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NTPC Engineer (Electrical)

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NTPC Engineer Exam (Electrical) - English
Paper Questions

Question 1
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
:

(A) a

(B) an

(C) some

(D) the

Correct Answer: D

Question 2
Have the car stolen!
:

(A) Steal the car

(B) You should have the stolen car

(C) Get someone to steal the car

(D) They have stolen the car

Correct Answer: C

Question 3
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
:

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(A) The hardworking salesman collected the payment.

(B) the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.

(C) to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.

(D) The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.

Correct Answer: A

Question 4
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
:

(A) All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me

(B) For completing this project all other work must be stopped

(C) For completing this project I had to stop all my work

(D) To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me

Correct Answer: D

Question 5
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
:

(A) The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.

(B) The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them

(C) The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.

(D) The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.

Correct Answer: C

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Question 6
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
:

(A) Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site

(B) The prices were lowered by the online shopping site

(C) The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site

(D) The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site

Correct Answer: B

Question 7
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
:

(A) To drive a truck by whom were you taught?

(B) Driving a truck by who were you taught?

(C) Driving a truck by who were you being taught?

(D) By whom were you taught to drive a truck?

Correct Answer: D

Question 8
We shall invite Suresh.
:

(A) Suresh would be invited by us

(B) Suresh would have been invited by us

(C) Suresh will be invited by us

(D) Suresh will have been invited by us

Correct Answer: C

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Question 9
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
:

(A) By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.

(B) The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.

(C) Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.

(D) The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.

Correct Answer: B

Question 10
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
:

(A) The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before

(B) The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after

(C) The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after

(D) The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow

Correct Answer: B

Question 11
Why did break the vase?
:

(A) why is the vase broken by him

(B) why was the vase broken by him

(C) why had been the vase broken by him

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(D) why has been the vase broken by him

Correct Answer: B

Question 12
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
:

(A) A note was written to her boss by Mariam

(B) A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss

(C) A note was being written by Mariam to her boss

(D) A note was written by Mariam to her boss

Correct Answer: C

Question 13
The baby really enjoys that music.
:

(A) That music was really enjoyed by the baby.

(B) That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.

(C) That music is really enjoyed by the baby.

(D) This music was really enjoyed by the baby.

Correct Answer: C

Question 14
The weather disrupted the final match.
:

(A) The final match has been disrupted by the weather.

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(B) The final match had been disrupted by the weather.

(C) The final match was disrupted by the weather.

(D) The final match was being disrupted by the weather.

Correct Answer: C

Question 15
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
:

(A) report would be published by the management committee every year.

(B) A report would have been published by the management committee every year.

(C) A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.

(D) Every year the report would be published by the management committee.

Correct Answer: C

Question 16
Preeti ran the race in record time.
:

(A) In record time Preeti ran the race.

(B) The race was run by Preeti in record time

(C) The race was being run by Preeti in record time

(D) The race had been run by Preeti in record time

Correct Answer: B

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Question 17
I shall have written the full thesis by December
:

(A) By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.

(B) The full thesis will have been written by me by December.

(C) The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December

(D) By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.

Correct Answer: B

Question 18
One must keep one’s promises.
:

(A) One’s promises must be kept by one.

(B) One’s promises had to be kept.

(C) Promises must be kept.

(D) Promises have to be kept by one.

Correct Answer: C

Question 19
I read the story in one night.
:

(A) The story had been read by me in one night.

(B) The story has been read by me in one night

(C) n one night the story has been read by me.

(D) the story was read by me in one night

Correct Answer: D

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Question 20
We must take care of the old.
:

(A) Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.

(B) The old must be taken care of by us.

(C) Those who are old need care by us

(D) The old should be taken care of by us.

Correct Answer: B

Question 21
My father generously donated money to the church.
:

(A) Money is generously being donated to te church by my father.

(B) Money has been generously donated to the church by my father.

(C) Money had been generously donated to the church by my father.

(D) Money was generously donated to the church by my father.

Correct Answer: D

Question 22
We will send you your laboratory reports as soon as they are ready
:

(A) you would be sent your laboratory reports as soon as they will be ready.

(B) Your laboratory reports will be sent to you as soon as they are ready.

(C) You would be send your laboratory reports as soon as they will be ready.

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(D) Your laboratory reports should be sent to you as soon as they will be ready.

Correct Answer: B

Question 23
I saw the master conducting the orchestra.
:

(A) I saw that the orchestra was being conducted by the master.

(B) I saw the orchestra being conducted by te master

(C) The master was seen conducting the orchestra by me.

(D) The master was conducting the orchestra and I saw that.

Correct Answer: B

Question 24
The dog is being fed by us.
:

(A) We fed the dog.

(B) We have had been feeding the dog.

(C) We are feeding the dog

(D) We had been feeding the dog

Correct Answer: C

Question 25
When did Rohit return my bike?
:

(A) When was my bike returned by Rohit?

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(B) When was it that Rohit returned my bike?

(C) Rohit returned my bike when?

(D) When did my bike come back from Rohit?

Correct Answer: A

Question 26
They are going to watch a drama tomorrow.
:

(A) A drama is going to be watched by them tomorrow.

(B) A drama will be watched by them tomorrow.

(C) A drama will be watched by them tomorrow.

(D) A drama was going to be watched by them tomorrow.

Tomorrow the drama is going to be watched by them.

Correct Answer: A

Question 27
The event manager is making all the reservations.
:

(A) All the reservations would be made by the event manager.

(B) All the reservations are being made by the event manager.

(C) All the reservations would have been made by the event manager.

(D) All the reservations will have been made by the event manager.

Correct Answer: B

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Question 28
The Marathas surrendered their fort to the Mughals after the war.
:

(A) After the war the Marathas had to surrender their fort to the Mughals.

(B) The Mughals after the war took fort surrendered by the Marathas.

(C) Their fort was surrendered by the Marathas to the Mughals after the war

(D) the Marathas after the war surrendered their fort to the Mughals.

Correct Answer: C

Question 29
Mother filled dark filtered coffee in the cup.
:

(A) The cup was filled with dark filtered coffee by mother.

(B) Mother filled in the cup coffee which was dark and filtered coffee.

(C) The cup was being by mother with dark filtered coffee.

(D) The filtered coffee which was dark was filled into the cup by mother.

Correct Answer: A

Question 30
The most useful gift of my wedding was given to me by my aunt.
:

(A) My aunt gave me the most useful gift of my wedding.

(B) My aunt had given me the most useful gift of my wedding.

(C) The gift which has been most useful has been given to me by my aunt.

(D) My aunt has given me the most useful gift of my wedding.

Correct Answer: A

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Question 31
The painting had not been painted by the famous painter.
:

(A) The panting had never been painted the painting.

(B) The painter who was famous not had painted the painting.

(C) The famous painter had not painted te painting

(D) The famous painter could not have painted the painting.

Correct Answer: C

Question 32
The Kangaroo carried her baby in her pouch.
:

(A) The baby is carried by the kangaroo in er pouch.

(B) The is being carried by the kangaroo in her pouch

(C) The baby had been carried by the kangaroo in her pouch.

(D) The baby was carried by the kangaroo in her pouch.

Correct Answer: D

Question 33
The painters painted the entire building.
:

(A) The entire building had been painted by the painters.

(B) The painters had an entire building painted.

(C) The entire building was painted by the painters.

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(D) The entire building has been painted by the painters.

Correct Answer: C

Question 34
The office boy vacuums and dusts the office every morning.
:

(A) Every morning the office had been vacuumed and dusted by the office boy.

(B) Every morning the office is vacuumed and dusted by the office boy.

(C) Every morning the office has been vacuumed and dusted by the office boy.

(D) Every morning the office has been vacuumed

Correct Answer: C

Question 35
I will wash the car every Sunday.
:

(A) The car would be washed by me every Sunday.

(B) The car will be washed by me every Sunday.

(C) Every Sunday the car would be washed by me.

(D) The car will have been washed by me every Sunday.

Correct Answer: B

Question 36
The owners remodelled car to help it sell
:

(A) The car was remodelled by the owners to help it sell

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(B) The car is being remodelled by the owners to help it sell.

(C) The car was remodelled by the owners to help it being sold.

(D) The car is being remodeled by the owners to help it being sold.

Correct Answer: A

Question 37
The seawater eventually corroded the pillars of the bridge.
:

(A) Eventually the pillars of the bridge are being corroded by the seawater.

(B) Eventually the pillars of the bridge have been corroded by the seawater.

(C) The pillars of the bridge were eventually corroded by the seawater.

(D) The pillars of the bridge have been eventually corroded by the seawater

Correct Answer: A

Question 38
The teacher will give you instructions.
:

(A) Instructions would be given to you by the teacher.

(B) Instructions will have been given to you by the teacher.

(C) Instructions will be given to you by the teacher.

(D) Instructions were given to you by the teacher.

Correct Answer: C

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Question 39
It is impossible to do this job.
:

(A) This job is impossible to be done.

(B) This job cannot be done with.

(C) No one can do this job.

(D) This job cannot be done by anyone.

Correct Answer: A

Question 40
Abhinav Bindra won the gold medal at the 2008 Beijing Olympic Games.
:

(A) Gold medal was won by Abhinav Bindra at the 2008 Beijing Olympic Games.

(B) In 2008 at the Beijing Olympic Games Abhinav Bindra had won the Gold medal.

(C) At the 2008 Beijing Olympic Games Abhinav Bindra won the Gold medal.

(D) Abhinav Bindra must have won at the Beijing Olympics Games which were conducted
in 2008.

Correct Answer: A

Question 41
Jayesh has sent the email
:

(A) The email has had been sent by Jayesh

(B) The email has been sent by Jayesh

(C) The email was sent by Jayesh

(D) The email was send by Jayesh

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Correct Answer: D

Question 42
are regional variations of a language.
:

(A) English

(B) Mandarin Chinese

(C) Home language

(D) Dialects

Correct Answer: D

Question 43
Sunny was driving the car so fast that it slipped at the turn.
:

(A) Sunny slipped at the turn as he was driving the car so fast.

(B) So fast was Sunny driving the car that it slipped at the turn.

(C) The car was being driven by Sunny so fast that it slipped at the turn.

(D) The car slipped at the turn as Sunny was driving it so fast.

Correct Answer: C

Question 44
Can we send this container by ship?
:

(A) can this container by sent by ship?

(B) Could this container be sent by ship by us?

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(C) Could have we sent this container by ship?

(D) This container can be sent by ship. Can we?

Correct Answer: A

Question 45
My father decorated the entire house.
:

(A) The entire house was decorated by my father.

(B) The entire house was being decorated by my father.

(C) The entire house has been decorated by my father.

(D) The entire house had been decorated by my father.

Correct Answer: A

Question 46
Some farmers raise sugarcane in Kerala.
:

(A) Sugarcane is raised by some farmers in Kerala.

(B) Sugarcane was raised by some farmers in Kerala.

(C) Sugarcane was being raised by some farmers in Kerala.

(D) Sugarcane has been raised by some farmers in Kerala.

Correct Answer: A

Question 47
Sahil said, “Where will I be this time next year!”
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(A) Sahil asked where he should be that time the following year.

(B) Sahil worried where he would be that time the next year.

(C) Sahil wondered where he would be that time the following year.

(D) Sahil said where he should be that time the next year.

Correct Answer: C

Question 48
Who ate the last pastry?
:

(A) The last pastry was eaten by whom?

(B) The last pastry was eaten by who?

(C) The last pastry had been eaten by who?

(D) The last pastry has been eaten by whom?

Correct Answer: A

Question 49
He said,“I bought an iPhone 6 yesterday.”
:

(A) He said that he had bought an iPhone 6 the previous day

(B) He said he bought an iPhone 6 the previous day

(C) He said that he has bought an iPhone 6 yesterday

(D) He exclaimed, an iPhone 6 has been bought by him yesterday

Correct Answer: A

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Question 50
Someone gave the old man a push.
:

(A) The old man got a push from someone.

(B) somebody had given a push to the old man.

(C) The old man was being pushed by someone.

(D) A push was given to the old man.

Correct Answer: D

Question 51
My father is going to build a six bedroom bungalow.
:

(A) A six bedroom bungalow was going to be built by my father.

(B) My father will have built a bungalow which will have six bedrooms.

(C) a bungalow of six bedrooms will have been built by my father.

(D) A six bedroom bungalow is going to be built by my father.

Correct Answer: D

Question 52
Ravi had committed a mistake
:

(A) A mistake has been committed by Ravi.

(B) A mistake had been committed by Ravi.

(C) A mistake was committed by Ravi.

(D) A mistake is committed by Ravi.

Correct Answer: B

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Question 53
‘Are you coming with us?’ Isha asked Nisha.
:

(A) Isha asked Nisha whether she would be going with them.

(B) Isha asked Nisha if she going with them.

(C) Isha asked Nisha whether she would go with them.

(D) Isha asked Nisha whether she would come with us.

Correct Answer: B

Question 54
My sister will bake a dozen cakes for the fair.
:

(A) For the fair, a dozen cakes would be backed by my sister.

(B) For the fair, a dozen cakes would have been backed by my sister.

(C) For the fair, a dozen cakes will be backed by my sister.

(D) For the fair, a dozen cakes will have been backed by my sister.

Correct Answer: C

Question 55
The holy prophet said, “God helps those who help others.”
:

(A) The holy prophet said that God helped those who helped others.

(B) The holy prophet said that God helps those who help others.

(C) The holy prophet said that God helps people who help others.

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(D) The holy prophet said that God helps those people who help others.

Correct Answer: B

Question 56
My daughter wrote a beautiful poem.
:

(A) A beautiful poem was written by my daughter.

(B) A beautiful poem has been written by my daughter

(C) A beautiful poem had been written by my daughter.

(D) A Poem which was beautiful had been written by my daughter.

Correct Answer: A

Question 57
We have finished the assignment.
:

(A) The assignment has been finished by us.

(B) The assignment were finished by us

(C) The assignment had been finished by us.

(D) The assignment has had been finished by us.

Correct Answer: A

Question 58
The flood destroyed the whole town.
:

(A) The whole town was destroyed by the flood

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(B) The whole town has been destroyed by the flood

(C) The whole town has been destroyed by the flood

(D) The whole town has had been destroyed by the flood

Correct Answer: D

Question 59
The professor said to the students, 'Work hard if you want to pass the test.'
:

(A) The professor said to the students work hard if they wanted to pass the test.

(B) The professor said to the students work hard if you want to pass the test.

(C) The professor advised the students work hard if they wanted to pass the test.

(D) The professor informed the students to work hard if you want to pass the test.

Correct Answer: C

Question 60
Mrs. Vaijanthi teaches us literature.
:

(A) We have been taught literature by Mrs. Vaijanthi.

(B) Literature is being taught by Mrs. Vaijanhti to us

(C) Literature is being taught to us by Mrs. Vaijanht

(D) Literature is taught by Mrs. Vaijanhti to us.

Correct Answer: D

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Question 61
The coach said, “Bravo! Puneet, you have done well.”
:

(A) The coach applauded Puneet saying that he had done well.

(B) The coach said to Puneet Bravo, he had done well.

(C) The coach congratulated Puneet saying he did well.

(D) The coach said to Puneet, that he did well.

Correct Answer: A

Question 62
The professor said to the student, ‘Post this letter at once’.
:

(A) The professor ordered the student to post that letter at once

(B) The professor ordered the student to post this letter at once

(C) The professor asked the student to post this letter as soon as possible.

(D) The professor asked the student to post that letter as soon as possible.

Correct Answer: A

Question 63
The primary objective of a socialist government is to the miseries of the poor.
:

(A) Mollify

(B) mitigate

(C) soothe

(D) abet

Correct Answer: B

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Question 64
Rupa said to the driver, “Can you take me to the doctor now?”
:

(A) Rupa asked the driver if he could take her to the doctor then.

(B) Rupa asked the driver that if he could take her to her doctor than.

(C) Rupa asked the driver that if he would take her to the doctor at once.

(D) Rupa asked the driver that if he can take her to tha doctor than at once

Correct Answer: A

Question 65
The union allows the employees to bargain for higher wages.
:

(A) wholly

(B) collectively

(C) fully

(D) completely

Correct Answer: B

Question 66
The corrupt officer was ato the department.
:

(A) disgrace

(B) disinterred

(C) discount

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(D) desdpair

Correct Answer: A

Question 67
Dia said to Pari, “Do you like oranges?”
:

(A) Dia asked Pari that did she like oranges.

(B) Dia asked Pari that she likes oranges.

(C) Dia asked Pari that whether she liked oranges.

(D) Dia asked Pari if she liked oranges.

Correct Answer: D

Question 68
I said to Arun, “What do you want?”
:

(A) I asked that Arun what he wanted

(B) I asked that Arun what he wants.

(C) I asked that Arun what he is wanting.

(D) I asked Arun what he wanted

Correct Answer: D

Question 69
The Director said, “Can you dance” and she said “No”.
:

(A) The Director asked her if she could dance and she said that she couldn’t.

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(B) The Director asked her if she could do the dance and she said that she can’t

(C) The Director inquired her if she can dance and she said that she can’t.

(D) The Director asked her if she can dance and she said that she can’t.

Correct Answer: A

Question 70
Siddhartha______________his wife and children, and left for mountains
:

(A) renounced

(B) deserted

(C) neglected

(D) relinquisd

Correct Answer: A

Question 71
Anil says, “I am glad to be here this morning”
:

(A) Anil says he is glad to be there that morning.

(B) Anil says that he is glad to be there that morning

(C) Anil was saying that he was glad to be there this morning.

(D) Anil says that he was glad to be here this morning.

Correct Answer: B

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Question 72
I said, “My grand-father snored throughout the night.”
:

(A) I said my grand-father had snored throughout the night

(B) I said that my grand-fathers snored throughout the night.

(C) I said that my grand-father had snored throughout the night.

(D) I said that my grand-father had been snoring throughout the night

Correct Answer: C

Question 73 The majestic Himalayas are revered, for from them the life sustaining river, mother
: Ganga.

(A) derives

(B) exdues

(C) emanates

(D) radiates

Correct Answer: C

Question 74
“How often do you go to the gym?” said Deepak to Juned.
:

(A) Deepak asked Juned that how often he goes to the gym.

(B) Deepak asked Juned that how often he has been going to the gym

(C) Deepak asked Juned how often he went to the gym

(D) Deepak asked Juned that how often he went to the gym

Correct Answer: C

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Question 75
Thry played with the lambs in the field and saw no human but the shepherd
:

(A) Individual

(B) beings

(C) person

(D) self

Correct Answer: B

Question 76
Vinod said to me, “Has your brother returned from Dubai?”
:

(A) Vinod said to me if my brother has returned from Dubai.

(B) Vinod asked me if my brother had returned from Dubai.

(C) Vinod enquire to me if my brother had returned from Dubai.

(D) Vinod asks me whether my brother had returned from Dubai

Correct Answer: B

Question 77
How can any person hope to know what thoughts transpire in so evil a mind?
:

(A) rational

(B) sober

(C) thinking

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(D) negligent

Correct Answer: A

Question 78
Arun’s financial has helped him earn a fortune on the stock market.
:

(A) dexterity

(B) readiness

(C) expertise

(D) knack

Correct Answer: C

Question 79
“Please give me something to eat. A am hungry” the beggar said to them.
:

(A) The beggar requested them to give him something to eat and said that he was hungry.

(B) The beggar requested them to give him something to eat and said he was hungry.

(C) The beggar requesting them to give him something to eat and says he was hungry.

(D) The beggar while requesting them to give him something to eat and says he is hungry.

Correct Answer: A

Question 80
Manoj said, “I must go now.”
:

(A) Manoj said that he must go then.

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(B) Manoj said that he must go than

(C) Manoj said he has to go then.

(D) Manoj said that he should be going than.

Correct Answer: A

Question 81
Mother said, “Lie down,Arjun.”
:

(A) Mother told lie down Arjun.

(B) Mother told Arjun for lying down.

(C) Mother asked Arjun to lie down

(D) Mother asked Arjun to be lied down

Correct Answer: C

Question 82
The princess asked, ‘What is it that makes you stronger and braver than other men?’
:

(A) The princess asked him what was it that made him stronger and braver than other men.

(B) The princess asked him that, what was it that made him stronger and braver than other
men.

(C) The princess asked him that, what was making him stronger and braver than other men.

(D) The princess asked him, what has made him stronger and braver than other men.

Correct Answer: A

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Question 83
Vicky said, “please say nothing about this.”
:

(A) Vicky asked her to not say anything about this.

(B) Vicky asked her that she should not to say anything about

(C) Vicky asked her to say nothing about that

(D) Vicky asked her that she say nothing about that.

Correct Answer: C

Question 84
Jyoti said her sister, “The RBI is India’s central bank”.
:

(A) Jyoti told her sister the RBI was India’s central bank.

(B) Jyoti told her sister that the RBI was India’s central bank.

(C) Jyoti told her sister that the RBI is India’s central bank

(D) Jyoti told her sister the Rbi is India’s central bank

Correct Answer: C

Question 85
The intern said to the manager, ‘Can I go?’
:

(A) The intern asked the manager if he could go.

(B) The intern asked the manager whether he can go.

(C) The intern asked the manager whether he can be going

(D) The intern asked the manager whether he can be gone.

Correct Answer: A

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Question 86 Fuel suppliers will.....the national oil shortage by raising prices to increase their bottom
: lines

(A) use

(B) misuse

(C) venture

(D) Exploit

Correct Answer: D

Question 87
The professor said to the students, ‘Do not make a noise.’
:

(A) The professor forbade the students from making a noise.

(B) the professor told the students not to make a noise

(C) The professor forbade the students saying they shouldnot be making a noise..

(D) the professor tells the students not to make a noise.

Correct Answer: A

Question 88
The------with which she manages the task is remarkable
:

(A) calm

(B) comfort

(C) ease

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(D) satisfaction

Correct Answer: C

Question 89
The directions failed to understand the.......behind the decision to suspend the manager
:

(A) belief

(B) politics

(C) ideology

(D) rationale

Correct Answer: D

Question 90
Geetal said , “I bought a Honda City yesterday.”
:

(A) Geetal said that I have bought a Honda City yesterday.

(B) Geetal told me that she had bought a Honda City yesterday.

(C) Geetal said she had bought a Honda City the previous day.

(D) Geetal said that she had bought a Honda City the previous day.

Correct Answer: D

Question 91
I said to her, “I will do it now or never.”
:

(A) I informed her that I would do it that moment or never.

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(B) I told her I woulddo it then or never

(C) I told her that I would not do it then or ever.

(D) I told her that I would do it then or never.

Correct Answer: D

Question 92
Then, he left for Silicon Valley to.......his dream of launching a start-up
:

(A) persevere

(B) eschew

(C) pursue

(D) cherish

Correct Answer: C

Question 93
‘Do you have anything to tell me, little princess?’ asked the king.
:

(A) The king ask the little princess if she have anything to tell him.

(B) The king asked the little princess that if she had anything to tell him.

(C) The king said to the little princess if she had anything to say to him.

(D) The king asked the little princess whether she had anything to tell him

Correct Answer: D

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Question 94
Manish said, “Where is the going?”
:

(A) Manish asked that where she was going.

(B) Manish asked that where she is going.

(C) Manish asked where she was going.

(D) Manish asked that where she has been going.

Correct Answer: C

Question 95
The residence of that rich man plain to the point of being ......with no luxuries
:

(A) ascetic

(B) austere

(C) stringent

(D) solemn

Correct Answer: B

Question 96
The employee had become....... to both the manager’s praise as well as reprimand.
:

(A) hardened

(B) indifferent

(C) hostile

(D) immune

Correct Answer: B

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Question 97
Father said Rahul, “Are you in such a hurry to cross the road.
:

(A) Father asked Rahul if he was in such a hurry to cross the road

(B) Father asked Rahul whether he was in a big hurry to cross the road

(C) Father asked Rahul that if he was in such a hurry to cross the road

(D) Father asked Rahul whether he was in such a hurry to cross the road

Correct Answer: A

Question 98
Pinkey said, “What a beautiful vase!”
:

(A) Pinky exclaimed that it is a very beautiful vase.

(B) Pinky said that that it is very beautiful vase indeed.

(C) Pinky exclaimed that it was a very beautiful vase

(D) Pinky reported that it was an indeed a beautiful vase.

Correct Answer: C

Question 99 The criminal was released on.....for a few days so that he could spend time with his
: ailing mother.

(A) parole

(B) guarantee

(C) grant

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(D) mercy

Correct Answer: A

Question 100
Smita says, “I like chocolates.”
:

(A) Smita said she like chocolates.

(B) Smita says that she likes chocolates

(C) Smita says she likes chocolates.

(D) Smita says that, that she likes chocolates.

Correct Answer: B

Question 101
Possessing even single nuclear weapon acts as a........
:

(A) deterrent

(B) detriment

(C) boundary

(D) excuse

Correct Answer: A

Question 102
Ajit said to the policeman, ‘What have I done to deserve so severe a punishment?’
:

(A) Ajit asked the policeman that, what he has done to be deserving so severe a

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punishment.

(B) Ajit asked the policeman that, what he has done to deserve so severe a punishment.

(C) Ajit asked the policeman that, what he has done to deserve so severe a punishment.

(D) Ajit asked the policeman what he had done to deserve so severe a punishment.

Correct Answer: D

Question 103 As global temperatures rise, an untreatable new strain of the flu might.......up at any
: moment

(A) fill

(B) crop

(C) bring

(D) Chop

Correct Answer: B

Question 104
Every evening a ………….of wolves descends in to the valley to hunt.
:

(A) pack

(B) company

(C) gang

(D) herd

Correct Answer: A

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Question 105
……………around the bush.
:

(A) to hit

(B) to beat

(C) to circle

(D) to hide

Correct Answer: B

Question 106
Mother said, “Oh,! It’s a scorpion, Don’t go near it, children.”
:

(A) Mother exclaimed with disgust that, that was a scorpion and told the children not to go
near it.

(B) Mother exclaimed disgustingly that, it was a scorpion and told the children not to go
near it.

(C) Mother exclaimed with disgust that it was a scorpion and told the children not to go
near it.

(D) Mother exclaimed with disgust that, that was a scorpion and told the children not to go
near that.

Correct Answer: C

Question 107
“You can do this job” said Nikki to Jyoti.
:

(A) Nikki told Jyoti she could do that job.

(B) Nikki told Jyoti she could do this job.

(C) Nikki told Jyoti that she could do that job.

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(D) Nikki told Jyoti that, she could do this job.

Correct Answer: C

Question 108
He has a …………..interest in studying human psychology.
:

(A) Deep

(B) wide

(C) vast

(D) heavy

Correct Answer: A

Question 109
The department has……………a complaint against Mr. Bakshi
:

(A) expressed

(B) registered

(C) informed

(D) noted

Correct Answer: B

Question 110
The professor said to Sural, “who were you waiting for?”
:

(A) The professor asked Suraj who he was waiting for.

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(B) The professor asked Suraj who he had been waiting for.

(C) The professor inquired with Suraj who he was waiting for.

(D) The professor asked Suraj who he has been waiting for.

Correct Answer: B

Question 111
The client said to the ticket-seller, “At what time do the counters close?”
:

(A) The client asked the ticket-seller at what time the counters closed.

(B) The client asked the ticket-seller at what time did the counters always close.

(C) The client said to the ticket-seller at what time the counters close.

(D) The client inquired to the ticket-seller at what time the counters usually close.

Correct Answer: A

Question 112
The girl in the red dress said to me, “Where is the film studio?”
:

(A) The girl in the red dress inquired me, where the film studio is.

(B) The girl in the red dress asked me, where is the film studio is.

(C) The girl in the red dress asked me, where the film studio is.

(D) The girl in the red dress asked me, where the film studio was.

Correct Answer: D

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Question 113
His success is worthy of ……. .
:

(A) copying

(B) aping

(C) simulation

(D) emulation

Correct Answer: D

Question 114
They said, “We are starting now.”
:

(A) They said that we were starting then.

(B) They said that they were starting now.

(C) They said that they would be starting now.

(D) They said that they were starting then.

Correct Answer: D

Question 115
I ……….. to return by the 3rd of the month.
:

(A) strategize

(B) program

(C) plan

(D) project

Correct Answer: C

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Question 116
'What do you want?’ Sheila asked Rohan.
:

(A) Sheila asked Rohan what do you want

(B) Sheila asked Rohan what he wanted

(C) Sheila asked Rohan what does he want

(D) Sheila asked Rohan what he wants.

Correct Answer: B

Question 117
The emperor was impressed with the singer and asked, ’What can I do for you?’
:

(A) The emperor impressed with the singer and asked that what he could do for him.

(B) The emperor was impressed with the singer and asked what he could do for him.

(C) The emperor impressed with the singer and asked what could be done for him.

(D) The emperor was impressed with the singer and asked what could be done for him.

Correct Answer: B

Question 118
Amit said to the gardener, “Did you find the anywhere?”
:

(A) Amit asked the gardener that whether he had found the ring anywhere.

(B) Amit asked the gardener that if he did find the ring anywhere.

(C) Amit asked the gardener that if he did find the ring somewhere.

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(D) Amit asked the gardener if he had found the ring anywhere

Correct Answer: D

Question 119
Gokul said to Sumit, “Why did not you attend the meeting yesterday?”
:

(A) Gokul asked Sumit why he did not attend the meeting the day before.

(B) Gokul asked Sumit why he had not attended that meeting yesterday.

(C) Gokul asked Sumit why he had not attended the meeting the day before.

(D) Gokul asked Sumit why he did not attend that meeting yesterday

Correct Answer: C

Question 120
The first full-scale, working steam-powered tricycle was built by.
:

(A) Verbiest

(B) Cugnot

(C) Trevithick

(D) Niepce

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
My mom grew up in a traditional Chinese family in which open expressions of love were never

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encouraged. When she had me and my three siblings, she treated us with the same hard hand. It was
not that she was a slave driver or anything, but she never openly showed affection. Instead, she
demonstrated that she cared in more practical ways.
My parents couldn’t have been more different emotionally. My dad is a really open-hearted person
who constantly showers us with hugs and kisses no matter the occasion. After much persuasion from
him, my mother did try to change, but it was clear that she never felt quite right expressing her
emotions. Eventually, she reverted to her old self.
The difference between my parents was never starker than whenever I brought home good test results
from school. My dad would home good test results from school. My dad would practically jump with
joy, offering warm and affectionate words of congratulations, and my mother? “Ah, good, good” she
would typically say with a tense smile etched on her face. “Do better next time. OK?”
I tried not to hold a grudge her for being so reserved. That was just her way. I reasoned.

Question 121 : Job performance is ______ by a number of factors.

(A) Affected

(B) Effected

(C) Influenced

(D) Measured

Correct Answer: A

Question 122
The preacher said, “May God grant peace to the departed!”
:

(A) The preacher prays that God will grant peace to the departed.

(B) The preacher prayed that God would grant peace to the departed.

(C) The preacher said that God may grant peace to the departed.

(D) The preacher said, God may grant peace to the departed.

Correct Answer: B

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Question 123
I said to my sister, “Where were you this evening?”
:

(A) I asked my sister where she was that evening.

(B) I asked my sister where she had been that evening.

(C) I asked my sister where she was this evening.

(D) I asked my sister where she has been that evening.

Correct Answer: B

Question 124
“Bring me cup of coffee” said Nita to her mother.
:

(A) Nita asked her mother that would she bring her a cup of coffee

(B) Nita asked her mother that if she could bring her a cup of coffee

(C) Nita asked her mother that could she bring her a cup of coffee

(D) Nita asked her mother to bring her a cup of coffee

Correct Answer: D

Question 125
Abhay said to Veena, “Are you coming to the Reception?”
:

(A) Abhay told Veena if she coming to the Reception.

(B) Abhay Asked Veena if she will be coming to the Reception.

(C) Abhay asked Veena if she was coming to the Re7676ception.

(D) Abhay asked Veena whether she was coming to the Reception.

Correct Answer: C

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Question 126
“Please don’t hit me” Rita said to the attacker.
:

(A) Rita begged the attacker to not to hit her.

(B) Rita told the attacker to not to hit her.

(C) Rita begged the attacker not to hit her.

(D) Rita pleaded with the attacker to not to hit her.

Correct Answer: C

Question 127
Rohit said, “Leela, when is the next bus?”
:

(A) Rohit asked Leela when the next bus was supposed to come.

(B) Rohit asked Leela when was the next bus coming.

(C) Rohit asked Leela when the next bus was.

(D) Rohit asked Leela when the next bus was coming.

Correct Answer: C

Question 128
“O, what a beautiful lake that is!” said she.
:

(A) she exclaimed joyfully that that was a very beautiful lake.

(B) she exclaimed joyfully it was a very beautiful lake.

(C) she exclaimed joyfully that was a very beautiful lake.

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(D) she exclaimed joyfully that it was a very beautiful lake.

Correct Answer: A

Question 129
“Is anyone there?”
:

(A) Reema asked if someone were there.

(B) Reema asked whether anyone was being there.

(C) Reema asked if anyone was there.

(D) Reema asked if anyone was here

Correct Answer: C

Question 130
Puneet said, “I have been reading a story book”.
:

(A) Puneet said he has been reading a story book.

(B) Puneet said that he had been reading a story book.

(C) Puneet said that he has been reading a story book.

(D) Puneet said that he had read a story book.

Correct Answer: B

Question 131
The policeman said, “I saw a knife here.”
:

(A) The policeman exclaimed that he had seen a knife here.

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(B) The policeman said that he had seen a knife there.

(C) The policeman said he had seen a knife here.

(D) The policeman told he had seen a knife there.

Correct Answer: B

Question 132
The professor told the class, “Ice floats on water”.
:

(A) The professor told the class that, that ice floats on water.

(B) The professor told the class ice floats on water.

(C) The professor told the class thatice floats on water.

(D) The professor told the class how ice floats on water.

Correct Answer: C

Passage : I don’t have a big budget, I just need a place which provides bed and ……..
drinks breakfast
food eatable

Question 133 I don’t have a big budget, I just need a place which provides bed and ……..
:
(A) drinks

(B) breakfast

(C) food

(D) eatable

Correct Answer: B

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Question 134
“I’m off to the games. Where are you going?”
:

(A) He said he would be off to the games and wanted to know where I was going.

(B) He said he was off to the games and wanted to know where I was planning to go.

(C) He said he is going off to the games and asked me where I was planning to go.

(D) He said that he was off to the games and wanted to know where I was going.

Correct Answer: D

Question 135
“I don’t know the way. Do you?” Vipul asked.
:

(A) Vipul said he didn’t know the way and asked her if she did.

(B) Vipul said he didn’t knew the way and asked her if she did.

(C) Vipul said he didn’t knew the way and asked her whether she did.

(D) Vipul said that he didn’t know the way and asked her if she did.

Correct Answer: D

Question 136
People came out on the streets and …………firecrackers to celebrate the victory
:

(A) burst

(B) heated

(C) burnt

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(D) ignited

Correct Answer: A

Question 137
The teacher said to the students, “Don’t make noise.”
:

(A) The teacher asked the students not to make noise.

(B) The teacher scolded the students, they should not make noise.

(C) The teacher warned the students not to make noise.

(D) The teacher told the students that don’t make noise.

Correct Answer: C

Question 138 Because I’m too …… and want everyone to be happy, people often take advantage of
: my kindness.

(A) available

(B) close

(C) convenient

(D) accommodating

Correct Answer: D

Question 139 Hopefully the architect will be able to turn my……….. ideas into the house of my
: dreams.

(A) illusive

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(B) deceptive

(C) abstract

(D) imaginary

Correct Answer: C

Question 140 Janice was ………… when her husband abruptly announced that their marriage was
: over

(A) ravaged

(B) spoiled

(C) wasted

(D) devastated

Correct Answer: D

Question 141
We captured the gymnast’s ………… acrobatic feats on camera.
:

(A) superlative

(B) tremendous

(C) wondrous

(D) valued

Correct Answer: C

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Question 142
In each of the following questions, choose the correctly spelt word.
:

(A) Equannimity

(B) Equinimity

(C) Equanimity

(D) Equanimmity

Correct Answer: C

Question 143
She deserved the accolades as she ………. For it
:

(A) Hardly worked

(B) Had hard worked

(C) Was working hard

(D) Had worked hard

Correct Answer: D

Question 144
Let the cat out of the ……………
:

(A) house

(B) well

(C) bag

(D) cart

Correct Answer: C

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Question 145 Nations work to expand justice in the society and provide infrastructure to
: …………commerce.

(A) pass

(B) contribute

(C) popularize

(D) promote

Correct Answer: D

Question 146
The student body met the principal to have their………….heard.
:

(A) griefs

(B) disdain

(C) woes

(D) sorrows

Correct Answer: C

Question 147 If immigrants don’t learn to speak the native languages of their new countries, they
: won’t be able ………. Themselves in to society.

(A) Conjon

(B) interface

(C) integration

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(D) reconciliate

Correct Answer: C

Question 148
The lawyer tried to ……… his client to accept the generous settlement offer.
:

(A) draw

(B) seduce

(C) incite

(D) persuade

Correct Answer: D

Question 149
On the trip, we needed a guide to ………… the foreign language for us.
:

(A) describe

(B) illustrate

(C) mimic

(D) interpret

Correct Answer: D

Question 150
struggling to pay their bills
:

(A) furious

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(B) agitated

(C) turbulent

(D) wild

Correct Answer: C

Passage :

Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted.
Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Question 151 The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all
: statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.

(A) presented , stay

(B) introduced , keep

(C) announce , make

(D) created , let

(E) proclaimed , hold

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by
four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the
original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in
your Answer Sheet.

Question 152
Assets
:

(A) liabilities

(B) responsibilities

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(C) estates

(D) profits

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the
given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 153
Affidavit
:

(A) Affirmation

(B) Slander

(C) Oath

(D) Testimony

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is
opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 154
Hollow
:

(A) Alveolate

(B) Cleft

(C) Cavernous

(D) Solid

Correct Answer: D

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Passage : Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which
is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 155
Cosset
:

(A) Ignoreb

(B) Close

(C) Caress

(D) Fondle

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which
is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 156
Ogle
:

(A) Leer

(B) Gaze

(C) Ignore

(D) Gawk

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is
opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 157
Intrinsic
:

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(A) Elemental

(B) Innate

(C) Connate

(D) Acquired

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which
is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 158
Coalesce
:

(A) Separate

(B) Adhere

(C) Cleave

(D) Amalgamate

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which
is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 159
Loiter
:

(A) lag

(B) Hasten

(C) Amble

(D) Loii

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Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction : Question below has two blanks, blank indicating that something has been
omitted. Choose the set of words for blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Question 160
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
:

(A) held, generating

(B) aimed, creating

(C) targeted, awakening

(D) focused, building

(E) concentrated, producing

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is
opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 161
Deep-seated
:

(A) Chronic

(B) Temporary

(C) inbred

(D) Subconscious

Correct Answer: B

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Passage : Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which
is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 162
Vibrant
:

(A) Drab

(B) Gaudy

(C) Jazzy

(D) Vivid

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which
is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 163
To scowl
:

(A) To glower

(B) To smirk

(C) To Grimace

(D) To grin

Correct Answer: D

Passage : In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part
of the sentence has an error .

Question 164
I used (A)/ a pair of black trousers (B) / for a week (C)/ No error (D)
:

(A) A

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(B) B

(C) C

(D) D

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is
opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 165
Atheist
:

(A) Skeptic

(B) Pagan

(C) Disciple

(D) Agnostic

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Directions: in the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which
is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 166
Abdicate
:

(A) Forgo

(B) Usurp

(C) Waive

(D) Cede

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Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it.
Some languages are used by a few people. Others, such a Mandarin Chinese and English, are spoken
by millions. Many people speak two or more languages. They may use one language at home with
family and friends and other at work or school. Regional variations of language are known as dialects.
The Anglo-Saxons, who conquered Britain at the end of the Roman Empire, spoke a Germanic
language include Danish, Dutch, German and Swedish. English also contains Drench-derived words
after it was ruled by French-speaking king following the Norman Conquest.

Question 167 : Mandarin Chinese is spoken by people.

(A) Little

(B) Few

(C) Many

(D) Big

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it.

Passage

Some languages are used by a few people. Others, such a Mandarin Chinese and English, are spoken
by millions. Many people speak two or more languages. They may use one language at home with
family and friends and other at work or school. Regional variations of language are known as dialects.
The Anglo-Saxons, who conquered Britain at the end of the Roman Empire, spoke a Germanic
language include Danish, Dutch, German and Swedish. English also contains Drench-derived words
after it was ruled by French-speaking king following the Norman Conquest.

Question 168 : A person who is good at foreign languages is known as-

(A) Virtuoso

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(B) Linguist

(C) Ventriloquist

(D) Scholar

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is
opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 169
Astringe
:

(A) Liberate

(B) Constringe

(C) Circumscribe

(D) Tauten

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it.
Passage
The………of gurudakshina is very ancient and it is ……… to the Indian culture and tradition. If you
are absolutely ……… about India, then it’s advisable that you first try to understand the meaning of a
guru and the …………. of his presence in you to understand what gurudakshina is in ancient India, a
teacher or a guru was a spiritually …………. Guide.

Question 170
The ………..of gurudakshina is very ancient.
:

(A) habit

(B) approach

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(C) perception

(D) concept

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
Some languages are used by a few people. Others, such a Mandarin Chinese and English, are spoken
by millions. Many people speak two or more languages. They may use one language at home with
family and friends and other at work or school. Regional variations of language are known as dialects.
The Anglo-Saxons, who conquered Britain at the end of the Roman Empire, spoke a Germanic
language include Danish, Dutch, German and Swedish. English also contains Drench-derived words
after it was ruled by French-speaking king following the Norman Conquest.

Question 171 : are regional variations of a language.

(A) English

(B) Mandarin Chinese

(C) Home language

(D) Dialects

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
The………of gurudakshina is very ancient and it is ……… to the Indian culture and tradition. If you
are absolutely ……… about India, then it’s advisable that you first try to understand the meaning of a
guru and the …………. of his presence in you to understand what gurudakshina is in ancient India, a
teacher or a guru was a spiritually …………. Guide.

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Question 172 : It is ……… to the Indian culture and tradition.

(A) unique

(B) rare

(C) different

(D) particular

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
Some languages are used by a few people. Others, such a Mandarin Chinese and English, are spoken
by millions. Many people speak two or more languages. They may use one language at home with
family and friends and other at work or school. Regional variations of language are known as dialects.
The Anglo-Saxons, who conquered Britain at the end of the Roman Empire, spoke a Germanic
language include Danish, Dutch, German and Swedish. English also contains Drench-derived words
after it was ruled by French-speaking king following the Norman Conquest.

Question 173 : English also included French words the Norman Conquest.

(A) After

(B) Prior

(C) Before

(D) During

Correct Answer: A

Question 174
Select the wrongly spelt words .
:

(A) career

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(B) callous

(C) calander

(D) carriage

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is
opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 175
To spurn
:

(A) To Accept

(B) To flout

(C) To Scorn

(D) To rebuff

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
Some languages are used by a few people. Others, such a Mandarin Chinese and English, are spoken
by millions. Many people speak two or more languages. They may use one language at home with
family and friends and other at work or school. Regional variations of language are known as dialects.
The Anglo-Saxons, who conquered Britain at the end of the Roman Empire, spoke a Germanic
language include Danish, Dutch, German and Swedish. English also contains Drench-derived words
after it was ruled by French-speaking king following the Norman Conquest.

Question 176 : Is part of a Germanic language.

(A) Britain

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(B) Anglo-Saxons

(C) English

(D) Roman Empire

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
The………of gurudakshina is very ancient and it is ……… to the Indian culture and tradition. If you
are absolutely ……… about India, then it’s advisable that you first try to understand the meaning of a
guru and the …………. of his presence in you to understand what gurudakshina is in ancient India, a
teacher or a guru was a spiritually …………. Guide.

Question 177
If you are absolutely ……….. about India.
:

(A) unknowing

(B) unknowledgeable

(C) naive

(D) blind to

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Direction : In this test paper, Question is given in Direct speech followed by four
alternatives in Indirect Speech. Select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Direct
speech and mark your answer in answer sheet.

Question 178 “ Do you know that all your friends have failed to pass the test?” jeered his angry
: mother.

(A) The angry mother jeered and asked her son if he knew that all his friends had failed to
pass the tests.

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(B) His angry mother jeered and asked if he did know that all his friends had failed to pass
the test.

(C) His angry mother jeered and told if he knew that all his friends had failed to pass

(D) His angry mother jeered and asked if he had know that all his friends had failed to pass
the test.

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
My worries were increasing. The boy at the shop was becoming more clamorous. My sales were poor,
as the railways were admitting more peddlers on the platforms. My cash receipts were going down
and my credit sales alone flourished. The wholesale merchants who supplied me with goods stopped
credit to me. The boy’s methods of account-keeping was so chaotic that I did not know whether I was
moving forward or backward. He produced cash from the counter in a haphazard manner, and there
were immense gaps on the shelves all that nothing one wanted was ever available. Suddenly the
railways gave me notice to quit. I
pleaded with the old station master and porter, but they could do nothing; the order had come from
high up. The shop was given to a new contractor.
I could not contemplate the prospect of being cut off from the railways. I grew respect and angry. I
shed tears at seeing a new man in the place where I and my father had sat. I slapped the boy on the
cheek and the cried, and his father, the porter, came down on me and said, ‘this is what he gets
helping you! I’d always told the boy- He was not your paid servant, anyway.’

Question 179 : Why does the speaker say that his sales were poor?

(A) Because his cash receipt were going down

(B) Because the boy at the shop was becoming more clamorous

(C) Because the railways were admitting more pedlars on the platform

(D) Because there were no buyers

Correct Answer: C

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Passage : Direction : The following question, select the related word/letters/number/figure from the
given alternatives.

Question 180
Soil : Erosion : : Forest : ?
:

(A) Pollution

(B) Degradation

(C) Dense

(D) Deforestation

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
My worries were increasing. The boy at the shop was becoming more clamorous. My sales were poor,
as the railways were admitting more peddlers on the platforms. My cash receipts were going down
and my credit sales alone flourished. The wholesale merchants who supplied me with goods stopped
credit to me. The boy’s methods of account-keeping was so chaotic that I did not know whether I was
moving forward or backward. He produced cash from the counter in a haphazard manner, and there
were immense gaps on the shelves all that nothing one wanted was ever available. Suddenly the
railways gave me notice to quit. I
pleaded with the old station master and porter, but they could do nothing; the order had come from
high up. The shop was given to a new contractor.
I could not contemplate the prospect of being cut off from the railways. I grew respect and angry. I
shed tears at seeing a new man in the place where I and my father had sat. I slapped the boy on the
cheek and the cried, and his father, the porter, came down on me and said, ‘this is what he gets
helping you! I’d always told the boy- He was not your paid servant, anyway.’

Question 181 : How did the boy’s method of account-keeping affect the speaker?

(A) His worries increased

(B) He produced cash from the counter in a haphazard manner

(C) His sales were poor

(D) He did not know if he was moving forward or backward

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 Toppersexam.com

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
My worries were increasing. The boy at the shop was becoming more clamorous. My sales were poor,
as the railways were admitting more peddlers on the platforms. My cash receipts were going down
and my credit sales alone flourished. The wholesale merchants who supplied me with goods stopped
credit to me. The boy’s methods of account-keeping was so chaotic that I did not know whether I was
moving forward or backward. He produced cash from the counter in a haphazard manner, and there
were immense gaps on the shelves all that nothing one wanted was ever available. Suddenly the
railways gave me notice to quit. I
pleaded with the old station master and porter, but they could do nothing; the order had come from
high up. The shop was given to a new contractor.
I could not contemplate the prospect of being cut off from the railways. I grew respect and angry. I
shed tears at seeing a new man in the place where I and my father had sat. I slapped the boy on the
cheek and the cried, and his father, the porter, came down on me and said, ‘this is what he gets
helping you! I’d always told the boy- He was not your paid servant, anyway.’

Question 182 : Why did the public complain?

(A) Because his credit at the wholesalers’ was gone

(B) Because nothing one ever wanted was available

(C) Because there gaps on the selves all over the shop

(D) Because the railways gave him notice to quite

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
My worries were increasing. The boy at the shop was becoming more clamorous. My sales were poor,
as the railways were admitting more peddlers on the platforms. My cash receipts were going down
and my credit sales alone flourished. The wholesale merchants who supplied me with goods stopped

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 Toppersexam.com

credit to me. The boy’s methods of account-keeping was so chaotic that I did not know whether I was
moving forward or backward. He produced cash from the counter in a haphazard manner, and there
were immense gaps on the shelves all that nothing one wanted was ever available. Suddenly the
railways gave me notice to quit. I
pleaded with the old station master and porter, but they could do nothing; the order had come from
high up. The shop was given to a new contractor.
I could not contemplate the prospect of being cut off from the railways. I grew respect and angry. I
shed tears at seeing a new man in the place where I and my father had sat. I slapped the boy on the
cheek and the cried, and his father, the porter, came down on me and said, ‘this is what he gets
helping you! I’d always told the boy- He was not your paid servant, anyway.’

Question 183 : Where did the order to quite come from?

(A) From the old station master

(B) From high up

(C) From the railway authorities

(D)
From the contractor

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Directions: in the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which
is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 184
Content
:

(A) Ease

(B) Depressed

(C) Gratified

(D) Smug

Correct Answer: B

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Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
The………of gurudakshina is very ancient and it is ……… to the Indian culture and tradition. If you
are absolutely ……… about India, then it’s advisable that you first try to understand the meaning of a
guru and the …………. of his presence in you to understand what gurudakshina is in ancient India, a
teacher or a guru was a spiritually …………. Guide.

Question 185
The ………..of his presence in the lives of those around him.
:

(A) connotation

(B) implication

(C) understanding

(D) significance

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
My worries were increasing. The boy at the shop was becoming more clamorous. My sales were poor,
as the railways were admitting more peddlers on the platforms. My cash receipts were going down
and my credit sales alone flourished. The wholesale merchants who supplied me with goods stopped
credit to me. The boy’s methods of account-keeping was so chaotic that I did not know whether I was
moving forward or backward. He produced cash from the counter in a haphazard manner, and there
were immense gaps on the shelves all that nothing one wanted was ever available. Suddenly the
railways gave me notice to quit. I
pleaded with the old station master and porter, but they could do nothing; the order had come from
high up. The shop was given to a new contractor.
I could not contemplate the prospect of being cut off from the railways. I grew respect and angry. I
shed tears at seeing a new man in the place where I and my father had sat. I slapped the boy on the
cheek and the cried, and his father, the porter, came down on me and said, ‘this is what he gets
helping you! I’d always told the boy- He was not your paid servant, anyway.’

Question 186 : Why did the speaker shed tears?

(A) Because he saw a new person, where he and his father had sat

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 Toppersexam.com

(B) Because he was cut off from the railways

(C) Because he grew desperate and angry

(D) Because he slapped the boy on the cheek

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Directions: in the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which
is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 187
To placate
:

(A) To provoke

(B) To propitiate

(C) To tranquilize

(D) To mollify

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
A Knowledge of grammar is essential for good speaking and writing, by which one’s mind is judged.
Studying grammar means hard work: it be learned as a whole, with no part omitted, and it demand
must thought and patience. But, once acquired, it study requires no physical hardship, no special room
or expenses. If people spent only they leisure time studying grammar they could master it in one year.
As a private soldier earning sixpence a day, he sat on his bed and studied. Unable to afford candle or
oil, he read in winter by firelight (when it was his turn). If he could manage it thus, and with no
outside encouragement, ten any youth, however poor or busy, could do the same.

Question 188 : Why should we learn grammar?

(A) To develop speaking skills

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(B) To develop writing skills

(C) To have a mastery over language

(D) To acquire good speaking and writing skills

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
A Knowledge of grammar is essential for good speaking and writing, by which one’s mind is judged.
Studying grammar means hard work: it be learned as a whole, with no part omitted, and it demand
must thought and patience. But, once acquired, it study requires no physical hardship, no special room
or expenses. If people spent only they leisure time studying grammar they could master it in one year.
As a private soldier earning sixpence a day, he sat on his bed and studied. Unable to afford candle or
oil, he read in winter by firelight (when it was his turn). If he could manage it thus, and with no
outside encouragement, ten any youth, however poor or busy, could do the same.

Question 189 : How does the world judge a man’s mind?

(A) By his dress

(B) By his manners

(C) By his appearance

(D) By his speech and writing

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
A Knowledge of grammar is essential for good speaking and writing, by which one’s mind is judged.
Studying grammar means hard work: it be learned as a whole, with no part omitted, and it demand
must thought and patience. But, once acquired, it study requires no physical hardship, no special room

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 Toppersexam.com

or expenses. If people spent only they leisure time studying grammar they could master it in one year.
As a private soldier earning sixpence a day, he sat on his bed and studied. Unable to afford candle or
oil, he read in winter by firelight (when it was his turn). If he could manage it thus, and with no
outside encouragement, ten any youth, however poor or busy, could do the same.

Question 190 : How long would it take to gain mastery over grammar?

(A) One year

(B) Six months

(C) Two years

(D) Ten months

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
A Knowledge of grammar is essential for good speaking and writing, by which one’s mind is judged.
Studying grammar means hard work: it be learned as a whole, with no part omitted, and it demand
must thought and patience. But, once acquired, it study requires no physical hardship, no special room
or expenses. If people spent only they leisure time studying grammar they could master it in one year.
As a private soldier earning sixpence a day, he sat on his bed and studied. Unable to afford candle or
oil, he read in winter by firelight (when it was his turn). If he could manage it thus, and with no
outside encouragement, ten any youth, however poor or busy, could do the same.

Question 191 : What is the occupation of the writer?

(A) Teacher

(B) Soldier

(C) Artist

(D) Clerk

Correct Answer: B

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Passage : Directions: in the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which
is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 192
Conjoined
:

(A) Sever

(B) Adjoin

(C) Meld

(D) Affix

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
A Knowledge of grammar is essential for good speaking and writing, by which one’s mind is judged.
Studying grammar means hard work: it be learned as a whole, with no part omitted, and it demand
must thought and patience. But, once acquired, it study requires no physical hardship, no special room
or expenses. If people spent only they leisure time studying grammar they could master it in one year.
As a private soldier earning sixpence a day, he sat on his bed and studied. Unable to afford candle or
oil, he read in winter by firelight (when it was his turn). If he could manage it thus, and with no
outside encouragement, ten any youth, however poor or busy, could do the same.

Question 193 : The learning of grammar should be

(A) Patient, thoughtful and holistic

(B) Thoughtful, patient and piecemeal

(C) Holistic, thoughtful and rapid

(D) Thoughtful, rapid and piecemeal

Correct Answer: A

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Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
Namita is from the state of Kerala. She has come to Dubai to serve as a governess for the only child of
the Nairs. The Nairs are nice and gentle and Namita has no cause to complain. One day she overhears
something that makes her jittery. Mr. Nair is not employed in an American company as she has been
told. The nature of his business is illegal. She is shocked and wants to go back to her home town to
her own people.
Gopal is from a very poor family. His owns a very small piece of land that can hardly meet their food
requirement. One day, Gopal gets a nice offer to work in the Emirates with construction contractor. In
order to meet the expenses on travelling, the family decides to sell their own land and send Gopal to
the foreign country, to make money. One arrival, the contractor confiscates Gopal’s passport and
gives him a small place to live with ten others like him. Gopal has little ideas what he must do.

Question 194 : Which words from the ones given below, best describes Namita’s relationship with
her employers in the beginning?

(A) Cordial

(B) Friendly

(C) Sympathetic

(D) Complaining

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
The………of gurudakshina is very ancient and it is ……… to the Indian culture and tradition. If you
are absolutely ……… about India, then it’s advisable that you first try to understand the meaning of a
guru and the …………. of his presence in you to understand what gurudakshina is in ancient India, a
teacher or a guru was a spiritually …………. Guide.

Question 195
A teacher or a guru was a spiritually ………….guide.
:

(A) enlarged

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(B) evolved

(C) grown

(D) enhanced

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
Namita is from the state of Kerala. She has come to Dubai to serve as a governess for the only child of
the Nairs. The Nairs are nice and gentle and Namita has no cause to complain. One day she overhears
something that makes her jittery. Mr. Nair is not employed in an American company as she has been
told. The nature of his business is illegal. She is shocked and wants to go back to her home town to
her own people.
Gopal is from a very poor family. His owns a very small piece of land that can hardly meet their food
requirement. One day, Gopal gets a nice offer to work in the Emirates with construction contractor. In
order to meet the expenses on travelling, the family decides to sell their own land and send Gopal to
the foreign country, to make money. One arrival, the contractor confiscates Gopal’s passport and
gives him a small place to live with ten others like him. Gopal has little ideas what he must do.

Question 196 : What does the phrase, ‘makes her jittery imply?

(A) Sadness

(B) Anger

(C) Trauma

(D) Anxiety

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Directions: in the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which
is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

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Question 197
Adulterate
:

(A) Attenuated

(B) Purify

(C) Vitiated

(D) Dilute

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
Namita is from the state of Kerala. She has come to Dubai to serve as a governess for the only child of
the Nairs. The Nairs are nice and gentle and Namita has no cause to complain. One day she overhears
something that makes her jittery. Mr. Nair is not employed in an American company as she has been
told. The nature of his business is illegal. She is shocked and wants to go back to her home town to
her own people.
Gopal is from a very poor family. His owns a very small piece of land that can hardly meet their food
requirement. One day, Gopal gets a nice offer to work in the Emirates with construction contractor. In
order to meet the expenses on travelling, the family decides to sell their own land and send Gopal to
the foreign country, to make money. One arrival, the contractor confiscates Gopal’s passport and
gives him a small place to live with ten others like him. Gopal has little ideas what he must do.

Question 198
Namita and Gopal are in a similar situation, because they
:

(A) Love their families

(B) Are happy with their situations

(C) Are from impoverished families

(D) Are stranded in a foreign country

Correct Answer: A

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Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
Namita is from the state of Kerala. She has come to Dubai to serve as a governess for the only child of
the Nairs. The Nairs are nice and gentle and Namita has no cause to complain. One day she overhears
something that makes her jittery. Mr. Nair is not employed in an American company as she has been
told. The nature of his business is illegal. She is shocked and wants to go back to her home town to
her own people.
Gopal is from a very poor family. His owns a very small piece of land that can hardly meet their food
requirement. One day, Gopal gets a nice offer to work in the Emirates with construction contractor. In
order to meet the expenses on travelling, the family decides to sell their own land and send Gopal to
the foreign country, to make money. One arrival, the contractor confiscates Gopal’s passport and
gives him a small place to live with ten others like him. Gopal has little ideas what he must do.

Question 199 : Namita’s situation is better than that of Gopal because she

(A) Has a well behave employer

(B) Knows what she wants to do

(C) Loves the new place and the child

(D) Now knows about her employer

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction : question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been
omitted . Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Question 200 More is ……………of conditions of the tribla’s in Maharashtra than

: ………..conditions of those in the other parts of the country.

(A) certain , the

(B) known , of

(C) aware , of

(D) favourable , those

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 Toppersexam.com

(E) uncertain , all

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
Namita is from the state of Kerala. She has come to Dubai to serve as a governess for the only child of
the Nairs. The Nairs are nice and gentle and Namita has no cause to complain. One day she overhears
something that makes her jittery. Mr. Nair is not employed in an American company as she has been
told. The nature of his business is illegal. She is shocked and wants to go back to her home town to
her own people.
Gopal is from a very poor family. His owns a very small piece of land that can hardly meet their food
requirement. One day, Gopal gets a nice offer to work in the Emirates with construction contractor. In
order to meet the expenses on travelling, the family decides to sell their own land and send Gopal to
the foreign country, to make money. One arrival, the contractor confiscates Gopal’s passport and
gives him a small place to live with ten others like him. Gopal has little ideas what he must do.

Question 201 : The conclusion that can be drawn from both situations is that people should

(A) Stay and they own countries and villages

(B) Feel contented and satisfied with their lot

(C) Verify details before accepting any job

(D) Not travel to these regions of the world

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Duration : In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an
appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the
appropriate option.

Question 202 The unfortunate family could do nothing, but ..................the death of their sole
: bread winner.

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 Toppersexam.com

(A) Wail

(B) Languish

(C) Mourn

(D) Repent

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Directions: in the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which
is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 203
Genteel
:

(A) Uncivilized

(B) Stufy

(C) Urbane

(D) Prim

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
My brother, David was always close to our grandmother. Both of them shared a love of Mother
Nature and of food that they had grown themselves. Whenever his schedule permitted, he would drop
in for a short visit and a cup of coffee. One day, when he found no one home, he left a chunk of dirt
on her porch. This started what was later to be known as his “calling card”. Grandmother would come
home occasionally and instantly know that Dave had been by when she spotted the chunk of dirt on
her porch.
Although grandmother had a poor upbringing in Italy, she managed to do well in the united states. She
was always healthy and independent and enjoyed a fulfilling life. Recently she had a stroke and died.

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Everyone was saddened by her death. David was disconsolate. His life-long was now gone.

Question 204
What is the opposite of the word ‘disconsolate’
:

(A) Devastated

(B) Hilarious

(C) Exuberant

(D) Sombre

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
My brother, David was always close to our grandmother. Both of them shared a love of Mother
Nature and of food that they had grown themselves. Whenever his schedule permitted, he would drop
in for a short visit and a cup of coffee. One day, when he found no one home, he left a chunk of dirt
on her porch. This started what was later to be known as his “calling card”. Grandmother would come
home occasionally and instantly know that Dave had been by when she spotted the chunk of dirt on
her porch.
Although grandmother had a poor upbringing in Italy, she managed to do well in the united states. She
was always healthy and independent and enjoyed a fulfilling life. Recently she had a stroke and died.
Everyone was saddened by her death. David was disconsolate. His life-long was now gone.

Question 205 : David would drop in for a short visit and leave a as a sign on grandma’s porch if
she was not at home.

(A) Schedule

(B) Chunk of dirt

(C) Calling card

(D) Cup of coffee

Correct Answer: B

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Passage : Directions: in the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which
is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 206
Demure
:

(A) Humble

(B) Bold

(C) Coy

(D) Sober

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
My brother, David was always close to our grandmother. Both of them shared a love of Mother
Nature and of food that they had grown themselves. Whenever his schedule permitted, he would drop
in for a short visit and a cup of coffee. One day, when he found no one home, he left a chunk of dirt
on her porch. This started what was later to be known as his “calling card”. Grandmother would come
home occasionally and instantly know that Dave had been by when she spotted the chunk of dirt on
her porch.
Although grandmother had a poor upbringing in Italy, she managed to do well in the united states. She
was always healthy and independent and enjoyed a fulfilling life. Recently she had a stroke and died.
Everyone was saddened by her death. David was disconsolate. His life-long was now gone.

Question 207 : Grandmother enjoyed a life.

(A) Healthy but sickly

(B) Good and healthy

(C) Rich but sickly

(D) Poor and healthy

Correct Answer: B

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 Toppersexam.com

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
My brother, David was always close to our grandmother. Both of them shared a love of Mother
Nature and of food that they had grown themselves. Whenever his schedule permitted, he would drop
in for a short visit and a cup of coffee. One day, when he found no one home, he left a chunk of dirt
on her porch. This started what was later to be known as his “calling card”. Grandmother would come
home occasionally and instantly know that Dave had been by when she spotted the chunk of dirt on
her porch.
Although grandmother had a poor upbringing in Italy, she managed to do well in the united states. She
was always healthy and independent and enjoyed a fulfilling life. Recently she had a stroke and died.
Everyone was saddened by her death. David was disconsolate. His life-long was now gone.

Question 208
Grandmother’s death made everyone
:

(A) Sad including David

(B) Disconsolate excluding David

(C) Happy and disconsolate

(D) Sad excluding David

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
…………. Nearly eight decades, the women’s movement ……….. and debated the desirability and
feasibility of a Uniform Civil Code, and has ended up ………… a simple question – what is the value
of uniformity? Is it for the “integrity of the nation” that uniformity in laws is required, as some
judicial pronouncements …………? If so, who exactly is the beneficiary? Which section of people
benefit from “Integrity of the nation”, that abstract entity which is not exactly …………. The top of
your mind as your husband throws you out on the street?

Question 209 : ………… nearly eight decades.

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 Toppersexam.com

(A) About

(B) Of

(C) With

(D) For

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Directions: in the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which
is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 210
Pilferer
:

(A) Sinper

(B) Punk

(C) Lifter

(D) Police

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
Two men were once walking along a forest path, taking of courage and loyalty. The bigger one, who
had a gun, was boasting of his own bravery and fidelity, when suddenly a large bear came from
behind a rock close in front of them, and stood in their way growling angrily. The boaster fled to the
nearest tree, dropped his gun, and climbed to a safe place without thinking of his poor friend. The
latter flung himself upon his face as though dead. The bear smelt his body, turned him over,
The other man came down from the tree, and going to his friend said “Well, what secrets did he
swisper so quietly in your ear?”. To which the little man who ownes his life to his own presence of
mind and not to be boasted bravery and fidelity of his companion, replied, “why, he said, ‘put not

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 Toppersexam.com

your trust in braggarts,’ and I shall take his advice.”

Question 211 : What were two men talking about while walking along the forest path?

(A) About their wives and children.

(B) About money and fame

(C) About friendship and enjoyment

(D) About courage and loyalty.Ans. DAbout courage and loyalty.

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
Two men were once walking along a forest path, taking of courage and loyalty. The bigger one, who
had a gun, was boasting of his own bravery and fidelity, when suddenly a large bear came from
behind a rock close in front of them, and stood in their way growling angrily. The boaster fled to the
nearest tree, dropped his gun, and climbed to a safe place without thinking of his poor friend. The
latter flung himself upon his face as though dead. The bear smelt his body, turned him over,
The other man came down from the tree, and going to his friend said “Well, what secrets did he
swisper so quietly in your ear?”. To which the little man who ownes his life to his own presence of
mind and not to be boasted bravery and fidelity of his companion, replied, “why, he said, ‘put not
your trust in braggarts,’ and I shall take his advice.”

Question 212 : What is the meaning of the word “fidelity”?

(A) Muscle

(B) Strength

(C) Faithfulness

(D) Courage

Correct Answer: C

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Passage : Directions: in the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which
is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 213
Primed
:

(A) Fit

(B) able

(C) Unready

(D) Prepped

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
Two men were once walking along a forest path, taking of courage and loyalty. The bigger one, who
had a gun, was boasting of his own bravery and fidelity, when suddenly a large bear came from
behind a rock close in front of them, and stood in their way growling angrily. The boaster fled to the
nearest tree, dropped his gun, and climbed to a safe place without thinking of his poor friend. The
latter flung himself upon his face as though dead. The bear smelt his body, turned him over,
The other man came down from the tree, and going to his friend said “Well, what secrets did he
swisper so quietly in your ear?”. To which the little man who ownes his life to his own presence of
mind and not to be boasted bravery and fidelity of his companion, replied, “why, he said, ‘put not
your trust in braggarts,’ and I shall take his advice.”

Question 214 : After seeing the bear, what happened to the boaster?

(A) He fled home

(B) He hid himself behind the rock.

(C) He himself behind a shed.

(D) He fled and climbed up the nearest tree.

Correct Answer: D

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 Toppersexam.com

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
…………. Nearly eight decades, the women’s movement ……….. and debated the desirability and
feasibility of a Uniform Civil Code, and has ended up ………… a simple question – what is the value
of uniformity? Is it for the “integrity of the nation” that uniformity in laws is required, as some
judicial pronouncements …………? If so, who exactly is the beneficiary? Which section of people
benefit from “Integrity of the nation”, that abstract entity which is not exactly …………. The top of
your mind as your husband throws you out on the street?

Question 215 : The women’s movement ……… and debated the desirability

(A) discussed

(B) has discussed

(C) had discussed

(D) had been discussing

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
Two men were once walking along a forest path, taking of courage and loyalty. The bigger one, who
had a gun, was boasting of his own bravery and fidelity, when suddenly a large bear came from
behind a rock close in front of them, and stood in their way growling angrily. The boaster fled to the
nearest tree, dropped his gun, and climbed to a safe place without thinking of his poor friend. The
latter flung himself upon his face as though dead. The bear smelt his body, turned him over,
The other man came down from the tree, and going to his friend said “Well, what secrets did he
swisper so quietly in your ear?”. To which the little man who ownes his life to his own presence of
mind and not to be boasted bravery and fidelity of his companion, replied, “why, he said, ‘put not
your trust in braggarts,’ and I shall take his advice.”

Question 216 : What made the bear go away after examining the man?

(A) The bear thought the man was dead.

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 Toppersexam.com

(B) The bear could not stand the bad odour of the man.

(C) The bear did not want to eat the man.

(D) The bear heard a noise and was scared.

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Directions: in the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which
is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 217
Sortie
:

(A) Raid

(B) Assault

(C) Sally

(D) Retreat

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
Two men were once walking along a forest path, taking of courage and loyalty. The bigger one, who
had a gun, was boasting of his own bravery and fidelity, when suddenly a large bear came from
behind a rock close in front of them, and stood in their way growling angrily. The boaster fled to the
nearest tree, dropped his gun, and climbed to a safe place without thinking of his poor friend. The
latter flung himself upon his face as though dead. The bear smelt his body, turned him over,
The other man came down from the tree, and going to his friend said “Well, what secrets did he
swisper so quietly in your ear?”. To which the little man who ownes his life to his own presence of
mind and not to be boasted bravery and fidelity of his companion, replied, “why, he said, ‘put not
your trust in braggarts,’ and I shall take his advice.”

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 Toppersexam.com

Question 218 : What saved the little man?

(A) The aid from the villagers

(B) His friend’s bravery

(C) His own presence of mind

(D) His own courage

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
Acharya Jagadish Chandra Bose, one of the greatest of modern scientists, graduated from St. Xavier’s
Collage, Kolkata. He then obtained Tripos of Cambridge University and joined the presidency
Collage, Kolkata, as Professor of physics. He was a pioneer in the discovery of the wireless and radio
and the Microwave. He made remarkable contribution to the science of Botany by proving with the
help of an instrument of his own invention that not only do trees and plants have life, but feel pleasure
and pain as we do. He was perhaps the first scientist to suggest the possibility of gathering and
utilizing energy from solar rays. Last but not least was the Bose institute which he founded in 1917. It
has now become a world-famous Research Laboratory doing yeoman’s service to various of science.

Question 219 : Acharya Jagadish Chandra Bose, one of the greatest of modern scientists, graduated
from which college?

(A) St. Xavier’s College, Kolkata

(B) Cambridge University

(C) Presidency College, Kolkata

(D) Bose institute

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Directions: in the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which

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 Toppersexam.com

is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 220
Provision
:

(A) Removal

(B) Cater

(C) Plan

(D) Stock

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
Acharya Jagadish Chandra Bose, one of the greatest of modern scientists, graduated from St. Xavier’s
Collage, Kolkata. He then obtained Tripos of Cambridge University and joined the presidency
Collage, Kolkata, as Professor of physics. He was a pioneer in the discovery of the wireless and radio
and the Microwave. He made remarkable contribution to the science of Botany by proving with the
help of an instrument of his own invention that not only do trees and plants have life, but feel pleasure
and pain as we do. He was perhaps the first scientist to suggest the possibility of gathering and
utilizing energy from solar rays. Last but not least was the Bose institute which he founded in 1917. It
has now become a world-famous Research Laboratory doing yeoman’s service to various of science.

Question 221 : What is meant by yeoman service?

(A) Minimal

(B) Invaluable

(C) Discreet

(D) Sporadic

Correct Answer: B

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 Toppersexam.com

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
Acharya Jagadish Chandra Bose, one of the greatest of modern scientists, graduated from St. Xavier’s
Collage, Kolkata. He then obtained Tripos of Cambridge University and joined the presidency
Collage, Kolkata, as Professor of physics. He was a pioneer in the discovery of the wireless and radio
and the Microwave. He made remarkable contribution to the science of Botany by proving with the
help of an instrument of his own invention that not only do trees and plants have life, but feel pleasure
and pain as we do. He was perhaps the first scientist to suggest the possibility of gathering and
utilizing energy from solar rays. Last but not least was the Bose institute which he founded in 1917. It
has now become a world-famous Research Laboratory doing yeoman’s service to various of science.

Question 222 : Acharya Jagadish Chandra Bose was a pioneer in the discovery of the wireless, radio
and the

(A) Toaster

(B) Oven

(C) Microwave

(D) Radio

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
…………. Nearly eight decades, the women’s movement ……….. and debated the desirability and
feasibility of a Uniform Civil Code, and has ended up ………… a simple question – what is the value
of uniformity? Is it for the “integrity of the nation” that uniformity in laws is required, as some
judicial pronouncements …………? If so, who exactly is the beneficiary? Which section of people
benefit from “Integrity of the nation”, that abstract entity which is not exactly …………. The top of
your mind as your husband throws you out on the street?

Question 223 : And has ended up ……… a simple question- what is the value of uniformity?

(A) holding

(B) positioning

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 Toppersexam.com

(C) posturing

(D) posing

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
Acharya Jagadish Chandra Bose, one of the greatest of modern scientists, graduated from St. Xavier’s
Collage, Kolkata. He then obtained Tripos of Cambridge University and joined the presidency
Collage, Kolkata, as Professor of physics. He was a pioneer in the discovery of the wireless and radio
and the Microwave. He made remarkable contribution to the science of Botany by proving with the
help of an instrument of his own invention that not only do trees and plants have life, but feel pleasure
and pain as we do. He was perhaps the first scientist to suggest the possibility of gathering and
utilizing energy from solar rays. Last but not least was the Bose institute which he founded in 1917. It
has now become a world-famous Research Laboratory doing yeoman’s service to various of science.

Question 224 : Acharya Jagadish Chandra Bose made remarkable contribution to the science of
Botany by providing with the help of an instrument of his own invention that trees
and plants have not only life, but

(A) Feel joyous and exited as we do.

(B) Feel happy and sad as we do

(C) Feel excitement and pain as we do

(D) Feel pleasure and pain as we do

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
Acharya Jagadish Chandra Bose, one of the greatest of modern scientists, graduated from St. Xavier’s
Collage, Kolkata. He then obtained Tripos of Cambridge University and joined the presidency

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 Toppersexam.com

Collage, Kolkata, as Professor of physics. He was a pioneer in the discovery of the wireless and radio
and the Microwave. He made remarkable contribution to the science of Botany by proving with the
help of an instrument of his own invention that not only do trees and plants have life, but feel pleasure
and pain as we do. He was perhaps the first scientist to suggest the possibility of gathering and
utilizing energy from solar rays. Last but not least was the Bose institute which he founded in 1917. It
has now become a world-famous Research Laboratory doing yeoman’s service to various of science.

Question 225 : What is meant by a Tripos from Cambridge university?

(A) A scholarship

(B) A trophy

(C) A degree

(D) A medallion

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
…………. Nearly eight decades, the women’s movement ……….. and debated the desirability and
feasibility of a Uniform Civil Code, and has ended up ………… a simple question – what is the value
of uniformity? Is it for the “integrity of the nation” that uniformity in laws is required, as some
judicial pronouncements …………? If so, who exactly is the beneficiary? Which section of people
benefit from “Integrity of the nation”, that abstract entity which is not exactly …………. The top of
your mind as your husband throws you out on the street?

Question 226
As some judicial pronouncements …………?
:

(A) have suggested

(B) had been suggesting

(C) suggest

(D) suggested

Correct Answer: A
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 Toppersexam.com

Passage : Directions: in the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which
is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 227
Assiduous
:

(A) Lethargic

(B) Scrupulous

(C) Diligent

(D) Exacting

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
Man’s attitude to various animals changed many times in the course of centuries. From indifference or
practically, he went on to adoration and deification, and then to hatred. Ancient Egyptians, for
example, highly appreciated the cat’s ability to destroy rodents. The cat was much superior in this
respect to the grass-snakes and weasels they had kept in their houses before. These proved unable to
cope with hordes of rates which invaded Egypt from Asia. So the cat, a very useful animal, was
ranked as a sacred animal and one of Moon, fertility and child-birth, Bast herself was portrayed by
the Egyptian as a woman with a cat’s head.
Sumptuous temples were built to this goddess where cats were kept in luxury and fed the choicest of
foods. They had their own priests and votaries, more numerous as a matter of fact than any other
sacred animal could boast. According to the greek historian Herodotus, the festival in the city of
Bubastis, which had a temple dedicated to cats, was attended by as many as 700 thousand, who
brought their offerings to the goddess in the shape of fingerines of her made of gold, silver and bronze
and adorned with precious stones.

Question 228
Egyptians appreciated the cat’s ability to destroy .
:

(A) Snakes

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 Toppersexam.com

(B) Weasels

(C) Houses

(D) Rodents

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
Man’s attitude to various animals changed many times in the course of centuries. From indifference or
practically, he went on to adoration and deification, and then to hatred. Ancient Egyptians, for
example, highly appreciated the cat’s ability to destroy rodents. The cat was much superior in this
respect to the grass-snakes and weasels they had kept in their houses before. These proved unable to
cope with hordes of rates which invaded Egypt from Asia. So the cat, a very useful animal, was
ranked as a sacred animal and one of Moon, fertility and child-birth, Bast herself was portrayed by
the Egyptian as a woman with a cat’s head.
Sumptuous temples were built to this goddess where cats were kept in luxury and fed the choicest of
foods. They had their own priests and votaries, more numerous as a matter of fact than any other
sacred animal could boast. According to the greek historian Herodotus, the festival in the city of
Bubastis, which had a temple dedicated to cats, was attended by as many as 700 thousand, who
brought their offerings to the goddess in the shape of fingerines of her made of gold, silver and bronze
and adorned with precious stones.

Question 229
Hordes of rats invaded Egypt. They came from .
:

(A) Europe

(B) Asia

(C) Asia Minor

(D) Africa

Correct Answer: B

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 Toppersexam.com

Passage : Directions: in the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which
is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 230
To condemn
:

(A) To decry

(B) laud

(C) To reprobate

(D) To Proscribe

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
Man’s attitude to various animals changed many times in the course of centuries. From indifference or
practically, he went on to adoration and deification, and then to hatred. Ancient Egyptians, for
example, highly appreciated the cat’s ability to destroy rodents. The cat was much superior in this
respect to the grass-snakes and weasels they had kept in their houses before. These proved unable to
cope with hordes of rates which invaded Egypt from Asia. So the cat, a very useful animal, was
ranked as a sacred animal and one of Moon, fertility and child-birth, Bast herself was portrayed by
the Egyptian as a woman with a cat’s head.
Sumptuous temples were built to this goddess where cats were kept in luxury and fed the choicest of
foods. They had their own priests and votaries, more numerous as a matter of fact than any other
sacred animal could boast. According to the greek historian Herodotus, the festival in the city of
Bubastis, which had a temple dedicated to cats, was attended by as many as 700 thousand, who
brought their offerings to the goddess in the shape of fingerines of her made of gold, silver and bronze
and adorned with precious stones.

Question 231 : The cat was considered to be a .

(A) Sacred animal

(B) Goddess

(C) Symbol of peace

(D) Symbol of fertility

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 Toppersexam.com

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
…………. Nearly eight decades, the women’s movement ……….. and debated the desirability and
feasibility of a Uniform Civil Code, and has ended up ………… a simple question – what is the value
of uniformity? Is it for the “integrity of the nation” that uniformity in laws is required, as some
judicial pronouncements …………? If so, who exactly is the beneficiary? Which section of people
benefit from “Integrity of the nation”, that abstract entity which is not exactly …………. The top of
your mind as your husband throws you out on the street?

Question 232 : That abstract entity which is not exactly ……… the top of your mind.

(A) in

(B) for

(C) at

(D) of

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
Man’s attitude to various animals changed many times in the course of centuries. From indifference or
practically, he went on to adoration and deification, and then to hatred. Ancient Egyptians, for
example, highly appreciated the cat’s ability to destroy rodents. The cat was much superior in this
respect to the grass-snakes and weasels they had kept in their houses before. These proved unable to
cope with hordes of rates which invaded Egypt from Asia. So the cat, a very useful animal, was
ranked as a sacred animal and one of Moon, fertility and child-birth, Bast herself was portrayed by
the Egyptian as a woman with a cat’s head.
Sumptuous temples were built to this goddess where cats were kept in luxury and fed the choicest of
foods. They had their own priests and votaries, more numerous as a matter of fact than any other
sacred animal could boast. According to the greek historian Herodotus, the festival in the city of

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 Toppersexam.com

Bubastis, which had a temple dedicated to cats, was attended by as many as 700 thousand, who
brought their offerings to the goddess in the shape of fingerines of her made of gold, silver and bronze
and adorned with precious stones.

Question 233 : What is the opposite of the word ‘votaries’?

(A) Enthusiast

(B) Critic

(C) Adherent

(D) Fanatic

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
Man’s attitude to various animals changed many times in the course of centuries. From indifference or
practically, he went on to adoration and deification, and then to hatred. Ancient Egyptians, for
example, highly appreciated the cat’s ability to destroy rodents. The cat was much superior in this
respect to the grass-snakes and weasels they had kept in their houses before. These proved unable to
cope with hordes of rates which invaded Egypt from Asia. So the cat, a very useful animal, was
ranked as a sacred animal and one of Moon, fertility and child-birth, Bast herself was portrayed by
the Egyptian as a woman with a cat’s head.
Sumptuous temples were built to this goddess where cats were kept in luxury and fed the choicest of
foods. They had their own priests and votaries, more numerous as a matter of fact than any other
sacred animal could boast. According to the greek historian Herodotus, the festival in the city of
Bubastis, which had a temple dedicated to cats, was attended by as many as 700 thousand, who
brought their offerings to the goddess in the shape of fingerines of her made of gold, silver and bronze
and adorned with precious stones.

Question 234
The word ‘deification’ in the passage means .
:

(A) Highly valuable

(B) Take pride

(C) Act of treating as God

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(D) Devotees

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Directions: in the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in
meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 235
Cameo
:

(A) Trinket

(B) Gem

(C) Bauble

(D) Plain

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
In the world today we make health an end in itself. We have forgotten that health really means to
enable a person to do his work and do it well. A lot of modern medicine, and this includes many
patients as well as many physicians, pay very little attention to health but very much attention to those
who imagine they are ill. Our great concern with health is shown by the medical columns in
newspapers, the health articles in popular magazines and the popularity of television programmes and
all those books on medicine. We talk about health all the time. Yet for the most part the only result is
more people with imaginary illness. A healthy man should not be wasting time talking about health:
he should be using health for work.

Question 236 : Modern medicine is prim arily concerned with

(A) Promotion of good health

(B) People suffering from imaginary illness

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(C) People suffering from real illness

(D) Increased efficiency in work

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
In the world today we make health an end in itself. We have forgotten that health really means to
enable a person to do his work and do it well. A lot of modern medicine, and this includes many
patients as well as many physicians, pay very little attention to health but very much attention to those
who imagine they are ill. Our great concern with health is shown by the medical columns in
newspapers, the health articles in popular magazines and the popularity of television programmes and
all those books on medicine. We talk about health all the time. Yet for the most part the only result is
more people with imaginary illness. A healthy man should not be wasting time talking about health:
he should be using health for work.

Question 237 : The passage suggests that

(A) Health is an end in itself

(B) Health is a blessing

(C) Health is only a means to an end

(D) We should not talk about health

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
In the world today we make health an end in itself. We have forgotten that health really means to
enable a person to do his work and do it well. A lot of modern medicine, and this includes many
patients as well as many physicians, pay very little attention to health but very much attention to those
who imagine they are ill. Our great concern with health is shown by the medical columns in

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newspapers, the health articles in popular magazines and the popularity of television programmes and
all those books on medicine. We talk about health all the time. Yet for the most part the only result is
more people with imaginary illness. A healthy man should not be wasting time talking about health:
he should be using health for work.

Question 238 : Talking about health all the time makes people

(A) Always suffer from imaginary illness

(B) Sometime suffer from imaginary illness

(C) Rarely suffer from imaginary illness

(D) Often suffer from imaginary illness

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
In the world today we make health an end in itself. We have forgotten that health really means to
enable a person to do his work and do it well. A lot of modern medicine, and this includes many
patients as well as many physicians, pay very little attention to health but very much attention to those
who imagine they are ill. Our great concern with health is shown by the medical columns in
newspapers, the health articles in popular magazines and the popularity of television programmes and
all those books on medicine. We talk about health all the time. Yet for the most part the only result is
more people with imaginary illness. A healthy man should not be wasting time talking about health:
he should be using health for work.

Question 239
The passage tells us
:

(A) How medicine should be manufactured

(B) What a healthy man should or should not do

(C) What television programmes should be about

(D) How best to imagine illness

Correct Answer: B

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Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
In the world today we make health an end in itself. We have forgotten that health really means to
enable a person to do his work and do it well. A lot of modern medicine, and this includes many
patients as well as many physicians, pay very little attention to health but very much attention to those
who imagine they are ill. Our great concern with health is shown by the medical columns in
newspapers, the health articles in popular magazines and the popularity of television programmes and
all those books on medicine. We talk about health all the time. Yet for the most part the only result is
more people with imaginary illness. A healthy man should not be wasting time talking about health:
he should be using health for work.

Question 240 : A healthy man should be concerned with

(A) His work which good health makes possible

(B) Looking after his health

(C) His health which makes work possible

(D) Taking about health

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Directions: in the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which
is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 241
Panacea
:

(A) Malady

(B) Cure

(C) Elixir

(D) Nostrum

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Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
……… being an intangible idea, the nation is quite real because it is a shared idea. ……… of
nationhood are important for this sharing to be reliably reproduced, which is why we have familiar
………. to memory like maps, flags, or the figure of Mother India. National symbols are extremely
powerful ………. they connect to compressed reservoirs of intense………….

Question 242 : ….. being an intangible idea.

(A) Inspite

(B) Although

(C) Despite of

(D) Despite

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Directions: in the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which
is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 243
Repatriation
:

(A) Abolition

(B) Animation

(C) Cure

(D) Invigoration

Correct Answer: A

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Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
……… being an intangible idea, the nation is quite real because it is a shared idea. ……… of
nationhood are important for this sharing to be reliably reproduced, which is why we have familiar
………. to memory like maps, flags, or the figure of Mother India. National symbols are extremely
powerful ………. they connect to compressed reservoirs of intense………….

Question 244 : ………… of nationhood are important

(A) Symbols

(B) badges

(C) Emblems

(D) Figures

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Directions: in the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which
is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 245
To wring
:

(A) To gouge

(B) To untwist

(C) To extort

(D) To choke

Correct Answer: B

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Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
……… being an intangible idea, the nation is quite real because it is a shared idea. ……… of
nationhood are important for this sharing to be reliably reproduced, which is why we have familiar
………. to memory like maps, flags, or the figure of Mother India. National symbols are extremely
powerful ………. they connect to compressed reservoirs of intense………….

Question 246 : We have familiar ………. To memory like maps, flags, or the figure of Mother India.

(A) assistance

(B) aids

(C) help

(D) support

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Directions: in the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which
is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 247
To muster
:

(A) To convocate

(B) To rally

(C) To estrange

(D) To aggregate

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Directions: in the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which
is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

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Question 248
Amenable
:

(A) Responsive

(B) Pliable

(C) Docile

(D) Unsusceptible

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding
to it.
Passage
Mary Garden, a noted opera singer, earned great deal of money during her career, but was constantly
bothered by the demands of her father for money – and always in large sums. Miss Garden would
always give it to him, though often she would often complain that his requests seemed somewhat
unreasonable. To this the stock reply was that he needed the money for a very special project. She was
not going to refuse her father was she?
During the depression miss Garden, like many others, lost her money in the stock market crash.
Shortly afterward, her father died, and, much to her surprise, she was notified that he had left a large
bank account in her name. he had saved for her every cent she had given him.
The demands God makes on us may seem hard at times. But all the while He is actually helping us to
store up an ‘eternal bank account’ in heaven – one which may balance the scales in our favour when
we least expect it. Troubles are often the instruments by which God fashions us for better things.

Question 249 : Mary’s father made demands for

(A) A small sum of money

(B) Large sums of money

(C) No money

(D) A reasonable sum of money

Correct Answer: B

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Passage : Directions: in the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which
is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 250
Ingestion
:

(A) Gulp

(B) slug

(C) Excrete

(D) Chug

Correct Answer: C

Question 251 Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which maximum
: power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B is

(A) 0.8 Ω

(B) 1.4 Ω

(C) 2Ω

(D) 2.8 Ω

Correct Answer: A

Question 252 For the intrinsic gallium-arsenide, the conductivity at room temperature 25°C is 10-
6
: (ohm-m)-1, the electron and hole nobilities are 0.85 m2/V-s and 0.04 m2/V-s
respectively. What is the intrinsic carrier concentration at the room temperature?

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(A) 7.0 × 1012 m-3

(B) 7.0 × 10-12 m-3

(C) 7.0 × 10-12 m3

(D) 7.0 × 1012 m3

Correct Answer: A

Question 253 The resistivity of intrinsic germanium at 30°C is 0.46 –m. What is the intrinsic carrier
: density at 30°C if the electron mobility is 0.38 m2/V-s and the hole mobility is 0.18
m2/V-s?

(A) 9.2 × 105/m3

(B) 2.77 × 103/m3

(C) 2.43 × 1019/m3

(D) 8.9 × 1012/m3

Correct Answer: C

Question 254
Heat conduction in a semiconductor takes place
:

(A) By the mobility of the carriers

(B) Due to energy gap between conduction band and valency band

(C) By the holes and thermal vibrations of atoms

(D) By the electrons and thermal vibrations of atoms

Correct Answer: D

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Question 255 Brewster angle is the angle when a wave is incident on the surface of a perfect
: dielectric at which there is no reflected wave and the incident wave is

(A) Parallel polarized

(B) Perpendicularly polarized

(C) Normally polarized

(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: A

Question 256
An electrical breakdown of a p-n junction occurs if
:

(A) Forward voltage increases up to the rating

(B) Reverse voltage increases beyond the rating

(C) Forward voltage decreases below the rating

(D) Reverse voltage decreases below the rating

Correct Answer: B

Question 257
The chief deterrent to the widespread application of superconducting materials is
:

(A) Very difficult to form, machine or case

(B) The difficult in attaining and maintaining extremely low temperature

(C) The poor strength-to-weight ratio

(D) The lower oxidation rate at elevated temperatures

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Correct Answer: B

Question 258
Which one of the following properties is not observed in the carbon nanotubes ?
:

(A) High stiffness and strengths

(B) Low densities

(C) Unusual electrical property

(D) Non-ductile

Correct Answer: D

Question 259 The evidence for the importance of electron-phonon interaction in super-conductors
: comes from

(A) Meissner effect

(B) Josephson effect

(C) Isotope effect

(D) x quantization experiments

Correct Answer: D

Question 260
Which one of the following materials is used for cable insulation ?
:

(A) Phenol formaldehyde

(B) Polytetrafluoroethylene

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(C) Polyvinyl chloride

(D) Acrylonitrile butadiene styrene

Correct Answer: C

Question 261
For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the material used is
:

(A) Ferrite

(B) Piezoelectric

(C) Pyroelectric

(D) Ferromagnetic above 768°C

Correct Answer: A

Question 262 The temperature above which an anti-ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic is
: called

(A) Peak temperature

(B) Neel temperatur

(C) Critical temperature

(D) Weiss temperature

Correct Answer: B

Question 263
Which effect is the converse of Peltier effect ?
:

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(A) Seeback effect

(B) Thomson effect

(C) Hall effect

(D) Joule effect

Correct Answer: A

Question 264
Magnetic materials which may be readily magnetized in either direction are
:

(A) Soft magnetic materials

(B) Hard magnetic materials

(C) High eddy current loss materials

(D) High hysteresis loss materials

Correct Answer: A

Question 265 Consider the following statements regarding a ferromagnetic material:

: 1.Below the ferromagnetic Curie temperature, the ferromagnetic materials exhibit
hysteresis effect.
2.The coercive force is the filed required to reduce the flux density to zero.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) Both 1 and 2

(B) Neither 1 nor 2

(C) 1 only

(D) 2 only

Correct Answer: A

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Question 266 The impact ionization phenomenon in semiconductor may be viewed as the reverse
: process of

(A) Radiative recombination

(B) Auger recombination

(C) Surface recombination

(D) Shockley-Read-Hall recombination

Correct Answer: B

Question 267
Refractive index of a slice glass can be reduced by doping it with tiny amount of
:

(A) GeO2

(B) B2O3

(C) P2O5x

(D) Al2O3

Correct Answer: B

Question 268 If a diameter of a copper wire is increased by two times keeping its terminal voltage
: same, then the drift velocity will

(A) Become twice

(B) Become half

(C) ecome four times

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(D) Remain unchanged

Correct Answer: D

Question 269 In an induction type energy meter, the steady speed attained by the rotating disc is
: 1.Proportional to the deflecting torque.
2.Proportional to the resistance of the path of eddy currents.
3.Inversely proportional to the effective readings of disc from its axis.
4.Inversely proportional to the square of brake magnetic flux.
Which of the above are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only

(B) 1, 2 and 4 only

(C) 2, 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: C

Question 270 If ‘KCLFTSB’ stands for ‘best of luck’ and ‘SHSWDG’ stands for ‘good wishes’,
: which of the following indicates ‘ace the exam’?

(A) MCHTX

(B) MXHTC

(C) XMHCT

(D) XMHTC

Correct Answer: B

Question 271 Consider the following statements associated with the basic electrostatic properties of

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: ideal conductors:
1.The resultant field inside is zero.
2.The net charge density in the interior is zero.
3.Any net charges reside on the surface.
4.The surface is always equipotential.
5.The field just outside is zero.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(B) 3, 4 and 5 only

(C) 1, 2 and 3 only

(D) 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: A

Question 272 A semiconductor device made out of a material having very high temperature
: coefficient of resistance is

(A) Transistor

(B) Varistor

(C) Thyristor

(D) Thermistor

Correct Answer: D

Question 273 The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature
: because

(A) The carrier concentration increases

(B) The mobility of carrier increases

(C) Both carrier concentration and mobility increases

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(D) The band gap decreases

Correct Answer: C

Question 274 Which of the following are associated with soft superconductors?
: 1.Silsbee’s rule
2.Meissner effect
3.Faraday rotation
4.Curie-Weiss law

(A) 2, 3 and 4

(B) 1 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 2 only

(D) 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: C

Question 275 In a two-channel oscilloscope operating in x-y mode, two in-phase 50 Hz sinusoidal
: waveforms of equal amplitude are fed to the two channels. What will be the resultant
pattern on the screen?

(A) An ellipse

(B) A parabola

(C) Straight line inclined at 45 with respect to x-axis

(D) A circle

Correct Answer: C

Question 276 Materials, whose resistivity at very low temperature plunges from a finite value to zero

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: and remains there upon further cooling, are known as

(A) Ferromagnetic materials

(B) High-energy hard magnetic materials

(C) Superconductors

(D) Ferromagnetic materials

Correct Answer: C

Question 277 In a superconductor, is the temperature is decreased below its critical temperature, the
: value of critical magnetic field will

(A) Increase

(B) Decrease

(C) Not change

(D) Increase or decrease depending on the superconductor material

Correct Answer: A

Question 278
The imaginary part of dielectric constant determines
:

(A) Component of current which is in phase with the applied field

(B) Component of energy absorbed per m3

(C) Amount of applied field

(D) Component of voltage which is in phase with the applied field

Correct Answer: B

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Question 279 Direction: Each of the items consists of two statements, one labeled as the ‘Statement
: (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these two statements carefully and
select the answers to these items using the codes given below

(A) Statement (I):Hard magnetic materials are used for making permanent magnets.
Statement (II):
Hard magnetic materials have relatively small and narrow hysteresis loop.

(B) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the
correct explanation of Statement (I)

(C) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is NOT
the correct explanation of Statement (I)

(D) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false

(E) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true

Correct Answer: C

Question 280 In 8085A microprocessor, the operation performed by the instruction LHLD 2100 H
: is

(A) (H) ← 21 H, (L) ←00

(B) (H) ← M (2100 H), (L) ←M(2101H)

(C) (H) ← M (2100 H), (L) ←M(2100H)

(D) (H) ← 00H, (L) ←21H

Correct Answer: C

Question 281
If the magnetic susceptibility of a specimen is small and positive, the specimen is
:

(A) Diamagnetic

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(B) Paramagnetic

(C) Ferromagnetic

(D) Non-magnetic

Correct Answer: B

Question 282
Manganese ferrite is a 1 : 1 mixture of
:

(A) Manganese nitride and iron oxide

(B) Manganese oxide and iron nitride

(C) Manganese nitride and iron sulphide

(D) Manganese oxide and iron sulphide

Correct Answer: B

Question 283 When a ferromagnetic substance is magnetized, small changes in dimensions occur.
: Such a phenomenon is known as

(A) Magnetic hysteresis

(B) Magnetic expansion

(C) Magnetostriction

(D) Magneto-calorisation

Correct Answer: C

Question 284 In ferromagnetic , anti-ferromagnetic and ferromagnetic materials, the atomic thermal

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: motions counteract the coupling forces between the adjacent atomic dipole moments,
thereby causing

(A) Some dipole misalignment regardless of whether an external field is present

(B) Increase in dipole alignment regardless of whether an external field is present

(C) No effect on dipole alignment

(D) Atoms tend to de-randomize the direction of moments

Correct Answer: B

Question 285
The Hall effect voltage in intrinsic silicon
:

(A) Is positive

(B) Is zero

(C) Is negative

(D) Changes its sign based on application of magnetic field

Correct Answer: B

Question 286
Most outstanding property of indium antimonide is
:

(A) A very wide range gap

(B) High resistivity at room temperature

(C) High carrier mobility

(D) Very low conductivity at room temperature

Correct Answer: C

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Question 287 Which of the following semiconducting compounds is used in photoconductive

: devices?

(A) Caesium antimonide

(B) Barium oxide

(C) Lead sulphide

(D) Zinc oxide

Correct Answer: C

Question 288 Consider the following transducers:

: 1.LVDT
2.Piezoelectric
3.Thermocouple
4.Photovoltaic cell
Which of the above are active transducers?

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1, 2 and 4

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: D

Question 289 Consider the following statements regarding magnetic materials:

: 1.A diamagnetic material has no permanent dipole
2.Paramagnetic material has anti-parallel orientation of equal moments with
neighboring dipoles
3.Ferrimagnetic material has anti parallel orientation of unequal moments between
neighboring dipoles

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4.Anti-ferromagnetic material has negligible interaction between neighboring dipoles

Which of these statements are correct?

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 3 and 4

(C) 2 and 4

(D) 1 and 3

Correct Answer: D

Question 290 Consider the following statements regarding hysteresis loops of hard and soft
: magnetic materials:
1.Hysteresis loss of hard magnetic material will be less than that of soft material
2.Coercivity of hard materials will be greater than that of soft material
3.Retentivity of the two materials will always be equal
Which of these statements are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 2 only

(C) 3 only

(D) 1 and 3 only

Correct Answer: B

Question 291
Loss-tangent in plane waves in lossy dielectrics will be
:

(A) Proportional to the Y component of the magnetic field intensity (HY)

(B) Inversely proportional to the Y component of the magnetic field intensity (HY)

(C) Inversely proportional to the X component of the magnetic field intensity (HX)

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(D) proportional to the X component of the magnetic field intensity (HX)

Correct Answer: B

Question 292
Orientational polarization is
:

(A) Inversely proportional to temperature and proportional to the square of the permanent
dipole moment

(B) proportional to temperature as well as to the square of the permanent dipole moment

(C) proportional to temperature and inversely proportional to the square of the permanent
dipole moment

(D) Inversely proportional to temperature as well as to the square of the permanent dipole
moment

Correct Answer: A

Question 293
Behavior of conductors, semiconductors and insulators is explained on the basis of
:

(A) Atomic nature

(B) Molecular structure

(C) Energy band structure

(D) All of the above

Correct Answer: C

Question 294 In general, for a superconductor, which of the following statements is true?

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(A) A superconductor is a perfect paramagnetic material with the magnetic susceptibility

equals to positive unity

(B) A superconductor is a perfect diamagnetic material with the magnetic susceptibility

equals to negative one

(C) A superconductor is a perfect ferromagnetic material with the magnetic susceptibility

equals to positive one

(D) A superconductor is a perfect piezoelectric material with the magnetic susceptibility

equals to negative one

Correct Answer: B

Question 295
Ferro-electric materials have a
:

(A) High dielectric constant which varies non linearly

(B) Low dielectric constant and is non-linear

(C) High dielectric constant which varies linearly

(D) Low dielectric constant but linear

Correct Answer: A

Question 296 In the magnetic core the electromotive forces (emf) induced in accordance with
: Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction give rise to

(A) Eddy current

(B) Excitation current

(C) Armature current

(D) Field current

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Correct Answer: A

Question 297 Consider the following characterizing parameters of a material:

: 1.Magnetic permeability
2.Electron relaxation time
3.Electron effective mass
4.Energy band gap
In case of metals, increase in one of the above parameter decreases its conductivity,
while increase in another increases the conductivity. There are respectively

(A) 1 and 3

(B) 3 and 2

(C) 4 and 3

(D) 1 and 2

Correct Answer: B

Question 298 Some magnetic materials may be classified on the basis of

: 1.Susceptibility
2.Saturation
3.Spin arrangement
4.Nature of hysteresis loop
5.Domain structure
6.Critical temperature above which it behaves as a paramagnetic material
Which of these can be used to distinguish between ferri and ferromagnetic materials?

(A) 1, 3 and 4 only

(B) 2, 3 and 6 only

(C) 3, 4 and 5 only

(D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Correct Answer: B

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Question 299
Magnetism is mainly due to only electron spin around their axis in case of
:

(A) Diamagnetic materials

(B) Paramagnetic materials

(C) Ferromagnetic materials

(D) Paramagnetic and Diamagnetic materials

Correct Answer: C

Question 300
For Paramagnetic materials, the relative permeability is
:

(A) Less than unity but magnetic susceptibility is relatively small and positive

(B) greater than unity and magnetic susceptibility is relatively small but positive

(C) equal to unity and magnetic susceptibility is relatively large but positive

(D) Less than unity but magnetic susceptibility is relatively large and positive

Correct Answer: B

Question 301
Permalloy and Mumetal are examples of
:

(A) Silicon and iron alloys

(B) Nickel and iron alloys

(C) Cobalt and iron alloys

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(D) Permanent magnetic materials

Correct Answer: B

Question 302 When a ferromagnetic substance is magnetized, the phenomenon of ‘magnetostriction’

: causes

(A) Increase in the body temperature

(B) Change in the permeability of the substance

(C) Small change in its dimensions

(D) Decrease in the saturation flux-density

Correct Answer: C

Question 303 The resistivity of ‘Ferrites’ is very much higher than that of ferromagnetic metals,
: because

(A) Ferrites are chemical compounds and the electrons in them are subject to restraint of
valence forces

(B) Ferrites have a low eddy current loss

(C) Ferrites have a non-homogeneous molecular structure

(D) Ferrites have varying flux-density inside the core

Correct Answer: A

Question 304 When the temperature exceeds the transition temperature, a ferromagnetic material
: becomes similar to

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(A) Anti- ferromagnetic material

(B) Diamagnetic material

(C) ferrimagnetic material

(D) paramagnetic material

Correct Answer: D

Question 305
Einstein relation is referred between
:

(A) The diffusion constant and the mobility

(B) The conduction and diffusion currents

(C) The conduction and diffusion voltages

(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: A

Question 306 In a piezoelectric crystal oscillator, the oscillation or tuning frequency is linearly
: proportional to the

(A) Mass of the crystal

(B) Square root of the Mass of the crystal

(C) Square of the Mass of the crystal

(D) Inverse of the Square root of the Mass of the crystal

Correct Answer: D

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Question 307 Which of the following are piezoelectric substances?

: 1.Barium Titanate
2.Lead Titanate
3.Lead Zirconate
4.Cadmium Suplhate

(A) 1, 2 and 4

(B) 1, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: C

Question 308 Consider the following statements:

: 1.Fermi level in a p-type semiconductor lies close to the top of the valence bond.
2.The forbidden energy in Germanium at 0°K is exactly 0.75 eV.
3.When a p-n junction is reverse biased, then electrons and holes move away from the
junction.
Which of these statements are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1 and 3 only

Correct Answer: A

Question 309
For a fully transposed transmission line
:

(A) positive negative and zero sequence impedances are equal

(B) positive and negative sequence impedances are equal

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(C) zero and positive sequence impedances are equal

(D) negative and zero sequence impedances are equal

Correct Answer: B

Question 310
The unit of magnetic flux density is
:

(A) Gauss

(B) Tesla

(C) Bohr

(D) Wber/sec

Correct Answer: B

Question 311 Skin depth is the distance from the conductor surface where the field strength has
: fallen to

(A) of its strength at the surface

(B) of its strength at the surface

(C) (1/ ) of its strength at the surface

(D) (1/ ) of its strength at the surface

Correct Answer: C

Question 312
The electric field in the vicinity of two oppositely charged parallel conductors is
:

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(A) Radial uniformly

(B) In parallel lines between the two imaginary parallel planes passing through the centers
of the two conductors

(C) Non uniform and its direction changes from point to point

(D) In parallel circular paths between the two conductors, with the center of the circles
located at the mid-point of a line joining the two centers of the two conductors

Correct Answer: C

Question 313 Two charges are placed at a distance apart. Now, if a glass slab is inserted between
: them, then the force between the charges will

(A) Reduce to zero

(B) Increase

(C) Decrease

(D) Not change

Correct Answer: C

Question 314 The transfer function of a second order real system with a perfectly flat magnitude
: response of unity has a pole at (2 – j3). List all the poles and zeros.

(A) Poles at (2 ± j3), no zeroes.

(B) Poles at (±2 - j3), no zeroes.

(C) Poles at (2 - j3),(-2 + j3) zeroes at (-2 – j3), (2 + j3).

(D) Poles at (2 ± j3), zeroes at (-2 ± j3).

Correct Answer: D

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Question 315 The presence of one of the following materials, in iron or steel for use as a magnetic
: material, tends to reduce the hysteresis loss

(A) Carbon

(B) Sulphur

(C) Phosphorous

(D) Silicon

Correct Answer: D

Question 316
The depth of penetration of a wave in a lossy dielectric increases with increasing
:

(A) Conductivity

(B) Permeability

(C) Wavelength

(D) Permittivity

Correct Answer: A

Question 317 Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
: lists:
List-I List-II
A.Carbon (Diamond) 1. Conducting
B.Silicon 2. Semiconducting
C.Tin (Grey) 3. Insulating
D.Lead

(A) A B C D

3 2 1 1

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(B) 1 2 1 3

(C) 3 1 2 1

(D) 1 1 2 3

Correct Answer: A

Question 318
It is possible to destroy the superconductivity of a material by applying
:

(A) A strong magnetic field

(B) A temperature much below the transition temperature

(C) A strong electric field

(D) A pressure below that of the atmosphere

Correct Answer: A

Question 319 Consider the following properties regarding insulation for cables:
: 1. A low specific resistance
2. High temperature withstand
3. High dielectric strength
Which of the above properties of insulation are correct while using cables?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1,2 and 3

Correct Answer: C

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Question 320 The open loop poles of a third order unity feedback system are at 0, -1, -2, let the
: frequency corresponding to the point, where the root locus of the system transits to
unstable region be K. now suppose we introduce a zero in the open loop transfer
function at -3, while keeping all the earlier open loop poles intact. Which one of the
following is correct about the point, where the root locus of the modified system
transits to unstable region?

(A) it corresponds to a frequency greater than K

(B) it corresponds to a frequency less that K

(C) it corresponds to a frequency K

(D) Root locus of modified system never transits to unstable region

Correct Answer: B

Question 321
Which of the following moving particles cannot be deflected by magnetic fields?
:

(A) α - Particles

(B) Neutrons

(C) Protons

(D) Electrons

Correct Answer: B

Question 322
The Fermi level in an n-type semiconductor at zero degree kelvin lies
:

(A) Below the donor level

(B) Half-way between the conduction band and the donor level

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(C) Half-way between the conduction band and the valence level

(D) Close to the valence band

Correct Answer: C

Question 323
According to free electron theory, electrons in a metal are subjected to
:

(A) Constant potential

(B) Sinusoidal potential

(C) Square wave potential

(D) Non-periodic potential

Correct Answer: A

Question 324 Controlled addition of group III element to an elemental semiconductor results in the
: formation of

(A) Intrinsic semiconductor

(B) n-type semiconductor

(C) p-type semiconductor

(D) Degenerate semiconductor

Correct Answer: C

Question 325
Phonons (Quanta of lattice vibration) obey
:

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(A) Maxwell distribution

(B) Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution

(C) Fermi-Dirac distribution

(D) Bose-Einstein distribution

Correct Answer: D

Question 326
Did not you buy…………..when you went shopping?
:

(A) any paper

(B) much paper

(C) no paper

(D) a few paper

Correct Answer: A

Question 327 Consider the following standard symbols for two-port parameters :
: 1.h12 and h21 are dimensionless.
2.h11 ohms and B have dimensions of ohms.
3.BC is dimensionless.
4.C is dimensionless.
Which of the above are correct ?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only

(B) 1, 2 and 4 only

(C) 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Correct Answer: A

Question 328 An iron-cored choke coil has an equivalent resistance of 5Ω. It draws 10 A when the
: applied voltage is 240V, 50Hz. Its inductance and power factor respectively are

(A) 7.5 mH and 0.1 (lag)

(B) 74.7 mH and 0.1 (lag)

(C) 74.7 mH and 0.208 (lag)

(D) 7.5 mH and 0.208 (lag)

Correct Answer: C

Question 329 A voltage of 100 V is applied to an impedance of Z = (3 + j4) Ω. What are the values
: of active power, reactive power and volt-amperes respectively ?

(A) 1200 W, 1220 VAR and 2000 VA

(B) 1600 W, 1600 VAR and 2200 VA

(C) 1200 W, 1600 VAR and 2000 VA

(D) 1600 W, 1200 VAR and 2200 VA

Correct Answer: C

Question 330 The voltage across an impedance Z is 100∠15° V and the current through Z is 20∠-45°
: A. The active and the reactive powers in Z respectively are

(A) 1000 W and 1732 VAR

(B) 500 W and 1732 VAR

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(C) 1000 W and 6000 VAR

(D) 500 W and 6000 VAR

Correct Answer: A

Question 331 An a.c. source of 200 V r.m.s. supplies an active power of 1200 W and a reactive
: power of 1600 VAR to a load. The r.m.s. current and the power factor of the load
respectively are

(A) 10 A and 0.6

(B) 8 A and 0.8

(C) 10 A and 0.8

(D) 8 A and 0.6

Correct Answer: A

Question 332 A shunt capacitor used for reactive power compensation is operated at 98% of its rated
: frequency and 95% of its rated voltage. The reactive power supplied by this capacitor
(as compared to its rated capacity) is

(A) 7.9% lower

(B) 11.5% lower

(C) 11.5% higher

(D) 7.9% higher

Correct Answer: B

Question 333 Consider two nodes A and B connected by an impedance of j5 W. If the voltages at

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: nodes A and B are 100∠30° V and 100∠0° V respectively, the real power that can be
transferred from node A to B is

(A) 2000 W

(B) 1000 W

(C) 2769 W

(D) 276.9 W

Correct Answer: B

Question 334 The Thevenin equivalent voltage and resistance across AB shown in the figure
: respectively are

(A) 5 V and 5 Ω

(B) 25 V and 3 Ω

(C) 35 V and 2 Ω

(D) 25 V and 5 Ω

Correct Answer: C

Question 335 The theorem which states that in any linear, non-linear, passive, active, time-variant,
: time-invariant network, summation of instantaneous power is zero will be called as

(A) Tellegen’s theorem

(B) Compensation theorem

(C) Reciprocity theorem

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(D) Superposition theorem

Correct Answer: A

Question 336 Transients are cause because

: 1.The load is suddenly connected to or disconnected from the supply
2.Of the sudden change in applied voltage form one finite value to the other
3.Of the change in stored energy in inductors and capacitors
Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: D

Question 337
Which of the following can produce maximum induced voltage?
:

(A) 1 A d.c. current

(B) 50 A d.c. current

(C) 1 A, 60 Hz a.c. current

(D) 1 A, 490 Hz a.c. current

Correct Answer: D

Question 338 For cleat wiring and 250 volts supply, the cables will be placed _____ a part centre to

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: centre for single corw cables.

(A) 4.5 cm

(B) 2.5 cm

(C) 3 cm

(D) 4 cm

Correct Answer: B

Question 339 Which insulation is most widely used for covering wires/cables used in internal wiring
: ?

(A) Paper

(B) Wood

(C) Glass

(D) PVC

Correct Answer: D

Question 340 If the Q-factor of a coil at resonant frequency of 1.5 MHz is 150 for a series resonant
: circuit, then the corresponding bandwidth is

(A) 225 MHz

(B) 106 MHz

(C) 50 kHz

(D) 10 kHz

Correct Answer: D

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Question 341
The number of p-n junctions in a thyristor (SCR) is/are:
:

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

Correct Answer: C

Question 342 In a two-wattmeter method of measuring power in a balanced 3-phase circuit, the ratio
: of the two wattmeter readings is 1 : 2. The circuit power

(A) 0.707

(B) 0.5

(C) 0.866

(D) Indeterminate

Correct Answer: C

Question 343 A balanced delta-connected load (16 + j12)Ω/phase is connected to a 3-phase 230 V
: balanced supply. The line current and the real power drawn respectively are

(A) 19.9 A and 3.17 W

(B) 11.5 A and 6.34 W

(C) 19.9 A and 6.34 W

(D) 11.5 A and 3.17 W

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Correct Answer: C

Question 344 A balanced load of 5 + j4 is connected in delta. What is the impedance per phase of the
: equivalent star connection?

(A) 5 + j4

(B) 1.66 + j1.33

(C) 15 + j12

(D) 2.5 + j2

Correct Answer: B

Question 345
In an electric circuit, the number of independent meshes M is
:

(A) 2B – N + 1

(B) B–N+1

(C) 2B – N – 1

(D) B–N–1

Correct Answer: B

Question 346
A.d.c. voltage of 12 volts applied across an inductance in series with a switch
:

(A) Can produce the induced voltage as the current decreases when the switch is opened

(B) Cannot produce the induced voltage as the voltage applied has the one polarity

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(C) Produces more induced voltage when the switch is closed than the switch is opened

(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: A

Question 347 The power factor of a circuit in which voltage and current waves are non-sinusoidal is
: defined as

(A) It is the cosine of the angle of phase difference between the voltage and current waves

(B) It is the cosine of the angle of phase difference between the two complex waves

(C) It is the cosine of the angle of phase difference between two equivalent sine waves
having respectively r.m.s. values equal to those of the voltage and current in the circuit

(D) It is the sine of the angle of phase difference between the two complex waves

Correct Answer: C

Question 348 The low-frequency circuit impedance and the high-frequency circuit impedance for a
: series resonant circuit respectively are

(A) Capacitive and inductive

(B) Inductive and capacitive

(C) Resistive and inductive

(D) Capacitive and resistive

Correct Answer: A

Question 349 Which of the following is an invalid state in an 8-4-2-1 binary codede decimal counter

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(A) 1000

(B) 1001

(C) 0011

(D) 1100

Correct Answer: A

Question 350 The maximum space rate of change of the function which is in increasing direction of
: the function is known as

(A) Curl of the vector function

(B) Gradient of the scalar function

(C) Divergence of the vector function

(D) Stokes theorem

Correct Answer: B

SUBJECT: ESE Electrical Engineering 2016 Paper - I (English)

Question 351 When a very small amount of higher conducting metal is added to a conductor, its
: conductivity will

(A) increase

(B) decrease

(C) remain the same

(D) increase or decrease depending on the impurity

Correct Answer: B

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Question 352 An electrically balanced atom has 30 protons in its nucleus and 2 electrons in its
: outermost shell. The materials made of such atom is

(A) a conductor

(B) an insulator

(C) a semiconductor

(D) a superconductor

Correct Answer: A

Question 353
The temperature coefficient of resistance of a doped semiconductor is
:

(A) always positive

(B) always negative

(C) zero

(D) positive or negative depending upon the level of doping

Correct Answer: D

Question 354
In the slice processing of an integrated circuit
:

(A) components are formed in the areas where silicon dioxide remains

(B) components are formed in the areas where silicon dioxide has been removed

(C) the diffusing elements diffuse through silicon dioxide

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(D) only on diffusion process is used

Correct Answer: A

Question 355 Permanent magnet loses the magnetic behaviour when heated because of
: 1. atomic vibration
2. dipole vibration
3. realignment of dipoles
Which of the above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 2 and 3

Correct Answer: C

Question 356 A Zener regulator has an input voltage varying between 20 V and 30 V. The desired
: regulated voltage is 12 V, while the load varies between 140 and 10k The
maximum resistance in series with the unregulated source and Zener diode would be

(A) 3.3

(B) 6.6

(C) 36.6

(D) 93.3

Correct Answer: D

Question 357 A short in any type of circuit (series, parallel or combination) causes the total circuit

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: 1. resistance to decrease
2. power to decreases
3. current to increase
Which of the above are correct?

(A) 2 and 3

(B) 2 and 4

(C) 1 and 4

(D) 1 and 3

Correct Answer: D

Question 358 An air-cored solenoid of 250 turns has a cross-sectional area A = 80 cm2 and length l =
: 100 cm. The value of its inductance is

(A) 0.425 mH

(B) 0.628 mH

(C) 0.751 mH

(D) 0.904 mH

Correct Answer: B

Question 359 The current in a coil changes uniformly from 10 A to 1 A in half a second. A voltmeter
: connected across the coil gives a reading of 36 V. The self-inductance of the coil is

(A) 0.5 H

(B) 1H

(C) 2H

(D) 4H

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Correct Answer: C

Question 360 In a mutually coupled circuit, the primary current is reduced from 4A to zero in 10
: s. A voltage of 40000 V is observed across the secondary. The mutual inductance
between the coils is

(A) 100 H

(B) 10 H

(C) 0.1 H

(D) 0.01 H

Correct Answer: C

Question 361 A CRO screen has 10 divisions on the horizontal scale. If a voltage signal 5 sin (314t +
: 45°) is examined with a line base setting of 5 ms/div, the number of signals displayed
on the screen will be

(A) 1.25 cycles

(B) 2.5 cycles

(C) 5 cycles

(D) 10 cycles

Correct Answer: B

Question 362 Which one of the following conditions will be correct when three identical bulbs
: forming a star are connected to a three-phase balanced supply?

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(A) The bulb in R phase will be the brightest

(B) The bulb in Y phase will be the brightest

(C) The bulb in B phase will be the brightest

(D) All the bulbs will be equally bright

Correct Answer: D

Question 363 Loading by the measuring instruments introduces an error in the measured parameter.
: Which of the following devices gives most accurate result?

(A) PMMC

(B) Hot-wire

(C) CRO

(D) Electrodynamic

Correct Answer: C

Question 364
A moving-coil galvanometer can be used as a DC ammeter by connecting
:

(A) a high resistance in series with the meter

(B) a high resistance across the meter

(C) a low resistance across the meter

(D) a low resistance in series with the meter

Correct Answer: C

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Question 365 Consider the following types of damping:

: 1. Air-friction damping
2.Fluid-friction damping
3.Eddy-current damping
PMMC type instruments use which of the above?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) 3 only

(D) 1,2 and 3

Correct Answer: C

Question 366
In data acquisition system, analog data acquisition system is used
:

(A) for narrow frequency width, while digital data acquisition system is used when wide
frequency width is to be monitored

(B) for wide frequency width, while digital data acquisition system is used when narrow
frequency width is to be monitored

(C) when quantity to be monitored varies slowly, while its counterpart is preferred if the
quantity to be monitored varies very fast

(D) when quantity to be monitored is time-variant, while digital data acquisition system is
preferred when quantity is time invariant

Correct Answer: B

Question 367 During the measurement of resistance by Carey Foster bridge, no error is introduced
: due to
1.contact resistance
2. Connecting leads
3.thermoelectric e.m.f.

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which of the above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1,2 and 3

Correct Answer: B

Question 368 Which of the following is true for the complete response of any network voltage or
: current variables for a step excitation to a first-order circuit?

(A) It has the form at k1 e-at

(B) It has the form k

(C) It may have either the form (a) or the form of (a) plus (b)

(D) It has the form e+at

Correct Answer: C

Question 369 A piezoelectric crystal has a coupling coefficient K of 0.32. How much electrical
: energy must be applied to produce output energy of 7.06 × 10–3 J?

(A) 25.38 mJ

(B) 22.19 mJ

(C) 4.80 mJ

(D) 2.26 mJ

Correct Answer: B

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Question 370 A wattmeter reads 10 kW, when its current coil is connected in R phase and the
: potential coil is connected across R and neutral of a balanced 400 V (RYB sequence)
supply. The line current is 54 A. If the potential coil reconnected across B-Y phases
with the current coil in R phase, the new reading of the wattmeter will be nearly

(A) 10 kW

(B) 13 kW

(C) 16 kW

(D) 19 kW

Correct Answer: B

Question 371 For a type-I system, the intersection of the initial slope of the Bode plot with 0dB axis
: gives

(A) steady-state error

(B) error constant

(C) phase margin

(D) cross-over frequency

Correct Answer: B

Question 372
The desirable features of a servomotor are
:

(A) low rotor inertia and low bearing friction

(B) high rotor inertia and high bearing friction.

(C) low rotor inertia and high bearing friction

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(D) high rotor inertia low bearing friction

Correct Answer: A

Question 373
Permeance is inversely related to
:

(A) resistance

(B) conductance

(C) reluctance

(D) capacitance

Correct Answer: C

Question 374 Consider the following statements regarding an ideal core material:
: 1. It has very high permeability.
2. It loses all its magnetism when there is no current flow.
3. It does not saturate easily.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: B

Question 375 The characteristic impedance of a transmission line depends upon

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(A) shape of the conductor

(B) surface treatment of the conductor

(C) conductivity of the material

(D) geometric configuration of the conductor

Correct Answer: D

Question 376 Superconductivity in a material can be destroyed by

: 1. increasing the temperature above a certain limit.
2. applying a magnetic field above a certain limit.
3. passing a current above a certain limit.
4. decreasing the temperature to a point below the critical temperature
Which of the above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1, 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: C

Question 377 The electrical resistivity of many metals and alloys drops suddenly to zero when they
: are current of 5 A at an angle of 30° lagging. The readings of the two wattmeters
W1 and W2 used for measuring the power drawn by the circuit, are respectively

(A) 2000 W and 1000 W

(B) 1500 W and 1500 W

(C) 2000 W and 1500 W

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(D) 1500 W and 1000 W

Correct Answer: A

Question 378 The mesh current method

: 1. works with both planner and non planar circuits
2. uses Kirchhoff’s voltage law
which of the above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: B

Question 379 When gain K of the open loop transfer function of order greater than unity is varied
: from zero to infinity, the closed loop system.

(A) may become unstable

(B) stability may improve

(C) stability may not be affected

(D) will become highly stable

Correct Answer: A

Question 380 Consider the following statements:

1. Adding a zero to the G(s)H(s) tends to push root locus to the left.

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: 2. Adding a pole to the G(s)H(s) tends to push root locus to the right.
3. Complementary root locus (CRL) refers to root loci with positive K.
4. Adding a zero to the forward path transfer function reduces the maximum overshoot
of the system.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1,2 and 3 only

(B) 3 and 4 only

(C) 1, 2 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: C

Question 381
The magnetic field required to reduce the residual magnetization to zero is called
:

(A) retentivity

(B) coercivit

(C) hysteresis

(D) saturation

Correct Answer: B

Question 382 A certain fluxmeter has the following specifications:

: Air gap flux density = 0.05 Wb/m2
Number of turns on moving coil = 40
Area of moving coil = 750 mm2
If the flux linking 10 turns of a search coil of 200 mm2 area connected to the fluxmeter
is reversed in a uniform field of 0.5 Wb/m2, then the deflection of the fluxmeter will be

(A) 87.4°

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(B) 76.5°

(C) 65.6°

(D) 54.7°

Correct Answer: B

Question 383 Consider the following statements:

: 1. Both ferromagnetic and ferrimagnetic materials have domain structures; each
domain has randomly oriented magnetic moments when no external field is applied.
2. Both ferromagnetic and ferrimagnetic
materials make those domains that have favourable orientation to the applied field
grow in size.
3. The net magnetic moment in ferromagnetic materials is higher than that in
ferrimagnetic materials.
4. The net magnetic moment in ferrimagnetic materials is higher than that in
ferromagnetic material.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1 and 4 only

(B) 1, 2 and 4

(C) 2 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: B

Question 384 Two bulbs of 100 W/250 V and 150 W/250 V are connected in series across a supply
: of 250 V. The power consumed by the circuit is

(A) 30 W

(B) 60 W

(C) 100 W

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(D) 250 W

Correct Answer: B

Question 385
Two -wattmeter method of power measurement in three-phase system is valid for
:

(A) balanced star-connected load only

(B) unbalanced star-connected load only

(C) balanced delta-connected load only

(D) balanced or unbalanced star as well as delta-connected loads

Correct Answer: D

Question 386 Schering bridge is a very versatile AC bridge and is used for capacitor testing in terms
: of
1. capacitance value (magnitude)
2. loss angle measurement
3. simple balance detector like PMMC instrument
4. Providing safety to operators by incorporating Wagner earthing device
Which of the above are correct?

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 3 and 4 only

(C) 1, 2 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: C

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Question 387 Consider the following instruments:

: 1. MI instrument
2. Electrostatic instrument
3. Electrodynamometer instrument
which of the above instruments is/are free from hysteresis and eddy-current losses?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: B

Question 388
Dummy strain gauges are used for
:

(A) compensation of temperature changes

(B) increasing the sensitivity of bridge

(C) compensating for different expansions

(D) calibration of strain gauge

Correct Answer: A

Question 389 Analog-to-digital convertor with the minimum number of bits that will convert analog
: input signals in the range of 0–5 V to an accuracy of 10 mV is

(A) 6

(B) 9

(C) 12

(D) 15

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Correct Answer: B

Question 390 What should be done to find the initial values of the circuit variables in a first-order R-
: C circuit excited by only initial conditions?

(A) To replace the capacitor by a short circuit

(B) To replace the capacitor by an open circuit

(C) To replace the capacitor by a voltage source

(D) To replace the capacitor by a current source

Correct Answer: C

Question 391 In a parallel resistive circuit, opening a branch results in

: 1. increase in total resistance
2. decrease in total power
3. no change in total voltage and branch voltage

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: D

Question 392
The precision resistors are
:

(A) carbon composition resistors

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(B) wire-wound resistors

(C) resistors with a negative temperature coefficient

(D) resistors with a positive temperature coefficient

Correct Answer: B

Question 393 In nodal analysis, the preferred reference node is a node that is connected to
: 1. ground
2. many parts of the network
3. the highest voltage source
Which of the above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: D

Question 394
Two networks are said to be dual when
:

(A) their node equations are the same

(B) the loop equations of one network are analogous to the node equations of the other

(C) their loop equations are the same

(D) the voltage sources of one network are the current sources of the other

Correct Answer: B

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Question 395 If an energy meter makes 5 revolutions in 100 seconds, when a load of 225 W is
: connected, the meter constant is

(A) 800 rev/kWh

(B) 222 rev/kWh

(C) 147 rev/kWh

(D) 13 rev/kWh

Correct Answer: D

Question 396
In a closed loop control system
:

(A) control action is independent of output

(B) output is independent of input

(C) there is no feedback

(D) control action is dependent on output

Correct Answer: D

Question 397
The characteristic polynomial of a system can be defined as
:

(A) denominator polynomial of given transfer function

(B) numerator polynomial of given transfer function

(C) numerator polynomial of a closed loop transfer function

(D) denominator polynomial of a closed loop transfer function

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Correct Answer: B

Question 398
For a critically damped system, the closed loop poles are
:

(A) purely imaginary

(B) real, equal and negative

(C) complex conjugate with negative real part

(D) real, unequal and negative

Correct Answer: B

Question 399
The magnitude of magnetic field strength H is independent of
:

(A) current only

(B) distance only

(C) permeability of the medium only

(D) both current and distance

Correct Answer: C

Question 400 Consider the following types of transmission lines:

: 1. Open-wire line
2. Twin-lead wire
3. Coaxial cable
The capacitance per metre will be least in which of the above transmission lines?

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(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: A

Question 401
A semiconductor differs from a conductor in that it has
:

(A) Only one path for the free electrons in the valence band

(B) Only one path for holes in the conduction band

(C) Two paths followed by free electrons and holes, one an ordinary path in the conduction
band and the other one an extraordinary path in the valence band, respectively

(D) Two paths followed by free electrons and holes, one an extraordinary path in the
conduction band and the other one an ordinary path in valence band, respectively

Correct Answer: C

Question 402
Which of the following circuits is used for converting a sine wave into a square wave?
:

(A) Monostablemultivibrator

(B) Bistablemultivibrator

(C) Schmitt trigger circuit

(D) Darlington complementary pair

Correct Answer: C

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Question 403 Which of the following elements of electrical engineering cannot be analyzed using
: Ohm’s law ?

(A) Capacitors

(B) Inductors

(C) Transistors

(D) Resistance

Correct Answer: C

Question 404 Consider the following statements: A power supply uses bridge rectifier with a
: capacitor input filter. If one of the diodes is defective, then
1. The dc load voltage will be lower than its expected value
2. Ripple frequency will be lower than its expected value
3. The surge current will increase considerably
Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: D

Question 405 Three identical amplifiers each having a voltage gain of 50 are cascaded. The open
: loop voltage gain of the combined amplifier is

(A) 71 dB

(B) 82 dB

(C) 91 dB

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(D) 102 dB

Correct Answer: D

Question 406 A clamper circuit

: 1. Adds or subtracts a dc voltage to or from a waveform
2. Does not change the shape of the waveform
Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: C

Question 407 If a carrier of 100% modulated AM is suppressed before transmission, the power
: saving is nearly

(A) 50%

(B) 67%

(C) 100%

(D) 125%

Correct Answer: B

Question 408 When the modulating frequency is doubled the modulation index is halved and the
: modulating voltage remains constant. This happens when the modulating system is

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(A) AM

(B) PM

(C) FM

(D) Delta Modulation

Correct Answer: C

Question 409
The four basic elements in a PLL are loop filter, loop amplifier, VCO and
:

(A) Up converter

(B) Down converter

(C) Phase detector

(D) Frequency multiplier

Correct Answer: C

Question 410 In a frequency modulated (FM) system, when the audio frequency is 500 Hz and audio
: frequency voltage is 2.4 V, the frequency deviation is 4.8 kHz. If the audio frequency
voltage is now increased to 7.2 V then what is the new value of deviation?

(A) 0.6 kHz

(B) 3.6 kHz

(C) 12.4 kHz

(D) 14.4 kHz

Correct Answer: D

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Question 411
In an IGBT cell the collector and emitter are respectively
:

(A) n and p

(B) n+ and p+

(C) p and n

(D) p+ and n+

Correct Answer: D

Question 412 The main units in a pulse code modulator are:

: 1. Sampler
2. Quantiser
3. Encoder
4. Comparator

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1, 2 and 3 only

(D) 2 and 4 only

Correct Answer: C

Question 413
NAND and NOR gates are called ‘Universal’ gates primarily because
:

(A) They are available everywhere

(B) They are widely used in I.C. packages

(C) They can be combined to produce AND, OR and NOR gate

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(D) They can be manufactured easily

Correct Answer: C

Question 414
To turn-off a GTO what is required at the gate?
:

(A) A high amplitude (but low energy) negative current

(B) A low amplitude negative current

(C) A high amplitude negative voltage

(D) A low amplitude negative voltage

Correct Answer: A

Question 415 In a power transformer, the core loss is 50 W at 40 Hz and 100 W at 60 Hz, under the
: condition of same maximum flux density in both cases. The core loss at 50 Hz will be

(A) 64 W

(B) 73 W

(C) 82 W

(D) 91 W

Correct Answer: B

Question 416 Consider the following advantages of a distributed winding in a rotating machine:
: 1. Better utilization of core as a number of evenly placed small slots are used
2. Improved waveform as harmonic emf’s are reduced
3. Diminished armature reaction and efficient cooling

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Which of the above advantages are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: D

Question 417 The breadth factor for 3rd harmonic emf of a 3-phase, 4-pole, synchronous machine
: having 36 stator slots is

(A) 0.47

(B) 0.53

(C) 0.67

(D) 0.73

Correct Answer: C

Question 418 Consider the following factors for a dc machine:

: 1. Interpole
2. Armature resistance
3. Reduction in field current
Which of the above factors are responsible for decrease in terminal voltage of a shunt
generator?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

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Correct Answer: B

Question 419 A dc motor develops an electromagnetic torque of 150 N-m in a certain operating
: condition. From this operating condition, a 10% reduction in field flux and 50%
increase in armature current is made. What will be new value of electromagnetic
torque?

(A) 225 N-m

(B) 202.5 N-m

(C) 22.5 N-m

(D) 20.25 N-m

Correct Answer: B

Question 420 If the capacitor of a capacitor-start single-phase motor fails to open when the motor
: picks up speed,

(A) The motor will stop

(B) The auxiliary winding will be damaged

(C) The capacitor will be damaged

(D) The winding will be damaged

Correct Answer: B

Question 421 For a 3-phase induction motor, what fraction/ multiple of supply voltage is required for
: a direct-on-line starting method such that starting current is limited to 5 times the full-
load current and motor develops 1-5 times full-load torque at starting time?

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(A) 1.632

(B) 1.226

(C) 0.816

(D) 0.456

Correct Answer: B

Question 422
What is the material of slip-rings in an induction machine?
:

(A) Carbon

(B) Nickel

(C) Phosphor bronze

(D) Manganese

Correct Answer: C

Question 423 The stator loss of a 3-phase induction motor is 2 kW. If the motor is running with a
: slip of 4% and power input of 90 kW, then what is the rotor mechanical power
developed?

(A) 84.48 kW

(B) 86.35 kW

(C) 89.72 kW

(D) 90.52 kW

Correct Answer: A

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Question 424
In a single-phase capacitor-start induction motor, the direction of rotation
:

(A) can be changed by reversing the main winding terminals

(B) cannot be changed

(C) is dependent on the size of the capacitor

(D) can be changed only in large capacity motors.

Correct Answer: A

Question 425
A transformer may have negative voltage regulation if the load power factor (p.f.) is
:

(A) Leading for some values of p.f.

(B) Unity p.f.

(C) Lagging but not zero p.f.

(D) Only zero p.f. lag

Correct Answer: A

Question 426 The load curve is useful in deciding

: 1. The operating schedule of generating units
2. The total installed capacity
Which of the above statement is/are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

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(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: C

Question 427 The maximum demand on a steam power station is 480 MW. If the annual load factor
: is 40%, then the total energy generated annually is

(A) 19819.2×105 kWh

(B) 18819.2×105 kWh

(C) 17819.2×105 kWh

(D) 16819.2×105 kWh

Correct Answer: D

Question 428 The maximum efficiency in the transmission of bulk ac power will be achieved when
: the power factor of the load is

(A) Slightly less than unity lagging

(B) Slightly less than unity leading

(C) Unity

(D) Considerably less than unity

Correct Answer: B

Question 429
A speed of a dc motor is
:

(A) Directly proportional to back emf and inversely proportional to flux

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(B) Inversely proportional to back emf and directly proportional to flux

(C) Directly proportional to back emf as well as to flux

(D) Inversely proportional to back emf as well as to flux

Correct Answer: A

Question 430 Stability of power system can be improved by

: 1. Using series compensators
2. Using parallel transmission lines
3. Reducing voltage of transmission
Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1 and 2

Correct Answer: D

Question 431
Equal-Area Criterion is employed to determine
:

(A) The steady state stability

(B) The transient stability

(C) The reactive power limit

(D) The rating of a circuit breaker

Correct Answer: B

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Question 432 Consider the following advantages with respect of HVDC transmission:
: 1. Long distance transmission
2. Low cost of transmission
3. Higher efficiency
Which of the above advantages are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: D

Question 433 The three sequence voltages at the point of fault in a power system are found to be
: equal. The nature of the fault is

(A) L–G

(B) L–L–L

(C) L–L

(D) L–L–G

Correct Answer: D

Question 434
A distance relay with inherent directional property is known as
:

(A) Buchholtz relay

(B) Admittance relay

(C) Directional over current relay

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(D) Directional switched relay

Correct Answer: B

Question 435 Consider the following circuit breakers for 220 kV substations:
: 1. Air
2. SF6
3. Vacuum
Which of the above circuit breakers can be used in an indoor substation?

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1 only

(C) 2 only

(D) 3 only

Correct Answer: C

Question 436
The reversing of a 3 induction motor is achieved by
:

(A) Y– starter

(B) DOL starter

(C) Auto transformer

(D) Interchanging any two of the supply line

Correct Answer: D

Question 437 Consider the following interrupts for 8085 microprocessor:

1. INTR

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: 2. RST 5.5
3. RST 6.5
4. RST 7.5
5. TRAP
If the interrupt is to be vectored to any memory location then which of the above
interrupts is/ are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1, 2,3 and 4

(C) 5 only

(D) 1 only

Correct Answer: D

Question 438
The instruction JNC 16 bit refers to Jump to 16 bit address if
:

(A) Sign flag is set

(B) CY flag is reset

(C) Zero flag is set

(D) Parity flag is reset

Correct Answer: B

Question 439
Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the instruction CMP A
:

(A) Compare accumulator with register A

(B) Compare accumulator with memory

(C) Compare accumulator with register H

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(D) This instruction does not exist

Correct Answer: A

Question 440
The sticker over the EPROM window protects the chip from
:

(A) Infrared light from sunlight

(B) UV light from fluorescent lights and sunlight

(C) Magnetic field

(D) Electrostatic field

Correct Answer: B

Question 441 A 2400/240 V, 200 kVA, single phase transformer has a core loss of 1.8 kW at rated
: voltage. Its equivalent resistance is 1.1%. Then the transfer efficiency at 0.9 power
factor and on full load is

(A) 95.60%

(B) 96.71%

(C) 97.82%

(D) 98.93%

Correct Answer: C

Question 442 The 8259A Programmable Interrupt Controller in cascade mode can handle interrupts
: of

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(A) 8 priority levels

(B) 16 priority levels

(C) 32 priority levels

(D) 64 priority levels

Correct Answer: D

Question 443 8259A Programmable Interrupt Controller uses the following initialization commands
: :
1. ICW1
2. ICW2
3. ICW3
4. ICW4
If 8259A is to be used in cascaded and fully nested mode, the ICW1 bits D0 and D1 are

(A) 0 and 0

(B) 1 and 0

(C) 0 and 1

(D) 1 and 1

Correct Answer: D

Question 444 Which of the following conditions must be satisfied for a transistor to be in saturation?
: 1. Its collector to base junction should be under forward bias
2. Its collector to base junction should be under reverse bias
3. Its emitter to base junction should be under reverse bias
4. Its emitter to base junction should be under forward bias
Which of the above conditions are correct?

(A) 1 and 3

(B) 2 and 3

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(C) 2 and 4

(D) 1 and 4

Correct Answer: D

Question 445 In an amplifier with a gain of 1000 without feedback and cut-off frequencies at 2 kHz
: and 20 kHz, negative feedback of 1% is employed. The cut-off frequencies with
feedback would be

(A) 220 Hz and 22 kHz

(B) 182 Hz and 220 kHz

(C) 220 kHz and 220 kHz

(D) 20 Hz and 22 kHz

Correct Answer: B

Question 446
Consider the following circuits:
:

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only

(B) 1, 2 and 4 only

(C) 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: A

Question 447 An operational amplifier has slew rate of 2V/ sec. If the peak output is 12 V, what will

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: be the power bandwidth?

(A) 36.5 kHz

(B) 26.5 kHz

(C) 22.5 kHz

(D) 12.5 kHz

Correct Answer: B

Question 448 A voltage follower is used as

: 1. An isolation amplifier
2. A buffer amplifier
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: C

Question 449 In a 2-input CMOS logic gate, one input is left floating i.e. connected neither ground
: nor to a signal. What will be the state of that input?

(A) 1

(B) 5

(C) Same as that of the other input

(D) Indeterminate (neither 1 nor 0)

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Correct Answer: D

Question 450
The expression for MOD number for a ripple counter with N flip-flops is
:

(A) N

(B) 2N

(C) 2N–1

(D) 2N–1

Correct Answer: B

SUBJECT: ESE Electrical Engineering 2017 Paper (English)

Question 451 If a square matrix of order 100 has exactly 15 distinct eigenvalues, then the degree of
: the minimum polynomial is

(A) At least 15

(B) At most 15

(C) Always 15

(D) Exactly 100

Correct Answer: A

Question 452
For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the core shall be of
:

(A) Ferrite

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(B) Piezoelectric

(C) Pyroelectric

(D) Ferromagnetic above 768°C

Correct Answer: A

Question 453
Soft magnetic materials should have
:

(A) Large saturation magnetization and large permeability

(B) Low saturation magnetization and large permeability

(C) Large saturation magnetization and low permeability

(D) Low saturation magnetization and low permeability

Correct Answer: A

Question 454
Orbital magnetic moment of an electron, in an atom, is of the order of
:

(A) 0.1 Bohr magneton

(B) 1.0 Bohr magneton

(C) 10 Bohr magneton

(D) 100 Bohr magneton

Correct Answer: B

Question 455 When the temperature of a ferromagnetic material exceeds the Curie temperature, it

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: behaves similar to a

(A) Diamagnetic material

(B) Ferrimagnetic material

(C) Paramagnetic material

(D) Antiferromagnetic material

Correct Answer: C

Question 456 What is the correct sequence of the following materials in ascending order of their
: resistivity ?
1. Iron
2. Silver
3. Constantan
4. Mica
5. Aluminium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(A) 2, 5, 1, 3 and 4

(B) 4, 5, 3, 1 and 2

(C) 2, 3, 1, 5 and 4

(D) 4, 5, 1, 3 and 2

Correct Answer: A

Question 457
In the first Cauer network, with a pole at infinity, the first element must be
:

(A) Series capacitor

(B) Series inductor

(C) Shunt capacitor

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(D) Shunt inductor

Correct Answer: B

Question 458 The total magnetic moment

: 1. is called saturation magnetization.
2. depends on the number of magnetic dipoles per unit volume, the instant electric
current and the area of the current loop.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: B

Question 459 Susceptibility of a diamagnetic material is 1. Negative

: 2. Positive
3. Dependent on the temperature
4. Independent of the temperature

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: A

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Question 460
Superconductivity is a material property associated with
:

(A) Changing shape by stretching

(B) Stretching without breaking

(C) A loss of thermal resistance

(D) A loss of electrical resistance

Correct Answer: D

Question 461 An atom in a crystal vibrates at a frequency, determined by

: 1. Crystal heat current
2. Crystal temperature
3. The stiffness of the bonds with neighbour atoms
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: C

Question 462 Consider the following statements:

: 1. Nano means 10–9 so that nano materials have an order of dimension higher than the
size of atom and come in the form of rods, tubes, spheres or even thin sheets/films
2. Nano materials have enhanced of changed structural property
3. Nano elements lend themselves to mechanical processing like rolling, twisting,
positioning
4. Nano elements show important electrical, magnetic and optical characteristics that
are useful in electrical industry
Which of the above statements are correct?

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(A) 1, 2 and 3 only

(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(C) 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2 and 4 only

Correct Answer: B

Question 463 For a two-part reciprocal network, the three transmission parameters are A = 4, B = 7
: and C = 5. What is the value of D?

(A) 9.5

(B) 9.0

(C) 8.5

(D) 8.0

Correct Answer: B

Question 464 Consider the following as representations of reciprocity in terms of z-parameters:

: 1. z11 = z12 2. z12 = z22
3. z12 = z21
Which of the above representations is/are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: C

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Question 465 Kirchhoff’s current law is applicable to

: 1. Closed loops in a circuit
2. Junction in a circuit
3. Magnetic circuits
Which of the above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: B

Question 466 Which of the following are satisfied in a non-linear network?

: 1. Associative 2. Superposition
3. Homogeneity 4. Bilaterality
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 1 and 4 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 2 and 4 only

Correct Answer: B

Question 467 Consider the following statements:

: 1. Network theorems are not derivable from Kirchhoff’s law
2. To get the Norton current, one has to short the current source
3. Thevenin’s theorem is suitable for a circuit involving voltage sources and series
connections
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

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(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1 only

(C) 2 only

(D) 3 only

Correct Answer: D

Question 468
What is the octal equivalent of (5621.125)10?
:

(A) 11774.010

(B) 12765.100

(C) 16572.100

(D) 17652.010

Correct Answer: B

Question 469
What is the hexadecimal representation of (657)8?
:

(A) 1 AF

(B) D 78

(C) D 71

(D) 32 F

Correct Answer: A

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Question 470 In potential transformers, the secondary turns are increased slightly and the primary
: and secondary windings are wound as closely as possible to compensate for

(A) Phase angle and ratio error, respectively

(B) Ratio and phase angle error, respectively

(C) Any eddy current loss and hysteresis loss, respectively

(D) The hysteresis loss and eddy current loss, respectively

Correct Answer: B

Question 471
Which one of the following methods is used for the measurement of high resistances?
:

(A) Carey-Foster bridge method

(B) Substitution method

(C) Loss of charge method

(D) Potentiometer method

Correct Answer: C

Question 472 Consider the following statements with regard to induction type wattmeter:
: 1. Can be used on both ac and dc systems.
2. Power consumption is relatively low.
3. It is accurate only at stated frequency and temperature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) 3 only

(D) 1,2 and 3

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Correct Answer: C

Question 473 A computer system has a cache with a cache access time TC = 10 ns, a hit ratio of 80%
: and an average memory access time TM = 20 ns. What is the access time for physical
memory TP?

(A) 90 ns

(B) 80 ns

(C) 60 ns

(D) 20 ns

Correct Answer: C

Question 474 The minimum number of arithmetic operations required to evaluate the polynomial
: P(X) = X5+ 8X3+ X for a given value of X using only one temporary variable is

(A) 8

(B) 7

(C) 6

(D) 5

Correct Answer: D

Question 475
A freewheeling diode in phase-controlled rectifiers
:

(A) enables inverter operation

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(B) is responsible for additional reactive power

(C) improves the line power factor

(D) is responsible for additional harmonics

Correct Answer: C

Question 476 What is the analog output for a 4-bit R-2R ladder DAC when input is (1000)2, for
: Vref = 5V?

(A) 2.3333 V

(B) 2.4444 V

(C) 2.5556 V

(D) 2.6667 V

Correct Answer: D

Question 477
Which one of the following statements is correct?
:

(A) LTI system is causal

(B) If and only if its impulse response is nonzero for positive values of n.

(C) If its impulse response is zero for negative values of n.

(D) If its impulse response is zero for positive values of n

Correct Answer: C

Question 478 A system has 14 poles and 2 zeros in its open-loop transfer function. The slope of its

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: highest frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot is

(A) –40 dB/dec

(B) –240 dB/dec

(C) +40 dB/dec

(D) +240 dB/dec

Correct Answer: B

Question 479 The characteristics of a mode of controller are summarized:

: 1. If error is zero, the output from the controller is zero.
2. If error is constant in time, the output from the controller is zero.
3. For changing error in time, the output from the controller is |K|% for every 1% sec–
1
rate of change of error.
4. For positive rate of change of error, the output is also positive. The mode of
controller is

(A) Integral controller

(B) Derivative controller

(C) Proportional derivative

(D) Proportional integral

Correct Answer: B

Question 480 A 1000V/400vV power transformer has a nominal short-circuit voltage VSC = 40%.
: Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A) A voltage of 400 V appears across the short-circuited secondary terminals

(B) A voltage of 16 V appears across the short-circuited secondary terminals.

(C) When the secondary terminals are short-circuited, the rated current flows at the
primary side at a primary voltage of 400 V.

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(D) The primary voltage drops to 400 V, when the secondary terminals are short-circuited.

Correct Answer: C

Question 481 Consider the following statements:

: 1. Salient pole alternators have small diameters and large axial lengths.
2. Cylindrical rotor alternators have a distributed winding.
3. Cylindrical rotor alternators are wound for large number of poles.
4. Salient pole alternators run at speeds slower than cylindrical rotor machines.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 2 and 4 only

(C) 1 and 4 only

(D) 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: B

Question 482 A permanent magnet stepper motor with 8 poles in stator and 6 poles in rotor will have
: a step angle of

(A) 7.5°

(B) 15°

(C) 30°

(D) 60°

Correct Answer: B

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Question 483
Bulk power transmission over long HVDC lines is preferred because of
:

(A) Low cost of HVDC terminal

(B) No harmonic losses

(C) Minimum line power losses

(D) Simple protection

Correct Answer: C

Question 484
The turn-off time of a thyristor is 30 µs at 50°C. What is its turn-off time at 100°C?
:

(A) 15 µs

(B) 30 µs

(C) 60 µs

(D) 120 µs

Correct Answer: C

Question 485 A large dc motor is required to control the speed of the blower from a 3-phase ac
: source. The suitable ac to dc converter is, 3-phase

(A) Fully controlled bridge converter

(B) Fully controlled bridge converter with freewheeling diode

(C) Half controlled bridge converter

(D) Converter pair in sequence control

Correct Answer: C

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Question 486 Consider the following statements:

: 1. The voltage developed across the OFF switches of the half bridge converter is the
maximum dc link voltage.
2. In the full bridge converter, the voltage across the primary of the transformer is the
dc link voltage.
3. The voltage developed across the OFF switches of the full bridge converter in half
the maximum dc link voltage.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 2 only

(D) 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: C

Question 487 What is the probability that at most 5 defective fuses will be found in a box of 200
: fuses, if 2% of such fuses are defective?

(A) 0·82

(B) 0·79

(C) 0·59

(D) 0·52

Correct Answer: D

Question 488 At temperature above a limiting value, the energy of lattice vibrations, in a conductor,
: increases linearly with temperature so that resistivity increases linearly with
temperature. In this region, this limiting value of temperature is called

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(A) Bernoulli Temperature

(B) Curie Temperature

(C) DebyeTemperature

(D) Neel Temperature

Correct Answer: C

Question 489 Consider the following statements:

: 1. The critical magnetic field of a superconductor is maximum at absolute zero.
2. Transition temperature of a superconductor is sensitive to its structure.
3. The critical magnetic field of a superconductor is zero at its critical temperature.
4. Superconductors show very high conductivity below the critical temperature.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 4 only

(D) 2 and 4 only

Correct Answer: C

Question 490 Eddy current losses in transformer cores can be reduced by the use of
: 1. Solid cores
2. Laminated cores
3. Ferrites
Select the correct answer using he codes given below:

(A) 2 and 3 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

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(D) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: A

Question 491 The phenomenon of magnetostriction occurs when a ferromagnetic substance is

: magnetized resulting in

(A) Heating

(B) Small changes in its dimensions

(C) Small changes in its crystal structure

(D) Some change in its mechanical properties

Correct Answer: B

Question 492
What type of defect causes F-centers in a crystal?
:

(A) Stoichiometric defect

(B) Metal excess defect due to anion vacancies

(C) Metal excess defect due to extra cations

(D) Frenkel defect

Correct Answer: B

Question 493 In a connected graph, the total number of branches is b and the total number of nodes
: is n. Then the number of links L of a co-tree is

(A) b–n

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(B) b–n–1

(C) b+n–1

(D) b–n+1

Correct Answer: D

Question 494 When 7/0.029 V.I.R cable is carrying 20 A, a drop of 1 V occurs every 12 m. The
: voltage drop in a 100 m run of this cable when it is carrying 10 V is nearly

(A) 4.2 V

(B) 3.2 V

(C) 1.2 V

(D) 0.42 V

Correct Answer: A

Question 495 Consider the following statements: If a high Q parallel resonant circuit is loaded with a
: resistance
1. The circuit impedance reduces
2. The resonant frequency remains the same
3. The bandwidth reduces
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) 3 only

(B) 2 only

(C) 1 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: D

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Question 496 The three non-inductive loads of 5 kW, 3 kW and 2 kW are connected in a star
: network between R, Y and B phases and neutral. The line voltage is 400 V. The
current in the neutral wire is nearly

(A) 11 A

(B) 14 A

(C) 17 A

(D) 21 A

Correct Answer: A

Question 497 Consider the following statements with regard to Lissajous pattern on a CRO:
: 1. It is a stationary pattern on the CRO.
2. It is used for precise measurement of frequency of a voltage signal.
3. The ratio between frequencies of vertical and longitudinal voltage signals should be
an integer to have a steady Lissajous pattern.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) 3 only

(D) 1,2 and 3

Correct Answer: C

Question 498 Electric flux enclosed by a surface surrounding a charge is equal to the amount of
: charge enclosed.” This is the statement of

(A) Faraday’s law

(B) Lenz’s law

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(C) Modified Ampere’s law

(D) Gauss’s law

Correct Answer: D

Question 499 If a positively charged body is placed inside a spherical hollow conductor, what will be
: the polarity of charge inside and outside the hollow conductor?

(A) Inside positive, outside negative

(B) Inside negative, outside positive

(C) Both negative

(D) Both positive

Correct Answer: B

Question 500 Consider the following statements with regard to Moving Iron (MI) instruments:
: 1. These instruments possess high operating torque.
2. These instruments can be used in ac and dc circuits.
3. Power consumption in these instruments is lower for low voltage range.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1,2 and 3

Correct Answer: A

Question 501 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the

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: which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English
alphabet, in the same sequence?

(A) Two

(B) Three

(C) Five

(D) Four

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 502 Team A has scored more goals than Team B

: Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

(A) True

(B) False

(C) Uncertain

(D) None

Solution : From the first two statements, we know that of the three teams, Team A has scored the
highest number of goals, so the third statement is necessarily false .

Correct Answer: B

Question 503 If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth

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: and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the
following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give
‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the
answer.

(A) A

(B) E

(C) T

(D) X

(E) Y

Solution :

Correct Answer: E

Question 504 How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away
: from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

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Question 505 How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters
: between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 506 How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter
: only once in each word?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : Meaningful words Þ LAME, MALE, MEAL

Correct Answer: D

Question 507 If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the
: seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be
the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the

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answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.

(A) T

(B) L

(C) E

(D) Y

(E) X

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Question 508 If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right
: how many letters will remain at the same position?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : H A N D O V E R
V R O N H E D A
No letter is at the same position.

Correct Answer: A

Question 509 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has

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: as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: E

Question 510 If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third,
: the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is
your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and
if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.

(A) V

(B) T

(C) E

(D) A

(E) B

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

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Question 511 If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by
: the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by
the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth
from the right and after the replacement ?

(A) N

(B) Q

(C) J

(D) M

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 512 How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as
: many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

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Question 513 Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
: Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their
economies .

(A) The only argument I is strong

(B) Only argument II is strong

(C) Either I or II is strong

(D) Neither I nor II is strong

Solution : Europe marketing itself as one will definitely contribute towards Europe’s growth
cannot be ascertained. Also, if similar experiments were not successful in other
countries then it does not mean that they will not work in Europe as well. So, none of
the argument is strong .

Correct Answer: D

Question 514 If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the
: tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once,
first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your
answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.

(A) P

(B) L

(C) T

(D) X

(E) Y

Solution :

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Correct Answer: C

Question 515 How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each
: letter only once in each word?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : Meaningful words Þ ARE, EAR, ERA

Correct Answer: D

Question 516 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has
: as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English
alphabet?

(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) Four

(E) More than four

Solution :

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Correct Answer: D

Question 517 If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth,
: the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once,
second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed
your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.

(A) I

(B) A

(C) L

(D) M

(E) N

Solution : Meaningful Word Þ HAIL

Correct Answer: B

Question 518 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as
: many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English
alphabet?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

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Correct Answer: B

Question 519 If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is
: the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?

(A) 26

(B) 28

(C) 30

(D) 32

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 520 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has
: as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

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Correct Answer: E

Question 521 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as
: many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 522 How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using
: each letter only once in each word?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : Meaningful words Þ LAME, MALE, MEAL

Correct Answer: D

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Question 523 If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet
: and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and
then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from
the right?

(A) P

(B) Q

(C) B

(D) K

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 524 If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order,
: the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Three

(D) Four

(E) More than Four

Solution :

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Correct Answer: D

Question 525 How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each
: letter only once in each word?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : Meaningful Words Þ ARCS, CARS, SCAR

Correct Answer: C

Question 526 How many such pairs of letters there in the word, UNWANTED, each of which has as
: many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English
alphabets?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

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Correct Answer: D

Question 527 How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EIND using each
: letter only once in each word?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) None of these

Solution : Meaningful Words Þ DINE

Correct Answer: B

Question 528 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word, ‘TROUBLE’, each of which has
: as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English
alphabet?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

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Question 529 How many such pairs of letters there in the word DOUBTS each of which has as many
: letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 530 How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ESDO using each
: letter only once in each word?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) None of these

Solution : Meaningful Words Þ DOES, DOSE

Correct Answer: C

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Question 531 How many such pairs of letters there in the word, BONDING each of which has as
: many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Question 532 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHARGES each of which has as
: many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

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Question 533 How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EDSU using each
: letter only once in each word?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : Meaningful Words Þ USED, SUED

Correct Answer: C

Question 534 How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters RTOU using each
: letter only once in each word?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : Meaningful Words Þ TOUR, ROUT

Correct Answer: C

Question 535 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ENGULFED each of which has
: as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?

(A) None

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(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: E

Question 536 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CORPORATE each of which has
: as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: E

Question 537 If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, second, fifth and
: sixth letters of the word ‘EDUCATION’, which would be the last letter of the word? If
more than one such word can be formed, give X as the answer. If no such word can be
formed, give K as your answer.

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(A) T

(B) X

(C) A

(D) E

(E) K

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Question 538 How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ‘OEHM’ using
: each letter only once in each word?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : Meaningful Words Þ HOME

Correct Answer: B

Question 539 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONFIRM each of which has as
: many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?

(A) None

(B) One

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(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 540
If JOSEPH is coded as FKOALD, then GEORGE will be coded as
:

(A) CAKNCA

(B) CADMNO

(C) CAKNIT

(D) JAKINS

Solution : Each letter of the word is moved four steps backward to obtain the code .
GEORGE => CAKNCA

Correct Answer: A

Question 541 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TAILSPIN each of which has as
: many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

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(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 542 A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
: Which letter is in the middle of 13th letter from the left and 4th letter from the right ?

(A) R

(B) I

(C) J

(D) S

Solution : Find out the positions of both the letters from the left and divide the sum of the
positions of both the letters from the left by 2. Here 13+23=36. Now divide 36 by 2 ,
i.e 18. Hence R is the required letter .

Correct Answer: A

Question 543 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MINORITY each of which has as
: many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

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Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 544 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHARIOT each of which has as
: many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Question 545 If it is possible to make only one meaning word with the first, second, fourth, and the
: sixth letters of the word ’STARVING’ . Which would be the second letter of the word
from the right end? If more than one such word can be formed, give X as the answer.
If no such word can be formed, give K as your answer.

(A) T

(B) S

(C) X

(D) I

(E) K

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Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Question 546 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ELUSIVE each of which has as
: many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 547 If it is possible to make only one meaning word with the first, third, fifth, and the ninth
: letters of the word ’CURVATURE’ . Which would be the second letter of the word ?
If more than one such word can be formed, give X as the answer. If no such word can
be formed, give K as your answer.

(A) R

(B) D

(C) X

(D) I

(E) K

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Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 548 If in certain code MONKEY is written as ZFLOPN then in the same code how
: CHARACTER is written ?

(A) SFUBIDDBS

(B) SFUDBSBID

(C) SFUDBSCID

(D) SFUDBEBID

Solution : Write the word in reverse order and then shift one place forward
CHARACTER = RETCARAHC (in reverse order) = SFUDBSBID (+1 forward) .

Correct Answer: B

Question 549 How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters NNEO using each
: letter only once in each word?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : Meaningful words Þ None, NEON

Correct Answer: C

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Question 550
If MADRAS can be written as NBESBT, how can BOMBAY be written in that code ?
:

(A) CPNCBX

(B) CPNCBZ

(C) CPOCBZ

(D) CQOCBZ

Solution : Each letter in the word is moved one step forward to obtain the corresponding letter of
the code .
BOMBAY => CPNCBZ

Correct Answer: B

Question 551 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONSUMER each of which has
: as many pairs of letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

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Question 552 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SEAMING each of which has as
: many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 553 If each vowel in the word DEFAULTS is changed to the next letter in the English
: alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English
alphabetical series, how many alphabets will appear twice in the new formation?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) Four

Solution :

Correct Answer: A

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Question 554 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word RATIONS each of which has as
: many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as
they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 555 If it is possible to make only one meaning word with the first, fifth, seventh, and the
: eleventh letters of the word ’RECIPROCATE’. Which would be the second letter of
the word from the left? If more than one such word can be formed, give X as the
answer. If no such word can be formed, give Z as your answer.

(A) R

(B) P

(C) E

(D) X

(E) Z

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

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Question 556 How many meaningful English words can be made from the letters EAP, using each
: letter only once in each word?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) four

Solution : Meaningful Words Þ APE, PEA

Correct Answer: C

Question 557 If each vowel of the word SILVER is changed to the previous letter in the English
: alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the next letter in the English
alphabetical series and then the alphabets thus formed are arranged in alphabetical
order from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?

(A) M

(B) S

(C) T

(D) H

(E) W

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

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Question 558 The positions of how many alphabets well remain the same if each of the alphabets in
: the word PROFIT is rearranged in the alphabetical order from the left to right?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 559 If MADRAS can be written as ARSARS, how can ARKONAM be written in that code
: ?

(A) ROAAKNM

(B) ROAKANM

(C) ROAKNNM

(D) ROKANAM

(E) ROANKNM

Solution : The word is first written twice and the letters at the even positions in the word so
obtained from the code .

Correct Answer: A

Question 560 If each of the alphabets in the word FAINTED is arranged in alphabetical order from

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: left to right and then each vowel is changed to the next letter in the English
alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English
alphabetical series. Which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the new
rearrangement thus formed?

(A) F

(B) E

(C) J

(D) I

(E) O

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Question 561 The positions of how many alphabets will remain the same if each of the alphabets in
: the word FRIENDS is rearranged in the alphabetical order from the left to right?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

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Question 562 How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters SWA using each
: letter only once in each word?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : Meaningful Words Þ WAS, SAW

Correct Answer: C

Question 563 The positions of the first and the fourth letters of the word WORTHLY are
: interchanged, similarly, the positions of second and fifth letters and third and sixth
letters are interchanged. In the new arrangement thus formed, how many letters are
there between the letter which is third from the right and the letter which is third from
the left, in the English alphabetical order?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

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Question 564 How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters UOT using each
: letter only once in each word?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : Meaningful Words Þ out

Correct Answer: B

Question 565 If each of the alphabets of the word COMPARE is arranged in alphabetical order from
: the left to right and then each vowel in the new word thus formed is changed to the
next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the
previous letter in the English alphabetical series which of the following will be the
fifth from the right?

(A) F

(B) P

(C) L

(D) E

(E) O

Solution :

Correct Answer: A

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Question 566 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word FORCES, each of which has as
: many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as
they have between them in the English alphabetical order?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 567 How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters STIF starting with
: F. using each letter-only once in each word?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : Meaningful words Þ FIST; FITS

Correct Answer: C

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Question 568 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word RELUCTANCE each of which
: has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward
directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: E

Question 569 If it is possible to make only one meaning word with the first, fifth, seventh, and the
: eighth letters of the word SPONTANEOUS, then the second letter from the left is your
answer. If no such word can be formed, then your answer is X and if more than word
such can be formed your answer is Y.

(A) X

(B) T

(C) E

(D) S

(E) Y

Solution :

Correct Answer: E

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Question 570 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MERIT each of which has as
: many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) FOUR

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Question 571 How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters IEST using each
: letter only once in each word?

(A) Two

(B) Three

(C) Four

(D) Five

(E) None of these

Solution : Letters Þ IEST

Meaninfgul words Þ SITE, TIES

Correct Answer: A

Question 572 If the consonants in the word DROVE are first arranged alphabeticalliy and the vowels
are put in between two pairs two pairs of consonants in the alphabetical order, which

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: of the following will be the fourth from the right end after the rearrangement?

(A) D

(B) E

(C) R

(D) O

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Question 573 How many meaningful English words can be made from the letters IRA, using each
: letter only once in each word?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) Four

Solution : Meaningful word Þ AIR

Correct Answer: B

Question 574 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word INTRUDE each of which has as
: many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as
they have between them in the English alphabetical order?

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(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) Four

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 575 If each of the vowels in the word HONESTLY is changed to the next letter in the
: English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the
English alphabetical series, and then the alphabets so formed are arranged in
alphabetical order from left to right, the positions of how many of the following
alphabets will remain unchanged? (from that of before arranging in alphabetical order)

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

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Question 576 If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, third, eighth, and
: the ninth letters of the word ABDUCTION . Which of the following would be the
second letter of that word from the left end? If no such word can be made, give ‘A’ as
your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, your answer as ‘Z’?

(A) A

(B) O

(C) N

(D) B

(E) Z

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Question 577 In a certain code language COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC . How will
: MEDICINE be written in that code language ?

(A) MFEDJJOE

(B) EOJDEJFM

(C) MFEJDJOE

(D) EOJDJEFM

Solution : - There are 8 letters in the word .

- The coded word can be obtained by taking the immediately following letters of word,
expect the first and the last letters of the given word but in the reverse order. That
means, in the coded form the first and the last letters have been interchanged while the
remaining letters are coded by taking their immediate next letters in the reverse order .

Correct Answer: D

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Question 578 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JOURNEY each of which has as
: many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as
they have between them in the English alphabetical order?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Question 579 How many meaningful English words can be made from the letters ONW, using each
: letter only once in each word?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : Meaningful words

Þ OWN, WON, NOW

Correct Answer: D

Question 580 If each vowel of the word CROWING is changed to the next letter in the English

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: alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English
alphabetical series and then the alphabets thus formed are arranged in alphabetical
order from left to right, which of the following will be third from the right?

(A) J

(B) P

(C) M

(D) Q

(E) F

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Question 581 If it is possible to make only one meaningful word from the fourth, sixth, ninth, and
: eleventh letters of the word CONTAMINATE , then the second letter from the left is
your answer. If no such word can be formed, then your answer is X and if more than
one such word can be formed, your answer as Y.

(A) X

(B) T

(C) M

(D) A

(E) Y

Solution :

Correct Answer: E

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Question 582 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word PRODUCTION each of which
: has as many letters between them (in both forward and backward directions) in the
word as they have between them in the English alphabetical order?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) Four

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Question 583 How many meaningful English words can be made from the letters ABKC, using each
: letter only once in each word? (All the four letters to be used in the word)

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : Meaningful word Þ BACK

Correct Answer: B

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Question 584 The positions of the first and fourth letters of the word ‘ABSENT’ are interchanged,
: similarly the positions of the second and fifth letters and third and sixth letters are
interchanged. In the new arrangement thus formed, how many letters ate there between
the letter which is third from the right and the letter which is first from the left, in the
English alphabetical order?

(A) Two

(B) Four

(C) Five

(D) Three

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Question 585 How many meaningful English words can be made from the letters ‘OLBT’, using all
: the letters but each letter only once in each word?

(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) Four

(E) Five

Solution : Meaningful word Þ BOLT

Correct Answer: A

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Question 586 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘LABOUR’ each of which has as
: many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as
they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 587 How many meaningful English words can be made from the letters ‘EWF’, using each
: letter only once in each word?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : Meaningful word Þ FEW

Correct Answer: B

Question 588 If each alternate letter in the word ‘MENTION’ starting with M is changed to the next
: letter in the English alphabetical series and each of the remaining letters is changed to

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the previous letter in the English alphabetical series, then how many letters will appear
more than once in the new arrangement?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) Four

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 589 How many meaningful English words can be made from the letters AHS, using all the
: letters but each letter only once in each word?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : Meaningful words Þ ASH, HAS

Correct Answer: C

Question 590 If each vowel of the word PERTAIN is changed to the next letter in the English
: alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English
alphabetical series and then the alphabets thus formed are arranged in alphabetical

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order from left to right, which of the following will be third from the right?

(A) O

(B) Q

(C) M

(D) B

(E) J

Solution :

Correct Answer: E

Question 591 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word THINGS, each of which has as
: many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as
they have between them in the English alphabetical order?

(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) Four

(E) None

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Question 592 A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

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: If the second half of the English alphabet is reversed then which letter will be 4th to
the right of 20th letter from the right ?

(A) U

(B) K

(C) E

(D) F

Solution : 4th to the right of 20th letter from the right means (20 - 4 =) 16th from the right .
16th letter from the right = (26 - 16 + 1 =) 11th from the left, i.e K

Correct Answer: B

Question 593
What is the code for ‘organic’ in the given code language ?
:

(A) gs

(B) cr

(C) da

(D) pt

(E) Other than those given as options

Solution : From statements 1 and 3, the common word is organic. Thus, organic is coded as = ‘cr’

Correct Answer: B

Question 594 If each vowel of the word PRINCELY is changed to the next letter in the English
: alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English
alphabetical series and then the alphabets thus formed are arranged in alphabetical
order from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?

(A) M

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(B) J

(C) B

(D) O

(E) K

Solution :

Correct Answer: E

Question 595 The positions of first and the sixth letters of the word CARPET are interchanged,
: similarly, the positions of second and the fifth letters are interchanged. In the new
arrangement thus formed, how many alphabets are there between the letter which is
second from the letter which is second from the left end, in the English alphabetical
series?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : 1 2 3 4 5 6

Correct Answer: D

Question 596 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TACKLE, each of which has as
: many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as

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they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 597 If each alphabet in the word THREAD is arranged in alphabetical order from left to
: right and then each vowel of the word thus formed is changed to the next letter in the
English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the
English alphabetical series, which of the following will be fourth from the left?

(A) F

(B) H

(C) C

(D) G

(E) Q

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

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Question 598 If in certain code SOFTWARE is written as TOGUXASE then in the same code how
: WEDNESDAY is written ?

(A) XEEOETEAZ

(B) XEEMETEAZ

(C) XEFOETEAZ

(D) XEEOETEAY

Solution : All vowels are kept same and consonants are increased one step forward
WEDNESDAY => XEEOETEAZ

Correct Answer: A

Question 599 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word PLANTS each of which has as
: many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as
they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Question 600 If each vowel of the word POLITE is changed to the next letter in the English
alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English

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: alphabetical series and then the alphabets thus formed are arranged in alphabetical
order from left to right, which of the following will be third from the left?

(A) O

(B) P

(C) J

(D) K

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Question 601 How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ‘NSIK’ (starting
: with S) using all the letters but each letter only once in each word?

(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) More than three

(E) None

Solution : Meaningful words Þ SINK, SKIN

Correct Answer: B

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Question 602 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘STONED’, each of which has as
: many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as
they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Question 603 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SPORADIC (in both forward and
: backward direction) each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in
both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English
alphabet?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

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Question 604 How many meaningful English words can be formed –not ending with E-with the
: second, the fourth, sixth and the ninth letters of the word PROACTIVE? (To be
counted from left side)

(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) Four

(E) More than Four

Solution :

Correct Answer: A

Question 605 If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the fourth, the
: seventh letters of the word COURTESY, using each letter only once in the word,
which of the following will be the third letter of that word? If no such word can be
formed, give ‘N’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give
‘M’ as the answer.

(A) R

(B) O

(C) S

(D) N

(E) M

Solution :

Correct Answer: E

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Question 606 How many meaningful English words can be formed, starting with S, with the second,
: the fourth, the fifth and the eighth letters of the words PERISHED, using each letter
only once in each word? (To be counted from left)

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Question 607 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word STREAMING each of which has
: as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? (In both forward
and backward directions)

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

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Question 608 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘DAREDEVIL’ each of which
: has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? (In both
forward and backward directions)

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: E

Question 609 If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the
: seventh, and the eighth letters of the word STEADFAST . Which of the following
would be the second letter of that word? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as
the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as your answer.

(A) E

(B) A

(C) T

(D) X

(E) Y

Solution :

Correct Answer: E

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Question 610 How many meaningful English words can be made with the second, the fourth, the
: sixth and the seventh letters of the word STUMBLE using each letter only once in
each word?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Question 611 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GOVERNMENT each of which
: has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? (In both
forward and backward directions)

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: E

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Question 612 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word BARGAINED, each of which has
: as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as
they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

(A) Two

(B) Three

(C) None

(D) One

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: E

Question 613 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘VIRTUAL’, each of which has
: as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as
they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

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Question 614 How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ‘ILP’, using all
: the letters only once in each word?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : Meaningful words Þ .LIP

Correct Answer: B

Question 615 If each alternate letter in the word ‘FLIPPER’ starting with F is changed to the next
: letter in the English alphabetical series each of the remaining letters is changed to the
previous letters in the English alphabetical series, then how many letters will appear
more than once in the new arrangement?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) Four

Solution :

Correct Answer: A

Question 616 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word FINANCIAL, each of which has
as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabetical series? (In

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: both forward and backward directions)

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 617 The positions of how many alphabets will remain the same if each of the alphabets in
: the word DETRIMENT is rearranged in the alphabetical order from left to right?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Question 618 If all the letters of the word PURCHASE are arranged in alphabetical order from left to
right and then each vowel in the word is changed to the next letter in the English

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: alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English
alphabetical series, which of the following will be third from the right ‘7’?

(A) V

(B) B

(C) Q

(D) N

(E) R

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 619 How many meaningful English words can be formed from the letters CFAE, using
: each letter only once in each word?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : Meaningful words Þ FACE, CAFE,

Correct Answer: C

Question 620 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word BANTER, each of which has as
: many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as

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they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 621 How many meaningful English words can be formed from the letters LDFO, using
: each letter only once in each word?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : Meaningful words Þ FOLD

Correct Answer: B

Question 622 The positions of how many alphabets will remain unchanged if each of the alphabets
: in the word PROACTIVE is arranged in alphabetical order from left to right?

(A) None

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(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: A

Question 623 The positions of first and the fourth letters of the word CLAIMS are interchanged,
: similarly, the positions of second and fifth letters and third and sixth letters are
interchanged. In the new arrangement thus formed, how many letters are there between
the letter which is second from the right and the letter which is second from the left, in
the English alphabetical order?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: A

Question 624 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SOUTHERN each of which has
: as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

(A) None

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(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 625 If every alternate letter in the word SOLITARY starting from the first letter is replaced
: by the previous letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is
replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the
third letter from the right end after the substitution?

(A) B

(B) S

(C) Z

(D) K

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: A

Question 626 How many such pairs of the digits are there in the number 53146827 each of which
: has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are arranged in

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ascending order within the number?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Question 627 How many such pairs of the letters are there in the word CREATION each of which
: has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward
directions), as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 628 How many meaningful English words (not ending with S) can be made with the
: alphabets A, D, and S, each being used only once in each word?

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(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : Meaningful words Þ SAD

Correct Answer: B

Question 629 If it is possible to make only one meaningful word, beginning with T with the first, the
: third and the sixth letters of the word ‘OPERATE’, which would be the second letter
of that word from the left? If more than one such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the
answer. If no such word can be formed, give ‘Z’ as your answer.

(A) X

(B) E

(C) T

(D) o

(E) Z

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Question 630 How many meaningful English words can be formed form the letters ‘ACER’ using
: each letter only once in each word?

(A) None

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(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : Meaningful words Þ RACE, CARE, ACRE.

Correct Answer: D

Question 631 If in the word FLUORISH, all the vowels are first arranged alphabetically and then all
: the consonants are arranged alphabetically and then all the vowels are replaced by the
previous letter and all the consonants are replaced by the next letter from English
alphabet, which letter will be third from the right end?

(A) I

(B) S

(C) M

(D) V

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 632 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CHILDREN’ each of which has
: as many letters between them in the word as they are between them in the English

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alphabet?

(A) 3

(B) 5

(C) 4

(D) 2

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 633 Each of vowels in the word ‘MAGNIFY’ is replaced by number ‘2’ and each
: consonant is replaced by a number which is the serial number of that consonant in the
word, i.e. M by 1, G by 3 and so on. What is the total of all the numbers once the
replacement is completed?

(A) 25

(B) 24

(C) 26

(D) 22

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: A

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Question 634 If a meaningful word beginning with B can be formed from ‘HACEB’, then the fourth
: letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be formed then your answer is
‘5’ i.e., ‘None of these’.

(A) A

(B) C

(C) E

(D) H

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Question 635 How many meaningful English words can be formed form the letters ESRO using each
: letter only once in each word?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : Meaningful words Þ ROSE, SORE

Correct Answer: B

Question 636 How many such pairs of the letters are there in the world CONSTABLE each of which
: has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

(A) None

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(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Question 637 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CHILDREN’ each of which has
: as many letters between them in the word as there are between them in the English
alphabet?

(A) 3

(B) 5

(C) 4

(D) 2

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Question 638 If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the third, the fifth, the
: seventh and the tenth letters of the word ‘OUTRAGEOUS’, which of the
following will be the second letter of that word? If more than one such word can be
formed, give ‘X’ as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

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(A) E

(B) A

(C) S

(D) Y

(E) X

Solution :

Correct Answer: E

Question 639 If the letters of the word ‘PRINCE’ are arranged as they appear in the English
: alphabet, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged after the
rearrangement?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 640 How many such pairs of the letters are there in the word BEHAVIOUR each of which
: has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

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(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 641 How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EPRY using each
: letter only once in each word?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : Meaningful words Þ PREY, PYRE

Correct Answer: C

Question 642 The letters in the word DANGEROUS are changed in such a way that the consonants
: are replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet and the vowels are replaced
by the next letter in the English alphabet. Which of the following will be the third
letter from the left end of the new set of letters?

(A) B

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(B) M

(C) O

(D) L

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Question 643 If it is possible to make only one meaningful from the second, the fourth the sixth and
: the ninth letters of the word PROACTIVE using each letter only once, the second
letter of that word is your answer. If more than one word can be formed your answer is
M and if no such can be formed your answer is N.

(A) N

(B) E

(C) T

(D) M

(E) N

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Question 644 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word FOREHAND each of which has
: as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

(A) None

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(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 645 The letters in the word MORTIFY are changed in such a way that the vowels are
: replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet and the consonants are replaced
by the next letter in the English alphabet. Which of the following will be the fourth
letter from the right end of the new set of letters?

(A) S

(B) H

(C) G

(D) N

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: E

Question 646 How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ALPE using each
: letter only once in each word?

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(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : Meaningful words Þ LEAP, PALE, PEAL

Correct Answer: D

Question 647 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHAMBERS each of which has
: as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 648 How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER
: using each letter only once in each word?

(A) None

(B) One

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(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) Four

Solution : Meaningful words Þ ARE, EAR

Correct Answer: C

Question 649 Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English
: alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How
many vowels are present in the new arrangement?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 650 If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the third, the Seventh, Eighth
: and the Tenth letters of the word COMPATIBILTY, which of the following would be
the last letter of that word? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and
if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’.

(A) I

(B) B

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(C) L

(D) X

(E) Y

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Passage : A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .

Question 651 Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is
: tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?

(A) X

(B) W

(C) I

(D) H

Solution : In the given alphabet, last but one letter of alphabet is Y .

10th letter to the left of Y is O
8th letter to the right of O is W

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may
or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

Question 652 If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English
: alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

(A) SUM

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(B) BIG

(C) Both BIG and THE

(D) FOR

(E) Both FOR and BIG

Solution : AND Þ ANE ; FOR Þ FOS;

THE Þ THF ; BIG Þ BIH;
SUM Þ SUN

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may
or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

Question 653 If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from
: left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?

(A) AND

(B) FOR

(C) THE

(D) BIG

(E) SUM

Solution : AND, BIG, FOR, SUM, THEN

Correct Answer: E

Passage : Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may
or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

Question 654 If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English

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: alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels)
will be formed ?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) Four

Solution : AND Þ AON ; FOR Þ FPR;

THE Þ TIE;
BIG Þ BJG; SUM Þ SVM

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may
or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

Question 655 How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter
: of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is
second from the left of the given words?

(A) Two

(B) Five

(C) Six

(D) Nine

(E) Three

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

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Passage : Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may
or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

Question 656 If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and
: each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many
words thus formed will no vowels appear?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : AND Þ BMC; FOR Þ EPQ;

THE Þ SGF; BIG Þ AJF
SUM Þ RVL

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction : Following question is based on five words given below:

BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words)

Question 657 If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English
: alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels)
will be formed?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

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(E) Four

Solution : BRU Þ BRV; LEG Þ LEH

INK Þ INL CAT Þ CAU;

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Direction : Following question is based on five words given below:

BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words)

Question 658 If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are
: interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

(A) Both CAT and OWN

(B) Both BRU and INK

(C) Only CAT

(D) Only INK

(E) Only LEG

Solution : BRU Þ RBU; LEG Þ LEH

INK Þ NIK CAT Þ ACT;
OWN Þ WON

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction: Following question is based on five words given below:

BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words)

Question 659 If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from

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: left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?

(A) OWN

(B) LEG

(C) BRU

(D) CAT

(E) INK

Solution : BRU ® CAT ® INK ® LEG ® OWN

Correct Answer: E

Passage : Direction: Following question is based on five words given below:

BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words)

Question 660 If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and
: each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many
words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : BRU Þ AQV; LEG Þ KFF

INK Þ JMJ CAT Þ BBS;
OWN Þ PVM

Correct Answer: D

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Passage : Find the missing number in the following series ?

Question 661
3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?
:

(A) 71

(B) 61

(C) 79

(D) 69

Solution : Fiest series : 3, 5, 7, 9

Second series : 5, 19, 41, ?
Difference of Second series are 14, 22, 30 etc
Next term is 41+30 i.e equal to 71

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction: following question is based on five words given below:

LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words.)

Question 662 If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are
: interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new
arrangement?

(A) HID

(B) SON

(C) Both LAP and BUT

(D) CAR

(E) Both CAR and LAP

Solution : LAP Þ PAL; BUT Þ TUB; CAR Þ RAC;

SON Þ NOS; HID Þ DIH
PAL and TUB are meaningful words.

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Correct Answer: C

Passage : Direction: following question is based on five words given below:

LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words.)

Question 663 If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from
: left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?

(A) LAP

(B) BUT

(C) CAR

(D) SON

(E) HID

Solution : BUT -> CAR -> HID -> LAP -> SON

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction : following question is based on five words given below:

LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words.)

Question 664 If in each of given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each
: vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words
thus formed will at least one vowel appear?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

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(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Direction : following question is based on five words given below:

LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words.)

Question 665 How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the third letter of
: the word which is third from the right and the first letter of the word which is first
from the left of the given word?

(A) Two

(B) Five

(C) Six

(D) Nine

(E) Three

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

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Passage : Direction: following question is based on five words given below:

LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words.)

Question 666 If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English
: alphabetical order, how many words having no vowels will be formed?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : LAP Þ LBP; BUT Þ BVT; CAR Þ CBR;

SON Þ SPN; HID Þ HJD;

Correct Answer: E

Passage : Direction: following letter is based on the five three letter words given below:
PIN ROD DEN SAT FUN
(Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful
English words.)

Question 667 If all the letters in each of the words are arranged alphabetically (within the word),
: how many words will remain unchanged?

(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) More than three

(E) None

Solution : PIN Þ INP; ROD Þ DOR; DEN Þ DEN;

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SAT Þ AST; FUN Þ FNU

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction: following letter is based on the five three letter words given below:
PIN ROD DEN SAT FUN
(Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful
English words.)

Question 668 According to the English alphabetical series how many letters are there between the
: first letter of the third word and the first letter of the fifth word?

(A) Two

(B) One

(C) None

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction: following letter is based on the five three letter words given below:
PIN ROD DEN SAT FUN
(Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful
English words.)

Question 669 If the first letter of all the words is changed to the previous letter of the English
: alphabetical series, how many words will have more than one vowel?

(A) One

(B) Two

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(C) Three

(D) More than three

(E) None

Solution : PIN Þ OIN; ROD Þ QOD; DEN Þ CEN

SAT Þ RAT; FUN Þ EUN

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction: following letter is based on the five three letter words given below:
PIN ROD DEN SAT FUN
(Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful
English words.)

Question 670 If all the vowels (in all the words) are changed to the next letter of the English
: alphabetical series, how many words will form meaningful English words?

(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) More than three

(E) None

Solution : PIN Þ PJN; ROD Þ RPD; DEN Þ DFN;

SAT Þ SBT; FUN Þ FVN

Correct Answer: E

Passage : Direction : following letter are based on the five three letter words given below:
PIN ROD DEN SAT FUN
(Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful
English words.)

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Question 671 If the positions of the first and last letters of all of the words are interchanged and then
: the words thus formed are arranged alphabetically form left to right, which of the
following will be second from the left?

(A) SAT

(B) DEN

(C) ROD

(D) PIN

(E) FUN

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction: Following question is based on the five three lettered words given below:
SHE AND TWO WIT GUM
(Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful
English words)

Question 672 If all the letters in each of the words are arranged in alphabetical order (within the
: word) how many words will remain unchanged?

(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) More than three

(E) None

Solution : SHE Þ EHS; AND Þ ADN;

TWO Þ OTW; WIT Þ ITW;
GUM Þ GMU

Correct Answer: E
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Passage : Direction: The following question is based on five words given below:
RAT ONE BUT AND SAW
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words.)

Question 673 If in each of the given words each alphabet is changed to the next letter in the English
: alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed have the consonants changed to
vowels?

(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) Four

(E) Five

Solution : RAT Þ SBU; ONE Þ POF; BUT Þ CUV;

AND Þ BOE SAW Þ TBX

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction : The following question is based on five words given below:
RAT ONE BUT AND SAW
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words.)

Question 674 How many such pairs of the letters are there in the word highlighted in bold, each of
: which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward
directions), as they have between them in the English alphabetical order?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

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(E) Four

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction: The following question is based on five words given below:
RAT ONE BUT AND SAW
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words.)

Question 675 If the first alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in English
: alphabetical series, how many meaningful English words will be formed?

(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) Four

(E) Five

Solution : RAT Þ SAT; ONE Þ PNE; BUT Þ CUT;

AND Þ BND; SAW Þ TAW
Meaningful Words Þ SAT, CUT

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction: The following question is based on five words given below:
RAT ONE BUT AND SAW
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words.)

Question 676 If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in the dictionary
: from left to right, which of the following would be fourth from the left?

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(A) RAT

(B) ONE

(C) BUT

(D) AND

(E) SAW

Solution :

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction : The following question is based on five words given below:
RAT ONE BUT AND SAW
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words.)

Question 677 If in each of the given words, only the consonants are changed to the next letter in the
: English alphabetical series and the vowels are retained, in how many words thus
formed will the vowels appear twice or more times? (same or different vowels)

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) Four

Solution : RAT Þ SAU; ONE Þ OOE; BUT Þ CUU;

AND Þ AOE; SAW Þ TAX

Correct Answer: E

Passage : Direction : Following question is based on five words given below:

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WIT BAR URN ELF TOP

(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words.)

Question 678 If in each of the words, all the alphabets are arranged in English alphabetical order
: within the word, how many words will NOT begin with a vowel?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : WIT Þ ITW; BAR Þ ABR; URN Þ NRU;

ELF Þ EFL; TOP Þ OPT
'NRU' does not begin with a Vowel

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction : Following question is based on five words given below:

WIT BAR URN ELF TOP
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words.)

Question 679 How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between second letter of
: the word which is second from the right and the third letter of the word which is third
from the left of given words?

(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) Four

(E) Five

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Solution :

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction : Following question is based on five words given below:

WIT BAR URN ELF TOP
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words.)

Question 680 If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and
: each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many
words thus formed will no vowel appear?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Direction : Following question are based on five words given below:

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WIT BAR URN ELF TOP

(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words.)

Question 681 If the last alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English
: alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels)
will be formed?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) Four

Solution : WIT Þ WIU; BAR Þ BAS; URN Þ URO;

ELF Þ ELG; TOP Þ TOQ

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Direction : Following question are based on five words given below:
WIT BAR URN ELF TOP
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words.)

Question 682 If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from
: left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?

(A) WIT

(B) BAR

(C) URN

(D) ELF

(E) TOP

Solution :

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Correct Answer: C

Passage : Direction: Following question are based on five words given below:
MET ARK MOB SKI URN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words.)

Question 683 If the second alphabet in each of the word is changed to the previous alphabet in the
: English alphabetical order, how many words-having no vowels will be formed?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) Four

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Direction: Following question are based on five words given below:
MET ARK MOB SKI URN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words.)

Question 684 If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from
: left to right, which of the following will be second from the right?

(A) MET

(B) ARK

(C) MOB

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(D) SKI

(E) URN

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction: Following question are based on five words given below:
MET ARK MOB SKI URN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words.)

Question 685 If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and
: each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many
words thus formed will no vowels appear?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: E

Passage : Direction: Following question are based on five words given below:
MET ARK MOB SKI URN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words.)

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Question 686 How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between third letter of the
: word which is fourth from the left and the third letter of the word which is fourth from
the right of the given words?

(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) Four

(E) Five

Solution :

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction: The following question are based on five words given below
FAN HOP GET CUB MID
(Note: The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily
be meaningful English words.)

Question 687 If the position of the first and second letters of all the words are interchanged, how
: many words will form meaningful English words?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : FAN Þ AFN; HOP Þ OHP; GET Þ EGT;

CUB Þ UCB; MID Þ IMD

Correct Answer: A

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Passage : Direction : The following question are based on five words given below:
FAN HOP GET CUB MID
(Note: The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily
be meaningful English words.)

Question 688 If all the letters in each of the words are arranged alphabetically (within the word),
: how many words will remain unchanged?

(A) Two

(B) Three

(C) One

(D) None

(E) More than three

Solution : FAN Þ AFN; HOP Þ HOP; GET Þ EGT;

CUB Þ BCU; MID Þ DIM

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Direction : The following question are based on five words given below:
FAN HOP GET CUB MID
(Note: The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily
be meaningful English words.)

Question 689 If the first letter of all the words is changed to the next letter of the English
: alphabetical series, how many words will have more than one vowel? (Same or
different vowel)

(A) None

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) More than three

(E) One

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Solution : FAN Þ GAN; HOP Þ IOP; GET Þ HET

CUB Þ DUB; MID Þ NID

Correct Answer: E

Passage : Direction : The following question are based on five words given below:
GUT TOY DEN PAL DAM
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words.)

Question 690 How many such pairs of the letters are there in the word highlighted in bold, each of
: which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward
directions), as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) Four

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction: The following question are based on five words given below:
GUT TOY DEN PAL DAM
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words.)

Question 691 If in each of the words, all the alphabets are arranged in English alphabetical order
: within the word, how many words will begin with a vowel?

(A) None

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(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution : GUT Þ GTU

TOY Þ OTY
DEN Þ DEN
PAL Þ ALP
DAM Þ ADM

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction: The following question are based on five words given below:
GUT TOY DEN PAL DAM
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words.)

Question 692 If the first alphabet of each of the word is changed to the next alphabet in the English
: alphabetical series, how many meaningful English will be formed?

(A) None

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) Four

(E) One

Solution : GUT Þ HUT

TOY Þ UOY
DEN Þ EEN
PAL Þ QAL
DAM Þ EAM
Meaningful word Þ HUT

Correct Answer: E

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Passage : Direction : The following question are based on five words given below:
GUT TOY DEN PAL DAM
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words.)

Question 693 If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in the dictionary
: from left to right, which of the following would be third from the left?

(A) DAM

(B) TOY

(C) GUT

(D) DEN

(E) PAL

Solution : DAM->DEN -> GUT -> PAL -> TOY

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Direction : The following question are based on five words given below:
GUT TOY DEN PAL DAM
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words.)

Question 694 If in each of the given words, only the consonants are changed to the next letter in the
: English alphabetical series and the vowels are retained, in how many words thus
formed will be vowels appear twice or more times? (Same or different Vowels)

(A) Four

(B) Five

(C) Three

(D) Two

(E) One

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Solution : GUY Þ HUU

TOY Þ UOZ
DEN Þ EEO
PAL Þ QAM
DAM Þ EAN

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction: These question are based on five words given below:
RAG BIG NUT GOT AND
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words.)

Question 695 If all the letters in each of the given words are arranged in alphabetical order within the
: word, which of the following words will remain unchanged?

(A) AND

(B) BIG

(C) NUT

(D) RAG

(E) GOT

Solution :

Correct Answer: E

Passage : Direction : These question are based on five words given below:
RAG BIG NUT GOT AND
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words.)

Question 696 If first alphabet in each of the words to the next alphabet in the alphabetical series,

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: how many of them will form a meaningful English word?

(A) Four

(B) One

(C) Three

(D) None

(E) Two

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Direction : These question are based on five words given below:
RAG BIG NUT GOT AND
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words.)

Question 697 If the alphabet ‘B’ is added before each of the given words, how many of them will
: form meaningful English words?

(A) Two

(B) One

(C) Three

(D) Four

(E) None

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Solution :

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction : These question are based on five words given below:
RAG BIG NUT GOT AND
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words.)

Question 698 If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to the previous letter
: in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will at least two
vowels appear?

(A) More than three

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) None

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction: These question are based on five words given below:
RAG BIG NUT GOT AND
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be

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meaningful English words.)

Question 699 If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from
: the left to right, which of the following will be second from the right?

(A) BIG

(B) AND

(C) GOT

(D) NUT

(E) RAG

Solution : AND->BIG->GOT->NUT -> RAG

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction: Following question are based on the five three lettered words given below:
SHE AND TWO WIT GUM
(Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful
English words)

Question 700 According to English alphabetical series how many letters are there between the first
: letter of the second word and the first letter of the fifth word?

(A) Two

(B) One

(C) None

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Solution :

Correct Answer: E

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Passage : Direction :The following question are based upon the alphabetical series given below:
M J L I T Q S R K U F H C B D
E A V P O G N

Question 701 What will come in place of question (?) mark in the following series based on the
: above alphabetical series?
N PO BDE ?

(A) UKR

(B) SRKU

(C) RKUF

(D) QSRK

(E) FUK

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction: found the answer choice which give the same relation as it is found between two
items to the left of the sign and one is like.

Question 702
BDE : GHI :: JKM : ?
:

(A) NOP

(B) NOF

(C) OPM

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(D) OPQ

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction: found the answer choice which give the same relation as it is found between two
items to the left of the sign and one is like.

Question 703
4 : 7 :: 9 : ?
:

(A) 15

(B) 12

(C) 16

(D) 8

Solution : 4+3= 7
9 + 3 = 12

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction: found the answer choice which give the same relation as it is found between two
items to the left of the sign and one is like.

Question 704
KJL : ONP :: CBD :?
:

(A) ORV

(B) BCF

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(C) OTM

(D) GFH

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction: found the answer choice which give the same relation as it is found between two
items to the left of the sign and one is like.

Question 705
Which one is the same as triangle, tickle, itch?
:

(A) CEEPS

(B) FALVOUR

(C) PUNGENT

(D) SOUR

Solution : The number of letters in each word is an even number.

Triangle Þ 8 letters
Tickle Þ 6 letters
Itch Þ 4 letters
Sour Þ 4 letters

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction: found the answer choice which give the same relation as it is found between two
items to the left of the sign and one is like.

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Question 706
Which one is likely animation, life, wings?
:

(A) Exist

(B) Enarise

(C) Mortality

(D) Surge

Solution : The number of consonants in each word is an even number.

Animation Þ 4 Consonants
Life Þ 2 Consonants
Wings Þ 4 Consonants
Mortality Þ 6 Consonants

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Direction: found the answer choice which give the same relation as it is found between two
items to the left of the sign and one is like.

Question 707
Opposite : Summer : Winter :: Cold : ?
:

(A) Wet

(B) Warm

(C) Freezing

(D) Bold

Solution : Summer is just opposite of Winter. Similarly, Cold is just opposite of Warm.

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction: found the answer choice which give the same relation as it is found between two
items to the left of the sign and one is like.

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Question 708
Net : Ball :: Sparrow: ?
:

(A) Nest

(B) Bird

(C) Sky

(D) Wanna

Solution : Ball is kept in net. Similarly, sparrow lives in nest

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction : Found the answer choice which give the same relation as it is found between
two terms to the leftof the sign.

Question 709
AZBZ : CYDY :: EXFX: ?
:

(A) GWHW

(B) IVJW

(C) HWIW

(D) FWFV

Solution :

Correct Answer: A

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Passage : Direction: Found the answer choice which give the same relation as it is found between
two terms to the leftof the sign.

Question 710
QYGO : SAIQ :: UCKS :?
:

(A) WEMU

(B) WDMV

(C) WDLU

(D) VENU

Solution :

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction: Found the answer choice which give the same relation as it is found between
two terms to the leftof the sign.

Question 711
ww__x__x__yyzz
:

(A) wxxx

(B) wxyz

(C) xwzw

(D) wzxy

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

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Passage : Direction: Found the answer choice which give the same relation as it is found between
two terms to the leftof the sign.

Question 712
M_n m_n a n_a_m a_
:

(A) aamnan

(B) ammanm

(C) aammnn

(D) amammn

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Direction: Found the answer choice which give the same relation as it is found between
two terms to the leftof the sign.

Question 713
Numerical Relationship : 4 : 12
:

(A) 10 : 16

(B) 3:4

(C) 9 : 27

(D) 12 : 6

Solution : 4 × 3 = 12
9 × 3 = 12

Correct Answer: C

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Passage :

In each of the following questions, five words have been given out of which four are alike in some
manner, while the fifth one is different. Choose the word which is different from the rest.

Question 714
Choose the word which is different from the rest.
:

(A) Chicken

(B) Snake

(C) Swan

(D) Crocodile

(E) Frog

Solution : All except Chicken can live in water.

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction :Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.

Question 715 Which is the one that does not belong to that group
: ?

(A) Chair

(B) Table

(C) Rack

(D) Furniture

(E) Drawer

Solution : Plastic is a polymer.

Correct Answer: D

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Passage : Direction :Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.

Question 716
Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
:

(A) Sandal

(B) Boot

(C) Feet

(D) Shoe

(E) Slipper

Solution : Chair, Table, Rack and Drawer are diferent types of furniture.

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Direction :Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.

Question 717
Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
:

(A) Mouse

(B) Animal

(C) Lizard

(D) Cat

(E) Horse

Solution : Mouse. Lizard. Cat and Horse all are cifferent animals.

Correct Answer: B

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Passage : Direction :Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.

Question 718
Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
:

(A) Shawl

(B) Sweater

(C) Handkerchief

(D) Coat

(E) Muffler

Solution : Except Handkerchief, all others are warm clothes.

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Direction : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical series and so form a group.

Question 719
Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
:

(A) GHJE

(B) TUWR

(C) MNPK

(D) DEGC

(E) WXZU

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

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Passage : Direction :Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical series and so form a group.

Question 720
Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
:

(A) TVQ

(B) DFB

(C) HJE

(D) LNI

(E) PRM

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical series and so form a group.

Question 721
Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
:

(A) Heavy

(B) High

(C) Short

(D) Low

(E) Tall

Solution : Heavy is different from others. Except heavy, all other words signify length or height.

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Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical series and so form a group.

Question 722
Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
:

(A) Outstanding

(B) Nice

(C) Excellent

(D) Good

(E) Kind

Solution : Kind is different from the other words.

Correct Answer: E

Passage : Direction :Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical series and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

Question 723
Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
:

(A) TOQR

(B) YTUV

(C) KFHI

(D) WRTU

(E) QLNO

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Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction :Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical series and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

Question 724
Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
:

(A) LOK

(B) WZV

(C) RUQ

(D) DFC

(E) ILH

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction :Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical series and so form a group.

Question 725
Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
:

(A) Triumph

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(B) Win

(C) Success

(D) Growth

(E) Victory

Solution : Growth is different from the other words.

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction :Four of the following five are alikein a certain way based on the English
alphabetical series and so form a group.

Question 726
Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
:

(A) Fast

(B) Quick

(C) Sudden

(D) Rapid

(E) Speedy

Solution : Sudden is different from the other words.

Correct Answer: C

Passage : direction:In each of the following question,four words have been given.

Question 727
Three of these are alike in some manner and one is different. Identify the odd one.
:

(A) Arc

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(B) Diagonal

(C) Radius

(D) Diameter

Solution : Except diagonal, all others are related to circle.

Correct Answer: B

Passage : direction:In each of the following question, four words have been given.

Question 728
Three of these are alike in some manner and one is different. Identify the odd one.
:

(A) Paradeep

(B) Tarapur

(C) Kota

(D) Narora

Solution : Except Paradeep, all others places are associated with nuclear energy plant. Paradeep
is a port.

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction :IN each of the following question four pairs of word are given out of which
word in three pairs are related the same way find the pairs are related the same way

Question 729
find the pair which is differently related.
:

(A) Harsh, Polite

(B) Accident, Negligence

(C) Devil, Wrong

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(D) Ink, Writing

Solution : Harsh is just opposite of polite. Accident occurs due to negligence. Devil does wrong
thing. Ink is used to write.

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction :the following question four pairs of word are given out of which word in three
pairs are related the same way find the pairs are related the same way .

Question 730
find the pair which is differently related.
:

(A) Shave, Razor

(B) Knife, Cut

(C) Draw, Pencil

(D) House, Live

Solution : House is used for living. Razor is used for shaving.

Knife is used for cutting.
Pencil is used for drawing.

Correct Answer: D

Passage : DIRECTION :Study the following information carefully and answer the question given
below:

The number 0 to 9 are coded in following manner considering the exceptions given below :

9 0 8 5 1 3 4 2 7 6
F C I B A G E J D H

Exception 1 : if a number starts and ends with non-zero odd number then the first and the last
digits should be codded as P and Q respectively
Exception 2 : if a number starts and ends with non-zero even number then the first and the last

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digits should be codded as X and Y respectively

Question 731
What is the code for 389167 ?
:

(A) GIFAHD

(B) PIFADQ

(C) GIFBHD

(D) PIFAHQ

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Passage : DIRECTION : Study the following information carefully and answer the question given
below:The number 0 to 9 are coded in following manner considering the exceptions given below :

9 0 8 5 1 3 4 2 7 6
F C I B A G E J D H

Exception 1 : if a number starts and ends with non-zero odd number then the first and the last
digits should be codded as P and Q respectively
Exception 2 : if a number starts and ends with non-zero even number then the first and the last
digits should be codded as X and Y respectively

Question 732
What is the code for 278140 ?
:

(A) XDIAEY

(B) JDIAEC

(C) XDCAEY

(D) JDIGEC

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(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Passage : DIRECTION : Study the following information carefully and answer the question given
below:

The number 0 to 9 are coded in following manner considering the exceptions given below :

9 0 8 5 1 3 4 2 7 6
F C I B A G E J D H

Exception 1 : if a number starts and ends with non-zero odd number then the first and the last
digits should be codded as P and Q respectively
Exception 2 : if a number starts and ends with non-zero even number then the first and the last
digits should be codded as X and Y respectively

Question 733
Which of the following numbers is represented by BADGE ?
:

(A) 51734

(B) 51743

(C) 51347

(D) 17345

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: A

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Passage : DIRECTION:Study the following information carefully and answer the question given
below:
The number 0 to 9 are coded in
following manner considering
the exceptions given below :
9 0 8 5 1 3 4 2 7 6
F C I B A G E J D H
Exception1:if a number starts and ends with non-zero odd number then the first and the last
digits should be codded as P and Q respectively
Exception2: if a number starts and ends with non-zero even number then the first and the last
digits should be codded as X and Y respectively

Question 734 Which of the following numbers is represented by XABCFY ?

: (A) 215096 (B) 815094
(C) 315094

(A) Only A and C

(B) Only B and C

(C) Only C

(D) Only B

(E) Only A and B

Solution :

Correct Answer: E

Passage : DIRECTION:Study the following information carefully and answer the question given
below:
The number 0 to 9 are coded in
following manner considering
the exceptions given below :
9 0 8 5 1 3 4 2 7 6
F C I B A G E J D H
Exception1:if a number starts and ends with non-zero odd number then the first and the last
digits should be codded as P and Q respectively
Exception2: if a number starts and ends with non-zero even number then the first and the last
digits should be codded as X and Y respectively

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Question 735
What is the code for 1538428 ?
:

(A) ABGEIJI

(B) ABIGEJI

(C) ABGIEJI

(D) ABGEJII

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Direction:question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of

digits /symbols numbered (1),(2),(3) and (4) You have to find out which of the four combinations
correctly represents the groups of letters based on the following coding system 1and the conditions
that follow and mark the number of that combinations as your answer if none of the combinations
correctly represents the group of letters mark (5) i.e. ‘None of these ‘as your answer
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a conso-
nant and the last letter is a
vowel, their codes are to be in-
terchanged.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel
and the last letter is a conso-
nant, both are to be coded as the
code for the vowel.

Question 736
UPAMYE :
:

(A) 612953

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(B) 321956

(C) 621956

(D) 621953

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction:question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of

digits /symbols numbered (1),(2),(3) and (4) You have to find out which of the four combinations
correctly represents the groups of letters based on the following coding system 1and the conditions
that follow and mark the number of that combinations as your answer if none of the combinations
correctly represents the group of letters mark (5) i.e. ‘None of these ‘as your answer
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a conso-
nant and the last letter is a
vowel, their codes are to be in-
terchanged.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel
and the last letter is a conso-
nant, both are to be coded as the
code for the vowel.

Question 737
JPERTB
:

(A) @3248$

(B) @2348@

(C) $2348@

(D) @23485

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(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: E

Passage : Direction:question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of

digits /symbols numbered (1),(2),(3) and (4) You have to find out which of the four combinations
correctly represents the groups of letters based on the following coding system 1and the conditions
that follow and mark the number of that combinations as your answer if none of the combinations
correctly represents the group of letters mark (5) i.e. ‘None of these ‘as your answer
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a conso-
nant and the last letter is a
vowel, their codes are to be in-
terchanged.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel
and the last letter is a conso-
nant, both are to be coded as the
code for the vowel.

Question 738
IMPBEZ :
:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E) None of these

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Solution :

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction: question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of
digits /symbols numbered (1),(2),(3) and (4) You have to find out which of the four combinations
correctly represents the groups of letters based on the following coding system 1and the conditions
that follow and mark the number of that combinations as your answer if none of the combinations
correctly represents the group of letters mark (5) i.e. ‘None of these ‘as your answer
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a conso-
nant and the last letter is a
vowel, their codes are to be in-
terchanged.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel
and the last letter is a conso-
nant, both are to be coded as the
code for the vowel.

Question 739
KPIRPYI :
:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E) None of these

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Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction : question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of
digits /symbols numbered (1),(2),(3) and (4) You have to find out which of the four combinations
correctly represents the groups of letters based on the following coding system 1and the conditions
that follow and mark the number of that combinations as your answer if none of the combinations
correctly represents the group of letters mark (5) i.e. ‘None of these ‘as your answer
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, their codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant,both are to be coded as the code for
the vowel.

Question 740
BPTRKA :
:

(A) $284%1

(B) 1284%$

(C) 1284%1

(D) $284%$

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

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 Toppersexam.com

Passage : Direction : question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of
digits/symbols numbered (1) ,(2),(3) and (4) You have to find out which of the combinations correctly
represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions and mark the
numbers of that combination as your answer .If none of the four combinations correctly represents the
group of letters give (5) i.e. ‘None of these ‘as your answer.
Conditions :
(i) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as the code for the first
letter.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are vowels, both are to be coded as
(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, their codes are to be interchanged.

Question 741
MWDIAQ :
:

(A) #%428©

(B) ©%428#

(C) #%842©

(D) #%428#

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction : question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of
digits/symbols numbered (1) ,(2),(3) and (4) You have to find out which of the combinations correctly
represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions and mark the
numbers of that combination as your answer .If none of the four combinations correctly represents the
group of letters give (5) i.e. ‘None of these ‘as your answer.
Conditions :
(i) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as the code for the first

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 Toppersexam.com

letter.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are vowels, both are to be coded as
(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, their codes are to be interchanged.

Question 742
AMPWQU :
:

(A) #6%©

(B) 6#©%5

(C) #6%©5

(D) 8#6%©5

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Direction : question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of
digits/symbols numbered (1) ,(2),(3) and (4) You have to find out which of the combinations correctly
represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions and mark the
numbers of that combination as your answer .If none of the four combinations correctly represents the
group of letters give (5) i.e. ‘None of these ‘as your answer.
Conditions :
(i) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as the code for the first
letter.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are vowels, both are to be coded as
(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, their codes are to be interchanged.

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Question 743
SMRZFA :
:

(A) 8#@79$

(B) @#79$8

(C) 8#79$@

(D) #79$8@

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Direction : question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of
digits/symbols numbered (1) ,(2),(3) and (4) You have to find out which of the combinations correctly
represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions and mark the
numbers of that combination as your answer .If none of the four combinations correctly represents the
group of letters give (5) i.e. ‘None of these ‘as your answer.
Conditions :
(i) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as the code for the first
letter.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are vowels, both are to be coded as
(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, their codes are to be interchanged.

Question 744
RMSPAK :
:

(A) 7#@683

(B) 7#@687

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(C) 3#@687

(D) 7#@683

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction : question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of
digits/symbols numbered (1) ,(2),(3) and (4) You have to find out which of the combinations correctly
represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions and mark the
numbers of that combination as your answer .If none of the four combinations correctly represents the
group of letters give (5) i.e. ‘None of these ‘as your answer.
Conditions :
(i) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as the code for the first
letter.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are vowels, both are to be coded as
(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, their codes are to be interchanged.

Question 745
QFPKUZ
:

(A) ©$6359

(B) ©$635©

(C) 9$635©

(D) $©6359

(E) None of these

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Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction : question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of
digits/symbols numbered (1) ,(2),(3) and (4) You have to find out which of the combinations correctly
represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions and mark the
numbers of that combination as your answer .If none of the four combinations correctly represents the
group of letters give (5) i.e. ‘None of these ‘as your answer.
Conditions :
(i) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as the code for the first
letter.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are vowels, both are to be coded as
(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, their codes are to be interchanged.

Question 746
KDMRSI :
:

(A) 34#7@2

(B) 32@7#4

(C) 24#7@3

(D) 4#7@

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

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Passage : Direction : question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of
digits/symbols numbered (1) ,(2),(3) and (4) You have to find out which of the combinations correctly
represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions and mark the
numbers of that combination as your answer .If none of the four combinations correctly represents the
group of letters give (5) i.e. ‘None of these ‘as your answer
Conditions :
(i) If the second letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, their codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the second as well as last letter is a consonant, each one is to be coded as the code for the letter
`F’.
(iii) If the third as well as fourth letter is a vowel, then each one is to be coded as '

Question 747
ZIEAKM :
:

(A) 923#

(B) 92853#

(C) 92 3#

(D) 92583#

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Direction : question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of
digits/symbols numbered (1) ,(2),(3) and (4) You have to find out which of the combinations correctly
represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions and mark the
numbers of that combination as your answer .If none of the four combinations correctly represents the

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 Toppersexam.com

group of letters give (5) i.e. ‘None of these ‘as your answer
Conditions :
(i) If the second letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, their codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the second as well as last letter is a consonant, each one is to be coded as the code for the letter
`F’.

(iii) If the third as well as fourth letter is a vowel, then each one is to be coded as ' '

Question 748
WARMFQ :
:

(A) %©7#$8

(B) %87#$©

(C) %7#$

(D) %78©$#

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Direction : question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of
digits/symbols numbered (1) ,(2),(3) and (4) You have to find out which of the combinations correctly
represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions and mark the
numbers of that combination as your answer .If none of the four combinations correctly represents the
group of letters give (5) i.e. ‘None of these ‘as your answer
Conditions :
(i) If the second letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, their codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the second as well as last letter is a consonant, each one is to be coded as the code for the letter
`F’.

(iii) If the third as well as fourth letter is a vowel, then each one is to be coded as ' '

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 Toppersexam.com

Question 749
EDSKIM :
:

(A) 5@4#32

(B) 54@32#

(C) 5$@3$2

(D) 5@$32$

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: E

Passage : Direction : question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of
digits/symbols numbered (1) ,(2),(3) and (4) You have to find out which of the combinations correctly
represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions and mark the
numbers of that combination as your answer .If none of the four combinations correctly represents the
group of letters give (5) i.e. ‘None of these ‘as your answer
Conditions :
(i) If the second letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, their codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the second as well as last letter is a consonant, each one is to be coded as the code for the letter
`F’.
(iii) If the third as well as fourth letter is a vowel, then each one is to be coded as

Question 750
DEQGFA :
:

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(A) 45©1$8

(B) $584©1

(C) 8$145©

(D) 81$54©

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: A

Question 751 The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is
: Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?

(A) 51:52

(B) 52:53

(C) 51:53

(D) 52:55

Solution : Let C.P. of the article be Rs. x.

Then, required ratio = 104% of x / 106% of x

= 104/106 = 52/53 = 52:53

Correct Answer: B

Question 752
:
If = 1.732 and = 1.414, the value of is

(A) 0.064

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(B) 0.308

(C) 0.318

(D) 2.146

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 753
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
:

(A) 35600

(B) 34500

(C) 9630

(D) 93600

Solution : 356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = 356 x (936 – 836) = 356 x 100 = 35600

Correct Answer: A

Question 754
:

The simplified value of

(A) 100

(B)

(C) 200

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(D)

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Question 755 In a group of buffaloes and ducks, the number of legs are 24 more than twice the
: number of heads. What is the number of buffaloes in the group ?

(A) 6

(B) 8

(C) 10

(D) 12

Solution : Let the number of buffaloes be x and the number of ducks be y.

Then, 4x + 2y = 2(x + y) + 24 ↔ 2x = 24 ↔ x = 12
OR
Given that difference between legs = 24 and we know that buffaloes got 2 extra legs
each.

No. of buffaloes = =12

Correct Answer: D

Question 756
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
:

(A) 4

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(B) 3

(C) 2

(D) 5

Solution : 729 = 93 = 36, Now 4X – 2 = 6 or X = 2.

Correct Answer: C

Question 757
: The value of

(A) 6

(B) 5

(C) -7

(D) -6

Solution : by rationalization we have

Correct Answer: B

Question 758 The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was
: also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had
only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?

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(A) 169

(B) 36

(C) 196

(D) Can not say

Solution : Work from the choices: only 169 when reversed becomes 961 and both numbers are
squares.

Correct Answer: A

Question 759
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
:

(A) 16

(B) 25

(C) 28

(D) 30

Solution : ab = 125 → ab = 53
a = 5, b = 3
(a – b)a+b-4 = (5 – 3)5+3-4 = 24 = 16

Correct Answer: A

Question 760
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
:

(A) 93

(B) 103

(C) 60.5

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(D) 121

Solution : x*y = x2 + y2 – xy
9*11 = 92 + 112 – 9 x 11
= 81 + 121 – 99 = 103.

Correct Answer: B

Question 761
: If , then value of a is

(A) 5

(B) 4

(C) 6

(D) 7

Solution :

a+2=6
a=4

Correct Answer: B

Question 762
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
:

(A) 3

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(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 7

Solution : If sum of two is even, their difference is always even, So (b) is right answer.

Correct Answer: B

Question 763
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
:

(A) XLI

(B) XLVI

(C) XLIV

(D) XLVIC

Solution : XLIV

Correct Answer: C

Question 764
:
If , then

(A) a must equal c

(B) a + b + c + d must equal zero

(C) either a = c or a + b + c + d = 0, or both

(D) a (b + c + d) = c (a + b + d)

Solution :

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→ ad + a2 + bd + ab + bc + c2 + bd + cd
→ (a2 – c2) + (ad – cd) + (ab – bc) = 0
→ (a – c) (a + c + d + b) = 0
→ a = c or a + b + c + d = 0 or both

Correct Answer: C

Question 765
: 23 x 45 15 =?

(A) 69

(B) 65

(C) 63

(D) 71

Solution : 23 x 45 ÷ 15 = 69

Correct Answer: A

Question 766
:

(A) 202

(B) 218

(C) 238

(D) 227

Solution :

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Correct Answer: C

Question 767
:

(A) 5

(B) 6

(C) 3

(D) 8

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Question 768
: ? 36 = (7)2 – 8

(A) 1426

(B) 1449

(C) 1463

(D) 1476

Solution :

Correct Answer: D
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Question 769
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
:

(A) 3528

(B) 3852

(C) 3582

(D) 3825

Solution : (63)2 – (12)2 = (51 x 75) = 3825

Correct Answer: D

Question 770
: 17 x 19 x 4 ? = 161.5

(A) 8

(B) 6

(C) 7

(D) 9

Solution :

Correct Answer: A

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Question 771
: 16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?

(A) 20

(B) 24

(C) 22

(D) 26

Solution : 16.928 + (24.7582 ÷ 5.015) =?

16.928 + (4.93) =?
? = 21.86 ≈ 22

Correct Answer: C

Question 772
: 16.046 2.8 x 0.599 =?

(A) 3.5

(B) 7.9

(C) 1.9

(D) 5.6

Solution : 16.046 ÷ 2.8 x 0.599 = ?

(5.73) x 0.599 = ?
? = 3.43 ≈ 3.5

Correct Answer: A

Question 773
(12 x 19) + (13 x 8) = (15 x 14) + ?
:

(A) 124

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(B) 122

(C) 126

(D) 128

Solution : (12 x 19) + (13 x 8) = (15 x 14) + ?

228 + 104 = 210 + ?
? = 122

Correct Answer: B

Question 774
15% 0f 524 – 2% of 985 + ? = 20% of 423
:

(A) 25.9

(B) 27.7

(C) 25.7

(D) 24.9

Solution :

? = 25.7

Correct Answer: C

Question 775
:

(A) 56

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(B) 58

(C) 54

(D) 62

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 776 8.9

7 (343)1.7 x (49)4.8 = 7 ?
:

(A) 13.4

(B) 12.8

(C) 11.4

(D) 9.6

Solution :

Correct Answer: A

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Question 777
: (42 x 3.2) (16 x 1.5) = ?

(A) 5.9

(B) 5.6

(C) 6.1

(D) 4.8

Solution : (42 x 3.2) ÷ (16 x 1.5) = ?

134.4 ÷ 24 = ?
? = 5.6

Correct Answer: B

Question 778
342 6 x 28 = 1099 + ?
:

(A) 478

(B) 502

(C) 486

(D) 497

Solution : (342 ÷6) x 28 = 1099 + ?

57 x 28 = 1099 + ?
1596 – 1099 = ?
? = 497

Correct Answer: D

Question 779
: (91)2 + (41)2 - = 9858

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(A) 11236

(B) 10816

(C) 10404

(D) 9604

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Question 780
125% of 260 + ?% of 700 = 500
:

(A) 32

(B) 56

(C) 23

(D) 25

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

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Question 781
:

(A) 0.207

(B) 207

(C) 2070

(D) 0.0207

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 782
:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution :

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Correct Answer: A

Question 783
136% of 250 + ? % of 550 = 670
:

(A) 64

(B) 55

(C) 56

(D) 60

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Question 784
:

(A) 3000

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(B) 300000

(C) 3000000

(D) 5000

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Question 785
12.25 x ? x 21.6 = 3545.64
:

(A) 20

(B) 12

(C) 15

(D) 13

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Question 786
1 9 25 49 81 ? 169
:

(A) 100

(B) 64

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(C) 81

(D) 121

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Question 787
7 8 18 57 ?
:

(A) 244

(B) 174

(C) 186

(D) none of these

Solution : The pattern of the number series is:

7x1+1=8
8 x 2 + 2 = 18
18 x 3 + 3 = 57
57 x 4 + 4 = 232

Correct Answer: D

Question 788 Last year my age was a perfect square number. Next year it will be a cubic number.
: What is my Present age ?

(A) 25 years

(B) 27 years

(C) 26 years

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(D) 24 years

Solution : By going options, 26 years is the present age. Present age be 26, then last year age was
25 which represents a perfect square and next year age would be 27 which represents a
cubic number.

Correct Answer: C

Question 789
If a + b = 5, a2 + b2 = 13, the value of a – b (where a > b) is
:

(A) 2

(B) -1

(C) 1

(D) -2

Solution : a+b=5
Squaring on both sides
(a + b)2 = (5)2
a2 + b2 + 2ab = 25
13 + 2ab = 25
2ab = 25 – 13 = 12
Again, a2 + b2 = 13
Subtracting (- 2ab) from both sides
a2 + b 2 – 2ab = 13 – 2ab
(a – b)2 = 13 – 12 from equations (1)
(a – b)2 = 1
or
If a = 3
b = 2 (a > b)
a–b=1

Correct Answer: C

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Question 790
: The greatest among the following numbers

(A)

(B) 1

(C)

(D)

Solution :

OR

Correct Answer: D

Question 791 If x = a – b, y = b – c, z = c – a, then the numerical value of the algebraic expression

: x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz will be

(A) a+b+c

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(B) Zero

(C) 4 (a + b + c)

(D) 3 abc

Solution : x+y+z=a–b+b–c+c–a=0
x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz = 0

Correct Answer: B

Question 792
: (3325 25) x (152 16) = ?

(A) 1269.4

(B) 1264.9

(C) 1265.3

(D) 1263.5

Solution :

= 133 x 9.5 = 1263.5

Correct Answer: D

Question 793
:

(A) 15

(B) 13

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(C)

(D) 11

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Question 794
: (2525 x 0.25 5) x 7 = ?

(A) 889.43

(B) 883.75

(C) 886.45

(D) 881.75

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Question 795
:

(A) 15

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(B) 24

(C) 18

(D) 12

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 796
:

(A)

(B)

(C) 11

(D)

Solution :

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Correct Answer: D

Question 797
(43)2 + 841 = (?)2 + 1465
:

(A) 41

(B) 35

(C) 38

(D) 33

Solution : (43)2 + 841 = (?)2 + 1465

→ 1849 + 841 = (?)2 + 1465
→ 1225 = (?)2
→ ? = 35

Correct Answer: B

Question 798
269 – 122 – 33 = X * 2
:

(A) 51

(B) 41

(C) 21

(D) 49

Solution : 269 – 122 – 33 = x * 2

269 – 144 – 27 = x * 2
X = 49

Correct Answer: D

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Question 799
32% of 420 + 36% of 540 = ?
:

(A) 312

(B) 288

(C) 328.8

(D) 318

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 800
:

(A) 256

(B) 400

(C) 361

(D) 289

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

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Question 801
:
What is equal to?

(A)

(B) 1

(C)

(D) 2

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Question 802 If xy + yz + zx = 0, then

:

(A) 0

(B) 3

(C) 1

(D) x+y+z

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Solution :

Correct Answer: A

Question 803
7892.35 x 99.9 = ?
:

(A) 753445.765

(B) 764455.765

(C) 788445.765

(D) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 804 The product of two 2-digit numbers is 1938. If the product of their unit’s digits is 28
: and that of ten’s digits is 15, find the larger number.

(A) 34

(B) 57

(C) 43

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(D) 75

Solution : We have,
Product of unit’s digits = 28
→ Product of units digits = 4 x 7
Unit’s digits are one digit numbers]
→ Unit’s digits are 4 and 7
→ Product of ten’s digits = 15
→ Product of ten’s digits = 3 x 5
[Ten’s digit are one digit numbers]
→ Ten’s digits are 3 and 5.
Thus, the two numbers either 34 and 57 or 37 and 54.
Now, 34 x 57 = 34 x (50 + 7) 57 = 50 + 7]
= 34 x 50 + 34 x 7 a x (b + c) = a x b + a x c]
= 1700 + 238 = 1938
And 37 x 54 = 37 x (50 + 4)
a x (b + c) = a x b + a x c]
= 1850 + 148 = 1998

Correct Answer: B

Question 805
The last three-digits of the multiplication 12345 x 54321will be
:

(A) 865

(B) 745

(C) 845

(D) 945

Solution : The unit’s digit will be 1 x 5 = 5 (no carry over).

The tens digit will be (4 x 1 + 5 x 2) = 4 (carry over 1).
The hundreds digit will be (3 x 1 + 4 x 2 + 5 x 1) = 6 + 1 (carried over) = 7
Hence, answer is 745.

Correct Answer: B

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Question 806 The sum of the two numbers is 12 and their product is 35. What is the sum of the
: reciprocals of these numbers?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution :

Correct Answer: A

Question 807 An employer pays Rs 20 for each day a works, and forfeits Rs 3 for each day he is idle.
: At the end of 60 days, a worker gets Rs 280. For how many days did the worker
remain idle?

(A) 28

(B) 40

(C) 52

(D) 60

Solution : Suppose the worker remained idle for x days. Then, he worked for (60 – x) days.
20 (60 – x) – 3x = 280
→ 1200 – 23x = 280
→ 23x = 920
→ x = 40
So, the worker remained idle for 40 days.

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Correct Answer: B

Question 808
What is the area of a triangle with base 5 meters and height 10 meters ?
:

(A) 20 square meters

(B) 35 square meters

(C) 25 square meters

(D) 40 square meters

Solution : Answer: C
Area of a triangle = ½ * base * height
So, the area = ½* 5 * 10
=25 square meters

Correct Answer: C

Question 809
If people is coded as PLPOEE, how is trend coded ?
:

(A) TNERD

(B) DNERT

(C) NDETR

(D) TRDNE

Correct Answer: A

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Question 810
:
If where a, b and c are positive integers, then what is the sum of a, b
and c ?

(A) 16

(B) 20

(C) 9

(D) Cannot be determined

Solution :
can be written as . So the values of a, b and c are
5, 9 and 2 respectively. Hence, the sum of a, b and c is 16.

Correct Answer: A

Question 811
: What is the average of first five multiples of 12 ?

(A) 36

(B) 38

(C) 40

(D) 42

Solution : Average = 12∗(1+2+3+4+5) ∗ 1/5

= 12 ∗ 15∗ 1/5
= 12 ∗ 3= 36

Correct Answer: A

Question 812
:

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(A)

(B) 0.75

(C)

(D)

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Question 813
39.897% of 4331 + 58.779% of 5003 = ?
:

(A) 4300

(B) 4500

(C) 4700

(D) 4900

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

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Question 814
: 43931.03 2111.02 x 401.04 = ?

(A) 8800

(B) 7600

(C) 8300

(D) 9000

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 815 Rubina could get equal number of Rs 55, Rs 85 and Rs 105 tickets for a movie. She
: spents Rs 2940 for all the ticket. How many of each did she buy ?

(A) 12

(B) 14

(C) 16

(D) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: A

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Question 816
A: B: C is in the ratio of 3: 2: 5. How much money will C get out of Rs 1260 ?
:

(A) 252

(B) 125

(C) 503

(D) None of these

Solution : C's share = [C's ratio/ sum of ratios] * total amount

C's share = (5/10) * 1260
C's share = 630

Correct Answer: D

Question 817
If January 1, 1996, was Monday, what day of the week was January 1, 1997 ?
:

(A) Thursday

(B) Wednesday

(C) Friday

(D) Sunday

Solution : The year 1996 is divisible by 4, so it is a leap year with 2 odd days .
As per the question, the first day of the year 1996 was Monday, so the first day of the
year 1997 must be two days after Monday. So, it was Wednesday .

Correct Answer: B

Question 818
:

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(A) 303.75

(B) 305.75

(C)

(D)

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Question 819
:

(A) 48

(B) 38

(C) 28

(D) 18

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

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Question 820
23% of 6783 + 57% of 8431 = ?
:

(A) 6460

(B) 6420

(C) 6320

(D) 6360

Solution : 23% of 6783 + 57% of 8431 = ?

→ ? = 1560 + 4805
? = 6365 ≈ 6360

Correct Answer: D

Question 821 With a two digit prime number, if 18 is added, we get another prime number with
: digits reversed. How many such numbers are possible ?

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 0

(D) 1

Solution : Let the number be 10x + y.

According to condition
10x + y + 18 = 10y + x
y–x=2
so those numbers are 02, 13, 24, 35, 46, 57, 68, 79, 80 But 13 and 79 are prime
numbers.

Correct Answer: A

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Question 822
If a = 2, b = 3, then (ab + ba)-1 is
:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Question 823
The expression x4-2x2 + k will be a perfect square when the value of k is
:

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C)

(D)

Solution : x4 – 2x2 + k
(x2)2 – 2x2 + k (x2)2 – 2.1. x2 + k
For above expression to make a perfect square, the k value is equal to 1.

Correct Answer: A

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Question 824
If ‘a’ be a positive number, then the least value of a + 1/a is
:

(A) 1

(B) Zero

(C) 2

(D) 3

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 825
: If , then is equal to

(A) 10

(B) 12

(C) -12

(D) 14

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

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Question 826 What value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?
:

(A) 27

(B) (36) 2

(C) 6

(D) 36

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 827
: If , then what is the value of

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

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Question 828 If the expression (px3-8x2-qx + 1) is completely divisible by the expression ?(3x2 – 4x
: + 1), then what will be the value of p and q respectively?

(A)

(B) (6, 1)

(C)

(D) (1, 6)

Solution : Let p(x) = px3 – 8x2 – qx + 1

Since, (3x2 – 4x + 1) is factor of p (x), so p (a) = 0
3x2 – 4x + 1 = 0
3x2 – 3x – x + 1 = 0
3x (x – 1) – 1 (x – 1) = 0
(3x – 1) (x – 1) = 0

Correct Answer: C

Question 829 The greatest number which will divide 116, 221, 356 leaving the same remainder in
: each case is

(A) 15

(B) 5

(C) 10

(D) 20

Solution : Let ‘r’ be the remainder → 221 – r, 116 – r, 356 – r are exactly divisible by that
number. Now, if two numbers are divisible by a number, then so is their difference.
→ [(221 – r) – (116 – r)], [(356 – r) – (116 – r)].
And [(356 – r) – (221 – r) are divisible by that number
→ 105, 135, 240 are divisible by that number
= HCF of 105, 135, 140 = 15.

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Correct Answer: A

Question 830
What number has to be added to 345670 in order to make it divisible by 6?
:

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 6

Solution : On dividing the given number 345670 by 6, we get 4 as the remainder.

So 2 must be added to the given number.
ALITER:
For number to be divisible by 6, it must be divisible by 2 and 3.
Unit digit of number is 0, so it is already divisible by 2.
Further, Sum of its digit = 25, and on adding 2 more it becomes divisible by 3 also.
2 must be added.

Correct Answer: A

Question 831 The least number which when divided by 35 leaves a remainder 25, when divided by
: 45 leaves the remainder 35 and when divided by 55 leaves 45 is

(A) 3465

(B) 3645

(C) 3655

(D) 3455

Solution : Since (35 – 25) = 10, (45 – 35) = 10, (55 – 45) = 10.
Now take the LCM of 35, 45, 55 and subtract 10 form it
→ 3465 – 10 = 3455.

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Correct Answer: D

Question 832
The last digit of 2137753 is
:

(A) 9

(B) 7

(C) 3

(D) 1

Solution : Unit digits is 7.

And cyclicity of 7 is 4.
753 = 752 + 1
→ 753 = 188 x 4 + 1
→ Unit digit of (2137)753 will be same as (2137)1 which is 7.

Correct Answer: B

Question 833
In order that the number 1 y 3 y 6 be divisible by 11, the digit y should be
:

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 5

(D) 6

Solution : Use test of 11 after putting y = 5

Correct Answer: C

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Question 834
What is the difference in the place value of 5 in the numeral 754853 ?
:

(A) 49500

(B) 49950

(C) 45000

(D) 49940

Correct Answer: B

Question 835
The number 311311311311311311311 is
:

(A) Divisible by 3 but not by 11

(B) Divisible by 11 but not by 3

(C) Divisible by both 3 and 11

(D) Neither divisible by 3 nor by 11

Solution : 311 is repeated seven times in the number, 311 is not divisible by 3 but 311 repeated
twice is not divisible by 3, but divisible by 11.
Similarly 311 repeated thrice is divisible by 3, but not by 11.
As 311 is repeated seven times, which is neither multiple of 2 nor 3.
So, number is not divisible by 3 or 11.

Correct Answer: D

Question 836
If the product 4864 x 9 P 2 is divisible by 12, the value of P is
:

(A) 2

(B) 5

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(C) 6

(D) None of these

Solution : Clearly, 4864 is divisible by 4.

So, 9P2 must be divisible by 3, so, (9 + P + 2) must be divisible by 3.

P = 1.

Correct Answer: D

Question 837 n n
(x – a ) is completely divisible by (x + a), when
:

(A) n is any natural number

(B) n is an even natural number

(C) n is an odd natural number

(D) n is prime

Solution : (xn – an) is always divisible by (x + a), when n is even natural number.

Correct Answer: B

Question 838 Which of the following statements are true:

:
(i) The rational number lies to the left of zero on the number line.

(ii) The rational number lies to the right of zero on the number line.

(iii) The rational numbers -and are on the opposite side of zero on the
number line.

(iv) The rational numbers and are on the opposite side of zero on the number
line.

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(A) Only (i)

(B) (i) & (ii)

(C) Only (iii)

(D) (i), (ii) & (iv)

Solution : Only (iii)

Correct Answer: C

Question 839 Find the digit at the unit’s place of

: (377)59 x (793)87 x (578)129 x (99)99

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 7

(D) 9

Solution : Since 59 = 4 x 14 + 3 → last digit of (377)59 = 3

87 = 4 x 21 + 3 → last digit of (793)87 = 7
129 = 4 x 32 + 1 → last digit of (578)129 = 8
99 = 2 x 49 + 1 → last digit of (99)99 = 9
Hence the last digit of the result is equal to the last digit of
3 x 7 x 8 x 9, i.e., 2.

Digit at unit’s place = 2

Correct Answer: B

Question 840
If N is the sum of first 13,986 prime numbers, then N is always divisible by
:

(A) 6

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(B) 4

(C) 8

(D) None of these

Solution : N will be an odd number because N is sum of one even number (b) and 13985 odd
numbers.
Hence, N will not be divisible by an even number.

Correct Answer: D

Question 841 If two numbers when divided by a certain divisor give remainder 35 and 30
: respectively and when their sum is divided by the same divisor, the remainder is 20,
then the divisor is

(A) 40

(B) 45

(C) 50

(D) 55

Solution : Divisor = r1 + r2 – r3 = 35 + 30 – 20 = 45
OR
N1 = divisor x p + 35
N2 = divisor x q + 30

Which is obtained only when divisor is

65 – 20 = 45.

Correct Answer: B

Question 842 Find the least number which when divided by 12, leaves a remainder 7, when divided

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: by 15, leaves a remainder 10 and when divided by 16, leaves a remainder 11

(A) 115

(B) 235

(C) 247

(D) 475

Solution : 12 – 7 = 5, 15 – 10 = 5 and 16 – 11 = 5
Hence the desired number is 5 short for divisibility by 12, 15 and 16.
L.C.M. of 12, 15, 16 is 240
Hence the least number = 240 – 5 = 235

Correct Answer: B

Question 843 A number is interesting if on adding the sum of the digits of the number and the
: product of the digits of the number, the result is equal to the number. What fraction of
numbers between 10 and 100 (both 10 and 100 included) is/are interesting ?

(A) 0.1

(B) 0.11

(C) 0.16

(D) 0.22

Solution : Let the numbers be the form 10x + y

According to question
10x + y = x + y + xy
9x = xy
y=9
The numbers are 19, 29, 39, 49, 59, 69, 79, 89 and 99 total of 9 numbers

Hence the required fraction =

= 0.099 ≈ 0.1

Correct Answer: A

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Question 844 If x + y + z = 1 and x, y, z are positive real numbers, then the least value
:
of is

(A) 4

(B) 8

(C) 16

(D) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Question 845
The last digit in (25_)32 and (25_)33 both is 6. The missing digit is:
:

(A) 4

(B) 8

(C) 6

(D) 5

Solution : The last digit in the number must be 6; for only numbers ending in 6, when raised to
any power, result in another no. ending in 6.

Correct Answer: C

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Question 846
: At a college football game, of the seats in the lower deck of the stadium were sold.

If of all the seating in the stadium is located in the lower deck, and if of all the
seats in the stadium were sold, then what fraction of the unsold seats in the stadium
was in the lower deck ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution : Let total number of seats in the stadium be p;

Number of seats in the lower deck be x and number of seats in upper deck be y.

Now in the lower deck, seats were sold and seats were unsold.

No. of total seats sold in the stadium =

No. of unsold seats in the lower deck =

No. of unsold seats in the stadium =

Required fraction =

Correct Answer: A

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Question 847 How many numbers are there between 200 and 800 which are divisible by both 5 and
: 7?

(A) 35

(B) 16

(C) 17

(D) can’t be determined

Solution : In the given range, the last number which is divisible by both 5 and 7. i.e., 35 is 210
and the highest number is 770. So the total number of numbers between 200 and 800
which are divisible by both 5 and 7 is

Correct Answer: C

Question 848 A number which when divided by 32 leaves a remainder of 29. If this number is
: divided by 8 the remainder will be.

(A) Zero

(B) 1

(C) 5

(D) 3

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Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 849 A six digit number which is consisting of only one digits either 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 or
: 9, e.g., 111111, 222222. etc. This number is always divisible by:

(A) 7

(B) 11

(C) 13

(D) All of these

Solution : Since the 7, 11 and 13 all are the factors of such a number so (d) is the correct answer.
OR

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Check out divisibility rule of 13 (which is same as rule of 7).

And clearly it can be seen that number such formed are multiple of 11.

Correct Answer: D

Question 850
The sum and number of even factors of 2450.
:

(A) 9,3534

(B) 18,3500

(C) 12,3524

(D) 4,2453

Solution : Sum of all even factors:

(21) (50 + 51 + 52) (70 + 71 + 72) = 3534
Number of even factors = 1 x 3 x 3 = 9

Correct Answer: A

Question 851
(23)5 + (47)9 = (?)8
:

(A) 70

(B) 35

(C) 64

(D) 18

Solution : (23)5 = (2 x 51 + 3 x 50)10 = (13)10 = (1 x 81 + 5 x 80)8 = (15)8

Also, (47)9 = (4 x 91 + 7 x 90)10 = (43)10
= (5 x 81 + 3 x 80) = (53)8
Sum = (13)10 + (43)10 = (56)10 → (70)8

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Correct Answer: A

Question 852
:
will give the digit at units place as

(A) 4

(B) 6

(C) 8

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Question 853 The sum of first n odd numbers (i.e., 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + … + 2n – 1) is divisible by 11111
: then the value of n is

(A) 12345

(B) 11111

(C) can’t be determined

(D) None of these

Solution : Go through option

Sn = 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + …+ 22221
Since sum of first n odd nos in n2
S11111 = (11111)2
Hence it is divisible by 11111.
Thus option (b) is correct.

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Correct Answer: B

Question 854
The last two-digits in the multiplication 122 x 123 x 125 x 127 x 129 will be
:

(A) 20

(B) 50

(C) 30

(D) 40

Solution : The answer will be 50 since, 125*122 will give 50 as the last two digits.

Correct Answer: B

Question 855 The greatest number that can divide 140, 176, 264 leaving remainders of 4. 6 and 9
: respectively is

(A) 85

(B) 34

(C) 17

(D) 2

Solution : Required number = H.C.F of (140 – 4), (176 – 6) and (264 – 9) = H.C.F. of 136, 170
and 255.

Required number = 17
ALITER:
HCF is either difference of numbers or factor of difference obtained.

HCF must be 170 – 136 = 34 or its factors.

i.e. 34 or 17.
34 does not divide (264 – 9) = 255

17 is HCF

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Correct Answer: C

Question 856 Three tankers contain 403 litres, 434 litres, 465 litres of diesel respectively. Then the
: maximum capacity of a container that can measure the diesel of the three container
exact number of times is

(A) 31 litres

(B) 62 litres

(C) 41 litres

(D) 84 litres

Solution : H.C.F. of 403, 434 and 465 is 31.

OR
HCF is either difference of numbers or factor of difference obtained.

HCF = 434 – 403 = 31.

Correct Answer: A

Question 857 If the sum of the digits of any integer lying between 100 and 1000 is subtracted from
: the number, the result always is

(A) divisible by 5

(B) divisible by 6

(C) divisible by 2

(D) divisible by 9

Solution : (100x + 10y + z) – (x + y + z) = 99x + 9y = 9 (11x + y)

Correct Answer: D

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Question 858 The H. C. F. and L. C. M. of two numbers are 44 and 264 respectively. If the first
: number is divided by 2, the quotient is 44. The other number is

(A) 147

(B) 528

(C) 132

(D) 264

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 859 ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ are three consecutive even integers such that four times ‘A’ is equal to
: three times ‘C’. What is the value of B ?

(A) 12

(B) 10

(C) 16

(D) 14

Solution : Let A = 2x,

B = 2x + 2,
C = 2x + 4
According to option,
4 (2x) = 3 (2x + 4)
→ 8x = 6x + 12
→ 2x = 12
→ B = 14

Correct Answer: D

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Question 860
By which least number should 5000 be divided so that it becomes a perfect square?
:

(A) 2

(B) 5

(C) 10

(D) 25

Solution : According to option,

5000 ÷ 2 = 2500
Hence, 2500 is a perfect square of 50.

Correct Answer: A

Question 861
The least number of five digits exactly divisible by 88 is:
:

(A) 10088

(B) 10023

(C) 10132

(D) 10032

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

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Question 862 What is the smallest value that must be added to 709, so that the resultant is a perfect
: square?

(A) 8

(B) 12

(C) 20

(D) 32

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 863
What is the remainder obtained When 1421 x 1423 x 1425 is divided by 12?
:

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

Solution :

When we divide 1421, 1423 and 1425 then 5, 7 at 9 are the remainders respectively.

Correct Answer: C

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Question 864
Consider the following statements:
:

(A) Every natural number is a real number.

(B) Every real number is a rational number.

(C) Every integer is a real number.

(D) Every rational number is a real number.

Solution : option (b) is correct.

Correct Answer: B

Question 865 All odd prime numbers upto 110 are multiplied together. What is the unit digit in this
: product.

(A) Zero

(B) 3

(C) 5

(D) None of these

Solution : 1 x 3 x 5 x 7 …………. X 109

If any odd number is multiplied by 5 it gives 5 on unit place
Hence final unit digit is 5

Correct Answer: C

Question 866
: The value of is

(A) 1

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(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 867
What is the difference between and 0.9 ?
:

(A) 0

(B) 0.099

(C) 0.1

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(D) 0.09

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 868
:
The value of

(A) Equals to 1

(B) Lies between 0 and 1

(C) Lies between 1 and 2

(D) Is greater than 2

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Question 869 What is the largest power of 10 that divides the product 1 x 2 x 3 x 4 …………….. x
: 23 x 24 x 25 ?

(A) 2

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(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) None of these

Solution : In these type of question number of the pair of 5 and even number makes a multiple of
10
In the product of 1 x 2 x 3 x 4 x ……. x 24 x 25
Number of multiples of 5 = 5 (5, 10, 15, 20, 25)
Here 25 is a pair of 5 (25 = 5 x 5)
Number of 5 in this product = 6
Number of even numbers in this product = 12
Hence required power of 10 is 6

Correct Answer: D

Question 870 How many numbers are there in the set S = {200, 201, 202, …. 800} which are
: divisible by neither of 5 or 7 ?

(A) 411

(B) 412

(C) 410

(D) None of these

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Solution :

Correct Answer: A

Question 871
The last digit of the LCM of (32003– 1) and (32003+ 1) is
:

(A) 8

(B) 2

(C) 4

(D) 6

Solution : The given numbers are two consecutive even numbers, so their HCF = 2
Now, using LCM x HCF = Product of two numbers LCM x 2 = (…6) x (…8)
It can be seen now that the unit digit of LCM = 4

Correct Answer: C

Question 872 On dividing 2272 as well as 875 by 3-digit number N, we get the same remainder. The

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: sum of the digits of N is:

(A) 10

(B) 11

(C) 12

(D) 13

Solution : Clearly (2272 – 875) = 1397, is exactly divisible by N. Now 1397 = 11 x 127

The required 3 – digit number is 127, the sum of whose digits is 10.

Correct Answer: A

Question 873 There are two integers 34041 and 32506, when divided by a three-digit integer n, leave
: the same remainder. What is the value of n ?

(A) 298

(B) 307

(C) 462

(D) can’t be determined

Solution : Let the common remainder be x. Then numbers (34041 – x) and (32506 – x) would be
completely divisible by n. Hence the difference of the numbers (34041 – x) and (32506
– x) will also be divisible by n.
Or (34041 – x – 32506 + x) = 1535 will also be divisible by n.
Now, using options we find that 1535 is divisible by 307.

Correct Answer: B

Question 874 After distributing the sweets equally among 25 children, 8 sweets remain. Had the
: number of children been 28, 22 was the total number of sweets?

(A) 328

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(B) 348

(C) 358

(D) Data inadequate

Solution : Let the total number of sweets be (25x + 8).

Then, (25x + 8) – 22 is divisible by 28
(25x – 14) is divisible by 28
28x – (3x + 14) is divisible by 28
(3x + 14) is divisible by 28
x = 14.
Total number of sweets = (25 x 14 + 8) = 358.

Correct Answer: C

Question 875
Find the remainder when 799is divided by 2400.
:

(A) 1

(B) 343

(C) 49

(D) 7

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Question 876
Which of the following in true?
:

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(A) The cube of an odd integer is of the form 8q + 1, where q is an integer.

(B) The square of an odd integer is of the form 8q + 1, where q is an integer.

(C) The fourth power of any integer is of the form 10q + 1 where q is an integer

(D) None of these

Solution : Square of the odd numbers can be written as

12 = 8 x 0 + 1, 32 = 8 x 1 + 1, 52 8 x 3 + 1 & so on i.e.,
Square of the odd number is of the form 8q + 1.

Correct Answer: B

Question 877
How many whole numbers between 100 and 800 contain the digit 2 ?
:

(A) 200

(B) 214

(C) 220

(D) 240

Solution : between 100 and 199, there will be 19 numbers which contain ‘2’, they are as follows.
102, 112, 120 – 129 (10 numbers), 132, 142, 152, 162, 172, 182, 192.
Similar would be the case for 300 – 399, 400 – 499, 500 – 599, 600 – 699.
For 200 – 299, all 100 numbers will have 2.

Total number of numbers containing

‘2’ = 19 x 6 + 100 = 114 + 100 = 214.

Correct Answer: B

Question 878 Let a, b, c, d and e be integers such that a = 6b = 12c, and 2b = 9d = 12 e. Then which
: of the following pairs contains a number that is not an integer ?

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(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Question 879
Find the total number of prime factors in 217 x 631 x 75 x 1011 x 1110 x (323)23
:

(A) 162

(B) 161

(C) 346

(D) 97

Solution : 217 x 631 x 75 x 1011 x 1110 x (323)23

= 217 x 231 x 331 x 75 x 211 x 511 x 1110 x 1723 x 1923
= 259 x 331 x 511 x 1110 x 1723 x 1923
Total numbers of prime factors

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= 59 + 31 + 11 + 5 + 10 + 23 + 23 = 162

Correct Answer: A

Question 880
If N = 1! – 2! + 3! – 4! + ….. + 47! – 48! + 49!, then what is the unit digit of NN ?
:

(A) 0

(B) 9

(C) 7

(D) 1

Solution : The unit digit of every term from 5! To 49! Is 0.

Also, 1! – 2! + 3! – 4! = 1 – 2 + 6 – 24 = - 19
Hence, the unit digit of N will be 10 – 9 = 1
The unit digit of NN will also be 1.

Correct Answer: D

Question 881
Find the remainder when 73 x 75 x 78 x 57 x 197 is divided by 34.
:

(A) 22

(B) 30

(C) 15

(D) 28

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Solution :

Correct Answer: A

Question 882 Let x denote the greatest 4-digit number which when divided by 6, 7, 8, 9 and 10
: leaves a remainder of 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 respectively. Then, the sum of the four-digits of x
is and 8 respectively. Then, the sum of the four-digit of x is

(A) 25

(B) 18

(C) 20

(D) 22

Solution : The number will be a multiple of 6, 7, 8, 9, 10

LCM of 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 = 2520
Largest 4-digit number divided by this = 7560
Required number = 7560 – 2 = 7558
Sum of the digits of this number = 25

Correct Answer: A

Question 883 Two different two-digit natural numbers are written beside each other such that the
: larger number is written on the left. When the absolute difference of the two numbers
is subtracted from the four-digit number so formed, the number obtained is 5481. What
is the sum of the two two-digit numbers ?

(A) 70

(B) 71

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(C) 72

(D) 73

Solution : As the larger number is written on the left, the larger number is either 54 or 55.
Let the smaller number be x.
Case I: The larger number is 54.
5400 + x = 5481 + 54 – x
2x = 5535 – 5400 = 135
(In this case x will not be a natural number)
Case II: The larger number is 55.
5500 + x = 5481 + 55 – x
2x = 5536 – 5500 = 36
→ x = 18
hence, the required sum = 73.

Correct Answer: D

Question 884 The highest power of 17 which can divide exactly the following expression:
: (182-1) (184-1) (186-1) (188-1) (1810-1) x …….

(A) 1

(B) 17

(C) 9

(D) can’t be determined

Solution : (182 - 1) = (17) (18 + 1)

(184 – 1) = (182 + 1) (182 – 1)
= (182 + 1) (18 + 1) (18 – 1)
(186 – 1) = (183)2 – 1
= (183 + 1) (183 – 1) = 17 x k etc.
Hence there will only 9 times 17 in the whole expression.

Correct Answer: C

Question 885 The remainder when the number 123456789101112 …………… 484950 is divided by

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: 16 is

(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 6

Solution : The remainder when a number is divided by 16 is given by the remainder of the last 4
digits divided by 16 (because 10000 is a multiple of 16. This principle is very similar
in logic to why we look at last 2 digits for divisibility by 4 and the last 3 digits for

divisibility by 8). Thus, the required answer would be the remainder of which
is 6.

Correct Answer: D

Question 886 What would be the sum of

: 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + 11 + 13 + 15 + ….. up to 15th term ?

(A) 250

(B) 240

(C) 225

(D) 265

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

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Question 887 If 13 + 23 + ………. + 93 = 2025, then the approx. value of (0.11)3 + (0.22)3 + ……
: (0.99)3 is

(A) 0.2695

(B) 0.3695

(C) 2.695

(D) 3.695

Solution : (0.11)3 + (0.22)3 + …. + (0.99)3

= (0.11)3 [13 + 23 + … 93]
= (0.11)3 x 2025 = 2.695

Correct Answer: C

Question 888
Find GCD (2100 – 1, 2120 – 1).
:

(A) 220- 1

(B) 240- 1

(C) 260- 1

(D) 210 - 1

Solution : (2100 – 1) and (2120 – 1) will yield the GCD as 220 - 1.

OR
GCD of (am – 1), (an – 1) = aGCD(m, n) – 1
→ GCD = 220 – 1

Correct Answer: A

Question 889 When the digits of a two digit natural number are interchanged then original number is
: greater than four times the new number so obtained. How many such natural numbers
are there which satisfy the above given condition? Ignore the numbers which have ‘0’

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in its unit place.

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 5

(D) 6

Solution : Let the original number by xy

According to given condition
(10x + y) > 4 (10y + x)
6x – 39y > 0
On putting y = 1
x has to be more than or equal to 7
so for y = 1,
Possible values for x are 7, 8, 9
So, 3 numbers are possible when y is 1
(71), (81), (91)
Values greater than 1 are not possible for y.
So, there are 3 possible numbers.

Correct Answer: B

Question 890
: Which one among is the smallest number ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) All are equal

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Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Question 891
What is the simplified value of (2 + 1) (22 + 1) (24 + 1) (28 + 1)?
:

(A) 28-1

(B) 216-1

(C) 232-1

(D) 264-1

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Question 892 A person goes to a market between 4 p.m. and 5 p.m. When be comes back, he finds

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: that the hour hand and minute hand have interchanged their positions. For how much
time (approximately) was he out of his house ?

(A) 55.25 minutes

(B) 55.30 minutes

(C) 55.34 minutes

(D) 55.38 minutes

Solution : Let us assume that he was out of house for ‘t’ min.
So angle formed by min. hand = 6 x t
Angle formed by hour hand = 0.5 x t
Now, 0.5 x t + 6 x t = 360
→ 6.5 t = 300

Correct Answer: D

Question 893 Consider all positive two digit numbers each of which when divided by 7 leaves a
: remainder 3. What is their sum ?

(A) 661

(B) 666

(C) 676

(D) 777

Solution : No.s divided by 7 leaing 3 as reminder are –

7 + 3 = 10
14 + 3 = 17
21 + 3 = 24
28 + 3 = 31
35 + 3 = 38
42 + 3 = 45
49 + 3 = 52
56 + 3 = 59
63 + 3 = 66
70 + 3 = 73
77 + 3 = 80

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84 + 3 = 87
91 + 3 = 94
Total 13 terms.
Sum = 3 + 13 + 7 [1 + 2 + 3 + …. + 13]

= 39 + 637
= 676

Correct Answer: C

Question 894
What would be the maximum value of Q in the equation 5P9 + 3R7 + 2Q8 = 1114 ?
:

(A) 9

(B) 8

(C) 5

(D) 4

Solution :

Correct Answer: A

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Question 895 If (x + 1) is the HCF of Ax2 + Bx + C and Bx2 + Ax + C where A ≠ B, then the value
: of C is

(A) A

(B) B

(C) A-B

Solution : If (x + 1) is HCF then x = -1 will satisfy both the equation –

A (-1)2 + B (-1) + C = 0
→A–B+C=0 ………(a)
2
B (-1) + A (-1) + C = 0
→ B – A + C = 0 ……..(b)
Adding eqs. (a) and (b)
A–B+C+B–A+C=0
2C = 0
C=0

Correct Answer: D

Question 896
The HCF of two expressions p and q is 1. What is the reciprocal of their LCM ?
:

(A) p+q

(B) p-q

(C) pq

(D) (pq)-1

Solution :

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Correct Answer: D

Question 897
What is the remainder when 2100 is divided by 101 ?
:

(A) 1

(B) 11

(C) 99

(D) 100

Solution : 21, divided by (1 + 1) R = 0

22, divided by (2 + 1) R = 1
23, divided by (3 + 1) R = 0
24, divided by (4 + 1) R = 1
Same for even paper 100
2100, is divided by (100 + 1), R = 1

Correct Answer: A

Question 898
: . If where x ≠ 1, y ≠ 1, z ≠ 1, then what is the value of
abc?

(A) -1

(B) 1

(C) 0

(D) 3

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Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Question 899
The sum of prime numbers that are greater than 60, but less than 70 is
:

(A) 128

(B) 191

(C) 197

(D) 260

Solution : sum of prime numbers that are greater than 60, but less than 70 is
61 + 67 = 128

Correct Answer: A

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Question 900
: When is converted into a fraction the result is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Passage : information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

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We have the following equations:

a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Question 901
Chemistry but not in Physics.
:

(A) 318

(B) 198

(C) 213

(D) 206

Solution : Chemistry but not Physics = c + f = 206

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

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We have the following equations:

a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Question 902
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
:

(A) 558

(B) 718

(C) 628

(D) None of these

Solution : Physics and Maths but not Chemistry = a + e + g = 628.

Correct Answer: C

Passage : For the next four question that follow:

In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30%
read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

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Let x% people read all the three newspapers.

Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25

Question 903
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
:

(A) 20%

(B) 25%

(C) 30%

(D) 40%

Solution : Hence people who read all the three newspapers = 25%

Correct Answer: B

Passage : For the next four : question that follow :

In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30%
read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

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Let x% people read all the three newspapers.

Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25

Question 904
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
:

(A) 19%

(B) 31%

(C) 44%

(D) None of these

Solution : (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) = 94 – 3x

= 98 – 3 x 25 = 23
Hence percentage of people who read only two newspapers = 23%

Correct Answer: D

Passage : For the next four : question that follow :

In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30%
read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

Let x% people read all the three newspapers.

Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25

Question 905 What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?

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(A) 38%

(B) 48%

(C) 51%

(D) None of these

Solution : (x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) = 3x – 27
= 3 x 25 – 27 = 48
Hence percentage of people who read only one newspaper = 48%

Correct Answer: B

Passage : For the next four : question that follow:

In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30%
read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

Let x% people read all the three newspapers.

Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25

Question 906
What is the percentage of persons who read only A but neither B nor C ?
:

(A) 4%

(B) 3%

(C) 1%

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(D) None of these

Solution : x – 24 = 25 – 24 = 1
Hence percentage of people who read only newspaper A but neither B nor C = 1%

Correct Answer: C

Passage : For the next four : question that follow:

In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30%
read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

Let x% people read all the three newspapers.

Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25

Question 907
If A and B are any two sets, then what is A ᴖ (A ᴗ B) equal to ?
:

(A) Complement of A

(B) Complement of B

(C) B

(D) A

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Solution :

A ᴖ (A ᴗ B) = (A ᴖ A) ᴗ (A ᴖ B) = A ᴗ (A ᴗ B)
= A (by diagram)
Thus, A ᴖ (A ᴖ B) = A

Correct Answer: D

Passage : For the next four : question that follow:

In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30%
read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

Let x% people read all the three newspapers.

Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25

Question 908 40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the
: papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper ?

(A) 10%

(B) 15%

(C) 20%

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(D) 25%

Solution : n(A) = 40, n(B) = 50, n(A ᴖ B) = 10

n(A ᴗ B) = n(A) + n(B) – n(A ᴖ B) = 40 + 50 – 10 = 80.
Percentage reading either or both newspapers = 80%
Hence, percentage reading neither newspaper = (100 – 80)% = 20%

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and
tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like
lassi.

Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi

Question 909 The passengers who like only coffee is greater than the passengers who like only lassi
: by

(A) 25%

(B) 100%

(C) 75%

(D) 0%

Solution : The passengers who like only coffee = 20% and the passengers who like only lassi =
10%
Required passengers = 100%

Correct Answer: B
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Passage : Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and
tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like
lassi.

Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi

Question 910
The percentage of passengers who like both tea and lassi but not coffee, is
:

(A) 15

(B) 25

(C) 40

(D) 75

Solution : It can be seen that the percentage of passengers who like both tea and lassi but not
coffee = 15%. This is the figure representing this area

Correct Answer: A

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Passage : Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and
tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like
lassi.

Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi

Question 911
The percentage passengers who like at least 2 of the coffee, tea and lassi, is
:

(A) 30

(B) 45

(C) 50

(D) 60

Solution : The percentage of passengers who like at least 2 of the coffee, tea and lassi can be seen
in the below figure:

Correct Answer: C
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Passage : Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and
tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like
lassi.

Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi

Question 912 If the number of passengers is 180, then the number of passengers who like lassi only,
: is

(A) 10

(B) 18

(C) 27

(D) 36

Solution : 10% of the people like only lassi. So, the number of persons = 18

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and
tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like
lassi.

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Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi

Question 913 In a town three newspapers A, B and C are published. 42% of the people in that town
: read A, 68% read B, 51% read C, 30% read A and B, 28% read B and C, 36% A and C
and 18% do not read any paper. Find the % of the population of town that reads all the
three.

(A) 15%

(B) 25%

(C) 20%

(D) 35%

Solution : n(A ᴖ B ᴗ C) = n(A) + n(B) + n(C) – n (A ᴗ B)

-n (A ᴖ C) – n (B ᴗ C) + n(A ᴖ B ᴗ C)
→ 100 – 18 = 42 + 68 + 51 – 30 – 28 – 36 + x
→ x = 15

Correct Answer: A

Passage : In the adjoining figure, I and II are circles with ceners P and Q respectively. The two circle
touch each other and have a common tangent that touches them at points R and S respectively. This
common tangent meets the line joining P and Q at O. The diameters of I and II are in the ratio 4 : 3. It
is also known that the length of PO is 28 cm.

Question 914
What is the ratio of the length of PQ to that of QO?
:

(A) 1:4

(B) 1:3

(C) 3:8

(D) 3:4

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Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Passage : A committee of five members is to be formed out of 5 Males, 6 Females and 3 Children. In
how many different ways can it be done if ?

Question 915
The committee should consist of 2 Males, 2 Females and 1 child ?
:

(A) 450

(B) 225

(C) 55

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(D) 90

Solution : Number of ways = 5C2 x 6C2 x 3C1 = 450

Correct Answer: A

Passage : A committee of five members is to be formed out of 5 Males, 6 Females and 3 Children. In
how many different ways can it be done if ?

Question 916
The committee should include all the 3 Childs?
:

(A) 90

(B) 180

(C) 21

(D) 55

Solution : Number of ways = 11C2 x 3C3 = 55

Correct Answer: D

Passage : A committee of five members is to be formed out of 5 Males, 6 Females and 3 Children. In
how many different ways can it be done if ?

Question 917 In how many different ways can 4 boys and 3 girls be arranged in a row such that all
: the boys stand together and all the girls stand together ?

(A) 75

(B) 576

(C) 288

(D) 24

Solution : Required number of ways = 4! x 3! x 2! = 288.

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Correct Answer: C

Passage : An urn contains 4 green, 5 blue, 2 red and 3 yellow marbles.

Question 918 If four marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability that two are blue and two
: are red ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution :

Correct Answer: A

Passage : An urn contains 4 green, 5 blue, 2 red and 3 yellow marbles.

Question 919 If eight marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability that there are equal

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: number of marbles of each other ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Passage : An urn contains 4 green, 5 blue, 2 red and 3 yellow marbles.

Question 920 If two marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability that both are red or at least
: one is red ?

(A)

(B)

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(C)

(D)

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: E

Passage : There are three bags A, B and C. In each bag there are three types of colored balls Yellow,
Green and Black. In bag A, no. of Yellow colored balls are y and no. of green colored balls are g.
Number of green colored balls are 4 more than the number of yellow colored balls. When one ball is

picked at random then the probability of getting black color ball is The value of y is less

than g. In bag B, number of yellow colored balls is more than that of bag A. If two balls are

picked at random from bag B then the probability of getting both green color ball is . Total
number of balls in bag B is 75.
In bag C, the ratio of number of green colored balls and number of black colored balls is 7 : 5. Total
number of green and black colored balls is 36. If one ball is picked at random then the probability of

getting one yellow ball is

Question 921 If x number of yellow balls from bag B are taken and placed into bag A and 20% of
: black balls from bag A are taken and placed into in bag B. If we pick one ball from

bag B then the probability that the ball is of black color is . Then find the value of
x?

(A) 5

(B) 6

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(C) 3

(D) 2

Solution : After replacement →

Yellow no. of balls in bag B = 22 – x
Black no. of balls in bag B = 28 + 5 = 33
Green no. of balls in bag B = 25

Correct Answer: D

Passage : There are three bags A, B and C. In each bag there are three types of colored balls Yellow,
Green and Black. In bag A, no. of Yellow colored balls are y and no. of green colored balls are g.
Number of green colored balls are 4 more than the number of yellow colored balls. When one ball is

picked at random then the probability of getting black color ball is The value of y is less

than g. In bag B, number of yellow colored balls is more than that of bag A. If two balls are

picked at random from bag B then the probability of getting both green color ball is . Total
number of balls in bag B is 75.
In bag C, the ratio of number of green colored balls and number of black colored balls is 7 : 5. Total
number of green and black colored balls is 36. If one ball is picked at random then the probability of

getting one yellow ball is

Question 922 If one ball picked at random from each of the bag A and bag B then find the
: probability that both of the balls are of the same color ?

(A)

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(B)

(C)

(D) Can’t be determined

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Passage : There are three bags A, B and C. In each bag there are three types of colored balls Yellow,
Green and Black. In bag A, no. of Yellow colored balls are y and no. of green colored balls are g.
Number of green colored balls are 4 more than the number of yellow colored balls. When one ball is

picked at random then the probability of getting black color ball is The value of y is less

than g. In bag B, number of yellow colored balls is more than that of bag A. If two balls are

picked at random from bag B then the probability of getting both green color ball is . Total
number of balls in bag B is 75.
In bag C, the ratio of number of green colored balls and number of black colored balls is 7 : 5. Total
number of green and black colored balls is 36. If one ball is picked at random then the probability of

getting one yellow ball is

Question 923 Difference between the number of green balls in bag A and bag C is how much
: percent more/less than the sum of the number of black balls in bag A and bag C
together ?

(A) 100%

(B) 95%

(C) 97.5%

(D) 102.5%

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Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Passage : There are three bags A, B and C. In each bag there are three types of colored balls Yellow,
Green and Black. In bag A, no. of Yellow colored balls are y and no. of green colored balls are g.
Number of green colored balls are 4 more than the number of yellow colored balls. When one ball is

picked at random then the probability of getting black color ball is The value of y is less

than g. In bag B, number of yellow colored balls is more than that of bag A. If two balls are

picked at random from bag B then the probability of getting both green color ball is . Total
number of balls in bag B is 75.
In bag C, the ratio of number of green colored balls and number of black colored balls is 7 : 5. Total
number of green and black colored balls is 36. If one ball is picked at random then the probability of

getting one yellow ball is

Question 924 Panas has 15 yellow, pink and white balls in his bag. Number of each balls is different
: in the bag. Difference between yellow ball and pink ball is same as difference between
pink ball and white ball. Probability of selecting one while ball from the bag is greater
than 0.2, then number of while balls in the bag can be
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 7
(E) 9

(A) Only B, C, D and E

(B) Only B, D, E

(C) All A, B, C, D and E

(D) Only C, D, E

Solution : Let number of yellow, pink and white balls be x, y and z respectively
OR,
x–y=y–z

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5z > 3y
If y = 5, then z > 3
If y = 10, then z > 6, but this isn’t possible

Correct Answer: B

Passage : There are three bags A, B and C. In each bag there are three types of colored balls Yellow,
Green and Black. In bag A, no. of Yellow colored balls are y and no. of green colored balls are g.
Number of green colored balls are 4 more than the number of yellow colored balls. When one ball is

picked at random then the probability of getting black color ball is The value of y is less

than g. In bag B, number of yellow colored balls is more than that of bag A. If two balls are

picked at random from bag B then the probability of getting both green color ball is . Total
number of balls in bag B is 75.
In bag C, the ratio of number of green colored balls and number of black colored balls is 7 : 5. Total
number of green and black colored balls is 36. If one ball is picked at random then the probability of

getting one yellow ball is

Question 925 In a bag which contains 60 pens, there are 27 blue pens and some black and red pens.

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: If two pens are picked up from the bag without replacement, then the probability of
the first pen being blue and second being black is 9/59. Find the number of red pens
in the bag.

(A) 16

(B) 13

(C) 10

(D) 14

Solution : Total pens = 60

Blue pens = 27
Let black pens are x

→ x = 20
No. of red pens = 60 – 20 – 27 = 13

Correct Answer: B

Passage :

Percentage of marks obtained by seven students in six subjects

Subject
(Max Eng His Com Maths Science Econ
Marks I (100) (100) 100 (100) (100) (100)
Students

Meera 100 80 50 90 90 60

Subodh 80 70 80 100 80 40

Kunal 90 70 60 90 70 70

Soni 60 60 65 80 80 80

Richu 50 90 62 80 85 95

Irne 40 60 64 70 65 85

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Vijay 80 80 35 65 50 75

Question 926
What is the total marks obtained by Meera in all the subject ?
:

(A) 448

(B) 580

(C) 470

(D) 74.67

(E) None of these

Solution : Total marks obtained by Meera

= 100 + 80 + 50 + 90 + 90 + 60 = 470

Correct Answer: C

Passage :

Percent profit earned by two companies over the given years.

Question 927
If the income of Company A in 2002 was Rs. 600 crores, what was its expenditure?
:

(A) Rs.360 crores

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(B) Rs. 480 crores

(C) Rs. 375 crores

(D) Cannot be deterrmined

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Crude oil Price (in RS) per given below :

Crude oil Price (in RS) per metric tonne

Question 928 If in April the crude oil price had been lesser than the given by Rs 223 per metric
: tonne then, how much would have been the percentage increase in pricre over the
earlier month?

(A) 10

(B) 12

(C) 14

(D) 16

(E) None of these

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Solution :

Correct Answer: E

Passage : Production of a company (in lakh units) over the given years

Question 929
The prodution in 2002 is what percent of production in 1996 ?
:

(A) 650%

(B) 550%

(C) 325%

(D) 320%

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: A

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Passage : Percentage of marks obtained by six students in six subjects is –

Faculty

Institution Arts Commerce Science Engineering Management

A 125 187 216 98 74

B 96 152 198 157 147

C 144 235 110 164 127

D 165 138 245 66 36

E 215 196 287 86 66

F 184 212 195 112 97

G 225 206 182 138 89

Question 9 Approximately what is the overall percentage of marks obtained by Q in all the subjects
30 : ?

(A) 77

(B) 72

(C) 78

(D) 70

(E) 74

Solution : Total marks obtained by Q in all subjects

= 55% of 60 + 70% of 40 + 67% of 80 + 74% of

50 + 88% of 120 + 78% of 75

= 33 + 28 + 53.60 + 37 + 105.6 + 58.50 = 315.7

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percentage of markes =

Correct Answer: E

Passage : Number of students studying in different faculties in seven institutions.

Faculty

Institution Arts Commerce Science Engineering Management

A 125 187 216 98 74

B 96 152 198 157 147

C 144 235 110 164 127

D 165 138 245 66 36

E 215 196 287 86 66

F 184 212 195 112 97

G 225 206 182 138 89

Question 931 What is the percentage of students studying science in the institue G with respect to the
: total number of students studying in the institute G?

(A) 17.20

(B) 12.70

(C)

(D)

(E) None of these

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Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Production of two companies A & B over the years (Production in lakh units).

Question 932 For Company A, in which year is the percentage increase/decrease in the production
: from the previous year the highest ?

(A) 2001

(B) 1995

(C) 1999

(D) 1996

(E) None of these

Solution : From the graph's slope, it is obvious that the maximum % increase is in the year 1966,
i.e., 166.67%

Correct Answer: D

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Passage : Centrewise and Postwise number of candidates

Post Specialist Center Officer Clerk Filed Officer Supervisor

Bangalore 2000 5000 50 2050

Delhi 15000 17000 160 11000

Mumbai 17000 19500 70 7000

Hyderabad 3500 20000 300 9000

Kolkata 14900 17650 70 1300

Lucknow 11360 15300 30 1500

Chennai 9000 11000 95 1650

Question
Which centre has the highest number of candidates ?
933 :

(A) Delhi

(B) Kolkata

(C) Hyderabad

(D) Mumbai

(E) None of these

Solution : No. of candidates in different centres:

Bangalore = 3550; Mumbai = 44470; Delhi = 43910; Hyderabad = 33950; Kolkata =

35120;

Lucknow = 28840; Chennai = 22245

Correct Answer: D

Passage : A factory was opened in 1994 with certain initial strengths in different untis as shown in
the table. At the beginning of the subsequent years some of the workers left and some new workers
were deployed. No worker left or joined in between. Details are given in the table given below. Study

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it carefully and answer the questions that follow.

UNIT

Year A B C

1994 156 132 98

(Initial Strength) L J L J L J

1995 12 15 23 32 12 36

1996 17 18 16 14 8 19

1997 9 20 12 12 17 14

1998 32 40 14 17 23 35

1999 22 35 11 15 18 25

2000 26 32 17 21 13 18

Question 9
In 1999 the strength of workers was maxmium in which unit ?
34 :

(A) E

(B) D

(C) C

(D) B

(E) A

Solution : Strength of worders in 1999

A B C D E

192 146 149 135 125

Correct Answer: E

Passage : Percentage of students passed over appeared from six States over the years in an admission

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test.

State/Year A B C

1996 32 35 37

1997 45 26 29

1998 28 38 22

1999 36 42 38

2000 40 34 26

2001 24 29 33

2002 35 43 40

Question If the average number of students qualified from State E for the given years was 532, what
935 : was the average number of students appeared ?

(A) 1420

(B) 1350

(C) 1422

(D) Cannot be determined

(E) None of these

Solution : Total no. of student qualifed from state E over the years = 532 × 7 = 3724.

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Number of bales of wool processed by 5 woollen mills

Name Of Company

Month Polar Shephered Kiwi Warmwear

Jan 900 850 350 1000

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Feb 800 700 1050 1100

March 1050 800 1000 1100

April 800 850 850 1100

May 950 900 1050 1150

Total 4500 4100 4900 5450

Question In the case of which mill is the processing of wool in March the highest percentage of the
936 : total processing by that mill during the five month period ?

(A) Polar

(B) Shephered

(C) Kiwi

(D) Warmwear

(E) Comfy

Solution : Percentage processing of wool in the month of March by different companies.

Polar = 23.33%, Shephered = 19.51%,

Kiwi = 20.41%, Warmwear = 20.18%

Comfy = 21.84%

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Study the following graph carefully and answer the question given below

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Question 937 In the case of Cool–sip drink, what was the approximate percent increase in sale in
: 1992 over its sale in 1991?

(A) Less than 20

(B) 20 –25

(a) Less than 20 (b) 20 –25

(c) 25 (d) 31 – 35

(e) 36 – 40

(C) 25

(D) 31 – 35

(E) 36 – 40

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Passage : In 6 educational years, number of studeunts taking admission and leaving from the 5
different schools which are founded in 1990 are given below.

School A B C

AD L AD L AD L AD

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1990 1025 - 950 - 1100 - 1500

1991 230 120 350 150 320 130 340

1992 190 110 225 115 300 150 300

1993 245 100 185 110 260 125 295

1994 280 150 200 90 240 140 320

1995 250 130 240 120 310 180 360

In th above table shown Ad = Admitted, L = Left

Question 9 In which of the following schools, percentage increase in the number of students from
38 : the year 1990 to 1995 is maximum?

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) D

(E) E

Solution : Increase in no. of students in school A

= (230 – 120) + (190 – 110) + (245 –100)

+ (280 – 150) + (250 – 130), = 585

% increase from 1990 (1025) to 1995

A B C D E

57.07% 64.73% 64.09% 61.03% 62.41%

Correct Answer: B

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Passage :

Production (in lakh tons) of six units of a company in 2001 and 2002

Question 939 Average production of three A, B & C in 2001 is what percent of the average
: production of units D, E & F in 2002? (rounded off to two digits after decimal).

(A) 109.43

(B) 90.37

(C) 91.38

(D) 106.43

(E) None of these

Solution :

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Correct Answer: C

Passage : Percentage profit earned by two companies over the given years.

Question 940 If the total income of Company A in 1999 was equal to the expenditure of Company B
: in 2000, then what was the ratio of expenditure of Company A in 1999 to the income
of Company B in 2000?

(A) 25 : 66

(B) 66 : 25

(C) 10 : 13

(D) 13 : 10

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: A

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Passage : Percentage of malnourished children in Chile over the years

Year Tested Number (in thousand) Percentage of the malnoarished

1984 998 Law

1985 1015 12.5

1985 1048 12.1

1986 1071 11.9

1987 1048 10.8

1990 1023 10.4

1991 1048 10.0

1992 1.63 8.70

1993 1161 7.80

Question What is the difference between the total numbers of the malnourished children in the
941 : years 1991 and 1986 ?

(A) Zero

(B) 46112

(C) 22008

(D) 41920

(E) None of these

Solution : Total number of the malnourished children in year

(i) 1991 = (10.0 + 1.4 + 0.1)% of 1048000

= 11.5% of 1048000

(ii) 1986 = (12.0 + 3.0 + 0.8)% of 1048000

= 15.9% of 1048000

Hence, the required difference

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= (15.9 – 11.5)% of 1048000 = 46112

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Production of paper (in lakh tonnes) by 3 different companies A, B and C over the years

Question 942 For which of the following years the percentage of rise/fall in production from the
: previous year the maximum for Company B ?

(A) 1992

(B) 1993

(C) 1994

(D) 1995

(E) 1996

Solution : Percentage rise/fall in production for B

1992 1993 1994 1995 1996

9% -16.6% 10% -9% 10%

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Correct Answer: B

Passage : Production (in lakh tonnes) of six companies over the given years

1995 1996 1997

A 465 396 524

B 372 482 536

C 694 528 492

D 576 602 387

E 498 551 412

F 507 635 605

Question What is the difference between average production for the given years of companies B and
943 : E (in lakh tonnes rounded off to two digits after decimal) ?

(A) 56.50

(B) 45.50

(C) 45.67

(D) 55.78

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(E) None of these

Solution
:

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Study the following table carefully to answer these question

Distribution of marks obtained by 160 students in each of the three subjects-Hindi,English

and Maths - out of 100

Sub/Marks 0-19 20-39 40-59 60-79 80-100

Hindi 12 31 79 30 8

English 21 30 65 42 2

Maths 31 22 34 45 28

Average of three subjects 24 28 68 35 5

Question 944 If for passing, the student has to obtain minimum 60% marks on average of three
: subjects, how many students will pass ?

(A) 40

(B) 108

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(C) 68

(D) 73

(E) None of these

Solution : Marks 60-79 80-100

Average of three subjects 35 5

Hence, required no. of students = 35 + 5 = 40

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Number of cars (In thousands) of different Models and Colours sold in two Metro cities in
a year

Type Metro M Metro H

Colour Colour

Black Red Blue White Silver Black Red Blue White Silver

A 40 25 55 75 15 45 32 40 60 20

B 20 35 60 80 20 30 37 39 81 35

C 35 30 50 90 35 40 42 41 6 37

D 45 40 45 85 40 35 39 37 90 42

E 50 35 35 60 30 50 44 43 77 22

F 55 42 40 65 52 47 34 45 87 17

Question 945 The total number of silver-coloured cars sold in Metro H is approximately what
: percentage of that in Metro M ?

(A) 130

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(B) 140

(C) 90

(D) 100

(E) 110

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Marks (out of 50) obtained by five students P, Q, R, S and T in five subjects in five
periodical examination of each subject.

Subjects

Sub P Q R

Periodicals

I II III IV V I II III IV V I II III IV

Maths 40 30 45 20 35 30 20 35 45 40 30 35 40 45

Sc. 30 40 25 30 20 25 45 30 37 28 48 46 31 40

His. 35 25 15 30 40 33 27 40 34 26 35 45 40 30

Geo. 45 47 32 39 37 42 43 30 40 25 25 35 48 37

Eng 24 28 36 39 43 30 28 37 34 31 26 28 31 30

Subjects

Sub S T

Periodicals

I II III IV V I II III IV

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Maths 25 35 40 45 30 29 31 39 41

Sc. 31 34 38 27 30 44 36 40 30

His. 34 40 36 42 48 37 43 35 45

Geo. 39 37 44 40 30 38 39 33 40

Eng 31 34 35 45 40 30 30 35 45

Question 94
What was the average marks of the five subjects of student Q in the 1st periodical ?
6:

(A) 32

(B) 34

(C) 40

(D) 30

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: A

Passage : The percentage of five different types of cars produced by the company during two years is
given below.

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Question 947 If the percentage production of B type cars in 1997 was the same as that of 1996, what
: would have been the number of cars produced in 1997?

(A) 1,12,500

(B) 1,20,000

(C) 1,30,000

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

Solution : Percentage production of B type cars in 1997 = that in 1996 (given)

= (40 – 15) = 25% of 5,20,000 = 1,30,00

Correct Answer: C

Passage :

The production of fertilizer in lakh tons by different companies for three years 1996, 1997 & 1998

Question 948 What is the ratio between average production by Company B in three years to the
: average production by company C in three years?

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(A) 6:7

(B) 8:7

(C) 7:8

(D) 7:6

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Study the following table to answer the given question.

Number of students of different classes of a school playing different games.

Class ->
XII XI X IX VIII V
Games

Chess 11 12 5 4 2

Criket 38 40 12 17 25 1

Basket Ball 11 9 7 6 0

Table Tennis 9 9 21 19 12 1

Football 40 27 18 19 12 1

Caroom 16 15 8 19 12 1

Tennis 8 9 11 5 6

Badminton 47 39 33 21 19

Question 9 Approximately what percent of Class X students play the Table Tennis out of the total

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49 : Class X students playing the different given games ?

(A) 20

(B) 21

(C) 27

(D) 26

(E) 18

Solution : Total Class X students who play different games

= 115

Correct Answer: E

Passage :

Question 950
What is the percent profit earned in 2001 – 2002 ?
:

(A) 200

(B) 125

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(C) 100

(D) 12.5

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Passage :

Average Production of six machines for the given years in thousands

Year Machine Machine Machine Machine Machine

I II III IV V

1999 620 400 1020 2050 680

1998 680 400 1040 2070 670

1997 640 403 1043 2130 680

1996 700 399 1060 1908 690

1995 706 397 1080 1603 685

Question 9
For which year and the machine has the production been highest for the given data?
51 :

(A) 1999, IV

(B) 1998, IV

(C) 1997, III

(D) 1996, IV

(E) None of these

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Solution : 1997, Machine IV

Correct Answer: E

Passage : Highest marks and average marks obtained by students in subjects over the years The
maximum marks in each subject is 100.

Students

English Hindi Maths

High Avg High Avg High Avg High

1992 85 62 75 52 98 65 88

1993 80 70 80 53 94 60 89

1994 82 65 77 54 85 62 95

1995 71 56 84 64 92 68 97

1996 75 52 82 66 91 64 92

1997 82 66 81 57 89 66 98

Question 9 The highest marks in Hindi in 1993 was what percent of the average marks in
52 : Mathematics in 1996 ?

(A) 135

(B) 130

(C) 125

(D) 140

(E) None of these

Solution :

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Correct Answer: C

Passage :

Area and Production of Different Vegetables

Area Production
Vegetable
(in Hectare) (in Tonnes)

Tomato 2600 79092

Beans 2100 20895

Onion & Garlic 1500 29490

Cabbage 1700 42670

Root & Vegetable 800 18560

Bringal 300 4500

Pea 7200 72729

Leafy Vegetable 2900 28600

Question 953 How many more tonnes per hectare cabbage were produced in comparison to
: cauliflower ?

(A) 5.3

(B) 4.5

(C) 3.5

(D) 5.5

(E) None of these

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Solution :

Correct Answer: E

Passage : Study the following pie–chart carefully to answer these question.

Total Expenditure RS 60 Lacs

Question 954 What is the difference between the expenditure mady by univeristy for Publication of
: Journals and Psychoylogy Laboratory?

(A) Rs 4 lacs

(B) Rs3 lacs

(C) Rs 4.2 lacs

(D) Rs 3.8 lacs

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

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Passage : The circle graph given here shows the spending of a country on various sports during a
particular year. Study the graph carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Question 955 If the total amount spent on sports during the year be Rs 18000000, then the amount
: spent on basketball exceeds on Tennis by.

(A) Rs 250000

(B) Rs 360000

(C) Rs 375000

(D) Rs 410000

(E) Rs 30000

Solution : Ammount spent on basketball exceeds that on tennis by

Correct Answer: A

Passage : The graph given below represents the number of users of two broadband services A and
B across 5 cities P, Q, R, S and T.

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Question 956 The number of users of brand A in city T is what percent of the number of users of
: brand B in City Q ?

(A) 150

(B) 110

(C) 140

(D) 160

(E) 120

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Marks Obtained by Five Students in Physis and

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Question 957 What is the respective ratio between the total marks obtained by P in Physics and
: Chemistry together to the total mards obtained by T in Physics and Chemistry together
?

(A) 3:2

(B) 4:3

(C) 5:3

(D) 2:1

(E) None of these

Solution : Total marks obtained by P in Physics and Chemistry

= 130 + 90 = 220

Total marks obtained by T in Physics and Chemistry

= 50 + 60 = 110

Correct Answer: D

Passage : The pie–chari given below shows the distribution of workforce by occupational category
for country X in 1981 and 1995. Study the chari and answer the question.

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Question 958
In 1981, the number of Sevice workers in the workforce, in millinos, was
:

(A) 15.0

(B) 20.5

(C) 22.5

(D) 28.0

Solution : In 1981, no. of service workers = 15% of 150 = 22.5 million

Correct Answer: C

Passage : The following table shows the productions of food–grains (in million tons) in a state for
the period 1999 – 2000 to 2003 – 2004. Read the table and answer the question.

Production (in million tons)

Year Wheat Rice Barley Other cereals

1999-2000 680 270 250 450

2000-2001 800 420 440 300

2001-2002 680 350 320 460

2002-2003 720 400 380 500

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2003-2004 820 560 410 690

Question 959 In the year 2003 – 2004, the increase in production was maximum over the previous
: year for:

(A) Rice

(B) Barley

(C) Other cereals

(D) Wheat

Solution :

Correct Answer: A

Passage : The bar chart representing the number of first year B. Com. students of St. Xavier's
College using different companies' smart phones.

The bar chart representing the no. of students using different smart phones.

Question 960 The ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls using the smart phones of
: Samsung and Sony together is .

(A) 12 : 13

(B) 13 : 12

(C) 14 : 11

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(D) 11 : 14

Solution : (100 + 160) : (180 + 60)

= 260 : 240 = 13 : 12

Correct Answer: B

Passage : The following pie-chart shows the monthly expenditure of a fimily on food, house rent,
clothing, education, fuel and miscellaneous.

Question 961 If the percentage of expenditure on food is x% of the total percentage of expenditure
: on clothing, education and fuel, then x equals.

(A) 66

(B)

(C)

(D) 67

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

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Passage :

Circle graph given below shows the expenditure incurred in bringing out a book by a publisher.

Question 962
If the cost of printing is RS 17,500, the Royalty is:
:

(A) RS 8750

(B) RS 6300

(C) RS 7500

(D) RS 3150

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Sales of Books (in thousand numbers) from Six Branches - B1, B2, B3, B4, B5 and B6 of a
Publishing Company in 2000 and 2001.

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Question 963 Find the ratio of the total sales of branch B2 for both years to the total sales of branch
: B4 for both years.

(A) 2:3

(B) 3:5

(C) 4:5

(D) 7:9

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Passage : The diagram shows the age distribution of the patients admitted to a hospital in a particular
day.

Question 964 About 11% of the patient who got admitted to the hospital on that particular day were
: of age

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(A) either between 35 years and 40 years or between 55 years and 60 years

(B) between 60 years and 65 years

(C) between 35 years and 40 years

(D) between 35 years and 40 years and between 55 years and 60 years

Solution :

Correct Answer: A

Passage : The following pie-chart represents the profits earned by a certain company in seven
causecutive years. Study the pie-chart carefully and answer the question.

Question 965 If x% of the total of profits earned in all the given years is same as the profit earned in
: the year 1994, then x is.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution :

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Correct Answer: A

Passage : Graph which shows income and expenditure of a company over the years 2005-2009 and
answer the question.

Question 966 In how many years was the income of the company less than the average income of the
: given years ?

(A) 4

(B) 3

(C) 2

(D) 1

Solution :

Income during 2005 and 2007 is less than average.

Correct Answer: C

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Passage : The pie chart given below shows the break-up of number of hours of teaching various
subjects at an institute by Mr. Raghav.

Question 967 If Mr. Raghav taught a total of 500 hours, then what is the difference in number of
: hours of teaching algebra and modern Maths?

(A) 15

(B) 20

(C) 25

(D) 40

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

Passage : The pie chart given below shows the expenditre (in percentage) of Mahesh. The monthly
income of Mahesh is RS 26000.

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Question 968 If he invests 65% of his savings on purchasing gold then how much amount (in Rs)
: does he spend on gold ?

(A) 3312

(B) 4124

(C) 3522

(D) 3718

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Study the following table and answer the following questions carefully. Following table
shows the percentage population of six state below poverty line and the proportion of male and
female.

Percentage
Sales population below Preparation of male and female
poverty line

Below poverty Above

line M : F line

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A 12 3:02 4

B 15 5:07 3

C 25 4:05 2

D 26 1:02 5

E 10 6:05 3

F 32 2:03 4

Question If the total population of C and D together is 18000, the what is the total no. of females
969 : below poverty line in the above stated states?

(A) 5000

(B) 5500

(C) 4800

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

Solution : Since, we cannot find the population of states C and D separatily, we can't find the
required value.

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Percentage of marks obtained by six students in six different subjects.

Psy Socio Econ Philos Statis

Stu/Sub
(150) (120) (80) (75) (125)

A 72 65 85 65 88

B 63 73 69 57 68

C 63 73 69 57 68

D 56 65 77 61 75

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E 78 55 82 76 59

F 84 70 64 78 82

Note : Figures written in bracket under each subject indicate the maximum marks allotted for that
subject.

Question 9
What is the total mark obtained by 'A' in Psychology Economics and Geology together ?
70 :

(A) 219.2

(B) 229

(C) 209.8

(D) 229.6

(E) None the these

Solution :

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Fare in rupees for three different types of vehicles.

Vehicle Fare of distance upto

2 Km 4 Km 7 Km 10 Km 15 Km 20 Km

Type A Rs. 5.00 Rs. 9.00 Rs. 13.50 Rs. 17.25 Rs. 22.25 Rs. 26.

Type B Rs. 7.50 Rs. 14.50 Rs. 24.25 Rs. 33.25 Rs. 45.75 Rs. 55.

Type C Rs.10.00 Rs. 19.00 Rs. 31.00 Rs. 41.50 Rs. 56.50 Rs. 69.

Note : Figures written in bracket under each subject indicate the maximum marks allotted for that
subject.

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Question 9 Shiv Kumar has to travel a distance of 15 kms in all. He decides to travel equal distance
71 : by each of the three types of vehicles. How much money is to be spent as fare?

(A) Rs 51.75

(B) Rs 47.50

(C) Rs 47.25

(D) Rs 51.25

Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Passage :

Statewise and Disciplinewise Number of Candidates Appeared (App.) and Qualified (Qual.) at a
competitive Examination).

State A.P. U.P. Kerala Orissa M.P. W.B. Total

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Disipline APP. Qual. APP. Qual. APP. Qual. APP. Qual. APP. Qual. APP. Qual. APP. Qual

Arts 5420 1840 4980 1690 2450 845 3450 1200 7500 2000 4800 1500 28600 9075

Commerce 8795 2985 6565 2545 3500 2040 4800 2200 8400 2400 7600 2700 39660 14870

Science 6925 2760 8750 3540 4250 2500 4500 1950 6850 3000 8500 3200 39775 1695

Engineering 1080 490 2500 1050 1200 450 1850 850 2500 750 3400 1400 12530 4990

Agriculture 2040 850 1085 455 700 200 450 150 1500 475 1200 500 5775 2130

Total 23060 8425 23880 9280 12100 6035 15050 6350 26750 8625 25500 9300 123640 48015

Question 97 For which of the following states the percentage of candidates qualified to appeared is
2: the minimum for commerce discipline?

(A) AP

(B) UP

(C) Kerala

(D) Orissa

(E) MP

Solution : Percentage of students qualified in commerce

A.P. U.P. Kerala Orissa M.P.

33.9 38.7 58.2 45.8 28.5

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Correct Answer: E

Passage :

Production of main crops in India (in million tonnes)

Crops 91-92 92-93 93-94 94-95 95-96

Pulses 20.5 22.4 24.6 23.5 27.8

Oilseeds 32.4 34.6 40.8 42.4 46.8

Rice 80.5 86.4 88.2 92.6 94.2

Sugercane 140.8 150.2 152.2 160.3 156.4

Wheat 130.2 138.4 146.8 141.6 152.2

Coarse grain 45.6 52.8 60.4 62.4 58.2

Sum 450 484.8 513.2 522.8 535.6

Question 9 In which of the following years the total production of oilseeds in the years 1994 - 95,
73 : 1995 - 96 and 1996 - 97 was equal to the production of wheat ?

(A) 1993 - 94

(B) 1994 - 95

(C) 1996 - 97

(D) 1992 - 93

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(E) None of these

Solution : Total production of oilseeds in the given years

= 42.4 + 46.8 + 52.4 = 141.6.

Which is equal to the production of wheat in

1994 – 95.

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Packaging Materials Used (In tonnes)

Aluminium Iron Glass Paper Plastic

Question 974 What percent of all the packaging materials used for packing beverages was
: contributed by paper? (Find the answer up to two decimal places).

(A) 2.42

(B) 3.41

(C) 2.41

(D) 3.42

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: C

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Passage :

Production (in crore unties) of six companies over the year

Company Years

1997 1998 1999 2000

TP 103 150 105 107

ZIR 75 80 83 86

AVC 300 300 300 360

CTU 275 280 281 280

PEN 25 30 35 40

SIO 85 87 89 91

Total 863 927 893 964

Question The production of Company AVC in 2000 is approximately what percent of its average
975 : production over the given years?

(A) 300

(B) 110

(C) 136

(D) 18.25

(E) 95

Solution : Production of company AVC in 2000 = 360 crore units Average production of AVC over
the given years

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Correct Answer: B

Passage :

The students of a school have an option to study only Hindi, only Sanskrit or a composite subject
Hindi and Sanskrit. Out of, the 175 students in the school, boys and girls are in the ratio of 3 : 4
respectively. 40% of boys have opted for only Hindi. 44% of the students have opted for only
Sanskrit. Out of the total number of girls 32% have opted for the composite subject. The number of
boys who opted for only Sanskrit and that for composite subject are in the ratio 2 : 1 respectively.

Question 976 : What is the ratio between the number of boys who have opted for only Hindi and the
number of girls who have opted for the compsite subject respectively ?

(A) 15 : 16

(B) 10 : 7

(C) 10 : 9

(D) 11 : 12

(E) None of these

Solution : Reqd ratio = 30 : 32 = 15 : 16

Correct Answer: A

Passage :

Total population of a village is 35000. Out of these 70% are literate. 44% of the total population are
females. Out of the total illiterate population, males and females are in the ratio of 28 : 47
respectively.

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Question 977
What is the ratio of illiter to literate females ?
:

(A) 63 : 47

(B) 47 : 63

(C) 16 : 47

(D) 47 : 16

(E) None of these

Solution : (65 : 80) = 47 : 63 [140 is common in the ratio.]

Correct Answer: B

Passage :

Number of students studying different disciplines at graduate level from Stare 'A' over the years.

Discopline/year Arts Commerce Science Agriculture

1997 2400 3200 4200 840

1998 2250 3500 4820 760

1999 3050 2850 4550 1120

2000 2800 3640 4680 930

2001 2980 3080 5220 780

2002 2770 3800 3950 810

Question For which of the following years, percentage increase/decrease in the number of students
978 : studying Commerce with respect to the previous year is the maximum ?

(A) 1998

(B) 1999

(C) 2000

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(D) 2001

(E) 2002

Solution : We do not need to calculate the values for all years. By simple comparison we can find
the solution; e.g., For the first three years (1997, 1998, 1999), year 1999 has maximum
percentage decrease form the previous year. Now, consider one more year, i.e., year 2000.
The difference between the no. to Commerce students for 1998 & 1999 is less than the
defference between that for the years 1999 & 2000. Hence, Hence, till now year 2000 has
maximum percentage increase. Similarly, we can proceed year by year.
[Note: For the same difference, or nearly same difference between two pairs of year, the
percentage increment/decrement will be more for lesser base value.

Correct Answer: C

Passage : (i) The ratio of the populations of males, females and children 10 years old and above is
11 : 10 in State 'A'. Out of which 40% males or 8800 are literate, 20% children (10 year old and
above) are illiterate while 30% females are literate.

(ii) The number of children below 10 years of age is 10% of the number of females. 5% of the total
poputation of the State are below poverty line and 80% of them are illiterate.

Question 979
How many women are illiterate ?
:

(A) 20000

(B) 6000

(C) 14400

(D) 16800

(E) None of these

Solution : 14000

Correct Answer: E

Passage :

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Average marks obtained by 20 boys and 20 girls in five subjects from five different schools

Subject/Max Marks P Q R

B G B G B G

Eng 200 85 90 80 75 1

Hist 100 40 55 45 50 5

Geo 100 50 40 40 45 6

Math 200 120 110 95 85 1

Science 200 105 125 110 120 1

In above table, B = Boys and G = Girls

Question 9 In which of the following subjects did the girls have highest average percentage of
80 : marks from all the schools ?

(A) Science

(B) Geography

(C) English

(D) History

(E) Mathematics

Solution : From visual inspection it is clear that Science is the desired subject.

Note: Our visual observation says that it is either Math or Science in which maximum
marks has been obtained. So, compare the total of Maths and Science only.

Correct Answer: A

Passage :

Percent profit earned by the two companies A & B over the year

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Question 981 If the expenditure of Company B increased by 20% from 1995 to 1996, the income in
: 1996 will be how many times the income in 1995 ?

(A) 2.16 times

(B) 1.5 times

(C) 1.8 times

(D) equal

(E) None of these

Solution :

OR : Exam Approach : % profits are the same for two years. So if expendituere
increases by 20% the income should also increase by 20%. Hence the required ratio

Correct Answer: E

Passage : Degree Wise Break-up Expenditure of a Family in a Month Total Amount Spent in a
Month of Rs 45,800

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Question 982
What is the amount spent by the family on commuting ?
:

(A) RS 10,076

(B) RS 10,534

(C) RS 6,870

(D) RS 8,702

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: A

Passage : The source of funds to be collected by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)
for its phase II project. Study the pie chart and answers the questions that follow.
Sources of Funds to be Arranged by NHAI for Phase II Projects (in Rs crore)

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Total Fund = RS 57600 crore

Question 983 If the toll is to be collected through an outsourced agency by allowing a maximum
: 10% commission, how much amount should be permitted to be collected by the
outsourced agency so that the project is supported with 4900 RS crore ?

(A) RS 6213 crore

(B) RS 5827 crore

(C) RS 5401 crore

(D) RS 5316 crore

(E) None of these

Solution : Amount permitted = x

9x = 4900

=>x = 5444.4 cr.

Correct Answer: E

Passage :

Area and Population of different states

States Area (in sq Kilometres) Populatio

A 6230 1

B 2540 8

C 8135 6

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D 7436 5

E 4893 7

F 3718 2

G 4297 8

Question
What is the approximate ratio of the areas of state B to the areas of state A and G together.
984 :

(A) 1 : 3.8

(B) 1 : 3.5

(C) 1 : 5.2

(D) 1 : 4.5

(E) 1 : 4.1

Solution : Required answer = 2540 : (6230 + 4297)

= 10527 » 1 : 4.1

Correct Answer: E

Passage : Following chart shows the number of students in different universities

Percentage of listeners fo different FM channels in National Capital Region

FM Channels
Universities

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Radio Radio Red Red

Rainbow
Mirchi City FM Gold

Indraprastha 76% 72% 46% 54% 48%

Hamdard 63% 64% 59% 47% 53%

JNU 52% 65% 64% 51% 54%

DU 82% 44% 32% 35% 45%

Jamia 75% 32% 36% 52% 64%

Question 985
How many students of JNU listen to Radio city.
:

(A) 15200

(B) 15600

(C) 14400

(D) 14600

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Study the following table carefully and answer accordingly :

The different five-star hotel projects completed by different companies.

No. of Year of
Project Cost (Rs cr)
rooms Complecation

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A 600 275 1998

B 320 210 1999

C 250 250 1999

D 400 430 1998

E 520 310 2000

F 450 400 1998

G 500 250 2000

Question What is the approximate average number of rooms that would be built per crore of rupees
986 : over the three year period ?

(A) 1.25

(B) 1.70

(C) 0.90

(D) 1.40

(E) 1.55

Solution : Total no. of rooms over the three–year period

= 600 + 320 + 250 + 400 + 520 + 450 + 500

= 3040

reqd average no. of rooms per crore of rupees

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Contribution of different sources of water to fulfil the requirement in Delhi

and consumption of water foe different uses by two major sources.

Total consumption of water = 720 milion litres

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Question 987 What is the ratio of supply of Jehlum water and underground water together to
: consumption of Yamuna water for domestic purposes and Ganga water for Agriculture
puroses together ?

(A) 17 : 23

(B) 5:8

(C) 17 : 22

(D) 18 : 23

(E) None of these

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Solution :

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Number of students (in thousands) in two different universities in six different years
Number of students

Question 988 What is the sum of the number of students in university-1 in the year 2007 and the
: number of students in university-2 in the year 2011 together ?

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(A) 50000

(B) 55000

(C) 45000

(D) 57000

(E) 40000

Solution : Number of students in university I in 2007 = 10,000

Number of students in university II in 2012 = 30,000

Total students = 10,000 + 30,000 = 40,000

Correct Answer: E

Passage :

Number of Players participating in the different games in five different schools.Number of players
participating in three different games in five different schools.

Question 989 Number of players participating in Kho–Kho from school–4 is what percent of number
: of players participating in hockey from school–2 ?

(A) 42

(B) 48

(C) 36

(D) 40

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(E) 60

Solution : No. of Kho–Kho players in school–4 = 32

No. of hockey players in school–2 = 80

Correct Answer: D

Passage : Pecentagewise distribution of employees in six different proffresions Total number of

employees = 26800

Question 990 What is the difference between the total numbere of employees is in teaching and
: medical profession together and the number of employees in management profession
?

(A) 6770

(B) 7700

(C) 6700

(D) 7770

(E) 7670

Solution : No. of employees in teaching and medical = 42%

No. of employees in management = 17%

Difference = 42 – 17 = 25%

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Correct Answer: C

Passage : Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow :

Monthly bill (in rupees) of landline phone,electricity,laundry and mobile phone piad by three different
people in five different months

Month Monthly Bills

Landline Phone Electricity Laund

Ravi Dev Manu Ravi Dev Manu Ravi Dev

March 234 190 113 145 245 315 93 323

April 124 234 321 270 220 135 151 134

May 156 432 211 86 150 98 232 442

June 87 123 124 124 150 116 213 324

July 221 104 156 235 103 131 413 532

Question 9 What is the difference between the mobile phone bill paid by Ravi in the month of May
91 : and the laundary bill paid by Dev in the month of March ?

(A) RS 180/–

(B) RS 176/–

(C) RS 190/–

(D) RS167/–

(E) RS196/–

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Solution : Mobile phone bill paid by Ravi in May = RS 143

Loundry bill paid by Dev in March = RS 323

Difference = 323 – 143 = RS 180

Correct Answer: A

Passage :

Station Arrival Departure Halt time Distance travelled from

Name time time (in minutes) origin (in Km)

Dadar Starting point 12.05 am - 0 km

Vasai Road 4.15 am 12.56 am 3 minutes 42 Km

Surat 4.15 am 4.20 am 5 minutes 257 Km

Vadodara 6.05 am 6.10 am 5 minutes 386 Km

Anand Jn. 6.43 am 6.45 am 5 minutes 422 Km

Nadiad Jn. 7.01 am 7.03 am 2 minutes 440 Km

Ahmedabad 8.00 am 8.20 am 20 minutes 486 Km

Bhuj 5.40 pm Ending point - 977 Km

Question
Distance between which two stations is second lowest ?
992 :

(A) Nadiad Jn. to Ahmedabad

(B) Anand Jn. to Nadiad Jn.

(C) Dadar to Vasi Road

(D) Anand Jn. to Vadodara

(E) Vasai Road to Surat

Solution
Distance between Anand Jn. to Vadodara is second lowest.
:

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Correct Answer: D

Passage : Study the pie-chart and table carefully to answer the questions that follow :

Pie-chart showing percentagewise distribution of cars in fear different Total cars=700 Distribution of
cars

Table Showing ratio between diesel and petrol engine cars which are distributed among four different
states

State Diesel Engine Cars Petrol Engine Cars

State-1 3 4

State-2 5 9

State-3 5 3

State-4 1 1

Question 99 Number of petrol engine cars in state-3 is what percent more than the number of diesel
3: engine cars in state-1?

(A) 100

(B) 200

(C) 300

(D) 125

(E) 225

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Solution : Petrol cars in S-3 = 84

Diesel cars in S-1 = 42

Correct Answer: B

Passage : Number of people visiting six differnt Super-markets and the percentage of men,women
and childern visiting those Super-markets

Names of the Super-Markets Total of People

Men

A 34560 35

B 65900 37

C 45640 35

D 555500 41

E 42350 6

F 59650 24

Question What is the respective ratio of number of women visiting Super–markets A to those
994 : visiting Super market ?

(A) 35 : 37

(B) 245 : 316

(C) 352 : 377

(D) 1041 : 1156

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(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: E

Passage : Prefrence of students among six beverages in terms of degree of angle in the pie-chart total
no. of students=6800

Question 995 What is the difference between the total number of students who prefer Beverage A
: and C together and the total number of students who prefer Beverage D and F together
?

(A) 959

(B) 955

(C) 952

(D) 954

(E) None of these

Solution :

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Correct Answer: C

Passage : Percentage of marks Obtained by Different Students in Different

Subjects of MBA

Students Subjects (Maximum Marks)

Starategic Brand Compensation

Consumer Behaviour (125) Serv
Management (150) Management (100) Management (150)

Anushka 66 75 88 56

Archit 82 76 84 96

Arpan 76 66 78 88

Garvit 90 88 96 76

Gunit 64 70 68 72

Pranita 48 56 50 64

Question What are the average marks obtained by all students together in Compensation
996 : Management ?

(A) 116

(B) 120

(C) 123

(D) 131

(E) None of these

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Solution :

Correct Answer: A

Passage : Time Taken to Travel (in Hours) by Six vehicles on Two Different Days

Distance Covered (in Kilometers) by six Vehicles on Each Day

Vehicle Day 1 Day 2

A 832 864

B 516 774

C 693 810

D 552 765

E 935 546

F 703 636

Question 997 What was the difference between the speed of vehicle A on day 1 and the speed of
: vehicle C on the same day ?

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(A) 7 km/hr.

(B) 12 km/hr.

(C) 11 km/hr.

(D) 8 km/hr.

(E) None of these

Solution : Speed of vehicle A on day 1 = 52 km/hr

Speed of vehicle C on day 1 = 63 km/hr

Difference = 63 – 52 = 11 km/hr

Correct Answer: C

Passage : Pie-chart and table carefully and answer the question given below :

Percentagewise Distribution of the Number of Mobile Phones Sold by a Shopkeeper During Six
Months phones sold = 45,000

The respective ratio between the number of mobile phones sold of company A and company B during
six months

Months Ratio

July 8:7

August 4:5

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September 3:2

October 7:5

November 7:8

December 7:9

Question 998 The number of mobile phones sold of company A during July is approximately What
: percent of the number of mobile phone sold of company A during December ?

(A) 110

(B) 140

(C) 150

(D) 105

(E) 130

Solution : Number of mobile phones sold of company

A during July = 4080

Number of mobile phones sold by company A

during December = 3150

Correct Answer: E

Passage : Number of people taking Fresh Loans from Different Banks over the year and the
percentage of Defaulters Amongst them each Year

Year Bank

P Q R

2004 27361 26345 25467

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2005 32081 27456 32652

2006 25361 28637 32652

2007 23654 29045 32561

2008 36125 30467 25495

2009 35465 31963 27649

2010 34135 31974 28283

Approximate Percentage of Defaulters Among them each Year

Year Bank

P Q R

2004 12 9 15

2005 24 8 17

2006 22 13 16

2007 18 11 18

2008 12 10 13

2009 11 20 11

2010 9 21 12.0

Question Approximately how many people taking a loan from Bank S in the year 2006 were
999 : defaulters ?

(A) 6490

(B) 6210

(C) 5020

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(D) 6550

(E) 5580

Solution : Required number of people

= 21% of 29565 = 6208.65 = 6210

Correct Answer: B

Passage : The question are based on the following data. The distribution of appeared and qualified
aspirants in competitive examination from different States.

Total appered aspirants = 45000 Total qualified aspirants = 9000

Question 1000 What is the percentage of qualified aspirants with respect to appeared aspirants from
: states B and C taken together? (Rounded off to two decimal places.).

(A) 23.11

(B) 24.21

(C) 21.24

(D) 23

(E) None of these

Solution :

Correct Answer: B

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