Solutions

Irrigation Engineering
2025 • Work Book

1 Introduction to Irrigation and Methods of Irrigation

4 Water Logging and Quality of Irrigation Water
8 Water Requirement of Crops
26 Design of Unlined and Lined Canals
47 Design and analysis of Gravity Dam
88 Conveyance Structures for Canals and Canal Outlets/ Modules
65 Theories of Seepage
73 River Training Works & Diversion Headworks
80 Dams (general), Spillways & Energy Dissipators
 Page 1

Chapter 1
Introduction to Irrigation and Methods of Irrigation

Multiple Choice Questions

Q. 1 The best method for applying irrigation water to sandy undulating area is
(a) free flooding
(b) furrow method
(c) sub-irrigation
(d) sprinkler irrigation

Answer: D
Sprinkler irrigation is the best method for applying water to sandy, undulating areas
because it's suited to sandy soils with high infiltration rates. Sprinklers spread water
uniformly over the land surface when needed, similar to natural rainfall, and avoid surface
ponding and runoff. The average application rate is set to be less than the soil's basic
infiltration rate.

Q. 2 A sprinkler irrigation system is suitable when

(a) the land gradient is steep and the soil is easily erodible
(b) the soil is have low permeability
(c) the water table is low
(d) the crops to be grown have deep roots

Answer: A
The conditions favoring the use of sprinkler irrigation method are:
i) When the land topography is irregular.
ii) When the land gradient is steeper and the soil is easily erodible.
iii) When the land soil is excessively permeable.
iv) When the water table is high.
v) When the seasonal water requirement is low.
vi) When water availability is difficult and scarce.

Q. 3 Which one of the following techniques of water distribution in the farms is

sometimes called wild flooding?
(a) Free flooding
(b) Check flooding
(c) Border flooding
(d) Furrow irrigation method
Answer: A
 Page 2

Q. 4 In drip irrigation method, the drip nozzles are fixed on laterals, discharging
water at a very small rate of the order of
(a) 0.1 to 1 litre per hour
(b) 1 to 2 litre per hour
(c) 2 to 10 litre per hour
(d) 10 to 15 litre per hour
Answer: C
The drip nozzles, also called emitters, or valves, are fixed on laterals, at regular intervals
at about 0.5-to-1 m or so, discharging water at very small rates of at 2 to 10 liters per hour.

Q. 5 Assertion (A): Sprinkler method of irrigation has a higher water

application/use efficiency.
Reason (R): Sprinkler system causes less interference in cultivation and other
farming operations. (a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of
𝐴
(b) both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true but 𝑅 is not a correct explanation of 𝐴
(c) 𝐴 is true but 𝑅 is false
(d) 𝐴 is false but 𝑅 is true
Answer: C
In sprinkler irrigation efficiency up to 80-85% can be obtained, but due to network of pipes
interference in farming operations is a great problem.

Conventional Questions
Q. 6 Determine the time required to cover an area of 0.1 hectares when a
discharge of 0.03 m3 /s is released to a field. The average depth of flow is 7.5 cm
and the infiltration rate is 5 cm/hr.
Answer: 56 minutes
𝐴 = 0.1 hectares

= 0.1 × 104 m2 = 1000 m2 .

𝑄 = 0.03 cumecs = 0.03 m3 /sec = 0.03 × 60 × 60 m3 /hr = 108 m3 /hr
5
𝑓 = 5 cm/hr = m/hr = 0.05 m/hr, ; 𝑦 = 7.5 cm = 0.075 m.
100

We know

𝑦 𝑄
𝑡= log e ( )
𝑓 𝑄 − 𝑓𝐴
0.075 108
𝑡= log e ( ) hr,
0.05 108 − 0.05 × 1000
= 0.932 hr = 56 minutes.
 Page 3

Q. 7 Determine the area that can be irrigated by 25 litres/sec of water, if the

infiltration rate is 4 cm/hr.
Answer:
2250 m2
Maximum area that can be irrigated

𝑄 25 × 10−3 2 2250
𝐴max = = −2 m = 2250 m2 = hectares = 0.225 hectares.
𝑓 10 104
4x 60 × 60

(End of Chapter)

“If ‘A’ is success in life, then ‘A’ = ‘x’ + ‘y’ +

‘z’. Work is ‘x’, ‘y’ is play, and ‘z’ is keeping
your mouth shut”
― Albert Einstein
 Page 4

Chapter 2
Water Logging and Quality of Irrigation Water

Multiple Choice Questions

Q. 1 A soil sample has an exchangeable sodium percentage of 16%, its electrical
conductivity is 3.2 milli-Mho/cm and pH of 9.5 . How is the soil classified?
(a) Saline soil
(b) Saline-alkaline soil
(c) Alkaline soil
(d) None of the above
Answer: C
Use following table
SI. No. Classification Electrical Conductivity in Exchangeable Sodium 𝐩𝐇 value
micro-mho/cm Percentage (ESP)
1. Saline soil > 4000 < 15 ≤ 8.5
2. Alkaline soil < 4000 > 15 8.5 to 10.0
3. Saline-alkali soil > 4000 > 15 < 8.5

Q. 2 Which one of the following is not a major deterrent in water harvesting

through water tanks?
(a) Deforestation mainly due to population pressure in the catchments of tank
systems
(b) Siltation
(c) Lack of maintenance and repairs and breaches of tank embankments
(d) Shallow depth of water tanks
Answer: A
Water harvesting is a technique of collection and storage of rainwater into natural reservoirs
or tanks, or the infiltration of surface water into subsurface aquifers (before it is lost as
surface runoff). Water harvesting systems may be defined as artificial methods whereby
precipitation can be collected and stored until it is beneficially used.
The system includes:
1) a catchment area, usually prepared in some manner to improve run off efficiency
2) a storage facility for the harvested water, unless the water is to be immediately
concentrated in the soil profile of a smaller area for growing drought-hardy plants.
A water distribution scheme is also required for the systems devoted to subsistence farming
for irrigation during dry periods. Major deterrent in water harvesting through water tank:
1. Siltation
2. Lack of maintenance and repair and breaches of tank embankment.
3. Shallow depth of water tank.
 Page 5

Q. 3 Which one of the following is not the main cause for soil salinity and sodicity?
(a) Irrigation mismanagement
(b) Poor land levelling
(c) Use of heavy machinery, resulting in no soil compaction
(d) Leaching without adequate drainage
Answer: C
Causes of soil salinity and sodicity:
1. Major reason for bringing in excessive salts in the plant root zone is the use of excessive
irrigation water or having very wet weather conditions (excessive rains), which are man-
made and natural respectively.
2. The primary natural cause for these two is the parent material of the soils within the
state and the underlying sodium-rich shale that is present in the bedrock below the soil
sediments.
3. Irrigation mismanagement
4. Poor land levelling
5. Leaching without adequate drainage

Q. 4 A tile drainage system draining 12 hectares, flows at a design capacity for

two days, following a storm. If the system is designed using a drainage coefficient
of 1.25 cm, how much of water will be removed during this period?
(a) 1500 m3
(b) 4500 m3
(c) 3000 m3
(d) 3500 m3
Answer: C
Given:
Drainage coefficient = 1.25 cm/day
(Drainage coefficient is defined as depth of water to be drained out in 24 hrs. i.e one day
from drainage area)
Area = 12 ha = 120000 m2
Water removal period = 2 days
The volume of water removed = Drainage coefficient X Area X Time
= (1.25/100) X 120000 X 2
= 3000 m3

Q. 5 If the sodium ions increase to about 10% or more, the soil becomes
(a) less permeable and of poorer tilth
(b) more permeable
(c) good tilth
(d) more permeable and of better tilth
 Page 6

Answer: A
The percentage of the Na ions is generally less than 5% of the total exchangeable cat-ions.
If this % increases to about 10% or more, the aggregation of soil grains breaks down. The
soil becomes less permeable and poorer tilth.
Note: In agriculture, tilth is the physical condition of soil, which is important for plant growth. It
refers to the soil's ease of tillage, fitness as a seedbed, and its promotion of seedling emergence
and root penetration. Good soil tilth is usually equated with aggregation, which is when smaller
aggregates are clumped together.

Conventional Questions
Q. 6 Classify the irrigation water:
[Na+ ] = 345mg/𝑙
[Ca2+ ] = 60mg/l
[Mg 2+ ] = 18mg/l
Electrical conductivity = 250𝜇Mho/cm(25∘ C)
Answer: S-1 & C-1
In the given question

345
EPM of Na = = 15
23

18
EPM of Mg = = 1.5
12

60
EPM of Ca = =3
20

Now,
15
𝑆𝐴𝑅 =
√3 + 1.5
2

= 10, Hence it is S-1 Soil.

Also, Electrical conductivity =250μMho/cm(25 0C), hence it is C-1 Soil

Q. 7 Determine the total quantity of water required for a crop with 𝐶𝑢 =

55.5 mm, 𝐸𝐶𝑖 = 1.5milli mho/cm and 𝐸𝐶𝑠 = 10millimho/cm.
Answer: 60 mm
𝐷𝑑 𝐸𝐶(𝑖)
𝐿𝑅 = =
𝐷𝑖 𝐸𝐶(𝑑)
𝐸𝐶(𝑑) = 2 ⋅ 𝐸𝐶(𝑒) = 2 × 10 m. mho/cm = 20millimho/cm
Substituting the above values, we get
𝐸𝐶(𝑖) 1.5 millimho/cm 1.5
L.R. = = = = 0.075 or 7.5 %
𝐸𝐶(𝑑) 20 millimho//cm 20
We also know
 Page 7

𝐷𝑑 𝐷𝑖 − 𝐶𝑢 𝐷𝑖 − 55.5 mm
⇒ 𝐿𝑅 = = =
𝐷𝑖 𝐷𝑖 𝐷𝑖
Equating both the equations, we have
𝐷𝑖 − 55.5 mm
⇒ 0.075 = ( )
𝐷𝑖
= 60 mm

Q. 8 In a subsurface pipe drainage system, it is desired to keep the highest level

of the water table at 1.5 m below the ground surface. The depth of impervious
layer from land surface is 10.0 m and the depth of the drain below the land surface
is 2.0 m. The mean annual rainfall in the area is 96 cm and the coefficient of
permeability is 6 × 10−6 m/s. Find the spacing of the drain pipes.
Answer: 83.3 m

90
( ) × (𝑆 × 1)
𝑞 = 100 m3 /s
(365 × 24 × 60 × 60)
0.9 𝑆
= m3 /s/m length of tile drain
31.536 × 106

𝐾 = 6 × 10−6 m/s
Using equation of spacing between drains, we have
4𝐾 2
𝑆= (𝑏 − 𝑎2 )
𝑞
where 𝑏 = ht. of W.T. above the impervious layer
= 10 m − 1.5 m = 8.5 m
𝑎 = depth of impervious stratum below the centre of the drains = 10 − 2 = 8 m

Substituting values, we get

𝑠 ⋅ 𝑞 = 4 × 6 × 10−6 (8.52 − 82 )
0.9𝑆
or 𝑆 × ( ) = 2.4 × 10−5 (8.52 − 82 )
31.536 × 106
𝑆 = 𝟖𝟑. 𝟐𝟗 𝒎

I generally think that I should only speak

by action and not by words.

― Mukesh Ambani
 Page 8

Chapter 03
Water Requirement of Crops

Multiple Choice Questions

Q. 1 A sandy loam soil has a water holding capacity of 140 mm/m between field
capacity and wilting point. The area to be irrigated is 60 ha and depth of effective
root zone is 0.30 m. The management allowed soil moisutre depletion as 40% and
the consumptive use is 6 mm/ day. The conveyance and application efficiency are
obtained to be 80% and 50% respectively. There are no leaching requirements as
well as no rainfall and ground water contributions to the crop water requirement.
The frequency of irrigation (in days) and the field irrigation requirement (in m3 )
will be
(a) 3 and 14400
(b) 2 and 14400
(c) 3 and 20160
(d) 2 and 20160
Answer: B
Root zone depth = 0.30 m
mm
Water holding Capacity = 140 m
Hence, Total depth of water available = 0.3 × 140 = 4.2 mm

Allowable depletion = 40%

Hence 𝑑𝑟 = 4.2 × 0.4 = 16.8 mm

𝑑𝑟
We know frequency =
𝑐𝑢
16.8 mm
⇒𝑓= = 2.8
6 mm/ day
Hence, 𝑓 = 2 days

Now, Modified 𝑑𝑟
⇒ 𝑑𝑟 = 𝑓 × 𝑐𝑢
= 2 × 6 = 12 mm

Volume of water required in root zone = 12mm X 10-3 X 60 Ha X 104

= 7200 m3

Volume of water required in field

Volume of water required in root zone
=
ƞ𝑎
7200
=
0.5
= 14400 m3
 Page 9

Q. 2 Consider the following zones:

Saturation zone
Capillary zone
Intermediate zone
Soil water zone
Which of these does not relate to the zone of aeration in the soil profile?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 4 only
(d) 1 only
Answer: D
Question belongs to soil mechanics

Q. 3 The total irrigation depth of water, required by certain crop in its entire
growing period, 150 days, is 25.92 cm. The culturable command area for a
distributary channel is 100,000 hectares. The distributary channel shall be
designed for a discharge of
(a) less than 2 cumecs
(b) 2 cumecs
(c) 20 cumecs
(d) more than 20 cumecs
Answer: D

By Duty-delta concept
Q = 20 m3/s.
But this discharge is calculated for entire base period, hence it is average discharge
required by crop. Demand of water is not uniform for the whole base period and the canal
 Page 10

runs at peak rate during KOR period, so the canal should be designed for discharge more
than 20 m3/s.

Q. 4 A field was supplied water from an irrigation tank at a rate of 120 litres/sec
to irrigate an area of 2.5 hectares. The duration of irrigation is 8 hours. It was
found that the actual delivery at the field, which is about 4 km from the tank, was
100 litre/sec. The runoff loss in the field was estimated as 800 m3. The application
efficiency in this situation is
(a) 62%
(b) 72%
(c) 76%
(d) 80%
Answer: B
Actual discharge in field, 𝑄 = 100𝑙𝑖𝑡/𝑠𝑒𝑐

Duration of irrigation, = 8 hours

100×8×602
Volume of Water delivered in field = = 2880 𝑚3
103

Runoff loss, = 800 𝑚3

∴ Water stored in root zone depth,

100 × 8 × 602
𝑉= − 800 = 2080 𝑚3
103

∴ Water application efficiency,

𝑅𝑜𝑜𝑡 𝑊𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟 2080

𝜂𝑎 = =
𝐹𝑖𝑒𝑙𝑑 𝑊𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟 2880
= 0.72 = 72%

Q. 5 The gross command area of an irrigation project is 1 lakh hectares. The

culturable command area is 75% of gross command area. The intensities of
irrigation for Kharif and Rabi are 50% and 55% respectively. The duties for Kharif
and Rabi are 1200 hectares/cumec and 1400 hectares/ cumec respectively, then
the discharge (in cumecs) at the head of the canal with considering 20%
provisions for transmission loss, overlap allowance, evaporation loss etc, is
(a) 29.46
(b) 36.82
(c) 39.06
(d) None of these
Answer: C
Area under kharif = 𝐶𝐶𝐴 × IOI = (0.75 × 100000) × 0.50 = 37500ℎ𝑎

And area under Rabi = (0.75 × 100000) × 0.55 = 41250 ha

Discharge Required,
 Page 11

37500
→ For Kharif = = 31.25 cumecs
1200

41250
→ For Rabi = = 29.46 cumecs
1400

⇒ Discharge at the head of field = 𝑚𝑎𝑥. 𝑜𝑓 (31.25 & 29.46)

= 31.25cumecs

∵ 20% of water is lost in conveyance, overlap allowance, evaporation loss etc

Hence, discharge required at the head of canal

31.25
= = 39.06 cumecs
0.8

Q. 6 Consider the following data:

Root zone depth = 2 m
Existing water content = 5%
Dry density of soil = 15kN/m3
Water applied to the soil = 500 m3
Water loss due to evaporation and deep percolation = 10%
Area of plot = 1000 m2
The field capacity of the soil will be nearly
(a) 16.8%
(b) 17.7%
(c) 18.8%
(d) 19.7%
Answer: D
Given

𝑀0 = 5%
𝑑=2𝑚
𝛾𝑑 = 15𝑘𝑁/𝑚3
𝐴 = 1000 𝑚2

Water supplied to Soil by irrigation = 500 𝑚3 but 10% Water is lost

Hence, net water stored in Root zone

10
= 500 − ( × 500)
100
= 450 𝑚3
450 𝑚3
𝑑𝑟 = = 0.45 𝑚
1000 𝑚2

We know the relation,

 Page 12

(𝐹𝑐 − 𝑀0 ) × 𝛾𝑑 × 𝑑
𝑑𝑟 =
𝛾𝑤
(𝐹𝑐 − 0.05) × 15 × 2
⇒ 0.45 =
9.81
⇒ 𝐹𝑐 = 0.19715 = 19.7%

Q. 7 For the data given in the table below, compute the peak demand (in cumecs)
and average discharge (in cumecs)
Crop Area under crop Average duty Kor depth Kor period
(Hectares) (ha/cumec) (cm) (weeks)
Wheat 6000 2500.0 16.0 4.5
Rice 3000 864.0 22.0 3.0

(a) 6.39 and 5.87

(b) 3.64 and 3.47
(c) 3.47 and 3.64
(d) 5.87 and 6.39
Answer: B
Peak demand will be computed by KOR watering concept and average discharge can be
calculated by duty and delta concept.

Common Data for Questions (8 and 9):

The moisture holding capacity of the soil in a 100 hectare farm is 18 cm/m. The
field is to be irrigated when 50 per cent of the available moisture in the root zone
is depleted. The irrigation water is to be supplied by a pump working for 10 hours
a day, and water application efficiency is 75 per cent. Details of crops planned
for cultivation are as follows:
Crop Root zone Peak rate of moisture
depth (𝒎) use (mm/day)
𝑋 1.0 5.0
𝑌 0.8 4.0

Q. 8 The capacity of irrigation system required to irrigate crop ' 𝑋 in 36 hectares

is
(a) 83 litres/sec
(b) 67 litres/sec
(c) 57 litres/sec
(d) 53 litres/sec
Answer: B
Area of the irrigation for crop 'X' = 36 hectare

𝑐𝑢 = 0.5 𝑐𝑚/ day, 𝜂𝑎 = 75%

Moisture holding capacity of soil = 18 𝑐𝑚/𝑚 × 1𝑚 = 18 𝑐𝑚

Allowable depletion of moisture = 50% of available moisture
Allowable depletion of moisture = 0.5 × 18 = 9 𝑐𝑚 (dr)
 Page 13

𝑑𝑟 9
Frequency of irrigation crop, = = 18 days
𝐶𝑢 0.5
Hence water has to be supplied every 18 days

We know that

𝑊𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑟𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑟𝑒𝑑 𝑖𝑛 𝑟𝑜𝑜𝑡 𝑧𝑜𝑛𝑒

𝜂𝑎 =
𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑟𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑟𝑒𝑑 𝑖𝑛 𝑓𝑖𝑒𝑙𝑑

9
0.75 =
𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑟𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑟𝑒𝑑 𝑖𝑛 𝑓𝑖𝑒𝑙𝑑

𝐷𝑒𝑝𝑡ℎ 𝑜𝑓 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑟𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑟𝑒𝑑 𝑖𝑛 𝑓𝑖𝑒𝑙𝑑 = 12 𝑐𝑚

Volume of water required = 0.12 × 36 × 104 = 43200 𝑚3

43200×103
Discharge of pump =
18×10×60×60
⇒ 66.67 litres/sec

Q. 9 The area of crop ' 𝑌 ' that can be irrigated when the available capacity of
irrigation system is 40 litres/sec is
(a) 40 hectares
(b) 36 hectares
(c) 30 hectares
(d) 27 hectares
Answer: D
Same as Q.8

Q. 10 In an irrigation project, in a certain year, 70% and 46% of the culturable

command area in Kharif and Rabi, respectively, remained without water and rest
of the area got irrigation water. The intensity of irrigation in that year for the
project was:
(a) 116%
(b) 84%
(c) 42%
(d) 58%
Answer: B
= (100- 70) + (100 - 46) = 30 + 54 = 84%

Q. 11 The following data were noted from an irrigation field:

Field capacity = 20%
Permanent wilting point = 10%
Permissible depletion of available soil moisture = 50%
Dry unit weight of soil = 15kN/m3
Effective rainfall = 50 mm
 Page 14

The net irrigation requirement per metre depth of soil will be

(a) 75 mm
(b) 125 mm
(c) 50 mm
(d) 25 mm
Answer: D
Given
Fc = 20%
Ф = 10%
d = 1m
It’s given that dr = 0.5 da

We know the relation,

(𝐹𝑐 − Ф) × 𝛾𝑑 × 𝑑
𝑑𝑟 = 0.5 ×
𝛾𝑤
(0.2 − 0.1) × 15 × 1
⇒ 𝑑𝑟 = 0.5 ×
10
⇒ 𝑑𝑟 = 0.075𝑚 = 75𝑚𝑚
But 50mm water is coming through rainfall, hence net depth of water required through
irrigation = 75-50
= 25 mm

Q. 12 The gross commanded area of an irrigation canal is 10 × 103 ha out of which

8 × 103 ha is culturable comanded area. The intensity of irrigation for Rabi season
is 70% and for Kharif is 21%, then the crop ratio will be
(a) 3.33
(b) 1.33
(c) 0.33
(d) 0.30
Answer: D

Q. 13 A 100 ha reservoir receives 2500 mm of rainfall during a period of 2 years.

During this period the mean inflow to the stream is 1.0 m3 /s, the mean outflow
from the stream is 0.8 m3 /s and the increase in the storage is 500 ha-m. Assuming
that there is no seepage loss, the total evaporation (in m ) during the period is
(a) 1.011
(b) 10.11
(c) 101.1
(d) 1011
Answer: B
The question is from Engineering hydrology and based on Water budget equation, which
is

(Inflow) − (outflow) = (change in Storage)

 Page 15

Here, Inflow = Rainfall + Stream inflow

𝑚3
⇒ 𝐼𝑓 = (2500 𝑚𝑚 × 10−3 × 100 × 104 ) + (1 × 2 × 365 × 24 × 602 )
𝑠
⇒ 𝐼𝑓 = 65572000 𝑚3

and outflow = Evaporation + Stream outflow

𝑚3
⇒ 𝑂𝑓 = 𝐸𝑝 + (0.8 × 2 × 365 × 24 × 602 )
𝑠
⇒ 𝑂𝑓 = (𝐸𝑝 + 50457600)𝑚3

By water Budget 𝐸𝑞 𝑛

(Inflow) − (outflow) = (change in Storage)

⇒ 65572000 𝑚3 − (𝐸𝑝 + 50457600)𝑚3 = 500 × 104

⇒ 𝐸𝑝 = 10114400 𝑚3

10114400 𝑚3
Depth of Evaporation = = 10.1144 m
100×104

Q. 14 The monthly consumptive use values for paddy are tabulated below. What
is average monthly consumptive use?
Month Dates
Rice (Loam Soil)
𝐂𝐮 in 𝐜𝐦
June 1 − 30 29.69
July 1 − 12 8.76
July 13 − 31 14.38
August 1 − 31 22.73
September 1 − 30 21.29
October 1 − 31 25.50
November 1 − 24 15.06

(a) 7.7 cm
(b) 23.1 cm
(c) 26.69 cm
(d) 137.41 cm
Answer: C
Solution. The summation of consumptive uses

= 29.69 + 8.76 + 14.38 + 22.73 + 21.29 + 25.50 + 15.06 = 137.41 𝑐𝑚

Hence, total consumptive use for paddy = 137.41 𝑐𝑚. Ans.

Average daily consumptive use
 Page 16

137.41 137.41
= =
Period of growth in days 30 + 31 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 24
137.41
= = 0.77 𝑐𝑚. = 7.7 𝑚𝑚. Ans.
177

Average monthly consumptive use = 0.77 × 30 = 23.1 𝑚𝑚.

Q. 15 Assertion (A): The duty of water decreases as the point of its measurement
moves away from the field of application.
Reason (R): Duty depends on soil characteristics.
Of these statements:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of 𝐴.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of 𝐴.
(c) 𝐴 is true but 𝑅 is false.
(d) 𝐴 is false but 𝑅 is true
Answer: A

Numerical Answer Type Questions

Q. 16 The observed values of depth of penetration along the length of a border
strip at points 30 metres apart are 2.0, 1.9, 1.8, 1.6 and 1.5 m, then the water
distribution efficiency is %.
Answer: 90.45%
d1 = 2 m, d2 = 1.9 m, d3 = 1.8 m, d4 = 1.6 m, and d5 = 1.5 m respectively

Water distribution efficiency

𝑑
(𝑛𝑑 ) = [1 − ] × 100
𝐷
where 𝑑 = Average numerical deviation is depth of water stored from the average depth
of water 'D' stored in the root zone during irrigation.
(2+1.9+1.8+1.6+1.5)
Mean depth (D) = 5
= 1.76 m
and the average of absolute values of deviation from the mean :

(|1.76 − 2| + |1.76 − 1.9| + |1.76 − 1.8| + |1.76 − 1.6| + |1.76 − 1.5|)

𝑦= = 0.168 m
5
𝑑
Then, water distribution efficiency (𝑛𝑑 ) = [1 − 𝐷] × 100
0.168
∴ nd = (1 − × 100
1.76

nd = 90.45%
 Page 17

Q. 17 Pan evaporation data recorded at a certain location over a period of one

week are 4.0, 4.3, 4.6, 4.9, 5.12, 5.18 and 6.21 mm. If irrigation scheduling based
on ratio of irrigation water (IW) to cumulative pan evaporation (CPE) is practised,
then the depth of irrigation at an interval of a week for ratio 0.9 , is mm.
Answer: 30.88 mm
Total Pan Evaporation during given week

= 4 + 4.3 + 4.6 + 4.9 + 5.12 + 5.18 + 6.21

= 34.31 𝑚𝑚

By Hor Greaves pan Equation

𝐸𝑡 = 𝑘𝐸𝑝
⇒ 𝐸𝑡 = 0.9 × 34.31
⇒ 𝐸𝑡 = 30.88 𝑚𝑚

Q. 18 The command area of a channel is 4000 hectares. The intensity of irrigation

of a crop is 70% and it requires 60 cm of water in 15 days, when the effective
rainfall is recorded as 15 cm during that period, then the duty at head of channel
is ha/cumec. [Assume total losses as 15%]
Answer: 244.8 Ha
Depth of water = 60cm
Effective rainfall = 15 cm
Depth of irrigating water = 60 – 15 = 45 cm
⇒ Delta = 45 cm = 0.45 m
B = 15 days
From relation, ∆= 8.64×B/D
⇒ Duty(D) = 8.64×15/0.45 = 288ha/cumec
Due to loss of water, duty at head of channel is reduced Here losses are 15%
So, duty at head of channel = 288 × 85/100 = 244.80 ha/cumecs

Q. 19 A certain crop is grown in an area of 3000 hectares which is fed by a canal

system. The data pertaining to irrigation are as follows:
Field capacity of soil = 23%
Optimum moisture = 11%
Permanent wilting point = 9%
Effective depth of root zone = 85 cm
Relative density of soil = 1.5
Frequency of irrigation = 12 days
The water discharge required in the canal feeding the area is m3 /s.
 Page 18

Answer: 4.427 m3/s

Field capacity (F.C.) = 23%
Optimum moisture capacity (O.M.C.) = 11%
Permanent wetting point (P.W.P.) = 9%
Depth of water stored in root zone between F.C. and O.M.C.

𝛾𝑑 × 𝑑
= [ F.C. − O.M.C. ]
𝛾𝑤
1.5 × 85
= [0.23 − 0.11] = 15.3 𝑐𝑚
1.0

Frequency of irrigation = 12 days

3000×104 ×15.3
Volume of water required in 10 days =
100
= 4590000 𝑚3

4590000
Discharge required in canal = = 4.427 cumec
12 × 24 × 60 × 60

Q. 20 Irrigation water is to be provided to a crop in a field to bring the moisture

content of the soil from the existing 18% to the field capacity of the soil at 28%.
The effective root zone of the crop is 70 cm. If the densities of the soil and water
are 1.3 g/cm3 and 1.0 g/cm3 respectively, the depth of irrigation water (in mm )
required for irrigating the crop is
Answer: 91 mm
Given,

F.C = 28% = 0.28, 𝑃. 𝑊. 𝑃 = 18% = 0.18, 𝑑 = 70 𝑐𝑚

𝑌𝑑 = 1.3 𝑔/𝑐𝑚3 , 𝑌𝑊 = 1.0 𝑔/𝑐𝑚3
∴ 𝐺 = 1.3/1 = 1.3
𝑑𝑊 = 𝐺 × 𝑑 × (𝐹. 𝐶 − 𝑃. 𝑊. 𝑃)
𝑑𝑊 = 1.3 × 70 × (0.28 − 0.18)
𝑑𝑊 = 9.1 𝑐𝑚

We got 𝑑𝑤 = 9.1 𝑐𝑚, but we want answer in 𝑚𝑚, therefore 𝑑𝑤 = 91 𝑚𝑚

Q. 21 A field channel has cultivable commanded area of 2000 hectares. The

intensities of irrigation for gram and wheat are 30% and 50% respectively. Gram
has a kor period of 18 days, kor depth of 12 cm, while wheat has a kor period of
18 days and a kor depth of 15 cm. The discharge (in m3 /s ) required in the field
channel to supply water to the commanded area during the kor period is
Answer: 1.427 m3/s
Given,
CCA = 2000 hectares
Gram and wheat are Rabi crops,
For Gram,

𝛥𝑔 = 12 𝑐𝑚 = 0.12 𝑚, 𝐵𝑔 = 18 days

Discharge required for gram

 Page 19

𝐴𝑔 2000 × 0.3 𝑚3
𝑄𝑔 = = = 0.4630
𝐷𝑔 8.64 × 18 𝑠
0.12

For wheat,

𝛥𝑊 = 15 𝑐𝑚 = 0.15 𝑚, 𝐵𝑊 = 18 days

Discharge required for wheat,

𝐴𝑤 2000 × 0.5 𝑚3
𝑄𝑤 = = = 0.9645
𝐷𝑤 8.64 × 18 𝑠
0.15

So both are grown in the same period

Total discharge = 𝑄𝑔 + 𝑄𝑤 = 1.4275 𝑚3 /𝑠

Q. 22 During a particular stage of the growth of a crop, consumptive use of water

is 2.8 mm/ day. If the amount of water available in the soil is 25% of 80 mm depth
of water, the frequency of irrigation will be
Answer: 21 days
25
Water available to the soil = × 80 = 20 𝑚𝑚
100
Additional water required = 80 − 20 = 60 𝑚𝑚
60
∴ Frequency of irrigation = = 21.43 days
2.8

Thus, the crop should be irrigated after every 21 days.

Q. 23 A lift irrigation scheme using a discharge of 96 m3 /hr is planned to raise a

crop with an average Δ of 0.375 m. Intensity of irrigation is 60%. Assuming 3600
hours of working of the tubewell for a year, culturable command area is
Answer: 153.6 Ha
Discharge = 96 𝑚3 /ℎ𝑟
The working hour of the tube well = 3600 hrs
Average 𝛥 = 0.375 𝑚
Intensity of irrigation = 60%
96 × 3600 = 0.60 × C.C.A × 0.375
C.C.A = 153.6𝐻𝑎

Conventional Questions
Q. 24 A canal was designed to supply irrigation needs of 1000 ha of land growing
rice of 140 days base period with delta 130 cm. If the canal water is used to irrigate
wheat of 119 days base period and delta 50 cm, then how much area can be
irrigated?
Answer: 2210 Ha
The discharge (𝑄) in the canal remains the same.
 Page 20

100𝑄
Duty for rice, 𝐷1 = ℎ𝑎/ cumec
𝑄

𝐴2
Duty for wheat, 𝐷2 = ha/cumec
𝑄

𝐷1 𝛥1 𝐷2 𝛥2
Now =
𝐵1 𝐵2

119 130
∴ 𝐴2 = × × 10002
140 50

= 2210 ha

Q. 25 A stream of 130 liters per second was diverted from a canal and 100 liters
per second were delivered to the field. An area of 1.6 hectares was irrigated in 8
hours. The effective depth of root zone was 1.7 m. The runoff loss in the field was
420 m3. The depth of water penetration varied linearly from 1.7 m at the head end
of the field to 1.1 m at the tail end. Available moisture holding capacity of the soil
is 20 cm per meter depth of soil. It is required to determine the water conveyance
efficiency, water application efficiency, water storage efficiency and water
distribution efficiency. Irrigation was started at a moisture extraction level of 50%
of the available moisture.
Solution:
(i) Water conveyance efficiency (𝜂𝑐 )

Water delivered to the fields

= × 100
Water supplied into the canal at the head
100
= × 100 = 77%. (say) Ans.
130

(ii) Water application efficiency (𝜂𝑎 )

Water stored in the root zone during irrigation

= × 100
Water delivered to the field

Water supplied to field during 8 hours @ 100 litres per second

= 100 × 8 × 60 × 60 litres = 2880𝑐𝑢 ⋅ 𝑚

Runoff loss in the field = 420𝑐𝑢. 𝑚.

∴ the water stored in the root zone

= 2880 − 420 = 2460𝑐𝑢. 𝑚

∴ Water application efficiency (𝜂𝑎 )

2460
= × 100 = 85.4% Ans.
2880

(iii) Water storage efficiency

 Page 21

Water stored in the root zone during irrigation

= × 100
Water needed in root zone prior to irrigation

Moisture holding capacity of soil

= 20 𝑐𝑚 per 𝑚 depth × 1.7 𝑚 depth of root zone = 34 𝑐𝑚.

Moisture already available in root zone at the time of start of irrigation

50
= × 34 = 17 𝑐𝑚.
100
Additional water required in root zone

= 34 − 17 = 17 𝑐𝑚.

17
= × (1.6 × 104 )𝑐𝑢. 𝑚
100
= 2720 cu. 𝑚
But actual water stored in root zone = 2460𝑐𝑢. 𝑚
∴ Water storage efficiency (𝜂𝑠 )

2460
= × 100 = 90% (say) Ans.
2720
(iv) Water distribution efficiency

𝑑
𝜂𝑑 = (1 − )
𝐷

where 𝐷 = mean depth of water stored in the root zone

1.7 + 1.1
= = 1.4 𝑚.
2

𝑑 is computed as below :
Deviation from the mean at upper end (absolute value)

= |1.7 − 1.4| = 0.3

Deviation from the mean at lower end

= |1.1 − 1.4| = 0.3.

𝑑 = Average of the absolute values of deviations

0.3 + 0.3
from mean = = 0.30.
2

Using Eq. (2.3), we have,

0.30
𝜂𝑑 = (1 − ) = 𝟎. 𝟕𝟖𝟔 or 78.6% Ans.
1.4
 Page 22

Q. 26 For the following data given below calculate the discharge required for the
design of a canal [Consider, time factor = 13/20 and capacity factor = 0.8]
Crop Base Area Duty
period (hectares) (ha/cumec)
(days)
Sugarcane 320 850 580
Wheat (Rabi) 120 600 1600
Bajra 120 500 2000
Vegetable 120 360 600
(Hot summer)

Answer: 3.178 m3/s

Discharge required for crops
850
Discharge for sugar-cane = = 1.466 cumecs
580
600
Discharge for wheat = = 0.375 cumec
1600
500
Discharge for Bajri = = 0.25 cumec
2000
360
Discharge for vegetables = = 0.60 cumec.
600

Since sugar-cane has a base period of 320 days, it will require water in Rabi, Monsoon
and Hot weather.
∴ Discharge required in Rabi = 1.466 + 0.375 = 1.841 cumecs
Discharge required in Kharif = 1.466 + 0.25 = 1.716 cumecs
Discharge required in Hot Weather = 1.466 + 0.6 = 2.066 cumecs.
Thus, the maximum demand of 2.066 cumecs is in the hot weather.

The time factor is the ratio of the number of days the canal has actually run to the number
of days the canal was supposed to run. Here, time factor is 13/20.
∴ Full supply discharge at the head to canal will be

20
= 2.273 × = 3.178 cumecs
13

Q. 27 The base period, intensity of irrigation, and duty of water for various crops
under the canal system are given. Determine the reservoir capacity if the
culturable command area is 40,000 hectares, canal losses are 25%, and reservoir
losses are 15%.
 Page 23

Crop Base Duty of the water Intensity of

period at the field irrigation (%)
(days) (ha/cumec)
Wheat 120 1800 20
Sugarcane 360 1700 20
Cotton 180 1400 10
Rice 120 800 15
Vegetables 120 700 15

Answer: 633 X 106 m3

The computations are done in the Tabular form below.

Note that volume of water = 𝑄 (in cumecs) × 𝐵 (days) = 8.64 × 104 𝑄𝐵 𝑚3 .

Crop Base Intensity Area under Duty Discharge Quantity of

period of crop (ha/cumec) required water (m3 )
(days) irrigation (hectares) (cumecs)
Wheat 120 20 8000 1800 4.444 46.08 × 106
Sugar 360 20 8000 1700 4.706 146.38 × 106
cane
Cotton 180 10 4000 1400 2.857 44.43 × 106
Rice 120 15 6000 800 7.5 77.76 × 106
Vegetable 120 15 6000 700 8.571 88.87 × 106
Total 403.52 × 106

403.52×106
∴ Volume of required at head of canal = = 538.03 × 106 𝑚3
0.75
538.03×106
∴ Storage capacity = 6
= 633 × 10 𝑚 3
0.85

Q. 28 In a cultivated area, the soil has porosity of 45% and field capacity of 38%.
For a particular crop, the root zone depth is 1.0 m, the permanent wilting point is
10% and the consumptive use is 15 mm/d. If the irrigation efficiency is 60%, what
should be the frequency of irrigation such that the moisture content does not fall
below 50% of the maximum available moisture?
Answer: 11 Days

Try Yourself
T1. The intensity of irrigation is 20% for wheat and 10% for rice, where cultural
commanded area of a distributary is 6000 ha. The Kor period for wheat and rice
are 3 weeks and 2 weeks respectively. Find the total outlet discharge required
excluding losses in the channel. Assume depth for Kor watering as 9 cm and 25 cm
for wheat and rice respectively.
[Ans : 1.24 m3 /s ]
 Page 24

T2. 10 cumecs of water is delivered to 32 ha field for 4hr. Calculate water

application efficiency, if the depth of water stored in the root zone is 0.3 m.
[Ans : 66.6%]

T3. The discharge required for Rabi and Kharif crops are 0.4 m3 /s and 0.3 m3 /s
respectively. If time factor and crop factor are 0.5 and 0.8 respectively, then find
out the design discharge of the channel.
[Ans : 1 m3 /s ]

T4. Find the reservoir's capacity required to supply the water for crops given in
table.
Canal losses = 20% and reservoir losses = 10%
Crop Base Duty Area
period (ha/cumec) (hectares)
(days)
Wheat 120 1800 4800
Cotton 200 1400 2400
Rice 120 900 3200
Vegetable 120 700 1400
Sugarcane 360 800 5600

[Ans : 461.9 Mm3 ]

The above problem can also be solved by first finding the Delta for each crop and then
multiplying the area by Delta to get the total volume of water needed.

𝛴𝑉 = 𝛴(𝛥 × 𝐴)

The calculations are done in tabular form :

Crop Base Duty at Area A in Volume (𝚫 × 𝐀)

period the field 𝟖. 𝟔𝟒𝐁 hectares hectare −𝐦
𝚫=
𝐃

Wheat 120 1800 0.576 4800 2764.8

Sugar- 360 800 3.888 5600 21772.8
cane
Cotton 200 1400 1.234 2400 2962.3
Rice 120 900 1.152 3200 3686.4
Vegetable 120 700 1.481 1400 2073.6
Cumulative Volume 33259.9 hec − m

Say, 33260 hec-m as calculated previously.

33260
∴ Capacity of reservoir = = 46194.44 hectare-metres.
0.8×0.9

=461.944 M Cumec
 Page 25

T5. Assertion (A): Duty is an expression of the irrigating capacity of a unit volume
of water.
Reason (R): Duty at the head of a distributary will be less than that at the head
of a watercourse and more than that at the head of a canal.
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of 𝐴
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of 𝐴
(c) 𝐴 is true but 𝑅 is false
(d) 𝐴 is false but 𝑅 is true
[Ans : d]
Irrigating capacity of a unit volume of water is known as storage duty.

"Ups and downs in life are very important

to keep us going because a straight line
even in an ECG means we are not alive."
― Ratan Tata
 Page 26

Chapter 4
Design of Unlined and Lined Canals
Multiple Choice Questions
Q. 1 The critical velocity ratio was introduced in Kennedy's equation of critical
velocity to take into account the effect of

(a) channel cross-section (b) climatic conditions

(c) silt grade (d) roughness of bed

Answer: C
The critical velocity ratio in Kennedy's equation of critical velocity accounts for the impact
of sediment size and shape, and the channel's roughness in hydraulic engineering.

Q. 2 When a channel is protected from the both bed and sides, with some
protective material and there are no possibility of change in its cross-section and
longitudinal slope, then the channel is said to be in

(a) initial regime (b) final regime

(c) permanent regime (d) true regime

Answer: C
Initial, final and true regimes are defined for unlined alluvial canals only, which are
erodible. The rigid boundary canals, having protection along sides and bed are known as
permanent regimes.

Permanent regime canal:

• A permanent regime canal is one that is fed by a permanent source of supply.
• It is a well-graded channel and is provided with permanent regulation and distribution
works.
• This type of channel is not easily erodible due to protection over sides and bed, hence
chances of change in longitudinal slope is less

Q. 3 As per the Lacey's method for design of alluvial channels, identify the TRUE
statement from the following:

(a) Wetted perimeter increases with an increase in design discharge.

(b) Hydraulic radius increases with an increase in silt factor.

(c) Wetted perimeter decreases with an increase in design discharge.

(d) Wetted perimeter increases with an increase in silt factor.

Answer: A
𝑃 = 4.75√𝑄
Hence, Wetted perimeter increases with an increase in design discharge.
 Page 27

Q. 4 The Lacey's and Kennedy's empirical silt theories for designing irrigation
channels in Indian non cohesive alluvial soils, are meant to ensure

(a) no scouring in the channel

(b) no silting from out of the sedimented water entering the channel from the
headworks

(c) both (a) and (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b)

Answer: C
Lacey's and Kennedy's empirical silt theories for designing irrigation channels in Indian
non-cohesive alluvial soils are meant to ensure no scouring in the channel and no silting
from out of the sedimented water entering the channel from the headworks.

Q. 5 Two irrigation channels, A and B, are designed on Lacey's theory to carry

the same discharge. The alluvium through which canal A has to pass, however,
is coarser than that for canal B. In such a design, we expect

(a) channel A to be deeper (b) channel B to be deeper

(c) channel A to have larger wetted perimeter

(d) channel B to have larger cross-sectional area

Answer: D
Given that

𝑄𝐴 = 𝑄𝐵
and 𝑑𝐴 > 𝑑𝐵

Now we know that

Silt factor, 𝑓 = 1.76√𝑑 𝑚𝑚
Hence, 𝑓𝐴 > 𝑓𝐵

Also,

1/6
𝑄 ⋅ 𝑓2
𝑣=[ ]
140

Since 𝑄 → Constant,
Hence, 𝑉𝐴 > 𝑉𝐵

The equation of discharge is

𝑄 =𝐴⋅𝑣

" 𝑄 " is Constant,

1
Hence 𝐴 ∝
𝑣
Therefore 𝐴𝐴 < 𝐴𝐵
 Page 28

Q. 6 Consider the following statements:

1. A regime channel will have side slopes of value 0.5H: 1 V.

2. Lacey's regime formula is applicable to regime channel with sediment

concentration more than 5000 ppm.

3. For a Lacey regime channel the Manning's roughness coefficient is estimated

by Strickler's formula

4. The mean velocity in a Lacey channel is proportional to 𝑅 2/3 , where 𝑅 =

hydraulic radius

Which of these statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4

Answer: B
1. Lacey Considered side slope of 0.5H:1V

2. Lacey's regime formula is applicable for any sediment concentration.

3. Manning's roughness is considered by Kennedy.

4. Equations of Lacey for velocity in Canal

2
𝑣 =√ 𝑓⋅𝑅
5
1/6
𝑄𝑓 2
𝑣=[ ]
140

and, 𝑣 = 10.8 𝑅2/3 𝑆 1/2

Q. 7 Which one of the following is not the requirement of an ideal regime condition
in Lacey's regime theory?
(a) The discharge in the channel is constant.

(b) The channel flows through the same soil grade, as that of the sediment
entering the channel from the headworks.

(c) The sediment grade and its amount entering the channel is constant.

(d) The silt grade should consist of clay sized particles.

Answer: D
Alluvial design theories are not applicable for clay size particles.
 Page 29

Q. 8 A channel designed by Lacey's theory has a velocity of 0.88 m/sec. The silt
factor is 1.1, then hydraulic mean depth will be
(a) 1.95 m
(b) 1.76 m
(c) 1.63 m
(d) 1.50 m

Answer: B
The given question an only be solved, by considering canal as a wide channel

Hydraulic mean depth,

5𝑉 2
𝑅=
2𝑓
5 (0.88)2
= × = 1.76 𝑚
2 1.1

Q. 9 Assertion (A) : Irrigation canals are constructed at a maximum grade.

Reason (R) : It is advantageous to command as much arid land as possible.

(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of 𝐴

(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of 𝐴

(c) 𝐴 is true but 𝑅 is false

(d) 𝐴 is false but 𝑅 is true

Answer: A
Irrigation canals are constructed at a maximum gradient (Bed Slope) so that with large
velocity water can be transported to far locations, and they can command as much arid
land as possible. This means that the canal can irrigate a larger area of land.

Q. 10 Balanced depth of cutting of canal is

(a) half the total depth of a canal

(b) half of full supply depth

(c) the maximum cut that an excavator can take

(d) where volume of cutting is equal to volume of filling

Answer: D
The balanced depth of cutting of a canal is the depth that provides an equal amount of
cutting (earth from digging) and filling (earth required for formation of banks). For a given
canal section, the depth of cutting for which area cutting is equal to area of filling is called
balancing depth.
 Page 30

Q. 11 Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Silt factor : Average size of silt particles

2. Silt load : Volume of suspended sediments flowing with water in unit time.

3. Silt charge : Weight of silt per unit volume of water

4. Silt grade : Gradation between different silt particles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 4
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2

Answer: B
1. Lacey's silt factor, f, is a term that depends on the size of grains and the wetted perimeter.
The silt factor is given by the formula f = 1.76 x d0.5, where d is the average size of particles
in millimeters. The silt factor is directly proportional to the square root of the average particle
size, it does not represent average size directly.

2. Silt load is the mass of silt-sized material per unit area of the travel surface.

3. Silt charge is defined as the weight of silt per unit volume of water.

4. Silt grade represents the gradation characteristics of silt.

Q. 12 The permissible tractive force in an erodible channel depends upon which

of the following?

1. Angle of the repose of the material

2. Particle size

3. Sediment content of water

4. Wetted perimeter of channels

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only

Answer: A
Sediment concentration has no importance in calculating critical shear stress by shield’s or
Swami-Mittal’s theory.
 Page 31

Q. 13 Garret's diagrams are used to

(a) separate base flow from total runoff

(b) correct inconsistency in rainfall data

(c) determine reservoir capacity

(d) design channels

Answer: D
Garret's diagram is graphical representation of design of canal dimensions based on
Kennedy theory. The diagram is discharge plotted on abscissa (X-axis), and slope of the
channel on the left side of ordinate (Primary Y-axis) and depth of the channel and critical
velocity on the right side of the ordinate.

Q. 14 The minimum size of gravel that will not move in the bed of a wide
rectangular channel of depth 0.8 m and longitudinal slope 0.0041 is
(a) 11 mm (b) 23 mm (c) 36 mm (d) 57 mm

Answer: C
By Shield’s theory

𝑦𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 11𝑅𝑆

𝐵𝑦
Where, 𝑅 = ≃ 𝑦[∴ 𝐵 >> 𝑦]
𝐵+2𝑦

= 11(0.8)0.0041

= 0.03608 𝑚 = 36 𝑚𝑚

Q. 15 Assertion (A): An alluvial channel is defined as a channel in which the flow

transports sediment of the same physical characteristics as the material in the
wetted surface of the channel.

Reason (R): This ensures that the channel cross-section and the channel slope
do not change.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of 𝐴

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of 𝐴

(c) 𝐴 is true but 𝑅 is false

(d) 𝐴 is false but 𝑅 is true

Answer: C
If channel cross-section and the channel slope do not change, then it will be studied as rigid
boundary channel, not alluvial one.
 Page 32

Q. 16 In the alignment of an irrigation channel wherefrom offtakes have to be

provided at regular intervals, changes in the given channel parameters are made
use of. The correct sequence of the decreasing order of preference of these
parameters is

(a) width, slope, depth

(b) width, depth, slope

(c) depth, slope, width

(d) depth, width, slope

Answer: C
Due to regular offtakes from a canal the depth of water is decreased (Changed), to maintain
it the bed slope of channel is gradually decreased (Changed). The width of canal is usually
not changed from its head to tail, other then some specific conditions.

Q. 17 Which of the following are the principal factors influencing the choice of a
particular method of lining?

1. Availability and cost of the material at the site or within easy reach.

2. Velocity of flow in the channel.

3. Cost of maintenance.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: C
Factors influencing choice of method of lining:
1. Availability and cost of material
2. Velocity of flow.
3. Cost of maintenance
4. Climatic condition
5. Size of canal
6. Position of water table
7. Imperviousness
 Page 33

Numerical Answer Type Questions

Q. 18 A regime canal has a width of 22.2 m and depth of flow 1.7 m, then the
discharge in the canal is m3 /s.

Answer: 30 m3/s
Given

𝐵 = 22.2 𝑚
𝑦 = 1.7 𝑚

Considering trapezoidal
Cross Section with
0.5𝐻: 1 𝑉 Side Slope.
Welted Perimeter,

𝑃 = 𝐵 + 2𝑦√1 + 0.52
⇒ 𝑃 = 22.1 + (2 × 1.7√1 + 0.52 )
⇒ 𝑃 = 25.90 𝑚

We also know

𝑃 = 4.75√𝑄
⇒ 25.9 = 4.75√𝑄
⇒ 𝑄 = 29.73 𝑚2
= 30 𝑚2

Q. 19 A lined irrigation canal with trapezoidal cross section with curved corners
has 5 m bed width, 2.5 m depth, 1.5H: 1 V side slope, longitudinal bed slope of the
canal is 1 in 1000 and Manning's 𝑛 = 0.016. If the crop has 150 mm field irrigation
requirement in a KOR period of 10 days, then area of land that can be irrigated
by canal is km2 .

Answer: 40700 Ha
For side slope of 1.5H: 1 V

𝜃 = 33.69∘ = 0.588 Rad

We know the equation of discharge

𝐴 = 𝐵𝐷 + 𝐷 2 (𝜃 + cot 𝜃) = 5 × 2.5 + 6.25(0.588 + 1.5) = 25.55 m2
∴ 𝑃 = 𝐵 + 2𝐷(𝜃 + cot 𝜃) = 5 + 2 × 2.5(0.588 + 1.5) = 15.44 m
𝑅 = 𝐴/𝑃 = 25.55/15.44 = 1.655 m

Now,

1
𝑄= 𝑉×𝐴 = 𝐴𝑅 2/3 √𝑆
𝑛
1
= × 25.55(1.655)2/3 √1/1000 = 70.65 m3 /s
0.016
 Page 34

Taking Kor period of 10 days, volume of water supply by the channel

= 70.65 × 10 × 24 × 3600 = 61.046 × 106 m3

Volume 61.046×106
∴ Area to be irrigated = depth
= 0.15
= 407 × 106 m2 = 40700 hectares

Q. 20 An irrigation channel of trapezoidal section having side slopes of 0.5H: 1 V

carries a discharge of 45 cumecs with 2.5 m as depth of flow, then the hydraulic
radius according to Kennedy's theory will be m.

[Take critical velocity ratio = 1.05]

Answer: 2.0 m
Given

𝑄 = 45 𝑚3 /𝑠
𝑦 = 2.5 𝑚
𝑚 = 1.05

Side Slope = 0.5𝐻: 1𝑉

𝐴
Hydraulic Radius, 𝑅 =
𝑃

Critical Velocity, 𝑣0 = 0.55 𝑚𝑦 0.64

⇒ 𝑣0 = 0.55 × 1.05 × 2.50.64

⇒ 𝑣0 = 1.038 𝑚/𝑠

Discharge, 𝑄 = 𝐴𝑣0

𝑄
⇒𝐴=
𝑣0
45
⇒𝐴=
1.038
⇒ 𝐴 = 43.35 𝑚2

We know, Cross-Section Area

𝐴 = 𝐵𝑦 + 0.5𝑦 2
⇒43.35 = (𝐵 × 2.5) + 0.5𝑦 2
⇒𝐵 = 16.09 𝑚

Welted Perimeter

𝑃 = 𝐵 + 2𝑦√1 + 0.52
⇒ 𝑃 = 16.09 + (2 × 2.5)√1 + 0.52
⇒ 𝑃 = 21.68 𝑚
𝐴
𝑅=
𝑃
43.35
⇒𝑅=
21.68
⇒𝑅=2𝑚
 Page 35

Conventional Questions
Q. 21 Design an irrigation canal by using Kennedy's theory to carry a discharge
of 45 m3 /s with a longitudinal slope of 16 cm in 1 km.
[Take critical velocity ratio = 1 and Manning's constant = 0.0225 ]

Answer Depends on Trial Depth

Q. 22 Design a canal for a discharge of 300 m3 /s with side slope of 0.5H : 1 V by

using Lacey's theory. [Take silt factor = 1]

Answer: v = 1.135 m/s, A= 264.32m2, P= 82.3m, D= 3.46m, B= 74.56m, R= 3.22m, S= 1/8641.72

Velocity of Flow,
1/6
𝑄 ⋅ 𝑓2
𝑣=[ ]
140
1/6
300 × 12
⇒𝑣=[ ]
140
⇒ 𝑣 = 1.135 m/s

C/s Area,

𝑄 300
𝐴= =
𝑣 1.135
⇒ 𝐴 = 264.32 m2

Wetted Perimeter,

𝑃 = 4.75√𝑄
⇒ 𝑃 = 4.75√300
⇒ 𝑃 = 82.3 m

Channel Dimensions,

𝑝 − √𝑃2 − 6.944𝐴
𝑦=
3.472
82.3 − √82.32 − 6.944 × 264.32
⇒𝑦=
3.472
⇒ 𝑦 = 3.46 m
𝐵 = 𝑃 − 2.236𝑦
⇒ 𝐵 = 82.3 − (2.236 × 3.46)
⇒ 𝐵 = 74.56 m
Hydraulic Radius,
 Page 36

5 𝑣2
𝑅= ( )
2 𝑓
5 1.1352
⇒𝑅= ( )
2 1
⇒ 𝑅 = 3.22 m

Bed Slope,

𝑓 5/3
𝑆=
3340𝑄1/6
15/3
⇒𝑆=
3340 × 3001/6
1
⇒𝑆=
8641.72

Q. 23 Water flows in a wide stream having a longitudinal bed slope of 1 in 2500

with 0.6 m depth of flow. The mean size of the sand is 1 mm. Determine whether
the sand particle is stationary or moving.

Answer: Moving
Since the given size of bed particles is 1.0 𝑚𝑚, which is less than 6 𝑚𝑚, we can not use
Shield's
We will, therefore, use the Swami-Mittal’s formula, which is valid for all sizes of 𝑑.

2
0.409𝑑𝑚𝑚
𝜏𝑐 ( 𝑁/𝑚2 ) = 0.155 +
√1 + 0.177𝑑𝑚𝑚2

0.409 × 1
= 0.155 + = 0.53 𝑁/𝑚2
√1 + 0.177 × 1
1
𝜏0 = 𝛾𝑤 ⋅ 𝑅 ⋅ 𝑆 = 9.81 × 0.6 × 𝑘𝑁/𝑚2
2500
𝛾 = 9.81𝑘𝑁/𝑚3 for water
= 2.35 × 10−3 𝑘𝑁/𝑚2 ( 𝑤 )
∵ 𝑅 ≈ 𝑦 for wide streams
= 2.35 𝑁/𝑚2
= 2.35 𝑁/𝑚2 ; which is more than 0.53 𝑁/𝑚2 .

Since 𝜏0 > 𝜏𝑐 , the soil grains will not be stationary, and the scouring and sediment
transport will occur.

Q. 24 Design a wide rectangular channel to carry a discharge of 3 m3 /sec with

longitudinal slope of 0.01 . The sediment size at the channel bottom is 5 cm. The
banks of the channel are protected against scouring by grass. Find the minimum
width of the channel.

Answer: 2.72 m
 Page 37

Given

𝑄 = 3 𝑚3 /𝑠
𝑆 = 0.01
𝑑 = 5 𝑐𝑚 (Greater than 6 𝑐𝑚)

for Protection against scouring of bed

𝜏0 ⩽ 𝜏𝑐
⇒𝛾𝜔 𝑅𝑆 ⩽ 0.056 × 𝑑 × (𝐺𝑠 − (1) × 𝛾𝜔
0.056 × 5 × 10−2 × (2.65 − 1)
⇒𝑅 ⩽
0.01
⇒𝑅 ⩽ 0.462 𝑚

for wide Canal, 𝑅 = 𝑦 = 0.462

We know, Manning's Rugosity Coefficient

𝑑1/6
𝑛=
24

where 𝑑 → size of soil particles in meter

(5 × 10−2 )1/6
⇒𝑛=
24
⇒ 𝑛 = 0.025

velocity of flow,

1 2/3 1/2
𝑣= 𝑅 𝑆
𝑛
1
⇒𝑣= × (0.462)2/3 (0.01)1/2
0.025
⇒ 𝑣 = 2.39 𝑚/𝑠

𝑄
c/s Area, 𝐴 =
𝑣

3
⇒𝐴= = 1.255 𝑚2
2.39

For Rectangular Canal

𝐴=𝐵×𝑦
𝐴
⇒𝐵=
𝑦
1.255
⇒𝐵= = 2.72 𝑚
0.462
 Page 38

Q. 25 Design a trapezoidal lined canal to carry discharge of 100 m3 /s, longitudinal

slope of 25 cm per km length and side slope of 1.5H: 1 V.
[Take 𝑛 = 0.016 and velocity of flow as 1.5 m/s ]

Answer: R=1.87m, A= 66.67m2, P= 35.65m, d= 2.15m, B= 26.68m

Using Manning's equation
1
𝑉 = 𝑅2/3 𝑆 1/2
𝑁

where
or
25 1
𝑆= =
1000 × 100 4000
𝑉 = 1.5 𝑚/𝑠𝑒𝑐
𝑁 = 0.016
1 1
∴ 1.5 = 𝑅2/3
0.016 √4000
𝑅 = 1.87 𝑚.

The channel section is assumed to be trapezoidal

1
For side slope 1 : 1, 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝜃 = 3/2 = 1.5 and 𝜃 = 0.59 radian.
2
Area of cross section of the channel

𝑄 100
𝐴= = = 66.67 𝑚2
𝑉 1.5

Perimeter of the section

𝐴 66.67
𝑃= = = 35.65 𝑚.
𝑅 1.87

From Eq.

66.67 = 𝑏𝑑 + 𝑑 2 (𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝜃)
35.65 = 𝑏 + 2𝑑(𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝜃)

Substituting for 𝜃 and 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝜃

66.67 = 𝑏𝑑 + 𝑑 2 (2.09)
35.65 = 𝑏 + 𝑑(4.18)

From Eq. of b

𝑏 = 35.65 − 4.18𝑑

Substituting it in equation

𝑑(35.65 − 4.18𝑑) + 2.09𝑑2 = 66.67

𝑑2 − 17.1𝑑 + 31.9 = 0
𝑑 𝑑 = 2.145 𝑚
𝑏 = 35.65 − 4.18(2.145) = 26.68 𝑚.

and
Thus required bed width = 26.68 𝑚 and depth 2.15 𝑚.
 Page 39

Q. 26 Design a triangular lined channel for a discharge of 40 cumecs having

longitudinal slope of 1 in 10000 and side slope of 1.25H: 1 V. [Take Manning's
constant, n = 0.018 ]

Answer: Depth = 4.83m

Area of triangular section

𝐴 = 𝑑 2 (𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝜃)

where 𝑑 = depth of central portion

Perimeter 𝑃 = 2𝑑(𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝜃)
Hydraulic mean depth,
𝑑 2 (𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝜃)
𝑅= = 𝑑/2.
2𝑑(𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝜃)

From Manning's equation

Also

1 2/3 1/2 1 𝑑 2/3 1 𝑑 2/3

𝑉= 𝑅 𝑆 = ( ) =
𝑁 0.018 2 √10000 2.86
𝑄 45
𝑉= = 2
𝐴 𝑑 (𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝜃)

where 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝜃 = 1.25, since side slope is 1.25: 1

∴ 𝜃 = 0.675 radian

Hence,

45 45
𝑉= =
𝑑 2 (0.675 + 1.25) 𝑑 2 (1.925)

Equating both, we get

𝑑 2/3 45
= 2
2.86 𝑑 (1.925)

Hence

45 × 2.86
𝑑 8/3 = = 66.8
1.925

From which

𝑑 = 4.83 𝑚
 Page 40

Q. 27 A lined rectangular channel with 𝑛 = 0.015 is 5 m wide and has a flow depth
of 2 m with the bed slope of 1 in 1600 . Retaining the rectangular shape of channel
section and the same total area of lining, to what maximum extent can the
discharge be increased without changing the bed slope?

Answer: 18.225 m3/s

Given 𝐵 = 5 𝑚, 𝐷 = 2 𝑚; 𝑆 = 1/1600
Area of lining per m run = 𝐵 + 2𝐷 = 5 + 2 × 2 = 9 𝑚3 /𝑚
Let 𝐵1 be the new width and 𝐷1 be the new depth.
Area of lining per 𝑚 run = 𝐵1 + 2𝐷1
Since area of lining is constant, 𝐵1 + 2𝐷1 = 𝐵 + 2𝐷 = 9
Hence
𝐵1 = 9 − 2𝐷1

Now for maximum discharge 2D1=B1

Hence,
2𝐷1 = 9 − 2𝐷1

⇒ 𝐷1 = 2.25𝑚 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵1 = 4.5𝑚

With obtained dimensions,

Area of c/s,
𝐴 = 2.25 × 4.5
⇒ 𝐴 = 10.125𝑚2

Wetted Perimeter will be same,

𝑃 = 4.5 + 2 × 2.25 = 9

Hydraulic Radius,
𝐴 10.125
𝑅= = = 1.125
𝑃 9

Velocity of flow
1
1 1 2 1 2
𝑉 = 𝑅2/3 𝑆 1/2 = (1.125)3 ( ) = 1.8 𝑚/𝑠.
𝑛 0.015 1600

Discharge,
𝑄 = 𝐴𝑣 = 10.125 × 1.8 = 18.225 𝑐𝑢𝑚𝑒𝑐

Try Yourself
T1. A most efficient trapezoidal section is required to give a maximum discharge
of 21.5 m3 /s of water. The slope of the channel bottom is 1 in 2500, taking 𝐶 = 70
in Chezy's equation, determine the dimensions of the channel. Also determine
the value of Manning's ' 𝑛 '. Taking the value of velocity of flow as obtained for
the channel by Chezy's equation.

[Ans : 𝑦 = 2.75 m, 𝐵 = 3.18 m and 𝑛 = 0.015 ]

The question is from Open Channel Flow.

 Page 41

Solution. We shall first derive the equations to be used in the question as follows. For the
most efficient channel, the whetted perimeter must be minimum for a given area. Thus, for
a trapezoidal channel of bed width 𝐵, depth 𝑦, and side slopes 𝑚: 1(𝐻: 𝑉), we have

𝐴 = (𝐵 + 𝑚 ⋅ 𝑦)𝑦
𝑃 = 2 ⋅ √(1 + 𝑚2 )𝑦 + 𝐵
𝐴
𝑃 = 2√(1 + 𝑚2 )𝑦 + ( − 𝑚 ⋅ 𝑦)
𝑦
𝐴
𝑃 = − 𝑚 ⋅ 𝑦 + 2(1 + 𝑚2 )1/2 ⋅ 𝑦
𝑦
𝑑𝑃
= −𝐴 ⋅ 𝑦 −2 − 𝑚 + 2√1 + 𝑚2 = 0
𝑑𝑦
𝐴
= 2 √1 + 𝑚 2 − 𝑚
𝑦2
𝐴 = [2√1 + 𝑚2 − 𝑚] 𝑦 2
𝐴
But, 𝐵 = − 𝑚𝑦 = [2√1 + 𝑚2 − 𝑚]𝑦 − 𝑚𝑦
𝑦
𝐵 = 2 [√1 + 𝑚2 − 𝑚] 𝑦
Note : The second derivative of 𝑃 with respect to 𝑦 is worked out to be 2𝐴/𝑦 3 , which is +
vel, and hence the condition obtained above is for minimum 𝑃.
Using the above worked out relation, we can write

𝑃 = 2√1 + 𝑚2 : 𝑦 + 𝐵 = 2√1 + 𝑚2 ⋅ 𝑦 + 2 [√1 + 𝑚2 − 𝑚] 𝑦

= 4√1 + 𝑚2 ⋅ 𝑦 − 2𝑚𝑦
𝑃 = 2 ⋅ 𝑦 [2√1 + 𝑚2 − 𝑚]
𝐴 [2√1 + 𝑚2 − 𝑚]𝑦 2 𝑦
𝑅= = =
𝑃 [2√1 + 𝑚2 − 𝑚]2𝑦 2
𝑦
𝑅=
2

In the expression for 𝑃, there are two variables 𝑦 and 𝑛. 𝐴 second condition for min 𝑃 can
𝑑𝑃
be obtained by equating = 0, holding 𝑦 as constant.
𝑑𝑚

∴ using 𝑃 = 2𝑦 [2√1 + 𝑚2 − 𝑚]
𝑃 = 4 ⋅ 𝑦√1 + 𝑚2 − 2𝑦 ⋅ 𝑚
𝑑𝑃 1
= 4 ⋅ 𝑦 (1 + 𝑚2 )−1/2 ⋅ 2𝑚 − 2𝑦 × 1
𝑑𝑚 2
(with constant 𝑦 )
4𝑦 ⋅ 𝑚
= − 2𝑦 = 0
√1 + 𝑚2
4𝑦𝑚
= 2𝑦
√1 + 𝑚2
√1 + 𝑚2 = 2𝑚
1
𝑚=
√3
2𝑚
or =1
√1 + 𝑚2
or (1 + 𝑚2 ) = 4𝑚2 or 3𝑚2 = 1

1
Hence, for the most efficient trapezoidal channel, side slopes should be : 1 ( 𝐻: 𝑉)
√3
 Page 42

1 𝑦
Using the above two conditions, for the most efficient channel ; ie. 𝑚 = and 𝑅 = , we
√3 2
can solve the given question as follows:
Using 𝑄 = 𝐶 ⋅ √𝑅 ⋅ 𝑆 × 𝐴, we have

𝑄 = 21.5 𝑚3 /𝑠,
𝐶 = 70√𝑚/𝑠𝑒𝑐
1
𝑆=
2500

1
∴ 21.5 = 70 × √𝑅 ⋅ ×𝐴
√2500

70
21.5 = √𝑅 ⋅ 𝐴
50
1
For the most efficient trapezoidal channel, we have side slopes 𝑚: 1(𝐻: 𝑉), where 𝑚 = ,
√3
𝑦
and 𝑅 = .
2
Also,

𝐴 = [2√1 + 𝑚2 − 𝑚] 𝑦 2

1 1
= [2√1 + − ] 𝑦 2 = (2.3094 − 0.5773)𝑦 2 = 1.732𝑦 2
3 √3
70 𝑦
∴ 21.5 = ⋅ √ × 1.732𝑦 2
50 2
21.5 × 50 × √2
= 𝑦 2.5 or 𝑦 = 2.75 𝑚 Ans.
70 × 1.732
Also 𝐴 = 1.732 ⋅ (2.75)2 = 13.10
1
But 𝐴 = (𝐵 + 𝑚 ⋅ 𝑦)𝑦 = (𝐵 + × 2.75) 2.75
√3
∴ 13.10 = (𝐵 + 0.577 × 2.75)2.75 or 13.10 = (𝐵 + 1.588)2.75
𝐵 = 3.18 𝑚
𝐵 = 3.18 𝑚 and 𝑦 = 2.75 𝑚
1 𝑦 1
𝑉 = 𝐶 ⋅ √𝑅𝑆 = 70 ⋅ √𝑅 ⋅ = 70 ⋅ √ ⋅
50 2 50
2.75 1
= 70 × √ ⋅ = 1.64 𝑚/𝑠
2 50

The channel dimensions are thus worked out as:

𝐵 = 3.18 𝑚 and 𝑦 = 2.75 𝑚

1
Side slopes = : 1 (ie. sides inclined at 60∘ to horizontal)
√3
Velocity as per Chezy's Equation determined above is

With Manning's equation

 Page 43

1 2/3 1 𝑦 2/3 1 2.75 2/3 1

𝑉= ⋅ 𝑅 ⋅ √𝑆 = ⋅ ( ) ⋅ √𝑆 = × ( ) ⋅
𝑛 𝑛 2 𝑛 2 50
1 2/3
1
⇒ 1.64 = ⋅ (1.375) ⋅
𝑛 50
(1.375)2/3
⇒𝑛= or 𝑛 = 0.015 Ans.
50 × 1.64

T2. Design a regime channel for a discharge of 50 cumecs and silit factor 1.1
using Lacey's theory.

[Ans : 𝑦 = 1.85 m, 𝐵 = 29.416 m, 𝑆 = 1 in 5470]

Solution. 𝑄 = 50 cumecs, 𝑓 = 1.1

1/6 1/6
𝑄𝑓 2 50 × (1.1)2
𝑉=[ ] =[ ]
140 140
𝑄 50
𝐴= = = 56.3 𝑚2
𝑉 0.869
5 𝑉 2 5 (0.869)2
𝑅= ⋅ = ⋅ = 1.675 𝑚.
2 𝑓 2 1.1
𝑃 = 4.75√𝑄 = 4.75 ⋅ √50 = 33.56 𝑚

1
For a trapezoidal channel with 𝐻: 1𝑉 slopes
2
and

𝑃 = 𝑏 + √5 ⋅ 𝑦

𝑦
𝐴 = (𝑏 + ) 𝑦
2

∴ 33.56 = 𝑏 + √5 ⋅ 𝑦

and

𝑦2
56.3 = 𝑏𝑦 +
2

From Eq. (i), we get, 𝑏 = 33.56 − 2.24𝑦

Putting this value of 𝑏 in Eq. (ii)
or

𝑦2
56.3 = [33.56 − 2.24𝑦]𝑦 +
2
= 33.56𝑦 − 2.24𝑦 2 + 0.5𝑦 2 = 33.56𝑦 − 1.74𝑦 2

or

1.74𝑦 2 − 33.56𝑦 + 56.3 = 0

or
 Page 44

𝑦 2 − 19.3𝑦 + 32.4 = 0
19.3 ± √372 − 129.6
∴ =
2
19.3 ± √242.4 19.3 ± 15.6
= =
2 2

Neglecting unfeasible + ve sign, we get

or

19.3 − 15.6
𝑦= = 1.85 𝑚
2

∴ 𝑦 = 1.85 𝑚.

𝑏 = 33.56 − 2.24 × 1.85 = 29.416 𝑚

𝑏 = 29.416 𝑚. Ans.

𝑓 5/3 (1.1)5/3 1
𝑆= 1/6
= 1/6
=
3340𝑄 3340 ⋅ (50) 5470

Use a bed slope of 1 in 5470

T3. Design a trapezoidal concrete lined channel to carry a discharge of 350

cumecs at a slope of 1 in 6400 . The side slopes of the channel may be taken as
1
1 𝐻: 1𝑉. The value of ' 𝑛 ' for lining material may be taken as 0.013 . Assume
2
limiting water depth of the channel as 4.0 m.

[Ans : Using free board of 0.75 m, we get total depth of lined channel = 4.75 m and 𝐵 =
32.5 m ]

Solution: The channel section is assumed to be trapezoidal.

Now, we have
𝐴 = 𝑦(𝐵 + 𝑦𝜃 + 𝑦𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝜃)
𝑃 = 𝐵 + 2𝑦 ⋅ 𝜃 − 2𝑦 ⋅ 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝜃
1
For 1 : 1 slope, 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝜃 = 1.5 and 𝜃 = 0.59 radian.
2

∴ 𝐴 = 𝑦(𝐵 + 0.59𝑦 + 1.5𝑦) = 𝑦(𝐵 + 2.09𝑦)

𝑃 = 𝐵 + 1.18𝑦 + 3𝑦 = 𝐵 + 4.18𝑦
𝑦 = 𝟒. 𝟎𝑚 (given)

Therefore,
𝐴 = 4(𝐵 + 2.09 × 4) = 4(𝐵 + 8.36) = 4𝐵 + 33.44

𝑃 = 𝐵 + 4.18 × 4 = 𝐵 + 16.72
𝐴 4𝐵 + 33.44
𝑅= =
𝑃 𝐵 + 16.72
1
𝑄 = ⋅ 𝐴 ⋅ 𝑅2/3 ⋅ 𝑆 1/2
𝑛
 Page 45

1 4𝐵+33.44 2/3 1 (4𝐵+33.44)5/3

∴ 350 = × (4𝐵 + 33.44) ( ) or 350 × 0.013 × 80 = or
0.013 𝐵+16.72 √6400 (𝐵+16.72)2/3

(4𝐵 + 33.44)5/3
364 =
(𝐵 + 16.72)2/3
Solving Eq. by Hit and Trial
(i) Use
𝐵 = 30 𝑚.
(120 + 33.44)5/3 (153.44)5/3
L.H.S. = 364; R.H.S. = = 339
(30 + 16.72)2/3 (46.72)2/3

(ii) Use 𝐵 = 32 𝑚.
(161.44)5/3
R.H.S. = = 359
(48.72)2/3

(iii) Use
𝐵 = 32.5 𝑚.

(163.44)5/3
R.H.S. = = 364; ∴ 𝑂𝐾
(49.22)2/3

Hence, use 𝐵 = 𝟑𝟐. 𝟓𝑚 and 𝒚 = 𝟒. 𝟎𝑚

Using free-board of 0.75 𝑚, we get total depth of lined channel = 4.0 𝑚 + 0.75 = 4.75 𝑚.
Hence, use 𝐵 = 𝟑𝟐. 𝟓𝑚

𝐵 = 32.5 𝑚
] Ans.
𝐷 = 4.75 𝑚

T4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
( 𝑆 = bed slope, 𝑞 = discharge intensity, 𝑄 = Discharge)

List-I
A. Mean velocity in a Lacey's regime channel

B. Mean velocity in a lined channel

C. Normal scour depth in an alluvial channel

D. Wetted perimeter of a Lacey regime channel

List-II

1. 𝑆 1/2
2. 𝑆 1/3
3. 𝑞 2/3
4. 𝑞 −2/3
5. 𝑄1/2
 Page 46

Codes:
A B C D

(a) 2 5 3 1

(b) 3 1 4 5

(c) 2 1 3 5

(d) 3 5 4 1

[Ans : c]

""All Birds find shelter during rain. But

Eagle avoids rain by flying above clouds."
― Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
 Page 47

Chapter 5
Design and analysis of Gravity Dam
Multiple Choice Questions
Q. 1 In the empty condition of reservoir and with the elementary profile of a dam,
the vertical stress at heel and toe respectively are given by
𝑊 𝑊
(a) 0 and (b) and 0
2𝐵 2𝐵
2𝑊 2𝑊
(c) and 0 (d) 0 and
𝐵 𝐵

where 𝐵 is base width and 𝑊 is self-weight of unit length of dam.

Answer: C

Q. 2 The base width of an elementary profile of a gravity dam of height 𝐻 is ' 𝑏 '.
The specific gravity of the material of the dam is ' 𝐺 ' and uplift pressure coefficient
is ' 𝐾. The correct relationship for no tension at the heel is given by
𝑏 1 𝑏
(a) 𝐻
= (b) = √𝐺 − 𝐾
√𝐺−𝐾 𝐻
𝑏 1 𝑏 1
(c) 𝐻
= 𝐺−𝐾
(d) 𝐻
=𝐾
√𝐺−𝐾

Answer: A

Q. 3 What is the critical combination of vertical and horizontal earthquake

accelerations to be considered for checking the stability of a gravity dam in
reservoir full condition?

(a) Vertically upward and horizontally downstream

(b) Vertically upward and horizontally upstream

(c) Vertically downward and horizontally upstream

(d) Vertically downward and horizontally downstream

Answer: C
When the vertical acceleration is acting downward, the foundation will try to move
downward, i.e. away from the body of the dam; thus reducing the effective weight and
stability of the dam. Thus it is the worst case from design point of view.

Also, when the reservoir is full, the force due to horizontal acceleration towards upstream
would produce worst results if it is additive to the hydrostatic water pressure, due to
sudden movement of dam towards reservoir.
 Page 48

Q. 4 If the eccentricity of total self-weight 𝑊 of a masonary dam at its base is

equal to one-fourth of base width 𝐵, then the maximum pressure at the base is
given by
2𝑊 4𝑊 5𝑊 8𝑊
(a) 3𝐵 (b) 3𝐵 (c) 2𝐵 (d) 3𝐵

Answer: D
Masonry cannot take tension.
𝑏
So maximum pressure for 𝑒 > is
6

2𝑊
𝜌𝑚𝑎𝑥 =
𝐵
3 [ − 𝑒]
2
𝐵
Given 𝑒 =
4
8𝑊
∴ 𝜌𝑚𝑎𝑥 =
3𝐵

Q. 5 A gravity dam is subjected to hydro dynamic pressure which is caused by

(a) the rising waters of the reservoir when a flood wave enters into it.

(b) the rising waves in the reservoir due to high winds.

(c) the increase in water pressure, momentarily caused by the horizontal

earthquake, acting towards the reservoir.

(d) the increase in water pressure, momentarily caused by the horizontal

earthquake, acting towards the dam.

Answer: C

Q. 6 At the base of a gravity dam section, the vertical stress at the toe was found
to be 2.4MPa. If the downstream face of the dam has a slope of 0.707 horizontal :
1 vertical, and if there is no tail water, the maximum principal stress at the toe
of the dam is
(a) 1.7MPa (b) 2.4MPa
(c) 3.6MPa (d) 4.8MPa

Answer: C
σv = 2.4MPa

0.707
tan α = ⇒ tan α = 0.707
1

σ1 = σv sec 2 α
sec 2 α − tan2 α = 1
sec 2 α = 1 + (0.707)2 = 1.49
σ1 = 2.4 × 1.49 = 3.6MPa
 Page 49

Q. 7 Consider the following statements in respect of dams:

1. In a gravity, dam, grout curtain is provided near the toe to reduce the exit
gradient.
2. A drainage gallery with its drainage pipe system provided in gravity dam
reduces the uplift pressure at all levels below the
upstream water level.
3. An earthquake acceleration of 0.1 g acting vertically downward causes a
decrease of 10% in the unit weight of concrete and of water in a gravity dam.
4. The Tehri dam is a gravity dam.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

Answer: A
A grout curtain is a barrier that protects the foundation of a dam from seepage. It's made
up of a series of vertically drilled holes that are filled with pressurized grout. The holes are
drilled in intervals and in such a way that they cross each other, creating a curtain. This
process is commonly known as pressure grouting. It is provided near toe.

A drainage gallery with its drainage pipe system provided in a gravity dam reduces the
uplift pressure built under it.

Tehri dam is a rock-earth fill dam.

Q. 8 Assertion (A): In the retaining wall shown in the given figure when the ratio
h/b=√S the eccentricity is b/6 whether the storage is nil or full.

Reason (R): The resultant force will pass through the centroid of the pressure
ℎ
distribution diagram on the base, for the nil or full storage if the ratio 𝑏 = √𝑆

(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of 𝐴

(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of 𝐴

(c) 𝐴 is true but 𝑅 is false

(d) 𝐴 is false but 𝑅 is true

 Page 50

Answer: B
Shown structure is elementary profile of earthen dam, in which eccentricity is
always kept b/6.

The resultant force always goes through centroid of pressure diagram.

Both the statements are correct, but there is no inter-relation of statements.

Q. 9 The base width of a solid gravity dam is 25 m. The material of the dam has
a specific gravity of 2.56 and the dam is designed as an elementary profile
ignoring uplift. What is the approximate allowable height of the dam?
(a) 64 m
(b) 40 m
(c) 164 m
(d) 80 m

Answer: B
For elementary profile

𝐻
𝐵=
√𝑆𝐶 − 𝐶
When uplift is ignored 𝐶 = 𝑂

𝐻
∴ 𝐵=
√𝑆𝐶
Or 𝐻 = 25 × √2.56 = 40 𝑚

Q. 10 The top width and the bottom width at river thalweg level of a concrete
gravity dam are 6 m and 24 m respectively. The vertical section of the dam at the
thalweg alignment is 38 m above the thalweg. The upstream face is vertical and
the depth of water on the upstream side is 36 m. The moment of hydrostatic force
about the toe at that level is
(a) 77760kN − m
(b) 25292kN − m
(c) 6480kN − m
(d) 51840kN − m

Answer: A
̅ × Area
FH = ρgH

36
= 103 × 9.81 × × 36 × 1
2
= 6356.88kN

Moment of hydrostatic force about toe

H
= FH ×
3
36
= 6356.88 × = 76282.56kNm
3
 Page 51

Q. 11 Consider the following data regarding a theoretical profile of a dam:

Permissible value of compressible stress 𝜎 = 350 tonnes /m2

Specific gravity of concrete, 𝑠 = 2.4
Uplift coefficient, 𝑐 = 0.6
The value of 𝛾 = 1 ton/𝑚3
The height of base width will be nearly
(a) 125 m and 63 m (b) 175 m and 63 m
(c) 125 m and 93 m (d) 175 m and 93 m

Answer: C
Given, 𝑓𝐶 = 350 Tonnes /𝑚2 , 𝑆𝐶 = 2.4, 𝐶 = 0.60 and 𝑌𝑤 = 1 Tonnes /𝑚3

Height of the dam,

𝑓𝑐
𝐻≥
𝛾𝑤 (𝑆𝑐 − 𝐶 + 1)
350
𝐻≥
1(2.4 − 0.60 + 1)
350
𝐻≥
2.8
∴ 𝐻 ≥ 125𝑚

Width of the dam,

𝐻
𝐵≥
√𝑆𝑐 − 𝐶
125
𝐵≥
√2.4 − 0.6
∴ 𝐵 ≥ 93𝑚

Q. 12 Which one of the following is the correct assumption made in two

dimensional design of gravity dams?
(a) The loads are transferred to the abutments by beam action
(b) The foundation and dam behave as separate units
(c) The materials in the foundation and body of the dam are isotropic and
homogeneous
(d) The stresses developed in the foundation and body of the dam are not within
elastic limit

Answer: C
The assumptions made in the two-dimensional gravity method are:
1. The dam is considered to be composed of a number of cantilevers, each of which is 1 m
thick and acts independent of the other
2. No loads are transferred to the abutments by beam action
3. The foundation and the dam behave as a single unit
4. The materials in the dam body and foundation are isotropic and homogeneous
5. The stresses developed in the dam and foundation are within elastic limits and no
movement of the foundation is caused due to transfer of loads.
 Page 52

Numerical Answer Type Questions

Q. 13 For an elementary gravity dam of height 𝐻, the uplift pressure is linearly
distributed at the base with maximum value of 𝛾𝑤 𝐻 at heel. If the specific gravity
of concrete is taken as 2.43 , then the maximum stress at toe _________𝛾𝑤 𝐻 and
maximum normal stress in the dam are __________𝛾w H. [Assume dam to be safe in
sliding]

Answer: 1.43 & 2.43

maximum stress at toe, pmax = 𝛾𝑤 𝐻(𝐺𝑐 − 𝐶)

and, maximum normal stress in the dam, σ = 𝛾𝑤 𝐻(𝐺𝑐 − 𝐶 + 1)

Q. 14 If for a gravity dam, the coefficient of friction (𝜇) is 0.60 and the value of
the sliding factor as obtained from the calculations is 0.68 , then factor of safety
against sliding is

Answer: 0.882
We know that, Sliding factor is the minimum coefficient of friction required to prevent sliding.
(Refrence: B.C Punmia, Page 383)
Hence, when 𝜇 = 𝑆𝑙𝑖𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑓𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟, then FOS =1

𝜇𝛴𝑉
=1
𝛴𝐻

0.68 × 𝛴𝑉
⇒ =1
𝛴𝐻

𝛴𝑉
⇒ = 1.47
𝛴𝐻

𝜇𝛴𝑉
𝐹𝑂𝑆 𝑎𝑔𝑎𝑖𝑛𝑠𝑡 𝑆𝑙𝑖𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑔 =
𝛴𝐻

⇒ 𝐹𝑂𝑆 = 0.6 × 1.47 = 0.882

Q. 15 The maximum height of a low gravity dam of elementary profile made of

concrete having relative density 2.5 and safe allowable stress of foundation
material is 3.87MPa without considering uplift force is m.

Answer: 112.71 m
σ = 𝛾𝑤 𝐻(𝐺𝑐 − 𝐶 + 1)

Here, C=0 (without considering uplift force)

And σ = 3.87 MPa

H=112.71 m
 Page 53

Q. 16 Specific gravity of dam material is 2.3 and seepage coefficient (𝐶) at the
base is 0.6 , then the width of an elementary gravity dam whose height is 150 m
is m.

Answer: 115 m
𝐻
𝐵≥
√𝑆𝑐 − 𝐶
150
𝐵≥
√2.3 − 0.6
∴ 𝐵 ≥ 115.044 𝑚

Q. 17 The wave height generated on the surface of the reservoir, havng a fetch
length 𝐹, 30 km and due to wind blowing on the surface of the reservoir at a
velocity of 30kmph, is m.

Answer: 1.08 m
Given data
𝐹 = 30 𝑘𝑚
𝑉 = 30 𝑘𝑚/ℎ𝑟

For 𝐹 < 32 𝑘𝑚, Wave height (ℎ𝑤 )

ℎ𝑤 = 0.032√𝑉𝐹 + 0.763 − 0.271𝐹1/4

ℎ𝑤 = 0.032√30 × 30 + 0.763 − 0.271(30)1/4
ℎ𝑤 = 1.08𝑚

Q. 18 A concrete gravity dam section is shown in the figure. Assuming unit weight
of water as 10kN/m3 and unit weight of concrete as 24kN/m3 , the uplift force per
unit length of the dam (expressed in kN/m ) at PQ is

Answer: 10500kN/m
1 1
⇒𝐹= × 10(65 + 25) × 10 + (25 + 5) × 40 × 10
2 2
= 4500 + 6000

𝐹 = 10500𝑘𝑁/𝑚
 Page 54

Q. 19 For the section of gravity dam shown below, check for tension at the base.
Also compute the vertical stresses at the toe and at the heel of the dam.

Take 𝛾𝑐 = 23.5kN/m3 and neglect earthquake effects.

Also find the effective base width in contact.

Consider 1 𝑚 length of the dam.

 Page 55

The various forces and their moments about the toe are then calculated and tabulated in
Distance of resultant from the toe

Name of Designation Magnitude in Lever arm Moments about

the force if given 𝒌𝑵 in m toe in
𝒌𝑵. 𝒎
Vertical forces
Downward weight 𝑊1 (+) 84 × 6 × 1 × 23.5 = 53.0 6,27,732
of the dam 11,844
𝑊2 1
(+) × 50 × 75 × 1 × 33.33 14,68,620
2
23.5 = 44,063
Weight of water - 1 1.33 157
(+) × 4 × 6 × 1 × 9.81
supported on 𝑑/ s 2
face = 118
Total 𝛴𝑉1 = 56,025 𝛴𝑀1 = (+)20,96,509
Uplift pressures 𝑈1 300.8 × 8 × 1 = 2406 52.0 1,25,112
𝑈2 1 53.33 1,03,247
× 484 × 8 × 1 = 1936
2
𝑈3 58.9 × 48 × 1 = 2827 24.0 67,848
𝑈4 1 32.0 1,85,792
(−)′ × 241.9 × 48 × 1
2
= 5806
Total 𝛴𝑉2 = (−)12,975 𝛴𝑀2 = (−)4,81,999
Total Vertical 𝛴𝑉 = 56,025 − 12,975
force = 43050
Horizonal Forces
Water pressure on 𝑃 1 26.67 8,37,225
× 784.8 × 80 × 1
𝑢/𝑠 face 2 2.0
= 31,392
Water pressure on 𝑃′ 1 354
× 58.9 × 6 = (−)177
𝑑/𝑠 face 2
Total 𝛴𝐻( towards 𝛴 = (−)8,36,871
downstream ) = 31,215
𝚺𝐌 = 𝐍𝐞𝐭 (+) 𝐦𝐨𝐦𝐞𝐧𝐭 = 𝟐𝟎𝟗𝟔𝟓𝟎𝟗 − 𝟒𝟖𝟏𝟗𝟗𝟗 − 𝟖𝟑𝟔𝟖𝟕𝟏 = 𝟕𝟕𝟕𝟔𝟑𝟗 𝐤𝐍 − 𝐦

𝛴𝑀 7,77,639𝑘𝑁 ⋅ 𝑚
(𝑥‾) = = = 18.06 𝑚
𝛴𝑉 43050𝑘𝑁

56
Eccentricity = 𝑒 = − 18.06 = 28 − 18.06 = 9.94 𝑚
2

Vertical stress 𝑝𝑣 is given as :

𝛴𝑉 6𝑒
𝑝𝑣 = [1 ± ]
𝐵 𝐵
43,050𝑘𝑁 6 × 9.94
∴ 𝑝𝑣 = [1 ± ] = 768.8(1 ± 1.065)
56 𝑚 56

∴ Max. vertical stress = 𝑝max at toe = 768.8 × 2.065 = 1587.6𝒌𝑵/𝑚2

(Less then 3000kN/m2, Hence safe in compression)

∴ Min. vertical stress = 𝑝min at heel = 768.8 × (−)0.065 = (−)49.97𝑘𝑁/𝑚2 ]

(Less then -500 kN/m2, Hence safe in tension)

Effective base width ,

 Page 56

𝐻
For safety against tension cracks, 𝐵 ≥
√𝑆𝑐 −𝐶

Considering C=0, as no information is given about uplift coefficient.

80
⇒𝐵≥ = 52.75 𝑚
√2.3

No need to obtain minimum width for safety against Sliding, as friction coefficient is not
given.

Try Yourself
T1. Figure shows the section (non-overflow portion) of a straight gravity dam built
with concrete. Considerating water pressure and uplift pressure and neglecting
the other external forces acting on the dam, check whether the resultant passes
through the middle third of the base for the reservoir at full condition. In the
figure, RL stands for Reduced Level in metres and MWL stands for Maximum
Water Level. (Unit weight of water is 1000 kg/m3 and that of concrete is
2400 kg/m3)

[Ans : Resultant passes through the middle third of the base]

T2. The following figure gives profile of a gravity dam with reservoir level as
shown. Is the dam safe against sliding, if the coefficient of friction is 0.75 ? [Take
weight density of concrete = 2.4 tonnes /m3 ].

[Ans : The dam is not safe against sliding due to large magnitudes of uplift forces]
 Page 57

𝑤𝐻 2 1000
𝑃= = (97)2 × 10−3 = 4704.5 tonnes /m
2 2
𝑊1 = 7 × 100 × 2.4 = 1680 tonnes /m
1
𝑊2 = × 68 × 90 × 2.4 = 7344 tonnes /m
2

Total self weight = 𝑊 = 𝑊1 + 𝑊2 = 1680 + 7344 = 9024 tonnes /m

𝜇𝑊 0.75×9024
∴ F.S. against sliding = 𝑃 = 4704.5 = 1.439 > 1
Hence the dam is safe against sliding.

"Without continual growth and progress,

such words as improvement, achievement,
and success have no meaning.
― Benjamin Franklin
 Page 58

Chapter 6
Conveyance Structures for Canals and Canal Outlets/ Modules

Multiple Choice Questions

Q. 1 If the channel index at an irrigation outlet is 5/3, "setting" of an orifice type
outlet in order to have proportionality is
(a) 0.90
(b) 0.67
(c) 0.30
(d) 0.15

Answer: C
channel index = 5/3

Outlet index for orifice = ½

𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑙𝑒𝑡 𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑥 1/2

𝑆𝑒𝑡𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑔 = = = 0.3
𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑛𝑛𝑒𝑙 𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑥 5/3

Q. 2 The following data is available at the proposed site of a canal crossing

Item Drain Canal

BL(m) 252.2 248.0
FSL/HFL(m) 253.2 253.0
Discharge 2 400
(cumecs)

The most appropriate and economical cross drainage work at the above site will
be
(a) an aqueduct
(b) a super passage
(c) a syphon aqueduct
(d) a syphon

Answer: D
Drain is above canal but FSL of canal is above bed of drain, hence it is a syphon.

Q. 3 The worst condition of uplift on the floor of a syphon aqueduct occurs when
there is
(a) high flood flow in the drainage with canal dry
(b) full supply flow in the canal with drainage dry
(c) high flood flow in the drainage with canal running full
(d) water is at drainage bed and canal is dry

Answer: A
In case of syphon, when high flood flow takes place in the drainage with canal dry, the bed
of canal may crack due to uplift.
 Page 59

Q. 4 Flexibility of an outlet may be defined as the ratio of the rate of change of

(a) outlet discharge to the rate of change of water level of the parent channel
(b) outlet discharge to the rate of change of the discharge of the parent channel
(c) parent channel discharge to the rate of change of the outlet discharge
(d) parent channel water level to the rate of change of the outlet discharge

Answer: B
Flexibility: It is defined as the ratio of the rate of change of discharge of the outlet to the
rate of change of discharge of the distributary channel.

Q. 5 For the head regulator, the most severe condition of uplift pressure on the
floor occurs when

(a) the flow in the river is at flood level and canal is running at full supply depth
(b) the canal runs dry and the river flow is at high flood level
(c) the canal runs at full supply depth and the river flow is at pond level
(d) the canal runs dry and the river flow is at pond level

Answer: B
In case of syphon, when high flood flow takes place in the drainage with canal dry, the bed
of canal may crack due to uplift.

Q. 6 Match List-I (control structures) with List-II (functions of the control

structure) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II
A. Canal drop 1. Control of flow depth
B. Canal escape 2. Control of bed grade
C. Canal cross-regulator 3. Control of full supply level
D. Canal outlets 4. Control discharge

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 3 4 2

(b) 2 3 1 4

(c) 4 3 2 1

(d) 2 4 3 1

Answer: B
 Page 60

A canal fall or drop is an irrigation structure constructed across a canal to lower down its
bed level to maintain the designed slope when there is a change of ground level to maintain
the designed slope when there is change of ground level. This falling water at the fall has
some surplus energy.

A canal escape is an essential structure designed to manage the controlled release of

surplus water from the canal as needed.

A Regulator Constructed in the main canal or parent canal downstream of an off-take canal
is called cross- regulator. It is constructed to ensure sufficient feed in off taking canal.

A canal outlet or a module is a small structure built at the head of the watercourse so as to
connect it with a minor or a distributary channel and to measure discharge in watercourse.

Q. 7 A submerged pipe outlet is an example of

(a) semi-modular outlet

(b) non-modular outlet

(c) rigid module

(d) adjustable proportional module

Answer: B
Submerged pipe outlets are a specific type of non-modular outlet that discharge water from
a pipe or conduit submerged below the water surface of the receiving water body

Q. 8 Consider the following statements: Mitra's hyperbolic transition design is

based on the principle that

1. Flow depth in the canal, as well as the discharge, is constant

2. Width of the canal varies along with the discharge

3. Rate of change of velocity per unit length of transition is constant throughout

the length of the transition

Which of these statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: D
Mitra assumed the following to formulate is the formula to be used for transition design: -

1. The rate of change of velocity along the transition remains constant.

2. The depth of the flow and discharge remains constant in the direction of flow.
 Page 61

Q. 9 Which of the following outlets are of semi modular type?

1. Khanna's module

2. Adjustable proportional module

3. Submerged pipe outlet

4. Open flume outlet

5. Kennedy's gauge outlet

(a) 2, 4 and 5
(b) 1,2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 5
(d) 3, 4 and 5

Answer: A
Semi modular outlets are those outlets whose discharge depends only on the water level in
the distributary and is unaffected by the water level in the water course provided that a
minimum working head required for working is available. Example: Pipe outlet, Venturi
flume, Kennedy's gauge outlet, Crump's open flume outlet, Pipe-cum-open flume outlet, Open
flume and orifice semi-module, and Adjustable proportional module.

Q. 10 Statement (I): The sharp corners in the cross-section of a canal are

rounded.

Statement (II): The corners may not become zones of stagnation.

(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II)
is the correct explanation of Statement (I).

(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true but Statement (II)
is not the correct explanation of Statement (I). (c) Statement (I) is true but
Statement (II) is false.

(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.

Answer: A
Sharp corner cross-sections of irrigation canal led to formation of eddies (circular movement
of water causing a small whirlpool i.e. zone of stagnation) which further leads to loss of
energy of flowing water in canal which in turn results in larger sections to compensate the
loss in energy due to formation of eddies. To avoid this and to make canal cross section
more economical, cross-section of irrigation canals is rounded.
Common type of cross-sections for irrigation canals are trapezoidal sections with rounded
corner, parabolic, triangular section with rounded corner, Circular sections etc.
 Page 62

Numerical Answer Type Questions

Q. 11 If the sensitivity of an irrigation module is 1/2 then 50% variation in canal
water depth will cause 𝑥% variation in outlet discharge, where 𝑥 is %.

Answer: 25%

Try Yourself
T1. Group I contains three broad classes of irrigation supply canal outlets. Group
II presents hydraulic performance attributes.

Group I
P. Non-modular outlet

Q. Semi-modular outlet

R. Modular outlet

Group II
1. Outlet discharge depends on the water levels in both the supply canal as well
as the receiving water course

2. Outlet discharge is fixed and is independent of the water levels in both the
supply canal as well as the receiving water course

3. Outlet discharge depends only on the water level in the supply canal

The correct match of the items in Group I with the items in Group II is
(a) P-1 ; Q-2 ; R-3
(b) P-3 ; Q-1 ; R-2
(c) P-2 ; Q-3 ; R-1
(d) P-1 ; Q-3 ; R-2

[Ans. d]

Non modular outlets are those through which the discharge depends upon the difference of
head between the distributary and the watercourse.

Semi modular outlets are those outlets whose discharge depends only on the water level in
the distributary and is unaffected by the water level in the water course provided that a
minimum working head required for working is available.

The discharge through a modular outlet is constant and fixed within limits, regardless of
the water levels in the distributary or watercourse.
 Page 63

T2. A canal fall is a control structure

(a) located at a place where the country slope is flatter than the canal bed slope

(b) located most economically where the depth of cutting is less than the
balancing depth
(c) the location of which is independent of the command to be served

(d) designed to secure raising of water surface on its upstream

[Ans : c]

A canal fall or drop is an irrigation structure constructed across a canal to lower down its
bed level to maintain the designed slope when there is a change of ground level to maintain
the designed slope when there is change of ground level. This falling water at the fall has
some surplus energy. Generally it is constructed at location where irrigation fields are not
available in sides of canal.

T3. Match List-I (Relative position of canal and drainage channel) with List-II
(Type of cross drainage work) and select the correct answer using the code given
below the lists:

List-II
List-I
1. Canal siphon
A. Canal taken above the drainage
channel at its grade
2. Drainage siphon
B. Drainage channel taken above the
3. Aqueduct
canal at its bed slope
4. Super passage
C. Canal taken below the drainage
channel

D. Drainage channel taken below the

canal

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 2 4 1 3

(b) 3 1 4 2

(c) 2 1 4 3

(d) 3 4 1 2
[Ans: D]
 Page 64

T4. Consider the following statements:

1. In a super-passage, the drain runs over the canal.

2. In a siphon, the drain runs below the canal.

3. In a siphon aqueduct, type-II, the canal banks are made of RCC walls.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

[Ans : d]

T5. Which of the following outlets are of semi modular type?

1. Khanna's module

2. Adjustable proportional module

3. Submerged pipe outlet

4. Open flume outlet

5. Kennedy's gauge outlet

(a) 2, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 5
(d) 3, 4 and 5

[Ans : a]

"All our dreams can come true if we have

the courage to pursue them."
― Walt Disney
 Page 65

Chapter 7
Theories of Seepage
Multiple Choice Questions
Q. 1 Khosla's safe exit gradient for design of weirs will be the lowest for
(a) fine sands
(b) coarse sands
(c) gravels
(d) none of these

Answer: A
Types of Soil Khosla's safe exit gradient
Shingle 0.25 to 0.20

Coarse sand 0.20 to 0.17

Fine sand 0.17 to 0.14

Q. 2 Profile of a weir on permeable foundation is shown in figure I and an

elementary profile of upstream pile only case' according to Khosla's theory is
shown in figure II. The uplift pressure heads at key points 𝑄, 𝑅 and 𝑆 are 3.14 m,
2.75 m and 0 m, respectively (refer figure II)

Figure I Figure II

What is the uplift pressure head at point 𝑃 downstream of the weir (junction of
floor and pile as shown in the figure I)?
(a) 2.75 m
(b) 1.25 m
(c) 0.8 m
(d) Data not sufficient

Answer: B
 Page 66

ℎ𝑄 = uplift pressure head at point 𝑄 = 3.14 𝑚

ℎ𝑅 = uplift pressure head at point 𝑅 = 2.75 𝑚
ℎ𝑠 = uplift pressure head at point 𝑆 = 0 𝑚
we know that

ℎ
𝜙= × 100
𝐻
2.75
𝜙𝑅 = × 100 = 68.75%
4
𝜙𝑃 = 100 − 𝜙𝑅 = 31.25%
Pressure head at point 𝑃
𝜙𝑃 = × 100
Total head
ℎ
31.25 = × 100
4

ℎ = 1.25 𝑚

∴ Uplift Pressure head at point 𝑃 = 1.25 𝑚

Q. 3 Consider the following statements:

1. Giving equal weightages to horizontal and vertical creeps for design of weir
foundations is one of the drawbacks of Kennedy's theory.
2. Khosla's theory of design of foundations for weirs is based on potential theory.
3. Piping problem can be reduced by increasing the length of floor.
4. In Lane's weighted creep theory, horizontal creep is given less weightage
compared to vertical creep.

Which of these statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

Answer: B

Q. 4 Uplift pressure at points E and D (figure A) of a straight horizontal floor of

negligible thickness with a sheet pile at downstream end are 28% and 20%,
respectively. If the sheet pile is at upstream end of the floor (figure-B), the uplift
pressures at points D1 and C1 are

Figure-A Figure-B
 Page 67

(a) 68% and 60% respectively (b) 80% and 72% respectively
(c) 88% and 70% respectively (d) 100% and zero respectively

Answer: B

Uplift pressure when sheet pile is at upstream = 100 - uplift pressure when sheet pile is at
downstream

Uplift pressure at
𝐷1 = 100 - Uplift pressure at D

= 100% − 20% = 80%

Uplift pressure at
𝐶1 = 100 - Uplift pressure at 𝐸

= 100% − 28% = 72%

Q. 5 Bligh's theory, as applied to the design of weirs and barrages on permeable

foundations, account for
(a) hydrostatic forces only (b) hydrodynamic forces only
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

Answer: A

Q. 6 Bligh's Creep theory of seepage assumes:

(a) equal weightage to horizontal and vertical creep
(b) more weightage to horizontal creep than vertical creep
(c) less weightage to horizontal creep than vertical creep
(d) loss of head follows a sine curve

Answer: A

Q. 7 A weir on a permeable foundation with downstream sheet pile is shown in

the figure below. The exit gradient as per Khosla's method is
 Page 68

(a) 1 in 4.8
(b) 1 in 3.4
(c) 1 in 3.0
(d) 1 in 2.6

Answer: B
Formula of exit gradient as per Khosla's method is given by

𝐻 1
𝐺𝐸 = = ⋯ (i)
𝑑 𝜋√𝜆

where, 𝐻 = Maximum seepage head.

1 + √1 + 𝛼 2
𝜆=
2

in which

𝑏 10
𝛼= = = 2.5
𝑑 4

Then,
1 + √1 + (2.5)2
𝜆= = 1.85
2

From equation (i),

5 1 1
𝐺𝐸 = × =
4 𝜋√1.85 3.4

Q. 8 Khosla's theory of independent variables is applicable to structure founded

on
(a) Rock
(b) Clay
(c) Sands
(d) Concrete

Answer: C

Q. 9 While designing a hydraulic structure, the piezometric head at bottom of the

floor is computed as 10 m. The datum is 3 m below floor bottom. The assured
standing water depth above the floor is 2 m. The specific gravity of the floor
material is 2.5. The floor thickness should be
(a) 2.00 m
(b) 3.33 m
(c) 4.40 m
(d) 6.00 m

Answer: A
 Page 69

Pressure head + Datum head = 10

Pressure head +3 = 10

Pressure head = 7 𝑚

Weight of floor and weight of water above it will counteract this upward pressure head

2𝛾𝑤 + 𝑡𝐺𝑠 𝑌𝑤 = 7𝑌𝑤

2 + 2.5𝑡 = 7 ⇒ 𝑡 = 2.00 𝑚

Q. 10 The following parameters relate to the design of weirs on permeable

foundations:

1. Scour depth 2. Exit gradient

3. Uplift pressure 4. Unbalanced head
Design of the downstream end pile of the weir depends upon
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

Answer: A

Q. 11 Consider the following data while designing an expansion transition for a

canal by Mitra's method:

Length of flume = 16 m
Width of thorat = 9 m
Width of canal = 15 m
If 𝐵𝑥 is the width at any distance 𝑥 from the flumed section, the values of 𝐵𝑥 at
𝑥 = 8 m and at 𝑥 = 16 m are nearly

(a) 10.8 m and 15 m (b) 11.3 m and 15 m

(c) 10.8 m and 13 m (d) 11.3 m and 13 m

Answer: B
 Page 70

Given,
Length of flume (𝐿𝑓 ) = 16 𝑚
Width of throat (𝐵𝑓 ) = 9 𝑚
Width of canal (𝐵𝐶 ) = 15 𝑚
For 𝑥 = 8 𝑚,

𝐵𝑓 𝐵𝑐 𝐿𝑓 16 × 9 × 15
𝐵8 = = = 11.25 𝑚
𝐿𝑓 𝐵𝐶 − (𝐵𝑐 − 𝐵𝑓 )𝑥 16 × 15 − (15 − 9) × 8

For 𝑥 = 16 𝑚,

𝐵𝑓 𝐵𝑐 𝐿𝑓 16 × 9 × 15
𝐵16 = = = 15 𝑚
𝐿𝑓 𝐵𝐶 − (𝐵𝑐 − 𝐵𝑓 )𝑥 16 × 15 − (15 − 9) × 16

Numerical Answer Type Questions

Q. 12 At a certain point in the floor of weir, the uplift pressure head due to
seepage is 4.5 m. If the relative density of concrete is 2.5 , the minimum thickness
of floor required at this point to counteract the uplift pressure is m. (Use Bligh's
theory)

Answer: 3m
Minimum thickness of floor required is,

ℎ 4.5
𝑡= = =3
𝐺 − 1 2.5 − 1

Q. 13 The concrete floor of a head regulator is level with the channel bed and is
13 m long. The depth of upstream and downstream cutoff wall is 2.5 m and 2.0 m.
The upstream F.S.L. is 1.5 m above the floor level, then the value of exit gradient
is [Use Khosla's theory]

Answer:
Exit gradient,

𝐻 1
𝐺𝐸 =
𝑑 𝜋√𝜆

where,
𝐻 = Total head = 1.5 𝑚
1 + √1 + 𝛼 2
𝜆=
2
𝑑 = Depth of 𝑑/𝑠 cutoff = 2 𝑚
𝑏 13
𝛼= = = 6.5
𝑑 2
1 + √1 + 6.52
𝜆= = 3.79
2
 Page 71

1.5 1
𝐺𝐸 =
2 𝜋√3.79

⇒
𝐺𝐸 = 0.123 (1 in 8.15)

Conventional Questions
Q. 14 Calculate the uplift pressure head at points 𝐴 and 𝐵 for the flow shown in
figure and thickness required at these locations. Also calculate the average
hydraulic gradient.

Use Bligh's theory. Assume 𝐺𝐶 = 2.4.

Answer:
Total length of creep = (2 × 6) + 22 + (2 × 8) = 50
4 1
Hydraulic gradient = =
50 12.5
(i) Uplift pressure at a point A, 6 𝑚 from 𝑢/𝑠

Length of creep upto 𝐴 = (6 × 2) + 6 = 18 𝑚

18
∴ Unbalanced head = ℎ1 = 4 (1 − ) = 2.56 𝑚
50
∴ Uplift pressure = 𝑤ℎ1 = 9.81 × 2.56 = 25.11𝑘𝑁/𝑚2
4 ℎ1
Thickness 𝑡 =
3 𝜌−1

4 2.56
= × = 2.76 𝑚
3 2.24 − 1

(ii) Uplift pressure at point 𝐵, 12 𝑚 from 𝑢/𝑠.

Length of creep up to 𝐵

= (6 × 2) + 12 = 24 𝑚

Unbalanced head

24
ℎ2 = 4 (1 − ) = 2.08 𝑚
50
 Page 72

∴ Uplift pressure = 𝑤ℎ2 = 9.81 × 2.08 = 20.4𝑘𝑁/𝑚2

Thickness

4 ℎ2 4 2.08
𝑡= = = 2.23 𝑚
3 𝜌 − 1 3 2.24 − 1

Q. 15 Check safety of a barrage shown below against the piping action, if the safe
exit gradient is 1/5.

Answer: Not Safe

Exit gradient,

𝐻 1
𝐺𝐸 =
𝑑 𝜋√𝜆

where,
𝐻 = Total head = 100 − 80 = 20 𝑚
1 + √1 + 𝛼 2
𝜆=
2
𝑑 = Depth of 𝑑/𝑠 cutoff = 9 𝑚
𝑏 (15 + 5 + 25)
𝛼= = =5
𝑑 9
1 + √1 + 5 2
𝜆= = 3.05
2
∴

20 1
𝐺𝐸 =
9 𝜋√3.05

⇒ 𝐺𝐸 = 0.405

Safe exit gradient is 1/5 i.e. 0.2, Hence given structure may fail in piping.
 Page 73

Chapter 8
River Training Works & Diversion Headworks
Multiple Choice Questions
Q. 1 Which of the following are the purpose of a groyne as a river training
structure?

1. It contracts a river channel to improve its depth.

2. It protects the river bank.

3. It does not allow silt to deposit in the vicinity.

4. It trains the flow along a certain course.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B
Purpose of a Groyne as a River Training Structure:

1. Improving Depth:
- It deflects the flow of water in specific reach of channel, due to which depth is increased
- This is important for navigation and flood control purposes.

2. Bank Protection:
- A groyne helps to protect the river bank from erosion.
- By reducing the velocity of the flow along the bank, a groyne helps to prevent the bank
from being undercut and collapsing.
3. Preventing Silt Deposition:
- A groyne helps to prevent silt from depositing in the vicinity.
- The increased velocity of the flow caused by the contraction of the channel helps to keep
the silt in suspension and carry it downstream.

4. Flow Training:
- A groyne helps to train the flow of the river along a certain course.
- By directing the flow towards a certain point, a groyne can help to prevent erosion at that
point and maintain the stability of the river channel.

Therefore, the correct answer is option B- 1, 2, and 4.

 Page 74

Q. 2 Consider the following statements:

1. High water training is undertaken to protect against damage due to floods.

2. Low water training is undertaken to provide sufficient depth for navigation.

3. Mean water training is undertaken to provide efficient disposal of sediment

load.

Which of these statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1,2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 only

Answer: B
(1) High water training or Training for discharge
High water training is undertaken with the primary purpose of flood control. It, therefore,
aims at providing sufficient river cross-section for the safe passage of maximum flood, and
is concerned with making the adjoining area flood-proof, by construction of Marginal Bunds
and Guided Banks, etc.

(2) Low water training or Training for depth:

Low water training is undertaken with the primary purpose of providing sufficient water
depth in navigable channels during low water periods. Groynes or spurs are the most
common examples of low water training.

(3) Mean water training or Training for sediment:

Mean water training aims at efficient disposal of suspended load and bed load, and thus,
to preserve the channel in good shape. For this adequate bed slope is provided in river
channel.
Q. 3 Which one of the groyne arrangements represents an 'attracting groyne'?

(a)

Answer: C
 Page 75

Q. 4 Objective for river training are

1. High flood discharge may pass safely through the reach.

2. Sediment load (including bed and suspended load) may be transported

efficiently.

3. By making the river course unstable whereby to increase bank erosion.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3

Answer: B

Q. 5 Tortuosity of a meandering river is the ratio of

(a) Meander length to width of the meander
(b) Meander length to width of the river
(c) Curved length along the river to the direct axial length of the river
(d) Direct axial length of the river to the curved length along the river

Answer: C
Tortuosity/Sinuosity (T):
It is the ratio of the length along the channel (i.e. actual length) to the direct axial length of
the river reach. i.e. 𝑙/𝑀𝐿

Q. 6 An alluvial river increases its length by meandering due to

(a) variation of discharge (b) variation in land topography

(c) both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above

Answer: C
The main reasons behind meandering are variation of flow characteristics and
catchment characteristics.

Q. 7 Pinpoint the incorrect statement:

(a) guide-bunds are constructed to guide the river flow through a smaller width
(b) guide bunds are generally extended downstream of the hydraulic structure,
in a length of about twice their upstream length
(c) guide banks prevent the out flanking of the hydraulic structure by the
changing river course
(d) aggrading rivers can be best controlled by soil conservation measures,
including construction of check dams on their tributaries

Answer: B
Guided bunds are provided in up stream of weir.
 Page 76

Q. 8 For a meandering alluvial river, the ratio of its 'channel length' to 'direct axial length
is always

(a) 1 (b) > 1 (c) < 1

(d) may be less or more than 1, depending upon the river

Answer: B

Q. 9 What is the regime scour depth for a channel in soil with silt factor of unity and
carrying 8 m3 /s/m of discharge intensity in accordance with Lacey's regime theory?
(a) 3.6 m (b) 4 m (c) 5.4 m (d) 25.6 m

Answer: C
Given,
𝑞 = 8 𝑚2 /𝑠𝑒𝑐/𝑚 and 𝑓 = 1
As 𝑞 = 𝑄/𝐵
Laceys normal scour depth,
where, 𝑄 = Discharge & q = Discharge per unit width

1/3 1/3
𝑞2 82
𝐷 = 1.35 ( ) = 1.35 ( ) = 1.35 × 4 = 5.4 𝑚
𝑓 1

Q. 10 A launching apron is to be designed at downstream of a weir for discharge intensity

of 6.5 m3 /s/m. For the design of launching aprons the scour depth is taken two times of
Lacey scour depth. The silt factor of the bed material is unity. If the tailwater depth is
4.4 m, the length of launching apron in the launched position is
(a) √5 m (b) 4.7 m (c) 5 m (d) 5√5 m

Answer: D
Lacey's scour depth,

1/3
𝑞2
𝑅 = 1.35 ( )
𝑓

Here, 𝑞 = 6.5 𝑚3 /𝑠/𝑚

Silt factor, 𝑓 = 1

1/3
(6.5)2
𝑅 = 1.35 { } = 4.702 𝑚
1

So, scour depth = 2𝑅

= 2 × 4.702 = 9.404 𝑚

Tail water depth = 4.4 𝑚

Length of launching appron

= 9.404 − 4.4
=5𝑚
 Page 77

Q. 11 When a river starts meandering, the sediment carrying capacity

(a) first decreases and ultimately increases
(b) first increases and ultimately decreases
(c) remains unaffected as the plan shape changes continuously
(d) changes erratically all the time leaving permanent braids

Answer: A
During floods river carries silt charge in excess of the quantity required for stability, the
river starts building up its slope by depositing the slit on its bed. This accretion is the
primary process, which consequently leads to meandering.

The increase in slope tends to increase the width of the channel and the sediment carrying
capacity decreases. Finally due to shifting of the convex bar, the width between the banks
reduces, which increases the velocity and sediment carrying capacity also.

Q. 12 Which one of the following stages does the river bed consist of a mixture of
boulders, gravels, shingles and alluvial sand deposit created by itself?
(a) Rocky stage (b) Incised river stage
(c) Boulder river stage (d) Rivers in alluvial flood plains stage

Answer: C
In boulder stage river bed consist of a mixture of boulders, gravels, shingles and
alluvial sand deposit.

Numerical Answer Type Questions

Q. 13 In a wide alluvial river the normal scour depth by Lacey's equation is 7.40 m
for a discharge intensity of 10 m3 /s/m width. The normal scour depth in that river
for a discharge intensity of 20 m3 /s/m width is m.

Answer: 11.75 m
Lacey's scour depth,

1/3
𝑞2
𝑅 = 1.35 ( )
𝑓

Here, 𝑞 = 10 𝑚3 /𝑠/𝑚
1/3
102
⇒ 7.4 = 1.35 ( )
𝑓

⇒ 𝑓 = 0.607

For other q = 20m3/s/m

1/3
202
𝑅 = 1.35 ( )
0.607

⇒ 𝑅 = 11.75 𝑚
 Page 78

Conventional Questions
Q. 14 A river discharges 1000 m3 /s of water at high flood level of 𝑅𝐿 = 103 m. A
weir is constructed for flow diversion with a crest length of 255 m and total length
of concrete floor as 40 m. The weir has to sustain the under seepage at a
maximum static head of 2.4 m. The silt factor and the safe exit gradient for the
river bed material are 1.1 and 1/6 respectively. Determine the cutoff depth
required at the downstream end of the concrete floor. Take the level of
downstream concrete floor as 𝑅𝐿 = 100 m. Check for exit gradient.

Answer: D
High flood discharge = 𝑄 = 1000 m3 /s.
Length of weir = 𝐿 = 255 m

𝑄 1000
𝑞= = = 3.92 m2 /s
𝐿 255
𝑓 = 1.1 (given)
1/3 1/3
𝑞2 3.922
𝑅 = 1.35 ( ) = 1.35 ( ) = 3.25 m
𝑓 1.1

Provide D/s cutoff up to 1.5R below d/s water level.

1.5R = 1.5 × 3.25 = 4.88 m

D/s W.L. = ?
U/sWL = U/sHFL = 103.00 m (given)
H = Max. Static head causing seepage = 2.4 m (given)
∴ D/s W.L. = U/s HFL −H = 103.0 − 2.4 = 100.6 m
Hence, R.L. of bottom of 𝑑/𝑠 cutoff = 100.6 − 4.88 = 95.72 m.
R.L. of D/s floor = 100.0 m (given)
∴ depth of d/s cutoff = 100.0 − 95.72 = 4.28 m.
Hence 𝑑 = 𝟒. 𝟐𝟖m Ans.

𝐻 1
Exit gradient 𝐺𝐸 = ⋅
𝑑 𝜋√𝜆

1+√1+𝛼2
where 𝜆 = 2

𝑏 Length of weir floor

where 𝛼 = =
𝑑 depth of d/s cutoff

where, 𝑏 = 40 m (given) 𝑑 = 4.28 m (calculated above)

 Page 79

40
∴𝛼 = = 9.346
4.28
1 + √1 + 9.3462
∴𝜆 = = 5.2
2
2.4 m 1
∴𝐺𝐸 = = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟕𝟖 Ans.
4.28 m 𝜋 ⋅ √5.2
1 1
= < (Safe exit gradient)
12.77 6

Hence, the weir is safe from exit gradient considerations with bottom of 𝑑/𝑠 cut off at RL
95.72 m. Ans.

"Success is no accident. It is hard work,

perseverance, learning, studying, sacrifice
and most of all, love of what you are doing
or learning to do."
― Pele
 Page 80

Chapter 8
Dams (general), Spillways & Energy Dissipators

Multiple Choice Questions

Q. 1 Consider the following statements: The function of a cut-off in an earth dam
is

1. to reduce uplift pressures on the dam

2. to prevent undermining of foundation

3. to reduce loss of stored water

4. to support the dam

Which of these statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4

Answer: C
A cut-off trench in an earth dam acts as a barrier to prevent water from seeping through
the dam's foundation. Cut-offs are usually made from impermeable materials like plastic
sheets, BC Soil, clay, or concrete. The trench also increases the phreatic surface's drop to
achieve the shortest filter length.

It prevents or minimize the seepage of water through foundation of earthen dam and also
helps in maintaining the required reservoir level by stopping seepage loos of water.

Q. 2 During the maintenance of an earthen dam, the apparent seepage through

the foundation of the dam is best taken care of by providing

(a) a chimney drain

(b) a rock toe
(c) a drain trench along the downstream toe
(d) an upstream impervious cutoff

Answer: C
Toe drains, are primarily provided to lower the phreatic line reaching the downstream face
of the embankment, so that water does not ingress through the dam body. These drains
exude the excess water inside the confining structure and reduce the pore pressures
increasing the stability of the dam.
 Page 81

Q. 3 Match the following List-I (Type of dam) wit

h List-II (Foundation of dam) and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:

List-I List-II

A. Arch dam 1. Rock foundation

2. Strong abutment
B. Gravity dam
3. Any type of foundation
C. Earth dam
4. Multiple arch
D. Buttress dam
5. Sandy soils

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 2 3 5 1

(c) 3 2 5 4

(d) 2 3 4 1

Answer: C

Q. 4 The ideal condition for energy dissipation in the design of spillways is the
one when the tail water rating curve

(a) lies above jump rating curve at all discharges

(b) coincides with the jump rating curve at all discharges
(c) lies below jump rating curve at all discharges
(d) lies either above or below the jump rating curve depending upon discharge

Answer: B
For dissipation of energy through hydraulic jump the Tail water curve (TWC) and Jump
Rating Curve (JRC) or y-2 curve should coincide with each other, which is most ideal
condition.
 Page 82

Q. 5 A discharge of 72 m3 /s is to be allowed through siphon spillways of 2 m width

and 75 cm depth with working head of 8 m. The number of spillways to be
provided will be (Take coefficient of discharge for the spillways = 0.64 )
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8

Answer: C
Discharge through one syphon spillway is given by

𝑄 = 𝐶𝑑 ⋅ 𝐴 × √2𝑔𝐻
= 0.64 × 2 × 0.75 × √2 × 9.81 × 8
= 12.02 𝑚3 /𝑠
72
∴ Number of spillways =
12.02

= 5.98 ≃ 6

Q. 6 Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): A seepage passing through the body of an earth dam affects the
weight of dam.

Reason (R): The specific weight of submerged soil is not dependent on the porosity
of soil.

Of these statements

(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of 𝐴

(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of 𝐴
(c) 𝐴 is true but 𝑅 is false
(d) 𝐴 is false but 𝑅 is true

Answer: B
Due to seepage through soil, its effective weight is reduced. (Ref. Soil Mechanics)
Specific weight is not a function of porosity.

Q. 7 Which one of the following equations represents the downstream profile of

Ogee spillway with vertical upstream face? (𝑥, 𝑦) are the coordinates
of the point on the downstream profile with origin at the crest of the spillway and
𝐻𝑑 is the design head.
𝑦 𝑥 1.85 𝑦 𝑥 1/1.85
(a) = −0.5 ( ) (b) = −0.5 ( )
𝐻𝑑 𝐻𝑑 𝐻𝑑 𝐻𝑑

𝑦 𝑥 1.85 𝑦 𝑥 1/1.85
(c) 𝐻𝑑
= −2.0 (𝐻 ) (d) 𝐻𝑑
= −2.0 (𝐻 )
𝑑 𝑑

Answer: A
Equation of ogee profile,

𝒙𝟏.𝟖𝟓 = − 𝟐 ⋅ 𝑯𝟎.𝟖𝟓
𝒅 ⋅𝒚
 Page 83

Q. 8 The trap efficiency of a reservoir is a function of

(a) inflow into the reservoir

(b) ratio of inflow to storage capacity
(c) ratio of reservoir capacity to inflow
(d) reservoir capacity

Answer: C
The reservoir trap efficiency is defined as the ratio of deposited sediment to the total
sediment inflow for a given period within the reservoir’s economic life time.

Q. 9 Statement (I) : The trap efficiency of a reservoir increases with age as the
reservoir capacity is reduced by sediment accumulation.

Statement (II): The trap efficiency is a function of the ratio of reservoir capacity
to the total inflow. A small reservoir on a large stream has a low trap efficiency.

(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II)
is the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true but Statement (II)
is not the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true

Answer: D
The trap efficiency of reservoir is decreased with its life.

Q. 10 The life of a reservoir is determined by its capacity (𝐶), volume of annual

inflow into the reservoir (𝐼) and concentration of sediment in the incoming flow
(𝐶𝑠 ). Life will be more if

(a) 𝐶, 𝐼 and 𝐶𝑠 are high

(b) 𝐶 and 𝐼 are high but 𝐶𝑠 is low
(c) 𝐶 is high but 𝐼 and 𝐶𝑠 are low
(d) 𝐶, 𝐼 and 𝐶𝑠 are low

Answer: D
Life of reservoir increases with
1. Increase in spillway discharge
2. Decrease in reservoir capacity
And it decreases with
1. Increase in capacity (large reservoirs are filled with sediment early)
2. Increase in inflow into the reservoir
3. Increase in concentration of sediment
 Page 84

Q. 11 A new reservoir has a capacity of 12Mm3 and its catchment area is 400 km2.
The annual sediment yield from this catchment is 0.1 ha. m/km2 and the trap
efficiency can be assumed constant at 90%. The number of years it takes for the
reservoir to lose 50% of its initial capacity is, nearly
(a) 177 years
(b) 77 years
(c) 17 years
(d) 7 years

Answer: C
Trap efficiency means 90% of total incoming sediment from catchment will be stored in
reservoir.
Let number of years are 𝑇 to fill reservoir to 50%

400 × 0.1 × 104 × 0.90 × T = 12 × 106 × 0.5

⇒T = 16.67 = 17 years

Q. 12 The volume of water below the minimum pool level in a reservoir is known
as
(a) Useful storage
(b) Surcharge storage
(c) Dead storage
(d) Bank storage

Answer: C
Water stored in the reservoir below the minimum pool level is known as the Dead Storage,
and it is not of use in the operation of the reservoirs.

Q. 13 A reservoir with uncontrolled and ungated outlets is known as

(a) Retarding basin

(b) Storage reservoir
(c) Controlled reservoir
(d) Detention basin

Answer: A

A reservoir having gates and valves installation at its spillway is known as a detention
reservoir; while on the other hand, a reservoir with uncontrolled and ungated outlets is
known as a retarding basin.

Always Remember, “Every successful person is not a

government officer and every government officer is not a
saucerful person.”
Try to become knowledgeable, not a pressure cooker.
― Harish A. Sharma