1/20/24, 5:24 PM TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Solved Problems with Detailed Solutions [Free PDF]

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TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Solved Problems with Detailed Solutions [Free PDF]

Last updated on Jan 5, 2024

Important TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions

TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 1:

Consider the following statements regarding the Action Plan for Introduction of Cheetah in India:

1. It has been released by Ministry for Environment, Forests and Climate Change

2. It focuses to use the cheetah as a charismatic flagship and umbrella species to garner resources for restoring open
forest

3. Current Carrying Capacity for Kuno National Park is a maximum of 21 cheetahs.

4. Kuno National Park falls under the northern tropical dry deciduous forest as per the revised classification of forest
types of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only

2. 3 and 4 only

3. 1, 2 and 4 only

4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : 1, 2, 3 and 4

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TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 1 Detailed Solution

The correct answer is 1, 2, 3 and 4

In News
PIB News: Action Plan for Introduction of Cheetah in India released by Ministry for Environment, Forests and
Climate Change.

Key Points
Action Plan for Introduction of Cheetah:

It was released by Ministry for Environment, Forests and Climate Change at the 19th meeting of the
National Tiger Conservation Authority(NTCA). Hence statement 1 is correct
The aim of the plan is to restore the only large carnivore, the Cheetah, that has become extinct in
independent India.
Objective:
To establish breeding cheetah populations in safe habitats across its historical range and manage
them as a metapopulation.
To use the cheetah as a charismatic flagship and umbrella species to garner resources for
restoring open forest and savanna systems that will benefit biodiversity and ecosystem services from
these ecosystems. Hence statement 2 is correct
To enhance India’s capacity to sequester carbon through ecosystem restoration activities in
cheetah conservation areas and thereby contribute toward the global climate change mitigation goals.
To use the ensuing opportunity for eco-development and ecotourism to enhance local community
livelihoods.
To manage any conflict by cheetahs or other wildlife with local communities within cheetah
conservation areas expediently through compensation, awareness, and management actions to win
community support.
Kuno NP falls under the northern tropical dry deciduous forest as per the revised classification of forest
types of India (Champion & Seth 1968). Hence statement 4 is correct
The dominant trees in this landscape are Anogeissus pendula and Boswellia serrata, while the middle
story is dominated by Acacia catechu, Acacia leucopholea and Diospyros melanoxylon.
Zizyphus sp. makes the lowest part of the canopy cover.
The current carrying capacity for Kuno NP is a maximum of 21 cheetahs, once restored the larger
landscape can hold about 36 cheetahs that as per the results of PHVA would be viable for long-term by itself
without immigrants as well. Hence statement 3 is correct
Thus it emphasizes the need of further enhance the current carrying capacity and prey base of Kuno for
the long-term viability of the cheetah population.
This can be achieved by gradually including the remaining part of the Kuno Wildlife Division (1,280 km2)
and parts (potential cheetah habitat) of the larger Kuno-SheopurShivpuri landscape (3,300 km2) for
restorative investments and prey restoration.

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1/20/24, 5:24 PM TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Solved Problems with Detailed Solutions [Free PDF]
Leopards are already there in Kuno in significant numbers with a density of about 9 leopards per 100
km2. English Get Started
Cheetah and leopards can coexist if adequate prey base and other resources are available.
With prey restoration, the reintroduction of lions as well as colonization by tigers in future are both
viable possibilities in Kuno landscape.

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TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 2:

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about Environmental, Social, and Governance(ESG)?

1. It is the disclosure of environmental, social, and governance data, which increases stakeholder transparency in
order to reduce risks and identify opportunities.

2. It covers a spectrum of business aspects that financial analyses might not traditionally consider.

3. A failure to measure ESG exposures could result in significant financial losses.

4. All of the above

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : All of the above

TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 2 Detailed Solution

The correct answer is option 4.

In News
The Hindu: Recently India witnessed an increase in ESG regulations.

Key Points
ECG:

ESG stands for Environmental, Social, and Governance.

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It is the disclosure of environmental, social, and governance data, which increases stakeholder
transparency in order to reduce risks and identify opportunities. English Get Started
ESG covers a spectrum of business aspects that financial analyses might not traditionally consider, yet often do
have financial relevance for businesses.
A failure to measure ESG exposures could result in significant financial losses.

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TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 3:

With reference to the "Blue Flag", consider the following statements:

1. It is awarded by the Denmark-based non-profit Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE).

2. Its mission is to promote sustainability in the tourism sector.
3. Currently, there are 10 Blue Flag beaches of India.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only

2. 2 only

3. 3 only

4. 1,2 and 3

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 1 : 1 and 2 only

TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 3 Detailed Solution

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key Points

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Blue Flag
English Get Started
The Blue Flag certification is awarded by the Denmark-based non-profit Foundation for Environmental
Education or FEE. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Its mission is to promote sustainability in the tourism sector, through environmental education,
environmental protection and other sustainable development practices. Hence, statement 2 is correct
Recently, Thunda Beach and Kadmat Beach of Lakshadweep has been accorded the International eco-label
"Blue Flag".
With these two additions, the number of Blue Flag beaches is now 12. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Following 4 categories are considered in awarding the Blue Flag certification:
Environmental Education and Information
Water Quality
Environmental Management
Safety and Services

Important Points
12 Blue Flag Beaches of India

Beaches State/UT
Shivrajpur Beach Gujarat
Ghoghala Beach Diu
Padubidri Beach Karnataka
Kasarkod Beach Karnataka
Thunda Beach Lakshadweep
Kadmat Beach Lakshadweep
Kappad Beach Kerala
Kovalam Beach Tamil Nadu
Eden Beach Puducherry
Radhanagar Beach Andaman & Nicobar
Rushikonda Beach Andhra Pradesh
Golden Beach Odisha

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TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 4:

Consider the following statements:

1. India's renewable energy target is to achieve 500 GW of energy from renewable sources by 2030.

2. India has the target to achieve 40% installed power generation capacity from non-fossil energy sources by 2030.

3. India has also announced a Hydrogen Energy Mission for green hydrogen only.

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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
English Get Started

1. 1 only

2. 2 and 3 only

3. 1 and 2

4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 1 : 1 only

TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 4 Detailed Solution

The correct answer is 1 only.

In News
The Getting India to Net Zero report which contains new research and modelling finds that policies to initiate
the clean energy transition will be crucial in determining when India achieves net zero emissions and how
much it could benefit from it was released recently.
The report was commissioned by the High-level Policy Commission on Getting Asia to Net Zero.
It highlights that achieving net zero carbon emissions by 2070, a target that the Indian Prime Minister
committed to in Glasgow in 2021, could boost India’s economy by 4.7% above the projected baseline
growth in GDP terms by 2036, worth a total of $371 billion.
It could create as many as 15 million new jobs by 2047.

Key Points
India's Contribution Towards Net Zero

India’s renewable energy targets have steadily become more ambitious, from the 175 GW by 2022 declared
at Paris, to 450 GW by 2030 at the UN Climate Summit, and now 500 GW by 2030, announced at COP26.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
India has also announced the target of 50% installed power generation capacity from non-fossil energy
sources by 2030, raising the existing target of 40%, which has already been almost achieved. Hence,
statement 2 is incorrect.
India has also announced a Hydrogen Energy Mission for grey and green hydrogen. Hence, statement
3 is incorrect.
On August 15, 2021, Prime Minister Modi announced a “National Hydrogen Mission to make India a Global
Hub for Green Hydrogen Production and Export”, boost “energy self-reliance” and “inspire” “Clean Energy
Transition all over the world” through Green Growth” and “Green Jobs”.
In November 2021 at COP 26 in Glasgow, Prime Minister Modi made five commitments—
achieve Net Zero by 2070, and by 2030,
take cumulative non fossil fuel generation capacity to 500 GW,
meet 50 percent of energy needs from renewable energy,
reduce the energy intensity of the economy by 45 percent, and
reduce carbon emissions by 1 billion tons.

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The Indian oil companies have been running pilot projects for the manufacture of grey hydrogen since
2007 though the emphasis was on converting biomass and methane to hydrogen.English Get Started
In energy efficiency, the market-based scheme of Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) has avoided 92 million
tonnes of CO2 equivalent emissions during its first and second cycles.

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TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 5:

Consider the following statements with reference to Single-Use Plastic :

1. India became the first country to ban thin plastic bags in 2002.

2. When plastic remains in the environment for long periods of time and does not decay, it turns into microplastics.

3. The largest share of single-use plastic is that of packaging.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2

2. 2 and 3

3. 1 and 3

4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : 2 and 3

TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 5 Detailed Solution

The correct answer is 2 and 3.

In News
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Recently, the Centre has defined a list of single-use plastic items that will be banned from 1st July 2022.
English Get Started
Key Points
It refers to plastic items that are used once and discarded.
Single-use plastic has among the highest shares of plastic manufactured and used from packaging of items, to
bottles (shampoo, detergents, cosmetics), polythene bags, face masks, coffee cups, cling film, trash bags, food
packaging etc.
The report found that India features in the top 100 countries of single-use plastic waste generation – at rank 94
(the top three being Singapore, Australia and Oman).
With domestic production of 11.8 million metric tonnes annually, and import of 2.9 MMT, India’s net
generation of single-use plastic waste is 5.6 MMT, and per capita generation is 4 kg.
The choice for the first set of single-use plastic items for the ban was based on the difficulty of collection, and
therefore recycling.
When plastic remains in the environment for long periods of time and does not decay, it turns into
microplastics first entering our food sources and then the human body, and this is extremely harmful.
The largest share of single-use plastic is that of packaging with as much as 95% of single use
belonging to this category from toothpaste to shaving cream to frozen foods.
The items chosen are of low value and of low turnover and are unlikely to have a big economic impact, which
could be a contributing reason.
The ban will be monitored by the CPCB from the Centre, and by the State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) that
will report to the Centre regularly.
Bangladesh became the first country to ban thin plastic bags in 2002.

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TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 6:

With reference to microplastic, Consider the following statement:

1. Microplastics are tiny bits of various types of plastic found in the environment.

2. There is no universal agreement on the size of microplastics.

3. Microplastics have the potential to influence the climate by accelerating the melting of ice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only

2. 1 and 3 only

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3. 2 and 3 only English Get Started

4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : 1, 2 and 3

TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 6 Detailed Solution

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

In News
Microplastics have been found in the snows of Antarctica for the first time ever, researchers have found
microplastics in the snow samples from the Ross Ice Shelf in Antarctica.

Key Points
Microplastics are tiny bits of various types of plastic found in the environment. The name is used to
differentiate them from “macroplastics” such as bottles and bags made of plastic. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
There is no universal agreement on the size of microplastics. It defines microplastics as less than 5mm in
length. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
However, for the purposes of this study, since the authors were interested in measuring the quantities of plastic
that can cross the membranes and diffuse into the body via the bloodstream. Hence they agreed on an upper
limit on the size of the particles as 0.0007 millimetres.
The study looked at the most commonly used plastic polymers. These were:
polyethylene tetraphthalate (PET)
polyethylene (used in making plastic carry bags)
polymers of styrene (used in food packaging)
polymethyl methylacrylat (PMMA)
poly propylene.
They found a presence of the first four types.
Microplastics have the potential to influence the climate by accelerating melting of ice. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
They limit growth, reproduction, and general biological functions in organisms, as well as humans.

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TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 7:

English Get Started

Find the causes of soil pollution -

A. Accidental Spill

B. Acid rain

C. Deforestation

D. Nuclear waste

E. Vermicomposting

F. Genetically Modified plants

1. A, B, D, E, F

2. A, B, C, D

3. A, B, C, D, E

4. A, B, C, D, F

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : A, B, C, D

TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 7 Detailed Solution

The correct answer is A, B, C, D

Concept:

Soil Pollution:

Soil pollution is defined as the ‘addition of substances to the soil, which adversely affects physical,
chemical and biological properties of soil and reduces its productivity.’
It is a build-up of persistent toxic compounds, chemicals, salts, radioactive materials, or disease-causing agents
in soil that have adverse effects on plant growth, and human and animal health.

Causes:

Indiscriminate use of fertilizers, pesticides, insecticides and herbicides

Dumping of large quantities of solid waste
Deforestation and soil erosion
Pollution Due to Urbanisation.
Accidental Spill.
Acid rain caused due to air pollution.
Nuclear Wastes.
Industrial accidents.
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Landfill and illegal dumping Land erosion.
Agricultural practices, such as the application of pesticides, herbicides and fertilisers.
English Get Started
Mining and other industries.
Oil and fuel dumping Buried wastes.
Disposal of coal ash.
Disposal of ammunition and agents of war Drainage of contaminated surface water into the soil.
Electronic waste.
Acid rain

Explanation:

Hence the major factors here which satisfy the answer is

A. Accidental Spill

B. Acid rain

C. Deforestation

D. Nuclear waste

Hence, the answer is A, B, C, D

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TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 8:

One of the following acts as secondary pollutant

1. Br2

2. Cl2

3. NOx

4. HNO3

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

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Option 4 : HNO3
English Get Started

TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 8 Detailed Solution

The solution is HNO3

Concept

Pollution: Any undesirable change in physical, chemical or biological characteristics of air, land, water or soil.
Pollutants: Agents that bring about such an undesirable change.
Air pollution: Contamination of the atmosphere by substances present at concentrations above their
natural levels and capable of producing adverse effects on humans, other living organisms, and the
ecosystem.
Air pollutants: Substances contaminating or polluting the atmosphere.
Air Pollutants are classified according to the source of emission into two main groups,
Primary pollutants - Sulfur dioxide (SO2), carbon monoxide (CO), nitrogen oxides (NOx), and particulate
matter (PM).
Secondary pollutants- Photochemical oxidants (ozone, nitrogen dioxide, sulfur trioxide), HNO3,
H2SO4, secondary particulate matter,

Explanation:

Various industrial gases like carbon dioxide, sulfur dioxide, sulfur trioxide, nitric oxide, and nitrogen dioxide in
reaction with water present in the atmosphere form acids.

Br2 Incorrect
Cl2 Incorrect
NO2 Incorrect (Primary Pollutant)
HNO3 Correct (Secondary Pollutant)

Those acids get mixed with rain and fall down in the form of rain, which is called acid rain.
Formation of Nitric acid (HNO3): 4NO2(g) + O2 (g)+ 2H2O (l) → 4HNO3 (aq)

Thus, HNO3 acts as a Secondary pollutant

Additional Information
Primary Pollutant Secondary Pollutant
Are formed in the
Are formed and emitted atmosphere as a
directly from particular result of chemical or
sources. physical
interactions.
The result from either a The result is from the
natural process interaction between
ex. sandstorms and the primary
volcanic eruptions pollutants themselves
or anthropogenic i.e. or between the
influenced by humans ex. primary pollutants and
result of industrial and other atmospheric
vehicle emissions. components.

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TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 9:

In coal fired power plant electrostatic precipitators are installed to control emission of

1. SO2

2. NOX

3. SPM

4. CO

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 3 : SPM

TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 9 Detailed Solution

Explanation:

Electrostatic precipitators:

It is a kind of filter device.

It helps to filter dust and smoke particles from gas.
This filter uses an electrostatic charge for particle removal.
This is an air pollution control device used at industrial facilities and power generating stations.

Working principle:

It has electrode wires that are maintained at several thousand volts, which produce a corona that releases
electrons.
These electrons attach to dust particles giving them a net negative charge.
The collecting plates are grounded and attract charged dust particles.
The velocity of air between the plates must be low enough to allow the dust to fall.
When gas passes through the unit this electrostatic charge act on it for particle removal.
This device is based on Coulomb's Law so when particles are charged by electrostatic charge it is collected
onto the plates.

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English Get Started

Important Points
SPM:

SPM stands for suspended particulate matter.

It is a term for small solid or liquid particles suspended in the air.
Some of these particles are not soluble in water.
Carbon contains fuel and releases toxic gases and left ash and particles.
Those particles are SPM which cause air pollution.
It causes respiratory disease.
Electrostatic precipitators make the air free of different kinds of dust and SPM.
This device is used in coal-fired power plants so that dust and SPM can not enter the atmosphere.

Thus, In coal-fired power plants, electrostatic precipitators are installed to control the emission of SPM.

Additional Information
SO2:

SO2 is produced by volcanoes and in various industrial processes.

Coal and petroleum often contain sulphur compounds and their combustion generates sulphur dioxide.
SOx is produced by further reaction of SO2 in the atmosphere.
They contribute to acid rain.
West Geake Method reference method is used to detect SO2 levels in the air or atmosphere.
It is a colourimetric procedure to measure the level of SO2 in the atmosphere.

NOX:

At high altitudes when lightning strikes, they combine to form oxides of nitrogen (NOx).
In an automobile engine, (at high temperature) when fossil fuel is burnt, dinitrogen and dioxygen combine to
yield significant quantities of nitric oxide (NO) and nitrogen dioxide ( NO2).
NOx is the main pollutant released from automobile exhausts.
Jacob & Hochheiser Method is a detection method of NOx.
It is a colourimetric method of NOx determination.
In the Jacobs-Hochheiser method, NO₂ is passed through a dilute solution of 0.1N sodium hydroxide to
form the nitrite ion.

CO:

It is a colourless and odourless gas.

It is highly poisonous to living beings because of its ability to intercept the delivery of oxygen to organs and
tissues.
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It is produced as a result of the incomplete combustion of carbon.
Carbon monoxide is mainly released into the air by automobile exhaust. English Get Started
Other sources, which produce CO, involve incomplete combustion of coal, firewood, petrol, etc.
Non-dispersive infrared (NDIR) detectors method is used as the industry standard for monitoring CO
and CO2.
This method allows continuous analysis based on the capacity of carbon monoxide to absorb infrared
radiation.

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TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 10:

According to the Central Pollution Control Board of India, particulate sizes of diameter ______
micrometres are responsible for causing the greatest harm to human health.

1. between 2.5 and 3.5

2. between 3.5 and 4.5

3. between 4.5 and 5.5

4. equal to or less than 2.5

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : equal to or less than 2.5

TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 10 Detailed Solution

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

Particulate matter refers to tiny particles suspended in the air which have diameter of 2.5 microns(2.5*10-6
m) or less are called PM2.5.
These are visible only with the help of an electron microscope.
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These are so small that they can easily enter the lungs and subsequently into blood.
Once inhaled they can cause respiratory and heart problems. English Get Started
Sources: burning of fossil fuels like coal, wood and forest fires.

Additional Information
PM 10 are the particles suspended in that have a diameter less than 10 microns.
Following figure shows the comparison of sand particle, PM2.5 and PM10

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TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 11:

Why should we avoid use of plastics wherever possible?

1. Because plastics are not strong or durable

2. Because enzymes cannot breakdown plastics

3. Because plastics are toxic to our health

4. Because plastics are expensive to purchase

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

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Option 2 : Because enzymes cannot breakdown plastics

English Get Started

TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 11 Detailed Solution

The correct answer is Because enzymes cannot break down plastics.

Concept:

Non-biodegradable waste:

These substances cannot be decomposed by the decomposers like bacteria and fungi into simpler forms.
For example, rubber, plastic, electronic waste, etc.

Explanation:

Plastic as a boon:

It is lightweight and simple to shape.

It is inexpensive.
Plastic is strong and tough, and durable.
It is used to make many daily usable products like buckets, bottles, pencil boxes, pipes, etc.
It is corrosion and chemical resistant.
It is water-resistant and has adhesive properties.
It is a poor conductor of heat and electricity.
It is waterproof and airtight and is used to store several food items.

Plastic as a curse:

It is non-biodegradable. There is no enzyme that can break down plastics.

Plastics are non-renewable resources.
They are toxic and produce toxic fumes when burnt.
They are responsible for choking the drains.
Recycling plastic is hard and very expensive.
Some animals and birds in search of food consume some amounts of plastic, and many of them end up
choking.

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TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 12:

Consider the following statements :

1. The Eastern Ghats are comparatively higher in elevation and more continuous than the Western Ghats.

2. Anaimudi is the highest peak of the Peninsular plateau is located on the Anaimalai Hills of the Western Ghats.
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3. The Eastern and the Western Ghats meet each other at the Nilgiri hills.
English Get Started
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only

2. 2 and 3 only

3. 2 only

4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : 2 and 3 only

TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 12 Detailed Solution

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

In News
Recently, Karnataka Chief Minister Basavaraj Bommai informed the Centre that the state is opposed to the
Kasturirangan Committee report on the Western Ghats.
He said that declaring the Western Ghats as an ecologically sensitive zone would adversely affect the
livelihood of people in the region.

Key Points
The Deccan Plateau:
This is bordered by the Western Ghats in the west, the Eastern Ghats in the east and the Satpura,
Maikal range and Mahadeo hills in the north.
Western Ghats:
The Western Ghats are locally known by different names such as Sahyadri in Maharashtra, Nilgiri
hills in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu and Anaimalai hills and Cardamom hills in Kerala.
The Western Ghats are comparatively higher in elevation and more continuous than the
Eastern Ghats. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
Their average elevation is about 1,500 m with the height increasing from north to south.
‘Anaimudi’ (2,695 m), the highest peak of the Peninsular plateau is located on the Anaimalai
Hills of the Western Ghats followed by Dodabetta (2,637 m) on the Nilgiri hills. Hence statement
2 is correct.
Most of the Peninsular rivers have their origin in the Western Ghats.
Eastern Ghats:
The Eastern Ghats comprising the discontinuous and low hills are highly eroded by the rivers such
as the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna, the Kaveri, etc.
Some of the important ranges include the Javadi hills, the Palconda range, the Nallamala hills, the
Mahendragiri hills, etc.
The Eastern and the Western Ghats meet each other at the Nilgiri hills. Hence statement 3 is
correct.

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English Get Started

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TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 13:

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Montreal Protocol?

1. Recently India has decided to ratify Kigali Amendment, a key amendment to the Montreal Protocol.

2. The 1987 Montreal Protocol is meant to protect the ozone layer of the upper atmosphere.

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below.

1. 1 only

2. 2 only

3. Both 1 and 2

4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 3 : Both 1 and 2

TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 13 Detailed Solution

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

In News:
India has decided to ratify Kigali Amendment, a key amendment to the Montreal Protocol. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.

Key Points
Kigali Amendment:
Negotiated in the Rwandan capital in October 2016.
The amendment has already come into force from the start of 2019.
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It enables the gradual phase-down of hydrofluorocarbons, or HFCs, a family of chemicals used extensively
in the air-conditioning, refrigeration and furnishing foam industry. English Get Started
Montreal Protocol:
The 1987 Montreal Protocol is meant to protect the ozone layer of the upper atmosphere. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
The Protocol mandated the complete phase-out of CFCs and other ozone-depleting substances
(ODS), which it has successfully managed to do in the last three decades.
What are the concerns:
CFCs were gradually replaced, first by HCFCs, or hydrochlorofluorocarbons, in some cases, and
eventually by HFCs which have minimal impact on the ozone layer.
The transition from HCFCs to HFCs is still happening, particularly in the developing world.
HFCs, though benign to the ozone layer, were powerful greenhouse gases.
If left unabated, their contribution to annual greenhouse gas emissions is expected to reach up to 19%
by 2050.

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TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 14:

The United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP - 21 or CMP - II) was held in November - December 2015 in

1. Paris

2. London

3. Madrid

4. New Delhi

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 1 : Paris

TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 14 Detailed Solution

The correct answer is Paris.

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Key Points
English Get Started
United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP - 21 or CMP - II):
​The twenty-first session of the Conference of the Parties (COP) and the eleventh session of the
Conference of the Parties serving as the meeting of the Parties to the Kyoto Protocol (CMP) took
place from 30 November to 11 December 2015, in Paris, France.
It is a multilateral agreement within the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC); signed to reduce, mitigate greenhouse gas emissions.
The Paris Agreement was adopted by 196 countries at the UNFCCC Conference of the Parties (COP 21) in
Paris, on 12 December 2015 and entered into force on 4 November 2016. The agreement intends to
reduce and mitigate greenhouse gas emissions.
Before COP 21 in Paris, countries were asked to submit Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC’s).
There was a marked shift in the commitments from various countries. India was clubbed in the group of
emerging economies and India lived up to its billing as a responsible nation in tackling climate change.

Additional Information
The goal of the Paris Agreement:
To curtail the rise of global temperature this century below 2-degree Celsius, above pre-industrial levels;
and also pursue efforts to limit the increase to 1.5 degrees Celsius.
Develop mechanisms to help and support countries that are very vulnerable to the adverse impacts of
climate change. An example would be countries like the Maldives facing threats due to sea-level rise.
Confirms the obligation that developed countries have towards developing countries, by providing them
financial and technological support.

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TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 15:

Identify the correct statements from the following:

(a) CFCs are responsible for the depletion of the Ozone layer.

(b) Water vapor, methane, CO2 CFCs., nitrous oxide are greenhouse gases.

(c) The BOD value of pure water is 100 ppm.

1. (a), (b)

2. (a), (c)

3. (a), (b), (c)

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4. (b), (c) English Get Started

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 1 : (a), (b)

TSPSC Group 4 Environment Questions Question 15 Detailed Solution

The correct answer is (a), (b).

The BOD value of pure water-

BOD means "Biological oxygen demand" and COD means "chemical oxygen demand".
Clean water has a BOD value of less than "5 ppm" and polluted water has a BOD value higher than
"10 ppm".
The pH indicates the acidity or alkaline nature of water. The pH of ordinary water is 7.
Greenhouse Gas -
​Any gas that allows the radiation from the Sun to come to Earth, but absorbs the longitudinal radiation
that comes back from the Earth, increases the temperature of the Earth, it is called Greenhouse Gas.
The increasing amount of greenhouse gases is a cause of global warming and climate change.
Naturally found greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are carbon dioxide, methane, water vapor,
nitrous oxide, and fluorinated gases.
The following are the greenhouse gases produced or synthesized by humans - chlorofluorocarbons,
hydrofluorocarbons, etc.
​Ozone is a light blue pungent gas, one of the many natural gases found in the upper atmosphere.
Ozone degradation substances are mainly chlorofluorocarbon, carbon tetrachloride, methyl chloroform,
methyl bromide, etc.

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