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Medical Nursing MCQ Level 400

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
304 views6 pages

Medical Nursing MCQ Level 400

Lesson plan

Uploaded by

Aminata Y Kamara
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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COLLEGE OF MEDICINE ANDALLIED HEALTH SCIENCES

FACULTY OF NURSING AND MIDWIFERY


FINAL YEAR BSC IN NURSING (LEVEL 400)
MEDICAL NURSING MCQ

AUGUST, 2024 TIME: 40


MINS
INSTRUCTIONS: ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS. Circle the correct answer

1) The nephron consists of:


a) Whole kidney
b) Glomerular and its tubule
c) Glomerulus only
d) Glomerulus, tubule, and renal pelvis

2) What is Nephritis
a) An infectious disease
b) Non infectious disease
c) Bone disease
d) None of the above

3) Glomerulonephritis is a group of diseases that predominately affect:


a) Children and babies
b) Old adult and the aged
c) The aged
d) Children and young adults

4) Glumerulo nephritis is characterized by glomerular damage caused by:


a) Growth of microorganisms in the glomerular
b) Release of bacteria substances toxic to the glomerular
c) Haemolysis of red blood cells circulating through the glomeruli
d) Accumulation of immune complexes and complement in the
glomeruli

5) Protein diet is restricted in patients with which one of the following


conditions?
a) Marasmus
b) Acute glomerulonephritis
c) Chronic glomerulonephritis
d) Pyelitis

6) The oedema with nephrotic syndrome occurs as a result of:


a) Hypercoagulability b) Hyperalbuminemia
c) Decreased plasma oncotic pressure d) Decreased glomerular
filtration rate
7) Which organism causes Pyelonephritis?
a) A bacterial infection
b) A viral infection
c) A fungal infection
d) Parasitic infection

8) Cystitis is defined as an inflammation of


a) Kidney pelvis
b) Kidney calices
c) Urinary tubes
d) Urinary bladder

9) A preventive measure for cystitis is to advised women to clean


perineum after each bowel movement
a) Front to back motion
b) Back to front motion
c) Side to side motion
d) Circular motion

10) In which of the following sequence does the phases of acute


renal failure occur
a) Onset phase, oliguric phase, diuretic phase and convalescent phase
b) Onset phase, diuretic phase, anuric phase and convalescent phase
c) Onset phase, convalescent, oliguric and diuretic phase
d) Convalescent phase, Onset phase, diuretic phase and anuric phase

11) Which one is not a pre renal cause of renal failure ?


a) Burns
b) Shock
c) Cardiac failure
d) Glomerulonephritis

12) Which one is not a diet for patients with renal failure ?
a) Increased carbohydrate
b) Increase protein
c) Decrease protein
d) Decrease carbohydrate

13) Which of the following statement is correct about type I diabetes


mellitus?
a) It is juvenile onset
b) Characterised by less production of insulin
c) It is adult onset
d) Can be treated with tablets only
14) Which of the following is not correct about hyperglycaemia?
a) It is also known as insulin reaction
b) Cause by Emotional stress
c) Cause by infection
d) Failure to take insulin

15) Fruity sweet smelling breath is a typical sign of which condition?


a) Hyperglycaemia
b) Hypoglycaemia
c) Diabetes Insipidus
d) Renal failure

16) The most common cause of cerebrovascular disease is


a) Arteriosclerosis
b) Embolism
c) Vasospasm
d) Hypertensive changes

17) The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure is


called the
a) Pulse pressure
b) Auscultatory gap
c) Pulse deficit
d) Korot koff sound

18) The physician diagnosed a client of paraplegia, this means that


a) Upper extremities are paralyzed
b) Lower extremities are paralyzed
c) One side of the body is paralyzed
d) Both lower and upper extremities are paralyzed

19) Which of the following statements most accurately describe the


term ‘’essential hypertension’’
a) High blood pressure second to renal disease
b) High blood pressure that does not respond to treatment
c) High blood pressure due to anger
d) High blood pressure without any cause

20) One of the symptoms of Bronchitis is:

a) Dryness in the chest from coughing


b) Pain in the chest from coughing
c) Soreness in the chest from coughing
d) Redness in the chest from coughing

21) What is the origin of Bronchitis


a) Viral in origin b) Fungi in origin
c) Bacterial in origin d) Protozoa in origin

22) A patient with pneumonia has nursing diagnosis of ineffective


airway clearance related to pain, fatigue, and thick secretions. An
appropriate nursing intervention for this diagnosis is to:
a) Encourage a fluid intake of at least 3 L/day
b) Administer oxygen as prescribed to maintain optimal
oxygenation
c) Place the patient in semi-Fowler’s position to maximize lung
expansion
d) Teach the patient to take three of four shallow breaths before
coughing to minimize pain

23) The nurse advises a 75 year –old man that to prevent


pneumonia, he should
a) Obtain the pneumococcal vaccine every 5 or 6 hours
b) Obtain the pneumococcal vaccine and an annual influenza
vaccine
c) Seek medical care and antibiotic therapy for all upper respiratory
infections
d) Obtain the pneumococcal vaccine if he is exposed to individuals
with pneumonia

24) A patient with active TB does not have negative sputum cultures
after 6 months of treatment because she says she cannot remember to
take the medication all the time. The best action by the nurse is to:
a) Schedule the patient to come to the clinic every day to take the
medication
b) Have a patient who has recovered from TB tell the patient about
his successful treatment
c) Schedule more teaching sessions so the patient will understand
the risks of noncompliance
d) Arrange for directly observed therapy by a responsible family
member or a public health nurse

25) A nursing diagnosis that is appropriate for patient with moderate


to severe anemia of any aetiology is:
a) Impaired skin integrity related to oedema and pruritis
b) Disturbed body image related to changes in appearance and
body function
c) Imbalanced nutrition less than body requirements related to lack
of knowledge of adequate nutrition
d) Activity intolerance related to decreased haemoglobin and
imbalance oxygen supply and demand.
26) Secondary hypertension is differentiated form primary
hypertension in that secondary hypertension:
a) Has a more gradual onset than primary hypertension
b) Does not cause the target organ damage that occurs with primary
hypertension
c) Has a specific cause such as renal disease, that often can be corrected
by medicine or surgery
d) Is caused by age – related changes in blood pressure regulatory
mechanisms in those individual over 65 years of age

27) The nurse suspects angina rather than MI pain in the patient who
reports chest pain that:
Is relieved by nitro-glycerine
Is a sensation of tightness or squeezing?
Does not radiate to the neck, back or arms

28) An indication that a patient with CHF is developing a


complication Congestive Heart Failure is:
a) Increased weight gain
b) Development of ascites
c) Restlessness and confusion
d) Increased liver enzyme levels
29) The physician diagnosed a client of Hemiplegia, this means that
a. Upper extremities are paralyzed
b. Lower extremities are paralyzed
c. One side of the body is paralyzed
d. Both lower and upper extremities are paralyzed
30) Diagnosis of sickle cell is confirmed by
a. Haemoglobin test
b. Full blood count
c. Electrophoresis
d. Packed cell volume
31) The inheritance when both parent are sickle cell trait is
a. AA, AA, AS, AS
b. AA, AS, AS, SS
c. AA, AS, SS, SS
d. AS, AS, SS, SS
32) Hepatitis A is least likely to be transmitted through:
a. Sexual contact
b. Feaeco-oral route
c. Contaminated food, shell fish or milk products
d. Blood
33) The most common species of plasmodium responsible for about
98% of malaria in Africa is

a. P. Ovale b. P. Malariae c. P. Faciparum d. P.


Vivax

34) Asthma is basically:


a. An infectious disease
b. An autoimmune disease
c. An atopic disease
d. Malignant disease
35) The characteristic features of persistent asthma is
a. Family history of the disease
b. Airway inflammation
c. Need for oral steroids
d. Nocturnal wheezing
36) Chronic pulmonary disease (COPD) does not includes
a. Asthma
b. Emphysema
c. Bronchitis
d. Tuberculosis
37) Glasgow coma scale is used for the diagnosis of
a. Neurologic problem
b. Digestive problem
c. Circulatory problem
d. Respiratory problem
38) Kernig’s sign is present in
a. Brain tumour
b. Meningitis
c. Renal failure
d. Cardiac arrest
39) What is the cause of ischemic stroke?
a. Large artery thrombosis
b. Carcinogenic emboli
c. Small penetrating artery thrombosis
d. All of the above
40) Fruity sweet smelling breath is a typical sign of
a. hyperglycaemia
b. hypoglycaemia
c. diabetes
d. renal failure

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