DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, DURGAPUR

CLASS- XII
ASSIGNMENT - 01 (TERM 2-2024-25)
SUBJECT- ENGLISH CORE
TOPIC- THE ENEMY, ON THE FACE OF IT & PRACTICE QS OF IEO
SUMMARY
The Enemy is set at the time of the Second World War. It is a heart-rending portrayal of the conflict
between man's head and heart. An American prisoner of war is washed ashore in a dying state and is
found at the doorstep of a very eminent Japanese surgeon and scientist, Dr Sadao Hoki. Sadao is torn
between his duty as a doctor and as Japanese. His heart is telling him to save the prisoner while his
mind is fighting to turn him over to the police. It is, indeed, a difficult choice to decide whether one
should allow oneself to be governed by emotion or by reason.

SOLVED QUESTIONS
Q1. It is the time of the World War. An American prisoner of war is washed ashore in a dying state and
is found at the doorstep of a Japanese doctor. Should he save him as a doctor or hand him over to the
army as a patriot?
A: Humanity and love are the only saving grace in this materialistic world governed by hatred and
chaos. Our lives should be centered on harboring these feelings in ourselves and in those around us.
Keeping this in mind, if a doctor gets an opportunity to save a distressed and wounded person, he should
definitely help him. People consider doctors next to God. Even their profession asks them to help all
patients, regardless of caste, race, religion, or nationality. Thus, keeping humanity superior to anything
else in life, the war prisoner should definitely be saved.
(The above answer is only a sample provided for students’ reference. It is strongly recommended that
students prepare the answer on their own.)
Q2. Dr Sadao was compelled by duty as a doctor to help the enemy soldier. What made Hana, his wife,
sympathetic to him in the face of open defiance from the domestic staff?
A: Dr Sadao and Hana knew that their decision to save the enemy soldier would be questioned by
everyone. However, they firmly followed their sense of duty. For Dr Sadao, this sense of duty came
from the profession he was in; but for Hana, the duty was purely humanitarian. From bearing the unrest
in her domestic staff to being forced to do all the chores of household herself, she does all with grace
and dignity. Hana’s loving, considerate and sympathetic nature shines out. She washed and fed the
soldier although it was not her job. Her care helped recuperate the soldier fast. It is also apparent from
the story that she respected her husband, and as a sense of duty towards him, did the needful. This
explains why she, even after feeling sick, comes back to the room and readily does whatever is told by
her husband during the operation.
Q3. How would you explain the reluctance of the soldier to leave the shelter of the doctor’s home even
when he knew he could not stay there without risk to the doctor and himself?
A: When the American war prisoner came to consciousness and realized that he was saved by a
Japanese family, he feared that he will be soon handed over to the army. However, as he noticed the
amount of concern and care given to him by the family, he understood that he was in safe hands. He
knew that although he was a threat to the doctor’s family, his own life might be saved there. Burdened
with gratitude towards the family, he ultimately decides to comply with what the doctor planned for him
– the escape.
Q4. What explains the attitude of the General in the matter of the enemy soldier? Was it human
consideration, lack of national loyalty, dereliction of duty or simply self-absorption?
A: The General was totally governed by self-absorption. He was a patient of Dr Sadao and did not trust
anyone except him when it came to his health. He could not take the risk of living unprotected if the
doctor were executed for treachery. He had personal assassins whom he promised to use for killing the
injured soldier. But ironically, he forgot his promise to help the doctor. Human consideration was not
his cup of tea.
Q5. Do you think Dr. Sadao’s final decision was the best possible one in the circumstances? Why/Why
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 not? Explain with reference to the story, ‘The Enemy’.
A: Dr. Sadao saved the life of an American war prisoner as his professional and humanitarian duty. But he
was very loyal to his country too. He told the General about the white man and the General promised to
send his private assassins to kill him. But due to his self-absorption in his illness, the General forgot to
send them. Thus, finally, Dr. Sadao decided to help the American soldier escape from there. He gave him
a boat, flashlight, food, and water and asked him to go to a nearby unguarded island. He could look for a
Korean boat and escape.
This could be the best solution in the prevailing circumstances. Dr. Sadao was in danger of being caught
for harboring a POW. In that case, he would be questioned for the reason to give this enemy a shelter in
his house. So, in order to save his reputation and the life of the white man, there could be no better way
than what Dr. Sadao had decided.
Q6. Explain the reaction of the servants in Dr. Sadao’s house when he decided to give shelter to an enemy
in the house.
A: The servants did not like the idea of giving shelter to an enemy in the house. Yumi, the governess of
the children, stubbornly refused to wash the white man and threatened to leave the job if she was forced.
When Dr. Sadao told his gardener about the wounded white man, he got upset and even frightened. He
opposed Dr. Sadao for treating his enemy. In fact, all the servants in the house were critical of Dr. Sadao’s
sheltering the enemy. They refused to help him. They were superstitious and fearful about the wrath of
nature. They tried their level best to send the white man away. Finally, when Dr. Sadao did not listen to
them and decided to give shelter to the white man in his house, they left the house.
Q7. Dr. Sadao was a patriotic Japanese as well as a dedicated surgeon. How could he honour both the
values?
A: Dr. Sadao was a patriotic Japanese as well as a dedicated surgeon. He honored both the values
excellently., it, was his duty, as a surgeon was to save the life of a man irrespective of caste, color, or
creed. For a doctor, his patient is beyond any prejudice. When Dr. Sadao saw the white man, he realized
that the man would die if he was not immediately operated upon. So, he took the man to his house and
treated him and saved his life. That was his duty as a dedicated surgeon.
Dr. Sadao was a loyal citizen of Japan and a true patriot. So, when he went to the General, he told him
everything and sought his help. Dr. Sadao had no pity for the white man and considered him his enemy.
The General assured to send his assassins but forgot. So, at the end, Dr. Sadao had to help the prisoner of
war to escape from there.
HOMEWORK (TO BE DONE IN NOTE BOOK)
Q1. How did Dr. Sadao help the American POW to escape? What humanitarian values do you find in his
act?
Q2. What did Dr Sadao’s old American professor consider the surgeon’s cardinal sin?
ON THE FACE OF IT
SUMMARY
On the Face of It by Susan Hill is a socio-psychological story of two invalids who live with two different
views. Derry is a young boy who lived a miserable life since a bottle of acid deformed his face and Mr.
Lamb, a lame old man who lived a cheerful life even after he had lost one of his legs in a blast. The
interesting thing is that Mr. Lamb himself was not very much of a happy man although he appeared to be
(‘on the face of it’ = outwardly). It is a story about how one is able to fight a deformity happily. A story
that tells about the triumph of optimism, Mr. Lamb and Derry will definitely inspire you Welcome to Mr.
lamb’s Garden!
SOLVED QUESTIONS
Q1. The actual pain or inconvenience caused by a physical impairment is often much less than the sense of
alienation felt by the person with disabilities. What is the kind of behavior that the person expects from
others?
A: The sense of alienation caused by physical impairment is no doubt more painful than the inconvenience
caused by physical impairment. This is clearly proved in the play ‘On the Face of It’. Derry seems to be a
living example of this fact. He got his face burnt due to spilling of acid leaving scars and infirmity. The
attitude of the people towards him gave him more pain than his physical pain. He was deeply hurt and

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 disgusted when he realised that his family was anxious about his future. He felt pain when he overheard
two women talking about his ugly face. The insensitive remarks of the women in which they suggest him
to be in the company of people like him, developed a sense of alienation in him. He closed himself in a
shell and developed a very negative attitude to society and finally to life.
Q2. What benefits did Derry reap from his association with Mr. Lamb?
A: Derry was a fourteen-year-old boy whose face was partly burnt due to spilling of acid. As a result, he
became conscious of his ugly face. He found that people either ridiculed him or pitied him. He developed a
negative attitude to life. He became frustrated. But when he met Mr. Lamb, he got inspiration from him to
live life as it came. Derry was encouraged by Mr. Lamb to look at the world and to take interest in things
around him. He found truth, sense, and inspiration in Mr. Lamb’s words. He learnt from Mr. Lamb to
handle his handicap and loneliness.
In fact, it was Mr. Lamb who brought Derry back to life. Derry learnt the way to live life fully by dealing
with his deformity in an appropriate manner.
Q3. Justify the title ‘On the Face of It’.
A: The title of the story ‘On the Face of It’ seems to be very appropriate. The idiom ‘On the Face of It’
means from appearance alone or apparently. In the play, Derry is frustrated and has lost self-esteem due to
people’s attitude to him. Everyone thought that his burnt face was terrible, and he was handicapped.
Similar was Mr. Lamb’s case. He had lost one leg in a bomb explosion. Apparently both Mr. Lamb and
Derry had deformities. But Mr. Lamb enabled Derry to have faith in himself and look at the bright side of
things and to learn to live with his deformity.
Their physical handicap was an apparent thing for them as well as for the world. But the most significant
thing is the strength of one’s soul. Mr. Lamb was a mentally strong person who handled his own handicap
and loneliness very effectively. He became instrumental in Derry change his views about himself and his
deformity and start taking things positively. The play deals with the acceptance of the fact that things are
not always as they appear, i.e. physical handicap has nothing to do with the mental strength and positive
attitude to life.
HOMEWORK (TO BE DONE IN NOTE BOOK)
Q1. Both Derry and Mr. Lamb suffer from handicaps, yet their attitude to life is totally different. Discuss.
Q2. ‘Inclusive education’ is a step to bring the people with deformities into the mainstream so as to build
up their confidence and morale. Write a paragraph on ‘The Importance of Inclusive Education’.
IEO Exercise
WORD AND STRUCTURE KNOWLEDGE
1. Choose the best option.
If you think that doing this maths problem is, just try it.
(A) a piece of cake
(B) ups and downs
(C) odds and ends
(D) pros and cons
2. Choose the incorrect part of the sentence.
(A) Women are now working
(B) in every fields
(C) like teaching, medicine
(D) law, business, etc.
READING
Direction (Q. No. 3 to 6): Fill the blanks in this paragraph with the right options.
When her friends arrived, Suman 3 chips and other snacks and her sister 4 drinks. She went round the
room 5 glasses whenever she noticed that anyone needed a 6 .
(A) top-up
(B) handed round
(C) poured out
(D) topping up

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SPOKEN AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Direction (Q. No. 7 and 8) : Choose the words that best complete the sentences.
7. If you are, you have extreme or very strong views.
(A) progressive (B) innovative
(C) diplomatic (D) radical
8. If you are, you are in favor of new ideas.
(A) progressive (B) innovative
(C) diplomatic (D) radical

ACHIEVERS SECTION
9.Choose the option which is closest in meaning to the underlined bold word.
Dappled light filtered through the trees on to the ground.
(A) Patches of (B) Rays
(C) Stirring (D) Slanting
10. Choose the best option.
The RBI Governor said in a press conference that the nation’s economy was yet.
(A) out of the forests
(B) not out of the trees
(C) out of the trees
(D) not out of the woods

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 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, DURGAPUR
CLASS- XII
ASSIGNMENT - 01 (TERM 2-2024-25)
SUBJECT- MATHEMATICS
TOPIC- VECTORS

MCQ:
1. The position vector of a point R which divides the line joining P(6,3,−2) and Q(3,1,−4) in
the ratio 2:1 externally is
(a) i + 3j − 2k (b) 3i − k (c) − j − 6k (d) 2i − j
2. The scalar product of 5i + j - 3k and 3i - 4j + 7k is
(a) 10 (b) -10 (c) 15 (d) -15
3. Three vectors satisfy the relation A.B =0 and A.C=0 then A is parallel to
(a) C (b) B (c) B x C (d) B.C
4. The system of vectors i,j,k is
(a) Orthogonal b) Collinear (c) Coplanar (d) None of these
5. Find the projection (vector) of (2i - j + k) on (i - 2 j + k).
(a) 5 /6 ( i − 2 j + k ) (b) 6 5 ( i − 2j + k ) (c) 3 4 ( j − k ) (d) None of these
6.The projection of the line joining the points (3,4,5) and (4,6,3) on the line joining the
points (−1,2,4) and (1,0,5) is
(a) 5/ 6 (b) 4 / 3 (c) 3 / 4 (d) None of these
7. If A.B = , then angle between A and B is
(a) 45° (b) 30° (c) 60° (d) 90°
8. If a = 2i + 5j +k and b = 4i +mj +nk are collinear vectors, then find m+ n.
(a) 12 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 60
9. Associate law of vector addition is
(a) The sum of vectors remains same irrespective of their order or grouping in which they
are arranged
(b) The sum of vectors is different irrespective of their order or grouping in which they are
arranged.
(c) The sum of vectors changes with the change of their order or grouping in which they
are arranged
(d) None of the above
10. The point with position vectors (2,6),(1,2) and (p,10) are collinear if the value of p is
(a) 3 (b) -3 (c) 12 (d) 6
11. If C is the mid-point of AB and P is any point outside AB, then
(a) PA+ PB+ PC=0 (b) PA+PB+2PC=0 c) PA+PB=PC (d) PA + PB = 2PC
12. The distance of the point (- 3, 4, 5) from the origin
(a) 60 (b) 5 √ 2 5 2 (c) 6 ( d) None of these
13. The vector having initial and terminal points as (2,5,0) and (−3,7,4), respectively is
(a) − i + 12 j + 4 k (b) 5i + 2 j − 4k (c) − 5 i + 2 j + 4k (d) None of these
14. The magnitude of the vector 6i + 2j + 3k is equal to:
(a) 5 (b) 1 (c) 7 (d) 12
15. A point from a vector starts is called ____ and where it ends is called its ____.
(a) terminal point, endpoint. (b) initial point, terminal point
(c) origin, endpoint (d) initial point,endpoint
16. Can two different vectors have the same magnitude?
(a) Yes (b) No (c) Cannot be determined (d) None of the above
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Assertion Reason based Questions:
In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason
( R ),
Mark the correct choice as
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true but R is false
D) A is false and R is true
17) Assertion (A): a × b is perpendicular to both a + b and a − b .
Reason (R) : Both a + b and a − b lie in the plane containing a and b
But a × b is perpendicular to plane containing a and b .
18) Assertion(A): If a + b = a − b then angle between a and b is 900
Reason: a + b = b + a
19) Assertion(A): Two vectors are said to be like vectors if they have the same direction but different
magnitude.
Reason: Vector quantities do not have a specific direction.
20) Assertion(A): The sum of two vectors can be zero.
Reason: The vector cancel each other, when they are equal and opposite.
21) Assertion(A): The minimum number of non-coplanar vectors whose sum can be zero, is four.
Reason: The resultant of two vectors of unequal magnitude can be zero.
22) Assertion (A): The vector a + ĵ− k and b − ĵ+ k are perpendicular to each other.
Reason :Two nonzero vectorsa and b ,are perpendicular to each other if and only if a . b = 0
23) Assertion (A):If θ = π then a . b = −| a | | b |
Reason : If θ = 0 then a . b =| a | | b |
24) Assertion(A) : Area of a parallelogram whose adjacent sides are given by the vectors
a 3i + ĵ+ 4k andb − ĵ+ k is √42.
Reason : Ifa and b represent the adjacent sides of a parallelogram, then its area is |a × b |
25) Assertion (A): Two vectors î+ ĵ and î– ĵ are perpendicular.
Reason: Two vectors are perpendicular if their scalar product is zero.
26) Assertion (A): Projection of the vector î-ĵon the vector î+ ĵis zero.
Reason : If two vectors are parallel then the projection of one on other is zero.
27) Assertion (A): For any two vectors a and b , | a + b | ≤ | a | + | b | .
Reason : In a triangle sum of any two sides is always greater than or equal to third side.
Case Based Question:
28) Geetika’s house is situated at Shalimar Bagh at point O, for going to Alok’s house she
first travels 8 km by bus in the East. Here at point A, a hospital is situated. From Hospital,
Geetika takes an auto and goes 6 km in the North, here at point B school is situated. From
school, she travels by bus to reach Alok’s house which is at 30° East,6 km from point B.

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Based on the above information, answer the following questions.
(i) What is the vector distance between Geetika’s house and school?
(ii) How much distance Geetika travels to reach school?
(iii) What is the vector distance from school to Alok’s house?
OR
(iv) What is the total distance travelled by Geetika from her house to Alok’s house?

29) Solar Panels have to be installed carefully so that the tilt of the roof, and the direction to
the sun, produce the largest possible electrical power in the solar panels. A surveyor uses his
instrument to determine the coordinates of the four corners of a roof where solar panels are to
be mounted. In the picture , suppose the points are labelled counter clockwise from the
roof corner nearest to the camera in units of meters P1 (6,8,4) , P2 (21,8,4), P3(21,16,10) and
P4(6,16,10).

.
Answer the following questions using the above information.
i). What are the components to the edge vector defined by = PV of P2 – PV of P1?
(where PV stands for position vector)
ii).What are the components to the edge vector defined by = PV of P4 – PV of P1?
(where PV stands for position vector)
iii).What is the magnitude of the vectors and in what units?
OR
iv). What are the components to the vector , perpendicular to and and the surface of the
roof?

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30) There was a competitive examination. A group of student went appearing for a
competitive examination was asked to attempt the following questions. Read carefully the
question and answer.

Let a ,b and c be three non zero vectors.

i) If a and b are such that | + |=| - | then what is the relation between the vectors a and
b ?
ii) If a −2ĵ, b 2 +ĵ+3k then find the value of (2a +b )∙[ (a +b )×(a −2b )]
iii) If a and b are unit vectors and be the angle between them then find the value of |a
−b | in terms of
OR
iv). Let a , b and c be unit vectors such that a ∙b =a ∙c =0 and angle between b and c is
π/6 then find a in terms of b and c

31)Three slogans on chart papers are to be placed on a school bulletin board at the points A,
B and C displaying A( Hub of learning), B( Creating a better world for tomorrow) and C(
Education comes
first) the coordinates of these points are (1,4,2), ( 3, – 3, – 2) and( – 2,2,6) respectively.

Based on the above information answer the following questions

(i) Let a , b and c are the position vectors of points A B and C respectively then a + b + c
is equal to
(iii) Find the area of the triangle ABC.
OR
(iv) If a equal to 2 i + 3 j + 6k then find the unit vector in the direction of vector a.
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION:
34. If a 4 – ĵ + k and b 2 – 2ĵ + k, then find a unit vector parallel to the vector a +b .
35.The two vectors ĵ + k and 3 – ĵ + 4k represent the two sides AB and AC respectively of
triangle ABC. Find the length of the median through A.
36. ind a vector in the direction of vector 2 – 3ĵ + 6k which has magnitude 21 units.
37. ind a vector a of magnitude 5√2, making an angle of π/4 with X-axis, π/2 with Y-axis
and an acute angle with Z-axis.
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38.Write the value of cosine of the angle which the vector a + ĵ + k makes with -axis.
3 . ind the angle between -a is and the vector + ĵ + k.
40.Write a unit vector in the direction of vector PQ where P and Q are the points (1, 3, 0) and
(4, 5, 6), respectively.
41.For what values of a , the vectors 2 – 3ĵ + 4k and a + 6ĵ – 8k are collinear?
42.Write the direction cosines of vector -2 + ĵ – 5k.
43.Find the magnitude of each of the two vectors a and b , having the same magnitude such
that the angle between them is 60° and their scalar product is 9/2 and λ – 9.
44.Write the number of vectors of unit length perpendicular to both the vectors a 2 +ĵ+
2k and b ĵ + k.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

45.If |a ×b |2+|a ⋅b |2 = 400 and |a | = 5, then write the value of |b |.
46.If a 7 + ĵ – 4k and b 2 + 6ĵ + 3k, then find the projection of a on b .
47. f , b and are mutually perpendicular unit vectors, then find the value of 2 + b + |.
48.Write a unit vector perpendicular to both the vectors a + ĵ + k and b + ĵ.
4 . ind the area of a parallelogram whose adjacent sides are represented by the vectors 2 –
3 k and 4 ĵ + 2 k
50.If a and b are perpendicular vectors, |a + b | = 13 and |a | = 5, then find the value of
|b |.
51.If a and b are two unit vectors such that a + b is also a unit vector, then find the
angle between a and b .
52.If a and b are two vectors, such that |a ⋅b |=|a ×b |, then find the angle
between a and b .

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

53. Let a 4 + 5ĵ – k, b – 4ĵ + 5k and c 3 + ĵ – k. Find a vector which is
perpendicular to both c and b and d ⋅a = 21.
54.If a , b and c are three mutually perpendicular vectors of the same magnitude, then
prove that a +b +c is equally inclined with the vectors a , b and c .
Using vectors, find the area of the ΔABC, whose vertices are A(1, 2, 5), 5(2, -1, 4) and C(4,
5, -1). .
55.Show that the points A, B, C with position vectors 2 – ĵ + k, – 5ĵ – 5k and 5 – 4ĵ – 4k
respectively, are the vertices of a right-angled triangle. Hence find the area of the triangle
ABC
56.The two adjacent sides of a parallelogram are 2 – 4ĵ – 5k and 2 + 2 ĵ + 3k. Find the two
unit vectors parallel to its diagonals. Using the diagonal vectors, find the area of the
parallelogram.

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 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, DURGAPUR
CLASS - XII
ASSIGNMENT – 01 (TERM II-2024-25)
SUBJECT- PHYSICS
_________________________________________________________________________________________
TOPIC: Electromagnetic waves, Optics
SUB-TOPIC: (i) Source and properties of EM waves, Electromagnetic spectrum with their uses
(ii) Refraction of light, total internal reflection and its applications
(iii) Optical fiber
(iv) Refraction at spherical surfaces, lenses, thin lens formula, lens maker’s formula
(v) Magnification, power of a lens, combination of thin lenses in contact
(vi) Refraction of light through a prism
_________________________________________________________________________________________

Electromagnetic Waves
❖ Definition of Electromagnetic wave:
Electromagnetic waves or EM waves are waves that are created as a result of vibrations between an electric
field and a magnetic field. In other words, EM waves are composed of oscillating magnetic and electric fields.
❖ EM waves travel with a constant velocity of 3.00 x 108 ms-1 in vacuum. They are deflected neither by the
electric field, nor by the magnetic field. However, they are capable of showing interference or diffraction.
❖ An electromagnetic wave can travel through anything - be it air, a solid material or vacuum. It does not need a
medium to propagate or travel from one place to another. Mechanical waves (like sound waves or water
waves), on the other hand, need a medium to travel.
❖ EM waves are 'transverse' waves.

❖ Source of Electromagnetic wave:

(i) In an atom, EM waves are emitted when an electron jumps from higher energy level into lower energy
level.
(ii) EM waves called X-rays are emitted when high speed electrons are suddenly retarded by a metal surface.
(iii) Electric charge oscillating between the plates of a capacitor in an LC circuit, emits EM waves.

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❖ Characteristics of EM waves:
a) EM waves are transverse in nature as they propagate by varying the electric and magnetic fields such that the
two fields are perpendicular to each other.
b) During the propagation of EM waves, no material medium is required to travel.
1
c) All EM waves travel in free space with a constant velocity c = = 3 108 m/s. In a material medium, if the
0 0
permittivity and permeability of the medium are respectively  and  , then the velocity of EM wave
1
becomes v = .

d) The energy in an EM wave is divided equally between the electric and magnetic field and the instantaneous energy
1 B2
densities of electric field (UE) and magnetic field (UB) are given as U E =  0 E and U B =
2
.
2 2 0
e) They carry energy and momentum from source to a receiver and exert pressure (called Radiation pressure)
on the surface on which they are incident.

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• Refraction is the change in direction of a wave passing
from one medium to another or from a gradual change in
the medium. Refraction of light is the most commonly observed
phenomenon, but other waves such as sound waves and water
waves also experience refraction. How much a wave is
refracted is determined by the change in wave speed and
the initial direction of wave propagation relative to the direction
of change in speed.
For light, refraction follows Snell's law, which states that,
for a given pair of media, the ratio of the sines of the angle of
incidence θ1 and angle of refraction θ2 is equal to the ratio of phase
velocities (v1 / v2) in the two media, or equivalently, to the indices of refraction (n2 / n1) of the two media.
Refraction of light at the interface between two media of different refractive indices, with n 2 > n1.
Since the phase velocity is lower in the second medium (v 2 < v1), the angle of refraction θ2 is less than the
angle of incidence θ1; that is, the ray in the higher-index medium is closer to the normal.
Optical prisms and lenses use refraction to redirect light, as does the human eye. The refractive index of
materials varies with the wavelength of light, and thus the angle of the refraction also varies
correspondingly. This is called dispersion and causes prisms and rainbows to divide white light into its
constituent spectral colours.
• Laws of Refraction:
(i) The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal at the point of incidence of the interface, all lie in the
same plane.
(ii) For oblique incidence, for a particular colour of light and for a given pair of media, the ratio of the sine
of the angle of incidence to the sine of the angle of refraction is constant.
This constant is known as Refractive index (µ) of the second medium with respect to the first.
• Refractive index (µ) = (velocity of light in vacuum / velocity of light in that medium)
• The Absolute Refractive index of medium a is  a
and that of medium b is  b ; if a ray of light passes
from medium a to medium b, in that case, the
Relative Refractive index of medium b with respect
 1
to medium a is given as ba  = b and also ba  = a
a b
.
• When a monochromatic ray of light passes through a
rectangular glass slab, the incident ray and emergent
rays are parallel to each other.

• Real and Apparent depth:

If the refractive indices of air and water are respectively  a and  g ,
then ag  = Real depth / Apparent depth.
 1
Apparent shift (IO), d = 1 −  t , where t is the real depth.
 

(CLASS-XII/ASSIGNMENT -01/TERM -II-2024-25 PAGE 3 of 9)

 • Applications of Refraction:
(i) Atmospheric refraction
Apparent shift of the position of stars and sun.
Early sunrise and delayed sunset.
Twinkling of stars.
Formation of mirage.

• Total internal reflection:

When a ray of light passes from
a denser to rarer medium,
when the angle of incidence
is greater than the critical
angle in the denser medium,
the light is found to bounce
back completely in the first
medium without being
refracted in the rarer medium.
This is known as the Total
internal refraction.

One major application of this phenomenon is transmission of

optical signal through an Optical fiber. The core of the
fiber has a comparatively higher refractive index
compared to the cladding part. Due to
this small index difference, light can propagate through
optical fiber.

(CLASS-XII/ASSIGNMENT -01/TERM -II-2024-25 PAGE 4 of 9)

 • Refraction of light through a spherical surface:

A lens consists of two transparent glass surfaces on the same side. The portion which is curved inwards is known
as Concave Surface and the portion which is bulged outwards is known as Convex Surface. These two
together form a lens.

The central point of a lens is known as Optical centre of Lens. The line passing through the optical centre of the
lens is known as Principal Axis. The principal axis is perpendicular to the both concave and convex surface of
the lens.
Principal Focus and Focal Length of a Convex Lens: A parallel beam of lights after travelling parallel to the
principal axis and passing through the convex surface,
converges at a point on the principal axis. This point is
known as the Principal Focus. Since a lens has two
convex surfaces, thus a lens is said to have two foci.
Both the foci of a lens are at equal distances from the
optical centre. The word foci is the plural form of
Focus.
Principal focus and focal length of a Concave
Lens: Principal focus is defined as the point on
principal axis from which the light travelling parallel to
the principal axis, appears to diverge after
passing through the concave lens. The distance between optical centre and principal focus is known as Focal
Length.

• Thin lens formula:

The lens formula can be defined as the relation between the image distance, the object distance and the focal
length of a lens. Mathematically,

Where v is the image distance, u is the object distance and f is the focal length.

(CLASS-XII/ASSIGNMENT -01/TERM -II-2024-25 PAGE 5 of 9)

 • Magnification produced by Lenses:
The magnification of the lens can be defined as the ratio of height of the image to the height of the object.

The magnification of lens can also be defined in terms of the ratio of image distance to the object distance.

If the value of magnification (m) is positive then he image formed will be virtual and erect and if the value of
magnification is negative, then a real and inverted image is formed. Since we have already seen that a concave
lens always produces virtual and erect images, thus the magnification of a concave lens is always positive.
• Power of a Lens:
The power of a lens is a mathematical term that helps us to identify the degree of convergence or divergence
of light rays passing through the lens. It can be defined as the reciprocal of focal length of a lens.

Where P is the power and f is the focal length. The S.I unit of Power is dioptre.
The power of a concave lens is negative and that of convex lens is positive.
• Power of Combined Lenses
When multiple lenses are placed close to each
other, then the power of the combined lens is
given by the algebraic sum of the power of an
individual lens.
P = P1 + P2 + P3 +………………Pn ……..(i)
and the equivalent focal length of the combination
of n numbers of identical thin lenses, is given
by the equation:
1 1 1 1 1
= + + + ........ + ………….. (ii)
f f1 f 2 f3 fn

• Lens maker’s formula:

Lens maker formula is used to construct a lens with the specified focal length (f). A lens has two curved surfaces,
but these are not exactly the same. If we know the refractive index and the radius of the curvature of both the
surfaces (say R1 and R2), then we can determine the focal length of the lens by using the given lens maker’s
1  2  1 1 
formula: =  − 1 − 
f  1  R1 R2 
Where, µ1 and µ2 are the refractive indices of the two media concerned. It is noteworthy that the lens should be
thin so that the separation between the two refracting surfaces should be small. Also, the medium on either side of
the lens should be the same.

(CLASS-XII/ASSIGNMENT -01/TERM -II-2024-25 PAGE 6 of 9)

• Refraction of light through prism:

The angle of deviation D (shaded angle) is expressed by the equation: D = i + e − A .

 A + Dmin 
sin  
The refractive index of the material of the prism can be expressed in terms of D as  =  2 
A
sin
2
With the increase of i values, D first decreases and then increases.
From the variation of D with i, the value of angle of minimum deviation (Dmin) is found out.

(CLASS-XII/ASSIGNMENT -01/TERM -II-2024-25 PAGE 7 of 9)

• Compound Microscope:
A compound microscope is a microscope which is constructed using two convex lenses, one of the lenses is kept
near the eye while the other is kept near the object that is being viewed. The image formed by the objective lens
serves as an object for the ocular lens.

Lens formula is given as

1/f=1/v−1/u
where f represents the focal length, v and u represent the distance of image and object from the lens respectively.
Magnification of a lens can be calculated by the following formula:
m=h′/h=v/u
where h is the height of the object and u denotes the distance of the object from the lens while h’ is the height of
the image of object and v denotes the distance of the image from the lens.
The total magnification due to objective lens and the eyepiece of compound microscope is given as
m=mo*me
where mo is the magnification due to the objective lens and me is magnification due to the eye-piece.
A compound microscope can be constructed in the following way:
We have two convex lenses; one of the lenses is the objective lens that is kept near the object that is being viewed
while the other lens is called the ocular lens or eyepiece which means that it is kept near the eye of the viewer.
The image of the object formed by the objective lens is real, inverted and magnified. This image acts as an object
for the second lens which forms an enlarged image which is virtual in nature. The image formed by the second
lens is inverted with respect to the object and enlarged further.

Now we can calculate the magnification due to the objective lens as follows:
mo=h′/h
From figure we notice that tanθ=h/F0=h′/L ⇒ h′/h=L/F0
Using this, we get
mo=L/F0
Now magnification due to eye piece is given as
me=D/ue=1+D/Fe (Here we have used the lens formula)
Now the total magnification is given as
m=mo*me=(L/F0)*(1+D/Fe)
This is the required magnification.
In the final expression for magnification we notice that we have the focal lengths in the denominator. This
implies that in order to obtain large magnification from the compound microscope, the focal lengths of the two
lenses must be small.

(CLASS-XII/ASSIGNMENT -01/TERM -II-2024-25 PAGE 8 of 9)

• Astronomical Telescope
(Refracting type):

Telescope is used to observe

objects which are very far from
us. Telescopes produce
magnified images of distant
objects. In a simple telescope
two lenses are used, objective
lens and eyepiece lens. A
parallel beam of light is focused
by the objective lens of a
telescope and then light passes
through an eyepiece forming a
magnified image.
In the normal adjustment of the
telescope, the final image is formed at infinity.

Principle:
The objective forms the real and inverted image of the distant object at its focal plane. The distance of the
eyepiece from the objective is adjusted the final image is formed at the least distance vision. In case the position
of the eye is so adjusted that
the final image is formed at
infinity.

To increase magnifying
power of an astronomical
telescope in normal
adjustment, the focal length
of objective lens should be
the large and focal length of
eye lens should be small.
Note: In normal adjustment,
distance between the lenses
= f0 + fe .
When final image is formed at
the least distance of distinct
vision from the eye.

*************

(CLASS-XII/ASSIGNMENT -01/TERM -II-2024-25 PAGE 9 of 9)

 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, DURGAPUR
CLASS- XII
ASSIGNMENT - 01 (TERM 2-2024-25)
SUBJECT- CHEMISTRY

TOPIC- Aldehyde, Ketone & Carboxylic Acid

(CLASS-XII/ASSIGNMENT -01/TERM -II-2024-25/ Page 1 of 5)

Q 1. The oxidation of toluene to benzaldehyde by chromyl chloride is called
(a) Etard reaction (b) Riemer-Tiemann reaction (c) Stephen’s reaction (d) Cannizzaro’s reaction

Q 2. Which of the following tests/ reactions is given by aldehydes as well as ketones?

(a) Fehling’s test (b) Tollen’s test (c) 2,4 DNP test (d) Cannizzaro reaction
Q 3. Which of the reactions below can result in ketones?
(a) Oxidation of primary alcohols (b) Oxidation of secondary alcohols
(c) Dehydrogenation of tertiary alcohols (d) Dehydrogenation of primary alcohols
Q 4. Acetone combines with ethylene glycol in dry HCl gas to generate _________
(a) hemiacetals (b) cyclic ketals (c) cyclic acetals (d) acetals
Q 5. Which of the following compounds is formed when benzyl alcohol is oxidised with KMnO 4?
(a) CO2 and H2O (b) Benzoic acid (c) Benzaldehyde (d) Benzophenone
Q6. When benzaldehyde and formaldehyde are heated in an aqueous NaOH solution, they produce
(a) sodium formate + benzyl alcohol (b) methanol + sodium benzoate
(c) Methanol + benzyl alcohol (d) sodium formate + sodium benzoate

Q7. One example of this is the production of cyanohydrin from a ketone.

(a) addition of electrophilic (b) inclusion of nucleophiles
(c) Replacement of nucleophiles (d) Replacement of electrophiles
Q 8. Conc.HNO3 and conc.H2SO4 react with benzoic acid to form
(a) o-nitrobenzoic acid is a kind of nitrobenzoic acid.
(b) p-nitrobenzoic acid is a kind of nitrobenzoic acid.
© m-nitrobenzoic acid is a kind of nitrobenzoic acid.
(d) o,p-dinitrobenzoic acid is a kind of o,p-dinitrobenzoic acid.
Q9. ________ is another name for the chemical 3-Phenylprop-2-enal.
(a) Crotonaldehyde (b) Cinnamaldehyde (c) Salicylaldehyde (Salicylaldehyde) (d) vanillin
Q 10. Which of the following methods cannot produce aldehydes?
(a) Oxidation of primary alcohols (b) Dehydrogenation of secondary alcohols
(c) Ozonolysis of alkenes (d) Hydration of ethyne with acid
Q 11. Conversion of propyne to acetone requires three important reagents. Identify which of the following is not
one of the three?
(a) Water (b) Zinc dust (c) H2SO4 (d) HgSO4

(CLASS-XII/ASSIGNMENT -01/TERM -II-2024-25/ Page 2 of 5)

Q 12. Which of the following carbonyl compounds can be prepared from Rosenmund reaction?
(a) Methanal (b) Acetone (c) Butanone (d) Benzaldehyde

Q 13. When acetaldehyde is heated with Fehling's solution, it gives a red precipitate of:
(a) Cu (b) CuO (c) CuSO4 (d) Cu2O

Q 14. Formic acid and formaldehyde can be distinguished by treating with:

(a) Benedict's solution (b) Tollens' reagent (c) Fehling's solution (d) NaHCO3
Q 15. Which of the following orders of relative strengths of acids is correct?
(a) ClCH2COOH > FCH2COOH > BrCH2COOH
(b) ClCH2COOH > BrCH2COOH > FCH2COOH
(c) BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > FCH2COOH
(d) FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > BrCH2COOH
Q 16. Ketones react with Mg-Hg over water gives:
(a) alcohols (b) pinacols (c) pinacolones (d) none of these
Q 17. Which aldehyde will give Cannizzaro’s reaction?
(a) CH3CH2CH2CHO (b) CH3CH2CHCHO (c) (CH3)3CCHO (d) (CH3)2CH2CH2CHO
Q 18. Propionic acid with Br2/P yields a dibromo product. Its structure would be:
(a) CH2BrCH2COBr (b) CH2BrCHBrCOOH (c) CHBr2CH2COOH (d) CH3CBr2COOH
Q 19. The reaction in which hydrocarbons are formed when aldehydes and ketones are reduced with amalgamated
zinc and conc. HCl, is called:
(a) Dow reduction (b) Clemensen's reduction (c) Cope reduction (d) Wolff-Kishner reduction
Q 20. By reacting with Grignard's reagent, other aldehydes than formaldehyde produce additional products that
include:
(a) tertiary alcohols (b) secondary alcohols (c) primary alcohols (d) carboxylic acids
Q 21. How can Penta-2-one and Pentan-3-one be differentiated?
(a) Iodoform test (b) Benedict’s test (c) Fehling’s test (d) Aldol condensation test
Q 22. Which compound is obtained when acetaldehydes are treated with a dilute solution of caustic soda?
(a) Sodium acetate (b) Resinous mass (c) Aldol (d) Ethyl acetate
Q 23. The correct order of increasing acidic strength is _____________.
(a) Phenol < Ethanol < Chloroacetic acid < Acetic acid
(b) Ethanol < Phenol < Chloroacetic acid < Acetic acid
(c) Ethanol < Phenol < Acetic acid < Chloroacetic acid
(d) Chloroacetic acid < Acetic acid < Phenol < Ethanol
Q 24. Compounds A and C in the following reaction are __________.

(a) identical (b) positional isomers (c) functional isomers (d) optical isomers

ASSERTION-REASON TYPE

(a) If assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
(b) If assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
(c) If assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) If assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement
Q 25. Assertion (A): Compounds containing –CHO group are easily oxidised to corresponding carboxylic acids.
Reason (R): Carboxylic acids can be reduced to alcohols by treatment with LiAlH 4.
Q 26. Assertion (A): CH3CHO gives Iodoform test but CH3CH2CHO does not.
Reason (R): CH3CHO contains CH3 group at α position of carbonyl carbon.
Q 27. Assertion (A): The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons and ethers of

(CLASS-XII/ASSIGNMENT -01/TERM -II-2024-25/ Page 3 of 5)

 comparable molecular masses.
Reason (R): There is a weak molecular association in aldehydes and ketones arising out of the dipole-dipole
interactions.
Q 28. Assertion (A): Carboxylic acids contain a carbonyl group but do not give characteristic reactions of the
carbonyl group.
Reason (R): Due to resonance, the electrophilic nature of the carboxyl carbon is greatly reduced as compared
to the carbonyl carbon in aldehydes and ketones.
Q 29. Assertion (R) : Mixture of benzaldhyde and accetaldehyde in hot alkaline medium gives cinnamaldehyde.
Reason (A) : Benzaldehyde is strong electrophile than acetaldehyde.
Q 30. Assertion (R): The α-hydrogen atom in carbonyl compounds is less acidic.
Reason (A): The anion formed after the loss of α-hydrogen atom is resonance stabilised.
Q 31. Assertion (R) : Aromatic aldehydes and formaldehyde undergo Cannizaro reaction.
Reason (A) : Aromatic aldehydes are almost as reactive as formaldehyde.
Q 32. Assertion (R) : Aldehydes and ketones, both react with Tollen’s reagent to form silver mirror.
Reason (A) : Both, aldehydes and ketones contain a carbonyl group.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE
Q 33. Out of p-tolualdehyde and p-nitrobenzaldehyde ,which one is more reactive towards nucleophilic addition
reactions, why?
Q 34. Write the structure of the product formed when acetone reacts with 2,4 DNP reagent .
Q 35. What happens when
(a) Propanone is treated with methylmagnesium iodide and then hydrolysed
(b) Benzene is treated with CH3COCl in presence of anhydrous AlCl3?
(c) Sodium benzoate is heated with soda lime?
(d) Acetone is treated with Zn(Hg) / Conc. HCl
(e) Ethanal is treated with methylmagnesium bromide and then hydrolysed ?
(f) Propanone is treated with dilute Ba(OH) 2.
(g) Acetophenone is treated with Zn(Hg)/Conc. HCl
(h) Benzoyl chloride is hydrogenated in presence of Pd/BaSO4.
Q 36. Give chemical tests to distinguish between the following:
(a) Benzoic acid and ethyl benzoate
(b) Benzaldehyde and acetophenone
(c) Pentan-2-one and pentan-3-one
(d) Benaldehyde and acetophenone
(e) Phenol and benzoic acid
(f) Propanol and propanone
(g) Benzaldehyde and benzoic acid
(h) Ethanal and Propanal

Q 37. Name the reagents used in the following reactions:

(a) Benzyl alcohol to benzoic acid
(b) Dehydration of propan-2-ol to propene
(c) Butan-2-one to butan-2-ol.
(d) Ethylcyanide to ethanoic acid
(e) Butanol to Butanoic acid
(f) Benzoic acid to m-bromobenzoic acid
(g) Toluene to benzoic acid
(h) Ethanol to propan-2-ol
(i) Propanal to 2-hydroxypropanoic acid

(CLASS-XII/ASSIGNMENT -01/TERM -II-2024-25/ Page 4 of 5)

Q 38. Explain the followings:
(a) p-nitrobenzoic acid has lower pka value than benzoic acid.
(b) Oxidation of CH3–CHO is easier than CH3COCH3.
(c) CH3CHO is more reactive than CH3COCH3 towards reaction with HCN.
(d) Aromatic carboxylic acids do not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction.
(e) (CH3)2CH – CHO undergoes aldol condensation whereas (CH3)3C–CHO does not.
(f) Why pKa of 𝑭 −𝑪𝑯𝟐 − 𝑪𝑶𝑶𝑯 is lower than that of 𝑪𝒍−𝑪𝑯𝟐 −𝑪𝑶𝑶𝑯?
(g) Carboxylic acids do not give reactions of carbonyl group
(h) Carboxylic acid is a stronger acid than phenol.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q 39. You are given four organic compounds “A”, “B” , “C” and “D”. The compounds “A”, “B” and “C” form an
orange- red precipitate with 2,4 DNP reagent. Compounds “A” and “B” reduce Tollen’s reagent while
compounds “C” and “D” do not. Both “B” and “C” give a yellow precipitate when heated with iodine in the
presence of NaOH. Compound “D” gives brisk effervescence with sodium bicarbonate solution. Identify “A”,
“B”, “C” and “D” given the number of carbon atoms in three of these carbon compounds is three while one
has two carbon atoms. Give an explanation for your answer.

Q 40. A hydrocarbon (A) with molecular formula C5H10 on ozonolysis gives two products (B) and (C). Both (B)
and (C) give a yellow precipitate when heated with iodine in presence of NaOH while only (B) give a silver
mirror on reaction with Tollen’s reagent.
(a) Identify (A), (B) and (C).
(b) Write the reaction of B with Tollen’s reagent
(c) Write the equation for iodoform test for C
(d) Write down the equation for aldol condensation reaction of B and C.
Q 41. (A), (B) and (C) are three non-cyclic functional isomers of a carbonyl compound with molecular formula
C4H8O. Isomers (A) and (C) give positive Tollens’ test whereas isomer (B) does not give Tollens’ test but
gives positive Iodoform test. Isomers (A) and (B) on reduction with Zn(Hg)/conc. HCl give the same product
(D). (a) Write the structures of (A), (B), (C) and (D). (b) Out of (A), (B) and (C) isomers, which one is least
reactive towards addition of HCN?

Q 42. An organic compound (A) having molecular formula C 4H8O gives orange red precipitate with 2, 4-DNP
reagent. It does not reduce Tollens’ reagent but gives yellow precipitate of iodoform on heating with NaOH
and I2. Compound (A) on reduction with NaBH4 gives compound (B) which undergoes dehydration reaction
on heating with conc. H2SO4 to form compound (C). Compound (C) on Ozonolysis gives two molecules of
ethanal. Identify (A), (B) and (C) and write their structures. Write the reactions of compound (A) with (i)
NaOH/I2 and (ii) NaBH4.

******************************

(CLASS-XII/ASSIGNMENT -01/TERM -II-2024-25/ Page 5 of 5)

 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, DURGAPUR
CLASS- XII
ASSIGNMENT - 01 (TERM 2-2024-25)
SUBJECT- BIOLOGY
TOPIC- BIOTECHNOLOGY , PRINCIPLE ANDPROCESSES

BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES

Recombinant DNA technology

Definition
Genetic engineering, a kind of biotechnology, is the latest branch in applied genetics
desling the alteration of the genetic makeup of cells by deliberate and artificial
means. Genetic engineering involves transfer or replacement of genes, so also known
as recombination DNA technology or gene splicing
Tools of genetic engineering:
1) Two enzymes used in genetic engineering are restriction endonuclease and ligaves
(2) R.E. is used to cut the plasmid as well as the foreign DNA molecules of specific
points while ligase is used to seal gaps or to join bits of DNA.
(3) The ability to clone and sequence essentially any gene or other DNA sequence of
interest from any speciesdepends on a special class of enrymes called restriction
endonucleases.
(4) Restriction endonucleases are also called as molecular scissors or 'chemical
scalpels.
(5) Restriction endonucleases cleave DNA molecules only at specific nucleotide
sequence called restriction sites.
(6) The first restriction enzyme identified from a bacterial strain is designated 1. the
second II and so on, thus, restriction endonuclease EcoRI is produced by Escherichia
coli strain RY-13
(7) Restrictiom enzyme called EcoRI recognizes the sequence
(8) It then cleaves the DNA between G and A on both strands. Restriction nucleuses
make staggered cuts, thatis, they cleave the two strands of a double helix at different
joints and blunt ended fragments; that is, they cut both strands at same place.

Steps of recombinant DNA technology

(1) Isolating a useful DNA segment from the donor organism
(2) Splicing it into a suitable vector under conditions to ensure that each vector
receives no more than one DNA fragment.

(CLASS-XII-BIOLOGY/ASSIGNMENT -01/TERM -II-2024-25 PAGE 1 of 6)

(3) Producing of multiple copies of his recombinant DNA

(4) Inserting this altered DNA into a recipient organism

(5) Screening of the transformed cells.

Vectors:
Vector in genetic engineering is usually a DNA segment used as a carrier for transferring
selected DNA into living cells. These are as follows:
(1) Plasmid: Plasmid is extra chromosomal, closed circular double stranded molecules of
DNA present in most eukaryotes. All plasmid carry replicons pieces of DNA that have the
genetic information required to replicate. Plasmid pBR 322 was one of the first widely used
cloning vectors, it contain both ampicillin and tetracycline resistance genes.
(2) Phage: It is constructed from the phage / chromosomes and acts as bacteriophage cloning
vectors.
(3) Cosmid: The hybrids between plasmid and the phage / chromosome give rise to cosmid
vectors.

(4) Beside all these there are artificial chromosomes like

(i) BACs (Bacterial Artificial chromosomes)
(ii) YACs (Yeast Artificial chromosomes)
The technique of recombinant DNA can be employed in the following ways.

(CLASS-XII-BIOLOGY/ASSIGNMENT -01/TERM -II-2024-25 PAGE 2 of 6)

(1) It can be used to elucidate molecular events in the biological process such as cellular
differentiation and ageing. The same can be used for making gene maps with precision.
(2) In biochemical and pharmaceutical industry, by engineering genes, useful chemical
compounds can be produced cheaply and efficiently.

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR):

(1) It was developed by Kary Mullis in 1983 and won Nobel Prize in 1993.
(2) PCR is a method for amplifying a specific piece of DNA molecule without the
requirement for time consuming cloning procedure.
(3) This process requires Target DNA, a heat stable DNA polymerase, which work at
optimum temperature of 70°C usually Taq DNA and four types of nucleotides with small
single stranded strands of DNA of about 20nucleotide called primers, produce multiple copy
of desired DNA.

(CLASS-XII-BIOLOGY/ASSIGNMENT -01/TERM -II-2024-25 PAGE 3 of 6)

Obtaining the Foreign Gene Product: The cells harbouring cloned genes of interest may be
grown on a small scale in the laboratory. The cultures may be used for extracting the desired
protein and then purifying it by using different separation techniques.
Bioreactors: To produce in large quantities, the development of bioreactors, where large
volume of culture can be processed, was required. Thus, bioreactors can be thought of as
vessels in which raw materials are biologically converted into specific products, individual
enzymes, etc., using microbial plant, animal or human cells. A bioreactor provides the
optimal conditions for achieving the desired product by providing optimum growth
conditions (temperature, pH, substrate, salts, vitamins, oxygen). Stirred-tank reactor: It is
usually cylindrical or with a curved base to facilitate the mixing of the reactor contents. The
stirrer facilitates even mixing and oxygen availability throughout the bioreactor. Alternatively
air can be bubbled through the reactor. The bioreactor has an agitator system, an oxygen
delivery system and a foam control system, a temperature control system, pH control system
and sampling ports so that small volumes of the culture can be withdrawn periodically.
Downstream Processing: The processes include separation and purification, which are
collectively referred to as downstream processing. Strict quality control testing for each
product is also required.
IOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES

ONE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. What is a cloning vector?
2. "Prophase I of meiosis plays a vital role in rDNA formation". Justify the statement.
3. What are palindromes and how are they connected with Biotechnology?
4. Why EtBr is used in gel electrophoresis inspite of it being highly carcinogenic?

(CLASS-XII-BIOLOGY/ASSIGNMENT -01/TERM -II-2024-25 PAGE 4 of 6)

5. How is the action of restriction endonucleases different from that of normal
endonucleases?
TWO MARKS QUESTIONS:
6. How are 'sticky ends' formed on a DNA strand? Why are they so called?
7. Explain the work carried out by Cohen and Boyer that contributed immensely in
Biotechnology.
8. For producing a recombinant protein (for therapeutic purpose) in large scale, which vector
would you choose a low copy number or high copy number and why?9. What do you mean
by-'ori' and 'rop' and what is their significance?
10. Why is Agrobacterium tumefaciens good cloning vector?
THREE MARKS QUESTIONS:
11. How can a host cell be made competent? Explain the different methods of vector-less
gene transfer.
12. Suggest and describe a technique to obtain multiple copies of a gene of interest in vitro.
13. Explain three basic steps to be followed during genetic modification of an organism.

14. 'A very small sample of tissue or even a drop of blood can help determine paternity'.
Provide a scientific explanation to substantiate the statement. 15. In pBR322, foreign DNA
has to be introduced in terregion. Which of the following restriction enzymes should be used
and why? Pvul, EcoRI, BamHI. Provide reasons.
16. Name and differentiate between the two commonly used bioreactors.
17. Mention three advantages of modern genetic techniques over traditional hybridization
methods.
FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS:
18. Enumerate with the help of diagrams, the different steps involved in formation of
recombinant DNA. Name the technique used to separate the DNA fragments cut by
restriction endonucleases.
19. A) Describe the various steps in one complete cycle of PCR. B) State the purpose of such
an amplified DNA sequence.
20. Draw a labelled diagram of a simple stirred tank bioreactor and describe its functioning.
ASSERTION AND REASON
1. Assertion: Restriction enzymes recognize palindromic sequence.
Reason: Palindromic sequences read same in both directions of the two strands.
2. Assertion: Cloning vector should have selectable marker.
Reason: Selectable marker, helps in identifying and eleminating non-transformants and
selectively permitting the growth of transformants.

(CLASS-XII-BIOLOGY/ASSIGNMENT -01/TERM -II-2024-25 PAGE 5 of 6)

3. Assertion: Restriction enzymes can cut DNA on random sites.
Reason: They are present in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
4. Assertion: Restriction digestion is a process of cutting DNA by restriction enzyme.
Reason: DNA ligase joins two DNAS.
5. Assertion: Restriction endonucleases are also called 'molecular scissors.
Reason: When fragments generated by restriction endonucleases are mixed, they join together
due to their sticky ends.
6. Assertion: A bacterial cell with no restriction enzymes will be easily infected and lysed by
bacteriophages.
Reason: Restriciton enymes catalyse synthesis of protective coat around bacterial cell that
prevents bacteriophage attack.
7. Assertion: Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA to produce sticky ends.
Reason: Stickiness of the ends facilitates the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase.
8. Assertion: The matrix used in gel electrophoresis should have controllable pore size.
Reason: Agarose concentration can be changed to change pore sizes,
9. Assertion: Foreign DNA and vector DNA cut with the help of ligase.
Reason: Ligase act on sugar phosphate backbone of DNA.
10. Assertion: In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments are separated.
Reason: DNA is negatively charged, so it moves towards anode under electric field.

(CLASS-XII-BIOLOGY/ASSIGNMENT -01/TERM -II-2024-25 PAGE 6 of 6)

 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, DURGAPUR
CLASS- XII
ASSIGNMENT - 01 (TERM II-2024-25)
SUBJECT- COMPUTER SCIENCE
TOPIC- MYSQL

MCQ
1. Which of the following is not an aggregate function?
(a) MIN (b) SUM() (c) PRODUCT() (d) AVG()

2. If GROUP BY clause is not used, the HAVING clause behaves as:

(a) WHERE clause (b) FROM clause (c) ORDER BY clause (d) None of
these

3. Which of the following is not an EQUI JOIN?

(a) INNER JOIN (b) NATURAL JOIN (c) OUTER JOIN (d) LAP JOIN

4. All aggregate functions except ignore NULL values in their input

collections.
(a) COUNT(*) (b) COUNT(Attribute) (c) AVG (d) Sum

5. Which of the following clause cannot be used with aggregate functions?

(a) GROUP BY (b) SELEXT (c) WHERE (d) HAVING
ASSERTIONS AND REASONING
In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
Reason(R).Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

6. Assertion (A): IN SQL, the GROUP BY clause is used to combine all such records of
a table which have the identical values in a specified field(s).
Reason (R): The GROUP BY clause always returns one row of each group. WE
often use GROUP BY clause with aggregate functions such as
SUM(),AVG(),MAX(),MIN() etc.

7. Assertion (A): The INNER JOIN is one of the types of SQL JOIN that can be
performed between two or more tables.
Reason (R): IN SQL, he INNER JOIN clause returns all the matching records of two or more
tables where the key fields of the records are same.

(CLASS-XII/ASSIGNMENT -01/CS/TERM -II-2024-25 PAGE 1 of 6)

FILL IN THE BLANKS:
1. The AVG() function works only on data types.
2. The function results in the total number of records
including nullvalues and duplicates.
3. The SQL EQI JOIN establishes a relation using relation operator.
THEORY QUESTION:
4. What is the difference between HAVING and WHERE clause?
5. What is the difference between DISTINCT and GROUP BY?
6. What is meant by aggregate functions? Name them?
7. What do you mean by NATURAL JOIN? Explain with example?
8. What is the difference between EQUI JOIN and NATURAL JOIN?
QUERY BASED QUESTIONS
8. Consider the following tables Employee and Salary. Write SQL commands
for thestatements.
Table: Employee
Eid Name Depid Qualification Sec
1 Deepali Gupta 101 MCA F
2 Rajat Tyagi 101 BCA M
3 Hari Mohan 102 BA M
4 Harry 102 MA M
5 Sumit Mittal 103 BTECH M
6 Jyoti 101 MTECH F

Table: Salary
Eid Basic DA HRA Bonus
1 6000 2000 2300 200
2 2000 300 300 30
3 1000 300 300 40
4 1500 390 490 30
5 8000 900 900 80
6 10000 300 490 89
(i) To display the frequency of the employees department wise.
(ii) To display those employee names with bonus whose name is starting with
‘H’.
(iii) To display maximum, minimum, average gross salary of employees
where grosssalary is sum of basic, da, hra and bonus.
(iv) To list the Name of those employees whose basic salary is more than 8000.

9. Consider the following tables Employee and Salary. Write SQL commands

(CLASS-XII/ASSIGNMENT -01/CS/TERM -II-2024-25 PAGE 2 of 6)

 for thestatements.
Table: Personal
Empno Name Dobirth Native-place Hobby
123 Amit 23-Jan-1965 Delhi Music
127 Manoj 12-dec-1976 Mumbai Writing
124 Abhai 11-aug-1975 Allahabad Music
125 Vinod 04-apr-1977 Delhi Sports
128 Abhay 10-mar-1974 Mumbai Gardening
129 Ramesh 28-oct-1981 Pune Sports

Table: Job
Sno Area App-date Salary Retd-date Dept
123 Agra 25-jan-2006 5000 25-jan-2026 Marketing
127 Mathura 22-dec-2006 6000 22-dec-2026 Finance
124 Agra 19-aug-2007 5500 19-aug-2027 Marketing
125 Delhi 14-apr-2004 8500 14-apr-2018 Sales
128 Pune 13-mar-2008 7500 13-mar-2028 Sales

(i) Show empno, name, salary of those who have sports as hobby.
(ii) Show name of eldest employee.
(iii) Show number of employee area wise.
(iv) Show youngest employee from each native place.
(v) Show the appointment date and native place of those whose name starts with
‘A’ orends with ‘d’.
OUTPUT BASED QUESTIONS:
10. Write the output of the given SQL queries for the following tables:
Table: Cricketer
SNo PlayerName Expert Country Team
1 Pat Cummins All Rounder Australia Kolkata KR
2 Glenn Maxwell All Rounder Australia Kings XI
3 Chris Morris Bowler South Africa Royal Ch
4 Sheldon Cottrell Bowler West Indies Kings XI
5 Eoin Morgan Batsman England Kolkata KR

(a) select count(*),Expert from Cricketer group by Expert having count(*)>2;

(b) select PlayerName,Team from Cricketer where PlayerName like “S%”;
(c) select Expert,Team from cricketer order by Country desc;
11. Write the output of the given SQL queries for the following tables:
Table: Phone
Code Company
P1 SAMSUNG
P2 REALME
P3 OPPO
P4 VIVO

(CLASS-XII/ASSIGNMENT -01/CS/TERM -II-2024-25 PAGE 3 of 6)

 P5 NOKIA

Table: Order

No Qty Price Code

A11 25 11000 P1
A21 30 8500 P2
A31 35 9800 P4
A41 20 10200 P3
A51 10 8900 P5

(i) SELECT * FROM Phone NATURAL JOIN Order;

(ii) SELECT Code, Qty from Phone, Order where Code.Phone=Code.Order and Qty>20;
(iii) SELECT max(Qty),min(Qty) from Order;
(iv) SELECT Company, count(*) from Phone group by Code;

Some More Questions:

1. Create the table VEHICLE and TRAVEL then execute the following query.

Table : VEHICLE
CODE VTYPE PERKM

101 VOLVO BUS 160

102 AC DELUXE BUS 150

103 ORDINARY BUS 90

105 SUV 40

104 CAR 20

Table:TRAVEL

NO NAME TDATE KM CODE NOP

101 Janish Kin 2015-11-13 200 101 32

103 VedikaSahai 2016-04-21 100 103 45

105 Tarun Ram 2016-03-23 350 102 42

102 John Fen 2016-02-13 90 102 40

107 Ahmed Khan 2015-01-10 75 104 2

104 Raveena 2016-05-28 80 105 4

106 Kripal Anya 2016-02-06 200 101 25

(CLASS-XII/ASSIGNMENT -01/CS/TERM -II-2024-25 PAGE 4 of 6)

 (a) To display NO, NAME, TDATE from the table TRAVEL in descending order of NO.

(b) To display all the details from table TRAVEL for the travelers, who have
traveleddistance more than 100 KM in ascending order of NOP.

(c) To display the Vehicle name for those Vehicle which can travel more than 180 KM?

(d) Display the count of TRAVELER with Vehicle Name.

(e) Display the count of Code for those vehicle whose Code count greater than 1.

(f) Display the name of DRIVER whose name is starting with “J” with their vehicle type.

2. Consider the following DEPT and WORKER tables. Write SQL queries.

Table : DEPT

DCODE DEPARTMENT CITY

D01 MEDIA DELHI

D02 MARKETING DELHI

D03 INFRASTRUCTURE MUMBAI

D05 FINANCE KOLKATA

D04 HUMAN RESOURCE MUMBAI

Table : WORKER

WNO NAME DOJ DOB GENDER DCODE

1001 George K 2013-09-02 1991-09-01 MALE D01

1002 RymaSen 2012-12-11 1990-12-15 FEMALE D03

1003 Mohitesh 2013-02-03 1987-09-04 MALE D05

1007 Anil Jha 2014-01-17 1984-10-19 MALE D04

1004 Manila Sahai 2012-12-09 1986-11-14 FEMALE D01

1005 R SAHAY 2013-11-18 1987-03-31 MALE D02

1006 Jaya Priya 2014-06-09 1985-06-23 FEMALE D05

(CLASS-XII/ASSIGNMENT -01/CS/TERM -II-2024-25 PAGE 5 of 6)

(i) To display Wno, Name, Gender from the table WORKER in descending order of
Wno.

(ii) To display the Name of all the FEMALE workers with their department from
the tableWORKER.

(iii) To display the Wno and Name of those workers from the table WORKER who
are bornbetween ‘1987-01-01’ and ‘1991-12-01’.

(iv) To display the count of members with each department with their department
name.
(v) To display those department name where count of worker greater than 1.

(CLASS-XII/ASSIGNMENT -01/CS/TERM -II-2024-25 PAGE 6 of 6)

 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, DURGAPUR
CLASS- XII
ASSIGNMENT - 01(TERM II-2024-25)
SUBJECT- PSYCHOLOGY (037)

TOPIC-Psychological Disorders

Meaning of Abnormality can be aptly described with the help of 4Ds :

1. Deviance: Psychological disorders are characterized by Deviance, Unusual, Bizarre,
Strange
2. Dysfunction: Interferes with the normal functioning of an individual.
3. Distress: It implies behaviour that is unpleasant and distressing to oneself and to others.
4. Danger: It means behaviour that is harmful and dangerous to the person concerned and
others.
Perspectives on Abnormality
• The first view of abnormal behaviour is that it deviates from social norms. According
to many psychologists, “abnormal” is just a label applied to behaviour that deviates
from societal norms. Abnormal behaviour, thoughts, and emotions deviate significantly
from a society’s definition of normal functioning. Norms, which are explicit or implicit
guidelines for proper conduct, exist in every culture. Abnormal behaviours, thoughts,
and emotions deviate from societal norms.
• The second perspective considers deviant behaviour to be maladaptive. Many
psychologists believe that the best criterion for judging whether or not behaviour is
normal is if it promotes the well-being of the person and, eventually, the group to which
s/he belongs. According to this criterion, conforming behaviour is abnormal if it is
maladaptive if it conflicts with optimal functioning and growth.
History of Abnormal Behaviour
In the ancient times, any abnormal behaviour shown by an individual was viewed as a product
of supernatural forces. It was believed that all such phenomena were a result of the actions of
magical, sometimes sinister beings which controlled the world. In particular, ancients viewed
the human body and mind as a battleground between external forces of good and evil.
Abnormal behaviour was typically interpreted as a victory of evil spirits, and the cure for such
behaviour was to force the demons to come out from the victim’s body. This supernatural view
of abnormality may have begun as far back as the Stone Age, a half-million years ago. Some
skulls from that period recovered in Europe and South America show evidence of an operation
called trephination, in which a stone instrument, or trephine, was used to cut away a circular
section of the skull. Historians surmise that this operation was performed as a treatment for
severe abnormal behaviour—either hallucinations, in which people saw or heard things not
actually present, or melancholia, characterized by extreme sadness and immobility.
Egyptian, Chinese, and Hebrew writings all account for psychological deviance in the
following way. The treatment for abnormality in these early societies was often exorcism. The

(CLASS-XII/ASSIGNMENT -01/PSYCHOLOGY/TERM -II-2024-25/PAGE 1 of 3)

idea was to coax the evil spirits to leave or to make the person’s body an uncomfortable place
in which to live. A shaman, or priest, would recite prayers, plead with the evil spirits, insult
them, perform magic, make loud noises, or have the person drink bitter portions. If these
techniques failed, the shaman performed a more extreme form of exorcism, such as whipping
or starving the person.
The naturalist approach to understanding abnormal behaviour dates back to the observations
and records of Ancient Greek 7 physician Hippocrates. In the years from roughly 500 B.C. to
A.D. 500, in the flourishing Greek and Roman civilizations, philosophers and physicians
identified a number of mental disorders.
Hippocrates (460–377 B.C.), often called the father of modern medicine, taught propagated
that illnesses had natural causes. He saw abnormal behaviour as a disease arising from internal
physical problems. Specifically, he believed that some form of brain pathology was the cause
and that resulted—like all other forms of disease, in his view—from an imbalance of four
fluids, or humors, that flowed through the body: yellow bile, black bile, blood, and phlegm.
In the Middle Ages, the explanations towards any kind of abnormal behaviour shown by
individuals were guided by supernatural beliefs only. The enlightened views of Greek and
Roman physicians and scholars did not prevent ordinary people from continuing to believe in
demons. And with the decline of Rome, demonology enjoyed a strong resurgence, as a growing
distrust of science spread throughout Europe. From A.D. 500 to 1350, the period known as the
Middle Ages, the power of the clergy increased greatly throughout Europe. In those days the
church rejected scientific forms of investigation, and it controlled all education. Religious
beliefs, which were highly superstitious and demonological and it dominated almost all aspects
of life. Once again, the abnormal behaviour was as usual interpreted as a conflict between good
and evil, God and the devil. Deviant behaviour, particularly psychological dysfunction, was
seen as evidence of Satan’s influence. Although some scientists and physicians still insisted on
medical explanations and treatments, their views carried little weight in this atmosphere. The
Middle Ages were a time of great stress and anxiety, of war, urban uprisings, and plagues.
People blamed the devil for these troubles and feared being possessed by them. The incidence
of abnormal behaviour apparently increased dramatically during this period. In addition, there
were outbreaks of mass ‘madness,’ in which large numbers of people apparently shared
delusions and hallucinations.
Thus, gradually abnormal behaviour was seen as an illness and in the 18th and 19th century,
hospitalization of those who were mentally disturbed became common. The conditions of these
hospitals and asylums were usually degrading and cruel. Late in the eighteenth century Philippe
Pinel and William Tuke were pioneers in bringing about reform in these institutes. Their
approach came to be known as moral therapy. They stressed on the need for peaceful
environments for these institutes, need to provide useful work to the patients and the need to
provide dignified treatment. In the 19th century Dorothy Dix and others were responsible for
development of more number of humane hospitals and institutions.

(CLASS-XII/ASSIGNMENT -01/PSYCHOLOGY/TERM -II-2024-25/PAGE 2 of 3)

Homework (to be done in the notebook)
1. What do you mean by the interactional approach? Discuss
2. Raveena has a strong tendency to procrastinate and waste her time. Due to this she often
fails to complete her work and is always stressed about it. Her grades and concept clarity
are poor. This is causing her stress and feelings of anxiety. Which approach will you
use to explain her behaviour as abnormal. Describe.
3. The word normal is itself very relative. Why?
4. Elucidate the two classification systems for diagnosis of psychological disorders.
5. Sumit’s younger brother, Saurabh often stays in the house only. He does not like
interacting with others much. Apparently, he was homeschooled by his mother. The
house maid who works there shared that the young boy is extremely moody and at times
throws things. Some people say that, Saurabh was on medication some years ago, but
now it has stopped. Whenever there is any occasion in the family, Saurabh likes to stay
locked inside his room and his parents avoid talking about him with others. What do
you think is happening here? Why is Saurabh ‘shielded’ so much?

***

(CLASS-XII/ASSIGNMENT -01/PSYCHOLOGY/TERM -II-2024-25/PAGE 3 of 3)

 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, DURGAPUR

CLASS- XII
TERM-2
ASSIGNMENT- 01 (2024-25)

SUBJECT-PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048)

Answer the following questions.

1. Discuss any three principles of stability.

2. What is projectile? Explain any two examples of projectile in sports.
3. Discuss various types of friction
4. States Newtown’s law of motion and explain their implication in sports of
your choice.
5. Discuss the types of levers.
6. With the help of examples, discuss the 2 nd class lever in detail.
7. What are the advantages and disadvantages if friction in the field of physical
education. Explain with suitable examples.
8. Make a short note of the followings, mention below:
a) Equilibrium
b) Stability
c) Friction
d) Centre of gravity
e) Projectile.