Medicine Exam
)3RD Batch Group (D
اعداد اللجنة العلمية الدفعة الثالثة
الطب البرشي جامعة 21سبمتب
1. Which of the following is not type of HL: 5. Which one of the following statements
a. nodular sclerosing regarding the prothrombin time is false?
b. mixed cellularity A) It assesses the extrinsic pathway of the
c. lymphocyte depleted coagulation cascade
d. Burkett’s lymphoma B) It is prolonged in patients taking warfarin
C) It provides an accurate assessment of
Answer: D platelet function
D) It is normal in haemophilia A
2. Which of the following is not type of HL: E) It is prolonged in patients with factor X
a. nodular sclerosing deficiency
b. mixed cellularity
c. lymphocyte depleted Answer; C
d. Burkett’s lymphoma
6.Leukemia is
Answer: D A) Infected red blood cell
B) Increase red blood cell
3. 32 yrs. old women being evaluated for C) death all RBC
multiple sclerosis. she began notice D) Cancer in WBC
paresthesia in both legs intermittent
several months ago and now she has Answer; D
urinary incontinence. what is the best
initial step to Diagnosis: 7.which of following is false about Reiter's
a. brain CT scan. disease;
b. brain MRI. A- anterior uveitis is more common than
c. EEG. conjunctivitis
d. visual evoked potential. B- non-specific prostitis and urethritis
C-...
Answer: B D- ...
4. Which of the following is freely filtered Answer; A
in the normal glomerulus?
A) Albumin. 8. The most common cause of adrenal
B) Glucose. insufficiency;
C) Red blood cells. A-Withdrawal corticosteroid
D) Platelets. B-Adrenal disease
E) Fibrinogen. C-Autoimmune (polyglandular syndrome)
D-adrenal TB
Answer; B
Answer; A
9. Which one of the following statements 13.Treatment of high- grade lymphoma is:
about Varicella zoster virus is false? A. Observation.
a) It usually occurs in childhood B. Chemotherapy.
b) The virus entering through the mucosa of C. Radiotherapy.
the upper respiratory tract D. Surgery.
c) lymphadenopathy common
d) infectious virus is spread from fresh skin Answer; B
lesions by direct contact.
14.Which bacteria is not associated with
Answer; C reactive arthritis:
a. Chlamydia
10. Which one of the following statements b. Shigella
about Rabies virus is false? c. Staphylococcus
a) Transmission is Usually through the bite of d. Campylobacter
an infected animal
b) mortality rate may up to 44% Answer; C
C)It is RNA virus of the Lyssa virus genus
d) The virus has a marked affinity for nervous 15.A 38-year-old woman is referred with
tissue and the salivary glands bilateral weakness in her legs. She
also complains of general malaise. On
Answer; B examination she appeared unwell and was
pyrexial 38.9Ċ. She has large palpable
11.All the following about shingles virus cervical lymph nodes bilaterally. Her
except; pharynx was inflamed with areas of
A. they cause bilateral skin lesions exudate on the pharyngeal wall.
B. The commonest complication of shingles Neurological examination revealed global
is post-herpetic neuralgia. weakness of both legs and absent reflexes.
C. It may occur at all ages but is most What is the most likely diagnosis?
common in the elderly a. diphtheria
D. arises from the reactivation of virus latent b. cytomegalovirus
within the dorsal root c. EBV
d. Hodgkin's disease
Answer; A
Answer; A
12.Staphylococcus toxic shock syndrome
(TSS) is associated with infections by 16. Which of the following not criteria to
staph. aureus which produces: diagnose nephrotic syndrome:
A. toxic shock syndrome toxin 1 (TSS1). a. proteinuria
B. pyogenic exotoxin A. b. hypoalbuminemia
C. Hemolysins. c. anasarca
D. Enterotoxins. d. hypertension
E. leukotoxins. E. Hyperlipidemia
Answer; A Answer; D
17.The important for patient with oliguria 21. which one of the following clinical signs
or high creatinine. is caused by lower motor neuron lesions?
a. monitoring the patient A) Hypertonia
b. request US to exclude obstruction B) Muscle fasciculations
c. gives diuretics C) Brisk tendon reflexes
d. check blood sugar
D) Clonus
e. request serum urea
E) Extensor plantar responses
Answer; B
Answer; B
18. Which of the following not related to
hemophilia: 22. Features of nephrotic syndrome:
a. normal PT A- dyslipidemia
b. increase aPTT B- hypoalbuminemia
c. increase INR C- proteinuria >3g/24h
d. prolonged in bleeding time D- all of the above
e. absence factor VIII
Answer; D
Answer; C
23. A 43-year-old man is referred to the
19. which one of the following is not a endocrinology clinic with a 1-year history
clinical manifestation of sickle-cell of headaches and sweating. His shoe size
disease? has increased and his wedding ring no
A) Peripheral neuropathy longer fits. Which of the following is the
B) Dactylitis investigation of choice in establishing the
C) Avascular necrosis of the hip cause of his symptoms?
D) Splenic infarction A) Oral glucose tolerance test
E) Pulmonary fat embolism B) CT head scan
C)MRI head scan
Answer; A D) Insulin tolerance test
E) 24-hour urinary cortisol measurement
20. which of the following is least likely to
cause hyperprolactinemia? Answer; A
A) Bromocriptine
B) Metoclopramide
C) Pituitary adenoma
D) Pregnancy
E) Hypothyroidism
Answer; A
24. Which one of the following clotting 28. 28. CSF in multiple sclerosis patient;
factors does not require vitamin K for its A) High protein
activation? B) Oligoclonal band
A) Factor II C) Bacterial organism
B) Factor V D) Glucose
C) Factor VII
D) Factor IX Answer; B
E) Factor X
29. In multiple sclerosis patient MRI of
Answer; B spine or brain will show:
A- cortical atrophy
25. In a patient with hemolytic anemia, B) White matter plaque
which of the following findings would be
most suggestive of intravascular Answer; B
hemolysis?
A) Raised reticulocyte count 30. Which one of the following human
B) Haemosiderinuria pathogens is correctly matched with its
C) Raised lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) most common method of identification?
D) Splenomegaly A. Streptococcus pyogenes Polymerase chain
E) Positive direct Coombs test reaction (PCR)
B. Hepatitis B virus Blood culture
Answer; B C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae Direct microscopy
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis Enzyme-
26. Causes of polyarthritis: linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
A) RA E. Candida albican Complement fixation test
B) Osteoarthritis
C) psoriasis Answer; C
D) SLE
E) all of above 31. Al clinical features of gout except
A. Precipitated acute attack by allopurinol
Answer; E B. Abrupt onset with severe joint pain
C. loin pain hematuria
27. Features of psoriasis arthritis D. low serum urate in acute attack
A- asymmetric oligoarthritic of finger & toes
B- Arthritis of distal interphalangeal joints & Answer; D
nail dystrophy
C_ rheumatoid like symmetrical small joints
D- arthritis mutilans and telescoping digits
E- all of above
Answer; E
32. Leukemia unknown causes but risk 36. The commonest causes of traveler’s
factor diarrhea? سؤال غلط
A. genetic, environmental A- found word wide
B. radiation B- 50% of population has serological in late
C. chemical agent, chemotherapy of infection virus
D. all of above C- pregnancy can be infected by primary
infection or secondary reactivation
Answer; D D - in elderly with febrile infection called
infectious mononucleosis
33. Which of the following drugs is the
most appropriate medical treatment for 37. Empty Sella syndrome can be caused
hypertension associated with Conn's by except?
syndrome? A) Sheehan's syndrome
A) Bendroflumethiazide. B) Spontaneously development
B) Atenolol. C) Pituitary tumor
C) Perindopril. D) Post radiotherapy
D) Amlodipine.
E) Spironolactone. Answer; C
Answer; E 38. 25_GFR in Stage lV of chronic renal
failure?
34. which of the following symptoms and A) 15 _30 ml/min
sign is present with secondary adrenal B) 30 _60 ml/min
insufficiency but not in patients with C) 60_90 ml/min
Addison disease:
a. fatigue Answer; A
b. normal electrolyte level
c. weight loss 39. Patient with hypertension and
d. elevated in BUN level proteinuria Which of the following drug is
preferred;
Answer; B A) Beta blockers
B) ACE-i
35.Causes of hypopituitarism? C) Ca blocker
a- Kalman syndrome D) Thiazide diuretic
b- craniopharyngioma
c- Head injury Answer; B
d- Sheehan's syndrome
E- sarcoidosis
F-All of above is true
Answer; F
40. Which one of the following statements 43. Primary aldosteronism is not featured
regarding sickle-cell disease is true? by:
A) Sickle-cell trait results in an increased A. Low plasma rennin
susceptibility to falciparum malaria. B. Hypokalemia
B) The condition shows X-linked C. Edema
inheritance. D. Systemic hypertension
C) Hemoglobin electrophoresis
demonstrates a predominance of HbF. Answer; C
D) Sickle-cell anemia is usually
accompanied by a reticulocytosis. 44. First-line drug treatment for
E) With optimal medical care for sickle cell status epilepticus is:
anemia, life expectancy is unaffected. A) phenytoin
B) propofol
Answer; D C) Lorazepam
D) valproate
41.Which one of the following statements
regarding red blood cells is false? Answer; C
A) They are derived from megakaryocytes
B) Production is stimulated by erythropoietin 45. Which of following treatment is correct
from the kidney in Ankylosing spondylitis:
C) Increased production is associated with A- systemic Corticosteroids is
increased numbers of circulating contraindication
reticulocytes B- prolonged rest can accelerate functional
D)Mature red blood cells have a biconcave recovery
disc shape C- spinal deformity minimized by
E) Mature red blood cells do not possess a physiotherapy
nucleus or mitochondria D- peripheral joint involvement is good
prognosis
Answer; A
Answer; C
42. Classical sign of cerebellar syndrome?
A) Resting tremor 46. Case of relapsing MS, which is the
B) Intention tremor initial treatment;
C) Spasticity A-Oral prednisone
D) Rigidity B-IV immunoglobulin
C- Iv high dose corticosteroids
Answer; B D- Plasmapheresis
Answer; C
47. Most common enzyme defect in 51. features of Giant cell(temporal)
congenital adrenal hyperplasia? arteritis:
A. deficiency of 21-hydroxylase A- In adults >60 y
B. deficiency of 17-hydroxylase B- female predominance
C. deficiency of 11-hydroxylase C- may lead to weight loss, normochromic
D. deficiency of 31-pyrohydroxylase anemia and increased ESR
D- jaw pain during eating
Answer; A E- All of the above
48. All of the following except one are Answer; E
recognized causes of hypercalcemia Which
is the exception? 52. The management of adrenal crisis all
A) Primary hyperparathyroidism except
B) Secondary hyperparathyroidism a. IV saline as required to normalize blood
C) Tertiary hyperparathyroidism pressure and pulse
D) Multiple myeloma b. IV hydrocortisones 100mg iv 4 time daily
E) Squamous cell bronchial carcinoma for 1st 12 - 24hrs
c. fludrocortisones are required during the
Answer; B acute phase of treatment
d. corrects acute hypoglycemia
49. Patient before 1 year confusion and
EEG diagnostic status epilepticus use anti- Answer; C
epileptic drug what are investigation
important follow-up 53. The most important step in treatment
A. liver function of cholera is:
B. Electrolyte and glucose a. To give Antibiotic
C. c.b.c b. To Rehydrate patient orally or iv if not
possible
Answer; B c. To isolate
50. features of Ankylosing spondylitis Answer; B
include
A) lower back pain radiating to the back 54. Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome is
B) persistence lordosis in spinal flexion caused by;
C) squaring lumbar vertebrate on x-ray A_ Beta hemolytic group A streptococcus
D) erosion of symphysis pubis on X-ray pyrogens
E) all of the above B_ Beta hemolytic group B strep. agalacticia
C_ Beta hemolytic group C streptococci
Answer; E! D) all of the above
Answer; A
58) case and in this case mentioned
55. Staph. aureus is the main cause of features of cerebellar lesion as intention
staphylococcal infections therefore tremor, Dysdiadochokinesia Where the
prevention is better than treatment which lesion in brain suggests this case:
can be achieved by the following except A. Cerebellum
one: B. Cerebral white matter
A) Careful attention to hand hygiene. C. Epidural space
B) skin preparation and aseptic technique D. Pons
C) the use of topical and systemic antibiotic E. Putamen
prophylaxis.
D) All of the above Answer; A
Answer; D 59.In treatment of Acute gout except;
A) Salicylate control symptoms and
56.Definition of Status epilepticus is accelerate resolution
A) One attack in 24 h B) Allopurinol inhibit xanthine oxidase
B) One attack lasting more 5 minute or two inhibitor hence urate production
or mor attack that no recovery in between C) Tophi is resolved with
C) .... control hyperuricemia
D) ... D) Allopurinol and probenecid
contraindicated during 24_48 hours
Answer; B
Answer; A
57. Kawasaki disease include:
A) redness of the palm and soles
B) enlarge lymphadenopathy
C) bilateral conjunctival congestion
D) redness of tongue and lip
E) all of the above
Answer; E
