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General Viva on Database Management Systems

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56 views72 pages

General Viva on Database Management Systems

Uploaded by

Jobayed Hasan
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

Department of Electronic & Telecommunication Engineering, IIUC

GENERAL VIVA

Student ID T201046

Student Name Md Mujahid Hossain

Semester 8th, Autumn-2023

Course Title General Viva

Course Code ETE - 4822

Course 1 ETE – 4757 DATABASE MANAGEMENT SYSTEMS

Course 2 ETE – 4749 Computer Networks

Date of Submission 21 - 09 - 2024

Submitted to:

Name Engr. Syed Zahidur Rashid

Designation Assistant Professor, Dept. of ETE


ETE-4822
General Viva

ETE – 4757 DATABASE


MANAGEMENT SYSTEMS
1. Define Database Management System?

A Database Management System (DBMS) is a collection of interrelated data and a set of


programs to access. DBMS Manage the data, the database engine, add the database
schema.

2.Write a major purpose of Database System.

A major purpose of a database system is to provide users with an abstract view of the
data.

3. Differentiate between Data and Information.

4. Write short notes on:

a) Physical Level

b) Logical Level

c) View Level

Physical Level: Lowest level of abstraction and describes how a record is stored.

Logical Level: Intermediate level of abstraction and describes data stored in database
and the relationships among the data.

View Level: Highest level of abstraction. there are different levels of views and every view
only defines a part of the entire

data. It also simplifies interaction with the user and it provides many views or multiple
views of the same database.
5. Define database Users and Administrators.

Database Users: Database users are the ones who really use and take the benefits of the
database.

Database Administrators: A person who has central control over the system is called a
database administrator (DBA).

6. What is Transaction?

A transaction is a collection of operations that performs a single logical function in a


database application.

7. Define Transaction-management component.

It ensures that the database remains in a consistent state despite system failures and
transaction failures.

8. What is Database Model?

A database model is a type of data model that determines the logical structure of
a database.

9. Define Relational Database.

A relational database stores and organizes data points that are related to one another.
Based on the relational database model, a relational database presents data sets as a
collection of tables and provides relational operators to manipulate the data in tabular
form.

10.What is Database Schema?

A database schema is a representation of a database structure, that includes tables,


fields, relationships & other components.

11. Define Database Key.

Database key is a field, or combination of fields, in a database table used to retrieve and
sort rows in the table based on certain requirements.
12. Write the types of keys in DBMS.

13. Write short notes on:

a) Primary Key

b) Foreign Key

Primary Key: It is a column or group of columns in a table that uniquely identify every row
in that table.

Foreign Key: It is a column that creates a relationship between two tables. The purpose
of Foreign keys is to maintain data integrity and allow navigation between two different
instances of an entity.

14. Define Relational Query Languages.

Relational query languages use relational algebra to break the user requests and instruct
the DBMS to execute the requests. It is the language by which user communicates with
the database.

15. What is Relational Algebra?

Relational algebra refers to a procedural query language that takes relation instances as
input and returns relation instances as output. It performs queries with the help of
operators.

16. Name the fundamental operations of relational algebra.

a) Select (σ)

b) Projection (π)

c) Union (υ)

d) Set difference (–)


e) Cartesian product (X)

f) Rename (ρ)

17. Define SQL.

SQL stands for Structured Query Language which is a computer language for storing,
manipulating and retrieving data stored in a relational database.

18. Describe the Basic Structure of SQL.

The basic structure of an SQL expression consists of three clauses:

1. SELECT: The SELECT clause specifies the columns from which data values are to be
retrieved by the query.

2. WHERE: The WHERE clause is used to filter records while retrieving data from a single
table or multiple tables.

3. FROM: The FROM clause names one or more tables from which data values are
retrieved by the query.

19. Find all loan numbers for loans made at the Dhaka branch with loan amounts
greater than 30000Tk.

SELECT loan_number

FROM loan

WHERE branch_name = “Dhaka” and amount > 30000

20. Describe Set Operations in SQL.

SQL set operations combine the results of multiple query blocks into a single result. Set
operators include UNION, INTERSECT and EXCEPT.

UNION (∪): It is used to combine the result of two or more SQL SELECT queries.

INTERSECT (∩): It is used to combine two SELECT statements.

EXCEPT (−): is used to retrieve the unique records that exist in the first table, not the
common records of both tables.
21. What is NULL Value in SQL?

The term NULL in SQL is used to specify that a data value does not exist in the database.
It is not the same as an empty string or a value of zero, and it signifies the absence of a
value or the unknown value of a data field.

22. What is the result of any arithmetic expression involving null?

The result of any arithmetic expression involving null is null. Example: 5 + null returns
null

23. Define Aggregate Functions.

SQL aggregation function is used to perform the calculations on multiple rows of a single
column of a table. It returns a single value and also summarize the data.

24. Write the types of Aggregate Function.

a) COUNT: counts how many rows are in a particular column.

b) SUM: adds together all the values in a particular column.

c) MIN: returns the lowest values in a particular column, respectively.

d) MAX: returns the highest values in a particular column, respectively.

e) AVG: calculates the average of a group of selected values.

25. Find the average salary of instructors in the ETE department .

select avg (salary)


from instructor
where dept_name= ‘ETE';

26. Find the number of tuples in the course relation.

select count (*)


from course;
27. Define Nested Sub-queries.

Nested subquery is a query within another SQL query and embedded within clauses,
most commonly in the WHERE clause.

28. What is modification of a database

Database modification refers to the process of changing the data that is stored in a
database. It can involve adding, deleting, or updating records in a database.

29. Describe the commands for the modification of a database.

Delete: This command removes selected rows from a table.

Insert: This command adds one or more rows to a table.

Update: This command modifies columns in selected table rows.

30. Delete all instructors from the Finance department.

delete from instructor


where dept_name= ‘Finance’;

31. Add a new tuple to course.

insert into course

values (‘ETE – 4757’, ‘DBMS’, ‘ETE’, 4);

32. Give a 5% salary raise to all instructors.

update instructor

set salary = salary * 1.05

33. What is Join expression in DBMS?

In DBMS, a join expression is mainly used to combine two tables based on a specified
common field between them.
34. Write short notes on:

a) Natural Join

b) Inner Join

c) Outer Join

Natural Join: It refers to joining two or more tables based on common columns, which
have the same name and data type.

Inner Join: It selects all the rows from two or more tables with matching column values.

Outer Join: It returns all the rows of the participating tables that satisfy the join
conditions and the rows not satisfying the join conditions.

35. What is View?

Any relation that is not of the conceptual model but is made visible to a user as a “virtual
relation” is called a view.

36. Define Integrity Constraints.

Integrity constraints are pre-defined set of rules that are applied on the table fields or
relations to ensure that the overall validity, integrity, and consistency of the data present
in the database table is maintained.

37. Write the types of Integrity Constraints.

38. What are the different SQL data types?

a) Binary Datatype

b) Approximate Numeric Datatype

c) Exact Numeric Datatype


d) Character String Datatype

e) Date and time Datatypes

39. Write short notes on:

a) Character String Datatype

b) Binary Datatype

Character String Datatype: It can hold any sequence of letters, digits, punctuation, and
other valid characters. Typical character strings are names, descriptions, and mailing
addresses.

Binary Datatype: Binary data types contain byte strings—a sequence of octets or bytes.
Character data types contain character strings (text).

40. What is Authorization?

Authorization is the process where the database manager gets information about the
authenticated user.

41. Why a database programmer must have access to a general-purpose


programming language?

A database programmer must have access to a general-purpose programming language


for at least two reasons:

a) Not all queries can be expressed in SQL

b) Non-declarative actions; such as printing a report, interacting with a user, or sending


the results of a query to a graphical user interface - cannot be done from within SQL
42. Differentiate between Function and Procedure.

43. Define Triggers.

Triggers are the SQL statements that are automatically executed when there is any
change in the database.

44. Write short notes on events of Triggers.

INSERT Event: This event is called when the new row is entered in the table.

UPDATE Event: This event is called when the existing record is changed or modified in
the table.

DELETE Event: This event is called when the existing record is removed from the table.

45. Write two disadvantages of Triggers.

a) It is not possible to find and debug the errors in triggers.

b) Trigger increases the high load on the database system.

46. What is Recursive Query?

A recursive query is a powerful feature that allows us to query hierarchical data which are
used in relational databases.
47. What is OLAP?

OLAP stands for Online Analytical Processing Server. It is a software technology that
allows users to analyze information from multiple database systems at the same time.

48. What is multidimensional data?

Data that can be modeled as dimension attributes and measure attributes are called
multidimensional data.

49. What is OLAP Cube?

An OLAP cube is a data structure that overcomes the limitations of relational databases
by providing rapid analysis of data

50. Write the types of analytical OLAP operations.

Four types of analytical OLAP operations are:

a) Roll-up

b) Drill-down

c) Slice and dice

d) Pivot (rotate)

51. Define the Pivot operation of OLAP.

Pivot operation is also known as rotation operation as it rotates the current view to get a
new view of the representation. In the sub-cube obtained after the slice operation,
performing pivot operation gives a new view of it.

52. What is Tuple Relational Calculus?

Tuple Relational Calculus (TRC) is a non-procedural query language used in relational


database management systems to retrieve data from tables.
53. What is Domain Relational Calculus?

Domain Relational Calculus is a non-procedural query language equivalent in power to


Tuple Relational Calculus.

54. Differentiate between Tuple Relational Calculus (TRC) and Domain Relational
Calculus (DRC).

55. What is Entity-Relationship Model?

An Entity-Relationship Model represents the structure of the database with the help of a
diagram.

56. What is ER Diagram?

ERD stands for Entity-Relationship Diagram. An Entity Relationship Diagram is a diagram


that represents relationships among entities in a database.

57. Write the Components of ER Diagram.


58. Write short notes on:

a) Entity

b) Entity Set

Entity: It may be an object, person, place or event that stores data in a database. In a
relationship diagram an entity is represented in rectangle form.

Entity set: It is a collection of entities of the same type which share similar properties.

59. Write the Types of attributes in the ER Model?

Single value attribute: These attributes contain a single value. For example, age, salary
etc.

Multivalued attribute: They contain more than one value of a single entity. For example,
phone numbers.

Composite attribute: The attributes which can be further divided. For example, Name->
First name, Middle name, last name

Derived attribute: The attribute that can be derived from others. For example, Date of
Birth.

60. Write short notes on:

a) Relationship

b) Degree of Relationship

Relationship: It is used to describe the relation between two or more entities. It is


represented by a diamond shape.

Degree of Relationship: A relationship where a number of different entities set


participate is called a degree of a relationship.

61. Write the types of degrees of relationship.

There are 4 types of degrees of relationship based on the involved entities:

a) Unary relationship

b) Binary relationship

c) Ternary relationship
d) N-ary relationship

62. What are constraints on ER model in DBMS?

Constraints are used for modeling limitations on the relations between entities. There are
two types of constraints on the Entity Relationship (ER) model:

a) Mapping cardinality or cardinality ratio.

b) Participation constraints.

63. For the binary relationship set there are entity set A and B. Write the possible
mapping cardinality.

The mapping cardinality can be one of the following:

a) One-to-one

b) One-to-many

c) Many-to-one

d) Many-to-many

64. What are the Extended E-R Features?

a) Aggregation

b) Specialization

c) Generalization

65. Write short notes on:

a) Aggregation

b) Specialization

c) Generalization

Aggregation: In aggregation, the relation between two entities is treated as a single entity.

Specialization: The process of designing sub groupings within an entity set is called
specialization.
Generalization: It is a process of extracting common properties from a set of entities and
creating a generalized entity from it.

66. What is Normalization?

Normalization is the process of minimizing redundancy from a relation or set of relations.


Redundancy in relation may cause insertion, deletion and update anomalies.

67. What is First Normal Form?

A relation is in first normal form if every attribute in that relation is singled valued
attribute.

68. What is Decomposition in DBMS?

The process of breaking up or dividing a single relation into two or more sub relations is
called as decomposition of a relation.

69. What are constraints on ER model in DBMS?

Constraints are used for modeling limitations on the relations between entities. There are
two types of constraints on the Entity Relationship (ER) model:

a) Mapping cardinality or cardinality ratio.

b) Participation constraints.

70. Write short notes on:

a) One-to-one

b) One-to-many

One-to-one: A one-to-one relationship is a link between the information in two tables,


where each record in each table only appears once.

One-to-many: In a one-to-many relationship, one record in a table can be associated


with one or more records in another table
71. What is Functional Dependency?

Functional Dependency (FD) is a constraint that determines the relation of one attribute
to another attribute in a Database Management System (DBMS). A functional
dependency is denoted by an arrow “→”.

72. Write the types of Functional Dependencies in DBMS.

a) Multivalued Dependency

b) Trivial Functional Dependency

c) Non-Trivial Functional Dependency

d) Transitive Dependency

73. Define Multivalued Dependency.

Multivalued dependency occurs when two attributes in a table are independent of each
other but, both depend on a third attribute. A multivalued dependency consists of at least
two attributes that are dependent on a third attribute that's why it always requires at least
three attributes

74. Write difference between Multivalued Dependency and Functional Dependency.

A multivalued dependency is a full constraint between two sets of attributes in a relation.


In contrast to the functional dependency, the multivalued dependency requires that
certain tuples be present in a relation.

75. What is Database design process?

Database design process is a series of instructions detailing the creation of tables,


attributes, domains, views, indexes, security constraints, and storage and performance
guidelines

76. What is Temporal Data?

Temporal Data is the temporary data that is valid only for a prescribed time. It becomes
invalid or obsolete after a certain period of time.
77. What is Domain-Key Normal Form?

A relation is in Domain-Key Normal Form (DKNF) when insertion or delete anomalies are
not present in the database. Domain-Key Normal Form is the highest form of
Normalization.

78. Write short notes on:

a) Third Normal Form (3NF)

b) Boyce-Codd Normal Form

Third Normal Form (3NF): A relation is in third normal form, if there is no transitive
dependency for non-prime attributes as well as it is in second normal form.

Boyce-Codd Normal Form: BCNF (Boyce Codd Normal Form) is the advanced version
of 3NF. A table is in BCNF if every functional dependency X->Y, X is the super key of the
table.

79. Differentiate between First Normal Form (1NF) and Second Normal Form (2NF).

80. What is Servlet?

A servlet is a Java programming language class that is used to extend the capabilities of
servers that host applications accessed by means of a request-response programming
model.
81. What is Server-side scripting?

Server-side scripting is a method of designing websites so that the process or user


request is run on the originating server.

82. Define JSP.

JSP stands for Java Server Pages. It is a technology that allows developers to create
dynamic web pages using a combination of HTML, XML, and Java code.

83. What is Rapid Application Development?

Rapid application development is a software development methodology that uses


minimal planning in favor of rapid prototyping.

84. What is Application Security?

Application security helps protect application data and code against cyberattacks and
data theft.

85. What is Application performance?

Application performance indicates how the app is functioning and how responsive the
app is to the end-user.

86. What is Encryption?

Encryption is a way of scrambling data so that only authorized parties can understand the
information.

87. Write short notes on:

a) Symmetric-key encryption

b) Public-key encryption

Symmetric-key encryption: Symmetric-key encryption uses same key for encryption


and for decryption.
Public-key encryption: Public-key encryption is also called asymmetric-key encryption.
It uses different keys for encryption and decryption.

88. What are the 5 stages of Rapid Application Development?

a) Business modeling

b) Data modeling

c) Process modeling

d) Application generation

e) Testing and turnover.

89. Differentiate between Symmetric and Asymmetric Key Encryption.

90. What is Complex Data Type?

A complex data type is a transformation data type that represents multiple data values in
a single column position.

91. Write the types of complex data types.

a) STRUCT data type.

b) ARRAY data type.

c) MAP data type.


92. Write short notes on:

a) ARRAY data type.

b) MAP data type.

ARRAY data type: An array data type represents an ordered collection of elements.

MAP data type: A map data type represents an unordered collection of key-value pair
elements.

93. What is Structured Type in SQL?

A structured type is a user-defined data type containing one or more named attributes,
each of which has a data type.

94. What is Table Inheritance?

Table inheritance is the property that allows a table to inherit the behavior from the
supertable above it in the table hierarchy.

95. Name the collection types supported by SQL.

SQL supports two collection types:

a) Arrays

b) Multisets

96. Write short notes on:

a) Array

b) Multiset

Array: An array is an ordered set of elements of a single built-in data type.

Multiset: A multiset is an unordered collection, where an element may occur multiple


times. Multisets are like sets, except that a set allows each element to occur at most
once.
97. What is Object identity?

Object identity is a property of data that is created in the context of an object data model,
where an object is assigned a unique internal object identifier, or object id.

98. What is Persistent programming languages in DBMS?

A persistent programming language is a programming language extended with constructs


to handle persistent data.

99. What is Object-relational mapping (ORM)?

Object-relational mapping (ORM) is a way to align programming code with database


structures.

100. Relational Database VS Object-Oriented Database.

Q101. Purpose of DBMS?


Q102. Write down the application of DBMS

Q103.What is database?

A database is a organized collection of related data that contains information relevant

to an enterprise, such as sales transactions, customer data, financials and product

information.

Q104. What is a file processing system?

A file processing system is a collection of files and programs that access/modify these
files.

Q105. What are the advantages & disadvantages of file processing system?

Advantages

a) Cost friendly.

b) Easy to use.

c) High scalability.
Disadvantages

a) Slow access time.

b) Presence of redundant data.

c) Inconsistent Data.

d) Data Integrity Problems.

e) Unauthorized Access

Q106. What are the components of database system?

a. Hardware

b. Software

c. Data

d. Users

e. Procedures

Q107. Define data.

Data is defined as facts or figure or information that’s stored in or used by a computer.

Q108. What is a file processing system?

A file processing system is a collection of files and programs that access/modify these

files.

Q109. Write short notes on:

a) Super Key

b) Candidate Key

Super Key: A super key is a group of single or multiple keys which identifies rows in

a table.

Candidate Key: Candidate Key is a set of attributes that uniquely identify tuples in a
table. It is a super key with no repeated attributes.

Q110. Define Composite Key.

Whenever a primary key consists of more than one attribute, it is known as a composite

key. This key is also known as Concatenated Key.

Q111. Write the types of Database Model.

1. Relational Database Model

2. Hierarchical Database Model

3. Network Database Model

4. Object-Oriented Database Model

5. Object-Relational Database Model

6. Entity Relationship Database Model

Q112. Define Cardinality of relationship?

Cardinality of a relationship can be defined as the number of times an entity of an entity

set participates in a relationship set.

Q113. Write short notes on:

a) Select (σ)

b) Projection (π)

SELECT (σ): The SELECT operation is used for selecting a subset of the tuples

according to a given selection condition. Sigma(σ)Symbol denotes it.

Projection(π): The projection method defines a relation that contains a vertical subset

of Relation.
Q114. Define Unary and Binary operations.

Unary operation: The “select, project, rename” operations are called unary operations.

Because they operate on one relation.

Binary operation: The “union, set difference, Cartesian product” operations are called

binary operations. Because they operate on pairs relation.

Q115. What is Cartesian Product (Χ)?

It combines information of two different relations into one.

Q116. Define Tuple variables.

Tuple variables are defined in the from clause via the use of the as clause.

Q117. Give an example of Tuple variables.

Find the customer names and their loan numbers for all customers having a loan at some

branch.

select distinct customer-name, T.loan-number

from borrower as T, loan as S

where T.loan-number = S.loan-number

Q118. What is String Operation?

SQL includes a string-matching operator for comparisons on character strings. Patterns

are described using two special characters:

a) percent (%). The % character matches any substring.

b) underscore ( ). The character matches any character.

Q119. Write an example of String Operation.

Find the names of all customers whose street includes the substring ‘Main’.
select customer-name

from customer

where customer-street like “%Main%”

Q120. List in alphabetic order the names of all customers having a loan at Dhaka

branch.

select distinct customer-name

from borrower, loan

where borrower.loan-number = loan.loan-number and branch-name =“Dhaka”

order by customer-name

Q121. What is drop table command?

The drop table command deletes all information about the dropped relation from the

database.

Q122. What is alter table command?

The alter table command adds attributes to an existing relation.

Q123. For all instructors in the university who have taught some course, find their

names and the course ID of all courses they taught.

select name, course_id

from instructor, teaches

where instructor.ID= teaches.ID;


Q124. List the names of instructors along with the titles of courses that they teach.

select name, title

from instructor natural join teaches , course

where teaches . Course_id = course . Course_id ;

Q125. What is Rename Operation?

SQL provides a mechanism for renaming both relations and attributes which is called

rename operation. It uses the as clause.

Q126. For all instructors in the university who have taught some course, find their

names and the course ID of all courses they taught.

select name as instructor_name, course_id

from instructor natural join teaches

Q127. When the predicate is not null?

The predicate is not null succeeds if the value on which it is applied is not null.

Q128. Find all instructors who appear in the instructor relation with null values

for salary.

select name

from instructor

where salary is null;


Q129. Find the total number of instructors who teach a course in the Spring 2020

semester.

select count (distinct ID)

from teaches

where semester = ’Spring’ and year = 2020

Q130. Can we use distinct with count (*)?

No, SQL does not allow the use of distinct with count (*).

Q131. Define GROUP BY Statement.

The GROUP BY Statement in SQL is used to arrange identical data into groups with

the help of some functions.

Q132. What is Having Clause?

Having clause is useful to state a condition that applies to groups rather than to tuples.

Q133. When the query is treated as erroneous in Having Clause?

If any attribute that is present in the having clause without being aggregated is not

appeared in the group by clause.

Q134. When SQL applies predicates in the having clause?

SQL applies predicates in the having clause after groups have been formed.

Q135. Write common use of subqueries.

A common use of subqueries is to perform tests for set membership, make set

comparisons, and determine set cardinality, by nesting subqueries in the where clause.
Q136. Define in and not in connectives.

The in connective tests for set membership, where the set is a collection of values

produced by a select clause.

The not in connective tests for the absence of set membership.

Q137. Find the names of instructors whose names are neither “Mozart” nor

“Einstein”.

select distinct name

from instructor

where name not in (’Mozart’, ’Einstein’);

Q138. How the phrase “greater than at least one” is represented in SQL?

The phrase “greater than at least one” is represented in SQL by > some.

Q139. Find the names of all instructors whose salary is greater than at least one

instructor in the ETE department.

select name

from instructor

where salary > some (select salary

from instructor

where dept_name = ‘ETE’);

Q140. How the phrase “greater than all” is represented in SQL?

The phrase “greater than at least one” is represented in SQL by > all.
Q142. What are the Interactions in DBMS?

a) Data definition

b) Update

c) Retrieval

d) Administration

Q143. What is Retrieval?

Retrieval is obtaining information either for end-user queries and reports or for

processing by applications.

Q144. What is Abstract View?

Abstract view means, the system hides certain details of how the data are stored and

maintained.

Q145. What is Instance?

The collection of information stored in the database at a particular moment is called an

instance of the database.

Q146. Define Physical Data Independence.

The ability to modify the physical schema without changing the logical schema.

Q147. What is the structure of Conventional DBMS hardware?

Conventional DBMS hardware consists of secondary storage devices, usually hard

disks, on which the database physically resides.

Q148. What is the role of users in DBMS?

There are a number of users who can access or retrieve data on demand using the

applications and interfaces provided by the DBMS.


Q149. Write different types of users.

The users can be:

a) Naive Users

b) Application Programmers

c) Sophisticated Users

d) Data Base Administrator (DBA)

Q150. Define End users and Database Administrator.

End users: Naive users are end users of the database who work through a menu driven

application program, where the type and range of response is always indicated to the

user.

Database Administrator: The DBA has all the system privileges allowed by the

DBMS and can assign (grant) and remove (revoke) levels of access (privileges) to and

from other users.

Q151. What are the advantages of DBMS?

a) Redundancy is controlled.

b) Providing multiple user interfaces.

c) Providing backup and recovery.

d) Unauthorized access is restricted.

e) Enforcing integrity constraints.

Q152. What’s difference between DBMS and RDBMS?

DBMS provides a systematic and organized way of storing, managing and retrieving

from collection of logically related information. RDBMS also provides what DBMS

provides but above that it provides relationship integrity.


Q153. What is order by clause?

ORDER BY clause helps to sort the data in either ascending order to descending.

Q154. What are the different phases of Transaction?

a) Analysis phase

b) Redo phase

c) Undo phase

Q155. Explain the differences between structured data and unstructured data.

Structured data are facts concerning objects and events. The most important structured
data are numeric, character, and dates. Structured data are stored in tabular form.

Unstructured data are multimedia data such as documents, photographs, maps, images,
sound, and video clips. Unstructured data are most commonly found on Web servers and
Web-enabled databases.

Q156. Compare a hierarchical and network database model?

The hierarchical model is a top-down structure where each parent may have many

children, but each child can have only one parent. This model supports one-to-one and

one-to-many relationships.

The network model can be much more flexible than the hierarchical model since each

parent can have multiple children, but each child can also have multiple parents. This

model supports one-to-one, one-to-many, and many-to-many relationships.

Q157. What is Weak Entity set?

An entity set that doesn't have sufficient attributes to form a primary key is referred to

as a weak entity set.


Q158. What integrity rules exist in the DBMS?

There are 2 major integrity rules that exist in the DBMS.

Entity Integrity: This states a very important rule that value of a Primary key can never

have a NULL value.

Referential Integrity: This rule is related to the Foreign key which states that either

the value of a Foreign key is a NULL value or it should be the primary key of any other

relation.

Q159. What is 5NF?

A table is in fifth normal form (5NF) or Project-Join Normal Form (PJNF) if it is in

4NF and it cannot have a lossless decomposition into any number of smaller tables.

Q160. Name four applications for triggers.

a) Providing default values

b) enforcing data constraints

c) Updating views

d) enforcing referential integrity


ETE – 4749
Computer
Networks
Q1. What is the OSI reference model?

The OSI reference model is a conceptual framework that standardizes network

communication into seven layers.

Q2. What is the primary function of the Physical Layer in the OSI model?

The Physical Layer deals with the physical transmission of data bits over a medium.

Q3. Name a well-known packet-switching protocol.

The TCP/IP protocol suite is a widely used packet-switching protocol.

Q4. Differentiate between connectionless and connection-oriented services.

Connectionless services don't establish a dedicated connection, while connection-


oriented services do.

Q5. What is the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) used for?

ARP is used to map an IP address to a physical MAC address in a local network.

Q6. Explain the concept of circuit switching.

Circuit switching establishes a dedicated communication path before data transfer,

common in traditional telephone networks.

Q7. Name a popular medium access control protocol used in Ethernet networks.

IEEE standard 802.3, also known as Ethernet, is widely used for medium access control.

Q8. What is the primary responsibility of the Data Link Layer?

The Data Link Layer is responsible for error detection, correction, and framing of data.
Q9. What do you mean by Network?

Network is defined as a set of devices connected to each other using a physical

transmission medium.

Q10. What is a Link?

A link refers to the connectivity between two devices,

Q11. What is a Node?

A node is a point where a connection is established, It is a network component that

is used to send, receive and forward the electronic information, A device connected to

a network is also termed as Node.

Q12.What is Network Topology?

Network topology is a physical layout of the computer network, and it defines how the

computers, devices, cables, etc. are connected to each other.

Q13.What is the OSI reference model?

Open System Interconnection, the name itself suggests that it is a reference model that

defines how applications can communicate with each other over a networking system.

Q14.Which layer links the network support layers and user support layers?

The Transport layer links the network support layers and user support layers

Q15. What are the layers of the OSI reference model?

a) There are 7 OSI layers:

b) Physical Layer

c) Data Link Layer

d) Network Layer

e) Transport Layer

f) Session Layer
g) Presentation Layer

h) Application Layer

Q16. Which layers are network support layers?

a) Physical Layer

b) Data Link Layer and

c) Network Layer

Q17. Which layers are user support layers?

a) Session Layer

b) Presentation Layer

c) Application Layer

Q18.What Is the purpose of TCP,'IP Model?

The purpose of TCP"IP model is to allow communication over large distances.

Q19.How many layers are in TCP/IP?

There are 4 basic layers in TCP/IP:

a) Application Layer

b) Transport Layer

c) Internet Layer

d) Network Layer

Q20.What are the responsibilities of Network Layer?

The Network Layer is responsible for the source to destination delivery of packet

a) Logical Addressing

b) Routing
Q21.What are the responsibilities of Presentation Layer?

a) Translation

b) Encryption

c) Compression

Q22.What are the responsibilities of Session Layer?T

a) Dialog control

b) Synchronization

Q23.Difference Between OSI model and TCP/IP model

Q24.What is a LAN?

LAN stands for Local Area Network. It refers to the connection between computers and

other network devices that are located within a small physical location.

Q25.What is a node?

A network can consist of two or more computers directly connected by some physical

medium such as coaxial cable or optical fiber. Such a physical medium is called as

Links and the computer it connects is called as Nodes.

Q26.What is a gateway or Router?

A node that is connected to two or more networks is commonly called as router or

Gateway. It generally forwards message from one network to another.


Q27.What is point-point link?

If the physical links are limited to a pair of nodes it is said to be point-point link.

Q28.Define Routing?

The process of determining systematically how to forward messages toward the

destination nodes based on its address is called routing.

Q29.What is a peer-peer process?

The processes on each machine that communicate at a given layer are called peer-peer

process.

Q30.What is Multiple Access?

If the physical links are shared by more than two nodes, it is said to be Multiple Access.

Q31.What is Multiple Access?

If the physical links are shared by more than two nodes, it is said to be Multiple Access.

Q32.Name the factors that affect the performance of the network?

a) Number of Users

b) Type of transmission medium

c) Hardware

d) Software

Q33.What is switching?

A network is a set of connected devices. Whenever we have multiple devices, we have

the problem of how to connect them to make one-to-one communication possible.


Q34.What is Switched Network?

A Computer network in which connectivity is provided by using numbers of switches.

Q35.What is PLP?

PLP stands for Packet Layer Protocol

Q36.How many types of PLP packet fields exist?

There are four types of PLP packet fields exist:

a) General Format Identifier (GFI).

b) Logical Channel Identifier (LCI)

c) Packet Type Identifier (PTI)

d) User Data (UD)

Q37.What is data encapsulation?

Data encapsulation is the process of breaking down information into smaller,

manageable chunks before it is transmitted across the network. In this process that the

source and destination addresses are attached to the headers, along with parity checks.

Q38.What is Protocol?

A protocol is a set of rules that govern all aspects of information communication.

Q39.What are the key elements of protocols?

The key elements of protocols are

a) Syntax
b) Semantics

c) Timing

Q40.What is Syntax?

It refers to the structure or format of the data, that is the order in which they are

presented.

Q41.What is Semantics?

It refers to the meaning of each section of bits.

Q42.What is Timing?

Timing refers to two characteristics: When data should be sent and how fast they can

be sent.

Q43.What is a subnet mask?

A subnet mask is combined with an IP address to identify two parts: the extended

network address and the host address. Like an IP address, a subnet mask is made up of

32 bits.

Q44.What is the maximum length allowed for a UTP cable?

A single segment of UTP cable has an allowable length of 90 to 100 meters.

Q45. Describe Network Topology

Network Topology refers to the layout of a computer network.

Q46.What is a VPN?

VPN means Virtual Private Network, a technology that allows a secure tunnel to be
created across a network such as the Internet. For example, VPNs allow you to establish
a secure dialup connection to a remote server.

Q47.What is Switch?

A switch is a device in a computer network that connects other devices together.

Switches manage the flow of data across a network by transmitting a received network

packet only to the one or more devices for which the packet is intended

Q48.What is Subnet?

A subnet is a network inside a network achieved by the process called subnetting which

helps divide a network into subnets.

Q49.What are the types of Subnetting?

Subnetting of a network may be two types.

a) Classful Subnetting

b) Classless Subnetting

Q50.What is the Switching Technique of Packet Switching?

a) Virtual Circuits

b) Datagrams

Q51.Differentiate between Virtual Circuits and Datagram Network.


Q52.What is frame relay?

Frame Relay is a high-performance WAN protocol that operates at the physical and

data link layers of the OSI reference model.

Q53.What is Frame Relay used for?

Frame Relay often serves to connect local area networks (LANs) with major backbones

Q54.State the advantages and disadvantages of frame relay.

Advantages,

a) Cost Savings

b) Higher circuit utilization

c) Protocol Independence

d) Performance

Disadvantages,

a) 44.736 Mbps data rate is not enough for protocols

b) Allows variable length frames

c) Create varying delays for different users

Q55.What is ALOHA?

ALOHA is a medium access control (MAC) protocol for transmission of data via a

shared network channel. Using this protocol, several data streams originating from

multiple nodes are transferred through a multi-point transmission channel.


Q56.What are the type of ALOHA?

a) Pure ALOHA

b) Slotted ALOHA

Q57.Which is better pure aloha or slotted Aloha?

In Slotted Aloha, any station can transmit data only at beginning of any time slot. In Pure
Aloha, time is continuous and is not globally synchronized. Slotted Aloha reduces the
number of collisions to half thus doubles the efficiency.

Q60.What are the responsibilities of data link layer?

Specific responsibilities of data link layer include the following.

a) Framing

b) Physical addressing

c) Flow control

d) Error control

e) Access control
Q61.What is NIC?

Network Interface Card (NIC) used at the Data Link Layer. NIC is a hardware

component in the networking device using which a device can connect to the network.

Q62. What is CRC stands for?

Cyclic Redundancy Check

Q63.What is DNS?

Domain Name Server (DNS), in a non-professional language and we can call it an

Internet’s phone book. All the public IP addresses and their hostnames are stored in the

DNS

Q64.What are the types of errors in networking?

There are three types error. They are:

a) Single bit error :In a frame, there is only one bit anywhere, which is corrupt

b) Multiple bits error: Frame is received with more than one bit in corrupted state

c) Burst error: Frame contains more than 1 consecutive bits corrupted

Q65.Write down the type of framing methods?

There are basically four methods of framing as given below –

a) Character Count

b) Flag Byte with Character Stuffing

c) Starting and Ending Flags, with Bit Stuffing

d) Encoding Violations
Q66.What are the types of error detection ?

Types of Error detection

a) Parity Checking.

b) Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC)

c) Longitudinal Redundancy Check (LRC)

d) Check Sum.

Q67.What is SNMP?

SNMP stands for Simple Network Management Protocol. It is a network protocol used

for collecting organizing and exchanging information between network devices.

Q68.Which components used in SNMP?

SNMP consists of the below components:

a) SNMP Manager

b) Managed device

c) SNMP Agent

d) Management Information Base (MIB)

Q69.What is SMTP Protocol?

SMTP is the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol. SMTP sets the rule for communication

between servers.

Q70.What is TCP Protocol?

TCP or TCP/IP is the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol. It is a set of


rules that decide how a computer connects to the Internet and how to transmit the data

over the network.

Q71.What is UDP Protocol?

UDP is the User Datagram Protocol and is based on Datagrams. Mainly, it is used for

multicasting and broadcasting.

Q72.What is ICMP Protocol?

ICMP is the Internet Control Message Protocol. It is a network layer protocol used for

error handling.

Q73.What is FTP Protocol?

FTP is a File Transfer Protocol. It is an application layer protocol used to transfer files

and data reliably and efficiently between hosts.

Q74.What is MAC Address?

MAC address is the Media Access Control address. It is a 48-bit or 64-bit unique

identifier of devices in the network.

Q75.How many types of modes are used in data transferring through networks?

Data transferring modes in computer networks are of three types. They are,

a) Simplex: Data transferring which takes place only in one direction is called Simplex.
For example, radio signal, the print signal given from computer to printer, etc.
b) Half Duplex: Data transferring can happen in both directions but not at the same time.
For example, browsing through the internet, a user sends the request to the server and
later the server processes the request and sends back the web page.

c) Full Duplex: Data transferring happens in both directions that too simultaneously. For
example, two-lane roads where traffic flows in both directions, telephone
communication etc.

Q76.What is Link?

A link or edge refers to the connectivity between two nodes in the network. It includes

the type of connectivity (wired or wireless) between the nodes and protocols used for

one node to be able to communicate with the other.

Q77.What is an IPv4 address?

An IP address is a 32-bit dynamic address of a node in the network. An IPv4 address

has 4 octets of 8-bit each with each number with a value up to 255.

Q78.What are the different classes of IPv4?

IPv4 classes are differentiated based on the number of hosts on the network. There are
five types of IPv4 classes and are based on the first octet of IP addresses which are
classified as Class A, B, C, D, or E.

Q79.What is the range of addresses in the classes of internet addresses?

Class A – 0.0.0.0 – 127.255.255.255

Class B – 128.0.0.0 – 191.255.255.255

Class C – 192.0.0.0 – 223.255.255.255

Class D – 224.0.0.0 – 239.255.255.255


Class E – 240.0.0.0 – 247.255.255.255

Q80.Define types of IP addresses?

IP addresses are following two types.

a) Static IP Address.

b) Dynamic IP Address

Q81.Differentiate between MAC address and IP address.

Q82.What are the services that Transport Layer provides?

The services provided by the transport layer protocols can be divided into five

categories:

a) End-to-end delivery

b) Addressing

c) Reliable delivery

d) Flow control

e) Multiplexing

Q83.What are the Transport layer protocol?

A transport layer protocol can be either connectionless or connection oriented.

a) UDP-Connectionless Protocol-Simple
b) TCP-Connection oriented protocol-Complex

c) SCTP-Connection oriented protocol

Q84.What is DHCP?

The idea of DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is to enable devices to get

IP address without any manual configuration.

Q85.What is Unicasting?

If the message is sent to a single node from the source, then it is known as unicasting.

This is commonly used in networks to establish a new connection.

Q86.What is Address Space?

An address space is the total number of addresses used by the protocol.

Q87.What are the different types of a network? Explain

There are four major types of networks.

a) Personal Area Network (PAN): It is the smallest and basic network type that is

often used at home. It the connection between the computer and another device

such as phone, printer, modem tablets, etc.

b) Local Area Network (LAN): LAN is used in small offices and internet cafes to

connect a small group of computers to each other.

c) Metropolitan Area Network (MAN): It is a powerful network than LAN. The

area covered by MAN is a small town, city, etc. A huge server is used to cover

such a large span of area for connection.

d) Wide Area Network (WAN): It is more complex than LAN and covers a large
span of the area typically a large physical distance. The Internet is the largest

WAN which is spread across the world.

Q88.What is Multicasting?

If the message is sent to a subset of nodes from the source, then it is known as

multicasting. Used to send the same data to multiple receivers.

Q89.What is Broadcasting?

If the message is sent to all the nodes in a network from a source, then it is known as

broadcasting. DHCP and ARP in the local network use broadcasting.

Q90.What is Any casting?

If the message is sent to any of the nodes from the source, then it is known as any

casting. It is mainly used to get the content from any of the servers in the Content

Delivery System.

Q91.What is IP address?

IP address is a unique 32-bit software address of a computer in a network system.

Q92.What is multiplexing in networking?

In Networking, multiplexing is the set of techniques that is used to allow the

simultaneous signals across a single data link.


Q93.What are the different ways to exchange data?

Following are the different ways to exchange data:

1) Simplex

2) Half duplex

3) Full duplex

Q94.What is data encapsulation?

Data encapsulation is the process of breaking down information into smaller,

manageable chunks before their transmission across the network

Q95.What is TCP/IP?

TCP/IP is the short form of the Transmission Control Protocol / Internet Protocol. It is

a set of protocol layers designed to facilitate data exchange on heterogeneous networks.

Q96.What is NAT?

It stands for Network Address Translation and is a protocol that allows a network

device, usually a firewall, to assign a public address to a computer/s inside a private

network.

Q97.In how many ways the data is represented and what are they?

Data transmitted through the networks comes in different ways like,

a) Text

b) Audio
c) Video

d) Images

e) Numbers

Q98.What is Data Compression?

Compression is often used to maximize the use of bandwidth

Q99.Differences between Hub, Switch and Router?

Q100.What are the phases of TCP Connection Management?

TCP Connection Management TCP connection-oriented transmission requires three

phases:

Connection Establishment

Data Transfer

Connection termination
Q101.What are the types of multiplexing?

Multiplexing can occur in two ways:

a) Upward multiplexing, meaning multiple transport layer

b) Downward multiplexing, meaning one transport layer

Q102.What is application layer used for?

The application layer is used by end-user software such as web browsers and email

clients. It provides protocols that allow software to send and receive information and

present meaningful data to users.

Q103.Which are application layer services?

It uses the services of the transport layer, the network layer, the data link layer, and

the physical layer to transfer data to a remote host.

Q104.What are the application layer protocol?

Application Layer protocols,

a) TELNET

b) FTP

c) TFTP

d) NFS

e) SMTP

f) X window

g) SNMP

h) DHCP

i) DNS
Q105.What are the three functions of the presentation layer?

Character-code translation

Data conversion

Data encryption, decryption and data translation

Q106.What are the types of Data Compression?

There are two general types of compression:

a) Lossless Compression

b) Lossy compression

Q107.What is NAT?

NAT stands for Network Address Translation. It deals with remapping one IP Address

space with another by changing the IP headers of the packets that are being transmitted

across the traffic routing device.

Q108.What is LAN?

LAN stands for Local Area Network

Q109.What are the types of LAN cables used?

There are 2 types of LAN cable being used. They are

a) Straight cable

b) Cross cable
Q110.What is cross cable?

It’s used to connect same type of devices without using switch/hub so that they can

communicate.

Q111.What is ipconfig?

Ipconfig is a utility program that is commonly used to identify the addresses

information of a computer on a network. It can show the physical address as well as the

IP address.

Q112.Why Ipconfig command used?

Ipconfig command is used to display the IP information assigned to a computer.

Q113.What is NVT (Network Virtual Terminal)?

NVT is a set of pre-defined rules to very simple virtual terminal interaction. This

terminal helps you to start a Telnet session.

Q114.Which cable is also called as the RG8 cable?

Thicket cable is also called as the RG8 cable.

Q115.How FTP Works?

FTP build on a client server architecture and uses separate control and data connections

between the client and server.


Q116.Why Straight cable used?

Straight cable is used to connect different type of devices.

Q 114) What are the type of email server?

Two types of email server

a) Incoming mail server

b) Outgoing mail server

Q117.Which ports are used by incoming mail server?

POP3 port 110

IMAP port 143

HTTP port 30

Q118.Which ports are used by outgoing mail server?

SMTP port 25

Q119.What are the different types of networks?

a) Peer to peer network

b) Server based networks

Q120.What is NOS?

NOS, or Network Operating System, is specialized software


Q121.What is DoS?

DoS Stands for Denial-of-Service attack

Q122.What are the functions of a network administrator?

A network administrator has many responsibilities that can be summarized into 3 key
functions:

a) Installation of a network,

b) A configuration of network settings, and

c) Maintenance/troubleshooting of networks.

Q123.What is a Hybrid Network?

A hybrid network is a network setup that makes use of both client-server and peer-to-
peer

architecture.

Q124.What common software problems can lead to network defects?

Software related problems can be any or a combination of the following:

a) Client-server problems

b) Application conflicts

c) Error in configuration

d) Protocol mismatch

e) Security issues

f) User policy and rights issues


Q125.What is a Hamming code?

Hamming code is a liner code that is useful for error detection up to two immediate bit

errors.

Q126.Difference between TCP and UDP?

Q127.What is three HDLC station types?

The three HDLC station types are following:

a) Primary Station

b) Secondary Station

c) Combined Station

Q128.What is the purpose of Domain Name System?

Domain Name System can map a name to an address and conversely an address to

name.

Q129.Write down the three types of www documents

World Wide Web (www) can be grouped into three broad categories: They are
a) Static

b) Dynamic

c) Active

Q130.What is URL?

A URL (Uniform Resource Locator) is a unique identifier used to locate a resource on

the internet

Q131.What is the Four identifier to define web page?

The Identifiers are

a) Protocol

b) Host

c) Port

d) Path

Q132.What are the HTTP and the HTTPS protocol?

HTTP is the Hyper Text Transfer Protocol which defines the set of rules and standards

on how the information can be transmitted on the world wide web (www). It uses port

80 by default.

HTTPS is the Hyper Text Transfer Protocol Secure or Secure HTTP. It is an advanced

and secured version of HTTP. On top of HTTP, SSL/TLS protocol is used to provide

security. It uses port 443 by default.


Q133.How many connections in FTP?

There are two connections in FTP. They are,

a) Control Connection

b) Data Connection

Q134.Which port used for the control connection in FTP?

Port 21

Q135.Electronic mail uses which Application layer protocol?

Email uses various protocols like SMTP, IMAP and POP. The most prominent one used

in application layer is SMTP

Q136.What is encryption & decryption in Application Layer?

Encryption: Sender transforms original information called “plaintext” to another form

“ciphertext” by a function that is parameterized by a key.

Decryption – Reverses the original process to transform the message called

“ciphertext” back to its original form called “plaintext”.

Q137.What is Socket Address?

The combination of an IP address and a port number is called a socket address.


Q138.What is difference between static and dynamic?

In general, dynamic means capable of action and/or change, while static means

stationary or fixed.

What is ARQ in computer network?

Automatic Repeat Request (ARQ) is an error-control mechanism

Q139.Which is a time-sensitive service?

Internet telephony is a time-sensitive service

Q140.Define subnetting in IP addressing.

Subnetting involves dividing an IP network into smaller sub-networks for better address

management.

Q141.What is the purpose of the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)?

ICMP is used for network diagnostics and reporting errors in IP communication.

Q142.Explain the term "flow control" in networking.

Flow control regulates the rate of data transmission to prevent overwhelming the

receiver.

Q143.What is the three-way handshake in TCP connection management?

The three-way handshake is a process where TCP establishes a connection with a SYN,

SYN-ACK, and ACK sequence.


Q144.Q13: What is the primary role of a firewall in network security?

A firewall is a network security device that controls incoming and outgoing traffic,

based on predetermined security rules.

Q145. Define network programming.

Network programming involves writing software to create, manage, and maintain

network applications.

Q146.What is the purpose of a proxy server in a network?

A proxy server acts as an intermediary between clients and servers, enhancing security,

performance, and caching.

Q147. What is the main purpose of a DNS server?

DNS (Domain Name System) servers resolve domain names into IP addresses.

Q148.What is congestion control in networking?

Congestion control manages network traffic to prevent network congestion and ensure

smooth data flow.

Q149.Describe the purpose of a Directory Server in a network.

A Directory Server stores and manages information about network resources, such as

users, devices, and services.


Q150.What is frame relay in networking?

Frame relay is a packet-switching technology used for data transmission over wide area

networks (WANs).

Q151.Q21: How does selective repeat ARQ differ from Go-Back-N ARQ?

In selective repeat ARQ, only the damaged or lost frames are retransmitted, while Go-

Back-N ARQ retransmits all unacknowledged frames.

Q152.What is the primary function of the Medium Access Sublayer?

The Medium Access Sublayer manages access to the shared communication medium

in a network.

Q153.Explain the purpose of an ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) network.

ATM networks transmit data in fixed-size cells for efficient and reliable data transfer.

Q154.What is the primary goal of the Transport Layer?

The Transport Layer ensures reliable data transfer between two devices and provides

error detection and correction.

Q155.What is a network protocol?

A network protocol is a set of rules and conventions that govern data communication

between devices on a network.

Q156.What is the purpose of data compression techniques in networking?

Data compression techniques reduce the size of data for efficient storage and

transmission.
Q157. What is the purpose of the Presentation Layer in the OSI model?

The Presentation Layer is responsible for data translation, encryption, and compression.

Q158.What is the purpose of a network proxy?

A network proxy serves as an intermediary that forwards requests from clients to

servers and vice versa, enhancing security and performance.

Q159.Define "flooding" in network communication.

Flooding is a technique in which a router sends incoming data packets to all connected

networks to ensure delivery.

Q160.How does distance-vector routing differ from link-state routing?

Distance-vector routing algorithms make routing decisions based on the number of

hops, while link-state routing considers the entire network topology.

Q161. What is a MAC address?

A MAC (Media Access Control) address is a unique hardware address assigned to

network devices.

Q162. Explain the purpose of a DNS server.

A DNS server translates human-readable domain names into IP addresses for network

communication.
Q163.What is the purpose of the Network Layer in the OSI model?

The Network Layer is responsible for routing data packets between different networks.

Q164.Define subnetting in IP addressing.

Subnetting divides a larger IP network into smaller, more manageable sub-networks.

Q165.What is the primary function of the ICMP protocol?

The ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is used for error reporting and

diagnostics in IP networks.

Q166.Describe the main role of a firewall in network security.

A firewall acts as a barrier between a network and potential threats, controlling

incoming and outgoing traffic based on predefined rules.

Q167.What is network programming?

Network programming involves writing software to create, manage, and maintain

network applications and services.

Q168.Explain the purpose of a Directory Server in a network.

A Directory Server stores and manages information about network resources, such as

users, devices, and services.


Q169.What is frame relay in networking?

Frame relay is a wide area network (WAN) technology that transmits data in frames,

providing efficient and cost-effective connectivity.

Q170.Explain the purpose of an ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) network.

ATM networks use fixed-size cells to transmit data efficiently and reliably across wide

area networks (WANs).

Q171.What is the primary goal of the Transport Layer?

The Transport Layer ensures reliable data transfer between two devices, providing error

detection and correction.

Q172.What is a network protocol?

A network protocol is a set of rules and conventions that govern how data is

communicated between devices on a network.

Q173.What is the role of a router in a computer network?

A router is a networking device that connects different networks and forwards data

packets between them. It determines the best path for data to travel, based on network

routing tables.
Q174.What is the purpose of NAT (Network Address Translation) in a router?

NAT is used to map private IP addresses to a single public IP address, allowing multiple

devices in a private network to share a single public IP when accessing the internet.

Q175.Define MAC filtering in the context of network security.

MAC filtering is a security feature that allows or denies network access based on the

Media Access Control (MAC) address of a device. Only devices with approved MAC

addresses can connect to the network.

Q176.What is a VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network)?

A VLAN is a logical segmentation of a physical network into multiple virtual networks.

It allows network administrators to isolate and secure different groups of devices within

the same physical network.

Q177.Explain the concept of DNS spoofing.

DNS spoofing is a cyberattack in which an attacker alters DNS records to redirect users

to malicious websites without their knowledge. It's a form of DNS cache poisoning.

Q178.What is a router's default gateway, and why is it important?

A router's default gateway is the IP address of the router that serves as the entry and

exit point for traffic between a local network and external networks, such as the internet.

It's important because it enables communication outside the local network.


Q179.What is the purpose of DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)?

DHCP is a network protocol used to automatically assign IP addresses and other

network configuration parameters to devices in a network.

Q180.Explain the difference between a hub and a switch.

A hub is a basic networking device that broadcasts data to all devices in a network,

while a switch intelligently forwards data only to the device that needs it, improving

network efficiency.

Q181.Define port forwarding in router configuration.

Port forwarding is a router configuration that redirects incoming network traffic from a

specific port to a designated device or server within the local network. It's commonly

used for hosting services like web servers or gaming.

Q182.What is a DMZ (Demilitarized Zone) in network security?

A DMZ is a network segment that sits between the internal network and an external

network, typically the internet. It is used to host public-facing services while isolating

them from the internal network for security purposes.

Q183.What is the purpose of Quality of Service (QoS) in network management?

QoS is a set of techniques used to prioritize network traffic and ensure that critical
applications receive adequate bandwidth and lower-priority traffic does not interfere with
them.
Q184.What is the role of a gateway in network communication?

A gateway is a device or software that connects two different networks using different
protocols, allowing data to be transferred between them. It acts as a translator and
protocol converter.

Q185.Define a MAC table (MAC address table) in networking.

A MAC table is a database maintained by network switches that maps MAC addresses

to the corresponding switch ports.

Q186.What is a broadcast storm in network communication?

A broadcast storm occurs when a network experiences excessive broadcast or multicast


traffic, causing network congestion and performance issues.

Q187.Explain the purpose of a network hub.

A network hub is a basic networking device that connects multiple devices in a network.
It broadcasts incoming data packets to all connected devices, making it suitable for
small and simple networks.

Q188.What is a subnet mask used for in IP addressing?

A subnet mask is used to divide an IP address into network and host portions.

Q189.What is a MAC address table aging time?

MAC address table aging time is the duration for which a network switch stores MAC
address entries in its MAC table. After this time expires, inactive entries are removed to
make space for new entries.
Q190.What is a DHCP lease time, and why is it important?

A DHCP lease time is the duration for which a device is granted an IP address lease by a
DHCP server. It is important because it determines how long a device can use a specific
IP address before it must renew the lease.

Q191.Define a broadcast domain in networking.

A broadcast domain is a logical division of a network in which all devices can receive each
other's broadcast messages. Routers typically separate broadcast domains.

Q192.What is a static IP address, and when is it used?

A static IP address is a fixed, manually configured IP address that does not change. It is
used when a device needs a consistent, unchanging IP address, such as for servers or
network devices.

Q193.Explain the concept of NAT traversal in network communication.

NAT traversal is a technique used to establish and maintain communication between


devices behind NAT (Network Address Translation) devices, allowing them to connect to
external networks and each other.

Q194.What is a MAC address spoofing attack?

MAC address spoofing is a security attack in which an attacker impersonates a legitimate


device by using a forged or cloned MAC address, potentially gaining unauthorized access
to the network.

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