. 1
In the given extract, the speaker is ordering readers to do certain actions.
v. Based on the extract, how do you think the speaker feels about humanity? 1
Answer in one sentence.
vi. Observe how the lines in the poem break off at certain words. Give one reason why the poet has
structured the lines in this manner. 1
OR

... I saw my mother,

beside me,
doze, open mouthed, her face
ashen like that
of a corpse and realised with
pain
that she was as old as she
looked but soon
put that thought away, and
looked out at Young
Trees sprinting, the merry children spilling
out of their homes, ...
(My Mother at Sixty-Six)
i. Why does the poet compare her mother's face to a corpse? Answer in one sentence. 1
ii. What effect does the phrase 'open mouthed' have on the poem? 1
A. It builds a mood of surprise and shock in the poem.
B. It reveals the speaker's fear of her own death and mortality.
C. It adds to the imagery of the speaker's mother appearing dead.
D. It highlights the speaker's attempt at hiding her emotions from her mother.

iii. Complete the given sentence appropriately. 1

The contrast present in the given extract is between __________
iv. State a reason for the following. 1
The speaker looks out of the window while travelling with her mother
v.Which of these phrases uses the same poetic device as the following line from the extract? 1
looked out at Young Trees sprinting...

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A. that restaurant is as nice as the Big Fish
B. the pen became my highway to success
C. that fluffy cloud crying with sadness
D. the tall trees with many branches
vi.Why do you think the poet has placed the word 'pain' on a separate line? Give a reason. 1
8. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two, given. 4
A. The presidents of the New York Central and the New York, New Haven and Hartford railroads
will swear on a stack of timetables that there are only two. But I say there are three, because I've been
on the third level of the Grand Central Station. Yes, I've taken the obvious step: I talked to a
psychiatrist friend of mine, among others. I told him about the third level at Grand Central Station,
and he said it was a waking-dream wish fulfillment. He said I was unhappy. That made my wife kind
of mad, but he explained that he meant the modern world is full of insecurity, fear, war, worry and all
the rest of it, and that I just want to escape. Well, who doesn't? Everybody I know wants to escape,
but they don't wander down into any third level at Grand Central Station.
(The Third Level)
i. Complete the given sentence appropriately. 1
Unlike the two levels that have 'a stack of timetables' to prove their existence, the third level has
__________.
ii.Yes, I've taken the obvious step. 1
What is the narrator assuming that the reader is thinking when he says the above line?
iii. Which of these is an example of 'a waking-dream wish fulfillment' as described in the extract? 1
A. Meenal loses her book and swears that it is her enemy who stole it.
B. Milind claims that he was petting his beloved dog whom he lost a few years ago.
C. Malini tells everyone that she saw a Cheetah though she herself knows it is a lie.
D. Mrinal thinks that he saw a spaceship in the sky which later turned out to be a normal aircraft.
iv. Based on the extract, what does the narrator think about the psychiatrist's opinion? 1

OR
B.“Six hundred and fifty million years ago, a giant amalgamated southern supercontinent Gondwana
did indeed exist, centered roughly around the present day Antarctica. Things were quite different
then: humans hadn’t arrived on the global scene, and the climate was much warmer, hosting a huge
variety of flora and fauna. For 500 million years Gondwana thrived, but around the time when the
dinosaur were wiped out and the age of the mammals got under way, the landmass was forced to
separate into countries, shaping the globe much as we know it today.” (Journey to the End of the
Earth)
i. Complete the sentence appropriately. 1
Gondwana thrived for _________.
ii. Select the most suitable title for the given extract. 1
a. Students on Ice
b. A Journey to Antarctica
c. 24-hour journey
d. A journey to Aliens
iii. How is present day Antarctica different from Gondwana? 1
iv. Quote the expression that suggests that “Human civilization is new” on this planet. 1

9. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two given. 6

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A.The old man was just as generous with his confidences as with his porridge and tobacco. The guest
was informed at once that in his days of prosperity his host had been a crofter at Ramsjo Ironworks
and had worked on the land. Now that he was no longer able to do day labour, it was his cow which
supported him. Yes, that bossy was extraordinary. She could give milk for the creamery every day, and
last month he had received all of thirty kronor in payment. The stranger must have seemed incredulous,
for the old man got up and went to the window, took down a leather pouch which hung on a nail in the
very window frame, and picked out three wrinkled ten-kronor bills.
(The Rattrap)
i. Based on the extract, which of these can we infer about the old man? 1
A. He made more money at the creamery than as a crofter.
B. His occupation changed due to the limitations of old age.
C. His generosity increased as he became more prosperous in old age.
D. He preferred to earn by being his own boss rather than working under someone.
ii. What is the author implying when she compares the old man's confidences with his porridge and
tobacco? 1
iii. What is the author implying when she compares the old man's confidences with his porridge and
tobacco? 1
iv. Which of these sentences uses 'supported' in the same way as the extract does? 1
A. The pillars supported the thick ceiling that was made completely of stone.
B. Raman supported his friend's decision to find a job that pays her more money.
C. Lalitha supported her mother by sending some money home on a regular basis.
D. Few people supported the policy while the majority of the voters were against it.
v. Why would the peddler have seemed 'incredulous'? State a reason. 1
vi. Justify any one trait of the old man that the extract reveals. 1
OR
B. My breath was gone. I was frightened. Father laughed, but there was terror in my heart
at the overpowering force of the waves. My introduction to the Y.M.CA. swimming pool
revived unpleasant memories and stirred childish fears. But in a little while I gathered
confidence. I paddled with my new water wings, watching the other boys and trying to learn
by aping them. I did these two or three times on different days and was just beginning to feel
at ease in the water when the misadventure happened
i. “My introduction to the Y.M.CA. swimming pool revived unpleasant memories and stirred
childish fears.” It can be inferred that this was a clear case of 1
a) suppression
b) oppression
c) depression
d) repression
ii. Which unpleasant memory the author is talking about? 1
iii. If you could give the chapter a new title, what would it be?
iv. Identify the literary device in ‘I paddled with my new water wings…’ 1
v. Choose the correct option with reference to the two statements given below. 1
Statement 1: The author’s father laughed to mock his son’s inability to swim.
Statement 2: The author wanted to swim just to prove to his father that he can swim.
a) Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.
b) Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true.
c) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 cannot be inferred.

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d) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 can be inferred.
vi. Complete the sentence appropriately 1
The misadventure that took place right after the author felt comfortable was that _________.
10.Answer ANY FIVE of the following six questions in about 40-50 words 2x5=10
i. What were some strategies that helped the narrator to overcome his fear of water that one can apply
in their own life for facing any major fear? Explain any two. (Deep Water)
ii. A crisis brings out our true capacity for compassion and kindness.
Support the above statement using M. Hamel from 'The Last Lesson' as an example. State any one
detail from the text.
iii. How did Saheb’s pair of shoes reveal his untold misery? (Lost Spring)
iv. What made the peddler think that he had indeed fallen into a rattrap? ( The Rattrap)
v. How can the ‘mighty dead’ be described as ‘ a thing of beauty’?
vi. How was Gandhi's strategy of sacrifice and non-violence, in the Champaran Indigo movement, a
formidable catalyst for change? (Indigo)
11 Answer ANY TWO of the following three questions, in about 40-50 words. 2x2=4
i. How does the incident with the wooden tiger and its consequences, contribute to the overarching theme of
fate and retribution, in The Tiger King?
ii. How would a student’s learning experience be enhanced in the 'Students on Ice' programme as
compared to studying only in a classroom? Analyse any one point. (Journey to the End of the Earth)
iii. How would you evaluate Sam’s character? Elucidate any two qualities, and substantiate with
evidence from the text
12 Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 120-150 words. 5
i. Imagine that Edla Willmansson (The Rattrap), instead of Anees Jung, had the opportunity to interact with
Saheb and Mukesh of Lost Spring. How would she react? Why do you say so ?

OR
Imagine that Mahatma Gandhi from the text 'Indigo' visits Mukesh's town Firozabad as described in
'Lost Spring'. Gandhi sees how the poor bangle-makers are caught up in 'a vicious circle of the
sahukars, the middlemen, the policemen, the keepers of law, the bureaucrats and the politicians.' True
to his nature of being an activist and a social reformist, he decides to do something about it over a
month. As Mukesh, write a letter to your friend on the last day of Gandhi's one-month stay,
elaborating on any two things that he did that transformed the people's lives in Firozabad.
You may begin this way:
Dear -------
Today marks a month of Mahatma Gandhi being in our town...

13 Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 120-150 words. 5
i. The king in the story 'The Tiger King' was driven by the single purpose of staying alive based on
the prophecy that the hundredth tiger would kill him. He hunted tigers out of fear. Imagine that you
are living in the King's times, and he has killed seventy tigers at this point. As someone who cares
about animal welfare, write a letter to the king convincing him to stop hunting tigers.
You may begin this way:
My sincerest greetings to his majesty,
I am Rajan, a subject of your kingdom, and I am writing to you today
because...

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 OR
Imagine that you come across Louisa’s diary. What might you find in it about the third level?
Compose at least one diary entry based on any of the events from the story, ‘The Third Level’.

********************-----------------------------------------------**************************

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 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, DURGAPUR
SAMPLE PAPER (2024-25)
CLASS- XII
Time: 3 Hours SUBJECT- MATHEMATICS (041) Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
i) This question paper consists of 7 no. of pages and 38 questions. All questions are compulsory
ii) This question paper is divided into 5 sections -A, B, C, D and E.
iii) In Section A Question no. 1 to 18 are multiple choice questions (MCQ’s) and question number
19 and 20 are Assertion-Reason based questions of 1 mark each.
iv) In Section B, Question no. 21 to 25 are very short answer (VSA) type questions carrying 2
marks each.
v) In Section C, Question no. 26 to 31 are short answer (SA) type questions carrying 3 marks
each.
vi) In Section D, Question no. 32 to 35 are long answer (LA) type questions carrying 5 marks
each.
vii) In Section E, Question no. 36 to 38 are case study based questions carrying 4 marks each.
viii) There is no overall choice. However an internal choice has been provided in 2 questions in
Section B, 3 questions in Section C, 2 questions in Section D and 2 questions in Section E.

SECTION-A
(Multiple Choice Questions)
(Each question carries 1 mark)
Q1. 2𝑥 + 𝑦 4𝑥 7 7𝑦 − 13
𝐼𝑓 𝐴 = = 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑥 + 𝑦
5𝑥 − 7 4𝑥 𝑦 𝑥+6
(𝑎) 4 (𝑏)5 (𝑐)6 (𝑑) 9

Q2. ∫ dx = ax + b|4𝑒 + 5𝑒 |+C then

(a) a= b= ( b) a= b= ( c) a= b= ( d) None of these.

Q3. 3
 d 2 y   dy 
2
 dy 
The degree of the differential equation  2      sin   1  0
 dx   dx   dx 
(a)3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) not defined

Q4. The function f: 𝑅 → 𝑅 given by f(x) = [x]+1 is

(a) continuous as well as differentiable at x =1
(b) not continuous but differentiable at x = 1
(c) continuous but not differentiable at x = 1
(d) neither continuous nor differentiable at x = 1

Q5. 2 −1 3
2 3
If A = and B = 4 −2 then
−4 5 1
1 5
(a) only AB is defined (b) only BA is defined
(c) AB and BA both are defined (d) AB and BA both are not defined

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Q6.
The maximum number of equivalence relation on the set A = {1, 2. 3}are

(𝑎) 1 (𝑏)2 (𝑐) 3 (𝑑) 5

Q7. The set of points where the functions f given by f(x) = |𝑥 − 3| cosx is differentiable

is

(a (a) R (b) R-{3} (c)( 0, ∝) (d) none of these

Q8. If the radius of the circle is increasing at the rate of 0.5 cm/s ,then the rate of the increase
of its circumference is :
2 4
(a) cm/s ( b)  cm/s (c) cm/s ( d) 2  cm/s
3 3
Q9. 
3
The value of the integral  log(tan x)dx is

6
  
(a) (b) (c) 0 (d)
2 4 12
Q10. dy  2
If y =log sec x ,then the value of at x  is
dx 16
1 1 1
(a) (b)  (c) (d)
 2 4
Q11. An angle  ,(0 < 𝜃 < ) which increases 0.25 times as fast as its tangent ,is

  
(a) (b) (c) 0 (d)
2 4 12

Q12. A is a square matrix of order 3 such that adjA  64 , then A is

(a) 8 (b) 8 (c) -8 (d) 4

Q13.
 3 x2
A=   is a symmetric matrix, then x =
2x5 x2
(a) 4 (b) 7 (c) -4 (d) -7

Q14. If A and B are symmetric matrices of same order, AB’-BA is

( a) skew symmetric matrix (b) null matrix (c) symmetric matrix (d) unit

matrix.

Q15. ∫ 𝑒 (𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑥 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑥)) 𝑑𝑥 =

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/MATHEMATICS /Page 2of 7)

 (a) ex logsecx + C (b) ex tanx + C (c) ex (logcosx) + C (d) none of
these.

Q16. ∫ 𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝑥𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑥𝑑𝑥 is equal to

(a) 5𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝑥 + 𝐶 (b) 𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝑥 + C (c) 5 log(cosx) + C (d) 𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝑥 + C
Q17. ∫ |1 − 𝑥 | dx is equal to
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c)−2 (d) 0

Q18. The order of the differential equation satisfying √1 − 𝑥 + 1 − 𝑦 = a (𝑥 − 𝑦 ) where

a is

( a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

Questions number 19 and 20 Assertion and Reason based questions carrying 1

mark each. Two statements are given, one labelled Assertion (A) and the

other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes (a), (b),

(c) and (d) as given below.

(a) Both assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct

explanation of of the Assertion (A)

(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct

explanation of the Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason R is true.

Q19. .Assertion (A): Function f:R→ 𝑅, given by f(x)=sin x is not a bijection.

Reason (R): A function f:A→ 𝐵, given is said to be a bijection if it is one to one and

onto.

Q20. Assertion(A): The function f ( x)  (sin x  cos x) 2 , then at x = is 0

Reason (R): = ( )

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/MATHEMATICS /Page 3of 7)

 SECTION B
(This section comprises very short answer (VSA) type question of 2 marks each.)

Q21.  1 
Differentiate sec1  2  , w.r.t. 1  x 2
 2 x 1 

OR

  t  dy 
If x  a cos t  log  tan   ; y = a sin t , show that =1 at t =
  2  dx 4

Q22. 4 3
A particle moves along the curve y = x +5. Find the points on the curve at which
3

y- coordinate changes as fast as x – co ordinate.

Q23. Find the value of k so that the function f is continuous at x=0

, 𝑖𝑓 − 1 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 0
𝑓(𝑥) =
, 𝑖𝑓 0≤𝑥≤1

Q24. Find the least value of ‘a’ such that the function x2 +ax +1 is increasing on 1, 2  .

Q25.  5   13 
Find the value of tan 1  tan   cos 1 cos 
 6   6 
OR

Draw the graph of cos-1x, where x∈ [−1,0].. Also write its range .

SECTION –C
(This section comprises short answer (SA) type questions of 3 marks each)

Q26. Solve the differential equation: 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑥 𝑦 + xy =0

OR
1 dy
Find the general solution of the differential equations : (1  y 2 )  ( x  e tan y
) 0
dx
Q27. dy
If y=(sinx)tanx, find
dx
OR

If y = x  x 2  a 2  ,prove that dydx 
n ny
x2  a2

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/MATHEMATICS /Page 4of 7)

Q28. sin 1 x d2y dy
If y  , show that (1  x 2 ) 2
 3x  y  0
1  x2 dx dx

Q29.

x tan x
Find the value of  sec x  tan xdx
0

OR

x
 a  x3
3
dx
Find:

Q30.
dx
F Evaluate :  sin x  sin 2 x
Q31. ex
Evaluate :  5  4e x  e 2 x
dx

SECTION D
(This section comprises long answer (LA) type question of 5 marks each)

Q32. Show that the semi vertical angle of a cone of the maximum volume and of given area is
𝑠𝑖𝑛 .
OR
𝟑 𝟐 𝟐
If the function f(x) = 𝟐𝒙 − 𝟗𝒎𝒙 + 𝟏𝟐𝒎 𝒙 + 𝟏 where m > 0 attains its maximum and
minimum at p and q respectively such that 𝒑𝟐 = 𝒒, then find the value of m.

Q33. If N denotes the set of all natural numbers and R be the relation on 𝑁 × 𝑁 defined by
(a, b) R (c, d) if ad(b+c) = bc(a+d). Show that R is an equivalence relation.

Q34. Indicate the region bounded by the curves {(x, y):0  y  x2+2, 0  x  y, 0  x  3} and
obtain the area enclosed by the curves using integration them.

Q35. 1 −1 2 −2 0 1
Use the product of 0 2 −3 9 2 −3 to solve the system of equations:
3 −2 4 6 1 −2

𝒙 − 𝒚 + 𝟐𝒛 = 𝟏, 𝟐𝒚 − 𝟑𝒛 = 𝟏, 𝟑𝒙 − 𝟐𝒚 + 𝟒𝒛 = 𝟐

OR
1 2 −3
If A= 3 2 −2 ,find 𝐴 .Hence solve the system of equations
2 −1 1
𝒙 + 𝟐𝒚 − 𝟑𝒛 = 𝟔, 𝟑𝒙 + 𝟐𝒚 − 𝟐𝒛 = 𝟑, 𝟐𝒙 − 𝒚 + 𝒛 = 𝟐

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/MATHEMATICS /Page 5of 7)

 SECTION E
(This section comprises of 3 case study based questions of 4 marks each. )

Q36. Case Study -1

A particle is moving on a path given by the function s(t) =𝒕𝟐 -6t+18, where t is the time
elapsed and s is the distance covered by the particle in metre at a particular time t secs,
Based on the above mentioned facts answer the following:

(i)find the velocity of the particle.

(ii)Find the acceleration of the particle.
(iii)Find the minimum distance covered by the particle.
OR
Find the time taken by the particle to cover minimum distance .

Q37. Case Study -2

Raji visited the Exhibition along with her family. The Exhibition had a huge swing,
which attracted many children. Raji found that the swing traced the path of a Parabola as
given by 𝑦 = 𝑥 2.

Answer the following questions using the above information.

(i)If f : R  R defined by f(x)=x2 then justify whether f is a injective function or not?
(ii) Find the area covered by the 𝑦 = 𝑥 2.,y=0,-1<x<1.
(iii)f h : R  R defined by h(x)=xf(x)+1 then justify whether h(x) is injective or not?
OR
(iii)Show that the function h(x) has a point of inflection at x=0.

Q 38. Case Study 3

The relation between the height of the plant (y in cm)with respect to its exposure to the
1
sunlight is governed by the following equation y  4 x  x 2 , where ' x is the number of
2
days exposed to the sunlight, for x 3

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/MATHEMATICS /Page 6of 7)

(i)Find the rate of growth of the plant with respect to the number of days exposed to the
sunlight.
(ii) What will be the number of days required by the plant to grow the maximum height?
OR
(ii) What will be the maximum height?

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/MATHEMATICS /Page 7of 7)

 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL,DURGAPUR
SAMPLE PAPER (2024-25)
CLASS- XII
Time: 3 Hours SUBJECT- APPLIED MATHEMATICS (241) Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 5 no. of pages and 38 questions. All questions are
compulsory.
2.This Question paper contains - five sections A,B,C,D and E. Each section is
compulsory. However, there is some internal choice in some questions.
3. Section A has 18 MCQ’s and 02 Assertion Reason based questions of 1 mark each.
4. Section B has 5 Very Short Answer(VSA) questions of 2 marks each.
5. Section C has 6 Short Answer(SA) questions of 3 marks each.
6. Section D has 4 Long Answer(LA) questions of 5 marks each.
7. Section E has 3 source based/case based/passage based/integrated units of
assessment (04 marks each) with sub parts.
8. Internal Choice is provided in 2 questions in Section-B, 2 questions in Section-C, 2
Questions in Section-D. You have to attempt only one alternatives in all such questions.

SECTION –A
(All Questions are compulsory. No internal choice is provided in this section)
1. The value of 21 (mod 2) is

(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1

2. A merchant has 1000 kg of sugar. Part of which he sells at 8% profit and the rest at 18%
profit. He gains 14% on the whole. The quantity sold at 18% profit is
a) 400kg b)600kg c) 560kg d)640kg
3. In a 500 metre race A reaches the finish point in 20 seconds and B reaches in 25 seconds.
By how much distance A beats B
a ) 25 metres b)50 metres c)100 metres d)150 metres
4. If A is any m× 𝑛 Matrix and B is a matrix such that AB and BA are both defined then B is
a matrix of order
a)n×m b)m×m c) m×n d) n×n
5. The remainder when 1023! divided by 1011
a) 1 b)2 c) 0 d)2022
6. In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties of pulses costing Rs 85 per kg and Rs 100 per
kg respectively so as to get a mixture worth Rs 92 per kg
a) 7:8 b) 8:7 c) 5:7 d)7:5
7. If A is a square matrix such that A2 = A, then (I+A)2 - 3A is equal to
a) I b) 2A c)3I d)A
 ( x  1)e dx is equal to
8. x

a) ( x  1)e x +C b)xe-x+C c)-xe-x+C d) ( x  1)e x +C

9. 0 𝑎 1
If A=[−1 𝑏 1] is a skew symmetric matrix , then the value of (𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐 )2 is
−1 𝑐 0
(CL-XII/Sample paper/2024-25/APPLIED MATHEMATICS/Page 1 of 5)
 a) 1 b) 4 c) 0 d )8

10. (8× 14) in 12 hours clock is

a) 4 O/ clock b) 8 O/ clock c) 6 O/ clock d ) 2 O/ clock

11. If ∫40 𝑑𝑥 = log k then the value of k is

0 2𝑥+1
9
a) 3 b)2 c)9 d) 40
12. The solution of the linear in equations x  9, x  R is
a) x  9 b) −9 < 𝑥 < 9 c)𝑥 ≤ −9 d)−9 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 9
13. If the marginal revenue function of a commodity is MR = 2𝑥 − 9𝑥 2 then the revenue
function is
a) 2𝑥 2 − 9𝑥 3 b) 2-1 c)𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 3 d) 18 + 𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 3
𝑑𝑥
14. The integrating factor of the differential equation (1 − 𝑦 2 ) + 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑎𝑦 is
𝑑𝑦
1 1 1 𝟏
a)1−𝑦 2 b) c)𝑦 2 −1 d)
√𝑦 2−1 √𝟏−𝒚𝟐
15. If 0 < 𝑥 < 1, which of the following is the greatest?
1 𝟏
a) x b) 𝑥 2 c)𝑥 d) 𝒙𝟐

16. If a square matrix is of order 3 × 3 such that |𝐴|=4, then |3𝐴| is equal to
a) 27 b) 81 c) 108 d) 256

3
𝑑3 𝑦
2 𝑑2 𝑦
17. The product of order and degree of the differential equation 𝑑𝑥 3 + 𝑥 (𝑑𝑥 2 ) = 0:
a) 1 b)2 c) 3 d) 4
18. 5  x x  1
The value of x ,for which the matrix   is singular is
 2 4 
a) 1 b) 2 c)3 d) None of these.
In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
Reason (R).Choose the correct answer out of the following choices .
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
d) (A) is false but (R) is true
19. Suppose A, B and C are three square matrices of the same order such that AB is invertible.
Assertion (A): If AB = AC, then B=C
Reason (R): A is invertible
20. 𝑥2
Assertion (A): If the demand function of the product is p = 200 – 3
then the Marginal
revenue (MR) of selling 10 units is Rs 120.
𝑑
Reason(R): MR = (𝑅)
𝑑𝑥
SECTION –B
21. (All Questions are compulsory. In case of internal Choice, attempt any one question
only)
A boat goes 12 km downstream and comes back to the starting point in 3 hours. If the

(CL-XII/Sample paper/2024-25/APPLIED MATHEMATICS/Page 2 of 5)

 speed of stream is 3 km/h, find the speed of boat in still water.

OR
12
Find the last digit of 12 .

22. Solve the following system of linear inequalities: 3𝑥 − 1 ≥ 5, 2𝑥 − 3 > 7

23.  6 x 2

Find the value of x such that  2 1 2  is singular.
 10 5 2
24. Marginal Cost of production of the commodity is 30+2x, it is known that the fixed cost is
Rs 200, find the
i)total cost
ii)the cost of increasing output from hundred to 200 units.
OR
1
Find the antiderivative of 7−2𝑥 .
√

25. The supply function for a commodity is p = 4+x, Determine the producer’s surplus if 12
units of goods are sold.
SECTION –C
(All Questions are compulsory. In case of internal Choice, attempt any one question
only)
26. If 𝑦 = 3𝑒 2𝑥 + 2𝑒 3𝑥 prove that 𝑑2 𝑦 − 5 𝑑𝑦 + 6𝑦= 0
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥
OR
𝑑𝑦 2
Solve the differential equation: (𝑥 2 − 1) 𝑑𝑥 + 2𝑥𝑦 = 𝑥 2 −1

27. The volume of a spherical balloon being inflated changes at a constant rate. If initially its
radius is 3 units and after 3 seconds it is 6 units, find the radius of the balloon after t
seconds.
28. Find the interval in which the function 3𝑥 4 − 4𝑥 3 − 12𝑥 2 + 5 is increasing or decreasing.
29.
Evaluate: 
 3x  2 x2  x  1dx
OR
1

 x log(1  2 x)dx
Evaluate : 0
30 The total revenue in rupees received from the sale of x units of product of a product is
𝑥2
given by R(x) = 300x − 5 . Find
i) the average revenue, ii) the marginal revenue, iii) the total revenue when MR = 0
31 The demand function of a commodity is p = 4 - 𝑥 2 . Find the consumer’s surplus when the
market demand 1.
SECTION –D
(This section comprises of long answer type questions (LA) of 5 mark each)
32 A cistern can be filled by two pipes A and B in 12 minutes and 15 minutes respectively.
Another tap C can empty the full tank in 20 minutes. If the tap C is opened 5 minutes after
(CL-XII/Sample paper/2024-25/APPLIED MATHEMATICS/Page 3 of 5)
 the pipes A and B are opened find when the cistern becomes full?

33 The sum of three numbers is 6. If we multiply the third number by 2 and add the first
number to the result we get 7. By adding second and third numbers to three times the first
number we get 12. Use determinants to find the numbers.

1  1 0  2 2  4
  
If A = 2 3 4 and B=  4 2  4 are two square matrices. Find AB and hence
34.

0 1 2  2  1 5 
solve the system of linear equations : x-y =3, 2x+3y+4z=17,y+2z=7
OR
𝑥2 𝑦2 𝑑2 𝑦 𝑏4
If 𝑎2 + 𝑏2 = 1, prove that 𝑑𝑥 2 = − 𝑎2𝑦 3

35 A printed page is to have a total area of 80 sq cm with a margin of 1 cm at the top and on
each side and a margin of 1.5 cm at the bottom. What should be the dimensions of the page
so that the printed area will be maximum?
OR

36 SECTION E
(This section comprises of 3 case- study/passage based questions of 4 marks each with
two subparts . First two case-study questions have three sub-parts (i), (ii), (iii) of
marks 1,1,2 respectively. The third case study question has two sub-parts of 2 marks
each.)
Case Study 1

The graph given above showing the demand and supply curbs of a mobile phone company
are linear. When the price of a mobile phone was Rs 16,000 per unit, Singh mobiles sold 20
units every month and when price dropped to Rs 10,000 per unit Singh mobiles sold 80
(CL-XII/Sample paper/2024-25/APPLIED MATHEMATICS/Page 4 of 5)
 units every month. When the price was rupees 16,000 per unit 155 mobiles were available
per month for sale and when the price was only Rs 10,000 per unit 35 mobiles remained.
Based on the above information answer the following questions:
(i)Find the demand function.
(ii)Find the supply function.
(iii)(a)Find the consumer surplus at (65, 11,500).
OR
(iii)(b)Find the producer surplus at (65, 11,500).
37 Case Study 2: Dr. Anuradha residing in Chandigarh went to see an apartment of 3 BHK
sector 31. Then window of the house was in the form of a rectangle surmounted by a
semicircular opening having a perimeter of the window 10 m.

Based on the above information answer the following:

(i) Find Relation between x and y.
(ii) Find the area of the window(A) expressed as a function of x.
(iii)(a) Dr Anuradha is interested in maximizing the area of the whole window. For this to
happen the what will the value of x?
OR
(iii)(b) For the maximum value of A, find the breadth of the rectangle part of the window.
.
38 Case Study 3 : On his birthday Ishan decided to donate some money to children of an
orphanage home. If there were eight children less everyone would have got Rs. 10 more.
However if there were 16 children more everyone would have got Rs 10 less. Let the
number of children be x and amount distributed by Ishan to each children be y.
Based on the above information answer the following questions
(i)Write matrix equation to represent the information given above.
(ii)Find the number of children and amount donated by Ishan.

(CL-XII/Sample paper/2024-25/APPLIED MATHEMATICS/Page 5 of 5)

 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, DURGAPUR
SAMPLE PAPER (2024-25)
CLASS- XII
Time: 3 Hours SUBJECT- ACCOUNTANCY (055) Maximum Marks: 80
NAME: _____________________________ROLL NO:____________SEC:________________
General Instructions:
1. This question paper contains 34 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. This question paper is divided into two parts, Part A and B.
3. Part – A & Part - B is compulsory for all candidates.
4. Question 1 to 16 and 27 to 30 carries 1 mark each.
5. Questions 17 to 20, 31and 32 carries 3 marks each.
6. Questions from 21, 22 and 33 carries 4 marks each.
7. Questions from 23 to 26 and 34 carries 6 marks each.
8. There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 7 questions of
one mark, 2 questions of three marks, 1 question of four marks and 2 questions of six marks.

PART A
(Accounting for Partnership Firms and Companies)

Q1. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R)

Assertion (A): Rent paid to partner is shown in P & L Appropriation A/c.

Reason (R): Rent paid to partner is a charge against the profits.

In the context of the above statements, which one of the following is correct?
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong. (1)

Q2. Unless agreed otherwise, it is presumed that:

a) The new partner acquires his share in profit from all the old partners in their old profit-
sharing ratio.
b) The new partner acquires his share in profit from the all the old partners equally
c) The old partners continue to share the remaining profit equally
d) None of the above (1)

Q3. Mitu Ltd. forfeited 100 equity shares of Rs.10 each on which Rs.6 was paid (including Rs.2
premium). On reissue of these shares what is the maximum discount the company can allow?
(a) Rs. 5

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/ACCOUNTANCY/Page 1 of 12)

(b) Rs. 6
(c) Rs. 3
(d) Rs.4
OR
A company has issued 10,000 shares of Rs.10 each, the Company has called Rs 6 per share. The
remaining part of the capital is termed as:
(a) Called-up capital
(b) Paid-up capital
(c) Uncalled capital
(d) Reserve capital. (1)

Q4. Akbar and Birbal were partners in a firm sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 3:5. With
effect from 1st April 2023, they agreed to share profit or loss is equally. Due to change in profit,
sharing ratio, Akbar’s gain or sacrifice will be:
(a) Gain 3/8
(b) Gain 1/8
(c) Sacrifice 3/8
(d) Sacrifice 1/8

OR
Goodwill is valued at the time of
(a) Change in profit sharing Ratio
(b) Admission of a partner
(c) Retirement of a partner
(d) All of the above (1)

Q5. Ishu, Vishu and Nishu are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:3:5.
Their fixed capitals were ₹1,50,000, ₹3,00,000 and ₹6,00,000 respectively. After the final
accounts have been prepared it was discovered that interest on capital was credited to them @
12% instead of 10%.
(a) Nishu’s Current A/c will be Debited by ₹1,500.
(b) Nishu’s Current A/c will be Credited by ₹1,500.
(c) Nishu’s Capital A/c will be Credited by ₹1,500.
(d) Nishu’s Capital A/c will be Debited by ₹1,500. (1)

Q6. 12,000 shares of ₹ 100 each forfeited due to nonpayment of ₹ 40 per share. First & final call
of ₹ 30 per share not yet made. These shares were reissued at ₹ 80 per share for ₹ 70 per share.
Which of the following journal entry is correct for the forfeiture of shares?

(a) Share Capital A/c Dr. 12,00,000

To Calls-in Arrears A/c 8,40,000
To Share Forfeiture A/c 3,60,000

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/ACCOUNTANCY/Page 2 of 12)

(b) Share Capital A/c Dr. 12,00,000
To Calls-in Arrears A/c 3,60,000
To Share Forfeiture A/c 8,40,000

(c) Share Capital A/c Dr. 8,40,000

To Calls-in Arrears A/c 3,60,000
To Share Forfeiture A/c 4,80,000

(d) Share Capital A/c Dr. 8,40,000

To Calls-in Arrears A/c 4,80,000
To Share Forfeiture A/c 3,60,000

OR
12,000 shares of ₹ 100 each forfeited due to nonpayment of ₹ 40 per share. First & final call of
₹ 30 per share not yet made. These shares were reissued at ₹ 80 per share for ₹ 70 per share.
Which of the following journal entry is correct for the re-issue of forfeiture of shares?

(a) Bank A/c Dr. 9,60,000

To Share Capital A/c 9,60,000

(b) Bank A/c Dr. 8,40,000

To Share Capital A/c 8,40,000

(c) Bank A/c Dr. 9,60,000

To Share Capital A/c 8,40,000
To Securities Premium Reserve A/c 1,20,000

(d) Bank A/c Dr. 9,60,000

Share Forfeiture A/c Dr. 2,40,000
To Share Capital A/c 12,00,000 (1)

Q7. The profit on reissue of forfeited shares is transferred to _________.

(a)General Reserve
(b) Capital Redemption Reserve
(c) Capital Reserve
(d)Profit and Loss A/c (1)

Q8. Assertion (A): A new partner should contribute towards goodwill on his admission.
Reason (R) : It is because the new partner has to compensate the existing partners
for the sacrifice they make in his favour.

(a) Both (A) and( R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and( R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/ACCOUNTANCY/Page 3 of 12)

(c)Both ( A ) and (R) are false
(d) Both( A) and (R) are true.
OR
X and Y shared profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2. With effect from 1st April 2019 they
agreed to share profit equally. The Goodwill of the firm was valued at Rs. 60,000. The adjustment
entry will be
(a) Debit Y and credit X with Rs. 6,000
(b) Debit X and credit Y with Rs. 6000
(c) Debit X and credit Y with Rs. 600
(d) Debit Y and credit X with Rs. 600 (1)

Q9. Read the following hypothetical situation, answer question no. 9 and 10.

X and Y are partners in 3:2. Their capital balances as on 1st April 2020 amounting to ₹2,00,000
each. On 1st February, 2021, X contributed an additional capital of ₹1,00,000. Following are the
terms of deed:
a) Interest on capital @ 6% per annum
b) Interest on drawings @ 8% per annum
c) Salary to X ₹1500 per month
d) Commission to Y @10% on net profit after charging interest on capital, salary and his
commission. Drawings of the partners were ₹20,000 and ₹30,000 respectively during the year. Net
profit earned by the firm was ₹2,08,000.

Q9. What is the amount of Interest on capitals of X and Y:

(a) ₹12,000 each
(b) ₹12,000 to X and ₹ ₹13,000 to Y
(c) ₹13,000 to X and ₹12,000 to Y
(d) None of the above. (1)

Q10. What is the amount of commission payable to Y?

(a) ₹ 15000
(b) ₹ 16500
(c) ₹ 20800
(d) None of these. (1)

Q11. Assertion (A): A new partner becomes entitled to share future profit of the firm, and also
becomes liable for past losses of the firm.
Reason (R): A new partner acquires right in the asset and also become liable to pay any liability

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/ACCOUNTANCY/Page 4 of 12)

incurred by the firm after his admission.

In context of the above to statement, which of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true, but R not is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is the correct explanation of A
(c) A is false but R is true
(d) A is true but R is false. (1)

Q12. ‘A’ Ltd. purchased the assets from ‘B’Ltd. for Rs.8,10,000. ‘A’ Ltd. issued 10% debentures
of Rs.100 each at 10% discount against the payment. The number of debentures received by ‘B’
Ltd. will be:
(a) 8,100
(b) 9,000
(c) 90,000
(d) None of the above (1)

Q13. The options granted by the company to its employees and employee directors at a price that
is lower that is lower than the market price is ________.
(a) Employee Stock option plan
(b) Private Placement of Shares
(c) Sweat Equity Shares
(d) Offer for sale. (1)

Q14. For which of the following situations, the old profit-sharing ratio of partners is used at the
time of admission of a new partner?
(a) When new partner brings only a part of his share of goodwill.
(b) When new partner is not able to bring his share of goodwill.
(c) When, at the time of admission, goodwill already appears in the balance sheet.
(d) When new partner brings his share of goodwill in cash. (1)

Q15. A and B are partners sharing profit in the ratio of 3 : 2. They admit C as a partner by giving
him 1/3 share in future profits. The new ratio will be
(a) 12 : 8 : 5
(b) 8: 12 : 5
(c) 5 : 5 : 12
(d) None of the Above
OR

A and B are in partnership sharing profits in the ratio of 3:2. they take C as a new Partner.
Goodwill of the firm is valued at Rs3,00,000 and C brings Rs30,000 as his Share of goodwill in

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/ACCOUNTANCY/Page 5 of 12)

cash which is entirely credited to the Capital Account of A. New Profit-sharing ratio will be:
(a)3:2:1
(b)6:3:1
(c)5:4:1
(d)4:5:1 (1)

Q16. A,B and C are partners sharing profits in ratio of 3:2:1.They agree to admit D into
the firm. A,B and C agreed to give 1/3rd, 1/6th and 1/9th share of their profit. The share of profit of
D will be:
(a)1/10
(b)11/54
(c)12/54
(d)13/54 (1)

Q17. P and Q were partners in a firm sharing profits in 3:1 ratio. Their respective fixed capitals
were ₹10,00,000 and ₹6,00,000. The partnership deed provided interest on capital @ 12 % p.a.
even if it will result into a loss to the firm. The net profit of the firm for the year ended
31st March, 2023 was ₹1,50,000. Pass necessary journal entries in the books of the firm allowing
interest on capital and division of profit/loss amongst the partners. (3)

Q18. Ahuja and Barua are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2. They
decide to admit Chaudhary into partnership for 1/5th share of profits, which he acquires
equally from Ahuja and Barua. Goodwill is valued at Rs. 30,000. Chaudhary brings in
Rs.16,000 as his capital but is not in a position to bring any amount for goodwill.
Goodwill amount exists in books of the firm at Rs.15,000. Record the necessary journal
entries.
OR
Read the following hypothetical text and answer the given questions:
A, B and C are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 2:1:1. D is admitted into the firm
for 1/4th share in profits, which he gets as 1/8th from A and 1/8th from B. The total capital of the
firm is agreed upon as ₹1,20,000 and D is to bring in cash equivalent to 1/4th of this amount as his
capital. The capitals of other partners are also to be adjusted in the ratio of their respective shares
in profits. The capitals of A, B and C after all adjustments are ₹40,000, ₹ 35,000 and 30,000
respectively.
a) What will be the new profit-sharing ratio?
b) What is the amount of D’s capital?
c) What amount will be brought or withdrawn by A for the adjustment of his capital? (3)

Q19. Y Ltd took over the assets of ₹ 15, 00,000 and liabilities of P Ltd. the purchase consideration
of ₹ 13, 68,500; ₹ 25,500 were paid by issuing a promissory note in favour of P Ltd. payable after
two months and the balance was paid by issue of Equity shares of ₹ 100 each at a premium of
25%. Pass necessary journal entries for the above transaction in the books of Y Ltd.

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/ACCOUNTANCY/Page 6 of 12)

L Ltd. Forfeited 470 equity shares of Rs.10 each issued at premium of Rs.5 per share for the
nonpayment of allotment money of Rs. 8 per share (including share premium Rs. 5 per share) and
the first and final call of Rs. 5 per share. Out of these 60 Equity Shares were subsequently
reissued at Rs.14 per share. Prepare Share forfeiture A/c. (3)

Q20. Sanjay, Sudha and Shakti are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3:1:1. Their
fixed capital balances are ₹4,00,000, ₹1,60,000 and ₹1,20,000 respectively. Net profit for the year
ended 31st March, 2020 distributed amongst the partners was ₹1,00,000, without taking into
account the following adjustments:
(a) Interest on capitals @ 2.5% p.a.
(b) Salary to Sanjay ₹18,000 p.a. and commission to Shakti ₹12,000.
(c) Sanjay was allowed a commission of 6% of divisible profit after charging such commission.
Pass a rectifying journal entry in the books of the firm. Show workings clearly. (3)

Q21. X Ltd. Was registered with an Authorised capital of ₹ 60,00,000, divided into equity shares
of ₹ 100 each. During the year it issued 45,000 shares to the public at Par, payable ₹ 30 on
application, ₹ 40 on Allotment and balance on call. Public applied for 40,000 shares and the
company allotted shares to them. One applicant Mr. Arvind holding 2,500 shares did not pay
money due on allotment and call. His shares were forfeited. Show the share capital in the
company’s balance sheet and also prepare Notes to Account. (4)

Q22. Sumit purchased Amit's business on 1st April, 2023. Goodwill was decided to be valued
at two years' purchase of average normal profit of last four years. The profits for the past four
years were:
Year Ended 31st March 31st March 31st March 31st March
2020 2021 2022 2023
Profits 80,000 1,45,000 1,60,000 2,00,000
Books of Account revealed that:
(i) Abnormal loss of Rs. 20,000 was debited to Profit and Loss Account for the year ended
31st March, 2015.
(ii) A fixed asset was sold in the year ended 31st March, 2016 and gain (profit) of Rs. 25,000
was credited to Profit and Loss Account.
(iii) In the year ended 31st March, 2017 assets of the firm were not insured due to oversight.
Insurance premium not paid was Rs. 15,000. Calculate the value of goodwill. (4)

Q23. Raju ltd issued 10000 shares of Rs. 10 each payable as: Rs.2 on Application; Rs.3 on
Allotment; Rs.3 on first call and Rs.2 on second and final call. Application was received for
15000 shares. The shares were allotted on pro-rata basis to the applicant of 12000 shares. All
shareholders paid the allotment money except one shareholder who was allotted 200 shares. These

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/ACCOUNTANCY/Page 7 of 12)

shares were forfeited. The first call was made thereafter. The forfeited shares were reissued at
Rs.9 per share as Rs.8 paid up after first call. The second and final call was not yet made.
Pass necessary journal entries.

OR

Show the forfeiture and reissue entries under each of the following
cases:
(i) X Ltd. forfeited 300 shares of ₹ 10 each, ₹ 8 called-up held by Mr. A for non-payment of
second call money of ₹ 3 per share. These shares were reissued to Mr. Z for ₹ 10 per share as fully
paid-up.

(ii) Y Ltd. forfeited 400 shares of ₹ 10 each, fully called-up, held by Mr. B for non-payment of
final call money of ₹ 4 per share. These shares were reissued to Mr. T at ₹ 12 per share as fully
paid-up.

(iii)Light Ltd. forfeited 250 shares of ₹ 10 each, fully called-up held by Mr. C for non- payment of
allotment money of ₹ 3 per share and first and final call money of ₹ 4 per share. These shares
were reissued @ ₹ 8 per share as fully paid-up to Mr. P. (6)

Q24. Kalpana and Kanika were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2. On 1st
April, 2019, they admitted Karuna as a new partner for 1/5th share in the profits of the firm. The
Balance Sheet of Kalpana and Kanika as on 1st April, 2019 was as follows:

BALANCE SHEET OF KALPANA AND KANIKA as on 1st April, 2019

Liabilities Rs Assets Rs
Capital A/cs: Land and Building 2,10,000
Kalpana 4,80,000 Plant 2,70,000
Kanika 2,10,000 6,90,000 Stock 2,10,000
General Reserve 60,000 Debtors 1,32,000
Workmen's Less: Provision 12,000
Compensation Fund 1,00,000 1,20,000
Creditors 90,000 Cash 26,000
1,30,000

9,40,000 9,40,000

It was agreed that:

(a) the value of Land and Building will be appreciated by 20%.
(b) the value of plant be increased by Rs 60,000.
(c) Karuna will bring Rs 80,000 for her share of goodwill premium.
(d) the liabilities of Workmen's Compensation Fund were determined at Rs 60,000.
(e) Karuna will bring in cash as capital to the extent of 1/5th share of the total capital of the new
firm.
Prepare Revaluation Account & Partners' Capital Accounts.

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/ACCOUNTANCY/Page 8 of 12)

 OR

X and Y were partners in the profit-sharing ratio of 3: 2. Their balance sheet as at March 31, 2022
was as follows:

LIABILITIES AMOUNT ASSET AMOUNT

Creditors 56000 Plant & Machinery 70000
General reserve 14000 Building 98000
Capital account: Debtor – 42000
X – 1,19,000 Less: PFD (7000) 35000
Y – 1,12,000 231000
Stock 21000
Cash in hand 77000
3,01,000 3,01,000

Z was admitted for 1/6th share on the following terms:

(i) Z will bring ₹ 56,000 as his share of capital, but was not able to bring any amount to
compensate the sacrificing partners.
(ii) Goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹. 84,000.
(iii)Plant and Machinery were found to be undervalued by ₹ 14,000 Building was to brought up to
₹ 1,09,000.
(iv)All debtors are good.
(v) Capitals of X and Y will be adjusted on the basis of Z’s share and adjustments will be
done by opening necessary current accounts.
You are required to prepare revaluation account and partners’ capital account. (6)

Q25. A, B and Care partners share profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2:1. Their capitals ₹1,00,000,
₹75,000 and ₹50,000 respectively. They agreed to allow interest on capital @ 10 % p.a. and
agreed to charge interest on drawings @10% p.a. Their drawings for the year were ₹10,000,
₹8,000 and ₹6,000 respectively. C was very active getting a salary of ₹2,000 per month and in
return, he guaranteed that firm’s profit would not be less than ₹80,000 before charging or allowing
interest and salary payable to C. Actual profit for the year 2011 was ₹75,000. Prepare Profit and
Loss Appropriation Account and Partners Capital Account. (6)

Q26. On July 01, 2022, Panther Ltd. issued 20,000, 9% Debentures of ₹ 100 each at 8% premium
and redeemable at a premium of 15% in four equal instalments starting from the end of the third
year. The balance in Securities Premium on the date of issue of debentures was ₹ 80,000. Interest
on debentures was to be paid on March 31 every year. Pass Journal entries for the financial year
2022-23. Also prepare Loss on Issue of Debentures account. (6)

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/ACCOUNTANCY/Page 9 of 12)

 Part – B
(Analysis of Financial Statements)

Q27. Assertion: the potential investors are also interested in analysis of financial statements
Reason: they are interested in safety to their capital appreciation of their capital in the
long run and regularity of adequate dividend payment in the short run.

In context of the above to statement, which of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true, but R not is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is the correct explanation of A
(c) A is false but R is true
(d) A is true but R is false.

OR
The debentures will appear under sub head -------------------------------
(a) long term borrowings
(b) long term provisions
(c) other long-term liabilities
(d) deferred tax liabilities (1)

Q28. A company’s Current assets was Rs 9,00,000 in the year 2015. It became Rs 12,00,000 in the
year 2016. What is percentage of change?
(a) 100%
(b) 25%
(c) 50%
(d) 33.33% (1)

Q29. Proportion of shareholder's funds to total assets is called

(a) Proprietary ratio
(b) Capital gearing ratio
(c) Debt equity ratio
(d) Current ratio

OR

Current liabilities Rs. 40,000; Current assets Rs. 1,00,000; Inventory Rs. 20,000. Quick ratio is
(a) 1:1
(b) 2.5:1
(c) 2:1
(d) 1:2 (1)

Q30. Which of the following are the tools of vertical analysis?

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/ACCOUNTANCY/Page 10 of 12)

i. Ratio Analysis
ii. comparative statements
iii. common size statements

(a) only (iii)

(b) both (i) and (iii)
(c) both (i) and (ii)
(d) only (i)

Q31. Under which Major and Sub heads the following are shown in a company's Balance Sheet:
A. Building under construction.
B. Unpaid Dividend
C. Securities Premium. (3)

Q32. State with reason whether the following transactions will increase, decrease, or not change
the 'CURRENT RATIO' Ratio of 2:1.

(a) Payment of a current liability

(b) Purchase of goods on credit
(c) Redemption of debenture. (3)

Q33. From the following information, prepare a Common-size Balance Sheet:

BALANCE SHEET as at 31st March, 2023
Particulars 31st March, 31st March,
2023 (₹) 2022 (₹)
1. EQUITY AND LIABILITIES
1. Shareholders' Funds
(a) Share Capital 32,00,000 18,00,000
(b) Reserves and Surplus 8,00,000 6,00,000
2. Non-Current Liabilities
Long-term Borrowings 16,00,000 12,00,000
3. Current Liabilities
Short-term Borrowings 8,00,000 12,00,000
Total 64,00,000 48,00,000
II. ASSETS
1. Non-Current Assets
(a) Property, Plant and Equipment and
Intangible Assets:
Property, Plant and Equipment 18,00,000 16,00,000
(b) Non-current Investments 8,00,000 6,00,000
2. Current Assets
(a) Inventories 10,00,000 8,00,000
(b) Trade Receivables 16,00,000 12,00,000
(c) Cash and Cash Equivalents 12,00,000 6,00,000
Total 64,00,000 48,00,000

OR

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/ACCOUNTANCY/Page 11 of 12)

Prepare Comparative Statement of Profit and Loss of Gem Ltd. from the following:
Particulars 2024 2023
Revenue from
20,00,000 15,00,000
operations
10,00,000 4,00,000
Other income
21,00,000 15,00,000
Expenses
Rate of income tax was 50%. (4)

Q34. (a) Current Assets of a company are Rs. 15,00,000. Its current ratio 2.5 and liquid Ratio is
0.85. Calculate Current liabilities, Liquid Assets and Inventory.

(b) Calculate ‘Debt-Equity Ratio’ from the following information:

Total Assets: Rs. 3,50,000
Total Debt: Rs. 2,50,000
Current Liabilities: Rs. 80,000. (6)

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/ACCOUNTANCY/Page 12 of 12)

 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, DURGAPUR
SAMPLE PAPER (2024-25)
CLASS- XII
Time: 3 Hours SUBJECT- BUSINESS STUDIES (054) Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper contains 34 questions.
2. Marks are indicated against each question.
3. Answers should be brief and to the point.
4. Answers to the questions carrying 3 marks may be from 50 to 75 words.
5. Answers to the questions carrying 4 marks may be about 150 words.
6. Answers to the questions carrying 6 marks may be about 200 words.
7. Attempt all parts of the questions together.

Q1. Before buying a thing, a customer analyses its cost and the satisfaction that he is to get from
it. He will buy the thing only when he feels that its satisfaction will be more than its cost. Seller is
to make the thing while keeping in mind this tendency of the buyer. A seller, who does not pay
heed to the importance that the buyer gives to the product, certainly lags behind
in competition. Identify the feature of marketing highlighted in the above paragraph.
(a) Needs and wants
(b) Creating a market offering
(c) Customer value
(d) Exchange Mechanism (1)

Q2. Match the concept of management in column I with their respective definition in column II:
Column I Column II
(i) Doing the task correctly and with
A. Process
minimum cost.
B. Efficiency (ii) Finishing the giving task on time.
(iii) The primary functions or activities
C. Effectiveness that management performs to get
things done.
(a) A (i), B(ii), C(iii)
(b) A(iii), B(i), C(ii)
(c) A(iii), B(ii), C(i)
(d) A(i), B(iii), C(ii) (1)

Q3. The increase in the demand for many Ayurvedic medicines, Health products and services in
the past few months, is related to the need for building immunity and an increased awareness for
health care due to the spread of Corona virus. Identify the feature of Business Environment being
described above:
(a) Specific and General forces
(b) Interrelatedness

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/BUSINESS STUDIES/Page 1 of 9)

(c) Relativity
(d) None of the above. (1)

Q4. Science not rule of thumb means:

(a) To replace old methods of doing work
(b) Mutual corporation
(c) Discipline
(d) None of the above (1)

Q5.

Which type of organization is created as a result of the group indicated in above image:
Select one of the following:
(a) Formal Organisation
(b) Functional Organisation
(c) Divisional Organisation
(d) Informal Organisation (1)

Q6. One _______ and one _______ for a group of activities having the objective is principle of
unity of direction.
(a) Men, Money
(b) Boss, Subordinate
(c) Money, Material
(d) Head, Plan (1)

Q7. Read the following statements Assertion(A) and Reason(R). Choose one of the correct
alternatives given below
Assertion(A)- The marketing concept strives to identify and meet the wants and requirements of
customers in an efficient manner.
Reason(R)- Products are purchased based on their quality and other attributes, according to the

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/BUSINESS STUDIES/Page 2 of 9)

 marketing theory.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct R is incorrect
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of R
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of R. (1)

Q8. When Suman Das applied for the post of Computer teacher in a school in Balasore, he was
asked to prepare a PowerPoint presentation on a particular topic during the selection procedure.
Identify the type of selection test being mentioned in the above lines.
(a) Trade test
(b) Intelligence test
(c) Personality test
(d) Interest test (1)

Q9. ‘Delegation helps in developing the talents of the employees. It also has psychological
benefits.’ Which Importance of delegation is highlighted in this statement?
(a) Effective management
(b) Employee development
(c) Motivation of employees
(d) Better coordination (1)

Q10. Maruti was the first company to recognise the need for small cars in an environment of
rising petrol prices and large middle-class population in India so they become the leader in the
small car market. Which importance of business environment is highlighted here.
(a) First mover advantage
(b) Identify the early threat
(c) Adjust with change
(d) None of the above. (1)

Q11. Amazon and Flipkart sell goods through:

(a) Direct channel of distribution
(b) One level channel of distribution
(c) Two channels of distributions
(d) Three channels of distributions. (1)

Q12. Arrange the following in chronological order:

1.Evaluating alternative courses

2.Identifying alternative courses of action
3.Follow-up action
4.Setting Objectives

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/BUSINESS STUDIES/Page 3 of 9)

5.Implementing the plan
6.Developing Premises
7.Selecting an alternative

(a) 4,6,2,1,7,5,3
(b) 3,6,7,1,2,5,4
(c) 1,5,2,4,7,6,3
(d) 4,1,5,6,7,2,3. (1)

Q13. The level of management in the organizational structure is determined by:

(a) Authority
(b) Responsibility
(c) Span of management
(d) All of these (1)

Q14. From the set of statements given in column one and column two choose the correct pair of
statements:
Column I Column II
i. Employee turnover should be minimized to
maintain organizational efficiency.
A. Order
ii. Management should promote a team spirit
B. Stability of Personnel
of unity and harmony among employees.
C. Harmony not discord
iii. There should be a place for everything
and everyone
(a) A-iii, B-i, C-ii
(b) A-i, B-ii, C-iii
(c) A-ii, B-iii, C-i
(d) A-i, B-iiii, C-ii (1)

Q15. What is the learning experience that seeks relatively permanent change in an individual that
will improve his ability to perform on job.
(a) Training
(b) Development
(c) Attitude formation
(d) Job analysis. (1)

Q16. ‘In an organization employees are happy and satisfied, there is no chaos and the effect of
management is noticeable.’ Which characteristic of management is highlighted by this statement?
(a) Management is an intangible force
(b) Management is a dynamic function
(c) It is a continuous process
(d) All of the above (1)

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/BUSINESS STUDIES/Page 4 of 9)

Q17. Deepak is striving to earn a profit of 30% in the current financial year. Identify the type of
plan being described in the above lines.
(a) Method
(b) Objective
(c) Strategy
(d) Programme (1)

Q18. Government of India banned several Chinese apps due to face off between China and India
on the Line of Actual Control, it created fear in the mind of Chinese investors. Which of the
following component of business environment is responsible for the decision?
(a) Legal Environment
(b) Social Environment
(c) Technological Environment
(d) Political Environment. (1)

Q19. Pramod bought an iron of a reputed brand for Rs.2,500 but it caused an electric shock while
it was being used. Pramod wants to exercise his Right. Identify the Right under which he can be
protected.
(a) Right to Safety
(b) Right to choose
(c) Right to be heard
(d) Right to seek redressal (1)
Q20. Which principle is being highlighted?

(a) Esprit de crops

(b) Discipline
(c) Order
(d) Unity of command. (1)

Q21. As a project work in Business Studies, the Commerce students of Himachal Public School,
Himachal Pradesh thought of preparing apple jam from the apples grown in their school premises

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/BUSINESS STUDIES/Page 5 of 9)

and sell it in the school annual fete. They approached the principal who not only appreciated the
students but also gave her consent for the same. The school decided to donate 50% of the revenue
generated from the sale to a nearby orphanage. After the school fete, the school also decided to
extend this project by providing employment to visually challenged and disadvantaged sections of
society on regular basis.
1. Explain any two product-related decisions which the students had to take.
2. Suggest any two functions that the ‘label’ of the jam-bottle must perform. (3)

Q22. Naman is a very intelligent planner. He knows the market well. For last 15 years he has been
leading several successful projects for his company. Company gives him responsibility to start a
new project in S. America. With his experience he makes assumptions about all the possible
future scenarios.
a. Which step of the planning process is the above paragraph related to?
b. What is the other term used for assumptions in planning process?
c. What is the base material for developing premises?

OR
Ketan Enterprises adopts different ways to provide training to employees, like Job Rotation,
Coaching, Vestibule Training, Conference, Lecture Method, and Role Playing. Identify the type of
plan being described in the above lines. Also explain the same. (3)

23. “There should be an almost equal division of work and responsibility between workers and
management.” Do you agree? Give reasons in support of your answer.
OR
“Principles of management are mainly behavioural in nature.” Do you agree? Give reasons. (3)

Q24. Packaging has acquired great significance in the marketing of goods. In the light of this
statement, state any three functions of packaging. (3)

Q25. Miss. Rosy after completing her studies from Canada comes to India to start a new business
under the banner New Bloomer Ltd. She launches a new product in gleaming for Senior
Secondary School students in Commerce stream, which already has an established market in
Canada but not in India. Her business starts flourishing in India. Now more Indian companies
entered the market with other subjects also. Identify and quote the lines from above pare which
highlight the significance of understanding business environment. (4)

Q26. Sunshine Pvt. Ltd. is a publishing company. Its book on Accountancy for class XI is in great
demand. As a result, the employees in the marketing department are always racing against time.
The employees have to work overtime and on holidays to cater to the demand. Managers in the
marketing department are under stress as they have to handle more than two territories. The work
stress has led to dissatisfaction among the employees and managers.

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/BUSINESS STUDIES/Page 6 of 9)

1. Name and explain the step of staffing process which has not been performed properly.
2. State the next two stages immediately following the step identified in part ‘a’.
OR
What are Casual Callers’ and ‘Labour Contractor? (4)

Q 27. Though branding adds to the cost, it provides several advantages to the consumers. In the
light of the statement, state any four advantages of branding to customers.

OR
Amav is a distributer of tea to far off places. He has opened a company which deals in tea selling.
He has categorized his tea to be sold into three categories: Green, Yellow and Red. His brother
Ramesh on the other hand is running a mobile manufacturing company. His company strictly
produces mobile according to the pre-determined specifications. The mobiles of each variety are
of same size, looks and performance.
1. In the above case which function of marketing has been highlighted?
2. Name the four advantages of the above highlighted function. (4)

Q28. What contradiction do you find in the principle of ‘Unity of Command and the technique of
‘Functional Foremanship’ and why? (4)

Q29. Anita, buys a packet of dry cake from a cake shop without asking for the bill. The pack does
not bear any information other than the name of the shop. After reaching home she finds the cake
to be stale.
a) Identify the consumer right that has been violated.
b) State any three responsibilities that a consumer must keep in mind while purchasing any
good. (4)

Q30. Arvind and Amar are managers at the same level of management in a company. Arvind says
that management is an ‘art’ whereas Amar says that management is a ‘science.’ As the director of
the company, explain the true nature of management to Arvind and Amar. (4)

Q31. Haryaram’ is a famous chain selling a large variety of products in the Indian market. Their
products include chips, biscuits, sweets and squashes. It charges a comparatively higher price
than its competitors as it sells quality products. Besides, it offers regular discounts to its
customers and easy credit terms to its retailers. It has five of its own retail shops. It also sells its
products through various grocery stores to that the products are made available to customers at the
right place, in the right quantity and at the right time. It regularly uses different communication
tools to increase its sales.
The above para describes the combination of variables used by Hayaram to prepare its market
offering. Identify and explain the variables.

OR

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/BUSINESS STUDIES/Page 7 of 9)

A Company was marketing water purifiers which were very popular due to their quality and after
sales services provided to the customers. The company was a leading company in the market and
earning huge profits. Because of huge profits, the company ignored the after sales services. As a
result, its relations with customers got spoiled and the image of the company was damaged in the
public. The top management became concerned when the profits for the current quarter fell
steeply. On analysis, it was revealed that ignoring the after sales services was its reasons.
Therefore, the company took all possible measures to protect and promote its favourable image in
the eyes of the public. As a result, the goodwill of the company improved in the society.
1. Name and state the communication tool used by the marketer in the above case to improve its
image.
2. Also explain role of the tool as identified in part (a) (6)

Q32. Arush joins as a sales manager of a company dealing in naturotherapy products. Being
proficient in his work, he knew that without good planning he will not be able to organise, direct,
control or perform any of the other managerial functions efficiently and effectively. Only on
the basis of sales forecasting, he would assist in the preparation of the annual plans for its
production and sales. Besides, he will have to prepare sales plans regularly on weekly, monthly,
quarterly and half yearly basis. While preparing the sales forecasts, he undertakes intellectual
thinking involving foresight, visualization and issued judgement rather than wishful thinking or
guess work. Most importantly, all these planning activities will be meaningful only if they will
coincide with the purpose for which the business is being carried out. In context of the above case,
identify the various features of planning highlighted in the above paragraph by quoting lines from
it. (6)

Q33. Bunty opens a retail Mart in a local market. As he knows it will be impossible for him to
handle all the work alone, so he appoints Neetu to perform routine tasks on his behalf thereby
reducing his work load. As a result of this decision. Bunty is left with more time to concentrate on
important matters. Besides, he recruits ten other persons as support staff. Five years later, as his
business earns a good name for itself, he opens another outlet in the city. Considering
Neetu's competence, he gives the independent charge of running the new outlet to her. Thereby
empowering her autonomy in functioning of the outlet.
In the context of the above case:
(a) Identify the two concepts which reflects the transition in the role of Neetu in the above
paragraph.
(b) Give any two differences between the two concepts as identified in Part (1) of the question.
(c) What are the factors that Bunty must consider while giving the independent charge of the new
outlet to Neetu?
OR
Kaamna is a bright young management trainee. After six months of testing by her organisation she
is given charge of her office as an assistant manager. She starts her job with a lot of enthusiasm
but realises that it won’t be possible for her to continue without sharing her tasks. She keeps a
secretary who takes orders from her. This has reduced her burden of work and has helped her to
focus on priority assignments.

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/BUSINESS STUDIES/Page 8 of 9)

Which concept of management is discussed in the above case? Name four importance of this
concept. (6)

Q34. Arvind is planning to start a company manufacturing room fresheners. He intends to

use natural fruit extracts for adding fragrance to them. He estimates an investment of Rs.
20 crores to set up the factory. As it is difficult for him to raise the entire capital amount
alone, he gives a partnership offer to his school friend, Sanjay who is an angel investor.
Sanjay, after being convinced about the feasibility of the project, accepts his offer. Sanjay
tells Arvind that they should also focus on other important decisions related to the product
‘room fresheners’ besides deciding about its features, variety and quality. Branding is one
of the important such decision.
In the context of above case:
1. Name any other two important decisions related to a product.
2. Why is branding considered as an important function by the marketers? Give any one reason in
support of your answer.
3. State any four features of a good brand name.

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/BUSINESS STUDIES/Page 9 of 9)

 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, DURGAPUR
SAMPLE PAPER, (2024-25)
CLASS- XII
Time: 1Hr_30Min________ SUBJECT- ECONOMICS __ Maximum Marks: 40

NAME: ___________________SEC:________________ROLL NO:

General Instructions:
i) This paper contains two sections: SECTIONA: Macroeconomics and SECTION B:
Indian Economic Development
ii) This paper contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions type questions of 1 mark each.
iii) This paper contains 4 Short Answer Questions type questions of 3 marks each to be
answered in 60 to 80 words.
iv) This paper contains 6 Short Answer Questions type questions of 4 marks each to be
answered in 80 to 100 words.
v) This paper contains 4 Long Answer Questions type questions of 6 marks each to be
answered in 100 to 150 words.
All questions are compulsory. Marks are indicated against each question

SECTION A: MACROECONOMICS

1. A positive shock to the AD curve will cause inflation to __________ in the short run and
growth to ___________ in the short run. 1
a. Increase/decrease
b. Increase/increase
c. Decrease/increase
d. Decrease/decrease
2. The typical savings supply curve has a positive slope. If a nation’s saving supply curve is
perfectly vertical, which of the following might be true? 1
a. People are saving more with increase in income
b. People are saving more than before as interest rate might have reduced
c. Saving is remaining constant in spite of change in income
d. None of these
3. There are two statements given below, about the effect of a rise in the general price level
of an economy. 1
P: It will lead to a rise in the value of money.
Q: It will lead to a rise in the demand for money.
Which of these is/are true?
a) Only P b) Only Q c) Both P and Q d) Neither P nor Q
4. Assertion (A): Commercial banks lend money many times more than their cash reserves
with the RBI.
Reason (R): Demand deposits are equal to cash deposits with the commercial banks. 1
a) Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
5. A: Corporate tax is not included in national income 1
R: It is treated as part of profit
a) Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A.

(CL-XII/SAMPLE PAPER/2024-25/ECONOMICS/Page 1 of 5)
 b) Both A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.

6. Statement 1: If in an economy the level of income increases (Y), it will always

proportionately increase the level of consumption (C). 1
Statement 2: Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) and Marginal Propensity to Save
(MPS) are always equal to each other.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from
the following:
(A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
(B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
(C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
(D) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.

7. Read the following statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct
alternative given below: 1
Assertion (A): Full employment situation refers to absence of involuntary
unemployment.
Reason (R): Under full employment situation, all the willing and able bodied people get
employment at the prevailing wage rate.
8. Total consumption expenditure by households under Keynesian Economics is a
combination of __________ and __________.
Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blanks. 1
(A) Autonomous Consumption, Autonomous Investments
(B) Autonomous Investments, Induced Consumption
(C) Induced Investments, Autonomous Investments
(D) Autonomous Consumption, Induced Consumption
9. Find the missing figures and choose the correct alternative: 1 Round Deposits Loans
(80%) Reserve Ratio 1

Alternatives:
(A) 1000, 800, 20000, 25000
(B) 5000, 3200, 25000, 20000
(C) 1000, 3200, 25000, 20000
(D) 1000, 800, 20000, 25000
10. Suppose for a hypothetical economy:
C = 100 + 0·75Y (where C = Consumption and Y = Income)
I0 = 400 (I0= Autonomous Investment),
Value of Investment Multiplier (K) would be ____________.
(Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank) 1

(CL-XII/SAMPLE PAPER/2024-25/ECONOMICS/Page 2 of 5)
 (A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 3
11. (i) Elaborate the concept of Externalities with the help of suitable example.
(2+1)
(ii) Define Operating Surplus.
12. Answer the following questions based on the data given below:
3
(i) Planned level of investment = Rs.200 crores
(ii) C = 100 + 0·8 Y
(a) Determine the equilibrium level of income.
(b) Calculate the saving and consumption expenditure at equilibrium level of
income.

13. Justify the following statements with valid arguments:

(a) The Central Bank is the sole currency issuing authority of an economy.
(2+2)
(b) Money serves as a measure of standard of deferred payments.
14. In an economy ex-ante Aggregate Supply is less than ex-ante Aggregate Demand
Explain its impact on the level of output, income and employment.
4
15. Read the following text from “The Economic Times” carefully and answer the questions
that follows:
“8th June, 2024: Reserve Bank of India rate setting panel unanimously decided to keep
the benchmark lending rate unchanged at 6·5%. The committee voted to remain focused
on the withdrawal of accommodating monetary policy.”
(2+2)
On the basis of given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(a) Identify and discuss the economic issue indicated in the above text.
(b) Discuss the likely consequence on money supply if the rate setting
16. (a) Discuss briefly the concept of circular flow of income in a two-sector model. 3
(b) “Real GDP is a better indicator of economic growth of a nation as compared to the
Nominal GDP”
Do you agree with the given statement? Justify your answer with a valid hypothetical
numerical example. 3

OR
In India, after Covid-19 period, household and private sector, as measured by Private
Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE), was < 39·7 trillion in nominal terms in Q1
FY23, compared with <28·4 trillion for the same period last year, and < 39·2 trillion in
the fourth quarter (Q4) of 2021 22 (FY22). As a percentage of Nominal GDP, PFCE was
61·1 per cent, compared with 55·5 per cent in Q1 FY22. However, in real terms at
constant prices, PFCE grew just 9·88 per cent, compared with Q1 of 2019 20 the year
before the Covid-19 pandemic. and Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) over the
corresponding< 19 trillion in Q1 FY23, compared with < 14·4 trillion in Q1 FY22.
However, it was slightly lower than < 20·2 trillion in Q4 FY22. In the media briefing
after the GDP numbers, Finance Secretary T.V. Somanathan said this trend was expected
as GFCF in present Q1 was usually lower than the previous year.

On the basis of the given text and common understanding, answer the following
questions:

(CL-XII/SAMPLE PAPER/2024-25/ECONOMICS/Page 3 of 5)
 (a) Compare and analyse the trends of change in PFCE as a
percentage of GDP, both in real and nominal terms. 3
(b) Private Final Consumption Expenditure is an important factor in determining GDP
MP. Justify the given statement. 3
17. Write the reasons causing deficient demand. How can the fiscal and monetary measures
correct the economic situation, explain in details. Use diagram. 3+3

SECTION B: INDIAN ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT

18. Identify which of the following statement is correct: 1
a) British colonial rule made India next importer of raw material.
b) The real motive behind infrastructure development by derive the people of India
c) India generated large export surplus during the British rule
d) Indian handicraft industry enjoyed world-wide reputation under the British rule.
19. Assertion(A): The need to obtain a license to start an industry was misused by industrial
houses. Reason (R): A big industrialist would get a license not for starting a new firm but
to prevent competitions from starting new firms. 1
a) Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true
20. Assertion (A): There was systematic deindustrialization of Indian industries during
British rule. Reason (R): Indian economy was used as a source of raw material and a
market for sale of final goods in order to exploit Indian economy. 1
a) Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
21. ________________ formed the basis of the 2nd Five-year plan. 1
a) Industrial policy resolution 1948
b) Industrial policy resolution 1956
c) Village and small-scale industries committee1955
d) Niti Aayog
22. What kind of tariff policy was needed to protect domestic producers from foreign
competition after independence?
1
a) low import tariffs, reduced import quota
b) low import tariffs, increased import quota
c) high import tariffs, reduced import quota
d) high import tariffs, increased import quota
23. From the following alternatives, identify the correct full form of NITI Ayog 1
(a) National Institution for Tribal India
(b) National Institution for Technical India
(c) National Institution for Transforming India
(d) National Institution for Training India
24. ‘_________________’ is a women-oriented community-based poverty reduction
programme being implemented in Kerala. In 1995, a thrift and credit society was started
as a small savings bank for poor women with the objective to encourage savings. 1
25. Micro credit programmes play a vital role in ensuring an overall development of the
rural economy as they ____________. 1
(Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank) 1
(i) provide financial support

(CL-XII/SAMPLE PAPER/2024-25/ECONOMICS/Page 4 of 5)
 (ii) lead to women empowerment
(iii) enhance the reach of formal credit system
Alternatives :
(a) Only (i) and (ii)
(b) Only (ii) and (iii)
(c) Only (i) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii), and (iii)
26. Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct
alternative from those given below. 1
Assertion (A) : Post independence, public sector was given a prominent role, due to
requirement of huge investments in the secondary sector.
Reason (R) : Industrial sector is the backbone of any economy.
Alternatives :
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation
of the Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is no the correct
explanation of the Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
27. Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1 : Commercialization of agriculture under the British rule was responsible for
frequent famines between 1875 and 1900.
Statement 2 : During British rule, India began to export food grains.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the Following: 1
(a) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
(b) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
(c) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
(d) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
28. State true or false with reasons: 3
a. Prior to 1991 physical controls were imposed by the government with a view to
increasing tax revenue:
b. Reduction of tariff and non-tariff barriers reduces International trade.
c. Privatization and socialistic pattern of the economy are complementary to each other.
29. Why and how was private sector regulated under the IPR 1956? 3
30. “Expenditure on the on-the -job training is an important means of human capital
formation in the economy.” Give valid arguments to justify the statements. 4
31. Bring out the differences between human capital and human development. 4
32. Explain how “Make in India” campaign by GOI is in alignment to the goals of five year
plans.
33. See the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:
(1+3+2)

(CL-XII/SAMPLE PAPER/2024-25/ECONOMICS/Page 5 of 5)
 a. Identify the depiction of the picture.
b. Explain the measures taken by government to benefit rural farmers.
c. Do you think alternate market channels raise the incomes of farmers? Give reasons
to support your answer.
34. Discuss the role of SSI in Indian economy. 6
OR
Explain the role of public sector in Indian economy.

*****************************************************************************

(CL-XII/SAMPLE PAPER/2024-25/ECONOMICS/Page 6 of 5)
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, DURGAPUR
SAMPLE PAPER (2024-25)
CLASS- XII
Time: 3 Hour SUBJECT- COMPUTER SC. (083) Maximum Marks: 70
General Instructions:
• Please check this question paper contains 35 questions.
• The paper is divided into 4 Sections- A, B, C, D and E.
• Section A, consists of 18 questions (1 to 18). Each question carries 1 Mark.
• Section B, consists of 7 questions (19 to 25). Each question carries 2 Marks.
• Section C, consists of 5 questions (26 to 30). Each question carries 3 Marks.
• Section D, consists of 2 questions (31 to 32). Each question carries 4 Marks.
• Section E, consists of 3 questions (33 to 35). Each question carries 5 Marks.
• All programming questions are to be answered using Python Language only
Section-A
1. State True or False: [1]
“Identifiers are names used to identify a variable, function in a program”.
2. What will be the output of the following statement: [1]
print(5<10 and 12>7 or not 7>4)
(a) True (b) False (c) None (d) NULL
3. Which of the following is an invalid datatype in Python? [1]
(a) Set (b) None (c)Integer (d)Real
4. What happens if the following Python code executed?
p=5
q=2
try:
c = p/a
print(z)
except:
print("Exception handled")
a) No error b) Assertion error c) Input output error d) Name error
5. Find the output of the following: [1]
print(“xyyzxyzxzxyy”.count(‘yy’,1))
a. 2 b. 0 c. 1 d. Error
6. Functions that do not return any value are known as: [1]
a) fruitful functions
b) void functions

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/COMPUTER SCIENEC/ Page 1 of 9)

 c) library functions
d) user-defined functions
7. What type of error occur when this python code executed? [1]
L=[1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 7]
p.append(8)
a) No error b) Assertion error c) Index error d) Name error
8. Which values are used by the function to communicate information back to caller? [1]
a) local b) global c) return d) random
9. What will be the output when the following code executed: [1]
>>>str1= “helloworld”
>>>str[ : : -1]
(a) dlrowolleh (b) hello (c) world (d) helloworld
10. Select the correct output of the code: [1]
x = 123
for i in x:
print(i)
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 123 (c) Error (d) Infinite loop
11. Pushing an element into a stack already having five elements and a stack of size 5, then the
stack becomes: [1]
(a) User flow
(b) crash
(c) Underflow
(d) Overflow
12. How would you write mn in Python as an expression? [1]
a) m^n b) m**n c) m^^n d) none of these
13. Which of the following is application of stack [1]
(a) Finding factorial
(b) Reversing a string
(c) Infix to postfix
(d) all of the above
14. A python module has _______ extension. [1]
(a) .mod (b) .imp c) .py (d) .mpy
15. What is the output of the following? [1]
>>> s = “122help”
(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/COMPUTER SCIENEC/ Page 2 of 9)
 >> s.isalnum()
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Type Error
(d) None of these
16. Which line of code will cause an error? [1]
1. num = [5, 4, 3, [2], 1]
2. print(num[0])
3. print(num[3][0])
4. print(num[5])
(a) Line 3
(b) Line 2
(c) Line 4
(d) Line 1
17. Assertion (A): CSV (Comma Separated Values) is a file format for data storage which
looks like a text file.
Reason (R): The information is organized with one record on each line and each field is
separated by comma. [1]
Based on the above of Assertion and reasoning choose an appropriate statement from the
options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) A is True but R is False
(d) A is false but R is True
18. Assertion (A): The positional parameters receive the values irrespective of the
corresponding order of the arguments in the function header.
Reason (R): It means if three arguments are to be passed to the function, the first argument
will be assigned to the first parameter, second argument to the second parameter and the
third argument to the third parameter. [1]
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
(e) Both A and R are false
(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/COMPUTER SCIENEC/ Page 3 of 9)
 Section B
19. What will be the output for the following Python statement? Give reason. [2]
word= ‘green vegetables’
print(word.find(‘g’, 2))
print(word.find(‘veg’, 2))
print(word.find(‘tab’, 4, 15))
20. Reetu was asked to accept a list of even numbers, but she did not put the relevant
condition while accepting the list of numbers. She wrote a user defined function
oddeven(M) that accepts the list M as an argument and converts all the odd numbers into
even by multiplying them by 2. [2]
def oddeven(M)
for i in range(size(M)):
if (M[i]%2 !== 0)
M[i] = M[i] **2
print(M)
There are some errors in the code. Rewrite the correct code.
21. (a) what will be the output of the following Python code? [1+1=2]
Str1= ‘[email protected]’
R = Str1.partition(“@”)
print(R)
Ans:
(b) fund the output
str1 = ‘@Pyt#hon’
for i in str1:
print(i.upper())
22. What possible outputs(s) are expected to be displayed on screen at the time of execution of
the program from the following code? Also specify the maximum values that can be
assigned to each of the variables Lower and Upper. [2]
import random
A = [20,30,40,50,60,70];
L = random.randint(1,3)
U= random.randint(2,4)
for I in range(L, U +1):

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/COMPUTER SCIENEC/ Page 4 of 9)

 print (A [I], end = “#“)
(i) 10#40#70# (ii) 30#40#50# (iii) 50#60#70# (iv) 40#50#70#
23. Suppose the content of file “Notes.txt” is: [2]

My first book was “Me and MY Family

It gave me chance to be known to the world

What will be the output of the following code?

fh = open(“Notes.txt”)
fh.seek(39)
s=fh.read()
print(len(data))
myfile.close()
24. Predict the output of the Python code given below: [2]
def Update (X =10):
X += 15
print ("X= ", X)
X = 20
Update()
print( ‘ X=’, X)
25. Predict the output of the Python code given below. Also write local and global variable? [2]
value =10
def display(N):
global value
value = 25
if n%7 == 0:
value= value + N
else:
value= value - N
print(value, end = “#”)
display(20)
print(value)
Section C
26. Write the output of the given SQL queries of the following tables Taxi: [3]

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/COMPUTER SCIENEC/ Page 5 of 9)

 (i) select Model, Type, Mileage from taxi where Mileage<=21;
(ii) select Model, Mileage from Car where Model like “M%”;
(iii) select Model, Fueltank, Type from Car where Type= “SUV”;
27. Write a function parser(L) in Python that accept a list as a parameter and creates another
two lists storing the numbers from the original list, that are even and numbers that are old.
[3]
Example:
If Sample Input data of the list is:
L = [13, 20, 30, 40, 35, 55]
Output will be:
Even list: [20, 30,40]
Odd list: [13, 35, 55]
28. Find the output of the following Python program: [3]
def Findoutput():
str1= "PREBOARD2020"
str2=""
I=0
while I<len(str1):
if str1[I]>= 'A' and str1[I]<= 'R':
str2=str2+str1[I+1]
elif str1[I]>= '0' and str1[I]<= '9':
str2=str2+(str1[I-1])
else:
str2=str2+'*'
I=I+1
print(str2)
Findoutput()
29. Write a function displayword() in Python, that open a text file and display all those word
whose length is greater than 5. [3]
(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/COMPUTER SCIENEC/ Page 6 of 9)
 Example:
If the file content is as follows:
Updated information
As simplified by official websites
The displayword() function should display the output as:
No of word = 5
OR
Write a program in python to read the entire content from file notes.txt and copy only those
words to vowels.txt file which start from vowels.
30. A list contains following record of a student: [Rno, Name, Dob, Class] [3]
Write the following user defined functions to perform given operations on the stack named
‘status’:
(i) Push_element() - To Push a record of student to the stack
(ii) Pop_element() - To Pop the objects from the stack and display them. Also, display
“Stack Empty” when there are no elements in the stack.
Section D
31. Consider the table APPLICANTS. [1+1+2=4]
AdmNO ANAME FEE GEN C_ID JOINYEAR
1012 Amandeep 3000 M A01 2012
1102 Avisha 25000 F A02 2009
1103 Ekant 30000 M A02 2011
1049 Arun 30000 M A03 2009
1025 Amber 40000 M A02 2011
1106 Ela 40000 F A05 2010
1017 Nikita 35000 F A03 2012
1108 Arluna 30000 F A03 2012
2109 Shakti 35000 M A04 2011
1101 Kirat 25000 M A01 2012

Based on the data given above answer the following questions:

(i) Identify the most appropriate column, which can be considered as Primary key.
(ii) If all the records of Male applicants are deleted, what will be the cardinality of the
above table?
(iii) write statements to
(a) Decrease the FEE of Female applicants by 2000.
(b) Display details Male applicants in Ascending order of Fee.
OR (Option for part iii only)

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/COMPUTER SCIENEC/ Page 7 of 9)

 (iii) Write the statements to:
a. Change width of column Aname to 50 char.
b. Delete the column C_ID from the table applicant.
32. Write a program in Python that defines and calls the following user defined functions: [4]
(a) add()- To accept and add data of furniture to a CSV file ‘furdata.csv’. Each record
consists of a list with field elements as fid, fname and fprice to store furniture id, furniture
name and furniture price respectively.
(b) search()- To display the records of the furniture whose price is more than 10000.
Section E
33. (i) What do you mean by file handling? [1+4]
(ii)Write a program code in python to perform the following using two functions as
follows:
(a) addbook(): to write to a csv file "book.csv" file book no, book name, and no of pages
with separator as tab.
(b) countRecord(): to count and display the total no of records in the "book.csv" file.
34. Does Python create a file itself if the file doesn’t exist in memory? Illustrate your answer
with an example. [2+3]
(a) Write a function addrecord() to add record of teacher in file “teacher.dat”. Each record
should contain the following data (using list):
1. Teacher Name
2. Teacher designation
3. Teacher Salary
(b) Write a function displayrec() to read and display the record of a particular teacher
according to the name entered by the user from a file “teacher.dat”
OR
(a) Differentiate between ‘w’ ans ‘a’ file mode in Python.
(b) A binary file “book.dat” has structure [Bookno, Name, Author, Price]
i. Write a user defined function CreateFile() to input data for a record and add to “Book.dat”
ii. Write a function CountRec(Author) in Python which accepts the Author name as
parameter and count and return number of books by the given Author are stored in the
binary file “Book.dat”.

35. Write SQL commands for the following on the basis of given table STUDENT: [1 x 5= 5]

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/COMPUTER SCIENEC/ Page 8 of 9)

 NO NAME STIPEND SUBJECT AVERAGE DIVISION
1 KARAN 400 ENGLISH 68 FIRST
2 AMAN 680 MATHEMATICS 72 FIRST
3 JAVED 500 ACCOUNTS 67 FIRST
4 BISHAKH 200 INFORMATICS 55 SECOND
5 SUGANDHA 400 HISTORY 35 THIRD
6 SUPARNA 550 GEOGRAPHY 45 THIRD

(i) To list the names of those students who have obtained DIVISION as FIRST in the
ascending order of NAME.
(ii) To count the number of students who have either accounts or informatics as subject.
(ii) To display the name and stipend of those students whose average marks is greater
than 50 and division as First.
(iv) To count total number of students who got third division.
(v) Give the output
(a) SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT SUBJECT) FROM EXAM;
(b) SELECT COUNT(*) FROM EXAM WHERE SUBJECT IN (‘ACCOUNTS’,
‘HISTORY’);

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/COMPUTER SCIENEC/ Page 9 of 9)

 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, DURGAPUR
SAMPLE PAPER (2024-25)
CLASS- XII
Time: 3 Hours SUBJECT- PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048) Maximum Marks: 70
General Instructions:
i) This question paper consists of 07pages and 37 questions.
ii) This question paper is divided into 5 sections: -
iii) All questions are compulsory. Marks are indicated against each question.

SECTION-A 1x18=18

1. Head office of paralympic games?

(a)Bonn, Germany (b) Lausanne, Switzerland (c) New Delhi, India (d) Zurich, Switzerland
2. Given below are two statements, one of which is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled
as Reason (R)
Assertion: Scurvy is caused due to the deficiency of Vitamin C. Reason: The disease sets in when
the diet does not include fresh vegetables and fruits for a long time.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and(R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but(R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
3. Which of the following vitamins helps to control excessive bleeding from wound________
A) Vitamin A b) Vitamin E c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin K
4. Find the correct height of chair required to conduct chair sit and reach test?
A) 44 cm b) 20-inch c) 1m d) both a & b
5. Nadisodhan Pranayama is keeping our body........?
(a) Pure from inside (b) flexible (c) strengthen (d) all of these
6. Match the following:
(1) Strain a) Joint injuries

(2) Sprain b) Bleeding wound

(3) Laceration c) Muscle injury

(4) Dislocation (d) Ligament injury

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/PHYSICAL EDUCATION/Page 1 of 7)

(a) c, d, b, a (b) a, b, c, d (c) d, a, c, b (d) b, c, a, d
7. One gram of carbohydrate contains ________ Calories
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
8.The following are the two statements which are labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
A. Assertion (A): Diabetes is really a very dangerous lifestyle disease.
B. Reason (R): Diabetes can lead to renal failure, loss of vision, amputation of limbs and
cardiovascular diseases if it is not controlled.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
9.physiological factor determining speed are
(a) Explosive strength (b) Body weight (c) Muscles composition (d) both (a) & (c)
10. Match list-I with list –II select the correct answer from the code given below:
LIST-I LIST-II
I. Carbohydrates 1.Milk, cheese
II. Calcium 2.Meat, fish
III. Protein 3.Vegetable group
IV. Vitamins 4.Bread, rice

CODE
I II III IV
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 4 2 1 3
C) 4 3 1 2
D) 4 1 2 3

11. Which one of the following strategies is considered to make physical activities accessible for
children with special needs?
(a) Medical check-up
(b) Specific environment should be provided
(c) Activities should be according to the interests of children
(d) All of the above

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/PHYSICAL EDUCATION/Page 2 of 7)

12.In which year first Deaflympics were organized?
(a) 1920 (b) 1924 (c) 1928 (d) 1932
13. Match The Following
1 Diabetes a) ( a) Accumulation of fat

2 Hypertension b) (b) Insulin

3 Asthma c) (c) Blood pressure

4 Obesity d) (d) Respiratory tract

(i) (1) -(d), (2)- (a), (3)- (b), (4)-(c)

(ii) (1) -(b), (2)- (c), (3)-(d), (4)-(a)
(iii) (1) -(a), (2)- (c), (3) -(b), (4)-(d)
(iv) (1) -(a), (2)- (d), (3)- (b), (4)-(c)
14. Which one of the following glands is related to diabetes?
(a) Pituitary
(b) Pancreas
(c) Thymus
(d) Adrenal
15. According to WHO the criteria for overweight as per BMI is:
(a) 18.5-24.9
(b) 25-29.9
(c) 30-34.9
(d) 35-39.9
16. 37. The irregular tear-like wounds caused by some blunt trauma.......
(a) Laceration
(b) Contusion
(c) Abrasion
(d) Incision
17. Given below are the two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
A. Assertion (A): Sprain is a soft-tissue injury.
B. Reason (R): Fracture is hard-tissue injury.

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/PHYSICAL EDUCATION/Page 3 of 7)

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are
true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
18. It is the amount of blood pumped out by each side of the heart (actually each ventricle) in 1
minute
(a) Blood pressure
(c) Blood volume
(b) Cardiac output
(d) Both (a) and (b)

SECTION-B 2x6=12
19.Discuss the symptoms and causes of Back Pain.
20.How does inclusion in sports helps to improve communication skills of students?
21. What do you mean by hypertension.
22. Discuss any two fat soluble vitamins on the basis of their sources and benefits.
23.Point out the physiological factors for strength.
24. Mention the sources and benefits of proteins.

SECTION-C 3x6=18
25.Elaborate any three physiological factor determining endurance.
26.What do you mean by joint injuries? Explain various types of dislocation.
27.Describe the plate tapping test for coordination in detail.
28.Define Balance Diet and explain any four micro nutrients.
29.Discuss any four pitfalls of dieting.
30.Discuss the preventive measure of sports injuries.

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/PHYSICAL EDUCATION/Page 4 of 7)

 SECTION-D 4x3=12
31. Mr Sandeep aged 65 years worked as a civil engineer in a construction company. He had to
walk and climb a lot as a part of his job. After retirement, he settled with his son spending time
with his grandchildren. Now a days, he is experiencing difficulty in doing certain chores which
involve physical movement.

A. Which of the following tests would you recommend to check Mr Sandeep's fitness?
(a) Harvard Step Test
(b) Rikli & Jones Test
(c) AAHPER Test
(d) Rockport Test
B. How many series of tests are there in the prescribed fitness test for Mr Sandeep?
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 4
C. Chair Sit & Reach Test is done to check
(a) Agility (b) Speed (c) Flexibility (d) Partial curl up
D. Pick the odd one out.
(a) Arm Curl Test
(b) Chair Stand Test
(c) 6-minute Walk Test
(d) Partial Curi up
Or
The 8-foot Up and Go Test, as shown in the picture is performed to assess
(a) Agility (b) Endurance (c) Speedo (d) Strength

32. Observe the given figures and answer the following questions:

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/PHYSICAL EDUCATION/Page 5 of 7)

A. Both the tests shown in the above pictures are conducted to check
(a) Muscular
(b) Skeletal
(c) Cardiovascular
(d) Respiratory
B. The height of the bench used in the second picture is……….. cm for women,
(a) 45
(b) 50
(c) 40
(d) 55
C. The test shown in second picture was developed by
(a) Coubertin
(b) Brouha
(c) Sheldon
(d) James
D. The name of the test shown in the first picture is
fitness.
(a) Rikli and Jones Test
(b) Harvard Step Test
(c) Rockport Test
(d) Barrow Test
Or
How many times pulse rates are taken to estimate the fitness level?
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) 4

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/PHYSICAL EDUCATION/Page 6 of 7)

33. Raju, a student of class XII, has recently joined a gym to get a muscular body. he consults his
gym trainer about his diet and is advised to enhance the intake of protein in his diet.

A. Protein helps in...............

(a) increasing bone density
(c) Antibodies formation
(b) Protoplasm formation
(d) Both 'b' and 'c'
B. Deficiency of protein can cause.
(a) Rickets
(b) Kwashiorkor
(c) Scurvy
(d) Night blindness
C. Proteins are also known as
(a) Nitrogenous food
(b) Body building food
(d) Both 'a' and 'b'
(c) Fatty food

D. One gram of fat provides. ………... . calories.

Or
_______are called as building blocks of body.

SECTION-E 5x4=20
34.Elucidate the Harvard Step Test in detail.
35.What are bone injuries? Discuss the types, causes and prevention of fracture.
36.discuss the treatment of Abrasion, contusion and laceration.
37.What do you mean by Nutritive components of diet? Explain any three of them in brief.

*************************

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/PHYSICAL EDUCATION/Page 7 of 7)

 DELHIPUBLICSCHOOL, DURGAPUR
SAMPLEPAPER (2024-25)
CLASS-XII
Time: 2Hours SUBJECT-PAINTING (049) Maximum Marks: 30
General Instructions:
i) There are three sections in the question paper namely section A, B and C.
ii) Section A consists of 8 questions. Attempt all Questions.
iii) Section B consists of 5 questions. Attempt all Questions. Answers shall not
exceed 100 words.
iv) Section C consists of 3questions. Answer any two. Answers shall not exceed
200 words.

SECTION – A 1X8=8
(Multiple Choice Questions)
Attempt all Questions (Each Question will carry 1 mark)

1. Whose period was known as the ‘Golden Age of Kangra School of miniature painting?
(A) Raja Sansarchand
(B) Raja Ravi Varma
(C) Raja Sureshchand
(D) Raja Tekchand
2. Mention the title of the graphic – print done by Krishna Reddy, the famous contemporary
(modern) Indian graphic – artist (Print-maker), which is included in your course of study :
(A) Whirlpool
(B) Children
(C) Devi
(D) Ocean
3. Mention name of the painter of famous miniature painting of the Mughal school ‘ Falcon
on a Bird-Rest’, included in your course of study :
(A) Miskin
(B) Ustad Mansoor
(C) Ramdas
(D) Ramprasad

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/PAINTING/Page 1 of 4)
4. Mention the name of sub-school of famous miniature – painting of the Deccan School
‘Ragini Pat-hamsika’ included in your course of study :
(A) Hyderabad Sub-school
(B) Golkonda Sub-school
(C) Bijapur Sub-school
(D) Ahmadnagar Sub-school

5. Mention the title of miniature – painting of the Kishangarh subschool of the Rajasthani
School that is included in your course of study:
(A) Radhika
(B) Radha (Bani-Thani)
(C) Radha-Shyam
(D) Bharat Meets Rama at Chitrakuta
6. Who painted the famous miniature – painting of the Pahari School (Kangra Sub-school)
‘ Nand, Yashoda and Krishna with Kinsmen Going to Vrindavana’, which is included in
your course of study?
(A) Manaku
(B) Purkhoo
(C) Fattoo
(D) Nainsukh
7. Which Mughal ruler prepared the illustrated manuscripts of ‘Ramayana’ and ‘Mahabharata’?
(A) Akbar
(B) Babar
(C) Humayun
(D) Aurangzeb
8. Which book is noted as the first illustrated manuscript of Mughal painting?
(A) Hamzanama
(B) Razmanama
(C) Ramayana
(D) Ain-e-Akbari

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/PAINTING/Page 2 of 4)
 SECTION – B 2 X 5 = 10
(Short answer type Question)
(Answer for these questions is expected in around 100 words)
Attempt all Questions (Each Question will carry 2 Marks)

9. This Painting has been displaying a wonderful combination of deep contemplation,

Sufism and great devotion for music
Identify this painting of Deccan School and describe it on the basis of compositional
arrangement in your own words.
OR
How did the Rajasthani School of miniature evolve?

10. What are the characteristics of Pahari School of miniature painting?

OR
Who was acknowledged as father of Mughal Art & why?

11. Explain the main specialities of the Deccan School of Miniature Painting.
OR
What did the painter illustrated in the painting ‘Birth of Salim’?

12. Who painted ‘Falcon on a Bird-Rest’? Explain the painting.

OR
Aesthetically criticize any graphic-Print included your course of study that depicts the
spiritual harmony of Tantra, Yoga, Sadhana, Dharma and feminine power.

13. Describe the evolution of the Indian National Flag and the symbolic significance of its
forms and colours.
OR
Name the main artists of Delhi Shilpi Chakra.

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/PAINTING/Page 3 of 4)
 SECTION – C 6 X 2 = 12
(Long Answer Type Questions)
(Answer for these questions is expected in around 200 words)

Attempt any two Questions (Question will carry 6 Marks)

14. Describe the following points in detail through an article on the Mughal Miniature
School.

i) Origin and development of Mughal Painting School

ii) Major painters of the period of Akbar and Jahangir.
iii) Salient features of the Mughal School.

15. Write an essay on origin and development, subject matter, characteristic features and
paintings of the Pahari School.

16. The style of Jain manuscript illustration was vigorously distorted. Justify the statement
with a few characteristic and two examples.

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/PAINTING/Page 4 of 4)
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, DURGAPUR
SAMPLE PAPER (2024-25)
CLASS- XII
Time: 3 Hours SUBJECT- PSYCHOLOGY (037) Maximum Marks: 70
NAME: ___________________________ SEC: ______ ROLL NO.______

General Instructions:
i. This question paper consists of 6 no. of pages and 34 questions.
ii. This question paper is divided into 6 sections: - A, B, C, D, E & F
iii. All questions are compulsory, except where internal choices are given.
iv. Question Nos. 1 -15 in Section A carry 1 mark each.
v. Question Nos. 16-21 in Section B are Very Short Answer type-I questions carrying 2 marks
each. Answer to each question should not exceed 30 words.
vi. Question Nos. 22-24 in Section C are Very Short Answer types-II questions carrying 3 marks
each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
vii. Question Nos. 25-28 in Section D are Long Answer Type-I questions carrying 4 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
viii. Question Nos 29 & 30 in Section E are Long Answer Type-II question carrying 6 marks. Answer
to this question should not exceed 200 words.
ix. Question Nos 31-34 in Section F are based on two cases given. Each case has two questions
carrying two marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 30 words.

S.No Questions MM
Section A
1. Monika has to be assessed for her abilities of creativity and original 1
thinking. The test to be used by the psychologist will involve:
a. Convergent thinking
b. Divergent thinking
c. Both convergent and divergent thinking
d. Memory and logical thinking
2. Yukti's application for admission to the college of her choice got rejected. 1
When talking about the admission to the college with others, she tells
everyone that she was never interested in studying in that college. Identify
the defence mechanism used by Yukti.
a. Repression
b. Reaction formation
c. Denial
d. Rationalisation
3. There are some people who are said to be hostile, egocentric and 1
antisocial. They are said to be high on_________.

a. Sociability
b. Psychoticism
c. Neuroticism
d. Introversion

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/PSYCHOLOGY/Page 1 of 6)
4. Which of the following statements is not true about coping with stress? 1
(i) Coping is a dynamic situation-specific reaction to stress
(ii) It is a set of concrete responses to stressful situations or
events that are intended to resolve problems and reduce stress
(iii) People who cope poorly with stress have a high level of
natural killer cell cytotoxicity
(iv) Individuals show similarity in coping strategies that they use
to deal with stressful situations

a. (ii), (iii) & (iv)

b. (iii) only
c. (ii) & (iii)
d. (i) & (ii)
5. Meena’s work environment is highly stressful due to unrealistic 1
expectations by the organization. She had been trying to balance her job
as well as her home front. She wasn’t feeling well since the past few
months, so she got a checkup done and was diagnosed with high blood
pressure. As per the GAS, at what stage does this happen?

a. Alarm reaction
b. Exhaustion
c. Resistance
d. Adaptation
6. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and 1
Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate action.

Assertion (A): Cognitive consistency means that two components in an

attitude system must be in the opposite direction.
Reasoning (R): If the two elements are not logically in consonance with
each other, it leads to distress.
Options:
a. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
of A
c. A is true, R is false
d. Both A & R are false

7. Which of the following is not a feature of a formal group? 1

a. Functions are stated explicitly and formally.
b. Formation is based on rules and laws.
c. There is a close relationship among members.
d. Members have definite roles.

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/PSYCHOLOGY/Page 2 of 6)
8. 1
Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and
Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate action.

Assertion (A): Children from disadvantaged homes, when adopted into

families with higher socio-economic status, exhibit a large increase in
their intelligence scores.
Reasoning (R): Environmental deprivation lowers intelligence, while
rich nutrition, good family background and quality schooling increases
intelligence.
Options:
a. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true, R is false
d. Both A & R are false

9. Ritik uses imagery and imagination to reduce his stress levels. Identify 1
the technique being used by Ritik.

a. Relaxed visualization
b. Meditation
c. Creative visualization
d. Imagination and relaxation
10. The self that values family and social relationships is known as: 1
(i) Personal
(ii) Social
(iii) Familial
(iv) Relational

a. (i) & (iii)

b. (ii), (iii) & (iv)
c. (iii) & (iv)
d. (i) & (iv)
11. Vijay’s Parents are confused as to what subjects should he choose in 1
Grade 1. To know where his strengths lie, the school counsellor suggested
that he take the aptitude test. What form of aptitude test should be given
to him?

a. Specialized
b. Independent
c. Generalized
d. Vocational

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/PSYCHOLOGY/Page 3 of 6)
12. Sachin believes that one should always speak the truth. This is an example 1
of?

a. Belief
b. Cognition
c. Value
d. Stereotype
13. Cohesion amongst group members can interfere with effective 1
leadership and lead to disastrous decisions. This process is called:
a. Cohesiveness
b. Groupthink
c. Polarization
d. Conflict
14. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and 1
Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate action.

Assertion (A): The ability to think and produce ideas requires

intelligence.
Reasoning (R): Intelligence by itself doesn’t ensure creativity
Options:
a. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true, R is false
d. Both A & R are false

15. Tendency of individual to respond all questions in affirmative answers is 1

also known as:
a. Acquiescence
b. Self-report
c. Social desirability
d. Halo effect
Section B
16. The phenomena of student-teacher interactions in a classroom can be 2
easily studied by psychologists. Critically evaluate the assessment method
that will be used here.
17. Rajan has faced a lot of difficulties in life. However, he shows low level 2
of illness despite of high levels of stress. What makes people like Rajan
resistant to stress?
18. Differentiate between ingroup and outgroup 2
19. ‘Self-esteem shows a strong relationship with our everyday behavior’. 2
Justify this statement with the help of an example.
20. What is assertiveness? How can it help you in your day-to-day life? 2
21. What role does a message play in changing the attitude of an individual. 2

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/PSYCHOLOGY/Page 4 of 6)
 Section C
22. Gautam is high in the ability to think analytically and performs well in 3
academics. With respect to Robert Sternberg’s theory which kind of
intelligence does he possess? Explain.
23. What is evaluative stress? How can it be overcome? 3
24. Freud visualized the human mind in terms of three levels of 3
consciousness. Explain.

OR

Direct method of personality assessment can’t uncover the unconscious

part of our behavior. Which methods can be used? What are their main
features.
Section D

25. Individuals differ in the coping strategies that they use to deal with 4
stressful situations. Justify this statement highlighting various coping
strategies.
26. Manish is trying to lose weight. During the festivities, he made sure not 4
to eat his favourite desserts. Identify and explain the aspect of self that
he is exhibiting. Suggest any three techniques he can apply to further
achieve his goal.
27. How are attitudes formed? Explain with examples. 4
28. Describe the model which states that intellectual activity involves the 4
interdependent functioning of three neurological systems.

OR
The cultural environment provides a context for intelligence to develop.
How does the role of culture influence our understanding of intelligence?
Explain.
Section E
29. Differentiate between type and trait approaches to personality. Explain 6
any four type theories in detail
OR
A person’s behavior in a variety of situations can provide us with
meaningful information about their personality. What techniques can be
used to understand the personality using these modalities.
30. Explain Howard Gardner’s theory of Multiple Intelligences. 6
OR
Describe the categories in which intelligence tests are classified. Share
any common misuse of intelligence tests.
Section F
Read the case and answer the questions that follow

Arunima Sinha is a true inspiration, having overcome incredible odds to

become the first female amputee to climb Mount Everest. Her journey to
the top of the world’s highest peak is a story of courage, perseverance,
and an unbreakable spirit. A former national-level volleyball player,
Arunima lost one of her legs in a tragic train accident. Instead of giving

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/PSYCHOLOGY/Page 5 of 6)
 up, she decided to pursue mountaineering, a passion she had always had.
She trained hard for two years, enduring countless hardships, and finally
achieved her dream of climbing Mount Everest in 2013. Arunima’s
inspiring story doesn’t end there. Since then, she has gone on to climb six
of the world’s highest peaks, becoming an inspiration to people all over
the world. Arunima’s story is a powerful reminder that no obstacle is too
great to overcome. Her determination and resilience in the face of
adversity are an inspiration to us all, and her commitment to helping
others is a testament to her character and strength. Her legacy will
continue to inspire people for generations to come.

31. ‘Her journey to the top of the world’s highest peak is a story of courage, 1
perseverance, and an unbreakable spirit’. According to Kobasa, which
personality trait is being referred to here?
32. Explain any two stress buffers that have helped Arunima in the face of 2
adversity.
Read the case and answer the questions that follow

Also referred to as the Ringelmann effect, social loafing was discovered

by French agricultural engineer Max Ringelmann while working on a rope
pulling experiment in 1913. Ringelmann was interested in understanding
how agricultural workers could maximize their productivity. During each
round of tug-a-war, Ringelmann found that although groups of men
pulling would outperform individual men overall, the total pulling force
of each group did not equal to the sum of each individual’s maximum pull
strength. In other words, each man in a group did not pull as hard
collectively as they did when they were asked to pull alone. As well, he
found that as more people were added to the group, the further below
maximum capacity they would pull. This meant that, if each individual
can pull a maximum of 100 units, a group of eight people would pull only
392 units, not 800.

33. Why does social loafing occur? 1

34. Suggest two ways of reducing social loafing. 2

(CL-XII/Sample Paper/2024-25/PSYCHOLOGY/Page 6 of 6)