COMPREHENSIVE EXAM FOR FOURTH YEAR EXTENSION NURSING

STUDENT

Name: ____________________________________

ID NO:_________________

Given time: 2:30 hr

INSTRUCTION

The Total Number Of Pages 22 Pages

Cheating Will Disqualify The Exam
Follow The Instruction

Good Luck!!

Choose the Best Answer from the Given Alternative And Put Your Answer On The
Answer Sheet
1. A 35 years old known heart failure patient who came to your institution for checkups. You
are expected to do all of the following for this client EXCEPT:
A. Monitoring daily weights and signs of fluid retention
B. Providing education about sodium restriction
C. Encouraging regular exercise
D. Recommending excessive fluid intake
E. None
2. A 53 years old client suffering from hypertension and he is on follow up now. What is the
possible non modifiable risk factor for this client?

A. overweight D. Race
B. Caffeine E. None
C. Smoking

3. A client with pernicious anemia asks why she must take vitamin B12 injections for the rest
of her life. What is your best response as nurse?
A. The reason for your vitamin deficiency is an inability to absorb the vitamin because
the stomach is not producing sufficient acid.
B. The reason for your vitamin deficiency is an inability to absorb the vitamin because
the stomach is not producing sufficient intrinsic factor.
C. The reason for your vitamin deficiency is an excessive excretion of the vitamin
because of kidney dysfunction.
D. The reason for your vitamin deficiency is an increased requirement for the vitamin
because of rapid red blood cell production.
E. All

4. A 70 years old known hypertension client is on follow up now at karamara Hospital. If this
client develops end organs dysfunction which types of hypertension crisis he developed?

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 A. Hypertensive Urgency D. Primary hypertension
B. Hypertensive Emergency E. A and B
C. Severe hypertension

5. A 60 year-old patient brought to your institution with complaining that after sleeping for two
hours, he feels like he's suffocating and woke up from sleep. He also says that "Once I sit up
and dangle my legs off the bed, I feel better." you interpret these findings as:

A. Orthopnea D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

B. Bilateral ankle edema E. Cardiomegaly
C. Insomnia

6. 65 years old client brought to hospital with complain of nocturia, dizziness, weakness, a
sudden fall. His blood pressure measurement indicates 170/105mmHg. Which stage of
hypertension he develops?

A. Stage1 hypertension D. Pre hypertension

B. Stage2 hypertension E. Hypertension crisis
C. Stage3 hypertension

7. A 63 year-old known right-sided congestive heart failure client came to your institution for
follow up. Which of the following signs and symptoms would most likely be experienced by
a client?
A. Dyspnea, crackles, ankle edema
B. Engorged neck vein, enlarged liver, weight gain
C. Hemoptysis, hypertension, pallor
D. Syncope, hemolytic anemia, clubbing of fingers
E. All
8. A 30 years old pregnant mother complaining muscle cramps, increased muscle fatigue in the
lower legs, ankle edema, and nocturnal cramps and diagnosed as varicose veins. Which one
of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention for this client?
A. Wearing a constricting panty girdle
B. Avoid crossing the legs at the thighs
C. Educate to sitting or standing for long periods

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 D. Avoid to change position frequently
E. All
9. The primary purpose of the schilling test is used to investigate patients with which one of the
following anemia:

A. Iron deficiency anemia D. pernicious anemia

B. Aplastic anemia E. Hemolytic anemia
C. Sickle cell anemia

10. A 35 years-old male client with congestive heart failure starts to take treatment. Which of
the following classes of medications maximizes cardiac performance by increasing
ventricular contractility?
A. Beta-adrenergic blockers
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. Digitalis( digoxin) Diuretics
D. Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitors
E. A and B
11. Mr. Yusuf has travelled to Gode to visit his wife. A week after returned back to Jigjiga he
develops malaria, also he has signs and symptoms of anemia. Which one of the following
anemia most likely he develops?

A. Iron deficiency anemia D. pernicious anemia

B. Aplastic anemia E. Hemolytic anemia
C. Sickle cell anemia

12. A 24 years old female patient comes to you with a complaint of dizziness and fatigue and
pale conjunctive on examination and her diagnosis is anemia. Of the following drug which
one is not given to her?
A. Filgrastim
B. Neupogen
C. Epoetinalfa
D. Chlorophenicol (CAF)

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13. A 30 year-old client came to hospital after electrical burn; on his arrival the client has
developed electrical shock. Based on the above information the client develops which one of
the following dysrhythmia?
A. Atrial Fibrillation
B. Premature Atrial Complex
C. Ventricular Fibrillation
D. Premature Ventricular Complex
E. Atrial flutter
14. A 16 years old client is a known moderate Acne patient who came to your institution. You
are expected to do all of the following for this client EXCEPT
A. Advice to eat food such as chocolate, cola or milk products
B. Educate client to use oil-free cosmetics and creams
C. Cautioned against sun exposure for patient using topical medication
D. Teach to washing twice each day with a cleansing soap
15. A 24 years old male client is a known tinea pedis came to your institution. You should
include all of the following in your nursing intervention for this client EXCEPT
A. Instruct the client to keep the feet as dry as possible
B. advise client to wear open shoes if excessive feet perspire
C. Instruct the client to wear plastic- or rubber-soled footwear
D. Instruct client to apply antifungal powder twice daily keep the feet dry
16. A 50 year old male who has suffered with third degree burns visits karamara hospital to the
entire posterior trunk, posterior left arm, and the posterior of the left upper leg. Using the
Rules of Nine, calculate (determine) the total body surface burns.
A.9% C. 18%
B. 27% D. 36%
17. A 25 years male client brought to your institution faced burn injury by the inhalation of
steam or chemical smoke. After 24-72 hours the client present most likely with which one of
the following problem?
A. Septic shock
B. Renal insufficiency
C. Acute respiratory distress syndrome

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 D. Anemia
18. A 41 years old female patient brought to hospital with extensive burns of the face and neck.
On assessment, you note that the client has Changes in voice, Excessive, continuous
coughing, carbonaceous sputum and wheezing. Several hours later, the wheezing is no longer
heard. What is the next action?
A. NG tube placement
B. Preparing for intubation
C. Pain Management
D. Documenting the findings
19. A 34 year-old male brought to a hospital with tingling of the lips ,fingertips, and feet and
increased muscle tension leading to stiffness and painful spasms of smooth and skeletal
muscles of extremities and face. You note during your assessment carpopedal spasm by
applying BP Cuff. Based on the above scenario which one of the following is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Hypoparathyroidism
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Hyperthyroidism
E. Cushing syndrome
20. Ms. X brought her 5 years old child experienced burn injuries on anterior trunk and upper
extremities. Following this burn injuries most likely child develop which one of the
following problem?
A. Renal insufficiency
B. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Anemia
21. The nurse is caring for an elderly female patient who has osteoporosis. When teaching her,
the nurse should include information about which major complication?
A. Bone fracture
B. Loss of estrogen
C. Negative calcium balance

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 D. Scoliosis
22. A patient in balanced suspension traction for a fractured femur needs to be repositioned
toward the head of the bed. During repositioning, the nurse should:
A. Place slight additional tension on the traction cords.
B. Releases the weights, and replaces them immediately after positioning.
C. Lifts the traction and the patient during repositioning.
D. Maintains the same degree of traction tension.
23. The nurse is caring for a comatose patient who has suffered a closed head injury. Which
intervention should the nurse implement to prevent increases in ICP?
A. Suctioning the airway every hour and as needed
B. Elevating the head of the bed 30 to 45 degrees
C. Turning the patient and changing his position every 2 hours
D. Maintaining a well-lit room
24. The nurse is teaching a patient and his family about dietary practices related to Parkinson’s
disease. A priority for the nurse to address is risk of:
A. Fluid overload and drooling
B. Aspiration and anorexia
C. Choking and diarrhea
D. Dysphagia and constipation
25. A patient with peptic ulcer disease secondary to chronic NSAID use is prescribed
misoprostol. The nurse would be most accurate in informing the patient that the drug:
A. Reduces the stomach’s volume of hydrochloric acid.
B. Increases the speed of gastric emptying
C. Protects the stomach’s lining.
D. Increases LES pressure.
26. The nurse is caring for a patient with active upper-GI bleeding. What is the appropriate diet
for this patient during the first 24 hours after admission?

A. Regular diet C. Nothing by mouth

B. Milk D. Clear liquids

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27. A 47-year-old client is admitted for colon surgery. Intravenous antibiotics are started two
hours prior to surgery even though the client has no known infection. The reason for giving
antibiotics prior to surgery is to:
A. Provides a cathartic action within the colon.
B. Reduces the risk of wound infection from anaerobic bacteria.
C. Relieves anxiety.
D. Reduces the risk of intraoperative fever.
28. The nurse documents a client's surgical incision as having red granulated tissue. This
indicates that the wound is:

A. Infected C. Necrotic
B. Not healing D. Healing

29. Mr X has been in an automobile accident. Following the accident he developed hypovolemic
shock. Which one of the following is the most effective IV solution for this client?

A. hypertonic C. hypotonic
B. isotonic D. colloids

30. A very obese female client returns to her room after abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy,
but oriented to time, place and person; her abdominal dressing is dry and intact; and her vital
signs are T 98.4, P 87, R 18, and BP 146/72. Which one of the following is an appropriate
postoperative nursing diagnosis would be?
A. That airway clearance is ineffective
B. Noncompliance
C. Altered nutrition, less than her body requirements
D. Alteration in comfort, abdominal pain
31. Mr. Ali is a nurse working in the medical ward of karamara hospital. Which phase of nursing
process enables him to know the problem of his patients?

A. Nursing Assessment C. Nursing Evaluation

B. Nursing Planning D. Nursing Diagnosis

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32. Mr. Abebe is a patient admitted to karamara hospital due to severe anemia. You confirmed
that he has no other problem except anemia. During this initial assessment which position do
you prefer to assess vital sign of Mr. Abebe?

A. Sitting C. supine
B. prone D. lateral

33. Sara is a patient suffering from car accident and admitted to hospital. She developed fracture
on her hip bone and cast was applied to her hip to immobilize the part. Suppose she is a
known patient with hemorrhoid and had bleeding through her rectum. The nurse wants to do
rectal examination for her for further assessment. During this procedure which position is
recommended for her?

A. lithotomy C. prone
B. Supine D. lateral

34. Infection prevention is the most vital activity which is a must to be implemented by all
health care providers. As a nurse which activity you are going to do without gloves?

A. greeting the patient C. doing cleansing enema

B. securing IV line D. gastric aspiration

35. Sara is a patient suffering from car accident and admitted to hospital. She was with severe
bleeding during admission. Her vital signs upon admission were: BP:100/70mmHg, PR:
112bpm, RR: 18bpm, T: 36co. if you are the one who assessed sara which term you use to
describe her PR?

A. Tachypnea C. Arrhythmia
B. Hyperpyrexia D. Tachycardia

36. Suppose you are a nurse on night duty at karamara hospital. You have patients having same
name in the same ward. How you are going to differentiate the two patients before
administering 10:00pm medications?

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 A. Asking the age of the patient C. Asking the relatives
B. Looking for the patients ID D. Calling the physician

37. The Ethiopian national health policy enforces all health professionals to wash hands before
and after any procedures. Why we do this repeatedly?

A. To dress the patient neatly

B. To satisfy the needs of the family
C. To satisfy the needs of the patient
D. To minimize the risk of infections

38. The patient must be carried out with constant attention in the operating room. This will be
done do minimize the risk of accident from:________

A. Electrical hazards C. Anxiety and fear

B. Moving and positioning D. Cold from environment

39. Suppose Mr. Hassan is a one of the competent nurse in the hospital. He is always punctual
and run his daily duties as to the standards. On the contrary most of the staffs are careless and
nobody punish them. After several times Mr.Hassan started saying “No one else cares, so
why should I?’. This act of undermining surgical conscience is termed as:_____

A. Personal problems C. poor Health

B. Staff relations D. peer apathy

40. Mr. Kadar is a patient who is going to have kidney surgery. Now has already taken general
anesthesia but he is emotionally unstable, delirious and sensitive to external stimuli. The
anesthesia phase of Mr.Kadar is:_________

A. Induction C. Relaxation
B. Excitement D. Danger

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41. Mr. Seid is a nurse working in the operating room unit. He can stand for a long period of
time during major surgical procedures. After the procedures he also positions the patient
without help. The quality of Mr.Seid is best described as:_______

A. Respect C. Stamina
B. Team spirit D. Stable health

42. For the patient who came to you after ingesting a poison, the best recommended procedure
is:____

A. Urinary catheterization C. Bladder irrigation

B. Gastric laveag D. Cleansing enema

43. Suppose a patient with a known colonic cancer comes to the health facility where you are
working as nursing professionals. The physician decided to do a surgery for the patient.
Which procedures enable you to prepare the patient for surgery?

A. Retention enema C. Carminative enema

B. Cleansing enema D. Return flow enema

44. The 1st step during any procedure for the patient is explaining the procedure and ensuring that
adequate understanding is established between the patient and the nurse. This will be good
to:________

A. To monitor the prognosis C. To help disabled patients

B. To discharge the patient earlier D. To get cooperation

45. The correct of orders of taking sputum specimen consists:

A. Position the patient Give oral care labeling documentation
B. Position the patient Give oral care documentation labeling
C. Position the patient labeling Give oral care documentation
D. Position the patient documentation Give oral care labeling
46. The normal position of the uterus in non pregnant mother which is dome shaped is
anteverted, anteflexed which mean.....
A. Leans forward, bends forward

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 B. Leans backward, bends backward
C. Straightforward, bends forward
D. Bends forward, straight backward
47. Which of the following female reproductive hormone helps the uterus to build it's
endometrial wall for implantation?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Follicle stimulating hormone
D. Gonadotrophine
48. Adolescens is the period when there is a multiple hormonal change occur in girls for
reproduction. The menustrial cycle starts and breast also enlarged. Which of the
following best describe this change?
A. Menarch and thelarch
B. Menopause and menotaxis
C. Menorhagia and metrorrhagia
D. Dysmenorrhea and dyspareunia
49. Female bony pelvis is a ringy structure through which the baby must escape during
delivery. The nurse should examine the station of the baby in order to identify the
progress of labor. Which of the following land mark does the nurse use?
A. Sacral promontory C. Ischial spine
B. Symphysis pubis D. Tip of coccyx
50. Which of the following fetal skull diameter that engages in vertex to provide very small
and possible for spontaneous vaginal delivery?
A. Mento vertical C. Submento brigmatic
B. Occipito frontalis D. Suboccipito brigmatic
51. A primi gravid lady comes to antenatal clinic for pregnancy diagnose. A nurse wants to
assess the condition of uterus and cervex. Bimanual examination reveals that the isthmus
becomes softer and wider. Whats is the possible name this change?
A. Godell's sign C. Chadwick's sign
B. Higar's sign D. Ladin's sign

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 52. In pregnancy, the maternal endometrium will grow and form decidua due to excess blood
A. Deciduas paritalis C. Deciduas basalis
supply in order to prepare for implantation. Then the blastocyst cell of embryo will
B. Deciduas capsularis D. Deciduas riflexia
penetrate and anchored to the deciduas. Which of the following is the part of deciduas
53. As a nurse you need to investigate the criteria of normal labor while you are attending
that cover the embryo?
delivery. Which of the following criteria is insignificant?
A. Single fetus C. Maximum aid
B. Spontaneous onset D. Undue prolongation
54. A nurse who attends the delivery of placenta at health centre needs to use the protocol of
physiologic management of the third stage of labor. Which of the following protocol does
the nurse concider?
A. Controlled cord traction C. Use of oxytocine
B. Use of gravitational force D. Manual removal
55. Abnormal growth of endometrial tissue is common benign and malignant disorder of
female reproductive organ. Which of the following is the growth deep to myometrum?
A. Adenomyosis C. Leomyoma
B. Endometriosis D. Fibroid
56. A nurse who needs to confirm pregnancy can use different sign and symptoms. Which of
the following evidence gives clue about diagnosis of pregnancy?
A. Presumptive evidence C. Probable evidence
B. Positive evidence D. Ultrasound evidence
57. A women comes to antenatal clinic for pregnancy check up and and told to care provider
that she has never produced viable offspring. To which category does this women
classified?
A. Primi gravid C. Multi gravid
B. Nulli para D. Multi para
58. A nurse who follows first stage labor has identified that the presentation of the baby was
cephalic and need to identify the position also. Which of the following fetal part used to
diagnose position?
A. Vertex. C. Sinciput
B. Occiput. D. Brow

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59. A woman comes from rural area for antenatal visit. On history she does not know her last
menustrial period, which tecknique can be used to calculate the gestational age and
expected date of delivery in late pregnancy?
A. Lightining C. Uterine size
B. Quickening D. Fetal size
60. A nurse who who assigned to follow and delivery the baby must identify the stages of
labor that has significant effect on both mother and fetus care. Which of the following
does the nurse consider as critical stage?
A. 1st stage C. 3rd stage
B. 2nd stage D. 4th stage
61. A nurse attend the first stage of labor and filled the data about fetal heart rate whith
modified WHO partograph. What is the range of normal fetal heart rate?
A. 110 b/m to 180 b/m C. 100 b/m to 180 b/m
B. 100 b/m to 200 b/m D. 120 b/m to 200 b/m
62. Magnesium sulphate prophylaxis is given for the prevent of convulsion in pre - eclampsia
, but its toxicity can result in repiratory problem. Which one of the following drug can
used to prevent the side effect?
A. Lidocaine C. Diazepam
B. Calcium gluconate D. Hydralazine
63. Pregnant mothers who comes to antenatal clinic should receive iron tablet along folic
acid to prevent anemia. Which of the following is best diagnoses of anemia in pregnancy
according to WHO definition?
A. Hemoglobin below 10.5gm/dl in 1st trimester
B. Hemoglobin below 10.5gm/dl in 3rd trimester
C. Hemoglobin below 11gm/dl in 2nd trimester
D. Hematocrit below 32% in pregnancy
64. In addition to drug management; a nurse should advise the client how to prevent the
anemia in pregnancy as prophylactic. Which of the following is not the best advice?
A. Avoidance of frequent child birth
B. Supplement of iron and foliate before 20 weeks
C. Dietary proscription like vegetable and rice.

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 D. None of the above
65. Gestational diabetes mellitus is diagnosed by its symptoms and all of the following
except
A. Random plasma glucose concentration >200mg/DL
B. Fasting plasma glucose >or=126mg/DL
C. Two hours post load glucose >or = 200mg/DL
D. None of the above
66. In dietary management of gestational diabetes mellitus majority of diet should be
composed of…
A. Carbohydrate C. Fat
B. Protein D. Minerals
67. A nurse should advise the client about characteristics of excessive nausea and
vomiting called hyperemesis gravidrum. Which of the following facts is not
important ?
A. Limited to first pregnancy C. Familial tendancy
B. Limited to first trimester D. Common in planned pregnancy
68. Oligohydramnios is Amniotic fluid volume < 500 ml at 32-36 weeks’ gestation
which affect the fetus as well as mother. Which of the following is not the
etiology ?
A. Increased production and decreased absorbition
B. Utero placental insufficiency
C. Ruptured membrane
D. Renal agenesis
69. A women who was diagnosed to have placenta abraption which was revealed/mild type
of vaginal bleeding is characterized by which of the following?
A. No bleeding retained behind the placenta
B. Retro placental clot, and
C. Some blood infiltrate b/n the uterine muscles causing bruise and edematous;
D. Called couvelaire Uterus or uterine apoplexy.

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70. A 34-year-old woman at 34 weeks of gestation, presents to labor and delivery reporting
painless vaginal bleeding by ultrasound note the placenta completely overlying the
internal os, What is the next best step in management?
A. Magnesium sulfate C. Vaginal delivery
B. Hospitalization D. Cesarean section
71. A type of presentation characterized by longitudinal lie and full extension of the fetal
head on the neck is
A. Breach presentation C. Face presentation
B. Cephalic presentation D. Braw presentation
72. A condition when there is no advance of the presenting part dispite strong uterine
contraction is….
A. Obstructed labor C. Mal position
B. Prolonged labor D. Disproportion
73. Mother with typical s/s of light bleeding, closed cervix, uterus corresponds to date and
sometimes having cramping and soft uterus is diagnosed as____
A. Threatened abortion C. Incomplete abortion
B. Inevitable abortion D. Complete abortion
74. A nurse perform median episotomy in order to deliver the head of the baby through
widen the vaginal orifice. Which of the following is not an advantage?
A. Prevent third degree tear C. Provide greater confort
B. Provide large space D. Easy to repair
75. Instrumental delivery is used to facilitate the second stage of labour like vacume
extractor. Which of the following is contra indication for vacume extractor?
A. Vertex presentation C. Cephalo pelvic disproportion
B. Low station of fetal head D. Small fetal skull diameter
76. A 5 month old baby was brought by his mother to the health center because of diarrhea
occurring 4 to 5 times a day. His skin goes back slowly after a skin pinch and his eyes are
sunken. His assessment will be
A. Some Dehydration C. Severe Dehydration

B. No signs of Dehydration D. Persistent Dehydration

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77. A 4-month old infant was brought to health center because of cough. Her RR is 44/min,
her breathing considered as…
A) Fast B) Normal C) Slow D) Insignificant
78. For children who aged 2 months-5 years, a general danger sign is present if:
A. The child is not able to drink or breastfeed

B. The child vomits everything

C. The child is lethargic & has had convulsions

D. All
79. A child with cough or difficult breathing is assessed for following manifestations, except
A. Fast breathing C. Dehydration

B. Chest in-drawing D. Stridor in a calm child

80. The most common leukemia in children is
A. Acute lymphocytic leukemia C. Chronic myelogenous leukemia

B. Acute myelogenous leukemia D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

81. The most common Hematologic disease of infancy and childhood is

A. Leukemia C. Megaloblastic anemia

B. Iron deficiency anemia D. hemophilia

82. In severe dehydration, if cholera is suspected, the first line drug for treatment of diarrhea
is
A. Cotrimoxazole B. Ampicillin C. TTC D. Ciprofloxacin

83. One is not the signs of the hydrocephalus in older kids

A. Headache B. Bulging fontanels C. Seizures D. Loss of developmental
abilities
84. Normally, the newborn infants double their birth weight at ______
A) A. Four months B. Six months C. Nine months D. One year
85. From the following Essential newborn care which one is not recommended?
A. Drying infant thoroughly, including head
B. Assessing baby for good breathing or crying

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 C. Bathing infant within first hour
D, Initiating breast feeding within one hour

86. Which of the following organisms is responsible for the development of rheumatic fever?
A. Streptococcal pneumonia
B. Haemophilus influenza
C. Group A β-hemolytic streptococcus
D. Staphylococcus aureus
87. The nurse is assessing a newborn that had undergone vaginal delivery. Which of the following
findings is least likely to be observed in a normal newborn?
A. uneven head shape
B. respirations are irregular, abdominal, 30-60 bpm
C. (+) moro reflex
D. heart rate is 80 bpm
88. The nurse answers a call bell and finds a frightened mother whose child, the patient, is having a
seizure. Which of these actions should the nurse take?
A. The nurse should insert a padded tongue blade in the patient’s mouth to prevent the child
from swallowing or choking on his tongue.
B. The nurse should help the mother restrain the child to prevent him from injuring himself.
C. The nurse should call the operator to page for seizure assistance.
D. The nurse should clear the area and position the client safely.
89. The nurse is assessing a 9-month-old boy for a well-baby check up. Which of the following
observations would be of most concern?
A. The baby cannot say “mama” when he wants his mother.
B. The mother has not given him finger foods.
C. The child does not sit unsupported.
D. The baby cries whenever the mother goes out.
90. Hodan, the mother of an 11-month-old girl, is in the clinic for her daughter’s immunizations. She
expresses concern to the nurse that her baby cannot yet walk. The nurse correctly replies that,
according to the Developmental monitoring Screen, the median age for walking is:
A. 12 months. C. 10 months.
B. 15 months. D. 14 months.

91. Ali, age 13, has had a lumbar puncture to examine the CSF to determine if bacterial infection
exists. The best position to keep him in after the procedure is:

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 A. Prone for two hours to prevent aspiration, should she vomit.
B. Semi-fowler’s so she can watch TV for five hours and be entertained.
C. Supine for several hours, to prevent headache.
D. on her right sides to encourage return of CSF
92. The adolescent patient has symptoms of meningitis: nuchal rigidity, fever, vomiting, and
lethargy. The nurse knows to prepare for the following test:
A. Blood culture. C. Cat scan.
B. Throat and ear culture. D. Lumbar puncture.

93. The twelve-year-old boy has fractured his arm because of a fall from his bike. After the injury has
been casted, the nurse knows it is most important to perform all of the following assessments on
the area distal to the injury except:
A. Capillary refill. C. Finger movement
B. Radial and ulnar pulse. D. Skin integrity

94. Which initial question directed to the parent assists the pediatric nurse in obtaining a patient's
health history?
A. “Are your child's immunizations up to date?"
B. “Is your child allergic to anything?"
C. “What brings you here today?"
D. “What is the child's problem?"
95. In infants with hydrocephalus, the early signs of ventricular shunt malfunction are:
A. A high-pitched cry, colic, and pupillary changes.
B. A tense fontanelle, vomiting, and irritability.
C. Anorexia and changes in pulse and respiration.
D. headaches, lethargy, and a loss of appetite
96. When administering an I.M. injection to an infant, the nurse in charge should use which site?
A. Deltoid C. Ventrogluteal
B. Dorsogluteal D. Vastus lateralis

97. A female child, age 2, is brought to the emergency department after ingesting an unknown
number of paracetamol tablets about 30 minutes earlier. On entering the examination room,
the child is crying and clinging to the mother. Which data should the nurse obtain first?
A. A. Heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure
B. Recent exposure to communicable diseases

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 C. Number of immunizations received
D. Height and weight
98. Parents bring their infant to the clinic, seeking treatment for vomiting and diarrhea that has
lasted for 2 days. On assessment, the nurse in charge detects dry mucous membranes and
lethargy. What other findings suggests a fluid volume deficit?
A. Sunken fontanel C. Increased blood pressure
B. Decreased pulse rate D. Low urine specific gravity

99. A child is diagnosed with Wilms’ tumor. During assessment, the nurse in charge expects to
detect:
A. Gross hematuria C. Nausea and vomiting
B. Dysuria D. An abdominal mass

100. Nurse prepares to administer a vitamin K injection to newborn infant. The mother
asks why the new born infant’s needs injection…appropriate answer by nurse could be….
A. “Your baby needs vitamin K to develop immunity”
B. “the vitamin K will protect your infant being jaundiced
C. New born infant have sterile bowel, and vitamin K promote bacterial growth in the bowl
D. Newborn are deficient in vitamin k, & this injection prevent your infant from abnormal
bleeding
E. To prevent neonatrum optalimia

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 ANSWER SHEET

1._____ . 17._____ . 33._____ .

2._____ . 18._____ . 34._____ .
3._____ . 19._____ . 35._____ .
4._____ . 20._____ . 36._____ .
5._____ . 21._____ . 37._____ .
6._____ . 22._____ . 38._____ .
7._____ . 23._____ . 39._____ .
8._____ . 24._____ . 40._____ .
9._____ . 25._____ . 41._____ .
10._____ . 26._____ . 42._____ .
11._____ . 27._____ . 43._____ .
12._____ . 28._____ . 44._____ .
13._____ . 29._____ . 45._____ .
14._____ . 30._____ . 46._____ .
15._____ . 31._____ . 47._____ .
16._____ . 32._____ . 48._____ .

Page 20 of 24
 49._____ . 67._____ . 85._____ .
50._____ . 68._____ . 86._____ .
51._____ . 69._____ . 87._____ .
52._____ . 70._____ . 88._____ .
53._____ . 71._____ . 89._____ .
54._____ . 72._____ . 90._____ .
55._____ . 73._____ . 91._____ .
56._____ . 74._____ . 92._____ .
57._____ . 75._____ . 93._____ .
58._____ . 76._____ . 94._____ .
59._____ . 77._____ . 95._____ .
60._____ . 78._____ . 96._____ .
61._____ . 79._____ . 97._____ .
62._____ . 80._____ . 98._____ .
63._____ . 81._____ . 99._____ .
64._____ . 82._____ . 100._____ .
65._____ . 83._____ .
66._____ . 84._____ .

Answer

1. D 11. E 21. A
2. D 12. D 22. D
3. B 13. C 23. B
4. B 14. A 24. D
5. D 15. C 25. C
6. B 16. B 26. C
7. B 17. C 27. B
8. B 18. B 28. D
9. D 19. B 29. B
10. C 20. C 30. D

31. D 36. B 41. C

32. A 37. D 42. B
33. A 38. B 43. C
34. A 39. D 44. D
35. D 40. B 45. A

Page 21 of 24
 46. A 56. C 66. A
47. B 57. B 67. D
48. A 58. B 68. A
49. C 59. C 69. A
50. C 60. D 70. B
51. B 61. C 71. C
52. B 62. B 72. A
53. C 63. D 73. A
54. B 64. D 74. A
55. A 65. D 75. C
76. A 85. C 94. A
77. B 86. D 95. D
78. D 87. D 96. A
79. C 88. C 97. A
80. A 89. A 98. D
81. B 90. C 99. D
82. C 91. D 100. D
83. B 92. D
84. B 93. C

101.

Pediatric part (1-10)

102. A
103. B
104. D
105. C
106. A
107. B
108. C
109. B
110. B
111. C
112. C
113. D
114. D

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 115. C
116. A
117. C
118. D
119. D
120. C
121. A
122. D
123. A
124. A
125. D
126. D
127. D

Page 23 of 24