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 EBD_7005
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 INDEX
1. Light-Reflection and Refraction 1-68

2. Human Eye and Colourful World 69-112

3. Electricity 113-182

4. Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 183-240

5. Sources of Energy 241-276

6. Static Electricity 277-308

7. Alternating Current 309-326

8. Modern Physics 327-352

9. Electronics 353-372
 EBD_7005
Complete Preparatory
Material for all School
Olympiad Exams 9 & 10
 LIGHT-REFLECTION AND
Chapter

1 REFRACTION

INTRODUCTION

Light is a form of energy which enables human beings and creatures to ‘see’ things. When light emitted from an
object or reflected from the object enters our eyes, we are able to see the object. We cannot see an object in dark even
if we are in light because there is no light coming from the object to our eyes.

Any object that is not giving of its own light may be seen only when the following conditions are there.

• The object must have in its surrounding a source of light as object itself not emiting light.

• The light from the source must strike the object.

• The light must be reflected from the object to the eye.

Light is an electromagnetic radiation which exhibits properties like a wave as well as a particle. It always propagates
in a straight line and reflects, refracts or shows total internal reflection at an interface separating two media in
different conditions. This chapter is an attempt to provide sufficient information to make us understand what is
light, how does it propagate, how does it show reflection, refraction and total internal reflection, how does it behave
with mirrors and lenses, etc.
 EBD_7005
2 PHYSICS
WHAT IS LIGHT ?
Light is a form of energy that produces the sensation of vision on our eyes.
It is an electromagnetic radiation, such as that emitted by the Sun, which acts like a wave in a frequency range that the human eye
can perceive. At the same time, light also acts like a stream of particles, which are called photons (hence the expression “beam
of light”). Electrons can be shot out of atoms and molecules can be split simply by the impact of a photon striking them. A film
in a camera is exposed in this way; the light splits the silver bromide into silver and bromine. The silver darkens the film and a
negative is created. Light is a combination of electric and magnetic oscillations in mutually perpendicular directions as shown in
Fig.1. But the light wave itself propagates in a direction perpendicular to both the oscillations.
The branch of physics which deals with nature, source, properties and the effects of light is callcd optics.

Fig. 1.1 Electric and magnetic oscillations are mutually perpendicular.

The light wave propagates in a direction perpendicular to both.

CHARACTERISTICS OF LIGHT
(1) Light travels along a straight line in a medium or vacuum. The path of light changes only when the medium changes. This
is also called the rectilinear propagation of light. The casting of shadows and eclipses are due to the rectilinear propagation
of light.
(2) Light travels with a speed nearly equal to 3 × 108 m/s. i.e. the speed of light in vacuum. According to current theories, no
material particle can travel at a speed greater than the speed of light.
(3) The speed of light waves depends on the medium through which they pass.
(4) Light shows different behaviour such as reflection, refraction, interference, diffraction, polarisation etc. some of which we
will deal with subsequently in this book and some in higher classes.

RAY AND BEAM OF LIGHT

Let us consider a source of light(s). Also consider the light which passes from the point A to the point B in a medium.
Actually, the light passes through all the points of the straight line AB. Such a straight line path AB is called a ray of light,
generally represented by a directed arrow ( ).

A B

Fig. 1.2 AB is a ray of light in a medium Fig. 1.3 A parallel beam of light.

A small bundle of these rays is called a pencil of rays and large bundles of these rays is called a beam of light.
A bundle of rays in which rays are parallel to one another is called parallel beam of light.
Light-Reflection and Refraction 3

REFLECTION OF LIGHT
Most of the things we see around us do not emit their own light. They are visible because they reemit light reaching their surface
from a primary source, such as the sun or a lamp, or from a secondary source, such as the illuminated sky. When light falls on the
surface of a material, it is usually either reemitted without change in frequency or is absorbed into the material and turned into
heat. Usually, both of these processes occur in varying, degrees. When the reemitted light is returned into the medium from
which it came, it is reflected, and the process is referred to as reflection. i.e. the turning back of light in the same medium is
called reflection of light.
When this page is illuminated by sunlight or lamplight, electrons in the atoms of the paper vibrate more energetically in response
to the oscillating electric fields of the illuminating light. The energized electrons reemit the light by which we see the page. When
the page is illuminated by white light, it appears white, which reveals the fact that the electrons reemit all the visible frequencies.
Very little absorption occurs. The ink on the page is a different story. Except for a bit of reflection, the ink absorbs all the visible
frequencies and therefore appears black.

Po i n t
A person in a dark room looking through a window can clearly see a person outside in the daylight, whereas the person
outside cannot see the person inside. Explain.

SOLUTION

When a person inside a darkroom is looking through a window to another person outside in broad daylight, then enough re-
flected rays come inside to the eye of the observer from the person outside. So he can be seen clearly. But if the person in
daylight, looks through the same window to the person inside the dark room, there is hardly any reflected rays coming from the
body of the person inside the dark room to the eyes of the observer outside. So the outside observer can’t see the person inside
the room.

LAWS OF REFLECTION
Anyone who has played pool or billiards knows that, when a ball bounces from a surface, the angle of incidence is equal to the
angle of rebound. The same is true of light. This is the law of reflection, and it holds for all angles:
The law of reflection is illustrated with arrows representing light rays in Fig. 1.4 Instead of measuring the angles of incident and
reflected rays from the reflecting surface, it is customary to measure them from a line perpendicular to the plane of the reflecting
surface. This imaginary line is called the normal. The incident ray, the normal, and the reflected ray all lie in the same plane.

Fig.1.4 The incident ray, the reflected ray, and the normal all lie in the same plane & i= r
So, we can summarise the laws of reflection as below :
1. The angle of incidence (i) is always equal to the angle of reflection (r), i.e., i= r
2. The incident ray, the normal, and the reflected ray all lie in the same plane.
 EBD_7005
4 PHYSICS

1. Laws of reflection are applicable for plane surfaces as well as curved surfaces.

O
O
O
(a) (b) (c)
Plane surface Curved surfaces
2. Most people are surprised by the fact that light can be reflected back from a less dense medium. For instance, if you are
diving and you look up at the surface of the water, you will see a reflection of yourself.

Po i n t
Each of these diagrams numbered 1, 2 and 3 is supposed to show two different rays being reflected from the same point
on the same mirror. Which are correct, and which are incorrect ?
1 2 3

Fig. 1.5

SOLUTION

Only 1 is correct. Draw the normal that bisects the solid ray, it also bisects the dashed ray.

REGULAR AND DIFFUSE REFLECTION

When light is incident on a smooth surface it is reflected in the first medium. This reflection on a smooth surface is called regular
reflection. When light is incident on a rough surface, it is reflected in many directions. This is called diffuse reflection.

(a) Regular re?ection (b) diffuse re?ection although re?ection

of each single ray obeys the law of re?ection, the many
different surface angles that light rays
encounter in striking a rough surface produce
Fig. 1.6 re?ection in many direction.

If the surface is so smooth that the distances between successive elevations on the surface are
less than about one-eighth the wavelength of the light, there is very little diffuse reflection, and
the surface is said to be polished. A surface therefore may be polished for radiation of long
wavelengths but rough for light of short wavelengths. The wire-mesh “dish” shown in fig. is
very rough for light waves and is hardly mirror like. But, for long-wavelength radio waves, it is
“polished” and is an excellent reflector.
Light reflecting from this page is diffuse. The page may be smooth to a radio wave, but, to a
light wave, it is rough. Smoothness is relative to the wavelength of the illuminating waves. Fig. 1.7 The open-mesh parabolic dish is a
Rays of light striking this page encounter millions of tiny flat surfaces facing in all directions. diffuse reflector for short-wavelength light
The incident light, therefore, is reflected in all directions. but a polished reflector for long-
wavelength radio waves.
Light-Reflection and Refraction 5

This is a desirable circumstance. It enables us to see objects from any direction or position. You can see the road ahead of your car at
night, for instance because of diffuse reflection by the rough road surface. When the road is wet, however, it is smoother with less
diffuse reflection, and therefore more difficult to see. Most of our environment is seen by diffuse reflection.

Po i n t
An observer on the west-facing beach of a large lake is watching the beginning of a sunset. The water is very smooth
except for some areas with small ripples. The observer notices that some areas of the water appear blue and some appear
pink. Why does the water appear to be different colors in different areas?
SOLUTION
The different colors arise from specular and diffuse reflection. The smooth areas of the water specularly reflect the light from the
west, which is the pink light from the sunset. The areas with small ripples reflect the light diffusely. Thus, light from all parts of
the sky is reflected into the observers’ eyes. Because most of the sky is still blue at the beginning of the sunset, these areas appear
to be blue.

ILLUSTRATION : 1.1
Two mirrors make an angle of 120º with each other as in Fig. 1.8, A ray is incident on mirror M1 at an angle of 65º to
the normal. Find the direction of the ray after it is reflected from mirror M2.
SOLUTION :
From the law of reflection, we know that the first reflected ray also
makes an angle of 65º with the normal. Thus, this ray makes an angle of
90º – 65º, or 25º, with the horizontal. We build the geometric model 55º
triangle shown in Figure 1.8 from the triangle made by the first reflected 55º
ray and the two mirrors. The first reflected ray makes an angle of 35º 65º 35º M2
65º
with M2 (because the sum of the interior angles of any triangle is 180º). 120º
This means that this ray makes an angle of 55º with the normal to M2.
Hence, from the law of reflection, the second reflected ray makes an
M1
angle of 55º with the normal to M2.

CONNECTING TOPIC

REVERSIBILITY OF LIGHT RAYS

The fact that specular reflection displays equal angles of incidence and reflection means that there is a symmetry: if the ray
had come in from the right instead of the left in the figure above, the angles would have looked exactly the same. This is not
just a pointless detail about specular reflection.
It’s a manifestation of a very deep and important fact about nature, which is that the laws of physics do not distinguish between
past and future. Cannonballs and planets have trajectories that are equally natural in reverse, and so do light rays. This type of
symmetry is called time-reversal symmetry. Typically, time-reversal symmetry is a characteristic of any process that does not
involve heat. For instance, the planets do not experience any friction as they travel through empty space, so there is no
frictional heating.
We should thus expect the time-reversed versions of their orbits to obey the laws of physics, which they do. In contrast, a book
sliding across a table does generate heat from friction as it slows down, and it is therefore not surprising that this type of motion
does not appear to obey time-reversal symmetry. A book lying still on a flat table is never observed to spontaneously start
sliding, sucking up heat energy and transforming it into kinetic energy.
Similarly, the only situation we’ve observed so far where light does not obey time-reversal symmetry is absorption, which
involves heat. Your skin absorbs visible light from the sun and heats up, but we never observe people’s skin to glow, converting
heat energy into visible light. People’s skin does glow in infrared light, but that doesn’t mean the situation is symmetric. Even
if you absorb infrared, you don’t emit visible light, because your skin isn’t hot enough to glow in the visible spectrum.

REFLECTION AT A PLANE MIRROR

Plane mirror is a looking glass which is highly polished on one surface and silvered on the other surface. The images formed
by mirrors are the most common examples of images formed by reflection.
 EBD_7005
6 PHYSICS
Characteristics of Image Formed by Plane Mirror
1. A plane mirror forms virtual and erect image of the object.
2. Distance of object from mirror = Distance of image from mirror.
3. The image is laterally inverted (better word perversion). i.e., the left of the object becomes the right of the image and vice
versa.
4. The line joining the object point with its image is normal to the reflecting surface.
5. The size of the image is the same as that of the object.

Keep in Memory
(i) For a real object the image is virtual and for a virtual object the image is real.

Virtual Real Virtual Real

Image Object Object image

Fig. 1.9 (a) Fig. 1.9 (b)

(ii) If keeping the incident ray fixed, the mirror is rotated by an angle , about an axis in the plane of mirror,
the reflected ray is rotated through an angle 2 .

Incident ray Incident ray

Reflected ray
y
d ra
lecte
Ref

Fig. 1.10 (a) Fig. 1.10 (b)

1. If two plane mirrors are kept inclined to each other at angle with their reflecting surfaces facing each other, multiple reflection
takes place and more than one images are formed. Number of images (n) for 180 are given by :
360º 360º
(i) n –1 where is an integer..

360º 360º
(ii) n = integral part of , when is not an integer..

(a) If an object is placed between two parallel mirrors ( = 0°), the number of images formed will be (360 / 0) but of
2
decreasing intensity in accordance with I (1 / r ) .
(b) The number of images formed by two mutually perpendicular mirrors ( 90 ) will be 3. All these three images will lie on a circle
with centre at C – the point of interesection of mirrors M1 and M2 and whose radius is equal to the distance between C and object O.
(c) Two mirrors inclined to each other at different angles may provide same number of images, e.g., for any value of between
90° and 120° the number of maximum images formed (n) is 3. This in turn implies that if is given, n is unique but if n is
given, is not unique.
Light-Reflection and Refraction 7

(d) The number of images seen may be different from the number of images formed and depends on the position of observer
relative to object and mirrors – e.g., if = 120° maximum number of images formed will be 3 (object not on bisector) but no.
of images seen can only be 1, 2 or 3 depending on the position of observer.
2. If an object moves towards (or away from) a plane mirror at speed v, the image will also approach (or recede) at same speed
v, i.e., the speed of image relative to object will be v – (– v) = 2v. Similarly if the mirror is moved towards (or away from) the
object with a speed v the image will move towards (or away from the object with a speed 2v.
3. To locate the image of an object from an inclined mirror, see the perpendicular distance of the object from the mirror.

4. If angle between two mirrors is after consecutive reflection

total deviation = 1 + 2 = 2 – 2

Fig. 1.12

Po i n t
We see the bird and its reflection. Why do we not see the bird’s feet in the reflection?

SOLUTION

The bird’s feet are on the reflecting surface so the image of feet is formed at the same place where
actually the feet are. So the image of the feet cannot be distinguished from the actual feet. This is so
because the distance of the object from the reflecting surface is equal to that of the image from same Fig. 1.13
surface.

ILLUSTRATION : 1.2
Find the minimum height of a plane mirror where one can see his full image.
SOLUTION :
Let HL be the height of the person and E, the position of his eyes. Now applying laws of reflection,
H1
1 1
we have, ML EL and MH HE
2 2 H
Now, H L MM – MH – L M
1 1 1 1 L
= HL – EL – HE = HL – HL = HC
2 2 2 2
H2
So the required height of the mirror be half of the height of the person. 2 M
Fig. 1.14
 EBD_7005
8 PHYSICS

ILLUSTRATION : 1.3
Two plane mirrors are inclined at an angle . A ray of light is incident on one mirror at an angle of incidence i. The ray
is reflected from this mirror, falls on the second mirror from where it is reflected parallel to the first mirror. What is the
value of i, the angle of incidence in term of ?
SOLUTION :
The situation is illustrated in fig. 1.19. XA is the incident ray. BC is
the final reflected ray. It is given that BC is parallel to mirror
M1. Look at the assignment of the angles carefully. Now N2 is nor-
i
mal to mirror M2.
90º–i
Therefore =
Then from OAB, + + 90º – i = 180º Fig. 1.15

or + + 90º – i = 180º or i = 2 – 90º

Thus if the angle of incidence is i = 2 – 90º, then the final reflected
ray will be parallel to the first mirror.

ILLUSTRATION : 1.4
Find the x and y co-ordinates, of the image of a point A (2, 0). MN is a plane mirror.
SOLUTION : Y
N (4, 3)
Image of A will be at A'(6, 0). Perpendicular distance of image
M (4, 2)
from plane mirror = perpendicular distance of object from plane mirror.
N A X
(2, 0)
Fig. 1.16
N (4, 3)
M
(4, 2)
M
A A
Fig. 1.17 (6, 0)
SPHERICAL MIRRORS
A highly polished curved surface whose reflecting surface is a cut part of a hollow sphere of a glass or any polished metal is
called spherical mirror. Spherical mirrors are of two types:

Concave Mirrors
Imagine a sphere of hollow glass. If we cut out a spherical cap and polished it with silver on the outside, we have a concave
mirror if we look at it from the hollow side. These mirrors, which are referred to as convergent mirrors, concentrate the light
rays, causing them to arrive parallel to the main axis onto a point known as the focal point. Concave mirrors form real images
that can be projected onto a screen if the object is farther away than the focal point. The image obtained is large if formed near
the focal point or small if formed far away from the focal point. In both cases, the image is reversed. If we place the object closer
than the focal point, the image is formed upright and large but virtual (i.e., it cannot be projected).

Convex Mirrors
If we polished the inner surface of a concave mirror with silver and look at it toward the outward bulge, we have a convex
mirror. Mirrors of this type are also called divergent mirrors because the light beams that reach their surface and are parallel to
their main axis are diverted in such a way that they separate, but their extensions come back together again in a point known as
the focal point. The images produced by a convex mirror are always virtual, upright, and small.
Light-Reflection and Refraction 9

TERMS RELATED TO SPHERICAL MIRROR

Centre of curvature (C) : It is the centre of sphere of which the mirror is a part.
Radius of curvature (R) : It is the radius of the sphere of which the mirror is a part.
Pole (P) : It is the geometrical centre of the spherical reflecting surface.
Principal axis : It is the straight line joining the centre of curvature to the pole.
Focus (F) : When a narrow beam of rays of light, parallel to the principal axis and close to it ( know as paraxial rays), is incident
on the surface of a mirror, the reflected beam is found to converge ( concave mirror) or appear to diverge ( convex mirror) from
a point principal axis. This point is called focus.
Focal length (f) : It is the distance between the pole and the principal focus. For spherical mirrors, f = R/2.

RULES FOR RAY DIAGRAMS

(i) A ray, parallel to the principal axis will after reflection, pass through the focus. Fig. 1.18 (a), and (b)

r M
M i
i
r
C P F C
F P
(a) (b)
M M

Fig. 1.18
(ii) When a ray falls in the direction of centre of curvature of mirror then it reflects back along the same path. Fig. 1.19(a) and (b)

P
C F
(a)
M

Fig. 1.19
(iii) A ray, passing through the focus is reflected parallel to the principal axis. Fig. 1.20(a), and (b)

M
M
F
P P F

(a) M M
(b)

Fig. 1.20

REFLECTION THROUGH CONCAVE MIRROR

F Principal focus P Pole of mirror
C Centre of curvature PC = Radius of curvature
PF = Focal length
When a narrow beam of light travelling parallel to the principal axis
is incident on the reflecting surface of the concave mirror, the beam
after reflection converge at a point on the principal axis.

Fig. 1.21 Concave mirror

 EBD_7005
10 PHYSICS

IMAGE FORMED BY THE CONCAVE MIRROR

Position of object Position of image Nature Ray diagram

Between infinity & Real, inverted & small

centre of curvature P

Between focus &

centre of curvature P

At focus P

Erect, virtual &

P

Uses of Concave Mirror

Makeup and shaving mirrors are concave mirrors. When you place your face between the mirror and its focal point, you see an
enlarged virtual image of yourself. Concave mirrors are also used in a new method for displaying the speed of a car, as a dentist
mirror, in floodlight etc.

REFLECTION THROUGH CONVEX MIRROR

When a narrow beam of light travelling parallel to the principal axis is incident
on the reflecting surface of the mirror, the beam after reflection appear to diverge
from a point on the principal axis.
Light-Reflection and Refraction 11

When a ray incident on convex mirror in the direction of centre of curvature after
reflection comes back along the same path.
When a ray incident on convex mirror parallel to the principal axis, after reflec-
tion, appears to come from the focus. F C

A ray appearing to pass through the focus is reflected parallel to the principal
axis.

IMAGE FORMED BY CONVEX MIRROR Fig. 1.22 Convex mirror

A convex mirror forms only virtual images for all positions of the real object. The image is always virtual, erect, smaller than the
object and is located between the pole and the focus. The image becomes smaller and moves closer to the focus as the object is
moved away from the mirror.

M
I

P F C
M'
Fig. 1.23 (a)

The virtual image is diminished in size and upright, relative to the object. A convex mirror form a virtual image of the object, no
matter where in front of the mirror the object is placed.

Uses of Convex Mirror

Convex mirrors, give a wider field of view than do other types of mirrors. Therefore, they are often used for security purposes,
as in figure 1.24.
A mirror with a wide field of view is also needed to give a driver a good rear view. Thus, the outside mirror on the passenger side
is often a convex mirror. Printed on such a mirror is usually the warning “vehicles in mirror are closer than they appear.”

Fig. 1.24 : Security mirror Fig. 1.25 : Rear view mirror

The reason for the warning is that the virtual image in figure is reduced in size and therefore looks smaller, just as a distant object
would appear in a plane mirror. An unwary driver, thinking that the side-view mirror is a plane mirror, might incorrectly deduce
from the small size of the image that the car behind is far enough away to ignore.
Convex mirror also used in street lighting.

COMPARING THE FIELD OF VIEW OF A PLANE MIRROR AND A CONVEX MIRROR

For a fair comparison to be made the two mirrors must be the same size and the eye must be placed at the same distance from
each of them. The maximum angle of view is obtained when the angle of reflection at the mirror is a maximum, i.e., when the
normal to the mirror are drawn at the extreme edges of the mirror.
The normals to the convex mirror are lines which are continuations of the radii at the edges of the mirror. Once the angles of
reflection have been drawn, equal angles must be drawn on the other side of the normals to give the position of the incident rays.
The angle of incidence for the convex mirror is much greater than the angle of incidence for the plane mirror, hence the convex
mirror has a greater field of view than that of plane mirror.
 EBD_7005
12 PHYSICS

SIGN CONVENTION
(1) All distances are measured from the pole.
(2) The distance measured along the direction of propagation of light are taken as positive and the direction opposite to the propa-
gation of light is taken as negative.
(3) The distances (heights) measured above the principal axis i.e. along positive Y axis, are taken as positive while distances below
the principal axis i.e. along negative Y axis are taken as negative.
In this convention, the focal length (f) and radius of curvature (R) are negative for a concave mirror and positive for a convex
mirror.
The sign convention can be summarized in the following figure.

Direction of Direction of
incident rays // incident rays ///
///

///
////

// //
Negative Positive

Negative Positive
Negative Positive Negative Positive
/////

/////
/// ///////////////////

////// ///////// //////

C F P P F C
/// /

////
///
//

///
///

(a) (b)
Fig. 1.26

Note : Many students get confused in applying sign convention and a small error in sign of one variable will throw all
your calculation. Please study 3 points carefully ( put known quantities with proper sign, unknown quantity will come
automatically with proper sign).
In following situations, the sign convention has been applied.
1. Consider the mirror shown in Fig. 1.27 (a). Here, the object is on the left and image is also
on the left. The mirror is a concave mirror. The incident ray is directed from left to right and
so the positive X-axis is also from left to right.
Here, object distance u = – PO, image distance Fig. 1.27 (a)

v = – PI radius of curvature R = – PC, focal length f = – ve. +Y

2. Consider the mirror shown in Fig. 1.27 (b). Here, the object is on the left and image
is on the right and the mirror concave. The incident ray is once again from left to right
and so the positive X-axis.
Here, object distance u = – PO, image distance v = + PI, C F O P +X
radius of curvature R = – PC, focal length f = – ve. Fig. 1.27 (b)

3. Consider the mirror shown in Fig. 1.27 (c). Here, the object is virtual and on the left, +Y
image is also on the right and the mirror is a convex. The incident ray is from the right
and the positive X-axis is from right to left.
Here, object distance u = + PO, image distance v = – PI, radius of curvature R = + PC,
focal length f = + ve. +X C F O P I
Fig. 1.27 (c)

RELATION BETWEEN FOCAL LENGTH ( F ) AND RADIUS OF CURVATURE (R ) FOR

SPHERICAL MIRRORS

R A N
The focal length ( f ) of a mirror is half of the radius of curvature (R), that is, f O
2 X

Proof : In fig. 1.28, incident ray OX is parallel to the principal axis. After reflection, R
it actually passes through focus F in case of concave mirror and appears to come C F
from focus F in case of a convex mirror. CXN is normal to mirror at X.
For concave mirror (Fig.1.28 (a) (because i = r)
Fig.1.28 (a) B
Light-Reflection and Refraction 13

OXC = FXC =
But OXC = XCF (alternate angles ) Y
For convex mirror (Fig. 1.28 (b) N X
OXN = YXN =
O
But OXN = XCF (corresponding angles) and YXN = FXC (vertically opposite) P F C
Hence (in both cases), FXC = XCF there fore, in FCX, FC = FX
For mirror of small aperture, X will be near P, then FX = FP
Hence, FC = PF and 2 PF = PF + PF = PF + FC = PC i.e. 2f = R or f = R/2 (Proved). Fig. 1.28 (b)

Po i n t
Her eye at point P looks into the mirror. Which of the numbered cards can she see reflected in the mirror?

Mirror
Fig. 1.29

SOLUTION

Card number 2, she can see through the mirror. According to law of reflection, angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection. Light
ray coming from card number 2 makes the same angle with the normal at the point of incidence as the light ray going to eye makes
with the normal.
Normal

1 2 3
P

Mirror
Fig. 1.30

MIRROR FORMULA
A relationship among the object distance (u), the image distance (v) and the focal length ( f ) of a mirror is called the mirror
formula.
1 1 1
The formula is given by
f u v
Proof: Take an object AB beyond C of a concave mirror MM'. A ray AD parallel to principal axis passes through focus after
reflection. Another ray AE which is passing through C comes back along the same path after reflection. These two reflected rays
intersect at A'. From A' draw perpendicular A'B' on the principal axis. So A'B' is real and inverted image which is formed between
C and F which is smaller than the object in size.
Draw DG perpendicular to the principal axis. So, applying sign convention, we get PB = – u; PB' = – v; PF = – f ; PC M = – 2f
In ABC and A'B'C, ABC = A' B' C = 90°
A
ACB = A' C B' (Vertically opposite angles) D
ABC ~ A' B' C (AA similarity)
B'
AB BC B
C F G
(Corresponding sides of similar triangles are in proportion) ....(1)
A' B ' B 'C
In DGF and A'B' F, DGF = A' B' F = 90° A'
DFG = A' FB' (Vertically opposite angles) E
M'
DGF ~ A' B' F (AA similarity) u
2f
DG GF f
(Corresponding sides of similar triangles are in proportion) Fig. 1.31 v
A' B ' B'F
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14 PHYSICS
But AB = DG (the perpendicular distance between two parallel lines are equal)
AB GF
...(2)
A' B ' B'F
BC GF
From eq. (1) and (2), we get, ...(3)
B'C B ' F
Let us assume that mirror is very small,
G and P are very close to each other so that GF = PF.

BC PF PB PC PF u ( 2f) f
From (3),
B'C B' F PC PB ' PB ' PF 2 f ( v) v ( f)

u 2f f
( v f )( u 2 f ) f( 2f v)
2f v v f
vu – 2f v – f u + 2 f 2 = 2 f 2 – f v uv = – f v + 2f v + f u
uv vf uf
Dividing both sides by uvf,
uv
uv vfvf ufuf 1 1 1
uvf
uvf uvf
uvf uvf
uvf ff uu vv

ILLUSTRATION : 1.5
The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is 20 cm. What is its focal length ?
SOLUTION :
As we know, focal length (f ) of a mirror is half of the radius of curvature (R).
R 20
f 10 cm.
2 2

ILLUSTRATION : 1.6
An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 15 cm. Find the position and nature of
the image.
SOLUTION :
Given : u = – 10 cm, f = + 15 cm, v = ?
1 1 1
Using the mirror formula , we have
f u v

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 3 5 30
or or v 6 cm.
v f u 15 ( 10) v 15 10 30 30 5
Hence, the image is formed at a distance of 6 cm behind the mirror. The image is virtual and erect.
ILLUSTRATION : 1.7
We wish to obtain an erect image of an object, using a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. What should be the range
of distance of the object from the mirror ? What is the nature of the image? Is the image larger or smaller than the
object? Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
SOLUTION :
Here, focal length, f = – 15 cm.
For getting an erect image using a concave mirror the object should be placed at a distance less than the focal length (i.e.)
15 cm from pole. Image will be virtual, enlarged and erect.
Light-Reflection and Refraction 15

/////////////////// ///////////// //
I
u

/
v
f

Fig. 1.32
ILLUSTRATION : 1.8
A concave mirror and a convex mirror are placed co-axially, their reflecting surfaces facing each other. Their focal
lengths are 15 and 12 cm respectively. An object placed between them is 20 cm from the concave mirror. The image
formed by it is at the object itself. Calculate the distance of the concave mirror from the object.
SOLUTION :
In a concave mirror for the image to be formed at the object itself, the latter must be at the centre of curvature. But here, it is
at a distance of 20 cm from mirror whose distance is not the radius of curvature. The radius of curvature is twice the focal
length or 2 × 15 or 30 cm. The fact of the matter is the reflected rays from the concave mirror are reflected back along the same
path forming the image at the object itself. This can happen only if the reflected rays falling on the mirror are normal to the
mirror.

////
///////////////
/

Fig. 1.33

O is object. OP = 20 cm, f = 15 cm (of concave mirror)

The reflected rays from concave mirror are reflected back by convex mirror.
C must be centre of curvature of the latter. So its radius of curvature = twice its focal length i.e. 12 × 2 or 24 cm.
Now, if there were no convex mirror, the concave mirror would form an image of O at C. Then we would have for concave
mirror.
u = + 20 cm, f = +15 cm, v = PC = ?
1 1 1 1 1 1
Now, v u f
i.e.,
v 20 15
1 1 1 1
or v = PC = 60 cm
v 15 20 60
But we want OP'
Now PO' = PC – P'C = 60 – 2 × 12 = 36 cm.
(P'C = radius of curvature of convex mirror i.e. twice its focal length)

MAGNIFICATION
If the mirror is plane, the size of the image is always equal to the size of the object i.e., magnification is unity. But the case is
different for a curved mirror. The size of the image is different from the size of the object in such a ‘mirror’. Image may be
greater or smaller in size than the object depending upon the nature of the mirror or the location of the object.
I
Let I and O be the size of the image and the object respectively. The ratio is called magnification, and it is denoted by m.
O
I v
Magnification, m
O u
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16 PHYSICS
This is also called linear magnification.
Here u and v represent the distance of the object and the image from the pole of the mirror respectively.
Magnification m can be positive or negative. If m is positive, it means that I and O are both on the same side of the principal axis.
That is, image is erect. Similarly, if m is negative, it means that I and O are on opposite sides of the principal axis. That is image
is inverted.
area of image v2
Superficial magnification: It is the ratio of area of image to the area of object. superficial magnification
area of object u2

Other formulae of magnification

v v f f v f f
Magnification, m – =
u f f u– f f –u

NEWTON’S FORMULA
This formula provides a relationship among the focal length (f), the distance of the object from focus (x) and the distance of the
object from focus (y).
This can be expressed as xy = f 2
Note that here the object distance and the image distance are measured from the focus of the mirror not from the pole.

IDENTIFICATION OF MIRROR BY THE SIZE AND NATURE OF THE IMAGE

(i) If object and image are of same nature (i.e. both on the same side of the mirror) then they will be inverted.
(ii) If the object and image are on the opposite sides of the mirror then image is erect relative to object.
For real extended object if the image formed by a single mirror is erect it is always virtual (i.e. m is +ve) and in this situation if
the size of image is

Smaller than object, the Equal to object, the mirror is Larger than object, the mirror is
mirror is convex plane concave

So, by observing the size of erect image in a mirror we can decide the nature of the mirror i.e. whether it is convex, concave or
plane. For real extended object if the image formed by a single mirror is inverted it is always real (i.e., m is –ve) and the mirror
is concave. In this situation if the size of image is

Smaller than object, object is Equal to object, object is at C Larger than object, object is
between the and C and and image is at C between C and F and image is
image is between F and C between C &

m< –1 m>–1
m=–1
Light-Reflection and Refraction 17

Every part of a mirror forms complete image, if a part of mirror (say half) is obstructed
(say covered with black paper) full image will be formed but intensity will be reduced.

Fig. 1.34

ILLUSTRATION : 1.9
An object, 4.0 cm in size, is placed at 25.0 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 15.0 cm. At what distance
from the mirror should a screen be placed in order to obtain a sharp image? Find the nature and the size of the image.
SOLUTION :
Object-size, h = + 4.0 cm; Object-distance, u = – 25.0 cm; Focal length, f = –15.0 cm;
Image-distance, v = ? Image-size, h' = ?
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
From v u f
or v f u 15.0 25.0 15.0 25.0

1 5.0 3.0 2.0

or or v = – 37.5 cm.
v 75.0 75.0
The screen should be placed at 37.5 cm. from the mirror. The image is real.
h v vh ( 37.5cm) ( 4.0cm)
Also, magnification, m or h
h u u ( 25.0cm)
Height of the image, h' = – 6.0 cm.
The image is inverted and enlarged.
ILLUSTRATION : 1.10
A convex mirror used for rear-view on an automobile has a radius of curvature of 3.00 m. If a bus is located at 5.00 m
from this mirror, find the position, nature and size of the image.
SOLUTION :
Radius of curvature, R = + 3.00 m; Object-distance, u = – 5.00 m; Image-distance, v = ? Height of the image, h'= ?
3.00m
Focal length, f = R/2 = 1.50 m
2
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 5.00 1.50
Since or
v u f v f u 1.50 ( 5.00) 1.50 5.00 7.50
7.50
v 1.15m
6.50
The image is 1.15m at the back of the mirror.
h v 1.15m
Magnification, m 0.23
h u 5.00m
The image is virtual, erect and smaller in size by a factor of 0.23.
ILLUSTRATION : 1.11
A concave makeup mirror is that designed so that the virtual image is twice the size of the object, when the distance
between the object and mirror is 15 cm. Determine the radius of curvature of the mirror.
SOLUTION :
v
As we know, magnification m 2 where u is 15 cm. Therefore, v = – 2u = –30 cm.
u
1 1 1
Therefore, the focal length is found from which yields f = + 30 cm. Therefore, R = 2f = 60 cm.
f u v
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18 PHYSICS
ILLUSTRATION : 1.12
The image of an object viewed in a concave mirror of focal length 25.0 cm appears 75.0 cm in front of the mirror. Find
the location of the object and the magnification.
SOLUTION :
1 1 1 1 1 1
We have, 0.0267 cm object distance, u = 37.5 cm
u f v 25.0 75.0
v (75.0 cm)
Magnification m u 37.5 cm
2.00

ILLUSTRATION : 1.13
A concave mirror of focal length f produces a real image n times the size of the object. What is the distance of the object
from the mirror?
SOLUTION :
f
Here, magnification, m = – n ; m =
f u
f
–n= f u
nf + nu = – f

(n 1)
nu = – f – nf u= f
n
ILLUSTRATION : 1.14
The focal length of a concave mirror is 30 cm. Find the position of the object in front of the mirror, so that the image is
three times the size of the object.
SOLUTION :
Here image can be real or virtual. If the image is real
f = –30 cm, u = ?, m = – 3
f – 30
m 3 u = – 40 cm.
f –u – 30 – u

f – 30
If the image is virtual m 3 u – 20 cm.
f –u – 30 – u

REFRACTION OF LIGHT
The bending of the light ray from its path in passing from one medium to the other medium is called refraction of light.
If the refracted ray bends towards the normal relative to the incident ray (Passing obliquely), then the second medium is said to
be denser than the first medium. But if the refracted ray bends away from the normal, then the second medium is said to be rarer
than the first medium.

Separating
Plane

Fig. 1.35 (a) Fig. 1.35 (b)

If a ray of light passing normally i.e., at right angles from one medium to another optical medium then it does not bend or deviate
from its path.
Cause of refraction of light: Refraction of light takes place due to change in the speed of light as it enters from one medium to
another medium.
Light-Reflection and Refraction 19

Refraction causes many illusions. One of them is the apparent bending of a stick that is partially submerged in water. The
submerged part appears closer to the surface than it actually is. The same is true when you look at a fish in water. The fish appears
nearer to the surface and closer than it really is (Fig. 1.36). If we look straight down into water, an object submerged 4 meters
beneath the surface appears to be only 3 meters deep. Because of refraction, submerged objects appear to be magnified.

Apparent
depth
Water
Real depth

Fig.1.36 Because of refraction, a submerged object appears to be nearer to the surface than it actually is

Atmospheric Refraction
Refraction occurs in the earth’s atmosphere. Whenever we watch a sunset, we see the sun for several minutes after it has sunk
below the horizon (Fig. 1.36). The earth’s atmosphere is thin at the top and dense at the bottom. Because light travels faster in
thin air than in dense air, parts of the wavefronts of sunlight at high altitude travel faster than parts closer to the ground. Light
rays bend. The density of the atmosphere changes gradually, so light rays bend gradually and follow a curved path. So we gain
additional minutes of daylight each day. Furthermore, when the sun (or moon) is near the horizon, the rays from the lower edge
are bent more than the rays from the upper edge. This shortens the vertical diameter, causing the sun to appear elliptical figure).

Fig. 1.37. Because of atmospheric refraction, when the sun is near the horizon it appears to be higher in the sky.

Po i n t
If, while standing on the bank of a stream, you wished to spear a fish swimming in the water out in front of you, would
you aim above, below, or directly at the observed fish to make a direct hit? If you decided instead to zap the fish with a
laser, would you aim above, below, or directly at the observed fish? Defend your answer.
SOLUTION

When you try to hit the fish with a spear, you need to aim below as the fish is actually at a lower depth than that observed by you
from outside the water due to refraction of light.
When you aim with a laser light then also you should aim much below as the path of laser will change as it enters in water. Since
it is going from rarer to denser medium, it bends towards the normal and deviates from the original path.

Laws of Refraction
There is two laws of refraction
1. The incident ray, the refracted ray, and the normal to the refracting surface at the point of incidence are in the same plane.
sin i
2. The ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is constant for a pair of media i.e. constant (1u2)
sin r
Where 1 2 is the refractive index of medium 2 w.r.t. medium 1. This law is also known as snell’s law.
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20 PHYSICS
Application of Snell’s Law
When light passes from rarer to denser medium it bends toward the normal fig 1.38 (a).
Using Snell’s law

sin 1 2
1 sin 1 = 2 sin
sin 2 1
Thus, if 2 > 1 then 2 < 1
When light passes from denser to rarer medium it bends away from the normal fig 1.38(b).

1
1
sin 1 2 R µ1
From Snell’s law, D µ1
sin 2 1 µ2
D R µ2
Thus, if 2 < 1 then 2 > 1
2
2

Fig. 1.38 (a) Ray bending

Fig. 1.38 (b) Ray bending away
towards normal. from normal.

When light propagates through a series of layers of different medium, then according to Snell’s law

1 sin 1 = 2 sin 2= 3 sin 3 = .......... = constant

Fig. 1.38 (c)

.
If 1 2, 2 3 and 1 be refractive index of medium 2 w.r.t. medium 1, refractive index of medium 3 w.r.t
medium 2 and refractive index of 1 w.r.t. 3 respectively then 1 2× 2 3× 3 1 = 1.

REFRACTIVE INDEX
Light travels through a vacuum at a speed c = 3.00 × 108 m/s. It can also travel through many materials, such as air, water and
glass. Atoms in the material absorb, reemit and scatter the light, however. Therefore, light travels through the material at a speed
that is less than c, the actual speed depending on the nature of the material.
To describe the extent to which the speed of light in a material medium differs from that in a vacuum, we use a parameter called
the index of refraction (or refractive index).

Absolute Refractive Index

It is defined as the ratio of speed of light in free space c to that in a given medium v.
c
i.e. µ or n ... (1)
v
Light-Reflection and Refraction 21

sin i
Also, or n (incident ray in vacuum or air)
sin r
It is a scalar and has no units and dimensions.
As in vacuum or free space, speed of light of all wavelengths is maximum and equal to c, so, for all wavelengths the refractive
c c
index of free space is minimum and is 1
v c
For a given light, denser is the medium, lesser will be the speed of light and so greater will be the refractive index, e.g. as
vglass v water , G w

i.e. for a given light refractive index depends on nature of medium [i.e., µ (1/v)]s
For a given medium (other than free-space), the speed of light of different wavelengths is different,i.e., v and µ = (c/v),
( ) i.e. greater the wavelength of light lesser will be the refractive index e.g. R B , so in water or glass R B , i.e., for
a given medium (other than free space) refractive index depends on wavelength of light.
As for light in free space c f 0 and in a medium v f ,

c 0
... (2)
v
i.e., for a given light and medium refractive index is equal to the ratio of wavelength of light in free space to that in the medium.
Refractive index decreases with the increase in temperature.

Relative Refractive Index

When light passes from one medium to the other, the refractive index of medium 2 relative to 1 is written as 1µ2 and is defined
2 ( c / v 2) v1
as 1 2 ... (3)
1 ( c / v1) v2

While using the concept of relative µ, it must be kept in mind that :

1 v2 v1 v2 1
2 1 So that, (1 2) (2 1)
v2 v1
1 i.e., 1 2 .... (4)
2 v1 2 1

Usually ‘µ’ is used for relative refractive index and it implies the refractive index of denser medium relative to rarer one,
D vR
i.e., 1
R vD
In lens theory µ is used for the refractive index of material of lens relative to the medium,
( ) Lens
i.e., ( ) Medium and can be greater than, less than or equal to unity..

Po i n t
If you place a glass test tube in water, you will be able to see the tube. If you place it in clear soyabean oil, you may not be
able to see it. What does this tell you about the speed of light in the oil and in the glass?
SOLUTION

If a glass test tube is placed in water and it can be seen, this indicates the speed of light in glass and water is different. So
refraction takes place.
When the same glass tube is placed in soyabean oil, it cannot be seen that means the speed of light is same in both oil and glass.
So no refraction takes place between the two media.
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22 PHYSICS

Conditions of no refraction : If light is incident normally on a boundary i.e., i = 0°

Then from Snell’s law
1 sin 0 = 2 sin r sin r = 0 i.e. r = 0
i.e., light passes undeviated from the boundary. (so boundary will be invisible)
If the refractive indices of two media are equal i.e., if, Fig. 1.39 (a)
1= 2=
Then from Snell’s law
1 sin i = sin r i= r
i.e., ray passes undeviated from the boundary with i = r 0 and boundary will not be visible.
This is also why a transparent solid is invisible in a liquid if s = L
Fig. 1.39 (b)

REFRACTION THROUGH A RECTANGULAR GLASS SLAB

Let us consider a glass slab of thickness t and refractive index on which a ray AB is incident at B. BC and CD are the refracted
ray and emergent ray respectively. x is the displacement in the emergent ray due to refraction.

From BCE,
A
i Air
CE B
sin (i r )
BC i– r Glass (µ)
r
x t
or sin (i r ) ..... (1) E
BC
Also, from BFC, x
BF t
F C
Fig. 1.40
cos r ..... (2)
BC BC D
Equating BC from (1) and (2), we get
x t t sin (i r )
x
sin(i r ) cos r cos r
x t sec r.sin (i r ) x is called the lateral displacement
Lateral displacement depends on the following factors.
(i) Refractive index of the medium x (ii) Thickness of the medium (t) x t
1
(iii) Angle of incidence (i) x i (iv) Wavelength of light x

ILLUSTRATION : 1.15
Light waves of 5895 Å wavelength travels from vacuum to a medium of refractive index of 1.5. Find the velocity of light
and wavelength in medium.
SOLUTION :
c 3 108
If velocity of light in vacuum is c then velocity of light in medium is v = 2 × 108 m/sec
n 15
5895
Wavelength of light in medium m = 3930 Aº.
n 1.5
Light-Reflection and Refraction 23

ILLUSTRATION : 1.16
The refractive index of water is 4/3 and of glass is 3/2. Calculate the refractive index of glass with respect to water.
SOLUTION :
Let the 3 media be 1, 2 and 3, 1 for air, 2 for water, 3 for glass in that order.
4 1 3
Given : 1 2 , 2 3 ?, 3 1 [ 1 3 and 3 1 is the reciprocal of 1 3 ]
3 3/2 2
Now using the formula, 1 2 . 2 3. 3 1 1 and substituting values, we have

4 2 1 3 3 9
.2 3 . 1 2 3
3 3 4 2 8
The refractive index of glass with respect to water is 9/8
ILLUSTRATION : 1.17
The refractive index of a material is 1.33. If velocity of light in vacuum is 3 × 108 ms–1, find the velocity of light in the
material.
SOLUTION :
Velocity of light in vacuum
Refractivge index,
Velocity of light in material
3 108 ms 1
1.33
Velocity of light in material
3 108
Velocity of light in material = 2.25 108 ms 1

1.33
LLUSTRATION : 1.18
The angle of incidence in air for a ray of light is 40°. If ray travels through water of refractive index 4/3, find angle of
refraction.
SOLUTION :
a sin i
According to snell’s law, w
sin r

sin i sin 40 3 0.6427

sin r = 0.4820
a 4/3 4
w

r= sin–1 (0.4820) = 28.82° (approx.)

ILLUSTRATION : 1.19
Light reflected from a fish strikes the surface of the water at an angle of 38° to the normal. What is the angle of
refraction of the light into the air ?
SOLUTION :
Snell’s law gives, nw sin 1 na sin 2 sin 2 (1.33)sin 38
Therefore, the angle of refraction of the light into air 2 55

ILLUSTRATION : 1.20
Light strikes an interface between two materials of refractive indices n1 and n2, at an angle 1 to the normal to the
surface. Show that a ray of light is bent towards the normal if n1 < n2 and that a ray is bent away from the normal if
n1 > n2.
SOLUTION :
n1
Snell's law gives for any light ray sin n2
sin 1 2

If n1 < n2 then sin 2 < sin 1 and 2 < 1. This means that the ray is bent toward the normal.
If n1 > n2 then sin 2 > sin 1 and 2 > 1. This means that the ray is bent away from the normal.
 EBD_7005
24 PHYSICS
ILLUSTRATION : 1.21
One light wave is incident upon a plate of refractive index . Find the incident angle i, for which refractive and reflective
waves are mutually perpendicular.
SOLUTION :
sin i
According to snell’s laws, sin r

Angle between refractive and reflective waves = 180o – (i + r) = 90o i + r = 90o r = 90° – i
sin i sin i
= = cos i = tan i i = tan–1( )
sin(90º i)

ILLUSTRATION : 1.22
Figure 1.40, shows the path of ray of light passing through a glass slab. By geometrical construction calculate the
refractive index of glass applying Snell’s law.

45°

30°

1.5cm
A
Fig. 1.41
C
SOLUTION : O
AO is the incident ray on the surface of glass and OB is the refracted ray
through the glass. With O as centre draw a circle of some suitable radius
cutting the incident ray at A and the radius ray at B. Draw perpen D B
diculars AC and BD to the normal COD. 1cm
sin i AC 1.2 cm
Refractive index 1.5
sin r BD 0.8 cm

Fig. 1.42

CONNECTING TOPIC
REAL AND APPARENT DEPTHS
When an object is seen from other medium, we don’t see its actual depth or height. The depth we see is called apparent depth and
the actual depth is called the real depth.
I
O
i r
I O
r µ1 i µ1
i i
A B µ1> µ 2 A B µ2 µ 1
r µ2 µ2
r

Fig.1.43 (a) Fig. 1.43(b)

Light-Reflection and Refraction 25

Let us consider an object O placed in a medium of refractive index µ1. It is being observed by an observer in other medium of
refractive index µ2.
Two rays OA and OP are made incident on the interface separating the two media where they get refracted. OA passes through
second medium undeviated as it falls normally. When the refracted rays are produced backward, they meet at I producing virtual
image of O there. If µ1 > µ2 [Fig. 1.43 (a)], i.e., observer is in rarer medium, the image is formed at a distance less than the object
from the observer. In other words, the image shifts towards the observer.
If µ1 < µ2 [Fig. 1.43 (b)], i.e., observer is in denser medium, the image is formed at a distance greater than the distance of the
object from the observer. That is, the image shifts away from the observer.
Let us now calculate the shift OI (= t).
If i and r are small,
AB AB
sin i tan i and sin r tan r
OA IA
By Snell’s law,
sin i 2 AB IA 2 IA 2
sin r 1 OA AB 1 OA 1
Clearly, IA = Apparent depth of object
OA = Real depth of object
Apparent Depth 2
Fig. 1.44
Real Depth 1
Case I : If µ1 = µ and µ2 = 1 (for air), then
AI Apparent Depth 1
..... (1)
AO Real Depth

Real Depth
Apparent Depth
Now, shift in image ( t) = OI
AO AI AI
= AO – AI AO 1 AO
AO AO
1
or t 1 t, From eq. (1)

where t = AO = thickness of the medium in which object is placed.

NOTE : If the object is placed in a medium which consists of a number of media of refractive indices µ1, µ2, µ3, ....... and
thickness t1, t2, t3, ....... respectively, then
t1 t2 t3
Virtual depth (Al) = ...............
µ1 µ2 µ3

1 1 1
Virtual displacement (Ol) = t1 1 µ t2 1
µ2
t3 1
µ3
..............
1
I
Case II : If µ1 = 1 (for air) and µ2 = µ, then
AI Apparent Depth
µ ..... (2)
AO Real Depth
Shift in image = OI = AI – AO Fig. 1.45
AI AO AI
AO 1 AO
AO AO
t ( 1)t
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26 PHYSICS

Case III : When object and observer both are in rarer medium.
Let observer is in air & object is at a point O in air, as shown in figure.
A glass is there in between observer & object. Image forms at point I.
Refractive index of glass is µ.
1
Virtual displacement = OI = t
µ

Fig. 1.46

ILLUSTRATION : 1.23
When a glass slab is placed on a dot on a paper, it appears displaced by 4
cm, viewed normally. What is the thickness of slab if the refractive index
is 1.5.
SOLUTION :
1 1
We know that Displacement = t 1 So 4 = t 1

4 1.5 4
t= = 12 cm
1 1.5 1

TOTAL INTERNAL REFLECTION

When a light ray, travelling from a denser medium to a rarer medium is Rarer medium
incident at the interface at an angle of incidence greater than critical
angle (c) i.e., the angle of incidence in a denser medium for which the
angle of refraction in rarer medium becomes 90º, then light rays re-
flected back into the denser medium. This phenomenon is called total C
internal reflection (TIR). Sparkling of diamond, optical fibres etc. are
the applications of total internal reflection.
Denser medium
Critical angle: The angle of incidence in a denser medium for which
the angle of refraction in rarer medium becomes 90º is called critical
Fig. 1.47
angle.
1
Refractive index of denser medium
sin c

LENS
A lens is a piece of transparent material with two refracting surfaces such that at least one is curved and refractive index of used
material is different from that of the surroundings.
Convex lens: A thin spherical lens with refractive index greater than that of surrounding behaves as a convergent or convex lens
i.e. converges parallel rays. Its central (i.e. paraxial) portion is thicker than marginal one.
Convex lens: If the central portion of a lens (with L > M) is thinner than marginal, it diverges parallel rays and behaves as a
divergent or a concave lens.

R =

– i– – –

Fig. 1.48 (a) Fig. 1.48 (b)

Light-Reflection and Refraction 27

TERMS RELATED TO THIN SPHERICAL LENS

Optical centre (O) - It is a point for a given lens through which any ray passes undeviated.
Principal axis (C1C2) - It is a line passing through optical centre and perpendicular to the lens. The centre of curvature of
curved surface always lie on the principal axis (as in a sphere is always perpendicular to surface)

O O
C1 C2 C1 C2

Fig. 1.49 (a) Fig. 1.49 (b)

Principal focus - A lens has two surfaces and hence two focal points first focal point is an object on the principal axis for which
image is at infinity while second focal point is an image point on the principal axis for which object is at infinity.

F2
F1 F1 O F2 O
f
f
Fig. 1.50 (a) Fig. 1.50 (b) Fig. 1.50 (c) Fig. 1.50 (d)
Focal length (f ) - It is defined as the distance between optical centre of a lens and the point where the parallel beam of light
converges or appear to converge i.e., focus.
Aperture - In reference to lens, aperture means to effective diameter of its light transmitting area so that brightness i.e. intensity
of image formed by a lens which depends on the light passing through the lens will depend on the square of aperture.
i.e. I (aperture)2

SIGN - CONVENTION
1. Whenever and where possible, rays of light are taken to travel from left to right.
2. Transverse distances are measured from optical centre and are taken to be positive while those below it negative.
3. Longitudinal distances are measured from optical centre and are taken to be positive if in the direction of light propagation
and negative if opposite to it e.g., according to our convention the sign of R1, R2 and f are given.

R1(= OC1) = Positive R1(= OC1) = Negative R2

R1
R2(= OC2) = Negative R2(= OC2) = Positive
f (= OF) = Positive C F
f (= OF) = Negative 1

f
Fig. 1.51 (a) Fig. 1.51 (b)
While using the sign convention it must be kept in mind that
(i) to calculate an unknown quantity the known quantities are substituted with sign in a given formula.
(ii) in the result, sign must be interpreted as there are number of sign conventions and same sign has different meaning in
different conventions.

RULES FOR IMAGE FORMATION

In order to locate the image formed by a lens graphically following rules are adopted.
1. A ray passing through optical centre proceeds undeviated through O O
C1 C2 C1 C2
the lens (by definition of optical centre).
2. A ray passing through first focus or directed towards it, after refraction
from the lens becomes parallel to the principal axis (by definition of F1). Fig. 1.52 (a) Fig. 1.52 (b)
3. A ray passing parallel to the principal axis after refraction through the lens passes or appear to pass through F2 (by definition of
F2).
4. Only two rays from the same point of an object are needed for image formation and the point where the rays after refraction
through the lens intersect or appear to intersect is the image of the object. If they actually intersect each other the image is real
and if they appear to intersect the image is said to be virtual.
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28 PHYSICS

IMAGE FORMATION BY A LENS

(a) For Convergent or Convex Lens

Position of object Details of image Ray diagram

Real, inverted, diminished

At infinity (m < < – 1), at F

Between infinity and 2F Real, inverted, diminished

F2
(m < – 1), between F and 2F
2F1 F1

At 2F Real, inverted, equal in size,

(m = – 1) at 2F 2F1

Real, inverted, enlarged F2 2F2

Between 2F and F (m > – 1), between 2F and 2F1 F1

At F Real, inverted, enlarged F2 2F2

(m >> – 1), at infinity
2F1 F1

Virtual, erect, enlarged

Between focus F and (m > + 1), between
Pole P and image, on same side F2
of object 2F1 F1
Light-Reflection and Refraction 29

(b) For Divergent or Concave lens

1. If object is at infinity image will be formed at focus on the same side of the lens as the object, virtual, erect and point sized.
2. If object is in front of lens, anywhere between the optical centre and infinity image will be formed between focus and the
optical centre, on the same side of the lens, highly diminished, virtual and erect.

I F1 E1
OF2 I

Fig. 1.53 (a) Fig. 1.53 (b)

Po i n t
A
The diagram shows an object OA and its image IB formed by a lens. Complete
the ray diagram and locate the focus of the lens by labelling as F. State whether I
the lens is convex or concave ? O

SOLUTION Fig. 1.54 B

The completed ray diagram is given below.
L
A C
F I
O P

Fig. 1.55
B

Since the image is inverted and magnified, the lens is convex.

LENS FORMULA
If an object is placed at a distance u from the optical centre ‘O’ of a lens and its images is formed at a distance v (from the optical
1 1 1
centre) and focal length of this lens is f then this relationship is known as Lens formula
v u f
Proof : Consider an object AB placed beyond 2F infront of a convex lens. A real, inverted and smaller image is formed between
F and 2F on the other side of the lens. Applying sign convention, we obtain.
A C
(Object distance) OB = – u
(Image distance) OB' = + v B O B'
(Focal length) OF = + f 2F F 5 4 2F
F
In ABO and A'B'O,
1 = 2 (Vertically opposite angles) A'
3 = 4 (Each 90°)
–u +v
BAO ~ B'A'O (By AA similarity)
Therefore, ABO and A'B'O are equiangular and hence they are similar. +f
Fig. 1.56
A ' B ' OB ' v A' B ' v ...(1)
AB OB u AB u
Now OCF and A'B'F are also equiangular, hence similar.

In particular, A ' B ' FB ' But OC = AB.

OC OF
 EBD_7005
30 PHYSICS

A' B ' FB '

AB OF
Since All distances are measured from optical centre, therefore,
A ' B ' FB ' OB ' OF v ( f) v f . ...(2)
AB OF OF f f
v v f
Now comparing eq. (1) and (2), fv uv fu
u f
1 1 1 1 1 1
Dividing both sides by uv f , (Lens formula)
u f v f v u
Similarly, we can prove the lens formula for a concave lens.

MAGNIFICATION
If a thin object of linear size O situated vertically on the axis of a lens at a distance u from the optical centre and its image of size
I is formed at a distance v (from the optical centre) then magnification (transverse) is defined as
I v
Magnification, m
O u
Magnification m can be negative or positive.
Negative magnification implies that image is inverted with respect to object while positive magnification means that image is
erect with respect to object.
f f v
Other formulae of magnification m= ,m= f
f u
For real extended object, if the image formed by a single lens in inverted (i.e., m is negative) it is always real and the lens is
convergent i.e., convex.
ILLUSTRATION : 1.24
Two converging lenses with focal lengths 15 cm and 25cm are placed 18cm apart. An object is located 8.0 cm to the
left of the 15cm focal length lens. Where is the final image formed ?
SOLUTION :
1 1 1
Find the image location for the first lens using the lens formula, –
v u f
1 1 1 1 1
v1 f1 u1 15cm 8.0cm which gives v1 = – 17cm
This image forms the object of the second lens located 17 cm + 18 cm = 35 cm away. Then for the second lens
1 1 1 1 1
v2 f 2 u2 25 cm 35 m which gives v2 = 87.5 cm
The final image lies 87.5 cm to the right of the second lens (25 cm) lens.
ILLUSTRATION : 1.25
A converging lens is used to read the small print. The lens is held 9.0 cm from the print and produces a magnitification
of +2.5. What is the focal length of the lens ?
SOLUTION :
The fine print serves as the object for the lens u = 9.0 cm. The image distance is then
v = – mu = – (2.5 cm) (9.0 cm) = – 22 cm
1 1 1 1 1
The thin lens equation gives f u v 9.0 cm ( 22 cm)
so f = + 15 cm.
ILLUSTRATION : 1.26
An object is placed at a distance of 1.50 m from a screen and a convex lens placed in between produces an image
magnified 4 times on the screen. What is the focal length and the position of the lens?
SOLUTION :
I
Here, magnification m= =–4
O
Light-Reflection and Refraction 31

Let lens is placed at a distance of x from the object. Then

u = – x, and v = (1.5 – x)
v 1.5 x
using m = , we get –4=
u x
or 4x = 1.5 – x or 5x = 1.5
Thus x = 0.3 metre
The lens is placed at a distance of 0.3 m from the object (or 1.20 m from the screen)
f
For focal length, we may use m=
f u
f
or –4= f ( 0.3) or – 4f + 1.2 = f or 5f = 1.2

1.5
Thus f= = 0.24
5
The focal length is 0.24 m (or 24 cm)
ILLUSTRATION : 1.27
A lens placed at a distance of 20 cm from an object produces a virtual image 2/3 the size of the object. Find the
position of the image, kind of lens and its focal length.
SOLUTION :
2 I 2
Virtual image means, I is positive and it is given that I = O. Thus, m =+
3 O 3
f
Further because u = –20 cm (given), using m= f u

2 f
we get, = f ( 20) or f = – 40 cm
3
v
The f is negative, thus the lens is a concave lens. Again using m=
u
2 v 2
we get = or v = – = – 1.33 cm
3 20 3
The virtual image is on the same side of the object.
CONNECTING TOPIC
LENS MAKER FORMULA
This formula gives a relation among the focal length (f), the refractive index of a lens with respect to the medium in which it
is placed m and its radii of curvatures (R1 and R2). This formula is expressed as

1 1 1 1 a 1 1
m 1 or 1
f R1 R2 f a m R1 R2

where, a = refractive index of lens with respect to air.

a m = refractive index of lens with respect to air.

R1 = radius of curvature of first surface of lens.
R2 = radius of curvature of second surface of lens.
If lens is placed in air, then
aa m
m 1 and a (say)

11 11 11
ff ( 1) R R
R1 R2
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32 PHYSICS

COMBINATION OF LENSES f1 f2
Case I : When two thin lenses are in contact.
In case of two thin lenses in contact if the first lens of I I1
focal length f1 forms the image I1 (of an object) at a distance v1 from it, v
u
1 1 1 v1
v1 u f1 ...(1)
Fig.1.57

Now the image I1 will act as object for second lens and if the second lens forms image I at a distance v from it,
1 1 1
v v1 f 2 ...(2)

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
Adding equations (1) & (2) or with F f f
v u f1 f 2 v u F 1 2

i.e. the combination behaves as a single lens of equivalent focal length F given by
1 1 1
F f1 f2 or P = P1 + P2
f1 f2
Case II : When two thin lenses are separated by a certain distance.
If the two thin lens are separated by a distance d apart, then F is given by
1 1 1 d
F f1 f2 f1 f2
so P = P1 + P2 – P1P2d. d
Fig. 1.58
NOTE : (1) If two thin lenses of equal focal length but of opposite nature (i.e. one convergent and other divergent) are put in
contact, the resultant focal length of the combination will be
1 1 1
0 i.e, F = and P = 0 i.e., the system will behave as a plane glass plate.
F f f
(2) If two thin lens of same nature are put in contact then as
1 1 1
F f1 f2

1 1 1 1
F f1 and F f2 i.e. F < f1 and F < f2
i.e. the resultant focal length will be lesser than smallest individual.
(3) If two thin lenses of opposite nature with different focal lengths are put in contact the resultant focal length will be
of same nature as that of the lens of shorter focal length but its magnitude will be more than that of shorter focal
length.
If a lens of focal length f is divided into two equal parts as in figure (A)
1 1 1
each part has a focal length f' then as f f ' f f ' = 2f
i.e. each part have focal length 2f now if the se parts are put in contact as in (B) or (C), the resultant focal length of
1 1 1
the combination will be F 2f 2f
i.e. F = f ( = initial value)

L2 L2 L2
L1 L1 L1
(a) (b) (c)
Fig. 1.59
Light-Reflection and Refraction 33

SILVERING OF LENS
A lens has two surfaces. If one of the surfaces is silvered, the lens behaves as a mirror. The mechanism of the image formation can
be understood in brief as given below.
Light from the object falls on the lens which produces a virtual image I1. This image acts as object for the silvered surface (which
acts as a mirror) and a second virtual image I2 is formed. Finally, this image acts as object for the lens and final image I3 is formed.
Thus, refraction takes place two times at the lens and reflection takes one time at the mirror.
Thus, on silvering the lens behaves as a mirror of focal length F given by
1 2 1
F F Fm ....... (1)

where F = focal length of lens from which refraction take place two times.
Fm = focal length of mirror from which reflection takes place one time.
Case I : When a double convex lens is silvered.

/////

/////
R
Fm

////////////////////

///////////////////
Clearly,
2
= +
Also, by lens maker formula,
1 1 1 R R R
( 1) 2
( 1). F

/
F R R R 2( 1)
F Fm
Putting the values of Fm and F in (1), we get Fig. 1.60 (a)

1 2 2( – 1) 2 2(2 – 1) R
F
F R R R 2(2 – 1)

Case II : When a plane convex lens is silvered.

/////

/////
(i) If curved surface is silvered
////////////////////

///////////////////
In this case,
R R = +
Fm and F
2 1 R
R
/
F F Fm
2 Fig. 1.60 (b)
(ii) If plane surface is silvered.
////////////////////////

////////////////////////

In this case, Fm ( R )
R = +
and F
1
R
R
F F Fm
2( 1)
Fig. 1.60 (c)

POWER OF A LENS
If focal length of a lens is measured in metre (m) then its reciprocal gives the power (P) of the lens.
1
i.e., Power of a lens, P
f (in m)
The S.I. unit of power is diopter (D).
Power of a combination of lenses: If a number of lenses are placed in close contact with each other, then the power of the
combination of lenses is equal to the algebraic sum of the powers of individual lenses. i.e. P = P1 + P2 + ....Pn
ILLUSTRATION : 1.28
A doctor has prescribed a corrective lens of power +1.5 D. Find the focal length of the lens. Is the prescribed lens
diverging or converging?
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34 PHYSICS
SOLUTION :
Given: P = + 1.5 D
100 100 1000
Focal length f cm 66.67 cm 0.67m
P 1.5 15
As the focal length is + ve, hence it is a converging or convex lens.
ILLUSTRATION : 1.29
A convex lens of focal length 20 cm is placed in contact with concave lens of focal length 60 cm. Calculate : (a) power
of each of the lens (b) power of combination (c) focal length of combination (d) nature of combination.
SOLUTION :
1
As we know, power of alens P
f (in metre)

100 100
(a) Power of convex lens = 5D Power of concave lens = 1.67 D
20 60
(b) Power of combination P = P1 + P2 = (+5D) + (–1.67D) = +3.33 D
(c) Focal length of combination
100 100
f (in cm) = 30.0 cm
P 3.33
(d) As power of combination is positive, therefore, combination behaves like a convex lens.
ILLUSTRATION : 1.30
A convex lens of focal length 10.0 cm is placed in contact with a convex lens of 15.0 cm focal length. What is the focal
length of the combination.
SOLUTION :
For combination of lenses

1 1 1 1 1 25 1
= f + f = + = =
f 1 2 10 15 150 6
Therefore, f = 6 cm
ILLUSTRATION : 1.31
Ten identical converging thin lenses, each of focal length 10 cm, are in contact. What is the power of the combined
lens.
SOLUTION :
For thin lenses in contact
P = P1 + P2 + .................
10 100
= 10 P1 = = 100 D
10
ILLUSTRATION : 1.32
The radius of curvature of a thin plano-convex lens is 10 cm (of curved surface) and the refractive index is 1.5. If the
plane surface is silvered, then it behaves like a concave mirror of focal length
(a) 10 cm (b) 15 cm (c) 20 cm (d) 5 cm
SOLUTION :
(a) The silvered plano convex lens behaves as a concave mirror; whose focal length is given by
1 2 1
F f1 f m
If plane surface is silvered
R2
fm
2 2 Fig. 1.61
Light-Reflection and Refraction 35

1 1 1 1 1 –1
( – 1) – ( – 1) –
f1 R1 R2 R R
1 2( –1) 1 2( – 1)
F R R
R
F
2( –1)
Here, R = 10 cm,
10
F 10cm
2(1.5 –1)
CONNECTING TOPIC
INTERFERENCE, DIFFRACTION AND POLARISATION OF LIGHT

Interference of Light
The colours in soap bubbles and oil slicks are due to this property of light. When two light waves of exactly same frequency
travels in a medium, in the same direction simultaneously then due to their superposition, the intensity of light is maximum at
some points while the intensity is minimum at some other points. This phenomenon is called interference of light. It is of two types :
(i) Constructive interference and
(ii) Destructive interference
When the waves meet a point with same phase, constructive interference is obtained at that point. Hence, at that point bright spot
of light is seen.
But when the waves meet a point with opposite phase, destructive interference is obtained at that point. Hence, at that point dark
spot of light is seen.

Diffraction of Light
The wavelength of light is of the order of angstroms. So, when light waves encounter obstacles of very small sizes, the light waves
bend around the edges of the obstacle and travel. This is known as diffraction of light. It is due to the diffraction of light that a
sharp shadow of an object cannot be obtained on any screen placed behind it. Due to diffraction, light bends and travels into the
region of geometrical shadow of the object and thus complete darkness is not found in the shadow. The brightness of light
gradually decreases towards complete darkness as we go gradually into the geometrical shadow of the obstacle.

Polarisation of Light
An ordinary source of light such as bulb consists of a large number of waves emitted by atoms or molecules in all directions
symmetrically. Such light is called unpolarized light (Fig. 1.62 (a))

Y Source

Direction of
X wave motion

Z
Fig.1.62 (b) Polarised light
Fig.1.62 (a) Unpolarised light

If we confine the direction of wave vibration of electric vector in one direction (with the help of polaroids or Nicol prism)
perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation, then such type of light is called plane polarised or linearly polarised. The
phenomenon by which, we restrict the vibrations of wave in a particular direction (fig.1.62 (b) perpendicular to direction of wave
propagation is called polarisation.
 EBD_7005
36 PHYSICS

1. Two plane mirrors are inclined at an angle of 30º. Then the first four images of an object O placed between the two
mirrors are correctly represented by
M1 M1 M1 M1
I1 I4 I3 I3
I1 I1
I4
I1
O O O O
M2 M2 M2 M2
I2
I2
I3 I2 I3 I4 I2 I4
(1) (2) (3) (4)

Sol. The image of object O from mirror M1 is I2 and the image of I1 (the virtual object) from mirror M2 is I3. The image of object O
from mirror M2 is I2 and the image of I2 (the virtual object) from mirror M1 is I4. Notice that this interpretation, according to ray
diagram rules, is valid only for Fig. (1). All others are inconsistent. Hence (1) is correct.
2. Find the number of images formed by two mutually perpendicular plane mirrors.
360º 360º M2
Sol. Here, n = 4
90
n is an even number
I2 O

C M1

I3 I1
Thus, number of images formed = n – 1 = 3. All these three images lie on a circle with centre at C (The point of intersection of
mirrors M1 and M2) and whose radius is equal to the distance between C and object ‘O’.
3. The focal length of a concave mirror is 30 cm. Find the position of the object in front of the mirror, so that the image is
three times the size of the object.
Sol. Here image can be real or virtual. If the image is real
f = –30, u = ?, m = – 3
f 30
Magnification m 3 u = –40 cm.
f u 30 u
If the image is virtual
f 30
m 3 u = –20 cm.
f u 30 u
4. A square ABCD of side 1mm is kept at distance 15 cm infront of the concave mirror as shown in the figure. The focal
length of the mirror is 10 cm. Find the length of the perimeter of its image.
1 1 1
Sol. Given: u = 15 cm, f = 10 cm v = – 30, [using – ]
v f u
Light-Reflection and Refraction 37

/////
v

/ ///////
m= =–2
u B C

///////////////////////
AB CD 2 1 2mm A D

BC AD v2 15 cm
Now 2
4 BC AD 4 mm
BC AD u

/////
Length = 2 + 2 + 4 + 4 = 12 mm
5. An object of length 1 cm is placed at a distance of 15 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. Find the nature
and size of the image.
Sol. Given: u = – 15 cm, f = – 10 cm, O = 1 cm
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
v f u
=
v u f 10 15

I v 30
v = – 30 cm =– =– =–2
O u 15
I = – 2 × 1 = – 2 cm Image is inverted and on the same side (real) of size 2 cm.
6. A convex mirror has its radius of curvature 20 cm. Find the position of the image of object placed at a distance of 12 cm
from the mirror.
Sol. The situation is shown in figure.
Here u = – 12 cm and R = +20 cm. We have
1 1 2 1 2 1
+ = or = –
u v R v R u
1 2 1 11 O I C
= cm – cm = cm
v 20 – 12 60
60
v= cm
11
7. An object of length 2.5 cm is placed at a distance of 1.5 f from a concave mirror where f is the magnitude of the focal
length of the mirror. The length of the object is perpendicular to the principal axis. Find the length of the image. Is the
image erect or inverted?
Sol. The given situation is shown in figure.
The focal length f = – f and u = –1.5f, we have
1 1 1 1 1 1
or f
u v f 1.5 f v f
F
O
1 1 1 1 1.5f
or or v = – 3f
v 1.5 f f 3f

v 3f h2
Now m 2 or 2
u 1.5 f h1

or h2 2 h1 5.0 cm
The length of image is 5.0 cm. The minus sign shows that it is inverted.
8. An object is situated at a distance of f/2 from a convex lens of focal length f. Find the distance of image.
1 1 1
Sol. For a spherical lens,
v u f
For convex lens, u = – f/2 and f is + ve
1 1 1 1 2 1
v f u f f f
v =–f
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38 PHYSICS
9. A lens placed at a distance of 20 cm from an object produces a virtual image 2/3 the size of the object. Find the position
of the image, kind of lens and its focal length.
Sol. Virtual image means, I is positive and it is given that I = (2/3)O. Thus, magnification m = + 2/3
Further because u = –20 cm (given), using
f 2 f
m= f u we get, = f ( 20) or f = – 40 cm
3
The f is negative, thus the lens is a concave lens. Again using m = v/u
2 v 2
we get = or v = – = – 1.33 cm
3 20 3
The virtual image is on the same side of the object.
10. An object is placed at a distance of 50 cm from a concave lens of focal length 20 cm. Find the nature and position of the
image.
Sol. Here, object distance, u = – 50 (object on the left of the lens)
Focal length, f = – 20 cm (focus on the left of the lens)
Image distance, v = ?
1 1 1
From lens formula, –
v u f

1 1 1
We have,
v f u

1 1 1 –5 – 2 –7 100
Putting values, we get or v – cm = – 14.3 cm.
v –20 –50 100 100 7
Image is formed at distance 14.3 cm on the left of the lens.
h2 v v
From relation, m we have, h2 h1
h1 u u

–100 / 7 2
Putting values, we get h2 h1 h1
–50 7
Since h1 is positive (erect object), h2 is also positive. The image is erect and virtual.
11. A cubical vessel with opaque walls, is so placed that the eye of an observer cannot see its bottom but can see the entire
4
wall CD. A small object is placed at O at a distane b = 10 cm from corner D. What minimum depth of water
3
should be poured into the vessel which will enable the observer to see the object?

Sol. Let minimum depth of water be x. Since the vessel is cubical (AB = AD), it is clear that angle i = 45º. From Snell’s law, the angle
of refraction is given by
Light-Reflection and Refraction 39

sin i sin 45º

sin r 0.5303 r = 32.03º
n 4/3
Since QPD = 45º, PQ = x = QD
Hence, QO = x – b
Now, PQO, QO = x tan r
b
x – b = x tan r x
1 – tan r
Substituting for b and r, we get
x = 26.7 cm
12. A convex lens forms a real and inverted image of a needle at a distance of 25 cm from the lens. If the image of the same
size as that of the needle, then where should the needle be placed in front of the lens. Also calculate the power of the lens.
Sol. Step 1. We know, if the size of the real and inverted image is same as that of the object, then the object is at 2F and image is also
formed at 2F on the other side of the convex lens.
u = – 25cm
h2 v v
Also or 1 ( h2 = h1)
h1 u u
or v = u = 25 cm
1 1 1
Using – , we get
u v f

1 1 1 2 25
or f
12.5cm
f 25 25 25 2
In this case, 2f = 25 cm or f = 12.5 cm
Thus, needle must be placed at a distance of 25 cm in front of the convex lens.
100 100
Step 2. Now, power of lens, P f (in cm) 12.5
8.0 D

SOLVED EXAMPLES BASED ON CONNECTING TOPICS

13. Consider the situation shown in figure. Find maximum angle for which the light suffers total internal reflection at the
vertical surface.

=1.0

=1.25

1 1 1 4 4
Sol. The critical angle for this case is '' sin sin or sin ''
1.25 5 5
3
Since '' ' , we have sin ' cos ''
2 5
From Snell's law,
sin 3 3 3
1.25 or sin 1.25 sin ' 1.25 or sin 1
sin ' 5 4 4
If ' ' is greater than the critical angle, will be smaller than this value. Thus, the maximum value of q' for which total
internal reflection takes place at the vertical surface is sin –1 (3/4).
 EBD_7005
40 PHYSICS
14. A converging lens has a focal length of 20 cm in air. It is made of a material of refractive index 1.6. If the lens is
immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.3. What will be the new focal length of the lens?
1 2
Sol. ( 1 1) 1 1.6, f1 20
f1 R

1 2 1 0.6 2 0.6 2 20
(1.6 1) or R 24cm
f1 R 20 R 10
1 2 1 1.6 2
( 1 1) ( 1)
f2 R f2 1.3 R

1 1.6 1.3 2 0.3 1 1

( ) or, f2 = 52 cm.
f2 1.3 24 1.3 12 52
15. Locate the image of the point P as seen by the eye through the slabs of refrective index (m = 1.2, 1.3, 1.4 respectively
starting from the bottom) as shown in figure.

t = 0.4cm
1.0cm
t = 0.3cm
1.0cm
t = 0.2cm
1.0cm
P
1
Sol. The net shift from one slab is t 1 where t is the thickness of slab, is the refractive index of slab.

1 1 1 1 1 1
Total shift t1 1 t2 1 t3 1 0.2 1 0 .3 1 0 .4 1
1 2 3 1.2 1 .3 1 .4

0.2 0.3 0.3 0.4 0.4

0.2
1.2 1.3 1.4
= 0.0333 + 0.0692 + 0.114 = 0.2 cm above point P.
3 4
16. A lens has a power of + 5 diopter in air. What will be its power if completely immersed in water ? Given: g ; w
2 3
Sol. Let fa and fw be the focal lengths of the lens in air water respectively, then
1 w
Pa and Pw
fa f w ; fa = 0.2 m = 20 cm
Using lens maker’s formula
1 1 1
Pa ( g 1) ...(i)
fa R1 R2

1 g 1 1
1
fw w R1 R2

w 1 1
Pw ( g w) ...(ii)
fw R1 R2
Dividing equation (ii) by equation (i), we get,
Pw ( g w) 1 Pa 5
P D
Pa ( g 1) 3 or w 3 3
Light-Reflection and Refraction 41

2. Light travels in vacuum with an enormous speed of

3 × 108 ms–1.
DIRECTIONS : Complete the following statements with an 3. The speed of light is different in different media.
appropriate word / term to be filled in the blank space(s).
4. The refractive index of a transparent medium is the ratio
1. The power of a convex lens is ................. and that of a
of the speed of light in vacuum to that in the medium.
concave lens is ..............
2. Light seems to travel in ............... 5. The incident ray, the normal to the mirror at the point of
3. A light ray travelling obliquely from a denser medium to incidence and the reflected ray, all lie in the same plane.
a rarer medium bends ............. the normal. A light ray 6. Image formed by a plane mirror is always virtual and erect.
bends .............. the normal when it travels obliquely from 7. The principal focus of a spherical mirror lies midway
a rarer to a denser medium. between the pole and centre of curvature.
4. In case of a rectangular glass slab, the refraction takes
8. Convex mirrors enable the driver to view much larger area
place at both .................. interface and ............... interface.
The emergent ray is ........... to the direction of incident than would be possible with a plane mirror.
ray. 9. A concave lens will always give a virtual, erect and
5. Power of a lens is the reciprocal of its ................. diminished image.
6. The SI unit of power of a lens is ................ 10. A ray of light passing through the optical centre of a lens
7. The angle of incidence is ......... to the angle of reflection. will emerge without any deviation.
8. The reflecting surface of a spherical mirror may be curved
11. A plane mirror can form virtual images.
.............. or ..............
9. The surface of the spoon can be approximated to a ........... 12. An object is placed in front of a mirror and an image of it
mirror. is formed at the object itself. The mirror mentioned in
10. The centre of the reflecting surface of a spherical mirror question is a convex mirror.
is a point called the ................ 13. A concave mirror can produce both real and virtual images.
11. The centre of curvature of a concave mirror lies in .......... 14. Light travels faster in glass than in air.
of it.
15. Light has transverse wave nature.
12. Line passing through the pole and the centre of curvature
of a spherical mirror is called the ................ 16. The laws of reflection are valid for plane mirrors and not
13. A ray parallel to the principal axis, after reflection, will for spherical mirrors.
pass through the .................... 17. The mirror formula is valid only if the aperture of the
14. The dentists use ............... mirrors to see large images of mirror is small.
the teeth of patients. 18. When a ray of light travels from air to water, its speeds up.
15. A transparent material bound by two surfaces, of which
19. A lens that is thicker at the middle than at the edges is a
one or both surfaces are spherical, forms a ...........
16. The degree of ............. of light rays achieved by a lens is diverging lens.
expressed in terms of its power.
17. An object is placed in front of a spherical mirror. The
image is found to be virtual for all positions of the object.
The spherical mirror is ......... DIRECTIONS : Each question contains statements given in two
18. Two immiscible transparent liquids A and B have 1.2 and columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in
1.5 as their refractive indices (with respect to air). The column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in
refractive index of B with respect to A is ........ column II.
1. Match the following :
Column I Column II
DIRECTIONS : Read the following statements and write your (A) Power of convex mirror (p) Positive power
answer as true or false. (B) Power of concave mirror (q) Negative power
1. The reflecting surfaces, of all types, obey the laws of (C) Power of plane mirror (r) Zero power
reflection. (D) Power of convex lens (s) Infinite power
 EBD_7005
42 PHYSICS
2. The graphs given apply to convex lens of focal length f, 12. For what position convex lens form real, inverted and
producing a real image at a distance v from the optical diminished image?
centre when self luminous object is at distance u from 13. Is it possible to form a real image by using a real object
the optical centre. The magnitude of magnification is m. with a concave lens ?
Identify the following graphs with the first named 14. Which phenomenon is responsible for
quantity being plotted along y-axis. (i) Twinkling of star, (ii) Sparkling of diamond?
Column I Column II
15. Sun can been seen 2 minutes before actual sun rise and 2
minutes after actual sun set. Why?
(A) v against u (p)

DIRECTIONS : Give answer in 2 to 3 sentences.

1. Prove that the refractive index of glass with respect to air is
1 1 the reciprocal of the refractive index of air with respect to
(B) against (q) glass.
v u
2. What is dispersion of light and what is its cause?
3. A concave mirror produces three times magnified
(enlarged) real image of an object placed at 10 cm in front
of it. Where is the image located?
(C) m against v (r) 4. Light enters from air to glass having refractive index 1.50.
What is the speed of light in the glass? The speed of light in
vacuum is 3 × 108 ms–1.
5. Find the power of a concave lens of focal length 2 m.
6. Find the focal length of a lens of power –2.0 D. What type
of lens is this ?
7. A convex lens is of focal length 10 cm what is its power?
v
(D) (m + 1) against f (s) 8. Under what condition will a concave mirror produce an erect
image? A virtual image ? An image smaller than the object?
An image larger than the object?
9. A boy is standing in front of plane mirror finds his image at
a distance of 20m from himself. Find the distance between
boy and mirror.
DIRECTIONS : Give answer in one word or one sentence. 10. An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from a concave
1. Define refraction. mirror of focal length 20 cm. Find the image distance and
2. What is the relation between focal length and radius of nature of image.
curvature? 11. Refractive index of glass for light of yellow, green and red
3. What is reflection of light? colours are y, g and r respectively. Rearrange these
4. A man is moving towards a plane mirror at the speed of 8 symbols in the increasing order of values.
cm/sec. What is the relative speed of man towards his image? 12. Give the ratio of velocities of light rays of wavelengths 4000
5. According to sign conventions for mirrors what sign is given Å and 8000 Å.
to image distance? 13. An object is placed at a distance of 12 cm in front of a
6. Magnification of a mirror is always less than 1, which mirror concave mirror. It forms a real image four times larger than
is this? the object. Calculate the distance of the image from the
7. Refractive indices of benzene and kerosene oil are 1.5 and mirror.
1.4 respectively. Which is optically denser? 14. With respect to air, the refractive index of ice is 1.31 arid
8. What do you understand by optically denser and optically that of rock salt is 1.54. Calculate the refractive index of
rarer medium? rock salt with respect to ice.
9. What is the relation between 1n2 and 2n1? 15. Light enters from air into glass plate which has a refractive
10. For the same angle of incidence; the angle of refraction in index of 1.50. Calculate the speed of light in glass. The
three different media A, B and C are 150°; 25° and 35° speed of light in air is 3 × 108 ms–1.
respectively. In which medium velocity of light will be 16. A concave mirror and a convex lens are held separately in
minimum? water. What changes, if any, do you expect in the focal length
11. Which lens is known as converging and which is known as of either?
diverging lens?
Light-Reflection and Refraction 43

30 cm. in contact with a concave lens of focal length 20

cm? Is the system a converging or diverging lens? Ignore
DIRECTIONS : Give answer in 4 to 5 sentences. thickness of the lenses.
1. An object 5.0 cm in length is placed at a distance of 20 6. Two thin lenses of focal lengths + 10 cm and – 5cm are
cm. in front of a convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 kept in contact. What is the focal length and power of the
cm. Find the position of the image, its nature and size. combination?
2. A truck uses a convex mirror as view finder whose radius 7. If the wavelength of incident light on a (i) concave mirror
of curvature is 2.0 m. A maruti car is coming behind the and (ii) convex lens is increased, how will the focal length
truck at a distance of 10 m. What will be the position of of each of these change?
the image of the car and size of the image of the car when 8. Use the mirror formula to show that for an object lying
observed by the driver of the truck through the convex between the pole and focus of a concave mirror, the image
mirror ? formed is always virtual in nature.
3. An object is placed 90 cm away from a concave mirror of 9. A concave lens has focal length of 20 cm. At what distance
focal length 30 cm. Find the position and the nature of the from the lens a 5 cm tall object be placed so that it forms
image formed. an image at 15 cm from the lens? Also calculate the size
4. Two thin converging lenses of focal lengths 0.15 m and of the image formed.
0.30 m are held in contact with each other. Calculate power 10. Prove that image in a plane mirror is as far behind as the
and focal length of combination. object is in front of it.
5. What is the focal length of a convex lens of focal length 11. Prove that the size of image formed by a plane mirror is
equal to that of object.
 EBD_7005
44 PHYSICS

(a) both concave

(b) both convex
1. Define the principal focus of a concave mirror. (c) the mirror is concave and the lens is convex
2. The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is 20 cm. (d) the mirror is convex but the lens is concave.
What is its focal length ? 5. No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your image
3. Name a mirror that can give an erect and enlarged image appears erect. The mirror is likely to be
of an object. (a) plane (b) concave
4. Why do we prefer a convex mirror as a rear-view mirror (c) convex (d) either planer or convex
in vehicles? 6. Which of the following lenses would you prefer to use
5. Find the focal length of a convex mirror whose radius of while reading small letters found in a dictionary?
curvature is 32 cm. (a) A convex lens of focal length 50 cm
6. A concave mirror produces three times magnified real (b) A concave lens of focal length 50 cm.
image of an object placed at 10 cm in front of it. Where is (c) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm
the image located ? (d) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm
7. A ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into water. 7. We wish to obtain an erect image of an object, using a
Does the light ray bend towards the normal or away from concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. What should be the
the normal? Why? range of distance of the object from the mirror? What is
8. Light enters from air to glass having refractive index 50. the nature of the image? Is the image larger or smaller
What is the speed of light in the glass ? The speed of light than the object? Draw a ray diagram to show the image
formation in this case.
in vaccum is 3 × 108 m / sec.
8. Name the type of mirror used in the following situations.
9. Find out the medium having highest optical density. Also (a) Headlights of a car.
find the medium with lowest optical density. (b) Side/rear-view mirror of a vehicle.
10. You are given kerosene, turpentine and water. In which of (c) Solar furnace.
these does the light travel fastest? (d) Support your answer with reason.
11. Define 1 dioptre of power of a lens. 9. One-half of a convex lens is covered with a black paper.
12. A convex lens forms a real and inverted image of a needle Will this lens produce a complete image of the object?
at a distance of 50 cm from it. Where is the needle placed Verify your answer experimentally. Explain your
in front of the convex lens if the image is equal to the size observations.
of the object ? Also, find the power of the lens. 10. An object 5 cm in length is held 25 cm away from a
13. Find the power of a concave lens of focal length 2 m. converging lens of focal length 10 cm. Draw the ray
diagram and find the position, size and the nature of the
image formed.
11. A concave lens of focal length 15 cm forms an image 10
1. Which one of the following materials cannot be used to
cm from the lens. How far is the object placed from the
make a lens?
(a) Water (b) Glass lens? Draw the ray diagram.
(c) Plastic (d) Clay 12. An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from a convex
2. The image formed by a concave mirror is observed to be mirror of focal length 15 cm. Find the position and nature
virtual, erect and larger than the object. Where should be of the image.
13. The magnification produced by a plane mirror is +1. What
the position of the object?
does this mean?
(a) Between the principal focus and the centre of
curvature 14. An object 5 cm in length is placed at a distance of 20 cm
(b) At the centre of curvature in front of a convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm.
(c) Beyond the centre of curvature Find the position of the image, its nature and size.
(d) Between the pole of the mirror and its principal focus. 15. An object of size 7 cm is placed at 27 cm in front of a
concave mirror of focal length 18 cm. At what distance
3. Where should an object be placed in front of a convex
from the mirror should a screen be placed, so that a sharp
lens to get a real image of the size of the object?
(a) At the principal focus of the lens focussed image can be otained ? Find the size and nature
(b) At twice the focal length of the image.
(c) At infinity 16. Find the focal length of a lens of power –2D. What type of
(d) Between the optical centre of the lens and its principal lens is this ?
17. A doctor has prescribed a corrective len s
focus
of power + 1.5D. Find the focal length of the lens. Is the
4. A spherical mirror and a thin spherical lens have each a
focal length of –15 cm. The mirror and the lens are likely prescribed lens diverging or converging?
to be –
Light-Reflection and Refraction 45

1. Why does a light ray incident on a rectangular glass slab 1. An object is placed at a distance of 15 cm from a convex
immersed in any medium emerges parallel to itself? Explain mirror of focal length 30 cm. Find the position and the na-
using a diagram. ture of the image.
2. A pencil when dipped in water in a glass tumbler appears to
2. An object 3 cm in height is placed 20cm from convex lens
be bent at the interface of air and water. Will the pencil
of focal length 12 cm. Find the nature, position and height
appear to be kerosene or turpentine. Support your answer
of the image.
with reason.
3. Sudha finds out that the sharp image of the window pane of 3. A concave lens has focal length of 15 cm. At what distance
her science laboratory is formed at a distance of 15 cm from should the object from the lens be placed so that it forms an
the lens. She now tries to focus the building visible to her image at 10 cm from the lens ? Also, find the magnification
outside the window instead of the window pane without dis- produced by the lens.
turbing the lens. In which direction will she move the screen 4. A man standing in front of a spherical mirror, finds his image
to obtain a sharp image of the building? What is the ap- having a very small head, a fat body and legs of normal size.
proximate focal length of this lens? What types of mirrors are used in the small parts?
4. The image of a candle flame formed by a lens is obtained 5. An image Y is formed of a point object X by a lens whose
on a screen placed on the other side of the lens. If the image optic axis is AB as shown in figure. Draw a ray diagram to
is three times the size of the flame and the distance between locate the lens and its focus. If the image Y of the object X
lens and image is 80 cm. at what distance should the candle is formed by a concave mirror (having the same optic axis
be placed from the lens? What is the nature of the image at AB) instead of lens, draw another ray diagram to locate the
a distance of 80 cm and the lens? mirror and its focus. Write down the steps of construction
of the ray diagrams.

A B
Y
 EBD_7005
46 PHYSICS

7. An object is placed 60 cm in front of a concave mirror. The

real image formed by the mirror is located 30 cm in front of
DIRECTIONS : This section contains multiple choice questions. the mirror. What is the object’s magnification?
Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which (a) + 2 (b) –2
ONLY ONE is correct. (c) + 0.5 (d) –0.5
1. Where should an object be placed in front of a convex lens 8. Two plane mirrors are set at right angle and a flower is placed
to get a real image of the size of the object? in between the mirrors. The number of images of the flower
(a) At the principal focus of the lens which will be seen is
(a) One (b) Two
(b) At twice the focal length
(c) Three (d) Four
(c) At infinity
9. A man is 6.0 ft tall. What is the smallest size plane mirror he
(d) Between the optical centre of the lens and its principal
can use to see his entire image
focus.
(a) 3.0 ft (b) 6.0 ft
2. Find the angle of incidence and angle of reflection from the
(c) 12 ft (d) 24 ft
diagram.
10. An object is placed 60 cm in front of a convex mirror. The
virtual image formed by the mirror is located 30 cm behind
the mirror. What is the object’s magnification
(a) + 2 (b) –2
(c) + 0.5 (d) – 0.5
11. Light rays A and B fall on optical component X and come
out as C and D.
Mirror
surface 35°

(a) 45°, 40° (b) 55°, 55°

(c) 60°, 60° (d) 30°, 30°
3. A spherical mirror and a thin spherical lens have each a focal
length of –15 cm. The mirror and the lens are likely to be The optical component is a
(a) both concave. (a) concave lens (b) convex lens
(b) both convex. (c) convex mirror (d) prism
(c) the mirror is concave and the lens is convex. 12. An object is placed 20.0 cm in front of a concave mirror
(d) the mirror is convex, but the lens is concave. whose focal length is 25.0 cm. What is the magnification of
4. Which of the following lenses would you prefer to use while the object?
reading small letters found in a dictionary? (a) + 5.0 (b) – 5.0
(a) A convex lens of focal length 50 cm. (c) + 0.20 (d) – 0.20
(b) A concave lens of focal length 50 cm. 13. An object is placed at the radius of curvature of a concave
(c) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm. spherical mirror. The image formed by the mirror is
(d) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm.
(a) located at the focal point of the mirror.
5. One light wave is incident upon a plate of refracting index
(b) located between the focal point and the radius of cur-
. Incident angle i, for which refractive & reflective waves
vature of the mirror.
are mutually perpendicular will be
(c) located at the center of curvature of the mirror.
(a) i = 45o (b) i = sin–1( )
(d) located out beyond the center of curvature of the mirror.
(c) i = cosec–1( ) (d) i = tan–1( ) 14. If the refractive indices for water and diamond relative to
6. An object is situated at a distance of f/2 from a convex lens air are 1.33 and 2.4 respectively, then the refractive index
of focal length f. Distance of image will be – of diamond relative to water is –
(a) + (f/2) (b) + (f/3) (a) .55 (b) 1.80
(c) + (f/4) (d) – f (c) 3.19 (d) None of these
Light-Reflection and Refraction 47

15. There is an equiconvex lens of focal length of 20cm. If the the mirror. How far is the object from the mirror
lens is cut into two equal parts perpendicular to the prin- (a) 25 cm (b) 30 cm
ciple axis, the focal lengths of each part will be (c) 150 cm (d) –150 cm
(a) 20 cm (b) 10 cm 23. A number of images of a candle flame can be seen in a thick
(c) 40 cm (d) 15 cm mirror. The brightest image is
16. An object is placed 20.0 cm in front of a concave mirror (a) Fourth (b) Second
whose focal length is 25.0 cm. Where is the image located? (c) Last (d) First
(a) 1.0 × 102 cm in front of the mirror 24. A ray from air enters water, then through a thick layer of
(b) 1.0 × 102 cm behind the mirror glass placed below water. After passing through glass, it
(c) 5.0 × 101 cm in front of the mirror again comes out in air medium. Then final emergent ray
(d) 5.0 × 101 cm behind the mirror will
17. Which statement best describes the property of light waves (a) Bend towards the normal
illustrated in the diagram below? (b) Bend away from the normal
(c) Suffer lateral displacement
(d) Have the same path as if it had not passed through glass
and water.
25. A concave spherical mirror has a radius of curvature of 100
cm. What is its focal length
(a) 50 cm (b) 100 cm
(c) 200 cm (d) 300 cm
26. Light is incident on an air-water interface at an angle of 25°
(a) Some materials absorb light waves. to the normal. What angle does the refracted ray make
with the normal
(b) Some materials reflect light waves.
(a) 19° (b) 34°
(c) Light waves are refracted by some materials.
(c) 25° (d) 90°
(d) Light waves are emitted by some materials. 27. An object is placed 10.0 cm from a diverging lens which
18. Light waves forms an image 6.5 cm from the lens. What is the focal
(a) Require air or another gas to travel through
length of the lens? Include the sign.
(b) Require an electric field to travel through
(c) Require a magnetic field to travel through (a) + 3.9 cm (b) – 16.5 cm
(d) Can travel through perfect vacuum (c) – 21.2 cm (d) – 18.6 cm
19. An object is placed 40.0 cm in front of a convex mirror. 28. Under what conditions does a diverging lens form a virtual
The image appears 15 cm behind the mirror. What is the image of a real object
focal length of the mirror? (a) Only if u > f.
(a) + 24 cm (b) + 11 cm (b) Only if u < f.
(c) – 11 cm (d) – 24 cm (c) Only if u = f
20. Morning sun is not so hot as the mid day sun because (d) A diverging lens always forms a virtual image of a real
(a) Sun is cooler in the morning
object.
(b) Heat rays travel slowly is the morning
(c) It is God gift 29. A lens produces a enlarged, virtual image. What kind of
(d) The sun’s rays travel a longer distance through atmo- lens is it?
sphere in the morning (a) converging
21. The layered lens shown below is made of two different trans- (b) diverging
parent materials. (c) It could be either diverging or converging.
(d) None
30. In an experiment to determine the focal length of a concave
lens, a student obtained the image of a distant window on
the screen. To determine the focal length of the lens, she/he
should measure the distance between the
(a) lens and the screen only
(b) lens and the window only
A point object is placed on its axis. The object will form
(c) screen and the window only
(a) one image (b) infinite images
(c) no image (d) two images (d) screen and the lens and also between the screen and
22. An object is placed in front of a concave mirror of focal the window
length 50.0 cm and a real image is formed 75 cm in front of
 EBD_7005
48 PHYSICS
31. Ashima looks into the mirror and sees the reflection of 3 cm is placed. On looking through, the image of the mark
the picture behind her. appears above the mark. It is below the upper surface of the
slab by
Picture (a) 2.5 cm (b) 1.5 cm
Mirror
(c) 2 cm (d) 1.75 cm
37. The critical angle of a transparent medium denser than air
(a) increases with its refractive index
(b) decreases with its refractive index
(c) is independent of its refractive index
Image seen by Ashima
in the mirror (d) None of these
38. Orange, blue and yellow are 3 of the colours formed by a
prism. Their order according to increasing deviation is
(a) blue, orange, yellow (b) yellow, blue, orange
(c) blue, yellow, orange (d) orange, yellow, blue
39. Images formed by an object placed between two plane
Which of the following is the picture that is behind mirrors whose reflecting surfaces make an angle of 90° with
Ashima ? one another lie on a
(a) Straight line (b) Zig-zag curve
(c) Circle (d) Ellipse
40. A diver in a swimming pool wants to signal his distress to a
person lying on the edge of the pool by flashing his water-
(a) (b)
proof torch
(a) He must direct the beam of light vertically upwards
(b) He must direct the beam horizontally
(c) He must direct the beam at an angle to the vertical which
is slightly lesser than the critical angle
(d) He must direct the beam at an angle to the vertical which
(c) (d) is slightly greater than the critical angle
41. Two plane mirrors are inclined at an angle . A ray of light
is incident on one mirror and is then reflected from the other
mirror. Then the angle between the first ray and the final
32. On the basis of experiment ‘to trace the path of a ray of
ray will be
light passing through a rectangular glass slab’ four students
(a) (b) 2
arrived at the following interpretations : (c) between and 2 (d) > 2
I. Angle of incidence is greater than the angle of emergence. 42. A glass slab is placed in the path of a beam of convergent
II. Angle of emergence is less than the angle of refraction. light, then the point of convergence of light
III. Emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray. (a) moves towards the glass slab
IV. Emergent ray is parallel to the refracted ray. (b) moves away from the glass slab
The correct interpretation is that of the student. (c) remains at the same point
(a) I (b) II (d) undergoes a lateral shift
(c) III (d) IV 43. A real image is formed by a convex mirror when the object
33. Light waves is placed at
(a) are mechanical waves (a) infinite
(b) are electromagnetic waves (b) between center of curvature and focus
(c) travel with the same velocity in all media (c) between focus and pole
(d) requires a material medium for their propagation (d) none of the above
44. A virtual image is formed by a concave mirror when the
34. Virtual images of object of the same size are formed by
object is placed between
(a) a concave mirror (b) a convex mirror
(a) infinity and center of curvature
(c) a plane mirror (d) all the above (b) center of curvature and focus
35. Two plane inclined mirrors form 5 images by multiple re-
(c) focus and the pole
flection. The angle of inclination is
(d) All of the above
(a) 90° (b) 60°
(c) 45° (d) 30° 45. Which of the following are used in a Kaleidoscope
36. A bright × (cross) mark is made on a sheet of white paper. (a) plane mirrors (b) concave
Over the white paper a rectangular glass-slab of thickness (c) convex mirrors (d) all of the above
Light-Reflection and Refraction 49

46. When a spherical convex lens made up of glass is immersed (b) When object is kept at a distance less than its focal
in water, its focal length length
(c) When object is placed between the focus and centre
(a) decreases (b) does not change of curvature
(c) increases (d) none of the above (d) When object is kept at a distance greater than its radius
47. Out of the following of curvature
(a) pole (b) focus 53. In case of a concave mirror, when the object is situated at the
principal focus, the image formed is
(c) radius of curvature (d) principal axis
(a) real and inverted (b) of infinite size
for a spherical mirror, the quantities that do not depend on (c) lies at infinity (d) all of these
whether the rays are paraxial or not, are 54. For an object at infinity, a concave mirror produces an image
(a) a, b, c and d (b) only a, b and c at its focus which is
(c) only a, c and d (d) only a and d (a) enlarged
(b) virtual
48. A person standing at some distance from a mirror finds his (c) erect
image erect, virtual and of the same size. Then the mirror is (d) real, inverted and diminished
possibly 55. An inverted image can be seen in a convex mirror,
(a) plane mirror (a) under no circumstances
(b) when the object is very far from the mirror
(b) concave mirror
(c) when the object is at a distance equal to the radius of
(c) plane or concave mirror curvature of the mirror
(d) plane or concave or convex mirror (d) when the distance of the object from the mirror is equal
49. Refraction of light from air to glass and from air to water to the focal length of the mirror
are shown in figure (i) and (ii) below. The value of the angle 56. In order to get a diminished virtual image, the object can be
in the case of refraction as shown in figure (iii) will be : placed anywhere in front of a
air (a) concave mirror (b) plane mirror
35°
60° (c) convex mirror (d) none of these
57. A full length image of a distant tall building can definitely
glass be seen by using
(i) (ii)
(a) a concave mirror
water 41° (b) a convex mirror
air
60° (c) a plane mirror
41° (d) both concave as well as plane mirror
58. The concave mirrors are used in
(a) reflecting telescopes
glass (b) magic- lanterns
(iii) (c) cinema projectors
water (d) all of these
41° 59. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) A convex lens has 4 dioptre power having a focal length
(a) 30° (b) 35° 0.25 m
(c) 60° (d) none of the above (b) A convex lens has –4 dioptre power having a focal
50. The focal length of a plane mirror is length 0.25 m
(a) positive (b) negative (c) A concave lens has 4 dipotre power having a focal
(c) zero (d) infinity length 0.25 m
51. Rays from the sun converge at a point 15 cm in front of a (d) A concave lens has – 4 dioptre power having a focal
concave mirror. Where should an object be placed so that length 0.25 m
size of its image is equal to the size of the object? 60. A virtual, erect and magnified image of an object is to be
(a) 15 cm in front of the mirror produced with a concave mirror of focal length 12 cm.
Which of the following object distance should be chosen
(b) 30 cm in front of the mirror
for this purpose?
(c) between 15 cm and 30 cm in front of the mirror
(a) 10 cm (b) 14 cm
(d) more than 30 cm in front of the mirror. (c) 18 cm (d) 24 cm
52. Under which of the following conditions a concave mirror 61. A 10 mm long awlpin is placed vertically in front of a
can form an image larger than the actual object? concave mirror. A 5 mm long image of the awl pin is formed
(a) When the object is kept at a distance equal to its radius at 30 cm in front of the mirror. The focal length of this
of curvature mirror is
 EBD_7005
50 PHYSICS
(a) – 30 cm (b) – 20 cm (a) wavelength (b) frequency
(c) – 40 cm (d) – 60 cm (c) amplitude (d) velocity
62. The linear magnification for a mirror is the ratio of the size 6. The focal length of a concave mirror doesn’t depend upon
of the image to the size of the object, and is denoted by m. (a) The radius of curvature of the mirror
Then, m is equal to (symbols have their usual meanings): (b) The object distance from the mirror
f f u (c) The image distance from the mirror
(a) (b)
f u f (d) The material of mirror
7. The radius of curvature of a plane mirror can’t be
f f v (a) zero (b) infinite
(c) (d)
f v f (c) negative (d) finite
63. In case of a real and inverted image, the magnification of a 8. Tick out the correct statements in the following
mirror is (a) Light travels with a speed greater than that of sound
(a) positive (b) negative (b) Light cannot travel through vacuum
(c) zero (d) infinity (c) Light travels in a straight line
64. Magnification produced by a rear view mirror fitted in (d) Light has no weight
vehicles
9. Choose the wrong statements regarding the image forma-
(a) is less than one
tion in a convex spherical mirror
(b) is more than one
(c) is equal to one (a) Images are always larger than the actual object
(d) can be more than or less than one depending upon the (b) Images are always smaller than the actual object
position of the object in front of it. (c) Images are always of the same size as the actual object
65. The ratio of the sine of angle of incidence to the sine of (d) Images are always half of the actual object
angle of refraction is called 10. The image formed by a convex spherical mirror is
(a) refractive index (b) optical density (a) virtual (b) erect
(c) relative density (d) none of these (c) real (d) inverted
11. When light passes from air into glass it experiences a change of
(a) Speed (b) Wavelength and speed
(c) Frequency (d) amplitude
DIRECTIONS : This section contains multiple choice questions. 12. If a real object is placed inside the focal point of a concave
Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which mirror, the image is
ONE OR MORE may be correct.
(a) upright (b) real
1. Which of the following materials be used to make a lens? (c) virtual (d) inverted
(a) Water (b) Glass 13. A person standing infront of a mirror finds his image smaller
(c) Plastic (d) Clay than himself and erect. This implies the mirror must not be
2. The image formed by a concave mirror is observed to be (a) plane (b) concave
virtual, erect and larger than the object. Where should not (c) convex (d) None of the above
be the position of the object? 14. Choose the wrong statements regarding refraction of light
(a) Between the principal focus and the centre of curva- (a) The bending of light rays when they enter from one
ture medium to another medium
(b) At the centre of curvature (b) Splitting of white light into seven colours when it passes
(c) Beyond the centre of curvature through the prism
(d) Between the pole of the mirror and its principal focus. (c) Bending of light round corners of obstacles and aper-
3. No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your image tures
appears erect. The mirror may be (d) Coming back of light from a bright smooth surface
(a) plane (b) concave 15. A converging lens has a focal length of 15 cm. An object is
(c) convex (d) none of these placed 9.0 cm from the lens. Describe the image formed
4. A lens behaves as a converging lens in air and diverging (a) upright (b) inverted
lens in water. The refractive index of the material of the (c) virtual (d) enlarged
lens can’t be 16. Four students reported the following observation tables for
(a) 1 (b) between 1 and 1.33 the experiment, to trace the path of a ray of light passing
(c) 1.33 (d) greater than 1.33 through a glass slab for different angles of incidence. The
5. On passing through a glass slab, red light doesn’t suffer a observations, likely to be wrong are those of student.
change of
Light-Reflection and Refraction 51

24. If two mirrors are inclined to each other at 90°, the image
i r e i r e
seen may be
30° 40° 30° 30° 20° 30° (a) One (b) Two
40° 50° 40° 40° 30° 40° (c) Three (d) Four
50° 50° 50° 50° 40° 50° 25. In case of three plane-mirrors meeting at a point to form a
corner of a cube, if incident light suffers one reflection on
I II each mirror
(a) The emergent ray is antiparallel to incident one
i r e i r e
(b) The emergent ray is perpendicular to incident one
30° 20° 40° 30° 20° 20° (c) The emergent ray is in phase with incident one
40° 30° 50° 40° 30° 30° (d) The emergent ray is in opposite phase with incident one
50° 40° 60° 50° 40° 40°

III IV
(a) I (b) II DIRECTIONS : Study the given passage(s) and answer the
(c) III (d) IV following questions.
17. The absolute refractive index of a medium depends on Passage-I
(a) nature of the medium only Inside a substance such as glass or water, light travels more
(b) wavelength of light only slowly than it does in a vacuum. If c denotes the speed of
(c) temperature of the medium only light in a vacuum and v denotes its speed through some
(d) the angle of incidence other substance, then v = c/n
18. Mark the correct statements where n is a constant called the index of refraction.
(a) Refractive index decreases with increase in temperature To good approximation, a substance’s index of refraction
(b) Refractive index depends on the angle of incidence does not depend on the wavelength of light. For instance,
(c) Foucault demonstrated experimentally that the speed when red and blue light waves enter water, they both slow
of light in air is more than that in water down by about the same amount. More precise
(d) Polarization of light was discovered by Malus measurements, however, reveal that n varies with
19. Mark the correct statements about a virtual image wavelength. Table presents some indices of refraction of
Custon glass, for different wavelengths of visible light. A
(a) A virtual image can be photographed
nanometer (nm) is 10–9 meters. In a vacuum, light travels
(b) A virtual image can be seen as c = 3.0 × 108 m/s
(c) A virtual image can be photographed by exposing a Table : Indices of refraction of Custon glass
film at the location of the image
(d) A virtual image may be diminished or enlarged in size Wavelength in Indices
Approximately colour
in comparison to an object. vacuum (nm) n
20. Mark the correct statements yellow 580 1.5
(a) A convex mirror produces an erect image yellow orange 600 1.498
(b) A convex mirror always produces an erect image of an orange 620 1.496
erect object orange red 640 1.494
(c) A convex mirror always produces a diminished in size
1. Inside Custon glass
image (a) Orange light travels faster than yellow light
(d) A convex mirror is used as a shaving mirror (b) Yellow light travels faster than orange light
21. In vacuum the speed of light does not depend on (c) Orange and Yellow light travels equally fast
(a) Wavelength (b) Frequency (d) We cannot determine which color of light travels faster
(c) Intensity (d) Speed of observer 2. For blue-green of wavelength 520 nm, the index of refraction
22. When light passes from air to water which of the following of Custon glass is probably closest to
changes (a) 1.49 (b) 1.50
(a) Wavelength (b) Velocity (c) 1.51 (d) 1.52
(c) Frequency (d) Colour 3. Which of the following phenomena happens because n
23. In case of reflection by a plane-mirror, which of the varies with wavelength
following statements are not correct (a) A lens focuses light
(b) A prism breaks sunlight into different colors
(a) It can never give real image
(c) Total internal reflections ensures that light travels down
(b) It can never give inverted image
a fiber optic cable
(c) It changes left into right
(d) Light rays entering a pond change direction at the
(d) It changes front into back pond’s surface
 EBD_7005
52 PHYSICS
Passage-II 7. Assertion : As the temperature of a medium increases the
A 5.0 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal refractive index decreases.
axis of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. The distance of Reason : When a ray travels from vacuum to a medium,
the object from the lens is 30 cm.
then µ is known as absolute refractive index of the medium.
4. What is the distance of image from the pole of lens?
(a) v = 60 cm (b) v = – 60 cm (µvacuum = 1).
(c) v = 30 cm (d) v = –30 cm 8. Assertion : If a spherical mirror is dipped in water, its
5. The size of the image formed by the lens is focal length remains unchanged.
(a) 1 twice the object size Reason : A laser light is focused by a converging lens. There
(b) halved the object size will be a significant chromatic aberration.
(c) one-fourth the object size 9. Assertion : A virtual image cannot be photographed.
(d) one -third the object size Reason : Only real objects are photographed.
6. What is the power of the used lens?
10. Assertion : The small object, to be seen in a microscope,
(a) + 5 D (b) – 5 D
(c) + 0.5 D (d) – 0.5 D is kept within the two foci of its objective.
Reason : In this case, the image formed by the objective is
nearer to the eyepiece.
11. Assertion : Red light travels faster in glass than green light.
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains an Assertion Reason : The refractive index of glass is less for red light
followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question than for green light.
on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that 12. Assertion : As light travels from one medium to another,
best describes the two statements.
the frequency of light does not change.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is Reason : Because frequency is the characteristic of source.
the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is
not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements (A, B, C
(d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct. and D) given in Column I and 4 statements (p, q, r, s ) in Column
1. Assertion : A point object is placed at a distance of 26 cm II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching
from a convex mirror of focal length 26 cm. The image will with one or more statement(s) given in Column II. Match the
not form at infinity. entries in column I with entries in column II.
1 1 1 1. A convex lens ( f ) forms an image on a screen Considering
Reason : For above given system the equation
u v f the object to be at the zero mark in a scale, match the
gives v = .
following.
2. Assertion : When a concave mirror is held under water, its
focal length will increase. Column I Column II
Reason : The focal length of a concave mirror is indepen- (A) Image (p) Moves the image of
dent of the medium in which it is placed. infinite object further
3. Assertion : A convex mirror is used as a driver’s mirror. away
Reason : Because convex mirror’s field of view is large (B) Additional lens in contact (q) Not unique as lens is
and images formed are virtual, erect and diminshed. moved between object
4. Assertion : Keeping a point object fixed, if a plane mirror and source.
is moved, the image will also move. (C) Reduction in refractive (r) Virtual for screen
Reason : In case of a plane mirror, distance of object and index position at a distance
Its image is equal from any point on the mirror.
< 4 f from the object.
5. Assertion : When the object moves with a velocity v , its
(D) Slicing the lens to have (s) Object at d forms
image in the plane mirror moves with a velocity of 2v . one plane and another real image further
Reason : The minimum height of the mirror to be required convex surface nearer
h plano-convex lens.
to see the full image of man of height h is .
2 A B C D
6. Assertion : If both plane mirror and object are moved (a) p, q q r q,r
through a distance x, then the image moves through a dis- (b) r q q,r,s r,s
tance 2x. (c) p,r s p p, r
Reason : When the object is fixed and plane mirror is
(d) p q, r r s
moved through a distance x. Then the image is also moves
through the distance 2x.
Light-Reflection and Refraction 53

2. In the followoing columns, the positon of an object is given 9. A 5 cm tall object is placed on the principal axis of diverging
is column I and the nature of image formed in a concave lens of focal length 15 cm and at a distance of 10 cm from
mirror is given in column II. it. Find the nature, position and size of image.
Column I Column II 10. An object 3.0 cm high is placed perpendicular to the
(Position of object) (Nature of image) principal axis of a concave lens of focal length 15.0 cm.
(A) At infinity (p) Real The image is formed at a distance of 10.0 cm from the lens.
(B) Between infinity and centre (q) Inverted Calculate
of curvature (i) distance at which the object is placed and
(C) At centre of curvature (r) Diminished (ii) size and nature of the image formed.
(D) At focus (s) Enlarged 11. An object 2.0 cm in size is placed 20.0 cm in front of a
(t) Same size concave mirror of focal length 10.0 cm. Find the distance
A B C D from the mirror at which a screen should be placed in order
(a) p, q q r, s q, r to obtain sharp image. What will be the size and nature of
(b) r, s q,r s, t p,q,r,s the image formed ?
(c) p, s q r,s,t r 12. A convex lens has a focal length of 25 cm. Calculate the
(d) p, q, r p, q, r p, q, t p, q distance of the object from the lens if the image is to be
formed on the opposite side of the lens at a distance of
75 cm from the lens. What will be the nature of the image?
DIRECTIONS : Following are integer based/Numeric based 13. An object 3 cm high is placed at a distance of 9 cm in front
questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one of a concave mirror of focal length 18 cm. Find the position,
nature and size of the image formed.
integer or numeric value.
14. An object 4 cm high is placed at a distance of 20 cm in
1. A monochromatic ray of light strikes the surface of a front of a convex lens of focal length 12 cm. Find the
transparent medium at an angle of incidence 60° and gets position, nature and size of the image formed.
refracted into the medium at an angle of refraction 45°. 15. Find the position, nature and size of the image of an object
What is the refractive index of the medium? 3 cm high placed at a distance 6 cm from a concave mirror
[sin 60° = 0.866, sin 45° = 0.707] of focal length 12 cm.
2. A real image, 4/5 size of the object is formed 18 cm from a 16. Find the position of the object which when placed in front
lens. Calculate the focal length of the lens. of a convex mirror produces a virtual image, which is half
3. A beam of light converges to a point P. A lens is placed in the size of the object.
the path of the convergent beam 12 cm from P. At what 17. Find the position of an object which when placed in front
point does the beam converge if the lens is (a) a convex of a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm produces a virtual
lens of focal length 20 cm, and (b) a concave lens of focal image, which is twice the size of the object.
length 16 cm? 18. An object is kept in front of a concave mirror of focal length
4. An object 50 cm tall is placed on the principal axis of a 15 cm. The image formed is three times the size of object.
convex lens. Its 20 cm tall image is formed on the screen Calculate two possible distances of the object from the
placed at a distance of 10 cm from the lens. Calculate the mirror.
focal length of the lens. 19. Monochromatic light of wavelength 589 nm is incident from
5. An object 20 cm tall is placed on the principal axis of a air on a water surface. What are the wavelength, frequency
convex lens. Its 30 cm tall image is formed on the screen and speed of (a) reflected (b) refracted light? (n of
placed at a distance of 10 cm from the lens. Calculate the water = 1.33)
focal length of the lens. 20. An object 10 cm long is placed at 15 cm away from a convex
6. An object 30 cm tall is placed on the principal axis of a lens of focal length 10 cm. Find the position and size of
convex lens. Its 10 cm tall inverted image is formed on the image.
screen placed at a distance of 15 cm from the lens. Calculate 21. (a) State the relation between object distance, image
the focal length of the lens. distance and focal length of a spherical mirror.
7. A convex lens has a focal length of 30 cm. Calculate at (b) A concave mirror of focal length 15 cm form an image
what distance should the object be placed from the lens so of an object kept at a distance of 10 cm from the mirror.
that in forms an image at 60 cm on the other side of the Find the position nature and size of the image formed
lens. by it.
8. Where should an object be placed from a converging lens (c) Draw a ray diagram to show the image formed by a
of focal length 20 cm, so as to obtain a real image of concave mirror when an object is placed between pole
magnification 2?Find the magnification produced by the and focus of the mirror.
lens in this case.
 EBD_7005
54 PHYSICS

(a) total internal reflection of light

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-10) : This section contains multiple choice
(b) polarisation
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of
(c) diffraction pattern
which ONLY ONE is correct.
(d) interference pattern produced due to oil film
1. When viewed vertically a fish appears to be 4 meter below 8. If refractive index of glass is 1.50 and of water is 1.33, then
the surface of the lake. If the index of refraction of water is critical angle is
1.33, then the true depth of the fish is
2
(a) 5.32 metres (b) 3.32 metres (a) sin–1(8/9) (b) sin 1
3
(c) 4.32 metres (d) 6.32 metres
2. Light reflected from a boundary between an unknown sub-
1 8
stance and air is seen to become 100% polarized when the (c) cos (d) None of these
angle of incidence is 62.0°. What is the index of refraction 9
of the unknown substance? 9. Light waves can be polarised as they are
(a) 1.88 (b) 1.13 (a) transverse (b) of high frequency
(c) 2.14 (d) 0.532 (c) longitudinal (d) reflected
3. A convex lens of focal length 25 cm receives light from the 10. Diffraction and interference of light suggest
sun. A diverging lens of focal length – 12 cm is placed 37 (a) nature of light is electro-magnetic
cm to the right of the converging lens. Where is the final (b) wave nature
image located relative to the diverging lens? (c) nature is quantum
(a) 6 cm to the left (b) 25 cm to the left (d) nature of light is transverse
(c) At infinity (d) 12 cm to the right
4. A camera lens focuses light from a 12.0 m tall building lo- DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-14) : This section contains multiple
cated 35.0 m away on film 50.0 mm behind the lens. choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and
How tall is the image of the building on the film? (d) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
(a) 17.1 mm (b) 7.00 mm 11. A thin convavo convex lens has two surfaces of radii of
(c) 2.50 cm (d) 1.25 mm curvature R and 2R. The material of the lens has a refractive
5. In comparison to the case when a ray of light travels from index . When kept in air, the focal length of the lens
glass to air, the critical angle for total internal reflection of (a) will depend on the dircetion from which light is incident
light when a ray of light travels from glass to water is on it.
(a) greater (b) smaller (b) will be the same, irrespective of the direction from
(c) same (d) nothing can be predicted which ligth is incident on it.
6. Material A has critical angle iA, and material B has critical
angle iB (iB > iA). Then which of the following is true? R
(c) will be equal to
(i) Light can be totally internally reflected when it passes –1
from B to A
(ii) Light can be totally internally reflected when it passes 2R
(d) will be equal to
from A to B –1
(iii) Critical angle for total internal reflection is iB – iA 12. A concave and a convex lens have the same focal length of
(iv) Critical angle between A and B is 20 cm and are put in contact to form a lens combination.
The combination is used to view an object of 5 cm length
1 sin i A
sin kept at 20 cm from the lens combination. As compared to
sin i B the object, the image will not be
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv) (a) magnified and inverted
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv) (b) reduced and erect
7. On a rainy day, if there is an oil drop on tar road coloured (c) of the same size of the object and would be erect
rings are seen around this drop. This is due to (d) of the same size of the object, but would be inverted.
Light-Reflection and Refraction 55

13. A lens of power + 2 diopter is placed in contact with a lens 17. The focal length of the combination of lenses is
of power – 1 diopter. The combination will not behave like (a) + 20 cm (b) + 30 cm
(a) a convergent lens of focal length 50 cm (c) – 20 cm (d) – 30 cm
(b) a divergent lens of focal length 100 cm
(c) a convergent lens of focal length 100 cm DIRECTIONS (Qs. 18-19) : Each of these questions contains
(d) a convergent lens of focal length 200 cm an Assertion followed by reason. Read them carefully and answer
14. Total internal reflection cannot take place only if the question on the basis of following options. You have to select
(a) light goes from optically rarer medium (smaller the one that best describes the two statements.
refractive index) to optically denser medium
(b) light goes from optically denser medium to rarer (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is
medium the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) the refractive indices of the two media are close to (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is
different not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(d) the refractive indices of the two media are widely (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
different (d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 15-17) : Study the given paragraph(s) and 18. Assertion : Light rays retrace their path when their direc-
answer the following questions. tion is reversed (Law of reversibility of light rays)
Passage Reason : For the refraction light, water is denser than air,
A convex lens of focal length 20 cm is placed in contact but for the refraction of sound, water is rarer than air.
with a concave lens of focal length 60 cm. 19. Assertion : Speed of light in glass of
15. The power of the convex lens is µ = 1.5 is 2 × 108 m/sec
(a) + 5 D (b) – 5D Reason : According to dual theory, light has particle nature
(c) + 1.67 D (d) – 1.67 D and wave nature simultaneously.
16. The power of the concave lens is
(a) + 5D (b) – 5D
(c) – 1.67 D (d) + 1.67 D

DIRECTIONS (Q. 20): Following questions has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and 4 statements (p, q, r, s) in
Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with one or more statement(s) given in Column II. Match the
entries in column I with entries in column II.
20. An optical component and an object S placed along its optic axis are given in Column I. The distance between the object and
the component can be visaed. The properties of images are given in Column II. Match all the properties of images from
Column II with the appropriate components given in Column I.
Column I Column II

(A) (p) Real image

(B) (q) Virtual image

(C) (r) Magnified image

(D) (s) Image at infinity

A B C D
(a) p,q q r,s q,r
(b) p,q,r,s q p,q,r,s p,q,r,s
(c) p,s q r,s,t r
(d) p q, r r s
 EBD_7005
56 PHYSICS

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21-25): : Following are integer based/ 24. A concave mirror of radius 40 cm lies on a horizontal table
Numeric based questions. Each question, when worked out will and water is filled in it upto a height of 5.0 cm. A small dust
result in one integer or numeric value. particle P floats on the surface of water particle P lies
vertically above the point of contact of the mirror with the
21. The focal length of lens of refractive index 1.5 in air is table. Locate the image of the dust particle as seen from a
30 cm. When it is immersed in water of refractive index 4/ point directly above it. The refractive index of water is 4/3.
3, then find its focal length.
22. A glass sphere of radius 5 cm has a small bubble 2 cm
from its centre. The bubble is viewed along a diameter of
the sphere from the side on which it lies. How far from the
surface will it appear. Refractive index of glass is 1.5.
23. A converging beam of rays is incident on a diverging lens.
Having passed through the lens the rays intersect at a point
15 cm from the lens. If the lens is removed the point where
the rays meet will move 5 cm closer to the mounting that
holds the lens. Find focal length of the lens.

25. A plane mirror of thickness 3 cm of material of refractive

3
index is silvered on the back surface. A point object is
2
placed at a distance of 9 cm from the unsilvered face of the
mirror. Find the position of the brighest image.
Light-Reflection and Refraction 57

SO L U T I ON S
Brief Explanations
of
Selected Questions

8. Medium in which speed of light is less is known as optically

denser medium and the medium in which speed of light is
more is optically rarer medium.
Fill in the Blanks :
1. positive, negative. 2. straight lines. 1
9. They are reciprocal of each other i.e. 1 n 2
3. away from, towards 4. air-glass, glass-air, parallel 2 n1
5. focal length 6. dioptre 10. In medium B. (speed of light of is higher in a rarer medium).
7. equal 8. inwards, outwards. 11. Convex lens is known as converging lens and concave lens
9. concave 10. pole is known as diverging lens.
11. front 12. principal axis 12. Either at infinity or beyond 2F.
13. principal focus 14. concave 13. No.
15. lens. 16. convergence or divergence 14. (i) Atmospheric refraction
17. convex 18. 5/4 (ii) Total internal reflection.
15. Due to atmospheric refraction.
True / False :
1. True 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. True Short Answer Questions :
6. False. plane mirror can form real image as shown.
1. sin i ...(1)
a ng
sin r

sin y
g na
sin x

N
i
A (R)
7. True 8. True 9. True 10. True 11. True D
12. False 13. True 14. False 15. True 16. False Glass r y
17. True 18. False 19. False (D)
A (R)
Match the Following : x
1. (A) q; (B) p; (C) r; (D) p N
2. (A) r; (B) s; (C) q; (D) p But y = r [alt. s ]
Very Short Answer Questions : x = i [ of emergence = of incidence]
1. The bending of light when it passes from one medium to
i.e. sin r
another is called refraction. g na
sin i
1 sin i
Radius of curvature Taking reciprocal, ...(2)
2. Focal length = g na sin r
2
3. Sending back of light in the same medium by a surface is 1
called reflection of light. From (1) & (2), a n g
4. 16 cm/sec. If an object moves towards the plane mirror with g na
speed v, then image appears to move with speed 2 v. 2. When white light passes through a transparent medium like
5. (i) for real image negative, a glass prism it splits into seven colours. This phenomenon
(ii) for virtual image positive is called as dispersion of light.
6. Convex The dispersion of light occurs due to different speeds of
7. Benzene different colours when it passes through a glass prism.
 EBD_7005
58 PHYSICS
3. Magnification, m = – 3 (since image is real)
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 1 1
Object distance, u = – 10 cm.
Image distance, v = ? f v u 20 v 10 v 10 20 20 20
We know that magnification for the mirror v = 20 cm
v v v 20
m or 3 or v = – 30 cm. m 2
u 10 u 10
Speed of light in air m=2
4. Refractive index of glass = Image is formed 20cm behind the mirror i.e. virtual and
Speed of light in glass
erect and its m = 2. i.e. it is enlarged.
3 108 11. r
< g < y.
or 1.5 12. 1:1
Speed of light in glass
13. Given : Object distance u = – 12 cm.
3 108 Magnification m = – 4.
or Speed of light in glass = ms 1 2 108 ms 1

1.50 v h
The speed of light in glass is 2 × 108 ms–1. We know that, m = – =
u h
5. Focal length, f = – 2m (concave lens)
1 1 v v
–4=– =– = – 48 cm
Power, P f (in m) 2
0.5 D u ( 12)

6. The power of this lens has negative (–) sign, so it is a So, image is formed at a distance of 48 cm on the same
concave lens. side of object.
14. Given : airnice = 1.31, airnrock = 1.54
1
Power, P air nice 154
.
f (in m) n = = = 1.18.
air nice 131
.
ice rock

1 1
2.0 or f m 15. nga = 1.5, va = 3.0 × 108 ms–1, vg = ?
f 2.0
or f = – 0.50 m va va 3 108
Focal length, f = – 0.50 m nga = v vg = n =
g ga 15
.
7. Here, the focal length of the lens is given in cm. We should
Speed of light in glass vg = 2 × 108 ms–1.
first convert the focal length into m.
16. Convex lens increases its focal length, while the focal
10 length of concave mirror remains same.
Now, 10 cm = m 0.1m
100
So, focal length, f = 0.1m (a convex lens has positive fo- Long Answer Questions :
cal length) 1. Radius of curvature of convex mirror, R = 30 cm.
1 R 30 cm
Now, P Focal length of convex mirror, f 15cm.
f (in metres) 2 2
Now h = 5 cm, u = – 20 cm, v = ?, h = ?
1 1 10
We get, P or P
0.1 1 1 1 1
Using the mirror formula f v u
, we have
Thus, power P = + 10 dioptre (or + 10 D)
The plus sign with the power indicates what it is a con-
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 4 3
verging lens (or convex lens)
8. The image will be virtual and erect if < F, the image will v f u 15 20 15 20 60
be smaller if > 2F and larger if < 2F.
60
9. Let the distance between boy and miror by x. v 8.6 cm.
7
Boy x
Mirror Image Thus, image is formed at a distance of 8.6 cm behind the
x
i.e. x + x = 20 2x = 20 x = 10 m convex mirror. The image is virtual and erect.
10. u = – 10 cm, f = – 20 cm h v
m
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 h u
f v u 20 v 10 v 10 20 20 20 h 8.6 8.6
h 5 2.15 cm.
5 20 20
Light-Reflection and Refraction 59

2. For convex mirror, we have given 9. f = – 20 cm, h0 = 5 cm, v = – 15 cm.

u = –10 m, R = 2.0 m
1 1 1
Using – we get,
R 2.0m f v u
So, f 1.0 m
2 2
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 – –
Using the mirror formula, u u v f –15 (–20)
v f
1 20 15 5
1 1 1 1 1 11 = =–
We get u 300 300
v f u 1.0 10 10
u = – 60 cm.
10
or v 0.9 m h1 v
11 Since m = h
0 u we get,
Thus, the car would appear at 0.9 m from the convex mir-
10 v (–15) 5
h1 .h 5
v 11 1 u 0 (–16) 4
ror. We know that m
u 10 11 Image is enlarged and virtual.
10. A point object O is placed in front of a plane mirror MM'.
1
Thus, size of the image of the car will be times smaller The ray OP falls normally on the mirror and it gets reflected
11 back along the same path. Another ray from O fall at point
the actual size of the car through the convex mirror. Q and it gets reflected along the path QR in such a way that
3. According to cartesian sign convention, i = r. When these two reflected rays PO and QR are
u = – 90 cm, f = – 30 cm. produced backward, a virtual image 'I' of object is formed
1 1 1 behind the mirror.
We have the formula v u f In the fig. OP || QN

1 1 1 M
v 90 30 O I
P
1 1 1 3 1 2
or
v 30 90 90 90
v = – 45 cm. i
N r Q
Negative sign means that a real image is formed 45 cm
from the mirror on the same side as the object.
4. 10D, 0.1 5. 60 cm. 6. –10 cm, –10 D
7. (i) Focal length of concave mirror remains same, since it R M'
is independent of the wavelength of light.
(ii) When wavelength is increased, refractive index of glass
i = QOP (alternate angle)
for the particular colour decreases. Since focal length de-
r = PIQ (Corresponding angle)
pends on , the focal length increases.
But i = r (Law of Reflection)
1 1 1 QOP = PIQ ______(1)
8. Mirror formula is, where u, v and f are object In OPQ and IPQ
f v u
distance, image distance and focal length. OPQ = IPQ = 90°
QOP = PIQ [From (1)]
1 1 1 PQ = PQ (Common)
–
v f u OPQ IPQ (By ASA)
Focal length and object distance are both –ve for concave OP = IP (CPCT)
mirror. i.e. Distance of the object from the mirror = Distance of
It is given u < f, image behind the mirror.
11. An extended object AB is placed in front of a plane mirror
1 –1 1 MM'. A light ray from A falls perpendicular on a mirror at
becomes and is positive.
v f u P. So it comes back along the same path after reflection.
v becoming +ve denotes a virtual image.
 EBD_7005
60 PHYSICS
Another ray AQ (Q is a point of normal from B), falls on
8. a = 1.5 ; v = ? ; c = 3 × 108 m/sec
the mirror and after reflection it goes along the path QR. g

When these two reflected rays i.e. PA & QR are produced

c c 3 108
backward, they meet at a point A'. Similarly, the point B' is a g
v 2 108 m / sec
also obtained. It means A'B' is the image of AB. This image v a 1.5
g
is virtual and erect which forms as far behind the mirror as
9. Highest optical density is of Diamond (2.42).
the object is in front of it. i.e. AP = A'P.
Lowest optical density is of Air (1.0003).
BQ = B'Q
10. Light travels faster in water because the refractive index
of water is least as compared to kerosene and turpentines.
M
11. When the focal length of a lens is one metre then the power
P A' of lens is called one dioptre.
A
h
12. v = + 50 cm ; m = ; P = ? u = ?
h
i i v 1 1 1 1
B' m , , P
B r Q u v u f f
M' 50 1 1 1 1 100
R 1 , , P
u 50 50 f 25
To prove : AB = A'B'. u 50 cm , f 25 cm , P 4 dioptre
A'B'Q. = A' Q B',= r
13. f=–2m
(Vertically opposite angles)
i = r (laws of reflection) 1 1
P = - 0.5 dioptre
In ABQ and A'QB', i = A' Q B' f 2
ABQ = A' B' Q = 90°
Text-Book Exercise :
BQ = B' Q (becouse distance of image behind the mirror =
1. (d) Clay (Because clay is not a transparent material).
distance object from the mirror)
2. (d) Between the pole of the mirror and its principal focus
ABQ A'B'Q. (ASA).
3. (b) At twice the focal length of lens.
AB = A' B' (cpct) i.e. size of object = size of image.
4. (b) both concave. (Because concave lens and concave
mirror have negative focal lengths.)
5. (d) Either plane or convex (Because plane mirror and a
convex mirror always form a virtual and erect image.)
6. (c) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm. (Because its
Text-Book Questions : magnification is more than others as it is inversely
1. The point on principal axis where beam of rays parallel to v
principal axis meet after reflection from the mirror is called proportional to the focal length m 1 .
f
principal focus.
2. R = 2f, R = 20 cm 7. The range of distance of the object is 0 to 15 cm in front
f = R/2 = 10 cm of the mirror from the pole as the image in a concave mirror
3. Concave mirror can produce the erect and enlarge image is erect when it is placed anywhere between the pole and
of an object. the focus.
4. Because its aperture in large and it always forms virtual, (i) Nature of image : Virtual and erect
erect and diminished image of distant objects. (ii) Image is enlarged
5. R = + 32 cm
f = R/2 = + 16 cm A

6. M = – v/u (real) Concave mirror

v
3 A
u
C P
v = 3u, u = 10 cm (given) FB B
15cm
v 30 cm
7. It will bend towards the normal because the velocity of
light decreases as it enters into water.
Light-Reflection and Refraction 61

8. (a) Concave mirror because it provides a powerful 12. f = 15 cm ; u = – 10 cm ; v = ?

parallel beams of light.
1 1 1
(b) Convex mirror because it provides a wide field of
v u f
view.
(d) Concave mirror because it concentrates sunlight to 1 1 1 2 3 5 1
produce heat. v 15 10 30 30 6
9. Yes, this lens will produce a complete image of the object.
The nature, size and location of the image will not change
but the intensity of the image will become half. B
Experiment : Let us take a convex lens. Cover one-half B'
of it with a black paper. Put an object infront of it. Observe
the image on the screen by adjusting it. It is observed that A A' F C
a complete image of the object is formed.
10. O = 5 cm ; u = – 25cm ; f = + 10 cm
Scale : 1 cm = 5 cm.
1 1 1
v u f N
Position of image = 1.2 cm
v = 1.2 × 5 = 6 cm
B v 6 cm Image is formed on right side of mirror, so it is
5 cm A' virtual and erect.
A F 13. The magnification of a plane mirror is +1, it means that
the image is of same size of the object. Also, it is erect and
virtual.
25 cm B' 14. O = 5 cm ; u = - 20 cm ; R = + 30 cm ;
10 cm f = R/2 = 15 cm ; u = ? ; I = ?

1 1 1 5 2 3 1 1 1
v 10 25 50 50 v u f

1 1 1 1 1 4 3 7
50 v I 50 I
v cm m , v 15 20 15 20 60 60
3 u O 3 25 O

I 3.33cm
60
v cm Image is formed on the right side of mirror..
7
The image is real and inverted.
1 1 1 v I
m
11. u o
v u f

1 1 1 60 I 3
I 5 2.175cm image is virtual,
10 u 15 7 20 5 7
erect and small
B
B D
B'
A B'
2F1 F1 A' O F2 C
A P A' F
15 cm
30 cm
Position of image = 1.7 cm
1 1 1 3 2 1
v = 1.7 × 5 = 8.5 cm
u 10 15 30 30 size of image = 0.4 cm
u 30 cm left side from the lens. I = 0.4 × 5 = 2 cm
 EBD_7005
62 PHYSICS
15. O = 7 cm ; u = – 27 cm ; f = – 18 cm ; v = ?, I = ?
v 1 1 1
4. m – –3, using – calculate u.
1 1 1 u v u f
v u f
80
1 1 1 u – cm, image is real and inverted. The lens is convex.
3
27 v 18
HOTS Questions :
1 1 1 3 2 1 1. u = – 15 cm, f = + 30 cm (for convex mirror, f is + ve)
v 18 27 54 54
1 1 1 1 1 1
The mirror formula is, u v f v f u
v 54 cm Image is formed on left side of mirror..
Substituting the values of u and f in the above formula we
I 54 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 1
10 cm real, inverted and enlarged in size
5 27 have
v 30 15 30 15 30 10
v = + 10 cm.
2. Since lens is convex, therefore f is positive.
Given u = – 20 cm, f = + 12 cm, h = 3 cm, v = ?, h = ?
Since formula for a lens is
B
1 1 1 1 1 1
v u f
,
A' C A F P v 20 12
1 1 1 1 1 1
B' v 20 12 v 12 20
1 5 3 1
v = 30 cm.
v 60 30
Position of image = 6 cm
Since ‘v’ is positive, the image is located on the other side
v = 6 × 9 = 54 cm
of the lens.
size of image = 1.1 cm
I = 1.1 × 9 = 10 cm v 30
m 1.5
u 20
I v
m Since m is negative and greater than 1, the image is real,
O u
inverted and larger than the object.
1 h h
16. P m 1.5 or h = – 4.5 cm.
f h 3
1 Thus the image is 30 cm from the convex lens, located on
2
f the other side of the object. It is real inverted and 4.5 cm
high.
1 3. A concave lens always forms a virtual, erect image on the
f m 50cm The lens is concave lens.
2 same side of the object.
Image distance v = – 10 cm
1 Focal length f = – 15 cm,
17. P
f Object distance u = ?
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 Since v or
f m 0.67m Lens is converging in nature. u f u v f
1.5
1 1 1 1 1
Exemplar Questions : u 10 ( 15) 10 15
2. No. Bending will be different in different liquids since
velocity of light at the interface separating two media 1 3 2 1
or u = – 30 cm.
depends on the relative refractive index of the medium. u 30 30
3. Sudha should move the screen towards the lens so as the Thus, the object distance is 30 cm.
obtain a clear image of the building. The approximate focal v 10 cm 1
lenth of this lens will be 15 cm. Magnification, m or m 0.33
u 30 cm 3
Light-Reflection and Refraction 63

4. A very small head Convex mirror 4. Object size h0 = 5.0 cm, f = 20 cm,
A fat body Concave mirror Object distance u = – 30 cm
Legs of normal size Plane mirror
1 1 1
Since, –
v u f

1 1 1
(a)
Single Option Correct : v f u
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c)
1 1 1 1
sin i Then v = + 60 cm
v 20 –30 60
5. (d) . Angle between refractive & reflective waves
sin r Positive sign of v shows that image is formed at a distance
= 180° – (i + r) = 90° i + r = 90° of 60 cm to the right of the lens.
r = 90° – i Therefore image is real and inverted.
sin i sin i h v
tan i i tan 1 ( ) 5. (a) Since, m =
sin(90 i) cos i h u

1 1 1 v h 60 5
h = = – 10 cm
6. (d) For a spherical lens u 30
v u f
So, size of image is twice the size of object.
For convex lens. u = – f/2 and f is + ve
1 1
1 1 1 1 1 2 6. (a) Power = 5D
v=–f f 0.2m
v f u f f f
7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (c) Assertion & Reason :
14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (d) 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b)
21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (d) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (c)
28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (a) 31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (c) 9. (c) An image is a plane mirror is virtual and it can be pho-
35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (c) 41. (b) tographed.
42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (a) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (a) 10. (c) Object is placed between F and 2F of objective lens.
11. (a) 12. (a)
sin 60 sin 60
49. (b) aµg = and aµw = Multiple Matching Questions :
sin 35 sin 41
1. (c)
a µg sin 41 2. (d)
aµg =
a µw sin Integer/Numeric Questions :
1. Here, sine of angle of incidence (sin i) = 0.866
sin 60 sin 60 sin 41
or and sine of angle of refraction (sin r) = 0.707
sin 35 sin 41 sin
sin i 0.866
= 35° Now, we have 1.22
sin r 0.707
50. (d) 51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (d) 56. (a)
56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (a) 61. (b) Hence, the refractive index of the medium is 1.22.
62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (a) 2. Since the image is real and diminshed, the lens must be
convex and the object must be placed beyond 2F.
More Than One Option Correct :
1. (a,b,c) 2. (a,b,c) 3. (a,c) 4. (a,c,d) A
5. (b,c) 6. (b,c) 7. (a,c,d) 8. (a,c,d)
9. (a,c,d) 10. (a,b) 11. (a,b) 12. (a,c)
F B'
13. (a,b,d) 14. (b,c,d) 15. (a,c,d) 16. (a,c,d)
B 2F' F' O 2F
17. (a,b,c,d) 18. (a,c,d) 19. (a,b,d) 20. (a,b,c)
21. (a,b,c) 22. (a,b) 23. (a,b,c) 24. (a,b)
25. (a,d) A'
Passage Based Questions :
Given : v = + 18 cm,
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b)
 EBD_7005
64 PHYSICS

h 4 h 1 1 1
, f=?[ m is negative for real image] Using = – we get,
h 5 h f v u
h v 1 1 1 3 1 4
We have, m
h u = – = =
f 15 45 45 45
v 4
or 4u = – 5vor 4u = – 5 × 18 cm 45
u 5 f= = 11.25 cm.
4
u = – 22.5 cm. 7. Given : For convex lens
Now focal length is given by : f = + 30 cm, u = ?, v = + 60 cm, m = ?
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 9 From lens formula
f v u 18 22.5 18 22.5 90
1 1 1 1 1 1
f = 10 cm. – = –
f v u 30 60 u
3. (a) 7.5 cm
(b) 48 cm 1 1 1 1 2
4. h0 = 50 cm, h1 = 20 cm, v = 10 cm. = – =
u 60 30 60
h1 v 1 1
Using m = h = , we get =– u = – 60 cm.
0 u u 60
With sign convention, So, the object should be placed at a distance of 60 cm to the
left of the lens.
h0 50
u = v h = 10 × = – 25 cm. Magnification produced by lens,
1 ( 20)
h v 60
1 1 1 m= = 60 = – 1
h u
Using = – we get,
f v u Hence, real, inverted and same size image is obtained.
1 8. f = + 20 cm, Since image is real, m = – 2
1 1 25 10
= – = 1 1 1
f 10 25 250 v
Using, – and m =
f v u u
250
f= = 7.14 cm.
35 f 20
5. h0 = 20 cm, h1 = – 30 cm, v = 10 cm we get, m = –2=
f u 20 u
h1 ( 30) v – 40 – 2u = 20 – 2u = 60 u = – 30 cm.
m= h = = 9. Let the scale be 5 cm = 1 cm
0 20 u
Size of the object = 5 cm = 1 cm
10 2 20 Distance of the object from the lens = 10 cm = 2 cm
u=– =– cm.
3 3
1 1 1 A
Using = – we get, A1
f v u
F2 O
1 1 1 1 3 5 1 B B1
1.2cm
f
=
10
–
FG IJ
20
=
10
+
20
=
20
=
4
H K
3
2cm

3 cm
f = + 4 cm.
6. h0 = 30 cm, h1 = – 10 cm, v = 15 cm Focal length of the lens = 15 cm = 3 cm
h1 v On constructing the ray diagram, it is found
Using m = h = , we get size of the image = A1B1 = 0.6 cm = 0.6 × 5 cm = 3.0 cm
0 u
Distance of the image from lens = OB1 = 1.2 cm = 1.2 × 5
h0 30 cm = 6 cm
u = v h = 15 × = – 45 cm. Nature : Image is virtual, erect and diminished
1 10
Light-Reflection and Refraction 65

10. Here h = 3.0 cm, f = – 15 cm, v = – 10.0 cm 1 1 1 1 1

(i) From lens formula = – =– + = v = + 18 cm.
18 9 18 9 18
1 1 1 i.e., image is formed behind the mirror at a distance of 18
= –
f v u cm. It is virtual.

1 1 1 1 1 h v
– – Also, magnification m = –
u v f –10 –15 h u
h 18
1 1 1 1 =– =+2 h = + 6 cm
= – =– u = – 30 cm. 3 9
u 15 10 30
So, image is erect and twice the size of object.
h v 14. Given : h = + 3.0 cm, u = – 20 cm, f = + 12 cm, From lens
(ii) m =
h u formula

v –10 1 1 1 1 1 1
h h × 3 = + 1.0 – = –
u –30 f v u 12 20
From (i) and (ii), it is clear that image is formed on the 1 1 5 3 2 1
1
same side of object placed at a distance of 30 cm and = – = = =
v 12 20 60 60 30
image is virtual, erect and of same size.
11. For a concave mirror v = + 30 cm.
Given : h = 2 cm, u = – 20 cm, f = – 10 cm h v
Also, m =
v=? h =? h u
From mirror equation, we know that
h 30 3 9
1 1 1 = =– h =– = – 4.5 cm
1 1 1 1 3 20 2 2
– = – =– +
v f u 10 20 10 20 Therefore, Position of image : 30 cm to the right of the lens
Nature of image : real, inverted
2 1 1
= = Size of image : enlarge (4.5 cm).
20 20 15. h0 = 3 cm, u = – 6 cm, f = – 12 cm
v = – 20 cm.
1 1 1
h v ( 20) 2 Mirror formula :
Also m = =– h =– =–2 f v u
h u 20
Image size h = – 2 cm. 1 1 1
= +
Position of image is 20 cm on the same side of object. 12 v 6
Nature of image : Real, inverted, same size ( h = h). 1 1 1 1 2 1 1
12. Focal length of convex lens, f = + 25 cm image distance, = + = ; =
v 12 6 12 v 12
v = + 75 cm v = + 12 cm
From lens formula
h v
1 1 1 m= –
– h u
u v u
v 12
1 1 1 1 1 2 h =– ×h= ×3=+6
– = – =– u 6
u v f 75 25 75 Position : image is formed behind the mirror at a distance
75 of 12 cm.
u=– = – 37.5 cm Nature : virtual, erect, enlarged
2
Size of image : Twice the size of object.
Negative sign shows that image is real.
16. Convex mirror, m = 1/2
13. For a concave mirror,
h = + 3 cm, u = – 9 cm, f = – 18 cm, v = ?, h = ? 1 v 1
Image is virtual, m=+ – =
From mirror equation 2 u 2

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
– Therefore from we get
f v u v f u f v u
 EBD_7005
66 PHYSICS
20. h0 = 10 cm, u = – 15 cm, f = + 10 cm
1 2 1 1
– i.e., u = – f 1 1 1
f u u u – , we get,
using
Object has to be at a distance equal to focal length. f v u
17. f = – 20 cm. Since image is virtual m = + 2. 1 1 1 15 10 5
= + = =
1 1 1 v v 10 15 150 150
Using and m = –
f v u u 150
v= = 30 cm
5
f –20
we get m = 2= Image formed is real and is at a distance of 30 cm.
f –u –20 – u
h1 30
– 40 – 2u = – 20 2u = – 20 u = – 10 cm.
18. f = – 15 cm, h1 = 3h0 h0 u = h1 =
15
× 10 = – 20

For Real Image, Image is inverted since h 1 is –ve.

21. (a) The relation between object distance, image distance
v and focal length of a spherical mirror is given by
m=– =–3 v = 3u
u
1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1 f v u
using = + , we get, = +
f v u 15 3u u where f = Focal length of spherical mirror
u = – 20 cm. v = Image distance, u = Object distance.
For Virtual Image, This relation is called mirror equation.
(b) For a concave mirror
v
m=– =+3 v = – 3u Given : f = – 15 cm, u = – 10 cm, v = ?, m = ?
u From mirror equation
1 1 1 1 1 1
using
f v u f v u

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
we get, = u = – 10 cm. – = – = +
15 (–3u ) u v f u 15 10 15 10
The two possible positions are 10 cm and 20 cm in front of 10 15 5 1
concave mirror. = =+ =+ v = + 30 cm.
150 150 30
19. air
= 589 nm = 589 × 10–9 m
Refractive index of water = = 1.33 v 30
(a) Reflected light will have same wavelength, frequency Also, Magnification, m = – = – 10 = 3.
u
and velocity. Hence, the image is formed at a distance of 30 cm behind
= 589 nm, c = 3 × 108 ms–1 the mirror.
Nature of image : Virtual, erect.
c 3 108
f= = 9 = 5.09 × 10–3 + 8 + 9 = 5.09 × 1014 Hz Size of image : Magnified, i.e., thrice the size of object.
589 10 (c) Position of object : Between pole and focus
(b) The frequency is same with refracted light. But, veloc- Mirror : Concave.
ity and wavelength vary. Position of image : Behind the mirror.
Nature of image : Virtual, enlarged and erect.
c
Since, = ,
v

3 108 B
velocity in water = = 2.25 × 108 ms–1 A
1. 33

Since, = , I P O F
'
9
589 10
wavelength in water is ’ = = = 442 nm.
1. 33
Light-Reflection and Refraction 67

18. (b) 19. (c)

20. (b)

1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (a) 1 1 1

21. = (µ – 1) R R2
1 1 1 1 f 1
6. (d) i B > iA or sin sin or µ A µB
µB µA
1 1 1
Hence medium A is denser and B is rarer. = (1.5 – 1) R
30 1 R2
Total internal Reflection : When the object is placed
in a optically denser medium. and if the incident angle Refractive index of glass with respect to water
is greater than the critical angle then the ray of light
gets reflected back to the originating medium. µag 1.5
µwg = = × 3 = 1.125
For critical angle ( ) from medium A to B, BµA µaw 4
1 1 µB
B µA or sin
1 1
sin µ
B A µA 1
= (µwg – 1) R R2
f 1
1 sin i A
sin
sin i B 1 1 1 1
or = [1.125 – 1] R R2
f 1
1 sin i A
sin
sin i B f 0.50
or
7. (d) The waves reflected from the top layer of oil interfere 30 0.125
with the wave train reflected from the lower surface of f = 120 cm
thin oil film producing light and dark coloured pattern. 22. For the object O,
8. (a) The critical angle for total internal reflection from u = – (PO)
glass to water, = – 3 cm
water 1.33 8 By refraction formula,
sin i c .
glass 1.55 9 2 1 2 1
= , we have
v u R
1 8
ic sin µ1 = 1.5, µ2 = 1, and R = – 5cm
9
9. (a) 10. (b) 1 1.5 1 1.5
=
v –3 –5
11. (b, d)
12. (a, b, d) v = –2.5 cm
13. (a,b,d) P = P1 + P2 = + 2 – 1 = + 1 dioptre, lens behaves as 23. For concave lens, u = + 10 cm (virtual object)
convergent and v = + 15 cm

1 1 1 1 1
F 1m 100 cm We have = f
P 1 15 10

14. (a, c, d) f = –30 cm. .

24. For concave mirror, u = –5 cm, f = – 20 m
100
15. (a) Power of convex lens = 5D
20 1 1 1
By mirror formula, v u f , we have
100
16. (c) Power of concave lens = –1.67D
60 1 1 1
=
v –5 20
17. (b) Power of combination = P1 + P2 = + 5 + (– 1.67) = + 3.33 D
100 20
Focal length of combination 30 cm v = cm
3
3.33
 EBD_7005
68 PHYSICS

20
Thus OI ' = 3 cm

= 11.67 cm
20
The distance PI ' = 5
3
= 11.67 cm.
Now for the refraction through
water surface, we have
RD
= real depth 3
AD 2 cm
x= =
3/ 2
RD 11.67
AD = The position of the object from M = 9 + 2 = 11 cm.
4/3
By the definition, the position of the image
or PI2 = 8.75 cm. = 11 cm from M
25. Because of multiple reflections and refractions, there will The position of the image from unsilvered face
form infinite images; second of them will be brighest, which = 11 + 2 = 13 cm
is formed by the reflection from the silvered face. Suppose
M is the apparent position of the mirror at a distance x
from the unsilvered face of the mirror. Then
 HUMAN EYE AND
Chapter

2 COLOURFUL WORLD

INTRODUCTION

Light enables us to see things. But light alone cannot show us things visible. It does so with the help of ‘eyes’. When eyes
get defective, some visual aids are required. These aids can be in the form of spectacles. To see things bigger than their
actual size, optical instruments are used. With the help of these instruments we can see distant objects like stars, sun,
moon and other celestial objects very clearly. We can also see very small things very clearly with their aid.

Light makes our world colourful. When light passes through a prism, a very beautiful band of seven colours spectrum is
obtained on a nearby screen. When sunlight falls on water droplets just after raining, a beautiful rainbow is observed.

This chapter is an attempt to provide a description of the eye, its defects and remedies, optical instruments and phenomena
which makes our world colourful.
 EBD_7005
70 PHYSICS
THE HUMAN EYE
The human eye is the organ which gives us the sense of sight, allowing us to learn more about the surrounding world than we do
with any of the other four senses. We use our eyes in almost every activity we perform, whether reading, working, watching
television, writing a letter, driving a car, and in countless other ways. Most people probably would agree that sight is the sense
they value more than all the rest.
Ciliary muscle Suspensory ligament
Sclerotic
Iris
Choroid

Cornea Retina

Conjunctiva
Yellow spot

Pupil

Aqueous humour
Lens

Blind spot
Vitreous humour
Optic nerve

Fig. 2.1 Human eye

The eye allows us to see and interpret the shapes, colors, and dimensions of objects in the world by processing the light they
reflect or emit. The eye is able to see in bright light or in dim light, but it cannot see objects when light is absent.
The diameter of human eye is about 2.3 cm.
The structure and function of its important parts are described below.
(i) Retina : It is a light sensitive screen inside the eye on which image is formed. It contains rods and cones.
(ii) Cornea : It is a thin membrane which covers the eye ball. It acts like a lens which refracts the light entering the eye.
(iii) Aqueous humour : It is fluid which fills the space between cornea and eye lens.
(iv) Eye lens : It is a Convex lens made of transparent and flexible jelly like material. Its curvature can be adjusted with the help
of ciliary muscles.
(v) Pupil : It is a hole in the middle of iris through which light enters the eye. It appears black because light falling on it goes
into the eye and does not come back.
(vi) Ciliary muscles : These are the muscles which are attached to eye lens and can modify the shape of eye lens which leads
to the variation in focal lengths.
(vii) Iris : It controls the amount of light entering the eye by changing the size of pupil.
(viii)Optical nerve : These are the nerves which take the image to the brain in the form of electrical signals.

WORKING OF THE HUMAN EYE

Light waves from an object (such as a tree) enter the eye first through the cornea, which is the clear dome at the front of the eye.
The light then progresses through the pupil, the circular opening in the center of the coloured iris. Next, the light passes through
the crystalline lens, which is located immediately behind the iris and the pupil.

Fig. 2.2
Initially, the light waves are bent or converged first by the cornea, and then further by the crystalline lens, to a nodal point (N)
located immediately behind the back surface of the lens. At that point, the image becomes reversed (turned backwards) and
inverted (turned upside-down).
Human Eye and Colourful World 71

The light continues through the vitreous humor, the clear gel that makes up about 80% of the eye’s volume, and then, ideally, back
to a clear focus on the retina behind the vitreous. The small central area of the retina is the macula, which provides the best vision
of any location in the retina. If the eye is considered to be a type of camera, the retina is equivalent to the film inside of the camera,
registering the tiny photons of light which interact with it.
Within the layers of the retina, light impulses are changed into electrical signals and then sent through the optic nerve, along the
visual pathway, to the cortex at the posterior or back of the brain. Here, the electrical signals are interpreted or “seen” by the brain
as a visual image. When the light entering the eyes is bright enough, the pupils will constrict (get smaller), due to the pupillary
light response.
Actually, then, we do not “see” with our eyes but, rather, with our brains. Our eyes merely are the beginnings of the visual process.
You might have experienced that you are not able to see objects clearly for some time when you enter from bright light to a room
with dim light. After sometime, however, you may be able to see things in the dim-lit room. The pupil of an eye acts like a variable
aperture whose size can be varied with the help of the iris.
When the light is very bright, the iris contracts the pupil to allow less light to enter the eye. However, in dim light the iris expands
the pupil to allow more light to enter the eye. Thus, the pupil opens completely through the relaxation of the iris.

POWER OF ACCOMMODATION
The ability of the eye lens to change its shape to focus near and distant objects clearly is called power of accommodation.
The table shows how this is done.
Object Ciliary muscles Suspensory ligaments Muscle tension on lens Lens shape
Near Contract Slackened Low Thick
Distant Relax Stretched High Thin

When the eye is relaxed and the interior lens is the least rounded, the
lens has its maximum focal length for distant viewing. As the muscle
tension around the ring of muscle is increased and the supporting
fibres are thereby loosened, the interior lens rounds out to its mini-
mum focal length. The minimum distance, at which objects can be
Relaxed Close-
seen most distinctly without strain, is called the least distance of focussed
eye
distinct vision. It is also called the near point(N.P.) of the eye. For a eye
young adult with normal vision, the near point is about 25 cm.
The farthest point upto which the eye can see objects clearly is called
the far point(F.P.) of the eye. It is infinity for a normal eye. Thus a
normal human eye can see objects clearly that are between 25 cm and
infinity. Fig.2.3
If an eye has the ability to assume a focal length of 1.80 cm (56 diopters) to view objects many miles away as well as the ability to
assume a 1.68 cm focal length to view an object 0.25 meters away (60 diopters), then its Power of Accommodation would be
measured as 4 diopters (60 diopters – 56 diopters).
The healthy eye of a young adult has a Power of Accommodation of approximately 4 diopters. As a person grows older, the Power
of Accommodation typically decreases as a person becomes less able to view nearby objects. This failure to view nearby objects
leads to the need for corrective lenses.
Many animals can see clearly both in water and on land. Some have extraordinary accommodation ranges, and others have
developed other strategies. Cormorants and dippers can vary the refractive power of their lenses by 40-50 diopters, compared to
about 16 diopters for an average adolescent human. The increased accommodation is due largely to highly developed sphincter
muscles which vary the curvature of the front of the lens. Turtles and otters also have very strong sphincter muscles. Variations
in lens geometries are used in various species of birds and fish.
Persistence of vision: The image of any object seen persists on the retina for 110 second even after the removal of the object.
This continuance of sensation of eye is called persistence of vision. This property is used in cinematography.

DEFECTS OF VISION AND THEIR CORRECTION

Myopia or Short-Sightedness
If the eyeball is too long or the lens too spherical, the image of distant objects is brought to a focus in front of the retina is out of
focus again before the light strikes the retina. Nearby objects can be seen more easily.
A person with myopic eye can see nearby objects clearly but cannot see far off objects distinctly. Eyeglass with concave lens
 EBD_7005
72 PHYSICS
corrects this problem by diverging the light rays before they enter the eye. Myopia most commonly develops in childhood or
early teens (between 8 and 14). The risk of developing myopia is increased if there is a family history of it. There may also be a link
between myopia and prolonged close-up work, such as reading or sitting close temporary short-sightedness, called pseudomyopia,
can be caused by a number of diseases or certain drugs. For example, myopia may be the first sign of type-2 (non insulin-
dependent) diabetes. Symptoms of pseudomyopia usually clear up if the underlying cause is treated to the television, although
there is little scientific evidence for this.
Remeady: This defect can be corrected by using a concave lens of suitable focal length. A concave lens diverges the rays coming
from the object so that they get focused at the retina.
Concave lens

Retina O Retina O Retina

x x
(a) Myopic eye (b) Far point of a myopic eye (c) Corrected myopic eye
Fig. 2.4
Let a person can see an object at a maximum distance x m (i.e. far point is x). Thus, if the eye is to see a distant object clearly, the
concave lens should form the virtual image of this distant object at a distance x. Thus, the required focal length of the lens is
1 1
f = – x and power of lens P .
f x

Let a nearsighted person can see upto a maximum distance x and wants to see upto a distance y then power of corrective lens
x– y
p
xy
O
Clearly from figure u = – y; v = – x; f = ? O O`

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 x y x
= = = = x y
f v u x y y x xy
Fig. 2.5 (a) Fig. 2.5 (b)

xy x y
f and P
x y xy

Hypermetropia or Farsightedness
If the eyeball is too short or the lens too flat or inflexible, the light rays entering the eye–particularly those from nearby–objects
will not be brought to a focs by the time they strike the retina.
A person with hypermetropic eye can see far off objects clearly but cannot see nearby objects clearly.
Remeady: Eyeglass with convex lens is used to rectify this problem. Squinting, eye rubbing, lack of interest in school, and
difficulty in reading are often seen in children with hypermetropia.

25cm y 25cm
y
(a) Hypermetropic eye (b) Near point of hypermetropic eye (c) Corrected hypermetropic eye
Fig. 2.6
Human Eye and Colourful World 73

Let the farsighted eye can see a minimum distance y (i.e. near point of the eye). If the eye is to see clearly an object at the least
distance of distinct vision (i.e. at 25 cm ), then the image of the object should form at a distance y.
u = – 25 cm v = – y f = ?
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
By lens formula, f = = ; f = 25 cm y
v u y 25 cm

1 1
Power of lens, P
25 cm y

Presbyopia (“After 40” vision)

After age 40, and most noticeably after age 45, the human eye is affected by presbyopia, which results in greater difficulty in
maintaining a clear focus at a near distance with an eye which sees clearly at a far away distance. This is due to a lessening of
flexibility of the crystalline lens, as well as to a weakening of the ciliary muscles which control lens focusing, both attributable to
the ageing process.
Person suffering from presbyopia require bifocal lenses. A common type of bi-focal lenses consists of both concave and convex
lenses. The upper portion consists of a concave lens. It facilitates distant vision. The lower part is a convex lens. It facilitates near
vision. These days, it is possible to correct the refractive defects with contact lenses or through surgical interventions.

Astigmatism
Astigmatism is the most common refractive problem responsible for
blurry vision. Most of the eyeball’s focusing power occurs along the
front surface of the eye, involving the tear film and cornea (the clear
‘window’ along the front of the eyeball).
The ideal cornea has a perfectly the round surface.Any thing other
than perfectly round contributes to abnormal connect.Curvature this
is a stigmatism. Here’s a good way to demonstrate the effects of
astigmatism, look at your reflection in the curved surface of a round
soup spoon and compare it with your reflection the cornea is the
transparent leyer over the coloured part of the eye. It blends (refracts)
light rays and helps focus the figures onto the retina in back of the eye
so people can see. When the cornea is oblong shaped, it causes light
rays to focus on two different points on the retina, instead of just one.
As a result, people with significant astigmatism may have distorted or
blurry vision.
Astigmatism may cause eye strain and also may be combined with
nearsightedness or farsightedness. Fig. 2.7
Astigmatism can start in childhood or in adulthood.
Remeady: Cylindrical lens is use to correct astigmatism.
If the figure shown was constructed with all the radial lines of equal sharpness and contrast a person without astigmatism would
see all these radial lines as perfectly sharp and with the same contrast. The diagram shown has been fudged to illustrate how it
might appear to a person with astigmatism.

Cataracts
A cataract is a clouding of the lens in the eye. With people age, cataracts grow progressively darker and more dense, preventing
light from easily passing through the lens. This results in vision loss.
Patients with cataracts have difficulty seeing in poorly lit environments. Many people also experience increased sensitivity to
light and glare, double vision (or “ghost images”), and fading colors (blue may appear green; white may appear dull beige, etc.).
Most cataracts are highly treatable. Cataract surgery is one of the most common surgeries performed in the world with 95% of
patients experiencing improved vision if there are no other eye conditions present. During surgery, the doctor removes the
clouded lens, and, in most cases, replaces it with an artificial lens, called an intraocular lens (IOL). An IOL is a clear, plastic lens
 EBD_7005
74 PHYSICS
that requires no care and becomes a permanent part of your eye. Thick eyeglass lenses after surgery might not be needed
because of the implanted lens.
Complicated cataracts cannot be extracted like normal cataracts because of potential complications such as other eye conditions,
lack of vision in the other eye, or health concerns such as diabetes.

Po i n t
Does short-sightedness (myopia) or long-sightedness (hypermetropia) imply necessarily that the eye has partially lost its
ability of accommodation? If not, what might cause these defects of vision?
SOLUTION

A person with normal ability of accommodation may be myopic or hypermetropic due to deflective eye structure. When the eye
ball from front to back gets too elongated the “myopic” defects occur, similarly when the eye ball from front to back gets too
shortened the “hypermetropic” defects occur.
When the eye ball has normal length but the eyelens loses partially its ability of accommodation, the defect is called “presbyo-
pia” and is corrected in the same manner as myopia or hypermetropia.
ILLUSTRATION : 2.1
A man who wears the corrective lenses of power +3D, has to hold a newspaper at 25 cm away to see the print clearly. How far away
would the newspaper have to be, if he took off the corrective lenses and still, wanted a clear vision?
SOLUTION :
Here, u = – 25cm; p = + 3D; v = ?
1 1 100
The corrective lenses have the focal length f m cm
P 3 3
1 1 1
And the lens formula gives
v u f

1 1 1 1 3 1
v = – 100 cm
v 25 100 / 3 v 100 25
which means that the corrective lenses used by man form the clear images at 100 cm of the objects placed at 25 cm, i.e., the near
point of man is at 100 cm. Therefore, without wearing the corrective lenses the man must hold the newspaper at 100 cm for the
clear vision.
ILLUSTRATION : 2.2
What should be the focal length of corrective lenses required by a person for reading a book, if his near point is at 90 cm?
SOLUTION :
The book is kept at the least distance of distance vision D = 25 cm, i.e., u = –25 cm and corrective lenses used form the clear images
at 90 cm, which is the near point of person, i.e., v = – 90 cm. Therefore, according to the lens formula, we have
1 1 1
v u f

1 1 1 1 –5 18
f = 34.6 cm
90 25 f f 18 25

REFRACTION OF LIGHT THROUGH A PRISM

Prism is a transparent medium bounded by any number of surfaces in such a way that the surface on which light is incident and
the surface from which light emerges are plane and non-parallel.
Consider a triangular glass prism. It has two triangular bases and three rectangular lateral surfaces. These surfaces are inclined
to each other. The angle between its two lateral faces is called the angle of the prism A.
Human Eye and Colourful World 75

Angle of prism

A Angle of
deviation

i i2
nt ray Refracted ray
ide Em Fig. 2.8 (b) Light ray is not bent if
Inc erg
en
t ra glass is in fluid of the same index
Fig. 2.8(a) y of refraction
In figure 2.8(a) you can see the incident ray, the refracted ray inside the prism and the emergent ray. You may note that a ray of
light is entering from air to glass at the first surface. The light ray on refraction has bent towards the normal. At the second
surface, the light ray has entered from glass to air. Hence it has bent away from the normal.
The peculiar shape of the prism makes the emergent ray bend at an angle to the direction of the incident ray. This angle is called
the angle of deviation. It’s not only the shape that matters but importantly difference of refractive index of prism material from
surrounding makes ray to deviate, if glass prism is placed in a fluid with same refractive index as that of glass prism, ray will pass
without deviation. Fig 2.8(b)
The angle between the emergent ray and incident ray is called angle of deviation ( ).
In quadrilateral, EGFN’ the sum of its four angles should be 360°
A H
AEN AFN ' A 360
180 A 360 or A 180 ... (1) N M
G D=
In EN F , r r 180 ... (2) i i
E r r' F
From eq. (1) and (2), A r r ... (3) Q N' R
In GEF , = exterior angle P S
B C
Fig. 2.9. Refraction of light through a triangular glass prism
( i r) ( i r)
( i i) ( r r ) or (i i ) A ... (4)
For minimum deviation, angle of refraction (r) = angle of triangular prism (A)

ACTIVITY : To measure angle of incidence i, angle of refraction r , angle of emergence i, angle of prism A and angle of
deviation
• Fix a sheet of white paper on a drawing board using drawing pins.
• Place a glass prism on it in such a way that it rests on its triangular base. Trace the outline of the prism using a pencil.
• Draw a straight line PE inclined to one of the refracting surfaces, say AB, of the prism.
• Fix two pins, say at points P and Q, on the line PE as shown in Figure.
• Look for the images of the pins, fixed at P and Q, through the other face AC.
• Fix two more pins, at points R and S, such that the pins at R and S and the images of the pins at P and Q lie on the same straight
line. A H
• Remove the pins and the glass prism.
• The line PE meets the boundary of the prism at point E (see Fig. N M
2.10). Similarly, join and produce the points R and S. Let these lines G D=
meet the boundary of the prism at E and F, respectively. Join E and F. i i
E r r' F
• Draw perpendiculars to the refracting surfaces AB and AC of the
prism at points E and F, respectively. Q N' R
• Mark the angle of incidence ( i), the angle of refraction ( r) and P S
the angle of emergence ( i ) as shown in Fig. 2.10 B C
PE – Incident ray, i – Angle of incidence, EF – Refracted ray, r –
Fig. 2.10. Refraction of light through a triangular glass prism
Angle of refraction, FS – Emergent ray,
i – Angle of emergence, A – Angle of the prism, – Angle of
deviation.
 EBD_7005
76 PHYSICS

CONNECTING TOPIC
ANGLE OF MINIMUM DEVIATION ( MIN)
For each angle of incidence i, there is a corresponding angle of deviation . As we increase the angle of incidence from zero
onwards, the corresponding angle of deviation first decreases, then takes a minimum value whereafter it starts increasing. Let us
find out the magnitude of this minimum angle of deviation ( min). A H
Condition when will be minimum
will be minimum when i i and N M
r r G D=
i.e., when angle of incidence equals to the angle of emergence.
i r i
E r' F
1
min 2i A or i (A min ) Q N' R
2
A P S
A r r A = 2r r=
2 B C
Fig. 2.11. Refraction of light through a triangular glass prism
A m in
sin
sin i 2
Now, =
sin r A
sin
2

For a small angled prism

A min A min A A
If A is small and measured in radians, then sin and sin
2 2 2 2
Putting these values in above-derived formula, we get
A min
2 A min
A or
A
2

A A min min ( 1) A
It is generally written as ( 1) A

1. Condition of no emergence of a ray from a prism :

The light will not emerge out of a prism for all values of angle of
incidence if at face AB, i1 max 90º, 12 A
at face AC, r2 C ... (1)
Now from Snell’s law, at face AB, we have P r
1 × sin 90° = µ sin r1 i1 1 r2 R
i.e., r1 1
sin (1 / ) or r1 C ... (2)
Q
So from eq. (1) and (2), r1 r2 2 C ... (3)
B C
However, in a prism, r1 r2 A ... (4) Fig. 2.12

So from eq. (3) and (4), A 2 C

or sin( A / 2) sin C i.e., [cosec ( A / 2)]
i.e., A ray of light will not emerge out of a prism (whatever be the angle of incidence)
if A 2 C , i.e., if [cosec ( A / 2)]
Human Eye and Colourful World 77

2. Maximum deviation from a prism :

Deviation will be maximum when angle of incidence i1 is maximum, i.e., i1 90 ,
so eq. reduces to :
max 90 i2 A
However, when i1 = 90°, 1 sin 90° = µ sin r1
i.e., r1 1
sin (1 / ) or r1 C

and as in a prism ( r1 r2 ) A, r2 (A C)

So at surface AC, sin r2 1sin i 2 i.e., sin i2 sin ( A C )

or 1
i2 sin [ sin ( A C )] Fig. 2.13

ILLUSTRATION : 2.3
A ray of light falls normally on a refracting face of a prism of the refractive index = 1.5 of its material. Find the angle of
prism, if the ray just fails to emerge from the prism.
SOLUTION :
A
The angle of incidence of the ray of light at the refracting face AB is i1 = 0 i1 = 0°
which implies that the angle of refraction at this face is r1 = 0 and then,
90°
r1 + r2 = A r2 = A r1 = 0°
At the second refracting face AC, the ray just fails to emerge and therefore, r2 i2 = 90°

r2 A ic
B C
1 1 1 1 1 2
A sin sin sin = 42° Fig. 2.14
1.5 3

ILLUSTRATION : 2.4
An equilateral prism is having the refractive index 1.5 of its material. Calculate the angle of emergence i2 of the ray of
light for the maximum deviation max.
SOLUTION :
For the maximum deviation max of the light ray, we have i1 = 90°

1 1 2
r1 ic sin = sin–1 = 42°
1.5 3
r2 = A – r1 = 60° – 42° = 18° [As prism is equilateral A = 60º]
Then, by the Snell’s Law, we have

sin i2 sin r2 1.5 sin18 1.5 18 0.465 i2 = 28°

180

DISPERSION OF WHITE LIGHT BY A GLASS PRISM

The phenomenon of decomposition of the white light into seven component colours when passing through a prism or through
a transparent object delimited by non parallel surfaces is called dispersion of light. A beam of light containing all the visible
spectrum of the light is white, because the sum of all the colors generates the white color. Normally the light we use is white. It’s
the light containing all the colors mixed together. We can realize this fact when the beam of light passes through a glass prism: the
light is decomposed in all the component colours, Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange and Red, called as VIBGYOR. The
band of the coloured components of a light beam is called its spectrum.
The phenomenon can be explained by thinking that light of different colours (different wavelengths) has different velocities
while travelling in a medium: vm = f m.
Hence, the change in velocity of light observed when the light passes from the air to the glass, depends on the wavelength.
 EBD_7005
78 PHYSICS

Fig. 2.15
By passing the interface air-glass, lower is the wavelength lower becomes the velocity of the light, so, for example, red light rays
are faster than violet light rays.
This change in velocity coupled with the direction of the light beam to the air-glass interface explains the decomposition of a
white light ray in the component colours while it is passing through a prism.
This phenomenon is known as “dispersion of light through a prism” and it is also responsible for rainbows during storms: as a
matter of fact, each raindrop can be regarded as a little prism; when a light ray strikes a raindrop it is refracted and decomposed,
spreading out all the visible colours ranging from red to violet.
Colours in the increasing order with respect to wavelength are as follow: Violet (min.), Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, red
(max.)

NEWTON’S TWO PRISMS EXPERIMENT

Recombination of Different colours of spectrum to give white light
Newton took two prisms P1 and P2 of the same material and having the same refracting angle. He made white light pass through
a slit and allowed it to fall on prism p1(See Fig. 2.16). He obtained a spectrum (VIBGYOR) on the white screen. He removed the
white screen and placed prism P2 in an inverted position as shown in Figure. It was observed that the light coming out of the
second prism P2 was almost white.

R
ht R
lig V
hite V
w white
light
P1 P2
(Dispersing prism) (Recombination prism)
Fig. 2.16 Recombination of different
colours forms white light
This experiment proved that the prism P1 dispersed the white light into its constituent colours. Hence, this prism was called the
dispersing prism. The second prism P2 recombined the seven constituent colours to form white light. Hence, this prism was
called the recombination prism. This experiment thus proved that
1. the prism by itself produces no colours.
2. the recombination of the seven constituent colours forms white light.
CONNECTING TOPIC
ANGLE OF DISPERSION
The angle between the rays of the extreme colours (i.e red and violet) in the refracted (dispersed) light is called the angle of
dispersion .
That is, V R

A
DISPERSIVE POWER (W)
Dispersive power of the medium of the material of prism is given by
ght
R V

angular dispersion ite li

W h
deviation of mean ray (yellow)
R
Y
For small angled prism ( A 10 ) with light incident at small angle i. B C V
V R V R V R if value of µ is not given in the problem.]
[take Y Y Fig. 2.17
Y Y 1 2
V , R and µY are R.I. of material for violet, red and yellow colours respectively..
Human Eye and Colourful World 79

CAUSE OF DISPERSION
The cause of dispersion is the dependence of the refractive index ( ) on wavelength of light which is given by
b
Cauchy’s formula ( ) = a 2 (where a and b are positive constants)

The different colours of light corresponds of different refractive index of the prism. Hence, different colours have different
velocities in the prism and hence get separated from one another.
Combination of Two Prisms
If two prisms of prism angles A and A' and refractive indices µ and µ' are placed together,
1 2 ( 1) A ( 1) A

and 1 ( V 2 R) A ( V R) A
(a) For deviation without dispersion (Achromatic Prism)
( V R)
0, i.e., A A ............ (1)
( V R)
i.e., the two prisms must be placed with their prism angles in opposite directions so that condition given by eq. (1) may
be satisfied. In this situation
( V R) A
( 1) A ( 1) A Flint
( V R)
ht
e lig 1
( V R) ( 1) hi t
i.e., ( 1) A 1 W
( 1) ( V R) Crown
A'
( V R) A ( V R)
Deviation without dispersion
But as 1 ( 1) A, and Fig. 2.18 (a)
( 1) ( 1)
1[1 ( / )] ............ (2)
Usually , so is in the same direction as produced by the first prism.
(b) For dispersion without deviation (Direct vision spectroscope)
A
Flint
( 1) V
0 i.e., A ( 1)
A
light
W hite R R
( 1)
In this situation, ( V R)A ( V R) A Crown
( 1)
A'
Dispersion without deviation
( V R) ( V R)
i.e., ( 1) A or [ ] Fig. 2.18 (b)
( 1) ( 1)

If , the resultant dispersion is negative, i.e., opposite to that produced by the first prism.

RAINBOW
You must have observed most spectacular colour light band shown on earth i.e., rainbow.
Indeed the traditional rainbow is sunlight spread out into its spectrum of colours and
diverted to the eye of the observer by water droplets. The “bow” part of the word
describes the fact that the rainbow is a group of nearly circular arcs of color all having
a common center.
Rainbows are generated through refraction and reflection of light in small rain drops.
The sun is always behind you when you face a rainbow, and that the center of the
circular arc of the rainbow is in the direction opposite to that of the sun. The rain, of
course, is in the direction of the rainbow i.e., rain drops must be ahead of you and the
angle between your line-of-sight and the sunlight will be 40°– 42°.
Fig. 2.19
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80 PHYSICS
After rain, there are still some tiny water droplets remained in the air. If there is sunshine, a white sunbeam will be reflected and
refracted by these tiny droplets. Different colors of light have different refractivity. They will be reflected in slightly different
directions inside a water droplet. Since, water is more dense than air, light is refracted as it enters the drop-red is bent less, blue more.
Some of the light will reflect off the back of the drop if the angle is larger than the critical angle (48° for water)
The light is then refracted again as it leaves the drop (act like a small prism), the colours of white light have been dispersed.
• Violet light will leave the drop at an angle of 40° from the beam of sunlight
• Red light will leave the drop at an angle of 42° from the beam of sunlight.

Fig. 2.20 Fig. 2.21 : Rainbow formation

However, you cannot see the blue light and red light refracted from the same drop. So, many drops are involved in producing the
rainbow, you can only see one wavelength of light refracted from one drop. So, to see a rainbow, you need to see light refracted
from many drops. Hence, red will be on the top and blue will be on the bottom of the rainbow.

Primary and Secondary Rainbow

Both the primary and secondary rainbows are phenomena that are formed by the reflection and refraction of sunlight in tiny water
droplets. When a sun beam is being refracted twice and reflected once by the droplet, a primary rainbow will form. If the beam
is being refracted twice and reflected twice, a secondary rainbow will form. As the secondary rainbow is formed by one more
reflection than the primary rainbow, it is much fainter and rare to see. On the other hand, since the paths of sunbeams in a primary
rainbow and a secondary rainbow are different, the colours of the secondary rainbow are arranged in just the reverse order of the
primary one.

51º
(a) Primary rainbow (b) Secondary rainbow
Fig. 2.22

Po i n t
A rainbow viewed from an airplane may form a complete circle. Where will the shadow of the airplane appear? Explain.
SOLUTION

A rainbow viewed from an airplane may form a complete circle because the earth doesnot come in the way of the airplane and
rainbow and as a rainbow is a three dimensional cone of dispersed light it will appear as a complete circle. The shadow of the
airplane will appear within the circle of the rainbow.
Human Eye and Colourful World 81

ATMOSPHERIC REFRACTION
The density of air in the atmosphere is not the same everywhere. It is greatest at
the earth’s surface and goes on decreasing as we move higher. The refractive
index of air depends on its density-higher the density of air, greater its refractive
index. The changes in refractive index of earth’s atmosphere or air give rise to
many phenomena like twinkling of stars, advance sunrise and delayed sunset etc.
Twinkling of stars
The scientific name for the twinkling of stars is stellar scintillation (or astronomical
w
scintillation). Stars twinkle when we see them from the Earth’s surface because we
are viewing them through thick layers of turbulent (moving) air in the Earth’s w
atmosphere.
Stars (except for the Sun) appear as tiny dots in the sky; as their light travels
through the many layers of the Earth’s atmosphere, the light of the star is bent Fig. 2.23

(refracted) many times and in random directions (light is bent when it hits a change
in density-like a pocket of cold air or hot air). This random refraction results in the
star twinking out (it
looks as though the star moves a bit, and our eye interprets this as twinkling).
Stars closer to the horizon appear to twinkle more than stars that are overhead -
this is because the light of stars near the horizon has to travel through more air
than the light of stars overhead and so is subject to more refraction. Also, planets
do not usually twinkle, because they are so close to us; they appear big enough
that the twinkling is not noticeable (except when the air is extremely turbulent).
Stars would not appear to twinkle if we viewed them from outer space (or from a
planet/ moon that didn’t have an atmosphere.
Since the atmosphere bends starlight towards the normal, the apparent position
of the star is slightly different from its actual position. The star appears slightly
higher (above) than its actual position when viewed near the horizon. Further,
this apparent position of the star is not stationary, but keeps on changing slightly, Fig. 2.24

since the physical conditions of the earth’s atmosphere are not stationary.
Advance sunrise and delayed sunset
The actual sunrise takes place when the sun is just above the horizon. When the sun is just below the horizon, the light rays
coming from it, on entering the earth’s atmosphere suffer atmospheric refracton from a rarer medium to a denser medium. So, they
bend towards the normal at each refraction. Due to the continuous refraction of light rays at each layer of the atmosphere, it
follows a curved path as shown in Figure 2.25 and reaches the eyes of the observer at O.

Horizon

A Atmosphere

Actual position of the

sun (just below the
horizon)
Fig. 2.25 Effect of atmospheric refraction at sunrise

For example, in Figure 2.25, the actual position of the sun is at A, just below the horizon but it appears to be at position B above
the horizon. As a result, we can see the sun two minutes before it rises above the horizon in the morning. It is also due to
atmospheric refraction that we can still see the sun for about two minutes even after the sun has set below the horizon. As a result,
the time from sunrise to sunset is increased by about 4 (= 2 + 2) minutes because of atmospheric refraction.
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82 PHYSICS
SCATTERING OF LIGHT
The interplay of light with objects around us gives rise to several spectacular phenomena in nature. The blue colour of the sky,
colour of water in deep sea, the reddening of the sun at sunrise and the sunset are some of the wonderful phenomena we are
familiar with all this is because of scattering of light.
When sunlight enters the earth atmosphere, air and water vapour molecules will absorb part of the light and reradiate it to all
directions. This is called scattering.
1
Rayleight scattering. According to Rayleigh’s law of scattering the amout of scattered light so that the
(wavelength) 4
wavelength of violet, blue and indigo is small as compared to the rest of the colours. So sky appears blue in colour.

Tyndall Effect
When a beam of sunlight enters a dusty (or smoke filled) room through a window then path becomes visible due to scattering of
light by dust or smoke particles this phenomenon is called tyndall effect.

Colour of the Sun at Sunrise and Sunset

At noon, the light of sun travels relatively shorter distance through earth’s atmosphere thus appears white as only a little of blue
and violet colours are scattered. Near the horizon , most of the blue light and shorter wavelengths are scattered and appears red.
Sun almost
overhead at noon
(looks white or
yellowish)
More blue light Less blue light
scattered scattered
Sun near horizon at
sunrise and at sunset
(looks redish) Earth’s
atmosphere

Observer
on earth
Fig. 2.26 Reddening of the sun at sunrise and sunset

Danger signals are of red colours, yellow colour head lights in foggy wather, white colours of cloud etc are some other applications
of scattering of light.
CONNECTING TOPIC
OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS
The size of the image on the retina determines how large an object appears to be. However, the size of the image on the retina is
difficult to measure. Alternatively, the angle subtended by the image can be used as an indication of the image size. Figure
shows this alternative, which has the advantage that is also the angle subtended by the object and, hence, can be measured
easily. The angle is called the angular size of both the image and the object. The larger the angular size, the larger the image on
the retina, and the larger the object appears to be.
Angular magnification (X) = visual angle when object is placed at least distance of distinct vision
Visual angle with instrument

(b) Larger angle means larger image size

Fig. 2.27 : In both (a) and (b) the objects have the same size, but in (b) the image on the retina is larger because the
object is closer to the eye. The angle is the angular size of both the image and the object.
Human Eye and Colourful World 83

Simple Microscope (Magnifying Glass or Reading Lens)

It is also known as magnifying glass or simply magnifier and consists of a convergent lens with object between its focus and
optical centre and eye close to it. The image formed by it is erect, virtual enlarged and on same side of lens between object and
infinity.
Magnification by a simple microscope
The magnifying power (MP) or angular magnification of a simple microscope (or an optical instrument) is defined as the ratio
of visual angle with instrument to the maximum visual angle for clear vision when eye is unaided (i.e., when the object is at
least distance of distinct vision)
Visual angle with instrument
i.e., MP =
Max. visual angle for unaided eye 0
Case 1: Eye focussed at near point i.e., the image is formed at a distance D from the lens/eye

h h' h
0 F
D 2F F u
(a) Unaided-eye
v = D to
Fig. 2.28 (b) Eye with instrument simple microscope

In this case, v = D

v 1 1 1
M v v
u u f v
Now, according to our sign convention v is equal to (–D) here.

1 1 D
M ( D) or M 1 ........... (A)
f D f

Case 2: Eye focussed at infinity (Normal adjustment)

In this case, we find out angular magnification. If the object is
viewed directly by the eye, keeping the object at the near point,
then
O i
O F
............ (1) i
0
D
Now, let us find the angle subtended by its image, if the image is formed
at . In this case, the object will have to be kept at the focus of the lens.
f
O i O/ f D
In this case, i M or M ............ (B) Fig. 2.29
f 0 O/D f

This is one less than the magnification when the image is formed at the near point, but, naturally, viewing is more comfortable
and the difference in magnification usually small.
For example, if we want a magnification of six, f required will be 5 cm in the first case (taking D = 25 cm) and (D/6 = 25/6) 4 cm
is the second case.
For all practical purposes, it is not possible to have magnification > 10 through a simple microscope.

USES
The watch makers use of convex lens to have a magnified view of the small parts of the watch. The magnified glass is also used
to see slides. It is also used in laboratories to note vernier readings.
 EBD_7005
84 PHYSICS

CONNECTING TOPIC

Po i n t
The angle subtended at the eye by an object is equal to the angle subtended at the eye by the virtual image produced by a
magnifying glass. In what sense then does a magnifying glass provide angular magnification?
SOLUTION
In magnifying glass the object is placed closer than 25 cm, which produce image at 25 cm. This closer object has larger angular
size than the same object at 25 cm. In this way although the angle subtended by virtual image and object is same at eye but
angular magnification is achieved.

Compound Microscope
It consists of two convergent lenses of short focal lengths and apertures arranged co-axially. Lens (of focal length f0) facing the
object is called objective or field lens while the lens (of focal length fe) facing the eye, eye-piece or ocular. The objective has a smaller
aperture and smaller focal length than eye-piece and the separation between objective and eye-piece can be varied.
Magnification of a compound microscope
M0, linear magnification due to the objective
I A1 B1 A1 B1
= 1 or ... (1)
O AB PQ A Q B1 F2
Now s PQ F1 and B1 A1 F1 are similar,, O F1 B 2 B1
B F' P2
A1 B1 PQ I 1

B F PF P
1 1 1
I2 A1
A1 B1 B1 F1 L
or PQ PF1 f0
... (2)
f0 A2
L f3
L
Put eg. (2) in (1) to get M0 ... (3) Fig. 2.30 Compound microscope
f0
Now, let the eye is focussed at . This means A1B1 (the image by objective) is made at the focus of the eyepiece. Angular
magnification by eyepiece (i.e., a simple microscope, as already dealt with), Me will thus be
D
Me ... (4)
fe
L D
Total magnification, M M0 Me or M
f0 fe
where, for all practical purposes L is approximately equal to the length of the compound microscope, and D = 25 cm, and f0 and
fe are the focal lengths of the objective and eyepiece respectively.
If the eye is focussed at near point, Me will be (as already derived in case of a simple microscope) = (1 + D/fe).
L D
Therefore the total magnification will become, M 1
f0 fe

Telescope
Telescope is used to provide angular magnification of distant objects. It is of many types, general categories are :
(i) Refracting type (lenses are used) (ii) Reflecting type (mirrors are used)
(iii) Astronomical, to view celestial objects (iv) Terrestial, to view objects on earth.
Prism binoculars are also terrestial telescopes.

Astronomical Type Telescope (Refracting Type)

A refracting type astronomical telescope, used to see the distant objects at large distances, consists of objective, i.e., a converging
lens, or lens combination of larger focal length f0 and larger aperture, and an eyepiece, i.e., also a converging lens, or lens
combination, but of smaller focal length fe and smaller aperture, placed coaxially.
Human Eye and Colourful World 85

Magnifying power (M)

Magnifying power (M), also called angular magnification of a telescope is defined as the ratio of the visual angle subtended by the
final image at the eye and the visual angle subtended by the object when the object lies in the actual position. (In contrast to the
definition of magnifying power of a microscope, the object is not placed at the near point in case of telescope)
tan Objective
M ( , are small) (large aperture) f0
tan
Parallel ue
A1 B1 / EB1 incident
M (in AB1O and AB1E ) M
OB1 B1 fe
A1 B1 / OB1 EB1 rays B2 Fe' F0 E Fe
O
Using sign convention and taking ue as object distance for eyepiece, we get A1
Eye piece
f0 f0 Small aperture
M ... (1) A2 D
ue ue
Fig. 2.31 Astronomical type telescope
This is the general formula for magnifying power of a telescope.
Magnifying power M, if eye is focussed at near point
For the eyepiece, v = – D, v = – ue, f = + fe, where , D = minimum distance of distinct vision

1 1 1 1 1 1
Using lens formula, we get or,
v u f D ue fe

1 1 1 1 fe
1
ue fe D = fe D ... (2)

f0 fe
Put eq. (2) in (1), we get M 1 ... (3)
fe D
In this case, the length of the telescope L = f0 + ue.
Magnifying power M when eye is focussed at (normal adjustment)
In this case, as already explained, we have ue = – fe ... (4)
f0
Put eq. (4) in (1) to get M ... (5)
fe
In this case, the length of the telescope L = f0 + fe.
This is the reason why the focal length of objective is taken large and of eyepiece small in case of a telescope. This also increases
the resolving power of the telescope.
Further, linear or lateral magnification does not convey much meaning in case of a telescope because the size of final images too is
negligible compared to actual size of the objects which are generally planets or stars.
Difference between Compound Microscope and Astronomical Telescope
Compound Microscope Astronomical Telescope
1. It is used to increase visual angle of near tiny objects. 1. It is used to increase visual angle of distant large objects.
2. In it field and eye lens both are convergent, of 2. In it objective lens is of large focal length and aperture
short focal length and aperture. while eye lens of short focal length and aperture and both are
convergent.
3. Final image is inverted, virtual and enlarged and 3. Final image is inverted, virtual and enlarged at a distance D to
at a distance D to from the eye. from the eye.
4. MP does not change appreciably if field and eye 4. MP becomes (1/m2) times of its initial value if objective and eye-
lens are interchanged [MP (LD / f0 fe)] lenses are interchanged as MP ~ [f0 / fe]
5. MP is increased by decreasing the focal length 5. MP is increased by increasing the focal length of objective lens
of both the lenses. (and by decreasing the focal length of eye-piece.
 EBD_7005
86 PHYSICS

LENS CAMERA
In it a converging lens whose aperture and distance from the film can be adjusted is used. Usually object is real and between
and 2F, so the image is real, inverted diminshed and between F and 2F as shown in figure.

O F 2F
2F F I

Fig. 2.32
In photography of an object, the image is first focused on the film by adjusting the distance between lens and film (called
focusing). After focusing, aperture is set to a specific value (for desired effect) and then film is exposed to light for a given time
through a shutter. I is the intensity of light, S is the light transmitting area of lens and t is the exposure time, then for proper
exposure, I × S × t = constant
However, light transmitting area of a lens is proportional to the square of its aperture D, so above expression reduces to
I × D × t = constant
(1) If aperture is kept fixed, I × t = constant
1
(2) If intensity is kept fixed, D2 × t = constant i.e., Time of exposure
(aperture) 2
Increasing the time of exposure by reducing the aperture increases the depth of field.
focal length 1
f -number ; Aperture
aperture f -number

Time of exposure ( f -number)

The following table will explain this relationship in detail.

f-No. 2 2.8 2 2 4 5.6 4 2 8

(f-No.)2 4 8 16 32 64
Human Eye and Colourful World 87

1. A person needs a lens of power –5.5 dioptres for correcting his distant vision. For correcting his near vision he needs a lens
of power +1.5 diopters. What is the focal length of the lens required for correcting (i) distant vision, and (ii) near vision?
1 100
Sol. (i) Focal length of distance viewing = 100cm cm 18.18 cm.
Power 5.5
100
(ii) Focal length in near vision = cm 66.6 cm.
1.5
2. Make a diagram to show how hypermetropia is corrected. The near point of a hypermetropic eye is 1 m. What is the power
of the lens required to correct this defect? Assume that the near point of the normal eye is 25 cm.
Sol. Hypermetropic eye

B
A
A
B

Corrected hypermetropic eye

B
Retina AB object
A A
AB c
Convex lens

To correct the defect, the image of an object at 25 cm should be brought at 100 cm.
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 4 3
f v u 100 25
i.e.,
f 100 25 100 100

100
f 33.3 cm
3
100
So, a convex lens of focal length 33.3 cm Or, Power, P 3.0 D is required.
33.3
3. Why is a normal eye not able to see clearly the objects placed closer than 25 cm?
Sol. The maximum accommodation of a normal eye is reached when the object is at a distance of 25 cm from the eye. The focal
length of the eye lens cannot be decreased below this minimum limit. Thus, an object placed closer than 25 cm cannot be seen
clearly by a normal eye because all the power of accommodation has already been exhausted.
4. A farsighted person cannot focus clearly an object that are less than 145 cm from his eyes. To correct this problem, the
person wear eyeglasses that are located 2.0 cm in front of his eyes. Determine the focal length that will permit this person
to read a newspaper at a distance of 32.0 cm from his eyes.
 EBD_7005
88 PHYSICS
Sol. The near point is 145 cm and eyeglasses are 2.0 cm in front of the eyes. Therefore, v = – 145 + 2 = – 143 cm.
The object is placed 32.0 cm from the eyes so, u = +30.0 cm.
The focal length is obtained from equation
1 1 1 1 1
0.026 cm –1
f u v (30.0 cm) 143 cm
Hence, f = 38 cm.
5. A certain eye has a near point of 11.0 cm and a far point of 15.0 cm. (a) What is the refractive power of the lens that
is required to place the far point at infinity ? (b) What is the refractive power of the lens required to yield a near-point
distance of 25 cm?
Sol. (a) We want to move the far point to infinity, so
1 1 1
6.7 diopters
f ( 0.15m)
(b) For the near point at 25 cm :
1 1 1
5.1 diopters
f 0.25 m 0.11 m
6. A figure divided into squares, each of size 1mm2, is being viewed at a distance of 9 cm through a magnifying glass (a
converging lens of focal length 10 cm) held close to the eye. (i) What is the magnification (image size/object size) produced
by the lens ? How much is the area of each square in the virtual image ?
(ii) What is the angular magnification (magnifying power) of the lens ? (iii) Is the magnification in
(i) equal to the magnifying power in (ii) ? Explain.
1 1 1 1 1 1
Sol. (i) Here, u = – 9 cm, f = 10 cm. Now, v u f or v f u

1 1 1 9 10 1
or, or v = – 90 cm.
v 10 9 90 90
v 90
Magnification, m = 10
x 9
Since, magnification is 10 therefore the area of each square in the virtual image is 10 × 10 × 1 mm2 i.e., 100 mm2.
D 25
(ii) Angular magnification, = 2.78
u 9
(iii) No, magnification of an image by a lens and angular magnification (or magnifying power) of an optical instrument are two
separate things. The latter is the ratio of the angular size of the object (which is equal to the angular size of the image even if
the image is magnified) to the angular size of the object if placed at the near point (25 cm). Thus, magnification magnitude is
v 25
and magnifying power is . Only when the image is located at the near point (|v| = 25 cm), are the two quantities equal.
u |u|
7. A lady uses +1.5D glasses to have normal vision from 25 cm onwards. She uses a 20D lens as a magnifying glass to see an
object. Calculate the maximum magnifying power if she uses the magnifying glass (a) together with her glass (b) without
her glass.

Sol. (a) In this case, magnifying power, M D 1

1 1 PD 1 20 6
f 4
100 1000 200
(b) Focal length of glasses =
1.5 15 3
1 1 3 1 3 1 3 8 5 1
or v = – 40 cm.
v 25 100 v 200 25 200 200 40
40
Now, magnifying power, M = 1 + Pv = 1 20 1 8 9
100
8. Complete the path of the monochromatic ray of light in each (a), (b), (c) of the right angled isosceles triangle. Refractive index
of the material of right angled isosceles triangle is 1.5 (figure).
Human Eye and Colourful World 89

(a) (b) (c)

Sol.

9. The refracting angle of the prism is 60o. What is the angle of incidence for minimum deviation ? The refractive index of
material of prism is 2.
Sol. For minimum deviation, r = A/2 = 60/2 = 30o
sin i sin i
From snell’s law = or 2 = sin 300
sin r

1 1
sin i = × 2 = = sin 45o
2 2
Therefore angle of incidence, i = 45o
10. The intensity of scattered light varies inversely as nth power of wavelength ( ) of incident ligth where,
(a) n = 2 (b) n = 1 (c) n = 4 (d) n = – 4
1
Sol. (c) According to Rayleigh, intensity of scattered light n 4
(wavelength ) 4
SOLVED EXAMPLES BASED ON CONNECTING TOPICS
11. White light passes through a thin prism of angle 6°. If the refractive indices for the red and violet colours are 1.641 and
1.659, respectively, what is the angular dispersion produced by the prism?
Sol. Given: Angle of prism, A = 6º; R = 1.641; uv = 1.659; angular dispession = ?
The angular dispersion produced by the prism
( V R ) A = (1.659 – 1.641)6°
= 0.018 × 6° = 0.108°
12. The crown glass has the refractive indices 1.51 and 1.49 for the blue and red lights, respectively, and the flint glass has the
refractive indices 1.77 and 1.73 for the blue and red lights, respectively. A beam of white light is incident on a combination
of two thin isosceles prisms, one of crown glass of angle A = 6° and other of flint glass of unknown angle A . If there is no
net deviation of the light in passing through the combination, calculate the angle A and the net angular dispersion
produced by the combination.
Sol. The net deviation of light produced by the combination of two prisms is zero and therefore,
( y 1) A ( y 1) A 0

( y 1) A [( V R)/ 2 1] A ( V R 2) A (1.51 1.49 2)6

A = 4°
( y 1) [( V R ) / 2 1] ( V R 2) (1.77 1.73 2)
 EBD_7005
90 PHYSICS

where the minus sign indicates that the second prism of flint glass of angle A = 4° is placed inverted with respect to the first
prism of crown glass of angle A = 6°.
Then the net angular dispersion of light produced by the combination is
( V R )A ( V R)A

(1.77 1.73)4 (1.51 1.49)6 0.04 4 0.02 6 – 0.04

13. A compound microscope has the magnifying power of magnitude 30. The focal length of it’s eyepiece is 5 cm. If the final
image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision D = 25 cm, calculate the magnification produced by the objective.
Sol. The magnifying power of compound microscope is

v0 D
M m0 me 1 1
f0 fe

Therefore, the magnification produced by the objective is

M M 30
m0
me D 25
1 1 =–5
fe 5

where the minus sign indicates that the image formed by the objective is inverted.
14. An astronomical telescope, consisting of an objective of focal length 60 cm and eyepiece of focal length 3 cm, is focussed
on moon whose final image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision D = 25 cm from the eyepiece. If the angular size
of moon is 0.5°, what will be the linear size of the final image of moon?
Sol. The magnifying power of telescope has the magnitude

f0 f 60 3
|M | 1 e 1 = 22.4
fe D 3 25
Then, the angular size of the final image of moon will be

|M | 0.5 = 22.4 × 0.5° = 11.2° 11.2 radian

180

and it’s linear size will be D 11.2 cm 25 11.2 cm = 25 × 0.2 cm = 5 cm

180 180
Human Eye and Colourful World 91

inheritance.
8. In Myopia the image of distant objects is focussed before
DIRECTIONS: Complete the following statements with an
the retina.
appropriate word / term to be filled in the blank space(s). 9. Hypermetropia is corrected by using a convex lens of
1. The coloured diaphragm between the cornea and the lens suitable power.
is ................ 10. A person suffering from myopia cannot see distant objects
2. The middle point of the iris has a hole, which is called clearly.
............. 11. The focal length of a given lens depends on the
3. The screen on which the image is formed by the lens surrounding medium.
system of the human eye is called ............... 12. A dentist uses a convex mirror to view the inner parts of a
4. For young adult with normal vision, least distance of patient’s mouth.
distinct vision = .............
13. The solar spectrum in general is an absorption spectrum.
5. The closest distance at which the eye can focus clearly is
14. The sun looks red at sunset because most of the blue
called the .................
light in sunrays is scattered leaving behind red and yellow
6. For a normal eye, the range of vision is from .................
7. The eye which suffers from myopia as well as from lights.
hypermetropia is said to suffer from .................... 15. Clouds look white because water droplets of clouds scatter
8. The eye which cannot simultaneously see with the same all colours of light equally.
distinctness all objects or lines making different 16. The sun is visible two minutes before the actual sunrise
inclinations is said to suffer from .................. due to atmospheric refraction.
9. The defect of the eye due to which a person is unable to
distinguish between certain colours, known as ..............
10. The ability of the eye to focus both near and distant DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-2) : Each question contains statements
objects, by adjusting its focal length, is called the .......... given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements
11. The smallest distance, at which the eye can see objects
(A, B, C, D) in column I have to be matched with statements
clearly without strain, is called the ............. of the eye.
(p, q, r, s) in column II.
12. The splitting of white light into its component colours is
called ..................... 1. Match the following :
13. .................. causes the blue colour of sky and the reddening Column I Column II
of the Sun at sunrise and sunset. (A) Inverted crown-flint (p) Deviation
14. Sunlight comprises ............... colours.
1
glass prism
dispersive power
DIRECTIONS: Read the following statements and write your (B) Achromatism (q) Deviation without
answer as true or false. dispersion
(C) Hollow prism (r) Absence of chromatic
1. Lens which is used for correcting the presbyopia defect
aberration
of the eye is concave.
(D) Glass slab (s) Dispersion without
2. The colour that deviates maximum while passing through
deviation
a glass prism is violet.
3. Water droplets act as tiny prism in the formation of 2. Column II gives lens that can be use to correct the defect of
rainbow. vision given in column I, match them correctly.
4. The transparent spherical membrane covering the front of Column I Column II
the eye is known as cornea. (A) Myopia (p) Convex lens
5. The eye which can see near object clearly is said to suffer (B) Hypermetropia (q) Concave lens
from hypermetropia. (C) Astigmatism (r) Cylindrical lens
6. The eye which cannot see distant objects clearly is said (D) Presbyopia (s) Bi-focal lens
to suffer from myopia.
7. Colour blindness is a genetic disorder which occurs by
 EBD_7005
92 PHYSICS
6. Why does a diamond sparkle?
7. Who do stars twinkle on a clear night?
DIRECTIONS : Give answer in one word or one sentence. 8. A person having the nearest distance of distinct vision of
1. When a monochromatic light passes through a prism, will 32 cm uses a reading lens of 8 cm focal length. What is the
it show dispersion? magnification of his reading lens ?
2. What do you mean by a pure spectrum? 9. A man who wears glasses of power 3 dioptre must hold a
3. What is the common name for short sightedness?
newspaper at least 25 cm away to see the print clearly.
4. Name the defect which is corrected by using an
astigmatic lens. How far away would the newspaper have to be if he took
5. Will a star appear to twinkle if seen from free space (say off the glasses and still wanted clear vision?
moon) ? 10. Why does it take some time to see objects in a dim room
6. What prevents rainbows from being seen as complete when you enter the room from bright sunlight outside ?
circles? 11. Does a single raindrop illuminated by sunlight disperse a
7. What is responsible for the rainbow-coloured fringe spectrum of colours? Does a viewer see a spectrum from a
commonly seen at the edges of a spot of white light from single far away drop?
the beam of lantern or slide projector?
12. How can we determine the focal length and power of the
8. What is the essential condition for observing a
concave lens required to correct a myopic eye?
rainbow ?
9. A hypermetropic person has problem in driving without 13. How can we determine the focal length and power of the
convex lens required to correct a hypermetropic eye?
spectacles, comment on this.
10. A short-sighted person cannot see clearly beyond 2 m. 14. A 45 year old person is suffering from a defect in his vision
Calculate power of the lens required to correct his eye to due to which he uses spectacles of bi-focal lenses.
normal vision. (a) Which defect he is suffering from?
11. A myopic person can see things clearly only when they (b) What is a bi-focal lens?
lie between 10 cm and 100 cm from his eye. Which lens will 15. What is dark adaptation of the eye?
enable him to see the moon clearly ? 16. A person having short sight (near sight) unable to see
12. A person can see the objects lying between 25 cm and clearly beyond 2 m develops presbyopia by which he is
10 m from his eye. His vision can be corrected by using unable to read a book held closer than 1m. Prescribe lenses
lens of power – 0.1 D. Is the statement true or false ? of suitable power for distant vision and near vision.
13. Which part of the eye causes the first refraction ?
14. Which part of the eye gives the characteristic colour of
the eye ? DIRECTIONS : Give answer in four to five sentences.
15. What is the distance at which a watch repairer holds the 1. Why does it take some time to see objects in a dim room
watch when he is wearing a magnifying glass, if his distance when you enter the room from bright sunlight outside?
of most distinct vision is 30 cm ? Assume that he is not 2. A prism causes dispersion of white light while a rectangular
aware of the action of a convex lens. glass block does not. Explain.
3. When yellow paint and blue paint are mixed we get green
colour. When yellow light and blue light are mixed, white
DIRECTIONS : Give answer in 2-3 sentences. light is obtained. Give reasons.
4. Explain why in day light an object appears red when seen
1. Can a beam of white light when passed through a hollow through a red glass and black when seen through a blue
prism give spectrum ? Explain. glass?
2. What is colour blindness? 5. Explain working of human eye.
3. How do we see colours? 6. Explain the following terms. used in relation to defects in
vision and correction provided by them:
4. A person having a myopic eye uses a concave lens of
(a) Myopia (b) Astigmatism
focal length 50 cm. What is the power of the lens ?
(c) Bi-focal lenses (d) Far sightedness
5. Why do different coloured rays deviate differently in the
prism?
Human Eye and Colourful World 93

10. Explain why the planets do not twinkle.

11. Why does the Sun appear reddish early in the morning?
1. What is meant by power of accommodation of the eye?
2. A person with a myopic eye cannot see objects beyond 12. Why does the sky appear dark instead of blue to an
1.2 m distinctly. What should be the type of the corrective astronaut ?
lens used to restore proper vision ?
3. What is the far point and near point of the human eye with
normal vision ? 1. A student sitting at the back of the classroom cannot read
4. A student has difficulty in reading the blackboard while clearly the letters written on the blackboard. What advice
sitting in the last row. What could be the defect the child will a doctor give to her? Draw ray diagram for the correction
is suffering from ? How can it be corrected ? on this defect.
2. How will you use two identical prisms so that a narrow
beam of white light incident on one prism emerges out of
1. The human eye can focus objects at different distances the second prism as white ligth? Draw the diagram.
by adjusting the focal length of the eye lens. This is due 3. Is the position of a star as seen by us its true position?
to Justify your answer.
(a) presbyopia (b) accommodation 4. How does refraction take place in the atmosphere? Why do
stars twinkle but not the planets?
(c) near-sightedness (d) far-sightedness.
2. The human eye forms the image of an object at its
(a) cornea (b) iris 1. A person with a myopic eye cannot see objects beyond
(c) pupil (d) retina. 1.2m distinctly. What should be the type of the corrective
3. The least distance of distinct vision for a young adult lens used to restore proper vision ?
with normal vision is about 2. A person with a defective eye-division is unable to see the
(a) 25 m (b) 2.5 cm objects nearer than 1.5m. He wants to read books at a dis-
(c) 25 cm (d) 2.5 m tance of 30m. Find the nature, focal length and power of the
4. The change in focal length of an eye lens is caused by the lens he needs in his spectacles.
action of the 3. Study the figure given below and answer the questions
(a) pupil (b) retina that follow.
(c) ciliary muscles (d) iris
5. A person needs a lens of power –5.5 dioptres for correcting
his distant vision. For correcting his near vision he needs O
Rays from I
a lens of power +1.5 dioptre. What is the focal length of Object
the lens required for correcting (i) distant vision, and (ii)
near vision ?
6. The far point of a myopic person is 80 cm in front of the
(a) Which defect of vision has been shown in the
eye. What is the nature and power of the lens required to
figure ?
correct the problem ?
(b) What do the points O and I represent ?
7. Make a diagram to show how hypermetropia is corrected.
(c) Which lens is used to correct this defect ?
The near point of a hypermetropic eye is 1m. What is the
(d) Redraw the figure with the corrective lens.
power of lens required to correct this defect ? Assume
that the near point of the normal eye is 25 cm. 4. In the diagram given below, a defective eye has been
corrected. Study the diagram and answer the questions that
8. Why is a normal eye not able to see clearly the objects
follow.
placed closer than 25 cm?
9. What happens to the image distance in the eye when we
increase the distance of an object from the eye?
 EBD_7005
94 PHYSICS
6.

seven
N
N' spectral
white
light colours
(a) Name the defect which has been corrected.
(b) Name the point N.
observer
(c) Why a convex lens, instead of a concave lens, has
magenta yellow red
been used ?
candle filter filter filter
(d) Redraw the figure of the defective eye without the
corrective lens.
In the above diagram, extend the lines to show which of the
5. One eye is sufficient to form the image of an object. What is seven spectral colours would pass through the magenta
the advantage of having two eyes ? filter, the yellow filter and finally the red filter. Label the
colour of each line.
7. How is presbyopia different from hypermetropia ?
Human Eye and Colourful World 95

1
(a) n (b) n 2
2
DIRECTIONS: This section contains multiple choice questions.
Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which 1
(c) n (d) n 2
ONLY ONE is correct. 2
1. The human eye forms the image of an object at its 9. Rainbow is caused due to
(a) cornea (b) iris (a) Reflection of sun light air
(c) pupil (d) retina (b) Dispersion of sun light from water drops
2. The least distance of distinct vision for a young adult with (c) Refraction of sun light from water drops
normal vision is about (d) Diffraction of sun rays from water drops
10. In the visible spectrum the colour having the shortest
(a) 25 m (b) 2.5 cm
wavelength is
(c) 25 cm (d) 2.5 m
(a) Green (b) Red
3. The change in focal length of an eye lens is caused by the (c) Violet (d) Blue
action of the 11. The splitting of white light into several colours on
(a) pupil (b) retina passing through a glass prism is due to
(c) ciliary muscles (d) iris (a) refraction (b) reflection
4. A near sighted person cannot see distinctly beyond 50 cm (c) interference (d) diffraction
from his eye. The power in diopter of spectacle lenses which 12. At the moment dew formation starts on a cool night, the air
will enable him to see distant objects clearly is (a) Must loose all water vapour
(a) +50 (b) –50 (b) Must remain unsaturated
(c) +2 (d) –2 (c) Must get mixed up with some other vapour
5. The following one is not a primary colour (d) Must become saturated
(a) Yellow (b) Red
(c) Green (d) Blue
6. Fraunhofer lines in the sun’s spectrum are present because 13. 1.
(a) Vapours of certain elements present in the atmosphere
absorb certain colours
(b) The temperature of the sun is very high
(c) The sun does emit certain light 2.
(d) Certain elements present in the sun interfere
7. When a mirror is rotated an angle the reflected ray moves
through double that angle, the instrument based on the
above principle is 3.
(a) Periscope (b) Odometer
(c) Refractometer (d) Sextant
8. A light ray is incident perpendicularly to one face of a 90°
prism and is totally internally reflected at the glass-air 4.
interface. If the angle of reflection is 45°, we conclude that
the refractive index Identify the wrong description of the above figures
(a) 1 represents far-sightedness
(b) 2 correction for short sightedness
(c) 3 represents far sightedness
(d) 4 correction for far-sightedness
14. At sun rise or at sun set the sun appears to be reddish while
at mid-day it looks white. This is because
(a) Scattering due to dust particles and air molecules
causes this phenomenon
(b) The sun is cooler at sun rise or at sunset
(c) Refraction causes this phenomenon
(d) Diffraction sends red rays to the earth at these times.
 EBD_7005
96 PHYSICS
15. Sometimes blurred and less sharply defined images are (c) Look towards the raindrops
formed. This defect is called (d) Look in a direction equally inclined to the source of
(a) Chromatic aberration (b) Spherical aberration raindrops
(c) Blurred lens (d) None of the above 28. Astigmatism can be corrected by
16. A person cannot see objects clearly which are nearer than (a) Bifocal lenses
75 cms from his eyes, the disease he is suffering from is (b) Cylindrical lenses
(a) Astigmatism (b) Myopia (c) Concave lenses
(c) Hypermetropia (d) Presbyopia (d) Planoconvex lenses
17. On entering a glass prism, sun rays are 29. The convex lens is not used
(a) Deviated but not dispersed (a) in camera
(b) Deviated and dispersed (b) as glasses to correct for short sight
(c) Dispersed but not deviated (c) as glasses to correct for light sight
(d) Neither deviated nor dispersed. (d) all of the above
18. A piece of cloth looks red in sun light. It is held in the blue 30. When blue light is used in a thin convex lens then the focal
portion of a solar spectrum, it will appear length is found to be f. If instead red light is used, then the
(a) red (b) black focal length will be
(c) blue (d) white (a) equal to f
19. To get line spectrum, the substances are excited in their
(b) less than f
(a) solid state (b) molecular state
(c) greater than f
(c) gaseous state (d) atomic state
(d) nothing can be predicted
20. The frequency of light whose wavelength is 5000 Å is
31. Dispersion is the term used to describe
(a) 15 × 1013 cycles per second
(a) the propagation of light in straight lines
(b) 5000 cycles per second
(c) 6 × 1014 cycles per second (b) The splitting of a beam of light into component colours
(d) 15 × 1016 cycles per second (c) The bending of a beam of light when it strikes a mirror
21. The pupil of the eye changes in size to adjust for (d) The change that takes place in white light after passage
(a) objects at different distances through red glass.
(b) objects of different sizes 32. A given ray of light suffers minimum deviation in an
(c) different colors equilateral prism P. Additional prisms Q and R of identical
(d) different amounts of light shape and material are now added to P as shown in the
22. To use a magnifying glass, the object should be placed figure. The ray will suffer
(a) as close to the lens as possible
(b) just within the lens' focal point
(c) just beyond the focal point
(d) some distance beyond the focal point
23. A camera employs a ............ lens to form .......... images (a) greater deviation (b) same deviation
(a) diverging ........ real (c) no deviation (d) total internal reflection
(b) diverging ........ virtual 33. In a glass prism
(c) converging ... real (a) Blue light is dispersed more than red light
(d) converging ... virtual (b) Red light is dispersed more than blue light
24. In the eye, the position of the image on the retina is adjusted (c) Both red light and blue light are equally dispersed
by changing the (d) None of these
(a) position of the lens 34. An optician while testing the eyes finds the vision of a
(c) diameter of the pupil patient to be 6/12. By this he means that
(b) focal length of the lens (a) The person can read the letters of 6 inches from a
(d) length of the eyeball distance of 12 m
25. What power lens is needed to correct for nearsightedness (b) The person can read the letters of 12 inches from 6 m
where the uncorrected far point is 250 cm? (c) The person can read the letters of 6 m which the normal
(a) +2.5 diopters (b) –2.5 diopters eye can read from 12 m
(c) + 0.4 diopters (d) –0.4 diopters (d) The focal length of eye lens had become half that of
26. What power lens is needed to correct for farsightedness the normal eye
where the uncorrected near point is 250 cm? 35. A person cannot see objects clearly beyond 50 cm. The
(a) + 3.6 diopters (b) – 3.6 diopters power of the lens to correct the vision is
(c) + 0.28 diopters (d) – 0.28 diopters (a) +5 D (b) –0.5 D
27. In a room, artificial rain is produced at one end and a strong
(c) –2 D (d) +2 D
source of white light is switched on at the other end. To
36. A long sighted person has a minimum distance of distinct
observe the rainbow an observer must
vision of 50 cm. He wants to reduce it to 25 cm. He should
(a) Look anywhere in the room
use a
(b) Look towards the source
Human Eye and Colourful World 97

(a) Concave lens of focal length 50 cm 48. While looking at nearby objects, the ciliary muscles ...........
(b) Convex lens of focal length 25 cm the eyelens so as to .......... its focal length.
(c) Convex lens of focal length 50 cm (a) contract, increase (b) contract, decrease
(d) Concave lens of focal length 25 cm (c) expand, increase (d) expand, decrease
37. A long-sighted person cannot see objects clearly at a 49. The change in focal length of an eyelens to focus the image
distance less than 40 cm. from his eye. The power of the of object at varying distances is done by the action of the
lens needed to read an object at 25 cm. is (a) pupil (b) ciliary muscles
(a) – 2.5 D (b) + 2.5 D (c) retina (d) blind spot
(c) – 6.25 D (d) + 1.5 D 50. Which of the following statement is correct?
38. Twinkling of stars is on account of (a) A person with myopia can see distant objects clearly
(a) Large distance of stars and storms in air (b) A person with hypermetropia can see nearby objects
(b) Small size of stars clearly
(c) Large size of stars (c) A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly
(d) Large distance of stars and fluctuations in the density (d) A person with hypermetropia cannot see distant
of air. objects clearly
39. White light is incident at an angle to the surface of a 51. A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 m.
triangular piece of glass. Which color of light deviates most This defect can be corrected by using a lens of power
from its original path after leaving the glass? (a) + 0.5 D (b) – 0. 5 D (c) + 0. 2 D (d) – 0. 2 D
(a) red (b) orange 52. Astigmatism occurs when the cornea does not have a truly
(c) green (d) blue spherical shape. This defect can be cured by the use of a
40. The middle vascular coat that darkens the eye chamber and (a) concave lens (b) cylindrical lens
prevents refraction by absorbing the light rays is (c) convex lens (d) plano- convex lens
(a) choroid (b) sclera 53. How should people wearing spectacles work with a
(c) retina (d) cornea microscope?
41. When light rays enter the eye, most of the refraction occurs (a) They should keep on wearing their spectacles
at the (b) They should never use the microscope
(a) crystalline lens (c) They should take off their spectacles
(b) outer surface of the cornea (d) They may either put on their spectacles or they may
(c) iris take off their spectacles
(d) pupil 54. A beam of light consisting of red, green and blue colours is
42. When the light is bright, incident on a right-angled prism as shown. The refractive
(a) the iris makes the pupil expand index of the material of the prism for the above red, green
(b) the iris and the pupil contract and blue wavelengths are 1.39, 1.44 and 1.47 respectively.
(c) the iris and the pupil remain as they are The prism will
(d) none of the above B
43. The eyelens .......... light rays to form real, inverted and highly
diminished image on the ....... 90°
(a) converges, retina
(b) diverges, retina
(c) converges, pupil 45° 45°
(d) diverges, pupil A C
(a) separate part of the red colour from the green and
44. The surface of retina has about 125 million light sensitive blue colours.
(a) rods only
(b) separate part of the blue colour from the red and
(b) cones only
green colours.
(c) rods and cones
(c) separate all the three colours from one another.
(d) neither rods nor cones
(d) not separate even partially any colour from the other
45. The 'far point' of a normal human eye is
two colours.
(a) 25 cm (b) 25 m
55. The rod cells correspond to
(c) 100 m (d) at infinity
(a) the colour of light (b) the source of light
46. The property related to the sense of continuity of vision is
(c) the intensity of light (d) none of these
called
56. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the
(a) persistence of vision
propagation of light of different colours of white light in
(b) colour blindness
air?
(c) optical illusion
(a) Red light moves fastest
(d) none of these
(b) Blue light moves faster than green light
47. When the ciliary muscles are relaxed, the eyelens is .............
(c) All the colours of the white light move with the same
and distant objects can be seen clearly.
speed
(a) thin (b) thick
(d) Yellow light moves with the mean speed as that of the
(c) inclined (d) none of these
red and the violet light
 EBD_7005
98 PHYSICS
57. When a ray passes through a prism, corresponds to the colour of the sky?
(a) it goes undeviated C B
(b) it remains parallel to the base A
(c) it bends towards the base
(d) none of the above
58. At a particular minimum value of angle of deviation, the (i) (ii)
refracted ray becomes
(a) parallel to the base of the prism B C A
(b) perpendicular to the base of the prism
(c) inclined at 45° w.r.t. base of the prism C C
(d) none of these
59. Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric
(a) dispersion of light by water droplets A A
(b) refraction of light by different layers of varying (iii) (iv)
refractive indices
(c) scattering of light by dust particles B B
(d) internal reflection of light by clouds
(a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv)
60. Which of the following phenomena of light are involved in
67. The danger signals installed at the top of tall buildings
the formation of a rainbow?
are red in colour. These can be easily seen from a distance
(a) Reflection, refraction and dispersion
because among all other colours, the red light
(b) Refraction, dispersion and total internal reflection
(a) is scattered the most by smoke or fog
(c) Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection
(b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog
(d) Dispersion, scattering and total internal reflection
(c) is absorbed the most by smoke or fog
61. The clear sky appears blue because
(d) moves fastest in air
(a) blue light gets absorbed in the atmosphere
68. The bluish colour of water in deep sea is due to
(b) ultraviolet radiations are absorbed in the atmosphere
(a) the presence of algae and other plants found in
(c) violet and blue lights get scattered more than lights of
water
all other colours by the atmosphere
(b) reflection of sky in water
(d) light of all other colours is scattered more than violet
(c) scattering of light
and blue colour lights by the atmosphere
(d) absorption of light by the sea
62. At noon the sun appears white as
(a) light is least scattered
(b) all the colours of the white light are scattered away
(c) blue colour is scattered the most DIRECTIONS : This section contains multiple choice questions.
(d) red colour is scattered the most Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONE
63. Which of the following phenomena contributes significantly OR MORE may be correct.
to the reddish appearance of the sun at sunrise or sunset?
1. The human eye can focus objects at different distances by
(a) Dispersion of light
adjusting the focal length of the eye lens. Choose those
(b) Scattering of light options which are not accountable for this happening.
(c) Total internal reflection of light (a) presbyopia (b) accommodation
(d) Reflection of light from the earth (c) near-sightedness (d) far-sightedness
64. The bluish colour of water in deep sea is due to 2. The change in focal length of an eye lens is not caused by
(a) the presence of algae and other plants found in water the action of the
(b) reflection of sky in water (a) pupil (b) retina
(c) scattering of light (c) ciliary muscles (d) iris
(d) absorption of light by the sea 3. The following is/are a primary colour
65. A student sitting on the last bench can read the letters (a) Yellow (b) Red
written on the blackboard but is not able to read the (c) Green (d) Blue
letters written in his text book. Which of the following 4. When a mirror is rotated an angle the reflected ray moves
statements is correct? through double that angle, the instruments which are not
(a) The near point of his eyes has receded away based on the above principle, are
(b) The near point of his eyes has come closer to him (a) Periscope (b) Odometer
(c) The far point of his eyes has come closer to him (c) Refractometer (d) Sextant
(d) The far point of his eyes has receded away 5. In case of hypermetropia
66. A prism ABC (with BC as base) is placed in different (a) The image of near objects is formed in front of retina
orientations. A narrow beam of white light is incident on (b) The image of near objects is formed behind the retina
the prism as shown in Figure. In which of the following (c) A concave lens should be used for correction
cases, after dispersion, the third colour from the top (d) A convex lens cannot be used for correction
Human Eye and Colourful World 99

6. Astigmatism is / are lens. Iris has an adjustable opening in the middle called the pupil of
(a) Bifocal lenses (b) Cylindrical lenses the eye. The pupil appears black because all the light entering is
(c) Concave lenses (d) Planoconvex lenses absorbed by the 'retina', which covers the inside of the rear part of
7. The defect that may occur in a lens are the ball. Iris controls the amount of light emerges because the
(a) spherical aberration and chromatic aberration retina absorbs nearly all the light, which falls upon it. This is done
(b) coma and astigmation by varying the aperture of the pupil with the help of the iris. In dim
(c) distortion light the iris dilates the pupil so that more light can enter in. When
(d) none of the above the light is bright the pupil contracts.
8. Out of the following, which statements are correct The crystalline lens divides the eyeball into two chambers. The
(a) Sunlight filtering through a tree often makes circular chamber between the cornea and the lens is called the anterior
patches on the ground because sun is round chamber filled with a fluid called aqueous humour while the
(b) A beam of white light passing through a hollow prism chamber between the lens and the retina is called the posterior
gives no spectrum chamber which is filled with a transparent gelatinous substance
(c) The number of images observable between two parallel called vitreous humour.
plane mirrors is infinite The refractive indices of the cornea, pupil lens and fluid portion
(d) A virtual object placed between the pole and the of the eye are quite similar. So, when a ray of light enters the eye,
principal focus of a convex mirror produces an image it is refracted at the cornea. This refraction produces a real inverted
which is virtual, diminished and upright. and diminished image of distant objects on the retina.
9. Due to refraction of light in atmosphere When the object is kept at different distances then, we may
(a) Stars appear to twinkle expect the image to be formed at different distances from the lens.
(b) The sun appears to be oval in morning and evening It means, it may not form on the retina always.
(c) The period of visibility of the sun is increased But in reality it is not so. Image is always formed on the retina.
(d) The phenomena of mirage and looming take place This is possible because the curvature of the crystalline lens is
10. Out of the following, select the correct statements altered by ciliary muscles. When the eye is focused on infinity
(a) Refractive index varies inversely as the fourth power the muscles are relaxed and the eye lens remains thin. If the object
of the wavelength of light. is brought near by, the curvature increases so that the image can
(b) When the moon is near the horizon, it appears bigger. be formed on the retina. This property of the eye lens is called
This is due to optical illusion. accommodation.
(c) The colour of light which travels with the maximum 1. The change in focal length of an eye lens to focus the image
speed in glass is red. of objects at varying distances is done by the action of
(d) If sun is shining brightly in one part of the sky after _______
rain, two rainbows are usually observed. (a) pupil (b) ciliary muscles
11. The optical phenomenon which Newton’s theory of light (c) retina (d) blind spot
failed to explain is 2. The fluid between the retina and the lens is called ______
(a) interference (b) polarization (a) aqueous humour (b) vitreous humour
(c) diffraction (d) none of the above three (c) aqua (d) humus
12. A convex mirror is not used 3. The part of the eye where optic nerves enter the eye
(a) by a dentist (b) for shaving (a) pupil (b) ciliary muscles
(c) as a rear view mirror in vehicles (c) retina (d) blind spot
(d) as a light reflector for obtaining a parallel beam of light. 4. The inner back surface of the eyeball is called
(a) pupil (b) ciliary muscles
(c) retina (d) blind spot
DIRECTIONS : Study the given paragraph(s) and answer the Passage - II
following questions. The ciliary muscles of eye control the curvature of the lens in the
eye and hence can alter the effective focal length of the system.
Passage - I When the muscles are fully relaxed, the focal length is maximum.
Human eye is spherical in shape and has diameter of about 2.5 When the muscles are strained the curvature of lens increases
cm. Sclerotic is a tough, opaque and white substance forming the (that means radius of curvature decreases) and focal length
outermost coating of the eyeball. The front portion is sharply decreases. For a clear vision the image must be on retina. The
curved and covered by a transparent protective membrane called image distance is therefore fixed for clear vision and it equals the
the 'cornea'. Inner to the sclerotic there is a layer of black tissue distance of retina from eye-lens. It is about 2.5 cm for a grown-up
called as choroids consisting of a mass of blood vessels, which person.
nourishes the eye. The black colour does not reflect the light and
A person can theoretically have clear vision of objects situated at
hence rules out the blurring of image by reflection within the any large distance from the eye. The smallest distance at which a
eyeball. person can clearly see is related to minimum possible focal length.
Behind the cornea, the space is filled with a liquid called the aqueous The ciliary muscles are most strained in this position. For an
humour and behind that a crystalline lens. 'Iris' is a muscular average grown-up person minimum distance of object should be
diaphragm lying between the aqueous humour and the crystalline around 25 cm.
 EBD_7005
100 PHYSICS
A person suffering for eye defects uses spectacles (Eye glass).
The function of lens of spectacles is to form the image of the
objects within the range in which person can see clearly. The DIRECTIONS : Following question has four statements (A, B,
image of the spectacle-lens becomes object for eye-lens and whose C and D....) given in Column I and 5 statements (p, q, r, s and
image is formed on retina. t.....) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have
The number of spectacle-lens used for the remedy of eye defect correct matching with one or more statement(s) given in
is decided by the power of the lens required and the number of Column II.
spectacle-lens is equal to the numerical value of the power of lens 1. Column I Column II
with sign. For example power of lens required is +3D (converging (A) Spectrometer (p) refraction
lens of focal length 100/3 cm) then number of lens will be +3. (B) Mirage (q) deviation without
For all the calculations required you can use the lens formula and dispersion
lens maker’s formula. Assume that the eye lens is equiconvex (C) Hollow prism (r) to measure angle of prism
lens. Neglect the distance between eye lens and the spectacle lens. (D) Glass slab (s) to measure the dispersion
5. Minimum focal length of eye lens of a normal person is (t) dispersion without deviation
A B C D
(a) 25 cm (b) 2.5 cm (c) 25/9 cm (d) 25/11 cm
(a) s,r r, p q q
6. Maximum focal length of eye lens of normal person is (b) s p q r, t
(a) 25 cm (b) 2.5 cm (c) 25/9 cm (d) 25/11 cm (c) p,q s r,s,t q
7. A nearsighted man can clearly see object only upto a dis- (d) q,s q,r s s,t
tance of 100 cm and not beyond this. The number of the
spectacles lens necessary for the remedy of this defect will be
(a) +1 (b) – 1 (c) + 3 (d) – 3 DIRECTIONS : Following are integer based/Numeric based
questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one
integer or numeric value.
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains an Assertion 1. A watch-repairer has his near point at 20 cm. If he uses a
followed by reason. Read them carefully and answer the question magnifying glass of power 20 dioptre, what is the
on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that magnification that he gets?
best describes the two statements. 2. A person suffering from long sightedness cannot see
objects before 1.5 m distinctly. Suggest a lens with proper
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the focal length and power for his remedy. Assume the near
correct explanation of Assertion. point of the normal eye to be 25 cm.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not 3. Calculate the power of a concave lens of focal length 25 cm.
the correct explanation of Assertion. 4. Calculate the power of a convex lens of focal length 25 cm.
5. The power of a concave lens used for correcting a myopic
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
eye is – 0.6 D. Find the far point of the eye.
(d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct. 6. The power of a convex lens used to correct a hypermetropic
1. Assertion: Myopia is due to the increased converging power eye is + 0.8 D. Find the near point of the eye. Assume the
of the eye lens. least distance of distinct vision to be 25 cm.
Reason: Myopia can be corrected by using spectacles made 7. The far point of a myopic person is 80 cm in front of the eye.
from concave lenses. What is the nature and power of lens required to correct the
2. Assertion: The twinkling of stars is due to the fact that problem ?
8. A person cannot see objects nearer than 75 cm from his
refractive index of the earth’s atmosphere fluctuates.
eyes while a person with normal vision can see objects
Reason: In cold countries, the phenomenon of looming (i.e., upto 25 cm from his eyes. Find the nature, the focal length
ship appears in the sky) takes place, because refractive index and the power of the correcting lens used for the defective
of air decreases with height. vision.
3. Assertion: When we see an object, the image formed on 9. A person can see clearly only up to 3 metres. Prescribe a
the retina is real and inverted. lens for spectacles so that he can see clearly up to 12 metres.
Reason: If the magnification of a system is less than one, Defect is myopia.
10. The far point of a myopic person is 80 cm in front of the eye.
then the image formed is inverted.
What is the power of the lens required to enable him to see
4. Assertion: Rainbow is an example of the dispersion of the distant objects clearly ?
sunlight by the water droplets. 11. A ray of light is travelling in water medium falls on the wa-
Reason: Light of shorter wavelength is scattered much more ter-air interface at an angle of 45° with the vertical. Will it be
than light of larger wavelength. possible by the ray of light to come out of the water surface?
Human Eye and Colourful World 101

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-20) : This section contains multiple choice 7. The angle of minimum deviation of a ray of light of glass
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out prism is greatest for the light of colour
of which ONLY ONE is correct. (a) violet (b) orange
(c) yellow (d) red
1. Angle of deviation ( ) by a prism (refractive index = µ, and 8. A direct vision spectrometer uses the phenomenon of
supposing the angle of prism A to be small) can be given by (a) Diffraction
(a) ( 1) A (b) ( 1) A (b) Interference without deviation
(c) Dispersion without deviation
sin( A ) / 2 1 (d) Deviation without dispersion
(c) (d) A
sin( A / 2) 1 9. For seeing a cricket match, we prefer binoculars to the
2. Prism angle of a prism is 10o. Their refractive index for red & terrestrial telescope, because
violet colour is 1.51 and 1.52, respectively. Then dispersive (a) Binoculars give three-dimensional view
power will be (b) Terrestrial telescope gives inverted image
(a) 0.5 (b) 0.15 (c) To avoid chromatic aberration
(c) 0.019 (d) 0.032 (d) To have larger magnification
3. The figures represent three cases of a ray passing through 10. One of the refracting surfaces of a prism is silvered, and the
a prism of angle A. The case corresponding to minimum angle of prism is A. It is found that a ray of light incident at
deviation is an angle of incidence 2A after suffering refraction return
back through the same path due to reflection from the second
silvered refracting surface. Then the refractive index of the
material of the prism is
(a) 2 sin A (b) 2 cos A
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) tan A (d) ½ cos A
(c) 3 (d) None of these 11. If for a given prism the angle of incidence is changed from
0° to 90°, the angle of deviation
4. Prism angle and refractive index for a prism for a 60o and
(a) Increases
1.414. Angle of minimum deviation will be
(b) Decreases
(a) 15o (b) 30o
(c) First decreases and then increases
(c) 45o (d) 60o
(d) First increases and then decreases
5. Diameter of the moon is 3.5 × 103 km and its distance from 12. The refracting angle of a prism is A and the refractive index
earth is 3.8 × 105 km. It is seen by a telescope whose objective of the prism is cot A/2. The angle of minimum deviation is
and eyepiece have focal lengths 4m and 10cm respectively. (a) 180° – 3A (b) 180° + 2A
The angular diameter of the image of the moon will be nearly (c) 90° – A (d) 180° – 2A
(a) 5° (b) 10°
13. A ray of light passing through a prism having 2
(c) 20° (d) 25°
suffers minimum deviation. If angle of incident is double
6. A telescope consisting of an objective of focal length 60 cm the angle of refraction within prism, than angle of prism is
and a single–lens eye-piece of focal length 5 cm is focussed (a) 30° (b) 45°
at a distant object in such a way that parallel rays emerge (c) 60° (d) 90°
from the eye-piece. If the object subtends an angle of 2° at 14. Right face of a glass cube is silvered as shown. A ray of
the objective, then the angular width of the image will be light is incident on left face of the cube as shown. The
(a) 10° (b) 24° deviation of the ray when it comes out of the glass cube is
(c) 50° (d) 1/6°
 EBD_7005
102 PHYSICS

DIRECTIONS (Qs.21-24): This section contains multiple choice

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out
n= 2
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
Air
45° Glass
21. White light is incident on an equilateral prism. In the position
cube
of minimum deviation
(a) Angle of incidence is equal to angle of emergence
(a) 0° (b) 90°
(b) The ray inside the prism is parallel to its base
(c) 180° (d) 270°
(c) The angle of refraction inside the prism is equal to the
15. The focal length of the objective lens of a compound angle of prism
microscope is (d) The dispersion of all colours is same
(a) equal to the focal length of its eye piece 22. Spectrometer is used to measure
(b) less than the focal length of eye piece (a) angle of prism
(c) greater than the focal length of eye piece (b) refractive index of material of a prism
(d) any of the above three (c) the dispersion
16. When the length of a microscope tube increases, its (d) none of the above
magnifying power 23. Consider the following statements :
(a) decreases (b) increases A compound microscope is better than single lens
(c) does not change (d) may decrease or increase microscope because
17. In a compound microscope, the intermediate image is (a) it can produce larger magnification
(a) virtual, erect and magnified (b) it has better resolution
(b) real, erect and magnified (c) it produces images free of all defects of these
(c) real, inverted and magnified statements
(d) virtual, erect and reduced (d) all the above
18. For a telescope to have large resolving power the 24. A planet is observed by an astronomical refracting telescope
(a) focal length of its objective should be large having an objective of focal length 16 m and an eye-piece of
(b) focal length of its eye piece should be large focal length 2 cm
(c) focal length of its eye piece should be small (a) the distance between the objective and the eye-piece
(d) aperture of its objective should be large is 16.02 m
19. An astronomical telescope has an angular magnification of (b) the angular magnification of the planet is 800
magnitude 5 for distant objects. The separation between
(c) the image of the planet is inverted
the objective and the eye piece is 36 cm and the final image
(d) the objective is larger than the eye-piece
is formed at infinity. The focal length f o of the objective
and the focal length f e of the eye piece are DIRECTIONS (Qs. 25-26): Study the given paragraph(s) and
answer the following questions.
(a) fo 45 cm and f e 9 cm
Passage
(b) fo 7.2 cm and fe 5 cm A telescope has an objective of focal length 50 cm and eyepiece
of focal length 5 cm. The distance of distinct vision is 25 cm. The
(c) fo 50 cm and f e 10 cm telescope is focussed for distinct vision on a scale 200 cm away
(d) fo 30 cm and f e 6 cm from the objective.
25. The separation between the objective and eyepiece (in cm)
20. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one face of a
is.
prism of small angle A and emerges normally from the
(a) 56 (b) 28.20
opposite surface. If the refractive index of the material of
(c) 70.80 (d) 87.24
the prism is µ, the angle of incidence i is nearly equal to
26. The magnification produced is...........times.
(a) A/µ (b) A/2µ
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) µA (d) µA/2
(c) 6 (d) 8
Human Eye and Colourful World 103

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 27-29): Each of these questions contains an r = 60°

Assertion followed by reason. Read them carefully and answer µ2
the question on the basis of following options. You have to select
the one that best describes the two statements. (C) 180° (r) 30°
µ1

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the µ1 > µ2
correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not
the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. 90°
(d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
27. Assertion : There exists two angles of incidence for the
(D) 30° (s) 45° 45°
same magnitude of deviation (except minimum deviation)
by a prism kept in air.
Reason : In a prism kept in air, a ray is incident on first
surface and emerges out of second surface. Now if another
ray is incident on second surface (of prism) along the previ-
ous emergent ray, then this ray emerges out of first surface
along the previous incident ray. This particle is called
principle of reversibility of light. (t) i = 60°
28. Assertion: The optical instruments are used to increase the
size of the image of the object.
Reason: The optical instruments are used increase the visual A B C D
angle. (a) t p q,s r
29. Assertion: The resolving power of a telescope is more if (b) r t q r,t
the diameter of the objective lens is more. (c) p,s q r,s,t r
(d) p q, r s s,t
Reason: Objective lens of large diameter collects more light
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 31-35) : Following are integer/numeric
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 30) : Following question has four statements
based questions. Each question, when worked out will result in
(A, B, C and D....) given in Column I and 5 statements (p, q, r, s
one integer or numeric value.
and t.....) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can
have correct matching with one or more statement(s) given in 31. Prism angle of a prism is 10o. Their refractive indices for red
Column II. and violet colour are 1.51 and 1.52 respectively. Then find
the dispersive power.
30. Angle of deviation is given in Column -I and ray diagram
32. Prism angle and refractive index for a prism are 60o and
for angle of deviation in Column -II
1.414. What will be the angle of minimum deviation?
Column – I Column – II
33. The angle of a crown glass ( =1.52) prism is 5º. What should
60°
µair = 1 be the angle of a flint glass ( = 1.63) prism, so that the two
prisms together may be used in direct vision spectroscope ?
(A) 60° (p) µg = 1.5 34. The length of a microscope is 14 cm and for relaxed eye the
µair = 1 magnifying power is 25. The focal length of the eyepiece is
5cm. Calculate the distance of the object and the focal length
of the objective.
35. The diameter of the moon is 3.5 × 103 km and its distance
60°
from earth is 3.8 × 105 km. It is seen by a telescope whose
objective and eyepiece have focal lengths 4m and 10cm
(B) 0° (q)
respectively. Determine the angular diameter of the image of
the moon.
 EBD_7005
104 PHYSICS

SO L U T I ON S
Brief Explanations
of
Selected Questions

11. f = –1 m
12. True
13. Cornea causes the first refraction.
Fill in the Blanks : 14. Iris gives the characteristic colour of the eye.
1. iris 2. pupil 15. The distance of the watch from the eye must be such that
3. retina its virtual image is formed at 30 cm from his eye.
4. 25 cm. Short Answer Questions :
5. near point 6. 25 cm to infinity 2. Colour blindness is a defect of the eye due to which a
7. presbyopia. 8. astigmatism. person is unable to distinguish between certain colours,
9. colour blindness sometime even the primary colours.
10. accommodation of the eye. 3. The retina of human eye has a large number of light sensi-
11. near point tive cells. These cells are of two types i.e., rod cells and
12. dispersion. 13. Scattering of light cone cells. The rod shaped cells show response towards
14. 7 the intensity of light rays, while the cone shaped cells
True / False: respond to colour. It is these cone cells, which make it
1. False 2. True possible for a man to see different colours and distin-
3. True 4. True guish between them.
5. False 6. True 4. Focal length, f = – 50 cm (concave lens)
7. True 8. True Now, Power,
9. True 10. True
1 1 100
11. True 12. False P= 2
13. True 14. True f (in metre) 50 50
m
15. True 16. True 100

Match the Following : Thus, the power of this concave lens is –2 dioptres
5. Different coloured rays deviate differently in the prism
1. (A) s; (B) r, p; (C) q; (D) q because the angle of refraction of different colours is dif-
2. (A) q; (B) p; (C) r; (D) s
ferent while passing through the glass prism.
Very Short Answer Questions : 6. The refractive index of diamond is very high. The faces of
1. No, it will not show any dispersion but will show only diamond are cut in such a way that the light entering into
deviation. the diamond suffers total internal reflection repeatedly.
2. A pure spectrum is the one in which the colours are 7. The continuously changing atmosphere causes refrac-
separated from one another using a narrow source of light. tion which is able to cause variation in the light coming
3. Myopia. from a point-sized star, thus the stars appear to be twin-
4. Spherical aberration. kling.
5. No, because there is no atmosphere in free space for
refraction to take place. 1 1 1
8. v = – 32 cm, f = 8 cm, u = –32/5
6. The earth comes in the way of the rainbow and prevents it v u f
to form a complete circle. Now m = v/u = 5
7. The rainbow - colored fringe formed at the edges of a spot 9. As here u = – 0.25 m and f = 1 / P = (1/3) m, from lens
of white light coming from a beam of lantern or slide
projector is due to diffraction of light rays coming from 1 1 1 1 1
formula P , we have 3
different part of the beam. f v u v 0.25
8. Back of the observer must be towards the sun.
9. No, the statement is false. A hypermetropic person can 1
or 3 4 1m
observe far off objects without any problem. v
10. –0.5 D i.e. v = – 1 m
i.e., the lens shifts the object from 25 cm to 1 m for clear
Human Eye and Colourful World 105

vision, i.e., his near point is 1m. So in absence of glasses, 25 cm

he must hold the newspaper at a distance of 1m away
from his eyes for clear vision.
10. In the bright sunlight, iris causes the pupil to become I
smaller so that only a small portion of light enters the eye
and rods of the retina are also adjusted in the same way.
But when a person enters into a dimly-lit room, each iris Convex lens converges
takes some time to increase the diameter of the pupil, so the rays as if they are
coming from N
that more amount of light can enter the eyes to see the
(c)
object clearly and rod cells of the retina also take some
time to adjust themselves to get the picture of the object Let y = distance of the near point N’ from the defective eye.
in the dim light. Now the near point N of the normal eye is at distance D = 25
cm. The object placed at N forms its virtual image at N’ Due
11. A single raindrop illuminated by sunlight disperse the to the convex lens.
light to produce seven colors of the spectrum. u = – D, = –y, f = ?
A viewer cannot see a full spectrum from a single raindrop By lens formula
because the colours of the spectrum formed by a single
1 1 1 1 1 y D
raindrop are separated by a large distance. A viewer sees = =
f u y D yD
the colours of a continuous spectrum dispersed by
yD
different raindrops. Millions of drops produce the entire Required focal length, f
spectrum of visible light. y–D
12. Let x be the distance of the actual far point from the eye 1 y D
Required power, P
and hence from the concave lens placed close to the eye. f yD
The rays coming from infinity, after refraction through the As y >D, so both f and D are positive. That is the
concave lens, appear to come from the far point F. correcting lens must be a convex lens.
14. (a) The person is suffering from presbyopia.
u = – , = –x, f = ? (b) A bi-focal lens consists of both concave and convex
By lens formula, lenses. The upper portion consists of a concave lens
1 1 1 1
and the lower portion consists of a convex lens.
1 1 1
= 0 15. In a dark room or at very low level of illumination the
f u x x x
supply of light sensitive chemicals in the rods of the
Required focal length, f = –x retina increases to make the rods respond to that very
low intensity of illumination; this takes half an hour to
1 1 happen and this process is called dark adaptation.
Required power, P = 16. For distant vision, defect is short sight
f x
Focal length f = distance of defective far point = – 2m
The negative sign shows that the correcting lens is a 1
concave lens. P 0.5 dioptre (concave)
2m
For near vision, u = normal distance of distinct vision =
13. 25 cm 0.25 m; v = defective near point = – 1 m (virtual image)
Normal N 1 1 1 1 1
P
near point Image formed f v u 1 0.25
(a) behind the
retina 1 4 3 dioptre (convex)

Long Answer Questions :

More than 1. In the bright sunlight, iris causes the pupil to become
25 cm smaller so that only a small portion of light enters the eye
and rods of the retina are also adjusted in the same way.
I But when a person enters into a dimly-lit room, each iris
N'
Near point of takes some tome to increase the diameter of the pupil, so
hypermetropic eye that more amount of light can enter the eyes to see the
(b) object clearly and rod cells of the retina also take some
time to adjust themselves to get the picture of the object
in the dim light.
 EBD_7005
106 PHYSICS
2. In a prism the refraction of light takes place at the two
slant surfaces. The dispersion Mostofrelaxed state of
white light ciliaryatmuscles
occurs the Ciliary muscles contract
first surface of prism where its constituent colours are
deviated through different angles. At the second surface,
image Image
these split colours suffer only refraction and they get fur- O
ther separated. But in a rectangular glass block, the re- Nearby object
fraction of light takes place at the two parallel surfaces. At
(A) Eye-lens has its largest focal lenght (B) Eye-lens has a shorter focal length
the first surface, although the white light splits into its
constituent colours on refraction, but these split colours 6. (a) Myopia or short- sightedness: In this defect a person
on suffering refraction at the second surface emerge out can see nearby objects clearly but cannot see far off
in form of a parallel beam, which give an impression of objects clearly. Here, either the eyeball becomes too
white light. longer or the focal length of the eye lens becomes too
3. Yellow light is ‘made up’ of two of the primary colours, short. It can be corrected by using a concave lens of
namely red and green. Hence, when this light is mixed suitable focal length.
with the light of the third primary colour, namely blue light, (b) Astigmatism: It is a defect of vision in which a person
we get white light. cannot simultaneously see both the horizontal and
Yellow light + Blue light = (Red light + Green light) + Blue vertical views of an object with the same clarity. It is
light = White light due to the irregular curvature of the cornea. It can be
The effect of mixing of two paints of different colours is corrected by using a cylindrical lens.
not the same as that of mixing of two pure spectral lights. (c) Bi-focal lenses: Some people suffer from both myopia
This is because each paint appears to have a colour that and hypermetropia. Such people require bi-focal
depends on the lights that it can reflect. Yellow paint is lenses. The upper part of the bi-focal lens is a concave
known to reflect red, green and yellow lights. Similarly lens used for distant vision while its lower part is a
blue paint reflects blue and green lights. Hence, when convex lens used for reading purposes.
these two paints are mixed, the mixture can reflect only (d) Far sightedness or hypermetropia: In this defect a
green light and thus appears green in colour. person can see the far off objects clearly but he canot
4. We will have these observations if the given object is able see nearby objects distinctly. Here, either the eyeball
to reflect red light but is not able to reflect blue light. This becomes too short or the focal length of the eye lens
would be possible if the object is either of red or of yellow becomes too large. It can be corrected by using convex
(= red + green) colour, as seen in normal day light. lens of suitable focal length.
The red (or yellow) object would appear red when seen
through a red glass because only the red light, reflected
by it (from day light), passes through this glass. The red
(or yellow) object would appear black when seen through
a blue glass because none of the lights (red or red + green)
reflected by it (from day light) passes through this glass. Text-Book Questions :
5. Working of human eye :When you look at an object, light 1. The ability of eye lens to change its focal length with the
help of ciliary muscles is called accomodation power.
rays from the object enter into the eye through cornea by
2. The person is suffering from myopia. This defect is
aqeous humour which also acts as lens to refract maximum
corrected by using a concave lens of suitable focal length
light. This light then passes through pupil which allows the i.e., power.
required amount of light to pass through it. When this light 1 1 10
falls on eye lens image is formed on retina. This is a real and Power
far point (metre) 1.2 12
inverted image. This image is sent to the brain through optical
5
nerves in the form of electric signal and brain interpret the 0.83dioptre
image into erect image. 6
3. A healthy human eye can see the objects at infinity
Most relaxed state of ciliary muscles distinctly. So far point is infinity. The eye can also see the
nearly objects beyond 25 cm.
Object at infinity
4. The student is suffering from myopia. It can be corrected
image
by using concave lens of suitable focal length.
Text-Book Exercise :
(A) Eye-lens has its largest focal lenght
1. (b)
2. (d)
Human Eye and Colourful World 107

3. (c) 25 cm 8. The rays coming from the objects which are at a distance
4. (c) less than 25 cm are not properly focussed at retina because
5. (i) Distant vision (ii) For near vision the ciliary muscles cannot be contracted beyond this limit,
1
so as to decrease the focal length of the eye lens.
1 1
P f 9. The image distance remains unchanged. It is because, as distance
f (metre) P 1.5
of object increases the focal length of eye lens is adjusted by
1 1 10 10 ciliary muscles such that image is always formed at retina.
f f 100 cm
P 5.5 55 15 10. Planets are much closer to earth as compared to stars.
They are extended source of light. They behave like a
2 2 200
f m 100 cm f cm number of point sources so that the average variation is
11 11 3
zero. Thus, planets do not twinkle.
200 11. In the morning, the sun is nearer to the horizon. Blue
f cm 18.2 cm f = + 66.67 cm
11 light have shorter wavelength, so , it scatters more.
6. The lens used for correcting the disease is concave lens Therefore the red light which have longer wavelength
1 1 100 reaches upto the eye of observer and the sun appears
P
far point (metre) 80 cm 80 reddish.
= – 1.25 D. 12. There is nearly no atmosphere for the astronauts as they
7. It is corrected by using convex lens of suitable focal length. are flying high in sky. So there is no scattering of light.
v = – 1 m = – 100 cm This is why the sky appear dark to the astronauts.
u = – 25 cm Exemplar Questions :
According to lens formula, 1. The student is suffering from myopia (near sightedness).
Doctor advises her to use a concave lens of appropriate
1 1 1 power to correct this defect.
v u f

O’ O
N
Correction for myopia
2. By using two identical prisms, one placed inverted with
(a) Near point of a Hypermetropic eye respect to the other.
1 1 1 1 1 A P Screen
R
f 100 25 100 25 white light R R light
white
1 1 4 3 V
f 100 100
V V
P1 A
3. No. light from stars undergoes atmospheric refraction which
occurs in medium of gradually changing refractive index.
N N'
4. Planets do not twinkle as they are closer to earth and are
seen as extended sources.
(b) Hypermetropic eye
Hots Questions :
1. In normal eye, the far point is infinity. The lens used should
100
f cm be such that an object at infinity forms virtual image at
3 1.2 m.
1 3 100 Now, v = – 1.2 m; v = – , f = ?
P 3D
f 100
1 1 1
We know
f v u

1 1 1 1
N N' or or f = – 1.2 m
f 1.2 ( ) 1.2
(c) Correction for Hypermetropic eye 1 1 5
Power, P 0.83 D
f 1.2 6
 EBD_7005
108 PHYSICS
A concave (or divergent) lens of focal length 1.2 m and 5. The area seen clearly with one eye is comparatively less
power – 0.83 D should be used to restore proper vision. than that seen with two eyes. Further two eyes give better
2. This person is hypermetropic judgement of distances of distant objects than one eye only.
So, his u = – 30 cm, v = – 1.5 m = – 150 cm Also, left eye sees more portion of the right side of the
Focal length of corrective lens : object and the right eye sees more of the left side. Thus,
two eyes do not form exactly similar images and the fusion
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 of these two dissimilar images in the brain gives the three
f v u f 150 30 f 150 30 dimensional or the stereoscopic vision.

1 1 5 4 6.
150
f 37.5 cm Red
f 150 150 4
Red Red
+ sign shows that he needs a convex lens of focal length white
37.5 cm. light Red
100
Power of lens (P) = 2.67 D
37.5 observer
magenta yellow red
3. (a) Myopia or near-sightedness has been shown in the filter filter filter
figure.
(b) The points O and I represent the far point and the 7. Presbyopia is a defect only for near vision due to insufficient
retina respectively. power of accommodation arising out of the inability of the
(c) A concave lens of proper focal length is used to correct ciliary muscles to squeeze the crystalline lens beyond a
this defect. particular power i.e., to the full extent as in a normal
(d) defectless eye, so the near point is beyond 25 cm, whereas
the far point in the relaxed condition of the eye is at infinity.
In a hypermetropic eye the crystalline lens has become less
Object powerful (in the relaxed condition) and so it has to exercise
O
power of accommodation to see infinitely distant objects
also straining the ciliary muscles. Hypermetropia is the
Correctness for myopia defect for near vision.
4. (a) Hypermetropia or long-sightedness has been
corrected.
(b) The point represent the near point of the
hypermetropic eye. Single Option Correct :
(c) In a hypermetropic eye, the rays of light coming from a
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a)
near object don’t converge in appropriate way so as
6. (d) 7. (d)
to focus at retina but they get focussed beyond the
8. (b) The incident angle is 45° incident angle > critical angle,
retina. When a convex lens is used before the eye,
extra focussing power is provided and the rays are i ic
focussed at the retina. sin i sin i c or sin 45 sin i c
If a concave lens, on the other hand, will be used then 1 1 1
1 sin 45 or
it will diverge the rays and they will get focussed at a sin i c
n n 2 n
point more beyond the retina.
n 2
9. (b) 10. (c)
(d) 11. (a) Dispersion arises because of basic phenomenon
N N'
refraction.
12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (c)
Hypermetropic eye
17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (c) 21. (d)
22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (a)
Human Eye and Colourful World 109

27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (c) 31. (b) Multiple Matching Questions :
32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (c) 1. (a)
37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (a ) 41. (b)
42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (a) Integer/ Numeric Questions :
47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (b) 50. (c) 51. (a)
52. (b) 53. (a) 1
1. P 20 D, f 0.05 m
54. (a) Difference in refractive indices of blue and green colour 20
are less so they are seen together and red is seen
v
separate because deviation depends on refractive m 1 ;v 20 cm 0.2 m
f
index.
55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (a) 59. (b) 0.2
60. (c) 61. (c) 62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (c) m 1 1 4 5
0.05
65. (a) 66. (b) 67. (b) 68. (c) 2. The lens to be used is a convex lens of suitable focal length.
More Than One Option Correct : Here, u = – 25 cm, v = – 1.5 m = – 150 cm, f = ?,
1. (a,c,d) 2. (a,b,d) 3. (b,c,d) P=?
4. (a,b,c) 5. (b) 6. (a,c,d) By lens formula,
7. (a.b,c) 8. (b,c) 9. (all) 1 1 1 1 1 1 6 5 1
10. (b,c,d) 11. (a,b,c) 12. (a,b,d) f v u 150 25 150 150 30

Passage Based Questions : f 30 cm 0.3 m

1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c)
1 1 10
5. (d) 6. (b) Power (P) = 3.33 D.
f (in m) 0.3 3
1 1 1
7. (b) 3. Here, f = –25 cm ( Lens is concave)
f v u
Here v = 2.5 (Distance of retina as position of image 25 1
m m
is fixed) 100 4
u=–x 1 1
Power (P) 4 D.
1 1 1 f (in m) 1
f 2.5 x 4
4. Here, f = + 25 cm ( Lens is convex)
1 1 1 25 1
For fmin : x is minimum m m
f min 2.5 25 100 4
1 1
1 1 1 Power (P) 4 D.
For fmax : x is maximum f (in m) 1
f max 2.5
4
For near sighted man lens should make the image of 5. Here, P = – 0.6 D.
the object within 100 cm range 1
For lens u = – , v = – 100 We know that, P
Far point (in m)
1 1 1 –1 –1 10
Far point = 1.66 m
flens 100 P – 0.6 6

Assertion & Reason : 6. Here, P = + 0.8 D

25 1
1. (b) In myopic eye due to the increased converging power u = – 25 cm = m m
100 4
of eye lens, the image of a far off object is formed in v=?
front of the retina. We have,
2. (b) 1 1 1
3. (c) The image formed on retina is real and inverted. If f v u
magnification is less than 1, then diminished image is or, 1 1 1
P P
formed not inverted. v u f
4. (b)
 EBD_7005
110 PHYSICS

1 1 1 1 1
or, P or, P 4 f = – 80 cm f = – 0.8 m.
v 1 v f 80
4
1
P 1.25 D (Dioptres)
1 1 0.8
or, 0.8 4 or, 3.2
v v 11. From the relationship between critical angle (i c) and
1 10 1
v m m 0.31 m refractive index (µ), we get sin ic
3.2 32
Therefore, near point of the eye is 0.31 m. In the case of water , µ = 1.33
7. The far point of this myopic person is 80 cm. This means
that this person can see the distant object (which is kept at 1
so, sin ic or ic = 48°
infinity) clearly if the image of this object is formed at his far 1.33
point (80 cm). Therefore, in this case, But, the angle of resistance is 45° i.e. i = 45° and ic > i. If the
u ,v 80 cm, f ? angle of incidence would have been greater than the critical
angle, then the ray of light might not come out of water
1 1 1 surface due to total internal reflection. But in the present
Using lens formula,
v u f situation, since the angle of incidence is less than the
critical angle, the ray of light will be able to come out of the
1 1 1 1 1 water surface.
or or 0
80 f 80 f
or f = – 80 cm = – 0.8 m
The negative (–) sign indicates that the lens is concave.
1 1 1. (a)
Now, Power P 1.25 D
f (in m) 0.8
The concave lens of power – 1.25 D is required to correct v r
2. (c) Dispersive power of prism
the problem. y 1
8. The defect of the vision is hypermetropia. The formula used
v r 1.52 1.51
1 1 1 but y= = = 1.515
is 2 2
f v u
Given, u = – 25 cm and v = – 75 cm. 1.52 1.51 0.1
Therefore = = = 0.019.
1.515 1 1.515
1 1 1 2 75
or f 37.5 cm 3. (c) In case of minimum deviation, the light ray inside prism
f 75 25 75 2
becomes parallel to base of the prism.
Power of the lens
sin(A m ) / 2
4. (b) =
1 100 8 sin 300
= f (in metres) 2.67 D
75 / 2 3
sin(60 m ) / 2
9. Here, v = – 3 m, u = – 12 m, f = ? 1.414 = sin 300
1 1 1 1 1 1
or or f = – 4 m
v u f 3 12 f 60
Sin m
= 0.707 = sin 45o
A concave lens of focal length 4 m should be used. 2
10. A myopic person needs a concave lens for the correction of
60
his eyesight. m = 45o m = 30o
His v = – 80 cm. (far point), u = (infinity) 2

1 1 1 1 1 1 f0 400
So, as 0 5. (c) M = – f = – = – 40
f v u f v e 10
Angle subtended by the moon at the objective
Human Eye and Colourful World 111

For objective lens,

3.5 103
= 3.8 105
= 0.009 radian.

Thus angular diameter of the image

= M × visual angle
= 40 × 0.009 = 0.36 radian
0.36 180
= = 20°
3.14

f0
6. (b) m = f =
e 1 1 1
vo 200 =
50
f0 60
= f e = 2 × 5 = 24° 200
vo = cm
3
7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (c) For eyepiece,
12. (d) 1 1 1
13. (d) i = 2r 25 ue =
5
14. (c) 25
60° 60° ue = cm
r 6
r
The separation between the objective and eyepiece
200 25
L = vo | ue | 70.8 cm
3 6
45° r
The required magnification is calculated as
From Snell's law, M = Mo Me ,

sin 45 vo 200 / 3 1
= 2 where | Mo | = uo 200 3
sin r

1 ve 25
or sin r = and | Me | = ue = 25/ 6 = 6
2
r = 30° 1
M = 6 2.
1 1 3
Critical angle, sin C = 27. (a) Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
2
28. (d)
C = 45°
So ray comes out antiparallel to the incident ray. 29. (a) RP diameter of objective.
15. (b) 30. (a) A-t : The angle of deviation, = 180° – 2i = 180° – 2 ×
16. (b) Magnifying power of compound microscope is 60° = 60°
proportional to length of the microscope. B-p : Glass slab produces no deviation and so = 0.
C-q, s : Deviation in both the cases are 180°.
17. (c)
D-r : = 60° – 30° = 30°
18. (d) R. P. aperture of objective lens.
31. Dispersive power of prism
19. (d) fo fe = 36
fo v r
and fe = 5 y 1

fo = 6 cm and f e 30 cm v r 1.52 1.51

y= 2 2
= 1.515
20. (d)
21. (a,b,) 22. (a,b,c) 23. (a, c) 1.52 1.51 0.01
24. (a, b, c, d) Therefore = = 0.019.
1.515 1 0.515
25. (c), 26. (a)
 EBD_7005
112 PHYSICS
9
sin(A m ) / 2 or, u0 = – = – 1.8 cm
32. = 5
sin A / 2
1 1 1
Now, but u0 is negative.
sin(60 m)/2 f0 v0 u 0
1.414 = sin 30 1 1 5 6
Therefore f 9 9 9 or f0 = 1.5 cm
0
60 m
Sin = 0.707 = sin 45o f0 400
2 35. M = – = – 40
fe 10
60 m Angle subtended by the moon at the objective
= 45o m = 30o
2
3.5 103
33. For a direct vision spectroscope = = 0.009 radian.
3.8 105
1 2 0
Thus angular diameter of the image
( 1 – 1) A1 + ( 2 – 1) A2 = 0 = M × visual angle
1 1 1.52 1 = 40 × 0.009 = 0.36 radian
or, A2 = – A1 = – × 5o = – 4.12o
2 1 1.63 1 0.36 180
= = 20°
34. Length of microscope 3.14
L = v0 + fe or 14 = v0 + 5 v0 = 9 cm
v0 D 9 25
Now, M = – , or 25 = –
u0 fe u0 5
 ELECTRICITY
Chapter

3
INTRODUCTION

Electricity is the branch of physics in which we study electric charges, at rest (electrostatics or static electricity) and in
motion (current electricity).

When we switch on the bulb of our rooms, it glows immediately. An electric signal in a conductor travels at a speed
of light in vacuum i.e., c = 3 × 108 m/s. When we connect our room heater to the ‘pins’ placed on the walls, it produces
heat. When we provide ‘cells’ to our torch and press its button, it glows and produces light. All of these phenomena
are based on the subject matter of this chapter.

Moving charges produce electric current. Electric current produces many effects like heating effect, chemical effect, magnetic
effect, etc. This chapter provides us a strong base on how electric current is produced, which instruments are used for electrical
measurement, the factors affecting electric current, etc. The chapter also deals with the factor which resists the flow of electric
current known as ‘electrical resistance’.

We use electric iron to press our clothes, room heater to get rid of cold, electrical lamps to lit our rooms, etc. We
access these facilities due to heating effect of current. In these phenomena, electrical energy is converted into heat
energy.
 EBD_7005
114 PHYSICS
ELECTRIC CURRENT
We define the electric current, or simply the current, to be the net amount of charges passing per unit time across any section
through a conductor. If the charges are positive, the current is assumed to flow in the direction of charges and if the charges are
negative, the current is in a direction opposite to the charges.
If Q is the amount of charge that passes through a particular area in a time interval t, the average current, Iav, is equal to the
ratio of the charge to the time interval.
Q
i.e., I av
t
The SI unit of current is ampere (A), where 1A = 1 C/s
That is, 1A of current is equivalent to 1C of charge passing through the surface in 1s.
In practice, smaller units of current are often used, such as the milliampere (1mA =
10–3 A) and the microampere (1µA = 10–6 A).
In a conductor such as copper, the current is due to the motion of the negatively
charged electrons. Therefore, when we speak of current in an ordinary conductor,
Fig. 3.1
such as a copper wire, the direction of the current will be opposite to the direction of
flow of electrons.
If the charge on an electron is e and n (n = 1, 2, 3 .... integer) electrons pass through a point in time t then the total charge passing
through that point will be Q = ne (quantization of charge).
ne
Therefore, the current I where e = 1.6 × 10–19 coulomb.
t

CONVENTIONAL AND ELECTRON FLOW NOTATION

When Benjamin Franklin made his conjecture regarding the direction of charge flow (from the smooth wax to the rough wool),
he set a precedent for electrical notation that exists to this day, despite the fact that we know electrons are the constituent units of
charge, and that they are displaced from the wool to the wax -- not from the wax to the wool -- when those two substances are
rubbed together. This is why electrons are said to have a negative charge: because Franklin assumed electric charge moved in the
opposite direction that it actually does, and so objects he called “negative” (representing a deficiency of charge) actually have a
surplus of electrons.
By the time the true direction of electron flow was discovered, the nomenclature of “positive” and “negative” had already been
so well established in the scientific community that no effort was made to change it, although calling electrons “positive” would
make more sense in referring to “excess” charge. You see, the terms “positive” and “negative” are human inventions, and as such
have no absolute meaning beyond our own conventions of language and scientific description. Franklin could have just as easily
referred to a surplus of charge as “black” and a deficiency as “white,” in which case scientists would speak of electrons having
a “white” charge (assuming the same incorrect conjecture of charge position between wax and wool).
However, because we tend to associate the word “positive” with “surplus” and “negative” with “deficiency,” the standard label
for electron charge does seem backward. Because of this, many engineers decided to retain the old concept of electricity with
“positive” referring to a surplus of charge, and label charge flow (current) accordingly.
This is known as conventional flow notation.
Others chose to designate charge flow according to the actual motion of electrons in a circuit. This form of symbology is known
as electron flow notation:
Conventional flow notation Electron flow notation
Electric charge Electric charge
moves from the moves from the
positive (surplus) negative (surplus)
side of the battery side of the battery to
to the negative the positive
(deficiency) side. (deficiency side.)

Fig. 3.2 (a) Fig. 3.2 (b)

Electricity 115

In conventional flow notation, we show the motion of charge according to the (technically incorrect) labels of + and –. This way
the labels make sense, but the direction of charge flow is incorrect. In electron flow notation, we follow the actual motion of
electrons in the circuit, but the + and – labels seem backward. Does it matter, really, how we designate charge flow in a circuit?
Not really, so long as we're consistent in the use of our symbols. You may follow an imagined direction of current (conventional
flow) or the actual (electron flow) with equal success insofar as circuit analysis is concerned.
The current may be constituted by motion of different type of charge carriers in different situations.
S.No. Nature of material Cause of current
1. Conductors Motion of electrons
2. Vacuum tubes Motion of electrons
3. Semiconductors Motion of holes and electrons
4. Electrolytes Motion of positive and negative ions
5. Discharge tube Motion of positive and negative ions

Types of Current

Current
I = const
(a) Direct current : The current whose magnitude and direction does
not vary with time is called direct current (dc). The various sources are
cells, battery, dc dynamo etc.
time
Fig. 3.3 (a)
(b) Alternating current : The current whose magnitude continuously changes
with time and periodically changes its direction is called alternating current.

Current
time
It has constant amplitude and has alternate positive and negative halves. It is
produced by ac dynamo. O T T
2
I = I0 sin t
Fig. 3.3 (b)
ILLUSTRATION : 3.1
If a current 3.2 ampere per second flows through a conducting wire, calculate the number of electrons passing through
the wire.
SOLUTION :
Here, I = 3.2A, t = 1 second, n = ?,
19
ne n 1.6 10
As we know, I ; 3.2 [ e = 1.6 × 10–19 coulomb]
t 1
3.2
or n × 1.6 × 10–19 = 3.2 or n 19 = 2 × 1019 electrons
1.6 10

ILLUSTRATION : 3.2
If 25 coulomb charge flow in a conductor in 5 seconds then find out the value of electric current in it.
SOLUTION :
Here, Q = 25 coulomb, t = 5 second, I = ?
Q 25
Electric current I 5 ampere
t 5

ILLUSTRATION : 3.3
If a light bulb uses 0.50 ampere of current, how much charge flows through it in 5 minutes ?
SOLUTION :
Five minutes = 300 seconds, so from
q I t
q (0.50 A) (300s) 150C
 EBD_7005
116 PHYSICS
ELECTRIC POTENTIAL
Electric potential at a point in electric field is defined to be equal to the minimum work done by an external agent in moving a
unit positive charge from infinity or a reference point to that point against the electrical force of the field.
Electric potential at a point in electric field is numerically equal but opposite in sign to the work performed by electrical force to
bring unit positive charge from infinity to that point.
If W is the work done by external agent in bringing a positive test charge q0 from infinity to a point then the potential V at that
point,
Wext W (work done by electric field)
V= ; V=– E
q0 q0
The SI unit of electric potential is joule/coulomb or volt.

ELECTRIC POTENTIAL DIFFERENCE

Potential deference between two points is equal to the minimum work done in moving a unit positive test charge from one point
to the other.
W AB
VB – VA = WAB = q0 (VB – VA)
q0

WE is the work done by the electric field then ;

WE
– (VB – VA) = WE = – q0 (VB – VA); Wext. = – WE
q0

UNDERSTANDING POTENTIAL DIFFERENCE

When the ends of a heat conductor are at different temperatures, heat energy flows from the higher temperature to the lower
temperature. The flow ceases when both ends reach the same temperature. Similarly, when the ends of an electrical conductor are
at different electric potentials – when there is a potential difference – charges in the conductor flow from the higher potential to
the lower potential. The flow of charge persists until both ends reach the same potential. Without a potential difference, no flow
of charge will occur.
To attain a sustained flow of charge in a conductor, some arrangement must be provided to maintain a difference in potential
while charge flows from one end to the other. The situation is analogous to the flow of water from a higher reservoir to a lower
one fig. Water will flow in a pipe that connects the reservoirs only as long as a difference in water level exists. The flow of water
in the pipe, like the flow of charge in a wire, will cease when the pressures at each end are equal. (We imply this phenomenon
when we say that water seeks its own level.) A continuous flow is possible if the difference in water levels – hence the difference
in water pressures – is maintained with the use of a suitable pump (in figure).

Pump
Higher Lower
pressure pressure Cross-section
(a) Water flows from the reservoir of higher (b) Water continue to flow because a
pressure to the reservoir of lower pressure. difference in pressure is maintained with the pump.
The flow will cease when the difference in pressure ceases.
Fig. 3.4
A sustained electric current requires a suitable pumping device to maintain a difference in electric potential – to maintain a
voltage. Batteries or generators are “electrical pumps” that can maintain a steady flow of charge. These devices do work to pull
negative charges apart from positive ones. In chemical batteries, this work is done by the chemical disintegration of zinc or lead
in acid, and the energy stored in the chemical bonds is converted to electric potential energy.
Electricity 117

Fig.3.5 Each coulomb of charge that is made to

flow in a circuit that connects the ends
of this 1.5V. Flashlight cell is energized with 1.5J.
Generators separate charge by electromagnetic induction, a process we will describe in the next chapter. The work that is done
(by whatever means) in separating the opposite charges is available at the terminals of the battery or generator. This energy per
charge provides the difference in potential (voltage) that provides the “electrical pressure” to move electrons through a circuit
joined to those terminals.
A common automobile battery will provide an electrical pressure of 12 volts to a circuit connected across its terminals. Then 12
joules of energy are supplied to each coulomb of charge that is made to flow in the circuit.

Po i n t
If a current of one-or two-tenths of an ampere were to flow into one of your hands and out the other, you would
probably be electrocuted. But, if the same current were to flow into your hand and out the elbow above the same hand,
you could survive, even though the current might be large enough to burn your flesh. Explain.
SOLUTION

If a current of one-or-two-tenths of an ampere flows into one of our hands and out the other, we may be electrocuted, probably,
because the electric circuit formed becomes closed. But when the same current flows into the hand and out the elbow above the
same hand, the electric circuit is not completed, and we could survive.

ILLUSTRATION : 3.4
Ten positively charged particles have the charges 1 × 10–8 C, 4 × 10–8 C, 9 × 10–8 C, 16 × 10–8 C ........., 100 × 10–8 C and
are situated on the x-axis at the points x = 0.1 m, 0.2 m, 0.3 m, ........, 1.0 m, respectively. Calculate the electric potential at the
origin O.
SOLUTION :
The electric potential at the origin O due to the given ten positively-charged particles
–8 –8 –8 –8
0 1 × 10 C 4 × 10 C 9 × 10 16 × 10
x=0 0.1m 0.2m 0.3m 0.4m
1 10 –8 4 10 –8 9 10 –8 100 10 –8 q1 q2 qn
V = (9 × 109) × ........ V K, ...
0.1 0.2 0.3 10 l1 l2 ln
= 90 × [10 + 20 + 30 + ........... + 100] = 900 × [1 + 2 + 3 + ............. + 10]
= 900 × 55 = 4.95 × 104 volt.
ILLUSTRATION : 3.5
A uniform electric field of 10 N/C exists in the vertically downward direction. Find the increase in the electric potential
as we go up through a height of 0.5 m.
SOLUTION :
The increase in the electric potential (VB – VA) as we go up from the point A to the point B through a height of 0.5 m is equal to
the work done in displacing a charge of + 1C from A to B against the electric field. Therefore, we have
N
V = (VB – VA) = 10 1C 0.5m = 5V
C

ELECTRIC CIRCUIT AND CIRCUIT DIAGRAM

A continuous and closed path of an electric current is called electric circuit.
An arrangement of various electric components used in electric circuit with the help of their electrical symbols is called circuit
diagram. A circuit diagram in which a cell, a rheostat a switch, an ammeter, a voltmeter, and a resistor are connected by
connecting wires is shown in figure.
 EBD_7005
118 PHYSICS
– K Cell
+ –
Rheostat +
Resistor
A
+ –

V
+ –
Fig. 3.6 : Simple circuit diagram
Some commonly used electric components
1. Cell : Direct current source of electromotive force. Combination of two or more cells is called battery.

Fig. 3.7 Symbol of cell p = 16

2. Rheostat (variable resistance) : Wire of special type of alloy like manganin, eureka, nichrome etc. is wound on a hollow
cylinder of china clay. It controls the current in the electric circuit.

Symbol of rheostat

or

(a) (b)
Fig. 3.8
3. Switch : It is used to close or open the electric circuit, controls the movement of electrons in a circuit.

Symbol of switch or plug key

Fig. 3.9
4. Ammeter : Measures the value of current flowing in the circuit. The resistance of ammeter is small and it is used in series with
the circuit.

Symbol of ammeter

(a) (b)
Fig. 3.11
5. Voltmeter : Measures the potential difference between two points in the circuit. Its resistance is high and it is used in parallel
with the resistance wire.

Symbol of voltmeter

(a) (b)
Fig. 3.11
Electricity 119

Po i n t
One example of a water system is a garden hose that waters a garden. Another is the cooling system of an automobile.
Which of these exhibits behavior more analogous to that of an electric circuit? Why?
SOLUTION

The garden hose is more analogous to an electric circuit as it contains a source of water in which there is a pressure difference
like an electric circuit contains a source of electrical energy which has a potential difference. Also, the water is supplied
through a pipe in the same way as a conducting path is provided for the flow of electrical energy in a circuit.

ELECTRICAL RESISTANCE
Directly connecting the poles of a voltage source together with a single piece of Electron flow
wire is dangerous because the magnitude of electric current may be very large in
such a short circuit, and the release of energy very dramatic (usually in the form of

Electric lamp
heat),you may have heard about firing due to short circuit. Usually, electric circuits

Battery

(glowing)
are constructed in such a way as to make practical use of that released energy, in as
safe a manner as possible. One practical and popular use of electric current is for
the operation of electric lighting. The simplest form of electric lamp is a tiny metal
“filament” inside of a clear glass bulb, which glows white-hot (incandesces) with Electron flow
heat energy when sufficient electric current passes through it. Like the battery, it Fig. 3.12
has two conductive connection points, one for electrons to enter and the other for
electrons to exit. Connected to a source of voltage, an electric lamp circuit looks
something like this:
As the electrons work their way through the thin metal filament of the lamp, they encounter more opposition to motion than they
typically would in a thick piece of wire. This opposition to electric current depends on the type of material, its cross-sectional
area, and its temperature. It is technically known as resistance.
Resistance is the obstruction offered to the flow of electric current. (It can be said that conductors have low resistance and
insulators have very high resistance.) This resistance serves to limit the amount of current through the circuit with a given
amount of voltage supplied by the battery, as compared with the “short circuit” where we had nothing but a wire joining one end
of the voltage source (battery) to the other.
The S.I. unit of resistance is ohm ( ).
The reciprocal of resistance is called conductance G = 1/R
Its S.I. unit is ohm–1 or mho or siemen (s).
When electrons move against the opposition of resistance, due to friction heat is generated. Just like mechanical friction, the
friction produced by electrons flowing against a resistance manifests itself in the form of heat. The concentrated resistance of a
lamp’s filament results in a relatively large amount of heat energy dissipated at that filament. This heat energy is enough to cause
the filament to glow white-hot, producing light, whereas the wires connecting the lamp to the battery (which have much lower
resistance) hardly even get warm while conducting the same amount of current. How to deal with resistance mathematically?
You will find the answer in Ohm’s law section.

FACTORS AFFECTING RESISTANCE

The resistance of a conductor depends on temperature, nature of material, length and area of cross-section.
Resistance depends on temperature:
If the resistance of the wire at 0°C be R0 and at t°C be Rt, then the value of Rt is obtained by the following formula
Rt = R0 (1 + t) ........... (1)
where is a constant which is called the ‘temperature coefficient of resistance’ of the material
Resistance R

of the wire.
Rt R0 R0
From eq. (1), we have per C
R0 t
Temperature T
Fig. 3.13
If R0 = 1 ohm, t = 1°C then = (Rt – R0) = increase in resistance.
Therefore, if the resistance of a wire at 0°C be 1 ohm, then on raising its temperature to 1°C, the increase in its resistance will be
 EBD_7005
120 PHYSICS
equal to the ‘‘temperature coefficient of resistance’ of the material of that wire. For most of the metals, the value of is nearly
(1/273) per °C. Hence, by eq. (1), we have

t (273 t ) T
Rt R0 1 R0 R0
273 273 273

where T is the absolute temperature. Thus, Rt T

Thus, the resistance of a pure metallic wire is directly proportional to its absolute temperature.
The resistivity of alloys also increases with rise in temperature, but this increase is much smaller compared to pure metals.
There are certain alloys such as manganin, constantan, nichrome, etc., whose resistivity is little affected by temperature, that is,
their temperature coefficient of resistance is negligible. On account of their high resistivity and negligible temperature coeffi-
cient of resistance, these alloys are used to make wires for standard resistances, resistance boxes, etc.
Resistance depends on the length and the cross-section of the wire :

Resistance
The resistance of ohmic circuit elements such as metal wires or carbon resis- R4
tor depends on their geometries.
To find dependence, first we will keep the thickness of the object (like a cop- R3
per wire) fixed and just increase or decrease the length of the wire. If we
apply a potential difference across the ends of the wire and use current and R2
potential difference measurements, we can determine its resistance as a func- R1
tion of length. We find that there is a proportionality between the length L of
the wire and the resistance of the wire R. Thus we can write O L1 L2 L3 L4
R L Length
i.e., R = kL Fig. 3.14 (a)

If instead we fix the length of the copper wire and vary the thickness or cross-
sectional area A then we find the resistance of the copper decreases as the Resistance R4
cross-sectional area A of the wire increases.
R3
1 1
In fact we get an inverse relationship so that R or, R k R2
A A
L R1
Combining these two expressions gives us : R kk
A
To simplify this expression, we can replace the product of the two constants O 1/A 1 1/A 2 1/A 3 1/A 4
L 1/Area of cross section
with a single new constant and write R Fig. 3.14 (b)
A
Where is a constant, which is called the specific resistance or resistivity of the conducting material. It does not depend on
the area of cross-section. Resistivity depends only on the nature of material and temperature.
A ohm × m 2
Resistivity, R The SI unit of = = ohm × meter ( m)
L m
Definition of resistivity : If L = 1 meter, A = 1 square meter then = R (numerically) i.e. resistance of a wire of unit length and
unit area of cross section is numerically equal to the resistivity or specific resistance of the material of wire.
Remember resistance is a property of an object. Resistivity is a property of a material.
Resistance of some metallic conductors rises with increase in temperature, e.g. copper, silver etc. Resistance of some alloys such
as manganin and constantan changes very slowly with increase in temperature. Contrary to this, resistance of semiconductors
such as germanium (Ge), silicon (Si) etc. decreases with increase in temperature.
On decreasing temperature of some metals, the resistance becomes zero at a certain temperature.
For example : Resistance of mercury becomes zero at 4.2 K temperature.
ACTIVITY : To show dependence of resistance on length, area of cross-section and material of the conducting material
Complete an electric circuit consisting of a cell, an ammeter, a nichrome wire of length l [say, marked (1)] and a plug key, as
shown in fig. 3.15. Now, plug the key. Note the current in the ammeter.
Electricity 121

(1) K
(2)
(3)
(4)

– + + A –

Fig. 3.15 : Electric circuit to study the factors on which the resistance of conducting wires depends.

Replace the nichrome wire by another nichrome wire of same thickness but twice the length, that is 2l [marked (2) in the Fig].
Note the ammeter reading.
Now replace the wire by a thicker nichrome wire, of the same length l [marked (3)]. A thicker wire has a larger cross-sectional
area. Again note down the current through the circuit.
Instead of taking a nichrome wire, connect a copper wire [marked (4) in Fig. ] in the circuit. Let the wire be of the same length
and same area of cross-section as that of the first nichrome wire [marked (1)]. Note the value of the current.
Notice the difference in the current in all cases.
Does the current depend on the length of the conductor?
Does the current depend on the area of cross-section of the wire used?
Does the current depend on the area of cross-section of the wire used?

If a wire is stretched such that length becomes n times, resistance becomes n2 times. Due to stretching, the cross-sectional area
decreases to n times and volume (or mass) remains constant.
Volume (V) = A ,
A = An
A
New cross-sectional area A
n
n n2
New resistance R = n2 R
A/ n A
The fractional change in resistance without change in volume or mass are :
R 2 L
(a) When change in length (L) is small ( 5%) fractional change in R is
R L
R 4 r
(b) When change in radius (r) is small ( 5%) fractional change in R is
R r
R 2 A
(c) When change in area A is small ( 5%) fractional change in R is
R A

Po i n t
Choose the correct alternative
(a) Alloys of metals usually have (greater/less) resistivity than that of their constituent metals.
(b) Alloys usually have much (lower/higher) temperature coefficients of resistance than pure metals.
(c) The resistance of graphite and most non-metals increases/decreases with increase in temperature.
(d) The resistivity of a semiconductor increases/decreases rapidly with increasing temperature.
(e) The resistivity of the alloy manganin is nearly independent of/increases rapidly with increases of temperature.
(f) The resistivity of a typical insulator (e.g., amber) is greater than that of a metal by a factor of the order of
(1022/1023)
 EBD_7005
122 PHYSICS
SOLUTION

(a) Alloys of metals usually have greater resistivity than that of their constituent metals.
(b) Alloys usually have much lower temperature coefficients of resistance than pure metals.
(c) The resistance of graphite and most non metals decreases with increase in temperature.
(d) The resistivity of a semiconductor decreases rapidly with increasing temperature.
(e) The resistivity of the alloy manganin is nearly independent of increasing temperature.
(f) The resistivity of a typical insulator (e.g. amber) is greater than that of a metal by factor of the order of 1022.

ILLUSTRATION : 3.6
The resistivity of copper at room temperature is 1.72 × 10–6 ohm-centimeter. What is the resistance of a copper wire 35
meters long and 0.025 centimeter in cross section?
SOLUTION :
Given: = 1.72 × 10–6 cm, l = 35m, A = 0.025 cm2
6
(1.72 10 cm) (3500 cm)
Resistance, R 0.24
A 0.025 cm 2

ILLUSTRATION : 3.7
The resistance of a wire of length 100 cm and of uniform area of cross-section 0.020 cm2, is found to be 2.0 ohm. Calcu-
late specific resistance of wire.
SOLUTION :
Here, =100 cm, A = 0.020 cm2, R = 2.0
RA 2.0 0.020
Specific resistance = 0.0004 cm
100
ILLUSTRATION : 3.8
What length of wire of resistivity 100 × 10–8 m, area of cross-section 2.5 × 10–7 m2, would be needed to make a resistor
of 57.6 ?
SOLUTION :
8
Here, R = 57.6 , A = 2.5 × 10–7 m2, 100 10 m, l=?
7
l RA 57.6 2.5 10 m2
As we know, R so, l l 1.44 m
A 8 m
100 10
ILLUSTRATION : 3.9
Two wires A and B of equal masses and of same metal are taken. The diameter of the wire A is half the diameter of the
wire B. If the resistance of the wire A be 24 ohm, calculate the resistance of the wire B.
SOLUTION :
Let rA be the radius and A the length of the wire A, and rB the radius and B the length of the wire B. Both the wires are of the
same material (density d). Since the masses of the two wires are equal, we have
rA2 A d rB2 B d

A rB2
........... (1)
B rA2

A B
Resistance of the wire A is RA , Resistance of the wire B is RB
rA2 rB2
where is the specific resistance of the material of the wires

RA A rB2 rB4
RB B rA2 rA4
1 RA 1 1
But rA rB (given) 16 or RB RA 24 ohm 1.5 ohm
2 RB 16 16
Electricity 123

ILLUSTRATION : 3.10
Calculate the resistance of 1 km long copper wire of radius 1 mm. (Resistivity of copper is 1.72 × 10–8 m)
SOLUTION :
Given: 1 km 1000m, r 1 mm 10 3 m , A r2 3.14 (10 3 ) 2 3.14 10 6 m2
8
Resistivity 1.72 10 m
l 1.72 10 8 1000
Resistance, R = 5.5 .
A 3.14 10 6

OHM’S LAW
According to Ohm’s law “The current passing through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference between
its ends, provided the physical conditions such as temperature of conductor remain unchanged.”
i.e., V I or V = RI V
where R is a constant which is called resistance of the material.
V
Unit of resistance R
I
V volt V
R ohm ( )
I ampere I
The SI unit of resistance is ohm ( ). O I
Fig. 3.16
If I = 1 ampere, V = 1 volt then R = 1 .
The resistance of a conductor is 1 ohm if a potential difference of 1 volt is produced across its ends when 1 ampere of the current
flows through it.
The conductors, which obey the Ohm’s law are called the ohmic conductors or linear resistances. All metallic conductors (such
as silver, aluminium, copper, iron, etc.) are the ohmic conductors or linear resistances.
The conductors, which do not obey the Ohm’s law are called the non-ohmic conductors or non-linear resistances. Examples
are, diode valve, triode valve, transistors, electrolyte, etc.

It is sometime contended that R = V/i (or V = iR) is a statement of Ohm’s law. That is not true! This equation is the defining
equation for resistance, and it applies to all conducting devices, whether they obey Ohm’s law or not. If we measure the potential
difference V across and the current i through the device, even a bulb or other non-ohmic device, we can find its resistance at that
value of V as R = V/i. The essence of Ohm’s law, however, is a plot of i versus V that it is straight line, so that the value of R
is independent of the value of V.

ACTIVITY :
• Take a nichrome wire, a torch bulb, a 10 W bulb and an ammeter (0 – 5 A range), a plug key and some connecting wires.
• Set up the circuit by connecting four dry cells of 1.5 V each in series with the ammeter leaving a gap XY in the circuit, as shown
in Figure.
+ A –
X Y

K –
+ – () +
(a) (b) Nichrome wire (c) 10W bulb (d) torch bulb
Fig. 3.17
• Complete the circuit by connecting the nichrome wire in the gap XY. Plug the key. Note down the ammeter reading. Take out the
key from the plug. Always take out the key from the plug after measuring the current through the circuit.
• Replace the nichrome wire with the torch bulb in the circuit and find the current through it by measuring the reading of the
ammeter.
 EBD_7005
124 PHYSICS
• Now repeat the above step with the 10 W bulb in the gap XY.
• Are the ammeter readings differ for different components connected in the gap XY? What do the above observations indicate?
• You may repeat this activity by keeping any material component in the gap. Observe the ammeter readings in each case. Analyse
the observations.
+ –
( )
VERIFICATION OF OHM’S LAW battery s Rh
Set up a circuit as shown in figure with a battery, switch (S), a rheostat
(Rh), ammeter (a), a resistor (R) and a voltmeter (V). Close the circuit
and adjust the rheostat such that the ammeter and the voltmeter show a
measurable reading I and V respectively. Repeat the experiment for R
A
different values of I and V by adjusting
+ –
the rheostat. V
Tabulate your results as shown below : + – Fig. 3.18

Trial No. Potential difference Current I (in ampere) V

R (in ohm)
V (in volt) I
1.
2.
3.
Plot a graph of V against I. If it is a straight line passing through the origin Fig. 3.19 we can conclude that P.D. ‘V’ is directly
proportional to the current ‘I’ and Ohm’s law is verified.
V

O I
Fig. 4.19
Limitation of Ohm’s Law
1. Ohm’s law does not apply to conductors such as diode, radio valves, metal rectifiers, electricity through gases.
2. Ohm’s law is applicable only when the physical conditions remain constant, for example the resistance of some conductors will
vary if the wires are heated or placed under tension.
3. Ohm’s law is applicable only when the temperature of the conductor is constant. Generally the resistance of pure metals in-
creases with temperature but the resistance of certain other conducting materials like carbon decreases with temperature. There
are certain metal alloys of magnesium and copper whose resistance changes with temperature.

The substances which obey Ohm’s law are called Ohmic or linear conductors. The
resistance of such conductors is independent of magnitude and polarity of applied I
potential difference. Here the graph between and V is a straight line passing through R
the origin. The reciprocal of slope of straight line gives resistance I
V
V 1
R = constant. V
I tan Fig. 3.20 (a)
Examples silver, copper, mercury, carbon, mica etc.
The substances which do not obey Ohm’s law are called non-ohmic or non linear I
conductors. The –V curve is not a straight line.
Examples p-n junction diode, transistors, thermionic valves, rectifiers etc.

V
Fig. 3.20 (b)
Electricity 125

Po i n t
Is Ohm’s law universally applicable for all conducting elements? If not, give examples of elements which do not obey
Ohm’s law.
SOLUTION

Ohm’s law is not a fundamental law in nature. It is not universally followed semiconductor diodes, transistor, thermistors,
vacuum tubes do not follow ohm’s law.

ILLUSTRATION : 3.11
Calculate the potential difference required across a conductor of resistance 5 to flow a current of 1.5 A through it.
SOLUTION :
Given: R = 5 , I = 1.5 A, V = ?
From Ohm’s, law, V = IR = 1.5 × 5 = 7.5 V
ILLUSTRATION : 3.12
How much electric current is produced on applying potential difference of 30 volts on a wire of resistance 20 ohm ?
SOLUTION :
Given: Resistance R = 20 ; potential difference, V = 30V, electric current, I = ?
According to ohm’s law,
V 30
I 1.5 ampere
R 20

ILLUSTRATION : 3.13
If 5 ampere current flowing through a wire, develops a potential difference of 50 volts across its ends, find the resistance
of the wire.
SOLUTION :
Here, current I = 5A; potential difference, V = 50V, resistance R = ?
Using ohm’s law,
V 50
R= 10 ohm
I 5

ILLUSTRATION : 3.14
The potential difference between the terminals of an electric heater is 60 V when it draws a current of 4A from the source.
What current will the heater draw if the potential difference is increased to 120 V ?
SOLUTION :
We are given, potential difference V = 60 V, current I = 4A.
V 60V
According to Ohm’s law, R 15
I 4A
When the potential difference is increased to 120V the current is given by
V 120V
I= 8A
R 15
The current through the heater becomes 8A.
ILLUSTRATION : 3.15
A relay with a resistance of 12 ohms is in an electric circuit with one side at a potential of 85 volts and the other at 71
volts. How much current is in the relay ?
SOLUTION :
The potential difference across the relay is (85V – 71V) = 14V.
V 14V
Current in the relay, I ; 1.2 A
R 12
 EBD_7005
126 PHYSICS
COMBINATION OF RESISTORS
In many practical applications to have desired value of resistance two or more resistances are required to be combined. This can
be done in two ways : (i) In series and (ii) In parallel. Sometimes resistances are to be combined in such a way that some
resistances be in series and some in parallel. Such a combination is called mixed grouping.
If, in an electrical circuit, two or more resistances connected between two points are replaced by a single resistance such that
there is no change in the current of the circuit and in the potential difference between those two points, then the single resistance
is called the ‘equivalent resistance’.
When the resistance of a circuit is to be increased, they are combined in series and when heavy current is to be passed, they are
combined in parallel so as to decrease the total resistance.

Series Combination of Resistors

In this combination, the resistances are joined end to end. Thus the second end of each resistance is joined to the first end of the
next resistance, and so on. The first end of the first resistance and the second end of the last resistance are connected to the cell.
In this combination, the same current flows in all the resistances but the potential differences between their ends are different
according to their resistances.
In figure, three resistances AB, BC and CD are connected in series. Suppose their A + – i D
resistances are R 1, R2 and R3 r espectively. Let the i
‘equivalent resistance’ of these resistances be R.
R1 R3
Suppose a current is flowing in all the three resistances. Suppose the potential
differences between the ends of the resistances R1, R2 and R3 are V1, V2 and V3 i i
respectively. Then, according to Ohm’s law we have B R2 C
V1 = iR1, V2 = iR2 and V3 = iR3. Fig. 3.21
If the potential difference between points A and D be V, then
V V1 V2 V3 iR1 iR2 iR3 i ( R1 R2 R3 ) .......... (1)
The equivalent resistance between points A and D is R. Therefore
V = iR .......... (2)
Comparing eq. (1) and (2), we get iR i ( R1 R2 R3 )
Therefore, R R1 R2 R3
That is, the equivalent resistance of the resistances connected in series is equal to the sum of those resistances and is thus
greater than any individual resistance. Equivalent resistance, R = R1 + R2 + R3 + ... + Rn.
ACTIVITY : X R1 R2 R3
• Join three resistors of different values in series. Connect them with a battery,
– V
an ammeter and a plug key, as shown in Fig. You may use the resistors of + –
values like 1 , 2 , 3 etc., and a battery of 6V for performing this activity.
A
+
• Plug the key. Note the ammeter reading. I
• Change the position of ammeter to anywhere in between the resistors.
Note the ammeter reading each time. K
+ –
• Do you find any change in the value of current through the ammeter ?
Again, Fig. 3.22
+V – +V – +
• In previous activity, insert a voltmeter across the ends X and Y of the series 1 2 V3 –
combination of three resistors, as shown in figure.
• Plug the key in the circuit and note the voltmeter reading. It gives the X R P Q R S T R Y
potential difference across the series combination of resistors. Let it be V.
Now, measure the potential difference across the two terminals of the
battery. Compare the two values. I I
• Take out the plug key and disconnect the voltmeter. Now, insert the voltmeter
across the ends X and P of the first resistor, as shown in Figure. K
• Plug the key and measure the potential difference across the first resistor. + –
– A +
Let it be V1. Fig. 3.23
• Similarly, measure the potential difference across the other two resistors, separately. Let these values be V2 and V3, respectively.
• Deduce a relationship between V, V1, V2 and V3.
Electricity 127

Parallel Combination of Resistors

When two or more resistances are combined in such a way that their first ends are connected to one point and the second ends to
another point then this combination is in parallel. In this combination, the potential difference between the ends of all the
resistances is same but the current in different resistances are different.
In Fig. 3.24, three resistances R1, R2 and R3 are joined in parallel between the points + –
A and B. Suppose the current flowing from the cell is i. At the point A, this current is
divided into three parts. Suppose i1, i2 and i3 are the currents in R1, R2 and R3 respec-
tively. At the point B, these three currents meet and form the main current i. Thus, we i R1 i
have i 1 R2
i i1 i2 i3 ............. (1)
A i2 B
Let the potential difference between the points A and B be V. Since i3 R3
each resistance is connected between A and B, the potential difference
between the ends of each will be V. Therefore, Fig. 3.24

V , V and i V
i1 i2 3
R3
R1 R2
Substituting these values in eq. (1) we get,
V V V
i ............. (2)
R1 R2 R3
If the equivalent resistance between the points A and B be R, then
i = V/R ............. (3)
Comparing eq. (2) and (3), we get
V V V V 1 1 1 1
R R1 R2 R3 or R R1 R2 R3
That is, the reciprocal of the equivalent resistance of the resistances connected in parallel is equal to the sum of the reciprocals
1 1 1 1 1
of those resistances. Equivalent resistance, , ...
R R1 R2 R3 Rn
In parallel combination, the equivalent resistance R is less than even the smallest resistance connected.
ACTIVITY :
Make a parallel combination, of three resistors having resistances R1, R2, and R3, respectively. Connect it with a battery, a plug
key and an ammeter, as shown in Fig 3.25 (a). Also connect a voltmeter in parallel with the combination of resistors.
Plug the key and note the ammeter reading. Let the current be I. Also take the voltmeter reading. It gives the potential difference
V, across the combination. The potential difference across each resistor is also V. This can be checked by connecting the voltmeter
across each individual resistor [Fig. 3.25(b)].

L R M
R
X Y + V –
P Q R M I
R L
+ A –
S T
I V – I X P R Q I Y
+

R I
K
+ –
– A + S T

(a) (b)
Fig. 3.25
Take out the plug from the key. Remove the ammeter and voltmeter from the circuit. Insert the ammeter in series with the resist
or R1, as shown in Fig. 3.25 (b). Note the ammeter reading, I1.
Similarly, measure the currents through R2 and R3. Let these be I2 and I3, respectively. What is the relationship between I, I1, I2
and I3 ?
 EBD_7005
128 PHYSICS

Po i n t
Given n resistors each of resistance R, how will you combine them to get the (i) maximum (ii) minimum effective
resistance? What is the ratio of the maximum to minimum resistance?
SOLUTION

(i) For maximum effective resistance, all the resistors should be joined in series.
Rmax R R R .........n or Rmax nR
(ii) For minimum effective resistance all the resistors should be joined in parallel
1 1 1 1 1 n
.........n or
Rmin R R R Rmin R
R
So, Rmin
n
Rmax
Now, n2
Rmin

ILLUSTRATION : 3.16
Three resistances of 2, 3 and 5 ohms are connected in series. If the combination is connected to a battery of 4 volt then
what will be (i) current in each resistance (ii) potential difference across each resistance ?
SOLUTION :
Total resistance in series 2 3 5
R = R1 + R2 + R3 = 2 + 3 + 5 = 10 .
(i) Current flowing through each resistance will be same and is
V 4 4 volt
I 0.4 ampere + –
R 10
(ii) Potential difference across each resistance will be Fig. 3.26
determined by formula V = IR.
Potential difference across 2 resistance V1 = IR1 = 0.4 × 2 = 0.8 volt
Potential difference across 3 resistance V2 = IR2 = 0.4 × 3 = 1.2 volt
Potential difference across 5 resistance V3 = IR3 = 0.4 × 5 = 2.0 volt
ILLUSTRATION : 3.17
Three resistors of 2 , 3 and 4 are connected in (i) series, (ii) parallel. Find the equivalent resistance in each case.
SOLUTION :
Given: R1 = 2 , R2 = 3 and R3 = 4
(i) In series, the equivalent resistance
R = R1 + R2 + R3 = 2 + 3 + 4 = 9 .
(ii) In parallel, the equivalent resistance is R, then
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 13 12
R R1 R2 R3 or or R
R 2 3 4 12 13
ILLUSTRATION : 3.18
Two resistors of 4 and 6 are connected in parallel. The combination is connected across a 6V battery of negligible
resistance. Calculate the current (i) through the battery (ii) through each resistor. Draw the circuit diagram.
SOLUTION :
The circuit diagram is shown in figure. 4
(i) If resistance of the combination is R, then I1
1 1 1 3 2 5
R 4 6 12 12 I2 6
I
12 6 volt
or R 2.4 + –
5
Let current through the battery be I. Fig. 3.27
Electricity 129

V 6
I 2.5 A
R 2.4
(ii) The potential difference across each resistor is V = 6 volt (same as of battery) since they are in parallel.
V 6
Current through 4 resistor, I1 1.5 A
R1 4

V 6
Current through 6 resistor, I2 1A
R2 6

ILLUSTRATION : 3.19
6 and 3 resistors are connected in parallel and an 8 resistor is connected in series with them. A current of 2A passes
through the 8 resistor. Find
(a) the combined resistance
(b) the potential difference across the combined resistor
(c) the current through the 3 resistor
SOLUTION :
6
The combined resistance R of the resistors in parallel.
Given: R1 = 6 , R2 = 3 , 8 2A
1 1 1 1 1 3 1
R R1 R2 6 3 = 6 2
or, R=2 3
Fig. 3.28 (a)
The equivalent circuit is shown in Fig. 3.28 (b).
2 8 2A

(a) Let the combined resistance of all three resistors be R Fig. 3.28 (b)

R1 = 8 , R2 = 2
Equivalent resistance, R = R1 + R2 = 8 +2 = 10
(b) Let the potential difference across the combined resistors be V.
V = ? , I = 2A, R = 10
V = I × R = 2A × 10 = 20V
(c) The combined resistance of the parallel network is 2 . Hence potential difference V across the parallel resistor is
V = I × R = 2A × 2 = 4V
For the 3 resistor V = 4V, I = ?, R = 3
V 4V 1
I 1 A
R 3 3

ILLUSTRATION : 3.20
Three resistors are connected in series to 24 volt battery, and an ammeter in the circuit reads 0.50 amperes. The first
resistor is rated at 22 ohms, and the second at 8 ohms. Find (a) the total resistance (b) the resistance of the third resistor,
and
(c) the potential difference across the third resistor.
SOLUTION :
Given: Current in the circuit, I = 0.5A; V = 24V
(a) The total resistance of the circuit
V 24V
R 48
I 0.50 A
(b) In a series circuit, resistance add, so 22 +8 + R3 = 48 R3 = 18 .
 EBD_7005
130 PHYSICS
(c) For any circuit element, V = IR so V3 = (0.50 A) (18 ) = 9V
ILLUSTRATION : 3.21 12
In the circuit shown, find :
A 12 B
(a) the equivalent resistance between points A and B.
(b) the current through the battery
I
SOLUTION : 6
Given : R1 = 12 , R2 = 12 , R3 = 6.0 , V = 12V
(a) The three resistors are in a parallel combination.
12 V
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 4 1 Fig. 3.29
Rp R1 R2 R3 12 12 6.0 12 12 12 12 3.0

V V 12V
(b) From Ohm’s law, I 4.0 A
R Rp 3.0

Conversion of galvanometer into ammeter and voltmeter

Galvanometer: A galvanometer is an instrument which is used to measure current or voltage, as per requirement.
Ammeter: It is a low resistance galvanometer used to measure strength of current in an electrical circuit.
An ammeter is always connected in series in a circuit because when an ammeter is connected in series it does not appreciably
change the resistance of circuit and hence the main current flowing through the circuit. An ideal ammeter has zero resistance.
The reading of an ammeter is always less than actual current in the circuit because all practical ammeters have low finite
resistance.
Smaller is the resistance of an ammeter more accurate will be the reading.
A galvanometer can be converted to an ammeter by connecting a low resistance shunt in parallel to coil of galvanometer.
Ig
g
Here, g G = ( – g) S or S= G
g
I
Here G is resistance of galvanometer and g is current
(I– Ig )
required to produce full scale deflection of current.
S
Fig. 3.30
Shunt (S) is a low resistance connected in parallel to coil of galvanometer to convert it to ammeter. It protects a galvanometer
from strong currents. It is also used to alter range of an ammeter.
G.S
The resistance of converted ammeter is R A
G S
The range of an ammeter is increased by reducing shunt resistance S.

g G
If =N then S G
g N g g N 1

The range of an ammeter can be increased N times by reducing shunt to S = G/N-1.

It is possible to increase the range of an ammeter because it lowers the resistance of ammeter further.
The length of the shunt required = r2S/ where r is radius of shunt wire and is specific resistance of material of shunt wire.
Reducing the shunt resistance may increase range but it reduces the sensitivity.
Voltmeter : It is a high resistance galvanometer used to measure potential difference.
A voltmeter is connected in parallel to a circuit element because when connected in parallel it draws least current from the main
current. So it measures nearly accurate potential difference.
An ideal voltmeter has infinite resistance.
Electricity 131

The reading of a voltmeter is always less than actual value because all practical voltmeter may have large but finite resistance.
Greater is the resistance of voltmeter more accurate is its reading.
A galvanometer can be converted to a voltmeter by connecting a high resistance in series with coil of galvanometer.

V V
V I g (R G) or R G
g

The resistance of converted voltmeter is Rv = R + G G

Ig R
The range of a voltmeter is increased by increasing the series resistance.
Fig. 3.31
NI g G G
If V = NVg = N g G then R = (N – 1) G
Ig

The value of resistance required to increase range N times is R = (N – 1)G

CONNECTING TOPIC
KIRCHHOFF’S LAW I2
This law is used to solve a problem regarding electrical circuit.
(i) Kirchhoff’s first law or current law or junction rule I1
In any electrical network, the algebraic sum of currents meeting at a junction I3
is always zero i.e. =0
I1 – I2 + I3 + I4 – I5 = 0 or I1 + I3 + I4 = I2 + I5
The sum of currents flowing towards a junction is equal to sum of currents
leaving the junction. I5
By convention the current directed towards the junction is positive while those I4
directed away from the junction is taken as negative.
The first law is in accordance with conservation of charge. Fig. 3.32
The charges do not accumulate at a junction. The total charge entering a junction is equal to total charge leaving the junction.
(ii) Kirchhoff’s second law or voltage law or loop rule
The algebraic sum of all the potential drops and emf ’s along any closed path in a network is zero. i.e. V = 0
The second law is in accordance with conservation of energy.
According to second law, the electric energy given to the charge by a source of emf is lost in passing through resistance.
The change in potential in covering a resistance in the direction of current is negative (– R) while in opposite direction it is
positive.
A I R B A I R B

VA – IR = VB VB + IR = VA
VB – VA = IR VA - VB = IR
(a) (b)
Fig. 3.33
The potential falls along the direction of current. The potential fall is taken as negative while potential rise is taken as positive.
The emf of source is taken as positive when it is traversed from negative to positive terminal while it is taken as negative when
it is traversed from positive to negative irrespective of the direction of current.
A I B A I B

VA – E = VB VB+ E = VA
VB – VA = –E VA – VB = E
(a) (b)
Fig. 3.34
If there are n loops their will be (n – 1) equations according to loop rule.
The algebraic sum of products of currents and resistances in a closed loop is equal to sum of emf’s applied in the circuit
i.e., E = R.
 EBD_7005
132 PHYSICS

WHEATSTONE BRIDGE
It is an arrangement of four resistances devised by Charles Wheatstone
which is used to measure an unknown resistance.
The Wheatstone bridge principle states that if four resistances P, Q, R and S
are arranged to form a bridge with a cell and key between A and C, and a
galvanometer between B and D then bridge is said to be balanced when
galvanometer shows a zero deflection.

In This is called condition of balanced wheatstone bridge.

Fig. 3.35
The condition of balanced wheatstone bridge depends on resistance P, Q, R and S. This is independent of emf of battery.
In state of balance the cell and galvanometer can be interchanged.
While performing an experiment at start press the cell key Kc first and then the galvanometer key Kg and at end remove Kg first
and then Kc to avoid induced effects.
P and Q are called ratio arms, R is known as resistance arm and S is the unknown arm. BD and AC are called conjugate arms.
( P Q)(R S )
The resistance of balanced Wheatstone bridge between A and C is .
P Q R S
The sensitivity of bridge depends upon value of resistances. The sensitivity is maximum when P, Q, R and S are of same order.
Unbalanced Wheatstone bridge
P R
In unbalanced bridge g 0, VB VD so .
Q S
P R
If then VB > VD so current flows from B to D.
Q S
P R
If then VB < VD so current flows from D to B.
Q S

METRE BRIDGE
The metre bridge, shown, is a practical arrangement of the Wheatstone’s bridge. It consists of a 1m-long resistance wire AC of
the uniform cross-sectional area and uniform material, i.e., magnanin, or constantan, having the high electrical resistivity of low
temperature coefficient.
es
+ –
P = L1 Q = L2
B
A C
J

R G S
Fig. 3.36 : Metre Bridge
A null situation is obtained by moving the jockey J on the bridge wire AC till no deflection is observed in the galvanometer. Now,
the balance condition gives
R P R L1 L1
S Q S L 2 L2
R R L1
or,
S S 1 – L1
where is the resistance per unit length of the bridge wire.
Electricity 133

HEATING EFFECT OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

When the electric current is passed through a conductor then conductor gets heated, this effect is known as the heating effect of
current.
As current flows through a conductor, the free electrons lose energy which is converted into heat.
Heat produced in a conductor by electric current
Consider a conductor XY of resistance R ohm. Let the potential difference (in volts) be applied across the ends of XY. Let the
steady current (in ampere) that passes from end X to end Y be I. If this current flows for t seconds, then the amount of electric
charge transferred from point X to Y is
Q=I×t ...(1)
X Y

V A

l l

+ –

Fig. 3.37 A steady current in a purely

resistive electric circuit
When an electric charge Q moves against a potential difference V, the amount of work done (W) is given by
W=Q×V ...(2)
V
According to Ohm’s law, R=
I
or potential difference, V=I×R ...(3)
Now, substituting the values of Q from equation (1) and V from equation (3) in equation (2), we get
W =I×t×I×R
H = I2 × R × t
This work done is called electrical work done. The electric circuit is purely resistive, i.e., the conductor XY has resistance only,
connected to the battery so all the electrical energy consumed is converted into heat energy. Then amount of heat produced
W = H = I2 × R × t
or H = I2 × R × t ...(4)
Equation (4), i.e., H = I2 × R × t is known as Joule’s law of heating.
Joule’s Law of Heating Effect: It states that the amount of heat produced in a conductor is
(i) directly proportional to the square of current passing through it,
H I2 .... (i)
(ii) directly propotional to the resistance of conductor,
H R .... (ii)
(iii) directly proportional to the time for which current passed ,
H t .... (iii)
Combining eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii).
H I2 Rt.
Here, constant of proportionality is 1.
Therefore, heat produced in a conductor, H = I2 Rt joule

PRACTICAL APPLICATION OF HEATING EFFECT

The heat generated when current passes through a resistive material is used in many common devices. The material through
which the current passes is surrounded by an insulating substance in order to prevent the current from flowing through the cook
to the earth when he or she touches the pan.
Hair dryer, in which a fan blows air past heating coils. In this case the warm air can be used to dry hair, but on a broader scale this
same principle is used to dry clothes and to heat buildings.
Other practical application includes heater, toaster, electric kettle etc.
 EBD_7005
134 PHYSICS
DOMESTIC ELECTRIC CIRCUITS
Electricity from power stations is transmitted to homes through high voltage power lines. Electric potentials as high as 220 000
V AC are used. The electrical potential is decreased to 220 V AC with the help of step-down transformer before it enters the
home. A cable containing three colour-coded wires enters the home. One wire is red, one is black, and one is green. The red wires
are called live wires (or positive). Another wire with the black insulation is called neutral wires (or negative). There is an
electrical potential difference of 220 V AC between a red and a black wire. The earth wire, which has insulation of green colour,
is usually connected to a metal plate deep in the earth near the house. This is used as a safety measure, especially for those
appliances that have a metallic body, for example, electric press, toaster, table fan, refrigerator, etc. The metallic body is con-
nected to the earth wire, which provides a low-resistance conducting path for the current. Thus, it ensures that any leakage of
current to the metallic body of the appliance keeps its potential to that of the earth, and the user may not get a severe electric
shock. Glass top
Fuse wire
Fuses and Circuit Breakers
A fuse is a safety device that acts as a switch. Fuses are connected into the
circuit close to the source. As a result all the current flowing in the circuit
passes through the fuse. When too much current flows, the fuse heats up suf- Thread
contact
ficiently to bum out. This creates an air gap and no more current flows. The
construction of a plug fuse is shown in Figure. Other kinds of fuses are car- Bottom
contact
tridge fuses and knife blade fuses. The essential part is the fuse wire or a blade Insulation
with a low melting point. Fig. 3.38 A plug fuse
Most homes built in recent years use circuit breakers instead of fuses in their electrical panels. A circuit breaker is connected in
the same place as a fuse would be, and it performs the same function. When too much current flows, the circuit breaker simply
opens like a switch. Then, when the problem that caused the excess current has been corrected, you can close the breaker again.
Circuit Breaker Panel
At the home, the electricity first passes through an electric meter. The electric meter records the amount of electric energy used
in the home. Then the electricity enters a circuit breaker panel. (In some older homes it may enter a fuse panel.) In this panel
there is a master circuit breaker. The master circuit breaker can be operated manually to cut off the electricity to the entire home.
It opens automatically if the current exceeds the -rated value. In homes that have a 100 A service, the master circuit breaker will
allow up to 100 A to pass before it pops open.
There are three strips of conducting metal called bus bars in the breaker panel. The red wire is connected to one, the black wire
to another, and the white wire to the third. As a result, two of the bus bars are live and one is neutral.
Electric Circuits in the Home
All the electric circuits within the home originate from the bus bars. Figure shows a 220 V AC cable going to a stove. Notice that
the cable is connected to all three bus bars. This cable has two circuit breakers, one for the black wire and one for the red wire.
Each major appliance has its own 220 V AC circuit.

110

Fig. 3.39
Electricity 135

A 110 V AC circuit is also shown. Notice that only two of the bus bars are used, the neutral bus bar and either of the live bus bars.
This circuit also has its own circuit breaker. The 110 V AC circuit consists of the circuit breaker, two three-prong plugs, and two
light fixtures and two switches. A ground wire connects all switch and outlet boxes to ground and to the neutral bus bar. This
prevents injury if the boxes become live.
Loads in the same circuit, such as wall outlets and lights, are always connected in parallel. If one load bums out the others still
operate. Also, as more and more loads are turned on, the electrical potential remains the same. However, the electric current
increases. But one load does not affect another unless the circuit becomes overloaded.

Causes of Overloaded Circuits

There are two main causes of overloaded circuits. First, an appliance or a conducting wire can develop a short circuit. Now the
current is no longer limited by the load. In this case, current passes from the live wire to the neutral wire or from the live wire to
the ground wire without passing through the load. The current becomes very large very fast. This heats up the circuit.
Second, too many appliances can be plugged into the same circuit. Each appliance draws a certain current. The combination can
draw too much current and the circuit again heats up.
A circuit breaker is designed to prevent overloading. It trips and opens the circuit as soon as the circuit becomes too hot.
Po i n t
Why are devices in household circuits almost never connected in series?
SOLUTION
The devices in household circuits are never connected in series because if they are connected so they cannot be turned on or off
separately as required. If one of the device will be turned off then all of them will also be turned off. Moreover, if the devices are
lighting one, their brightness will decrease if more devices will be added.

ELECTRIC POWER I
If a battery is used to establish an electric current in a conductor, there is a continuous
transformation of chemical energy stored in the battery to kinetic energy of the charge B
C
carriers. This kinetic energy is quickly lost as a result of collisions between the charge +
E R
carriers and the lattice ions, resulting in an increase in the temperature of the conductor. –
A D
Therefore, we see that the chemical energy stored in the battery is continuously
transformed into heat energy.
Consider a simple circuit consisting of a battery whose terminals are connected to a
resistor R, as shown in figure 3.40. Fig.3.40
The positive terminal of the battery (the longer plate) is at the higher potential, while the negative terminal (the shorter plate) is
at the lower potential. Now imagine a positive quantity of charge Q moving around the circuit from point A through the battery
and resistor and back to A. Point A is a reference point that is grounded, and its potential is taken to be zero. As the charge moves
from A to B through the battery, its electrical potential energy increases by an amount V Q (where V is the potential at B) while
the chemical potential energy in the battery decreases by the same amount. However, as the charge moves from C to D through
the resistor, it loses this electrical potential energy as it undergoes collisions with atoms in the resistor, thereby producing
thermal energy. Note that if we neglect the resistance of the interconnecting wires there is no loss in energy for paths BC and DA.
When the charge returns to point A, it must have the same potential energy (zero) as it has at the start.
The rate at which the charge Q loses potential energy in going through the resistor is given by

U Q
V IV
t t
where I is the current in the circuit. Of course, the charge regains this energy when it passes through the battery. Since the rate at
which the charge loses energy equals the power P lost in the resistor, we have
P = IV ............. (1)
In this case, the power is supplied to a resistor by a battery. However, eq. (1) can be used to determine the power transferred to
any device carrying a current I and having a potential difference V between its terminals.
Using eq. (1) and the fact that V = IR for a resistor, we can express the power dissipated in the alternative forms
 EBD_7005
136 PHYSICS

V2
P I 2R
R
When I is in amperes, V in volts, and R in ohms, the SI unit of power is the watt (W). The power lost as heat in a conductor of
resistance R is called joule heating.
Watt is a small unit of power, its other bigger units are Kilowatt (KW), Megawatt (MW) and Horsepower (HP).
1 kW = 1000 W = 103 W
1 MW = 1000000 W = 106 W
1 hp = 746 W
If 100W – 220V is written on the bulb then it means that the bulb will consume 100 joule in one second if used at the potential
difference of 220 volts.
The value of electricity consumed in houses is decided on the basis of the total electric energy used.
Electric power tells us about the electric energy used per second not the total electric energy.
The total energy used in a circuit = power of the electric circuit × time
If the power is in watt and time is in second, then the electric energy will be in joule or watt × second.
As the watt × sec is a small unit of energy, electric energy is measured in Kilowatt Hour (kWh) Board of trade unit (B.O.T.U).
1 Kilowatt hour (kWh) = 1000 watt hour
= 1000 × 60 × 60 watt sec = 36000000 joule = 3.6 × 106 joule
1 kWh is called the 1 unit.
The electricity department uses this unit in the electric bills. If the 100 watt bulb or any other electric appliance is used for an
hour then the total electric energy consumed is 1 kWh or 1 unit.

Po i n t
The wattage marked on a light bulb is not an inherent property of the bulb rather, it depends on the voltage to which it
is connected, usually 110 or 120V. How many amperes current flow through a 60-W bulb connected in a 120-V circuit?
SOLUTION
Using the formula, Watt = volt × ampere
60
60 = 120 × ampere ampere 0.5 A
120
Thus, a 0.5 A current flows through a 60-W bulb connected in a 120-V circuit
ILLUSTRATION : 3.22
An electric refrigerator rated 400W operates 8 hours/day. What is the cost of the energy to operate it for 30 days at ` 3.00 per
unit ?
SOLUTION :
The total energy consumed by the refrigerator in 30 days would be
400W × 8.0 hours/day × 30 days = 96999 Wh = 96 k Wh or 96 unit
Thus the cost of energy to operate the refrigerator for 30 days
96 kWh × ` 3.00 = ` 288.00
ILLUSTRATION : 3.23
What is the operating resistance of a 100-watt household light bulb ? The operating line voltage of household electricity is
120V.
SOLUTION :
Given : P = 100 W, V = 120 V, R. = ?

V2 V2 (120V ) 2
From P , we have R 144
R P 100W

ILLUSTRATION : 3.24
On a 220V power line the powers of two electric bulbs are 60W and 30W separately. Find the powers of their parallel and
series combinations when connected on the same line. 1
SOLUTION :
V2 (220) 2
The resistance of the 220V-60W rated bulb R1
P1 60
Electricity 137

V2 (220) 2
The resistance of the 220V-30W rated bulb R2
P2 30

(220) 2 (220) 2
R1 R2 60 30 (220) 2
When the bulbs are connected in parallel, their equivalent resistance R
R1 R2 (220) 2 (220) 2 90
60 30

V2 (220V )2
The power of the parallel combination P 90W
R {(220) 2 / 90}

(220) 2 (220) 2 1
When the bulbs are connected in series, their equivalent resistance R R1 R2 (220) 2
60 30 20
V2 (220V )2
Power P 20W
R {(220) 2 1/ 20}

ILLUSTRATION : 3.25
An electric kettle has coils A and B. When coil A is switched on, the water boils in 10 minutes, and when coil B is switched
on, the water boils in 20 minutes. Calculate the time taken by the water to boil if the coils connected in (a) series and in
(b) parallel are switched on.
SOLUTION :
Let R1 and R2 be the resistances of the coils A and B respectively, and t1 and t2 the time-intervals taken by the water to boil
when A and B are switched on turn by turn. If W be the heat energy required to boil the water, then
V 2 t1 V 2t2
W where V is supply voltage.
R1 R2

R2 t2
This gives R1 t1 ..... (1)

R2 20
Here t1 = 10 min and t2 = 20 min. 2 or R = 2R
R1 10 2 1

(a) When the coils are connected in series, the equivalent resistance is
R = R1 + R2 = R1 + 2R1 = 3R1.
If t be the time taken by the water to boil, then from eq. (1), we have
R t
R1 t1 ; t = 3t1 = 30 min. [ R / R1 3]

R1 R2 R1 (2 R1 ) 2
(b) When the coils are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance is R R1
R1 R2 R1 2 R1 3
If t' be the time taken by the water to boil, then from eq. (1) , we have
R t 2 20
or t t1 min [ R / R1 2 / 3 and t1 10 min]
R1 t1 3 3

ILLUSTRATION : 3.265.14
Two bulbs A and B are rated 100W, 120V and 10W, 120V respectively. They are connected across a 120V source in series.
Calculate the current through each bulb. Which bulb will consume more energy ?
SOLUTION :
V2 (120) 2
Resistance of bulb A (rating 100W, 120V) is R1 144
P1 100

V2 (120) 2
Resistance of bulb B (rating 10W, 120V) is R2 1440
P2 10
 EBD_7005
138 PHYSICS
When they are connected in series,
Total resistance, R = R1 + R2 = 144 + 1440 = 1584
V 120
Current in the circuit I 0.076 A
R 1584
Same current passes through each bulb.
Power consumed in the bulb A is P1 = I2R1.
Power consumed in the bulb B is P2 = I2R2.
Since, R1 < R2 P1 < P2.
Hence, the bulb B (rated 10W, 120V) consumes more energy than the bulb A (rated 100W, 120V) when they are connected in
series.
ILLUSTRATION : 3.27
There are 5 rooms in a house. Each room has a 100W bulb and a 40W tube light. If every day the bulb is used for 1 hour and
tube light is used for 5 hours in each room then what will be the cost of total electric energy consumed in 30 days when 1 unit
of electric energy costs ` 2.5.
SOLUTION :
Energy used every day in 5 bulbs = 5 × 100 × 1 Wh = 500 Wh
Energy used everyday in 5 tube lights = 5 × 40 × 5 Wh = 1000 Wh
Total energy used everyday by bulb and tube light = (500 + 1000) Wh = 1500 Wh
45000
Total energy used in 30 day = 1500 × 30 Wh = 45000 Wh = KWh 45 KWh (unit)
1000
Cost of the total energy used = 45 × 2.50 = ` 112.50
ILLUSTRATION : 3.28
Compute the heat generated while transferring 96000 coulomb of charge in one hour through a potential difference of 50 V.
SOLUTION :
Here, Q = 96,000 C, t = 1 hour = 60 × 60s, V = 50 V
Q 96000 80
Current, I A
t 60 60 3
V 50 3 15
Resistance, R
I 80 8
80 80 15
Heat produced, H = I2Rt = 60 60 4800000 J 4800 kJ
3 3 8
CONNECTING TOPIC

CHEMICAL EFFECT OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

Electric current can produce chemical change. This ability of current is called chemical effect. This effect is shown by D.C.
only. A.C. current cannot produce chemical effect.

FARADAY’S LAWS OF ELECTROLYSIS

(i) 1st law : The mass of the substance liberated or deposited at an electrode during electrolysis is directly proportional to the
quantity of charge passed through the electrolyte
i.e., m q or m = Zq = Z It, where Z = electrochemical equivalent (E.C.E.) of substance.
(ii) 2nd law : When the same amount of charge is passed through different electrolytes, the masses of the substance liberated or
deposited at the various electrodes are proportional to their chemical equivalents
m1 E1
i.e. m E2 where m1 & m2 are the masses of the substances liberated or deposited on electrodes during electrolysis and
2
E1 & E2 are their chemical equivalents.
Faraday Constant: Faraday constant is equal to the amount of charge required to liberate the mass of a substance at an
electrode during electrolysis, equal to its chemical equivalent in gram (i.e. one gram equivalent)
One faraday 1F = 96500 C/gram equivalent.
Electricity 139

ELECTROCHEMICAL CELL-PRIMARY AND SECONDARY CELLS

R
An electrochemical cell is a device which by converting chemical energy into electrical
energy maintains the flow of charge in a circuit. It usually consists of two electrodes

CATHODE
of different materials and an electrolyte. The electrode at higher

ANODE
potential is called anode and the one at lower potential is cathode .
Primary Cells: The cells which cannot be recharged electrically are called primary
cells. Here the original state of cell cannot be brought back by passing electrical
energy through cell from external source after cell is discharged. ELECTROLYTE
e.g. Voltaic cell, Daniel cell, Leclanche cell, manganese-alkaline cell, mercury button cell etc. Fig. 3.41
Secondary Cells: The cells in which chemical process is reversible are called secondary cells. Here original chemical state of
cell can be brought back by passing electrical energy through cell from external source.
e.g. Lead acid accumulator, alkali cells etc.

ELECTROMOTIVE FORCE (EMF)

The emf of a cell is defined as the work done by cell in moving a unit positive charge in the whole circuit including the cell.
Emf E = W/q; Its SI unit is joule/coulomb or volt.
Emf is the maximum potential difference between the two electrodes of the cell when no current is drawn from the cell. It is the
characteristic property of cell and depends on the nature of electrodes and electrolyte used in cell, and is independent of
quantity of electrolyte, size of electrodes and distance between the electrodes.
Internal Resistance of Cell: The opposition offered by the electrolyte of the cell to the flow of electric current through it is
called the internal resistance of the cell. The internal resistance of cell depends on
Distance between electrodes (r d), larger is the separation between electrodes more is the length of electrolyte through which
ions have to move so more is internal resistance.
Conductivity or nature of electrolyte (r 1/ )
Concentration of electrolyte (r c),
Temperature of electrolyte (r 1/T)
Nature and area of electrodes dipped in electrolyte (r 1/A)

TERMINAL POTENTIAL DIFFERENCE

The potential difference between the two electrodes of a cell in a closed circuit i.e., when current is being drawn from the cell
is called terminal potential difference. E r
(a) When cell is discharging

When cell is discharging current inside the cell is from anode to cathode . I I
R
E
Current or E = IR + Ir = V + Ir or V = E – Ir Fig.3.42
r R
When current is drawn from the cell, potential difference is less than emf of cell. Greater is the current drawn from the cell
smaller is the terminal voltage. When a large current is drawn from a cell, its terminal voltage is reduced.
(b) When cell is charging
When cell is charging current inside the cell is from cathode to anode. E r

V –E
Current or V=E+ r I I
r
During charging terminal potential difference is greater than emf of cell. + –
(c) When cell is in open circuit V
Fig. 3.43
E
In open circuit, R = 0 so V=E
R r
In open circuit terminal potential difference is equal to emf and is the maximum potential difference which a cell can provide.
(d) When cell is short circuited
E E
In short circuit, R = 0 so and V= R=0
R r r
In short circuit current from cell is maximum and terminal potential difference is zero.
 EBD_7005
140 PHYSICS

(e) Power transferred to load by cell

E2R
P I 2R
(r R)2
P = Pmax if r = R

E2 E2
Power transferred by cell to load is maximum when r = R and Pmax =
4r 4R
Fig. 3.44
Difference Between emf and Potential Difference
Emf of a cell Potential difference
1. The emf of a cell is the maximum potential 1. The potential difference between the two points
difference between the two electrodes of a is the difference of potential between these two
cell when the cell is in the open circuit. points in a closed circuit.
2. Emf is independent of resistance of circuit 2. This depends upon the resistance between two
and depends upon the nature of electrodes points of the circuit and current flowing through
and electrolyte. the circuit.
3. The term emf is used for source of current. 3. Potential difference can be measured between
any two points of circuit.
4. This is a cause. 4. It is an effect.

GROUPING OF CELLS
(i) Series Combination of Cells
E r E r r
The cells are said to be connected in series if negative terminal of first is connected E
I
to positive of second whose negative terminal is connected to positive of third cell.
R
The external resistance is connected between free terminals of first and last cells.

Fig.3.45 (a)
Let n identical cells each of emf E and internal resistance r be connected in series. The combination can be replaced by a single
nE
cell of emf nE and internal resistance nr. The current flowing through load I
R nr
nE
If nr << R then . If equivalent internal resistance nr is less than nE nr
R
external resistance R then current in circuit is equal to n times circuit
I

current due to single cell. R

Fig.3.45 (b)
If nr >> R then = E/r. If equivalent internal resistance nr is greater than external resistance R then current in circuit is equal
to short circuited current obtained from one cell.
Maximum current can be drawn from series combination of cells if external resistance is very large as compared to equivalent
internal resistance.
If in series combination of n cells, p cells are reversed then equivalent emf
(n 2 p) E
Eeq = (n – p) E – pE = (n – 2p)E and req = nr So current I
nr R
If unidentical cells are connected in series then
Eeq = E1 + E2 + ..... = Ei and req = r1 + r2 + ..... = ri.
Ei
Current, I .
R ri
Electricity 141

(ii) Parallel Combination of Cells

The cells are said to be connected in parallel if positive terminals of all the cells are connected together at one point and their
negative terminals at another point. The external resistance or is connected between these two points.
E r

r r/m
E

E r
I
I R
R

Fig.3.46 (a) Fig.3.46 (b)

Let m identical cells each of emf E and internal resistance r be connected in parallel. The combination can be replaced by a
E
single cell of emf E and internal resistance r/m. The current I .
R r/m
E
If r/m << R then I . If equivalent internal resistance r/m is less than external resistance R then current in circuit is equal to
R
current produced by a single cell.
mE r
If r/m >> R then I . If equivalent internal resistance is greater than external resistance then current in circuit is equal
r m
to m times the current produced by a short circuited cell.
Thus maximum current can be drawn from parallel combination of cells if external resistance is small as compared to net
internal resistance of cells.
(iii) Mixed Combination of Cells
If the mn number of identical sources are combined, as shown,
where we have the m number of rows of sources in parallel and the
n number of sources in series in each row, the total emf of combination
becomes nes and the total internal resistance of combination becomes
nr/m. Then, the electric current through the load is
nes es
I
nr r R I
R I
m m n
And the electrical power delivered to the load is

n2 es2 es2 R
Pload RI 2 R 2
R 2
nr r R Fig.3.47
R
m m n

nr
Which is maximum under the condition of total internal and external resistances being equal, i.e., R
m
 EBD_7005
142 PHYSICS

1. If 3.0 × 1015 electrons flow through a section of a wire of diameter 2.0 mm in 4.0 s, what is the electric current in the wire?
Sol. Given: n = 3.0 × 1015 electrons, t = 4.0 s, d = 2.0 mm.
The charge in 3.0 × 1015 electrons q = ne = (3.0 × 1015 electrons) × (1.60 × 10–19 C/electrons) = 4.8 × 10–4C
q 4.8 10 4 C
So, current, I 1.2 10 4 A 0.12 mA
t 4.0 s
2. Two copper wires A and B of length 30 m and 10 m have radius 2 mm and 1 mm respectively. Compare the resistance
of the two wires. Which will have less resistance ?

Sol. From the relation Resistance, R

A
30
Resistance of wire A is RA
(2 10 3 ) 2
10
Resistance of wire B is RB
(1 10 3 )2
2
RA 30 1 10 3 3
On dividing =
RB 10 2 10 3 4
Thus the wire A has less resistance.
3. Resistance of a metal wire of length 1 m is 26 at 20°C. If the diameter of the wire is 0.3 mm, what will be the
resistivity of the metal at that temperature?
Sol. We are given the resistance R of the wire = 26 , the diameter d = 0.3 mm = 3 × 10–4 m, and the length l of the wire = 1 m.
Therefore, from the resistivity of the given metallic wire = (RA/l) = (R d2/4l)
Substitution of values in this gives = 1.84 × 10–8 m
The resistivity of the metal at 20°C is 1.84 × 10–8 m.
4. A nichrome wire has a resistance of 10 . Find the resistance of another nichrome wire, whose length is three times
and area of cross-section four times the first wire.
Sol. Case 1 : R = 10 . Let be length and ‘a’ the area of cross-section.

R or 10 ......... (1)
a a
Case 2 : R1 = ?, length = 3 , area = 4a
3
R1 ......... (2)
4a
Dividing eq. (2) by (1)
R1 .3 a 3
R1 10 7.5
10 4a . 4
5. (a) How much current will an electric bulb draw from a 220 V source, if the resistance of the bulb filament is 1200 ?
(b) How much current will an electric heater coil draw from a 220 V source, if the resistance of the heater coil is 100 ?
Sol. (a) We are given V = 220 V; R = 1200 .
From eq. R = V/I , we have the current I = 220 V/1200 = 0.18 A.
(b) We are given, V = 220 V, R = 100 .
From eq. R = V/I, we have the current I = 220 V/100 = 2.2 A.
6. An electric lamp of resistance 100 , a toaster of resistance 50 , and a water filter of resistance 500 are connected
in parallel to a 220V source. What is the resistance of an electric iron connected to the same source that takes as much
current as all three appliances, and what is the current through it?
Electricity 143

Sol. Here, Rl = 100 , Rt = 50 , Rf = 500 , V = 220 volt,

V 220
Current I drawn by, lamp = I 2.2 A
R 100
220 220
By toaster I t 4.4 A , and by water filter I f 0.44 A
50 500
Total current drawn = Il + It + If = 7.04 A
Current to be drawn by iron = 7.04 A
V 220
Resistance of electric iron R1 31.25
I 7.04
7. How much energy is given to each coulomb of charge passing through a 6 V battery ?
Sol. Energy = charge × potential difference
= 1 × 6 = 6 joule
8. In the circuit shown, find : (a) the equivalent resistance between points A and B, (b) the current through each
resistor.

A 12 3.0 5.0 4.0 B

I
12V

Sol. Given : R1 = 12 , R2 = 3.0 , R3 = 5.0 , R4 = 4.0 , V = 12V.

(a) All four resistors are in series combination, so
Rs R1 R2 R3 R4 12 3.0 5.0 4.0 24
(b) The current through all resistors in series is the same
V V 12V
I 0.50 A
R Rs 24
9. For the combination of resistors shown in figure, find the equivalent resistance between (i) C and D (ii) A and B.
R2 R1
C
A
3 3

R3 3 3 R5

R4 R6
B
3 D 3

Sol. (i) The resistors R2, R3, R4 are in series. They can be replaced by an equivalent resistance R , where
R = R2 + R3 + R4 = 3 + 3 + 3 = 9 .
The resistance R5 (= 3 ) and R (= 9 ) are in parallel, between the points C and D. The equivalent resistance between
1 1 1 1 3 1 4 9
C and D is R , or or R 2.25
R 3 9 R 9 9 4
Thus the equivalent resistance between C and D is 2.25
(ii) Now the resistor R1 = (3 ), R (= 2.25 ) and R6 (= 3 ) are in series between the points A and B.
The equivalent resistance between A and B is : R = R1 + R + R6 = 3 + 2.25 + 3 = 8.25
10. What is (a) the highest, (b) the lowest total resistance that can be secured by combinations of four coils of resistance
4 , 8 , 12 and 24 ?
Sol. (a) Highest – By connecting the resistors in series. So, R = 4 + 8 + 12 + 24 = 48
(b) Lowest – By connecting the resistors in parallel.
1 1 1 1 1 24 24
So, R 2
R 4 8 12 24 6 3 2 1 12
 EBD_7005
144 PHYSICS
11. How many 176 resistors (in parallel) are required to carry a current of 5 A on a 220 V line?
Sol. When N resistors each R are in parallel
R
Rp
N
V VN
Current drawn from cell = I =
Req R
IR 5 176
N 4
V 220
12. Calculate the equivalent resistance between points A and C, as shown in figure.
2

A 10 B C

6
Sol. Resistances 2 and 6 are connected in parallel between points B and C. Let Rp be their equivalent resistance.
1 1 1 4 2 3
or Rp 1.5
Rp 2 6 6 3 2
Now, equivalent resistance Rp is in series with 10 resistance.
Therefore, equivalent resistance of circuit Rs = 10 + 1.5 = 11.5 .
13. Three resistors of 2 , 4 and 6 are connected in series to a battery of emf 12V and negligible internal resistance.
Draw the circuit diagram and calculate (i) current drawn from cell (ii) p.d. at the ends of each resistor.
Sol. The circuit diagram is shown in figure
Resistance of 2 , 4 and 6 in series. + –
R = 2 + 4 + 6 = 12 E = 12V
A
V 12
(i) Current drawn from cell (I) = 1A
R 12
(ii) P.D. across 2 resistor V1 = I.R1 = 1 × 2 = 2V
P.D. across 4 resistor V2 = I.R2 = 1 × 4 = 4V 2 4 6
P.D. across 6 resistor V3 = I.R3 = 1 × 6 = 6V 2V
14. Two cells of 2V each are connected in parallel (figure). V1 V2 V3
I
( )
An external resistance of 0.5 is connected in series to
the junction of two parallel resistors of 6 and 2 and 2V
then to the common terminal of the battery through each 0.5 6
resistor. I1
Calculate the
Y
(i) total resistance of the circuit.
(ii) current flowing through 0.5 resistors I2

(iii) current flowing through 6 resistor. 2

Sol. EMF of the battery = 2V
Effective resistance of the parallel resistors is given by R1
1 1 1 1 3 4 2 3
R1 1.5
R1 6 2 6 6 3 2
(i) Total resistance of the circuit, R = 1.5 + 0.5 = 2
V 2
(ii) Current flowing through 0.5 coil = 1A [ Main current I 1A ]
R 2
P.D. across the junctions : V1 = IR1 = 1 × 1.5 = 1.5V
V1 1.5
(iii) Hence, current I1, flowing through 6 resistor I 1 0.25 A
6 6
15. Two coils of resistance 3 and 6 are connected across a battery of emf 12V. Find the electrical energy consumed in
1 minute in each resistance when they are connected in series. Draw the circuit diagram.
Electricity 145

Sol. The circuit diagram is shown in figure.

Total resistance of the circuit R = 3 + 6 = 9 .
3 6
V 12 4
Current in the circuit I A
R 9 3
Since the resistance are in series, same current
flows in each resistance.
2
4
Electrical energy spent in R1 = I2R1t = 3 60 320 J
3
2
4 12V
Electrical energy spent in R2 = I2R 6 60 640 J
2t =
3
16. A bulb has voltage rating of 220 V and power rating of 40 W. How can this bulb be made to glow with normal brightness
if a voltage source of e.m.f. 330 V is available?
Sol. Here V = 220 V; P = 40 W
V2 ( 220 )2
Resistance of the bulb, R 1210
P 40
E 330
Current in the circuit, I
R S 1210 S
330
Potential difference across the bulb, IR 1210
1210 S
330 1210
As per question, 220
1210 S
On solving, we get S = 605
17. If two bulbs of wattage 25 W and 30 W, each rated at 220 volts are connected in series with a 440 volt supply, which bulb
will fuse?
(220) 2 25
Sol. Resistance of 25 W bulb, R1 ; Current I1 A
25 220
(220) 2 30
Resistance of 30 W bulb, R 2 , Current I 2 A
30 220
When bulbs are connected in series, effective resistance is
1 1 11
R R1 R2 (220)2 220 220
25 30 150
When supply voltage is 440 V, then current
440 440 150 27.27
I A
R 220 220 11 220
As I I1 but less than I 2 , hence the bulb of 25 watt will fuse.
18. Fig. shows three similar lamps L1, L2 and L3 connected across a power supply. If the lamp L3 fuse, how will the light
emitted by L1 and L2 change?

L1

S E

L2 L3

Sol. Let R be the resistance of each lamp. If E be the applied e.m.f., then the current in the circuit, I1, is given by
 EBD_7005
146 PHYSICS

E 2E
I1
R (R/2) 3R

1 2E E
Current flowing through L2 or L3 =
2 3R 3R
When L3 is fused, the whole current flows through L1 and L2.
E E
Thus, I2
R R 2R
So, current through L1 decreases and through L2 increases.
19. 1 kW heater is to be used with 220 V d.c. supply. (i) What is the current in the heater? (ii) What is its resistance?
Sol. Given: power p = 1 kw = 1000W : V = 220 V
(i) Current in the heater, I = P/V = 1000/220 = 4.5 A
(ii) Resistance R = V2/P = (220)2/1000 = 48.4
20. A fuse wire with a circular cross section and having diameter of 0.4 mm blows with a current of 3 amp. What will be the
value of the current for which another fuse wire made of the same material but having circular cross-section with diameter
of 0.06 mm will blow?
0.04 0.06
Sol. Here, I1 = 3A; I2 = ? r1 0.02 cm and r2 0.03 cm
2 2

I12 r13
For a fuse wire I2 r3
I 22 r23

3 3 3 3/ 2
(3) 2 0.02 2 3 3 243
or I22 (3)2 or I2 3 =
I 22 0.03 3 2 2 8

SOLVED EXAMPLES BASED ON CONNECTING TOPICS

21. Determine the current through the dc source in the following network.
B

5 5

A I1 5 C
I2
5 5
D
I3
F E
10 10V
Sol. We assume the loop, or mesh, currents I1, I2 and I3 in the loops, or meshes, ABDA, BCDB and ADCEFA, respectively, and
arbitrarily select their directions clockwise, as shown, and traversal direction also clockwise.
Applying the Kirchhoff’s voltage law to the three loops, we have respectively,
+ I1 × 10 + (I1 – I3) 5 + (I1 – I3) 5 = 0 4I1 – I2 = I3 ....(1)
+ I2 × 5 + (I2 – I3) 10 + (I2 – I1) 5 = 0 – I1 + 4I2 = 2I3 ....(2)
+ (I3 – I1) 5 + (I3 – I2) 10 + I3 × 10 = 10 – I1 – 2I2 + 5I3 = 2 ....(3)
Solving equations (1) and (2), we get
2 I3 3I3
I1 and I 2
5 5
Again, substituting these values of I1 and I2 into equation (3), we get the current through the dc source, i.e.,
10
I3 A.
17
Electricity 147

22. Calculate the current in each resistance in the given circuit.

A B C

3V 3V
I1 1 I2 1

F D
E
3V 3V
Sol. Let us assume the loop currents I1 and I2 in the clockwise direction in the two meshes ABEFA and BCDEB, respectively. Let us
also assume the traversal direction in the clockwise sense. Then, the equations for the two loops are, respectively,
(I1 – I2) × 1 = + 3 – 3 I 1 = I2
B
The current in the resistance of 1 between B and E
IBE = I1 – I2 = 0
23. If the current through the branch BD of the circuit, shown, is zero.
1.5 X 1
Find the resistance R and current through it.
Sol. The given circuit, when rearranged, is found to be a
D 4
Wheastone’s bridge circuit, as shown. R
Since, the current through the branch BD is zero, the bridge is balanced, i.e.,
A C
P R 1.5 R 2 10V
Q S 1 4
R 4 1.5 6
The branch BD is ineffective as it carries no current and, therefore, we have two B
parallel paths ABC and ADC of the resistances 2.5 and 10 , respectively. The
combined resistance between A and C becomes P = 1.5 Q=1
2.5 10 25
R AC 2 A X C
2.5 10 12.5
Further, this resistance is connected in series with the resistance of 2 so that the
R
total resistance becomes (2 + 2) = 4 . The current from the source is 2.5A S=4
10 D
I 2.5 A
4
Then, the current through the resistance R is given by 2 10V
I R ( R 4) I ( R AC )
2.5 2
I R (6 4) 2.5 2 IR 0.5 A .
10
24. A metre bridge circuit is shown in the balanced state. The bridge wire AC has a resistance per metre = 100 /m.
Calculate the unknown resistance S and the current drawn from the dc source of emf of 6 V and negligible internal
resistance.

+ –
es = 6V
P = 0.6 m × Q = 0.4 m ×
+ – C
A
G B J

R=3 D S
Sol. From the balance condition, we have
P R 0.6 100 3 4 3
S 2
Q S 0.4 100 S 6
The equivalent resistance between A and C is given by
 EBD_7005
148 PHYSICS

(P Q) ( R S ) (1 100) (3 2) 100 5 500

R AC
( P Q) ( R S ) (1 100) (3 2) 100 5 105
6 6 105 630
Then, the current drawn from the dc source I 1.26 A
RAC 500 500
25. A dry cell of e.m.f. 1.5 V and internal resistance 0.10 connected across a resistor in series with a very low resistance
ammeter. When the circuit is switched on, the ammeter reading settles to a steady value of 2.0 A. What is the steady
(i) rate of chemical energy consumption of the cell?
(ii) rate of energy dissipation inside the cell?
(iii) rate of energy dissipation inside the resistor and
(iv) power output of the source ?
Sol. Let R be the external resistance, then
V 1.5
(R r) 0.75
i 2.0
R = 0.75 – r = 0.75 – 0.10 = 0.65
(i) The rate of consumption of chemical energy of the cell = V × i = 1.5×2.0 = 3.0 W
(ii) The rate of energy dissipation inside the internal resistor = i2r = (2.0)2×0.10 = 0.4 W
(iii) The rate of energy dissipation inside the external resistor = i2R = (2.0)2×0.65 = 2.6 W
(iv) The power output of the source
= total power – rate of energy dissipation inside the cell
= 3.0 – 0.4 = 2.6 W
26. Four identical cells, each of emf es = 2V, are joined in parallel, providing a current to the external circuit which consists
of two resistances, each of 15 , in parallel. The terminal voltage of the cells is 1.6 V. Calculate the internal resistance r of
each cell.
I
Sol. The complete circuit diagram, consisting of the 4 identical +
cells and the two external resistances in parallel, is shown. r r r r
The total emf in the circuit is es = es = 2V, the total internal 1.6 V 2V 2V 2V 2V 15 15
resistance is r/4 and the total external resistance is
I1 I1 I1 I1
15/2 = 7.5 .
Therefore, the current through the total external resistance is –
E 2 8
I=
R r r (r 30)
7.5
4

r
And the terminal voltage across the cells V es – I
4
8 r 60
1.6 = 2 – r = 7.5 .
(r 30) 4 (r 30)
27. If 64 cells of emf es = 2V and internal resistance r = 2 , are connected in m rows, each consisting of n cells in series, then
find out these values of m and n for getting the maximum current through an external resistance R = 8 .
Sol. The current through the external resistance R is given by
nes (mn)es (64) 2
I= =
nr (nr mR ) ( n 2 m 8)
R
m
64 64 64
= =
( n 4m ) 4 64 256
n n
n n
where mn = 64 is the total number of cells. The current will be maximum, when the denominator is minimum, i.e., when
d 256 256
n 0 1– 2 0
dn n n
64
n = 16 and , m= 4. 5.21
n
Electricity 149

26. The unit of power is ..................

27. One watt of power is consumed when 1 A of current flows
DIRECTIONS : Complete the following statements with an at a potential difference of ...............
appropriate word / term to be filled in the blank space(s). 28. 1 kW h = ...................
29. The alloy which is used for making the filament of bulbs
1. The rate of flow of electric charge is called .................
is ...............
2. If there is no current, a voltmeter connected across a resistor
30. Power transmission is carried out at high.........................
will register..................... voltage.
and low .......................... .
3. Combined resistance is the sum of separate resistances
provided that the various conductors are connected in .......... 31. Rate at which electric work is done is called .....................
4. In a parallel circuit, each circuit element has the same .
....................
5. Copper is a preferred material for making wire because of
its low........................ DIRECTIONS : Read the following statements and write your
6. The S.I. unit of electric current is .............. answer as true or false.
7. .............. is a property that resists the flow of electrons in a
conductor. 1. A copper wire of length L and cross-sectional area A carries
8. The S.I. unit of resistance is ................. a current I. If the specific resistance of copper is S, then
9. The potential difference across the ends of a resistor is electric field in the wire is IS/A.
............... to the current through it, provided its .................... 2. The temperature coefficient of resistance of a wire is
remains the same. 0.00125/°C. The resistance of the wire is 1 ohm at 300 K.
10. The resistance of a conductor depends directly on its The resistance will be 2 ohm at 1100 K.
............., inversely on its ................., and also on the .............. 3. The quantity of charge flowing past a point multiplied by
of the conductor. time is a current.
11. 1 volt × 1 coulomb .............. 4. The resistivity of all pure metals increases with the rise in
12. Potential difference is a .............. quantity. temperature.
13. The resistance of a semiconductor .............. with increase 5. Ohm’s law is a relation between the power used in a circuit
in temp. to the current and the potential difference.
14. The S.I. unit of resistivity is .............. . 6. Direction of current is taken opposite to the direction of
15. Physical quantity represented by coulomb per second is flow of electrons.
.............. . 7. The equivalent resistance of several resistors in series is
16. Two resistances of 2 each are connected in parallel. The equal to the sum of their individual resistances.
equivalent resistance is .............. . 8. In parallel combination, the reciprocal of equivalent
17. The resistance of a wire is .............. proportional to the resistance is the sum of the reciprocal of individual
square of its radius. resistance.
18. Kilowatt is the unit of electrical .............. but kilowatt- 9. The series arrangement is used for domestic circuits.
hour is the unit of electrical .................. 10. The reciprocal of resistance is called specific resistance.
19. Energy spent in kilowatt-hour 11. Resistivity is measured in ohm-metre.
volt ......... .......... 12. The resistance of a wire is directly proportional to length.
= 13. The resistance of a wire is directly proportional to area.
1000
14. The resistivity of alloys decreases with the rise in temp.
20. A fuse is a short piece of wire of high .............. and low
15. Metals have high resistivity.
.....................
16. The filament resistance of glowing bulb is greater, to its
21. Fuse wire has a ............... melting point and is made of an
resistance when it is not glowing ?
alloy of ..............and ................. If the current in a circuit
17. The commercial unit of electrical energy is kilowatt-hour
rises too high, the fuse wire .................
(kWh).
22. A fuse is connected in ................. to the ......................
18. Pure tungsten has high resistivity and a high melting point
wire.
(nearly 3000°C).
23. Electric energy is produced by the ............. of charges.
19. When a metallic conductor is heated the atoms in the metal
24. Energy converted per unit charge is measured with an
vibrate with greater amplitude and frequency.
instrument called a (n).....................
20. One kilowatt is equal to 10 horse power.
25. The electrical energy dissipated in a resistor is given by
21. Fuse is a thin wire which melts and breaks the electric cir-
W = ...................... cuit due to only high voltage.
 EBD_7005
150 PHYSICS
7. A copper wire of resistivity is stretched to reduce its
diameter to half of its previous value. What will be its new
DIRECTIONS : Each question contains statements given in two resistivity?
columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in 8. Which physical quantity does the voltage vs current graph
column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in
for a metallic conductor depict?
column II.
9. Specific resistance of copper, silver and constant an are
1. Column I Column II 1.18 × 10–6 cm, 1 × 10–6 cm and 48 × 10–6 cm
L respectively. Which is the best electrical conductor and
(A) Ohm (p)
A why?
10. V-I graph for a metallic wire at two different temperatures
1 volt
(B) Resistance (q) T1 and T2 is as shown in the following figures. Which of the
1 ampere
two temperature is higher and why?
(C) Resistivity (r) zero resistance
(D) Super conductor (s) ohm-meter
2. In the figure shown, the value of each resistance is R. match T1
the entries of column I with the entries of column II. T2

V
d b
11. What is the effect on current through a circuit of steady
resistance when both voltage and resistance are doubled?
12. What happens to the force between two electric charges, if
c the distance between them is
(i) halved, (ii) doubled?
Column I Column II 13. What is the actual direction of current and what is
(A) Resistance between a and b (p) R/2 conventional direction?
5 14. What happens to the heat produced when current is doubled?
(B) Resistance between a and c (q) R
8 15. Name two devices which work on heating effect of electric
(C) Resistance between b and d (r) R current.
3. Column II gives name of material use for device given 16. What is a fuse and specify its uses?
in column I 17. Define electric power and give its units in S.I.
Column I Column II 18. What is the operating resistance of a 100-watt household
(A) Resistance of (p) tungsten light bulb ? The operating line voltage of household
resistance box
electricity is 120V.
(B) Fuse wire (q) maganin
(C) Bulb (r) tin-lead alloy 19. Why does the cord of an electric heater not glow while the
(D) Insulator (s) glass heating element does ?
20. How does the amount of current in a household circuit differ
from the amount of current in a reading lamp?
DIRECTIONS : Give answer in one word or one sentence. 21. Would you expect to find DC or AC in the filament of a
light bulb in your home? How about in the headlight of an
1. What are the factors on which resistance depends?
2. Which combination have maximum value of equivalent automobile?
resistance? 22. A 220 volt 100 watts bulb is connected to 110 volts source,
3. If one coulomb charge flows in a circuit for one second calculate the power consumed by the bulb.
then what will be the value of current in the circuit. 23. An electric bulb is connected to a 220V generator. The
4. Name the instrument used to measure electric current. current is 0.50V. What is the power of the bulb ?
5. Manganin is used for making standard resistors. Why? 24. What uses more energy, a 250 W TV set in 1 hr. or a 1200W
6. A wire of resistivity is stretched to double its length. toaster in 10 minutes ?
What will be its new resistivity?
Electricity 151

14. A geyser is rated 1500W, 250V. This geyser is connected to

250V mains. Calculate : (i) the current drawn, (ii) the energy
DIRECTIONS : Give answer in 2-3 sentences. consumed in 50 hours. (iii) the cost of energy consumed at
‘ 220 per kWh.
1. Write Ohm’s law. Explain it by giving diagram of an electric 15. An electric iron of resistance 20 takes a current of 5A.
circuit. Calculate the heat developed in 30s.
2. Write the expression for the equivalent resistance R of three 16. Compare the power used in the 2 resistor in each of the
resistors R1, R2 and R3 joined in (i) parallel, (ii) series. following circuits :
3. Define the term current and state its S.I. unit. (i) a 6V battery in series with 1 and 2 resistors and (ii) a
4. A lamp draws a current of 0.5A when it is connected to a 4V battery in parallel with 12 and 2 resistors.
230 V supply. What is the resistance of the filament of the 17. An electric heater of resistance 8 draws 15A from the
lamp? service mains 2 hours. Calculate the rate at which heat is
5. Join three resistances of 2 ohm each such that the total developed in the heater.
resistance of the circuit is 3 ohm. 18. 100J of heat are produced each second in a 4 resistance.
6. Resistance of a metal wire of length 1m is 26 at 20°C. Find the potential difference across the resistor.
If the diameter of the wire is 0.3 mm, what will be the 19. In the home electrical energy is converted into other energy
resistivity of the metal at that temperature. forms. What is the energy conversion when
7. The equivalent resistance of circuit diagram is 4 . Calculate (a) an electric bell is used ?
the resistance of x. (b) an electric toaster is used ?
2 x
(c) a fluorescent tube is switched on ?
(d) an electric fan is used ?
20. Two bulbs are marked 60 W, 220 V and 100 W, 220V. These
A B
are connected in parallel to 220 V main. Which one of the
two will glow brighter ?
7 5
21. A toaster produces more heat than a light bulb when
connected in a parallel to the 220 V mains. Which of the
8. The I-V characteristics of a resistor are observed to deviate has greater resistance?
from a straight line for higher values of current as shown 22. An electric heater is used everyday for 120 minutes. The
below. Why? electricity bill for 30 days is 60 units. Calculate the power
of the electric heater.
I 23. In a household 5 tubelights of 40 W each are used for
5 hours and an electric press of 500 W for 4 hours every-
day. Calculate the total electrical energy consumed by the
tubelights and press in a month of 30 days.
24. A 100 W electrical bulb is lighted for 2 hours everyday and
V
five 40 W tubes are lighted for 4 hours everyday. Calculate
9. The equivalent resistance between the point A and B in the
(i) The energy consumed for 60 days and
adjoining circuit is 2 . Determine the value of R.
(ii)Cost of electricity consumed at the rate of ‘1.50 per
4 kWh.
25. What is meant by rating of electrical appliance?
26. What are the factors on which heat dissipated by a conductor
A R B depends?
27. Why is heat produced when a current is passed through a
12 conductor?
10. Obtain an expression for the (i) electrical energy (ii) 28. Define one watt.
electrical power, spent in flow of current through a 29. Why should the melting point of a fuse wire be low?
conductor. 30. The filament of electric bulb is made of tungsten. Why?
11. A 60W auto lamp allows 5 amps to pass through it. Find 31. State Ohm’s law.
(i) The p.d. across its terminal. 32. What is resistivity? Explain.
(ii) the resistance of the filament of the lamp 33. Give two reasons why are the conductors (filament) of
(iii) energy consumed in 2 hours electrical heating devices made of an alloy rather than a
12. What is the electric power ? Derive a formula for it ? pure metal.
13. An electric iron consumes energy at a rate of 840W when 34. Establish the relation between kilowatt-hour and joules.
heating is at the maximum rate and 360W when the heating 35. State the factors on which heat produced by an electric
is at the minimum. The voltage is 220V. What are the current current passing through a conductor depends? Explain.
and the resistance in each case? 36. Give three applications of heating effect of electric current.
 EBD_7005
152 PHYSICS
resistor and potential difference across their ends.
7. When a potential difference of 2 volt is applied across the
DIRECTIONS : Give answer in 4 to 5 sentences. ends of a wire of 5m length, a current of 1A is found to flow
1. Explain how the resistance of the conductor vary if through it. Calculate :
(i) the resistance per unit length of the wire
(i) area is halved (ii) length is doubled
(ii) the resistance of 2m length of this wire
(iii) area is doubled (iii) the resistance across the ends of the wire it is doubled
(iv) both area and length are doubled? on itself.
2. Draw the schematic diagram of circuit containing the 8. How can three resistors of resistance 2 , 3 and 6 be
following electrical components: connected to give a total resistance of 4?
(i) a resistance (ii) a voltmeter 9. A battery of 9V is connected in series with resistors of 0.2 ,
(iii) an electric bulb (iv) a cell 0.3 , 0.4 , 0.5 and 12 respectively. How much current
(v) plug key (open) (vi) an ammeter. would flow through the 12 resistor?
3. How does the resistance of a metallic wire depend on its 10. Define resistivity of material. State its S.I. units and discuss
temperature? Explain the reason to your answer. its variation with temperature in case of (i) metals (ii)
4. A circuit consists of a 1 wire in series with a parallel semiconductors and (iii) insulators.
arrangement of 6 and 3 with a P.D. of 12V is connected 11. What are the safety measures to be taken while dealing with
across the whole circuit. Draw the circuit diagram and household electricity?
calculate the main current in the circuit. 12. Three 250 watt heaters are connected in parallel to a 100
5. A copper wire has diameter 0.5 mm and resistivity of 1.6 × volt supply. Calculate :
10–8 m. What will be the length of this wire to make its (i) the total current taken from the supply.
resistance 10 ? How much does the resistance change if (ii) the resistance of each heater.
the diameter is doubled ? (iii) the energy supplied in kWh to the three heaters in
6. Three resistors of 20 ohm, 30 ohms and 50 ohm resistance 5 hours.
are joined in series. Across this combination a source of
150 volts is connected then determine the current in each
Electricity 153

18. What is (a) the highest and (b) the lowest total resistance
that can be secured by combinations of four coils of
1. What does an electric circuit means? resistance 4 , 8 , 12 and 24 ?
2. Define the unit of current. 19. Why does the cord of an electric heater not glow while the
3. Calculate the number of electrons constituting one coulomb heating element does?
of charge. 20. Compute the heat generated while transferring 96000
4. Name a device that helps to maintain a potential difference coulomb of charge in one hour through a potential
across a conductor. difference of 50 V.
5. What is meant by saying that the potential difference 21. An electric iron of resistance 20 takes a current of 5A.
between two points is 1 V? Calculate the heat developed in 30 sec.
6. How much energy is given to each coulomb of charge 22. What determines the rate at which energy is delivered by a
passing through a 6 V battery? current?
7. On what factors does the resistance of a conductor depend? 23. An electric motor takes 5A from a 220 V line. Determine
8. Will current flow more easily through a thick wire or a the power of the motor and the energy consumed in 2 h.
thin wire of the same material, when connected to the same
source? Why?
9. Let the resistance of an electrical component remain 1. A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into five equal parts.
constant while the potential difference across the two ends These parts are then connected in parallel. If the equivalent
of the component decreases to half of its former value. resistance of this combination is R' then the ratio R/R' is
What change will occur in the current through it? (a) 1/25 (b) 1/5
10. Why are coils of electric toasters and electric irons made of an (c) 5 (d) 25
alloy rather than a pure metal? 2. Which of the following terms does not represent electrical
11. Answer the following. power in a circuit?
(a) Which is a better conductor among iron mercury? (a) I2 R (b) IR2
(c) VI (d) V2/R
8 8
iron 10 10 m, mercury 94 10 m 3. An electric bulb is rated 220V and 100W. When it is
operated on 110V, the power consumed will be –
(b) Which material is the best conductor?
(a) 100 W (b) 75 W
12. Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit consisting of a battery (c) 50 W (d) 25 W
of three cells of 2V each. a 5 resistor, an 8 resistor, and 4. Two conducting wires of the same material and of equal
a 12 resistor, and a plug key. All connected in series. lengths and equal diameters are first connected in sereis
13. Redraw the circuit of question 12, putting in an ammeter and then in parallel in an electric circuit. The ratio of heat
to measure the current through the resistors and a voltmeter produced in series and in parallel combinations would be–
to measure the potential difference across the 12 resistor. (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
What would be the readings in the ammeter and the (c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1
voltmeter? 5. How is a voltmeter connected in the circuit to measure the
potential difference between two points ?
14. Judge the equivalent resistance, when the following are 6. A copper wire has diameter 0.5 mm and resistivity of
connected in parallel (i) 1 and 106 (ii) 1 and 103 , 1.6 × 10-8 m. What will be the length of this wire to
and 106 ? make its resistance 10 ? How much does the resistance
15. An electric lamp of 100 , a toaster of resistance 50 , and change if the diameter is doubled ?
a water filter of resistance 500 are connected in parallel 7. The values of current I flowing in a given resistor for the
to a 220V source. What is the resistance of an electric iron corresponding values of PD across the resistor are given
connected to the same source that takes as much current as below -
all three appliances, and what is the current through it? I (amperes) 0.5 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0
16. What are the advantages of connecting electrical devices V (volts) 1.6 3.4 6.7 10 13
in parallel with the battery instead of connecting them in
Plot a graph between V and I and calculate the resistance
series ?
of that resistor.
17. How can three resistors of resistances 2 , 3 and 6 be 8. When a 12V battery is connected across an unknown
connected to give a total resistance of resistor, there is a current of 2.5 mA in the circuit? Find
(a) 4 (b) 1 the value of the resistance of the resistor.
 EBD_7005
154 PHYSICS
9. A battery of 9V is connected in series with resistors of 5. Find out the following in the electrical circuit given in figure.
0.2 , 0.3 , 0.4 , 0.5 and 12 respectively. How A B C
A1
much current would flow through the 12 resistor? + –
4
10. How many 176 resistors (in parallel) are required to +
carry 5A on a 220 V line ? 8V
11. Show how you would connect three resistors, each of
–
8 8
resistance 6 , so that the combination has a resistance of
(i) 9 , (ii) 4

( )
12. Several electric bulbs designed to be used on a 220V
electric supply line, are rated 10W. How many lamps can – A + D
2
be connected in parallel with each other across the two (i) Effective resistance of two 8 resistance in the
wires of 220 V line if the maximum current is 5A ? combination
13. A hot plate of an electric oven connected to a 220 V line (ii) Current flowing through 4 resistor
has two resistance coils A and B, each of 24 resistance, (iii) Potential difference across 4 resistance
which may be used separately, in series or in parallel. What (iv) Power dissipated in 4 resistor
are the currents in the three cases? (v) Difference in ammeter readings, if any.
14. Compare the power used in the 2 resistor in each of the
following circuit. (i) a 6V battery in series with 1 and 2
resistors (ii) a 4V battery in parallel with 12 and 2
resistors. DIRECTIONS : Answer the following questions.
15. Two lamps, one rated 100W at 220V, and the other 60W 1. Three 2 resistors, A, B and C are connected as shown in
at 220V, are connected in parallel to electric mains Figure. Each of them dissipates energy and can withstand a
supply. What current is drawn from the line if the supply maximum power of 18W without melting. Find the
voltage is 220V ? maximum current that can flow through the three resistors?
16. Which uses more energy, a 250W TV set in 1hr, or a 1200W 2
toaster in 10 minutes?
17. An electric heater of resistance 8 draws 15A from the 2 B
I I
service mains in 2hrs. Calculate the rate at which heat is
developed in the heater. A
18. Explain the following.
(a) Why is the tungsten used almost exclusively for C
2
filament of electric lamps? 2. In the circuit shown, if a wire is connected between points
(b) Why are the conductors of electric heating devices, A and B. How much current will flow through that wire?
such as bread-toasters and electric irons made of an
alloy rather than a pure metal?
(c) Why is the series arrangement not used for domestic 6 A 12
circuits?
(d) How does the resistance of a wire vary with its area of
cross-section?
(e) Why are copper and aluminium wires usually employed
for electricity transmission? 12 B 6

DIRECTIONS : Answer the following questions.

1. How does use of a fuse wire protect electrical appliances?
80V
2. What is electrical resistivity? In a series electrical circuit
comprising a resistor made up of a metallic wire, the ammeter 3. A potential difference V is applied across a conductor of
reads 5 A. The reading of the ammeter decreases to half length L and diameter D. How the electric field E and
when the length of the wire is doubled. Why? resistance R effected when
3. Why is parallel arrangement used in domestic wiring? (i) V is halved (ii) L is halved
4. Three incandescent bulbs of 100 W each are connected in (iii) D is doubled
series in an electric circuit. In another circuit another set of Justify your answer in each case.
three bulbs of the same wattage are connected in parallel to 4. A cylinder of a material is 10 cm long and has a cross-section
the same source. of 2cm2. If its resistance along the length be 20 , what will
(i) Will the bulb in the two circuits glow with the same its resistivity value be in number and units?
brightness? Justify your answer. 5. Two wires, one of manganin and the other of copper have
(ii) Now let one bulb in both the circuits get fused. Will equal lengths and resistances. Which one of these wires will
the rest of the bulbs continue to glow in each circuit? be thicker?
Give reason.
Electricity 155

6. A cylindrical rod is reformed to twice its length with no

change in its volume. If the resistance of the rod was R, the
DIRECTIONS : This section contains multiple choice questions. new resistance will be
Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which (a) R (b) 2R
ONLY ONE is correct. (c) 4R (d) 8R
1. A current of 1 A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb. 7. What is the current through a 5.0 ohm resistor if the voltage
Number of electrons passing through a cross section of the across it is 10V
filament in 16 seconds would be roughly (a) zero (b) 0.50 A
(a) 1020 (b) 1016 (c) 2.0 A (d) 5.0 A
(c) 10 18
(d) 1023 8. The length of a wire is doubled and the radius is doubled.
2. The proper representation of series combination of cells By what factor does the resistance change
(Figure) obtaining maximum potential is (a) 4 times as large (b) twice as large
(c) unchanged (d) half as large
9. A circular conductor is made of a uniform wire of resistance
(i) (ii) 2 × 10–3 ohm/metre and the diameter of this circular
conductor is 2 metres. Then the resistance measured between
the ends of the diameter is (in ohms)
(a) × 10–3 (b) 2 × 10–3
(iii) (iv) (c) 4 × 10 –3 (d) 4 × 10–3
10. A 24V potential difference is applied across a parallel
(a) (i) (b) (ii) combination of four 6 ohm resistor. The current in each
(c) (iii) (d) (iv) resistor is
3. A cylindrical conductor of length l and uniform area of (a) 1 A (b) 4 A
crosssection A has resistance R. Another conductor of (c) 16 A (d) 36 A
length 2l and resistance R of the same material has area 11. Three resistances of 2, 3 and 5 are connected in parallel
of cross section to a 10V battery of negligible internal resistance. The
(a) A/2 (b) 3A/2 potential difference across the 3 resistance will be
(c) 2A (d) 3A (a) 2 V (b) 3 V
4. A student carries out an experiment and plots the V-I graph (c) 5 V (d) 10 V
of three samples of nichrome wire with resistances R1, R2 12. Two unequal resistances are connected in parallel. Which
and R3 respectively (Figure ). Which of the following is of the following statement is true
true? (a) current in same in both
(a) R1 R2 = R3 (b) R1 R2 R3 (b) current is larger in higher resistance
(a) R3 R2 = R1 (b) R2 R3 R1 (c) voltage-drop is same across both
(d) voltage-drop is lower in lower resistance
13. You are given n identical wires, each of resistance R. When
R1 these are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance is
I R2 X. When these will be connected in series, then the
(ampere) equivalent resistance will be
R3 (a) X/n2 (b) n2X
(c) X/n (d) nX
14. A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into five equal parts.
These parts are then connected in parallel. If the equivalent
resistance of this combination is R', then the ratio R/R' is
v(volt)
(a) 1/25 (b) 1/5
5. An electric kettle consumes 1 kW of electric power when (c) 5 (d) 25
operated at 220 V. A fuse wire of what rating must be used 15. 2 ampere current is flowing through a conductor from a 10
for it? volt emf source then resistance of conductor is
(a) 1 A (b) 2 A (a) 20 (b) 5
(c) 4 A (d) 5 A (c) 12 (d) 8
 EBD_7005
156 PHYSICS
16. Charge on an electron is 1.6 × 10–19 coulomb. Number of
electrons passing through the wire per second on flowing 60
B C
of 1 ampere current through the wire will be
(a) 0.625 × 10–19 (b) 1.6 × 10–19
(c) 1.6 × 10–19 (d) 0.625 × 1019
17. 20 coulomb charge is flowing in 0.5 second from a point in 40 100
an electric circuit then value of electric current in amperes
will be
(a) 10 (b) 40
(c) 0.005 (d) 0.05
A
18. Three resistors of 4.0 , 6.0 and 10.0 are connected in
series. What is their equivalent resistance The resistance of side AB is 40 ohms, of side BC 60 ohms
(a) 20 (b) 7.3 and of side CA 100 ohms. The effective resistance between
(c) 6.0 (d) 4.0 the point A and B in ohms is
19. A letter ‘A’ is constructed of a uniform wire of resistance 1 (a) 50 (b) 64
ohm per cm. The sides of the letter are 20 cm and the cross (c) 32 (d) 100
piece in the middle is 10 cm long. The resistance between 26. If one micro-amp. current is flowing in a wire, the number
of electrons which pass from one end of the wire to the
the ends of the legs will be
other end in one second is
(a) 32.4 ohm (b) 28.7 ohm (a) 6.25 × 1012 (b) 6.25 × 1015
(c) 26.7 ohm (d) 24.7 ohm (c) 6.25 × 10 18 (d) 6.25 × 1019
20. A wire of resistance R is cut into ten equal parts which are 27. The unit for specific resistance is
then joined in parallel. The new resistance is (a) ohm × second (b) ohm × cm
(a) 0.01 R (b) 0.1 R (c) ohm (d) ohm/cm
(c) 10 R (d) 100 R 28. If the temperature of a conductor is increased, its resistance
21. If a wire is stretched to make its length three times, its will
resistance will become (a) not increase
(a) three times (b) one-third (b) increase
(c) decrease
(c) nine times (d) one-ninth
(d) change according to the whether
22. The resistivity of a wire depends on 29. The unit for electric conductivity is
(a) length (a) ohm per cm (b) ohm × cm
(b) area of cross-section (c) ohm per second (d) mho
(c) material 30. Two wires of resistance R1 and R2 are joined in parallel.
(d) all the above three factors The equivalent resistance of the combination is
23. Ampere-second stands for the unit of (a) R1R2/R1 + R2 (b) R1 + R2
(a) power (b) charge (c) R1 × R2 (d) R1/R2
(c) e.m.f. (d) energy 31. Gases are good conductors of electricity at
24. In the circuits shown below the ammeter A reads 4 amp. and (a) high pressure (b) low pressure
(c) low temperature (d) high temperature
the voltmeter V reads 20 volts. The value of the resistance R is
32. The resistance of a thin wire in comparison of a thick wire
R of the same material
A (a) is low
(b) is equal
(c) depends upon the metal of the wire
(d) is high
V 33. If the specific resistance of a wire of length l and radius r is
k then resistance is
(a) slightly more than 5 ohms (a) k r 2 / l (b) r 2 / lk
2
(b) slightly less than 5 ohms (c) kl / r 2 (d) k / lr
(c) exactly 5 ohms 34. –19
If a charge of 1.6 × 10 coulomb flows per second through
(d) None of the above any cross section of any conductor, the current constitute
25. Three resistors are connected to form the sides of a triangle will be
ABC as shown below. (a) 2.56 × 10–19 A (b) 6.25 × 10–19 A
(c) 1.6 × 10 A –19 (d) 3.2 × 10–19 A
Electricity 157

35. The number of electrons flowing per second through any (a) 10 cm (b) 10 m
cross section of wire, if it carries a current of one ampere, (c) 100 m (d) 100 cm
will be 48. When the resistance wire is passed through a die the cross-
(a) 2.5 × 1018 (b) 6.25 × 1018 section area decreases by 1%, the change in resistance of
(c) 12.5 × 10 18 (d) 5 × 1018 the wire is
36. The number of electron passing through a heater wire in (a) 1% decrease (b) 1% increase
one minute, if it carries a current of 8 ampere, will be (c) 2% decrease (d) 2% increase
(a) 2 × 1020 (b) 2 × 1021
20 49. Two wires of the same material having lengths in the ratio
(c) 3 × 10 (d) 3 × 1021
of 1 : 2 and diameters in the ratio 2 : 1 are connected with a
37. The total momentum of electrons in a straight wire of length
= 1000 m carrying a current = 70 A, will be (in N. s) cell of 6 volt and internal resistance 1 . The ratio of the
(a) 0.40 × 10–6 (b) 0.20 × 10–6 potential difference across the two wires will be
(c) 0.80 × 10 –6 (d) 0.16 × 10–6 (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
38. In a wire of length 4m and diameter 6mm, a current of (c) 1 : 8 (d) 8 : 1
120 ampere is passed. The potential difference across the 50. The resistance 4R, 16R, 64R, .......... are connected in
wire is found to be 18 volt. The resistance of wire will be series, their resultant will be
(a) 0.15 ohm (b) 0.25 ohm (a) 0 (b)
(c) 6.660 ohm (d) none of the above (c) 4/3 R (d) 3/4 R
39. The resistance between two rectangular faces of a block of 51. Resistance R, 2R, 4R, 8R .............. are connected in
dimensions 4 cm × 4 cm × 10 cm of maganin parallel. Their resultant resistance will be
(r = 48 × 10–8 ohm, m), will be (a) R (b) R/2
(a) 4.8 µ (b) 3.8 µ (c) 0 (d)
(c) 30 µ (d) 3 µ 52. The equivalent resistance between points X and Y is
40. If resistance of a wire formed by 1.cc of copper be 2.46 .
The diameter of wire is 0.32 mm, then the specific resistance
of wire will be X
(a) 1.59 × 10–6 ohm. cm (b) 2.32 × 10–6 ohm. cm R R R R
(c) 3.59 × 10–6 ohm. cm (d) 1.59 × 10–8 ohm. cm R R R R
41. A given piece of wire length , cross sectional area A and Y
resistance R is stretched uniformly to a wire of length 2 . (a) R (b) 2R
The new resistance will be (c) R/2 (d) 4 R
(a) 2 R (b) 4 R 53. The equivalent resistance between points A and B is
(c) R/2 (d) Remains unchanged
42. A given piece of wire of length , radius r and resistance 7 5
A B
R is stretched uniformly to a wire of radius (r/2). The new
resistances will be 2 6
(a) 2 R (b) 4 R
(c) 8 R (d) 16 R (a) 4 (b) 4.5
43. There are two wires of the same length and of the same (c) 2 (d) 20
material and radial r and 2r. The ratio of their specific 54. Three resistances 4 each of are connected in the form of
resistance is an equilateral triangle. The effective resistance between two
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1 corners is
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1 (a) 8 (b) 12
44. Specific resistance of a wire depends on the
(a) length of the wire (c) 3/8 (d) 8/3
(b) area of cross-section of the wire 55. Two wires of same metal have the same length but their
(c) resistance of the wire cross-sections area in the ratio 3 : 1. They are joined in
(d) material of the wire series. The resistance of the thicker wire is 10 . The total
45. The resistance of some substances become zero at very low resistance of the combination will be
temperature, then these substances are called (a) 40 (b) 40/3
(a) good conductors (b) super conductors (c) 5/2 (d) 100
(c) bad conductors (d) semi conductors 56. A certain piece of silver of given mass is to be made like a
46. The resistance of wire is 20 . The wire is stretched to three wire. Which of the following combination of length (L) and
time its length. Then the resistance will now be the area of cross-sectional (A) will lead to the smallest
(a) 6.67 (b) 60 resistance
(c) 120 (d) 180 (a) L and A (b) 2L and A/2
47. When the resistance of copper wire is 0.1 and the radius (c) L/2 and 2A
is 1 mm, then the length of the wire is (specific resistance (d) Any of the above, because volume of silver remains
of copper is 3.14 × 10–8 ohm × m) same
 EBD_7005
158 PHYSICS
57. A certain wire has a resistance R. The resistance of another 69. In the circuit shown in the figure, the current through
wire identical with the first except having twice its
diameter is
(a) 2 R (b) 0.25 R
(c) 4 R (d) 0.5 R
58. What length of the wire of specific resistance 48 × 10–8
-m is needed to make a resistance of 4.2 (diameter of
wire = 0.4 mm)
(a) 4.1 m (b) 3.1 m
(c) 2.1 m (d) 1.1 m
59. The resistance of an ideal voltmeter is (a) the 3 resistor is 0.50A
(a) zero (b) very low (b) the 3 resistor is 0.25A
(c) very large (d) Infinite (c) the 4 resistor is 0.50A
60. Masses of 3 wires of same metal are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 and (d) the 4 resistor is 0.25A
their lengths are in the ratio 3 : 2 : 1. The electrical resistances 70. Which of the following has a negative temperature
are in ratio coefficient?
(a) 1 : 4 : 9 (b) 9 : 4 : 1 (a) C (b) Fe (c) Mn (d) Ag
(c) 1 : 2 : 3 (d) 27 : 6 : 1 71. Two electric lamps each of 100 watts 220V are connected in
61. We have two wires A and B of same mass and same material. series to a supply of 220 volts. The power consumed would
The diameter of the wire A is half of that B. If the resistance be –
of wire A is 24 ohm then the resistance of wire B will be (a) 100 watts (b) 200 watts
(a) 12 ohm (b) 3.0 ohm (c) 25 watts (d) 50 watts
(c) 1.5 ohm (d) None of the above 72. If it takes 8 minutes to boil a quantity of water electrically,
62. The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is R. If its how long will it take to boil the same quantity of water
length and radius are both doubled, then using the same heating coil but with the current doubled
(a) The resistance will be doubled and the specific (a) 32 minutes (b) 16 minutes
resistance will be halved (c) 4 minutes (d) 2 minutes
(b) The resistance will be halved and the specific resistance 73. An electric bulb is filled with
will remain unchanged (a) hydrogen (b) oxygen and hydrogen
(c) The resistance will be halved and the specific resistance (c) ammonia (d) nitrogen and argon
will be doubled 74. When current is passed through an electric bulb, its filament
(d) The resistance and the specific resistance, will both glows, but the wire leading current to the bulb does not
remain unchanged glow because
63. When a wire of uniform cross-section a, length and (a) less current flows in the leading wire as compared to
resistance R is bent into a complete circle, resistance between that in the filament
any two of diametrically opposite points will be (b) the leading wire has more resistance than the filament
(a) R/4 (b) R/8 (c) the leading wire has less resistance than the filament
(c) 4R (d) R/2 (d) filament has coating of fluorescent material over it
64. A solenoid is at potential difference 60V and current flows 75. Which of the following terms does not represent electrical
through it is 15 ampere, then the resistance of coil will be power in a circuit?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (a) I2R (b) IR2 (c) VI (d) V2/R
(c) 0.25 (d) 2 76. Two conducting wires of the same material and of equal
65. The resistance of a discharge tube is lengths and equal diameters are first connected in series
(a) Ohmic (b) Non-ohmic and then parallel in a circuit across the same potential
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Zero difference. The ratio of heat produced in series and parallel
66. Conductivity increases in the order of combinations would be
(a) Al, Ag, Cu (b) Al, Cu, Ag (a) 1:2 (b) 2:1 (c) 1:4 (d) 4:1
(c) Cu, Al, Ag (d) Ag, Cu, Al 77. The filament of an electric bulb is of tungsten because
67. By increasing the temperature, the specific resistance of a (a) Its resistance is negligible
conductor and a semiconductor (b) It is cheaper
(a) Increases for both (b) Decreases for both (c) Its melting point is high
(c) Increases, decreases (d) Decreases, increases (d) Filament is easily made
68. A strip of copper and another of germanium are cooled from 78. When the current passes through the filament, it gets heated
room temperature to 80 K. The resistance of to incandescence and give light while the connecting wires
(a) Each of these increases are not heated because
(b) Each of these decreases (a) The connecting wires are good conductor of heat while
(c) Copper strip increases and that of germanium decreases the filament is bad conductor
(d) Copper strip decreases and that of germanium increases (b) The connecting wires are of low resistance while the
filament is of high resistance
Electricity 159

(c) The density of connecting wires is less than that of the (b) The electron drift velocity is larger in the conductor of
filament length 2L
(d) The connecting wires are bad conductor of heat while (c) The electric field in the first conductor is twice than
the filament is good conductor that in the second
79. Which one of the following heater element is used in electric (d) The electric field in the second conductor is twice than
press that in the first
(a) copper wire (b) nichrome wire 3. When a potential difference is applied across the ends of a
(c) lead wire (d) iron wire linear-metallic conductor:
80. What should be the characteristic of fuse wire? (a) the free electrons are set in motion from their position
(a) High melting point, high specific resistance of rest
(b) Low melting point, low specific resistance (b) the free electrons are accelerated continuously from
(c) High melting point, low specific resistance the lower potential end to the higher potential end of
(d) Low melting point, high specific resistance the conductor
81. The heating element of an electric heater should be made (c) the free electrons acquire a constant drift velocity from
with a material, which should have the lower potential end to the higher potential end of
(a) high specific resistance and high melting point the conductor
(b) high specific resistance and low melting point (d) the vibrating atomic ions in the conductor start
(c) low specific resistance and low melting point vibrating more vigorously
(d) low specific resistance and high melting point 4. Electric current arises from the flow of charged particles.
82. Resistance of conductor is doubled keeping the potential Now:
difference across it constant. The rate of generation of heat (a) in metals it is dominant due to flow of electrons
will (b) in semiconductors it is jointly due to flow of holes and
(a) become one fourth (b) be halved electrons
(c) be doubled (d) become four times (c) in electrolytes it is due to flow of negative ions only
83. A current I passes through a wire of length l, radius r and (d) in discharge tubes containing gases at low pressure it
resistivity p. The rate of heat generated is is due to flow of positive ions only
5. The potential difference between the points A and B in the
I2 I2
(a) (b) circuit shown here is 16 volts. Then:
r r2 4 9V 1 3V 3
A B
2
I
(c) (d) none of these
r
84. The resistance R1 and R2 are joined in parallel and a current (a) the current through the 2 resistance is 3.5 amp
is passed so that the amount of heat liberated is H1 and H2 (b) the current through the 4 resistance is 2.5 amp
respectively. The ratio H1/H2 has the value (c) the current through the 3 resistance is 1.5 amp
(a) R2/R1 (b) R1/ R2 (d) the potential difference between the terminals of the
9V battery is 7V
(c) R12 / R22 (d) R22 / R12 6. In the given circuit:
2 P 2
20V, 1.5
DIRECTIONS : This section contains multiple choice
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) 3
2
out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
Q
1. A current passes through a wire of non-uniform cross- (a) the current through the battery is 5.0 amp
section. Which of the following quantities are independent (b) P and Q are at the same potential
of the cross-section? (c) P is 2.5 V higher than Q
(a) The charge crossing in a given time interval (d) Q is 2.5 V higher than P
(b) Drift speed 7. Three voltmeters, all having different resistances, are joined
as shown in the figure. When some potential difference is
(c) Current density
applied across A and B, their readings are V1, V2, V3:
(d) Free-electron density
2. Two conductors made of the same material have lengths V1 V2
L and 2L, but have equal resistances. The two are connected A B
in series in a circuit in which current is flowing. Which of V3
the following is/are correct?
(a) V1 = V2 (b) V1 V2
(a) The potential difference across the two conductors is
(c) V1 + V2 = V3 (d) V1 + V2 > V3
the same
 EBD_7005
160 PHYSICS
8. In the circuit, the battery is ideal. A voltmeter of resistance 1. The potential drop across the 3 resistor is
600 is connected in turn across R1 and R2, giving readings (a) 1 V (b) 1.5 V
V1 and V2 respectively: (c) 2 V (d) 3 V
2. The equivalent resistance between points A and B is
R1= 600 (a) 7 (b) 6
+ (c) 13 (d) 5
E = 120 V –
3. The current flowing through in the given circuit is
R2= 300 (a) 0.5 A (b) 1.5 A
(c) 6 A (d) 3 A
(a) V1 = 80 V (b) V1 = 60V Passage -II
(c) V2 = 30 V (d) V2 = 40 V Answer the following questions based on the given circuit.
9. Three ammeters A, B and C of resistances RA, RB and RC
respectively are joined as shown in the figure. When some A 12 3.0 5.0 4.0 B
potential difference is applied across the terminals T1 and
T2, their readings are IA, IB and IC respectively:
I
A B 12V
T1 T2
C
(a) IA = IB (b) IARA + IBRB = ICRC 4. The equivalent resistance between points A and B, is
IA RC IB RC (a) 12 (b) 36
(c) (d) (c) 32 (d) 24
IC RA IC R A RB
5. The current through each resistor is
10. A constant voltage is applied between the two ends of a (a) 1 A (b) 2.3 A
uniform metallic wire. If both the length and radius of wire (c) 0.5 A (d) 0.75 A
are doubled, then: 6. The potential drop across the 12 resistor is
(a) the heat developed in the wire will be doubled (a) 12 V (b) 6 V
(b) the electric field in the wire will be doubled
(c) 8 V (d) 0.5 V
(c) the heat developed will remain the same
(d) the electric field in the wire will be halved Passage -III
11. Two heaters designed for the same voltage V have different Answer the following questions based on the given circuit.
power ratings. When connected individually across a source
of voltage V, they produce H amount of heat each in times 10
t1 and t2 respectively. When used together across the same
source, they produce H amount of heat in time t: A 3.0 4.0 B
(a) if they are in series, t = t1 + t2
5.0
(b) if they are in series, t = 2 (t1 + t2)
t1t2
(c) if they are in parallel, t = I
(t1 t2 ) 3.0
t1t2
(d) if they are in parallel, t = 2(t t )
1 2
12V

DIRECTIONS : Study the given paragraph(s) and answer the

following questions. 7. The equivalent resistance between points A and B
(a) 6.2 (b) 5.1
Passage -I (c) 13.33 (d) 1.33
Answer the following questions based on the given circuit.
8. The current through the battery is
3
(a) 2.33 A (b) 3.12 A
4 (c) 4.16 A (d) 5.19 A
A 6 B
9. The current through the 4.0 ohm resistor is
(a) 5.6 A (b) 0.98 A
(c) 0.35 A (d) 0.68 A
3V
Electricity 161

Passage -IV
Answer the following questions based on the given circuit.
2V DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains an Assertion
I + – ( ) followed by reason. Read them carefully and answer the question
on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that
best describes the two statements.
0.5 6 (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is
I1 the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is
Y not the correct explanation of Assertion.
I2 (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
2 1. Assertion : When a battery is short-circuited, the terminal
10. The total resistance of the circuit is voltage is zero.
(a) 2 (b) 4 Reason : In the situation of a short-circuit, the current is
(c) 1.5 (d) 0.5 zero
11. The current flowing through 0.5 resistor is 2. Assertion : The equation V = Ri does not apply to those
(a) 1 A (b) 1.5 A conducting devices which do not obey Ohm’s law.
(c) 3 A (d) 2.5 A Reason : V = Ri is a statement of Ohm’s law.
12. The current flowing through 6 resistor is 3. Assertion : All electric devices shown in the circuit are
(a) 0.50 A (b) 0.75 A ideal. The reading of each of ammeter (a) and voltmeter
(c) 0.80 A (d) 0.25 A (V) is zero.
Passage-V
Two tungston lamps with resistances R1 and R2 respectively at
full incandescence are connected first in parallel and then in series,
in a lighting circuit of negaligible internal resistance. It is given
that: R1 > R2.
13. Which lamp will glow more brightly when they are
connected in parallel?
(a) Bulb having lower resistance
(b) Bulb having higher resistance
(c) Both the bulbs Reason : An ideal voltmeter draws almost no current due
(d) None of the two bulbs to very large resistance, and hence (V) and (a) will read
14. If the lamp of resistance R1 now burns out, how will the zero.
illumination produced change? 4. Assertion : If 1 and 2 be the resistivities of the materials
(a) Net illumination will increase of two resistors of resistances R1 and R2 respectively and
(b) Net illumination will decrease R1 > R2, then 1 > 2.
(c) Net illumination will remain same Reason : The resistance R
A 1> 2
(d) Net illumination will reduced to zero if R1 > R2
15. Which lamp will glow more brightly when they are 5. Assertion : The product of resistivity and conductivity of a
connected in series? conductor depends on the material of the conductor.
(a) Bulb having lower resistance Reason : Because each of resistivity and conductivity
(b) Bulb having higher resistance depends on the material of the conductor.
(c) Both the bulbs 6. Assertion : Insulators do not allow flow of current through
(d) None of the two bulbs themselves.
16. If the lampe of resistance R2 now burns out and the lamp of Reason : They have no free-charge carriers.
resistance R1 alone is plugged in, will the illumination 7. Assertion : Positive charge inside the cell always goes from
increase or decrease? positive terminal to the negative terminal.
(a) Illumination will remain same Reason : Positive charge inside the cell may go from
(b) Illumination will increase negative terminal to the positive terminal.
(c) Illumination will increase 8. Assertion : Wire A is thin in comparison to wire B of same
(d) Illumination will decrease material same length then resistance of wire A is greater
17. Would physically bending a supply wire cause any change than resistance of wire B.
in the illumination? Reason : Resistivity of wire A is greater than resistance of
(a) Illumination will remain same wire B.
(b) Illumination will increase 9. Assertion : Resistivity of material may change with
(c) Illumination will decrease temperature.
(d) It is not possible to predict from the given datas Reason : Resistivity is a material property & independent
on temperature.
 EBD_7005
162 PHYSICS
10. Assertion : When current through a bulb decreases by (C) Resistance (r) Req = 1 , I = 6A
0.5%, the glow of bulb decreases by 1%. 3
Reason : Glow (Power) which is directly proportional to
square of current. 3
11. Assertion : Long distance power transmission is done at 3 1
high voltage. (D) I I (s)
Area
Reason : At high voltage supply power losses are less. 6V
12. Assertion : Resistance of 50W bulb is greater than that of + –
100 W. A B C D
Reason : Resistance of bulb is inversely proportional to (a) p p s, q r
rated power. (b) p, q q, s r q, r
13. Assertion : 40 W tube light give more light in comparison (c) p p s, q r
to 40 w bulb. (d) s, r r p, q r, s
Reason : Light produced is same from same power. 3. Column I Column II
14. Assertion : A resistor of resistance R is connected to an (A) Ohm (p) 1 Volt / 1 Amp
ideal battery. If the value of R is decreased, the power (B) Current (q) Depends on matter of
dissipated in the circuit will increase. conductor
Reason : The power dissipated in the circuit is directly charge
proportional to the resistance of the circuit. (C) Resistivity (r)
15. Assertion : A torch bulb give light if operated on AC of time
same voltage and current as DC. Resistance
Reason : Heating effect is common to both AC and DC. (D) Super conductor (s)
Zero
16. Assertion : A tube light emits white light. A B C D
Reason : Emission of light in a tube takes place at a very (a) p, r p r, s, r
high temperature (b) p q, r q s
(c) s, q p, s r q
(d) s, r r p, q r, s
DIRECTIONS : Following question has four statements (A, B, 4. For the circuit shown in the adjoining figure, match the
entries of column I with the entries of column II.
C and D) given in Column I and four statements (p, q, r and s) in
Column I Column II
Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct
E
matching with one or more statement(s) given in Column II. Match
the entries in column I with entries in column II.
(A) (p) Current drawn from the
1. Column I Column II battery is maximum
(A) Ohm’s Law (p) Direct proportional to area E E E
(B) Resistivity (q) Voltage current
(B) (q) Current drawn from the
charge
(C) For Ohmic-conductor (r)
time battery is the least
(D) Electric current (s) V = IR
A B C D E
(a) q, s p q, s r (C) (r) Bulbs will lit the
(b) p, q q, s r q, r
(c) p, s q r,s,t r brightest
(d) p q, r r r, s
2. Column I Column II E E
0.5 0.5
(D) (s) Bulbs will lit with
(A) I (p) Req = 1 , I = 12A brightness lying
12V
between maximum and
+ – minimum value

1 A B C D
(a) q r p, s s
1 (b) p, q q, s r q, r
(B) I I (q) Length (c) s, r r p, q r, s
6V (d) p p s, q r
+ –
Electricity 163

R2

5 10
DIRECTIONS : Following are integer based/Numeric based
questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one A R1 B R3 C
1 amp.
integer or numeric value.
15
1. What is the number of electrons that would flow per second (i) What is the total resistance?
through the cross-section of a wire when 1 A current flows (ii) What is the potential difference across AB and BC?
in it? (iii) What is the current through other two resistors?
2. A current of 1.2 A flows through a conductor for 3.0 s. What 12. In the circuit shown in figure, calculate (i) the current flowing
amount of charge passes through the conductor? through the arms AB and CE; (ii) the potential difference
3. Name a metal which offers higher resistance to the passage across AB, CD and DE.
of electricity other than copper. R1 R2
C D E
4. Two electric lamps rated 100 W, 220 V and 25 W, 220 V are
I1 6 4
connected in parallel to 220 V supply. Calculate the current
in circuit. R3
5. A 3000 W immersion rod is connected to 240 V main supply. A B
I2 12
Calculate (i) current and (ii) resistance in circuit.
6. Find the equivalent resistance and total current in the circuit,
if the point P and R are connected to a 6V battery.
R 1.5 V
2
S 13. A copper wire has a diameter of 0.5 mm and resistivity of
16.2 ohm meter. How much of this wire would be required
7 10
10 to make a 10 ohm coil?
Q 14. Calculate the resistance of an aluminium wire of length
P 30 60 cm and cross-sectional area 1mm2, the specific resistance
7. In the circuit diagram find
of 2.6 × 10–8 m?
(i) Total resistance of the circuit.
(ii) Total current flowing in the circuit. 15. Calculate the resistance of a conductor, if the current flowing
through it is 0.2 A when the applied potential difference is
(iii) Potential difference across R1 . 0.8 volt.
8 16. A student obtains resistances 3,4,12 and 16 using only
7.2 R2 two metallic resistance wires are either separately or joined
R3 together. What is the value of resistance of each of these
R1
wires?
12 17. A 60-W bulb is switched on in a room. A 240-W heater is
also turned on in the same room. The voltage of the mains
is 120V and the resistance of the connecting leads is 6 .
6V What is the change in the voltage at the bulb when the heater
8. Two resistances are connected in series. is turned on.
(i) Find current through 5 resistance 18. A heater joined in parallel with a 60 W bulb is replaced by
(ii) What is the value of R2 and V? a 100 W bulb, Will the rate of heat produced by the heater
15V be more or less or remains the same ?
R1 6V 19. Two bulbs whose resistances are in the ratio 1 : 2, are
connected in parallel to a source of constant voltage. What
5 R2 will be the ratio of power dissipation of these?
20. In a factory, an electric bulb of 500 W is used for 2 hours
and electric bulb of 500 W is used for 2 hours and electric
V motor of 0.5 horse power is used for 5 hours everyday.
9. A potential difference of 250 volts is applied across a Calculate the cost of using the bulb and motor for 30 days if
resistance of 500 ohms in an electric iron. Calculate (i) the cost of electrical energy is three rupees per unit.
current (ii) heat energy produce in joules in 10 secs? 21. An electric lamp is marked 100 W, 220 V. It is used for
10. A 2000 W of electric geyser is used every day for 1 hour. 5 hours daily. Calculate
(i) its resistance while glowing
How many units of electrical energy will it consume in
(ii) energy consumed in kWh per day.
30 days? 22. A 60 W electric lamp gives off energy in the form of light at
11. Three resistors are connected as shown in the following a rate of 7.5 joule per second. What percentage of energy
figure. Through the resistor 5 ohm a current of 1 A is flowing. does the lamp transform into light energy?
 EBD_7005
164 PHYSICS

7. An electric bulb is rated 220V and 100W. When it is operated

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-18): This section contains multiple choice
on 110V, the power consumed will be
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct. (a) 100W (b) 75W
(c) 50W (d) 25W
1. When a 12 resistor is connected in series with a moving 8. From a power station, the power is transmitted at a very
coil galvanometer then its deflection reduces from high voltage because –
50 divisions to 10 divisions. The resistance of the (a) it is generated only at high voltage
galvanometer is (b) it is cheaper to produce electricity at high voltage
(a) 24 ohm (b) 36 ohm (c) electricity at high voltage is less dangerous
(c) 3 ohm (d) 60 ohm (d) there is less loss of energy in transmission at high voltage
2. In a Wheatstone’s bridge all the four arms have equal 9. On which one of the following the emf of a cell does not
resistance R. If the resistance of the galvanometer arm is depend
also R, the equivalent resistance of the combination across (a) The nature of the metal of electrodes
the battery is (b) The size of the plates
(a) R/2 (b) R (c) Nature of the electrolyte
(c) 2R (d) R/4 (d) The nature of electrodes
3. Kirchoff’s first law, i.e., S i = 0 at a junction, deals with 10. The primary cell which is used in daily life is –
the conservation of (a) Leclanche cell (b) Dry cell
(a) charge (c) Daniel cell (d) Simple voltaic cell
(b) energy 11. Which one of the following primary cells has emf 1.08 volts
(c) momentum and which remains fairly constant?
(d) angular momentum (a) Daniel cell (b) Simple voltaic cell
4. If in the experiment of Wheatstone’s bridge, the positions (c) Leclanche cell (d) Dry cell
of cells and galvanometer are interchanged, then balance 12. If 10 cells each of 1.4 volts are connected in parallel, their
point will equivalent potential difference will be
(a) change (a) 1.4 volts (b) 0.14 volts
(b) remain unchanged (c) 14 volts (d) 10/1.4 volts
(c) depend on the internal resistance of cell and resistance 13. Two electric bulbs rated P1 watt V volts and P2 watt V volts
of galvanometer are connected in parallel and applied across V volts. The
(d) None of these total power (in watts) will be
5. In potentiometer a balance point is obtained, when (a) P1 + P2 (b) P1 P2
(a) the e.m.f. of the battery becomes equal to the e.m.f of
the experimental cell P1 P2 P1 P2
(b) the p.d. of the wire between the +ve end of battery to (c) P P (d) P1 P2
1 2
jockey becomes equal to the e.m.f. of the experimental
cell 14. If E be chemical equivalent of an element and Z is its
(c) the p.d. of the wire between +ve point of cell and jockey electrochemical equivalent, then E/Z is measured in
becomes equal to the e.m.f. of the battery (a) farad (b) newton
(d) the p.d. across the potentiometer wire becomes equal (c) coulomb (d) faraday
to the e.m.f. of the battery 15. A silver and a zinc voltameter are connected in series and a
6. In the experiment of potentiometer, at balance point, there current I is passed through them for a time t, liberating
is no current in the W grams of zinc. The weight of silver deposited is nearly
(a) main circuit (a) 1.7 W grams (b) 2.4 W grams
(b) galvanometer circuit (c) 3.5 W grams (d) 1.2 W grams
(c) potentiometer circuit 16. What determines the e.m.f. between the two metals placed
in an electrolyte?
(d) both main and galvanometer circuits
Electricity 165

(a) relative position of metals in the electro chemical series 21. Two cells of unequal e.m.fs. E 1 and E 2 and internal
(b) distance between them resistances r1 and r2 are joined as shown. VA and VB are the
(c) strength of electrolyte potentials at A and B respectively:
(d) nature of electrolyte
+ –
17. Faraday’s laws are consequence of conservation of
E1, r1
(a) energy (b) energy and magnetic field
A B
(c) charge (d) magnetic field
+ –
18. According to Faraday’s law of electrolysis, the amount of
E2, r2
decomposition is proportional to
(a) 1/time for which current passes (a) one cell will continuously supply energy to the other
(b) electrochemical equivalent of the substance (b) the potential difference across both the cells will be
(c) 1/current equal
(d) 1/electrochemical equivalent (c) the potential difference across one cell will be greater
than its e.m.f.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 19-24) : This section contains multiple
choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and ( E1r2 E2 r1 )
(d) VA – VB ( r1 r2 )
(d) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
19. When some potential difference is maintained between 22. For the battery shown in the figure:
A and B, current I enters the network at A and leaves at B:
20 5 E R1
C + 1–

A E R3 B
+ 2–
A B
E R3
D + 3–
5
(a) the equivalent resistance between A and B is 8
(b) C and D are at the same potential (a) equivalent internal resistance R is given by:
(c) no current flows between C and D 1 1 1 1
(d) current (3I/5) flows from D to C
R R1 R2 R3
20. A battery of emf E0 5V and internal resistance 5 is
connected across a long uniform AB of length 1 m and ( E1 R2 E2 R1 )
(b) if E3 , equivalent e.m.f. of the battery
resistance per unit length 5 m–1. Two cells of E1 = 1 V ( R1 R2 )
and E2 = 2V are connected as shown in the figure. :
will be equal to E3
(c) equivalent e.m.f. of the battery is equal to E = (E1 + E2
5V 5 + E3)/3
(d) equivalent e.m.f. of the battery not only depends upon
A
P
B
values of E1, E2 and E3 but depends upon values of R1,
1V 1 R2 and R3 also
G 23. In a household electric circuit:
2V 2 (a) all electric appliances drawing power are joined in
parallel
(a) The null point is at A (b) a switch may be either in series or in parallel with the
(b) If jockey is touched to point B the current in the appliance which it controls
galvanometer will be going towards B (c) if a switch is in parallel with an appliance, it will draw
(c) When jockey is connected to point A no current is power when the switch in the off position (open)
flowing through 1 V battery. (d) if switch is in parallel with an appliance, the fuse will
(d) The null point is at distance of 8/15 m from A blow (burn out) when the switch is put on (closed)
 EBD_7005
166 PHYSICS
24. In the circuit shown in the fiugre: 26. The internal resistance of the cell E2 is:
(a) 4.5 (b) 5.5
4 (c) 6.5 (d) 7.5
27. The balance length when key K2 is open and K1 is closed, is
given by:
6
(a) 10.5 cm (b) 11.5 cm
B
(c) 12.5 cm (d) 13.5 cm
28. The balance length when key K1 is open and K2 is closed, is
2 20V given by:
(a) 10.5 cm (b) 11.5 cm
(a) power supplied by the battery is 200 watt
(c) 12.5 cm (d) 13.5 cm
(b) current flowing in the circuit is 5A
(c) potential difference across 4 resistance is equal to the
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 29-31) : Each of these questions contains
potential difference across 6 resistance
an Assertion followed by reason. Read them carefully and answer
(d) current in wire AB is zero
the question on the basis of following options. You have to select
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 25-28) : Study the given paragraph(s) and the one that best describes the two statements.
answer the following questions.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is
Passage
the correct explanation of Assertion.
Figure shows the circuit of a potentiometer. The length of
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is
the potentiometer wire AB is 50 cm. The emf of the battery
not the correct explanation of Assertion.
resistances R1 and R2 are 15 ohm and 5 ohm respectively. When
both the keys are open, the null point is obtained at a distance of (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
31.25 cm from end A but when both the keys are closed, the balance (d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
length reduces to 5 cm only. Given RAB = 10 . 29. Assertion :
Kirchoff s junction rule follows from conservation of charge.
Reason : Kirchoff s loop rule follows from conservation of
E1 K1 momentum.
R1 30. Assertion : 40 W tube light give more light in comparison
A to 40 w bulb.
B
Reason : Light produced is same from same power.
E2
G 31. Assertion : A resistor of resistance R is connected to an
R2 ideal battery. If the value of R is decreased, the power
dissipated in the circuit will increase.
25. The emf of the cell E2 is: Reason : The power dissipated in the circuit is directly
(a) 1 volt (b) 2 volt proportional to the resistance of the circuit.
(c) 3 volt (d) 4 volt
DIRECTIONS (Q. 32): Following question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and 5 statements (p, q, r, s
and t) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with one or more statement(s) given in Column II.
Match the entries in column I with entries in column II.
32. Consider a network of resistances each of value of R as shown in figure.
B
Column I Column II
(A) Equivalent of net work between A and C is (p) same R R
(B) Equivalent resistance between A an B (q) 5/8 R
A C
(C) Potential of B and D when voltage source is (r) R R
applied across A and C is R R
(D) Potential of B and D when voltage source is (s) 2 R
D
applied across A and B is (t) different
A B C D
(a) r q p t
(b) s p q r, t
(c) p s r,s q
(d) s q,r r s,t
Electricity 167

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 33-37): Following are integer based/

3
Numeric based questions. Each question, when worked out will
result in one integer or numeric value.
2 D
33. Determine currents I1, I2 and I3? A B
C 7 6 C

b I1 24V a 4
2
35. In a meter bridge the length of wire is 100 cm. At what point
I2
c d is balance point obtained, if two resistances are in ratio of 2 : 3?
27V 6
I3 36. Two bulbs whose resistances are in the ratio 1 : 2, are
connected in parallel to a source of constant voltage. What
e f will be the ratio of power dissipation of these?
4
37. A heater coil is rated 100 W, 200 V. It is cut into two identical
parts. Both parts are connected together in parallel to the
34. Calculate the effective resistance between A and B in the same source of 200V.Calculate the energy liberated per
following network. second in the new combination.
 EBD_7005
168 PHYSICS

SO L U T I ON S
Brief Explanations
of
Selected Questions

8. Slope of voltage vs. current graph gives resistance of a

metallic conductor. S.I. unit is ohm.
9. The specific resistance of silver is least. So it is the best
Fill in the Blanks : conductor as the conductivity is the reciprocal of specific
1. current 2. zero resistance.
3. series 10. Resistance increases with increase in temperature.
4. potential difference 5. resistivity Resistance of metallic wire is the inverse of slope of the
6. ampere 7. Resistance graph R is more at T2 T2 > T1.
8. ohm ( ) 11. If both voltage and resistance are doubled, there will be no
9. directly proportional, temperature change in the current.
10. length, area of cross-section, material 12. (i) It becomes four times
11. joule 12. Scalar (ii) It becomes one fourth.
13. decreases 14. ohm-meter 13. Actually, current flows from negative to positive terminal
15. electric current but conventionally, it is shown by positive to negative
16. 1 17. inversely. terminal.
18. power, energy 19. ampere, hour 14. It becomes four times.
20. resistance, melting point 21. low, lead, tin, melts 15. (i) Electric toaster
22. series, live 23. separation (ii) Electric heater.
24. voltmeter 25. V × I × t 16. Fuse is a thin wire which melts and breaks the electric circuit
26. watt (W) 27. 1 V due to (i) overloading (ii) short circuit (iii) fluctuation in
28. 3,600,000 J 29. Tungsten power supply.
30. voltage, current 31. electric power 17. The rate at which electric work is done is called electric
True / False : power. In S.I., power = watt = 1 Js–1.
1. True 2. False 3. False 4. True 18. Given : P = 100 W, V = 120 V, Find R.
5. False 6. True 7. True 8. True
V2 V2 (120V ) 2
9. False 10. False 11. True 12. True From P , We have R 144
13. False 14. False 15. False 16. True
R P 100W
17. True 18. True 19. True 20. False 19. The cord of the electric heater made of copper does not
21. False glow because negligible heat is produced in it by passing
current. It is due to its extremely low resistance.
Match the Following :
20. The amount of current in a household circuit is more than
1. (A) q; (B) p; (C) s; (D) r the amount of current in a reading lamp as the current of the
2. (A) q;, (B) p; (C) r; circuit is divided among all the appliances in a parallel
3. (A) q; (B) r; (C) p; (D) s household circuit.
Very Short Answer Questions : 21. There is AC flowing in the filament of the light bulb in our
1. Resistance depends on: (i) temperature (ii) length and area homes but DC flows in the bulbs of automobiles.
of cross-section (iii) material of the conductor. 22. Resistance of the bulb
4. Ammeter
V V2 V2 220 220
5. Manganin is an alloy whose temperature coefficient of R or R 484 ohm.
I IV W 100
resistance is almost negligible. So its resistance does not
change with change in temperature, that is why it is used Power consumed when connected to 110 volt source.
in making standard resistors.
V 2 110 110
6. Resistivity will not change as it depends on the material 25 watt.
R 484
not on the length.
7. Resistivity will not change as it depends on the material 23. P = VI = 220V × 0.50 A = 110 J/s = 110 W
not on the diamater of the wire. 24. 250W TV set in 1 hour.
Electricity 169

Short Answer Questions : 14. (i) 6A (ii) 75 kWh (iii) ‘ 165

1. Ohm’s law: 15. Here, R = 20 , I = 5A, t = 30s
4. I = 0.5 A, V = 230 volt Heat developed = I2Rt= 5 × 5 × 20 × 30 = 15,000 J = 15 kJ
V 230 16. (i) Equivalent resistance of 1 and 2 in series,
R 460
I 0.5 R=1 +1 =3
5. Two resistance in parallel, and the third in series with them.
V 6
6. We are given the resistance R of the wire = 26 , the diameter Potential difference, V = 6V, Current, I 2A
d = 0.3 mm = 3 × 10–4 m and the length of the wire = 1m R 3
We know that the resistivity of the given metallic wire is Current in series circuit is same.
Current in 2 resistor = 2A
RA R d2 Power in 2 resistor, P = I2R = 22 × 2 = 8W
4 (ii) Potential difference across 2 resistor = 4V
26 22 3 10 4 3 10 4 V2 42
= = 183.857 × 10–8 Power, P 8W
7 4 1 R 2
= 1.84 × 10–8 m P : P' = 8W : 8W = 1 : 1
The resistivity of the metal at 20°C is 1.84 × 10–8 m 17. Here, R = 8 , I = 15A , t = 2h = 2 × 60 × 60s
7. Equivalent resistance of circuit R = 4 . Heat developed, H = I2Rt = (15)² × 8 × 2 × 60 × 60 J
Equivalent resistance of 2 and x in series The rate at which heat is developed is power.
R1 = 2 + x .......... (a)
Equivalent resistance of 7 and 5 in series Heat developed (I2 Rt)
Power =
R2 = 7 + 5 = 12 . Time taken (t)
As R1 and R2 are in parallel
15 15 8 2 60 60
1 1 1 1 1 1 = 1800 J / s
2 60 60
Rp R1 R2 4 R1 12
18. H = 100 J, R = 4, t = 1s, V = ?
We have the current through the resistor as
1 1 1 2 1
R1 4 12 12 6 I H / Rt [100J /(4 1s)] 5A
Putting value of R1 in (a) Thus the potential difference across the resistor V is given
6=2+x x=6–2=4 . by V = IR = 5A × 4 = 20V
19. (a) electrical sound (b) electrical sound
8. For higher current there are higher heat or energy losses
(c) electrical light (d) electrical mechanical
as energy
V = I2 R
9. 6 1
20. 100 W bulb as P ,i R (V is constant )
11. (i) Power, P = V × I R
60 = V × I
60 I V2
V 12 volts 21. Since, R toaster will have low resistance and
P P
5
bulb will have high resistance
V 12
(ii) Resistance = R 2.4 22. Energy consumed in 30 days = 60 units
I 5
(iii) Energy consumed in 2 hours days watt hours
(i.e), = 60
1000
watts 60
= hr = 2 0.12 kWh
1000 1000 30 P 2
= 60 ; P = 1000 watt.
13. We know that the power input is, P = VI 1000
Thus the current I = P/V 23. Energy consumed by five tubelights of 40 W for 5 hours in
(a) When heating is at the maximum rate,
I = 840 W/220V = 3.82 A 40
1 day = × 5 = 1 kWh
and the resistance of the electric iron is 1000
R = V/I = 220V/3.82 A = 57.60 . Energy consumed by an electric press of 500W for 4 hours
(b) When heating is at the minimum rate, 500 4
I = 360 W/220V = 1.64 A in 1 day = = 2 kWh
1000
and the resistance of the electric iron is
R = V/I = 220V/1.64 A = 134.15 . Energy consumed in 1 day = 1 + 2 = 3 kwh
 EBD_7005
170 PHYSICS
Total electrical energy consumed in 30 days Long Answer Questions :
= 3 × 30 = 90 kWh = 90 units 1. We know that,
24. (i) Energy consumed in days L
= 100 × 2 × 60 + 5 × 40 × 4 × 60 R=
A
= 12000 + 48000 = 60000 wh = 60 kWh A
(ii) Cost of electricity = ` 1.50 × 60 = ` 90 (i) If A ' then
25. It is the product of the voltage and the current which can 2
L
flow through the device. R'
26. Heat dissipated depends upon (i) the square of current A
through the conductor (ii) the resistance of the conductor 2
and (iii) the time for which current is passed. R ' 2R
27. During their motion the electrons collide with one another (ii) If L ' 2L then
and hence lose some kinetic energy. This loss in kinetic en- 2L
R'
ergy is dissipated as heat across the conductor. A
28. The power expended by a source is said to be 1 watt if one R ' 2R
ampere of current flows through it under a potential differ- (iii) If A ' 2 A then
ence of 1 volt. L
29. So that it melts and breaks the circuit as soon as the safe R'
2A
limit of current is exceeded. R
30. Because it has a high melting point and a high resistivity R'
2
and does not easily react with air. (iv) If A ' 2 A, L ' 2 L then
31. According to Ohm’s law, “At a constant temperature the
2L
current flowing through a conductor is directly proportional R'
to potential difference across its ends”. 2A
i.e., V I R' R
+ –
V =RI 2. V
‘R’ is a constant called resistance.
+ –
32. It is the resistance offered by a conductor of length 1 m and
B
area of cross-section 1 m 2 . It is also defined as the resistance
offered by a cube of material of side 1 m, when current
flows perpendicular to the opposite faces. It is measured in R
ohm-m. It is given by
K
RA
=
L + – –
+
where, = resistivity, R = resistance, A = area of cross- A
section, L = length of conductor. 4. Effective resistance in the parallel circuit is
33. (i) alloy has high resistivity.
(ii) alloy does not burn (oxidise) easily (i.e., high melting 1 1 1 1 2 3 1
point). R1 6 3 6 6 2
34. 1 Kilowatt-hour = 1000 watt × 1 hour
R1 2
= 1000 watt × 3600 sec.
= 3.6 × 106 watt - sec = 3.6 × 106 joules. Total resistances R = 1 + 2 = 3
35. Heating effect of electric current depends on V 12
(i) Current : Heat produces by an electric current is Current I 4A
R 3
directly proportional to the square of magnitude of
6
current, i.e., H I2
(ii) Resistance : Heat produced in a conductor by electric 1
current is directly proportional to the resistance,
H R 3
(iii) Time : It is directly proportional to the time for which
current flows.
H t.
36. (i) It is used in toaster, irons, ovens, etc. 12 V
(ii) It is used in heat convertors and filaments of electric
bulbs. 6. 1.5 ampere, 30 volts, 45 volts, 75 volts
(iii) It is used in fuse wires. 1
7. (i) 0.4 m (ii) 0.8 (iii) 1
Electricity 171

8. As the total resistance (equivalent resistance) is 4 , the 6

resistor cannot be in series. So, it must be in parallel with
some other resisters.
3 0

2
A B C D 273 K T

6 (b) For Semiconductors

In parallel connection, the equivalent resistance (4 ) has For Semiconductors, the resistivity decreases as
to be less than all the resistances. So, the resistors of 2 temperature increases since the value of is negative.
and 3 cannot be in parallel at one time with 6 .
So, the resistors have to be in a mixed combination. Let us
consider the combination show in the figure.
The equivalent resistance between B and C (which are in
3 6 18
parallel) = 2
3 6 9 T
The resistance between A and D = 2 + 2 = 4 . (c) For insulators
So, the combination shown in the figure is true. The resistivity increases exponentially with decrease
9. Resistors are connected in series. in temperature. It becomes infinitely large at
So, equivalent resistance temperatures near absolute zero.
R = 0.2 + 0.3 + 0.4 + 0.5 + 12 = 13.4 . 11. It goes beyond doubt that electricity plays a very important
role in our lives. It is one of the most important and convenient
Potential difference, V = 9V sources of energy at homes and industries. However, we daily
V 9 come across reports regarding hazards of electricity. Use of
Current, through the circuit, I 0.67 A electricity can prove to be very dangerous if certain
R 13.4
precautions and safety measures are not observed in the design
10. The resistivity of the material of a conductor is defined as of electrical devices and in handling them. The various safety
the resistance of unit length and unit area of cross–section measures to be taken are:
of the conductor. The S.I. unit of resistivity is ohm metre (i) Use wires of high quality, proper amperage and good
( m). insulating material.
Resistivity of a material, (ii) Cover all naked wires and joints with insulating tape.
(iii) All connections at plugs, switches, sockets must be
m 1 tight.
2
or Where m is the mass of electron, n is (iv) Replace any defective plugs, switches and sockets.
ne n
(v) Never touch any part of the circuit without putting on
the number density of electron and is the average relaxation rubber shoes or rubber gloves.
time. This shows that the resistivity is related to two (vi) Use fuse (now a days MCB) of proper rating and
parameters of the material namely n and . material.
The variation of resistivity with temperature is different in (vii) All electrical appliances must be properly earthed.
different materials. (viii)Connect switches and fuse to live wires.
(a) For metallic conductors (ix) Put out the main switch in case of short circuiting
The temperature dependence of resistivity of a metal and fire.
is given by the relation, (x) Do not use water as fire extinguishers in case of fire
due to electricity.
0 [1 (T T0 )] .............(1) 12. Given, power of one heater (P) = 250 watt, potential
Where and 0 are the resistivity at temperature T (V) = 100 volt, time (t) = 5 hours.
and T 0 respectively and is called temperature V2 V 2 100 100
coefficient of resistivity. (i) P ; R 40
R P 250
0 d 1 The three 250 watt heaters are connected in parallel
. ...........(2) then total current, I = I1 + I2 + I3
0 (T T0 ) 0 dT
The resistivity of a conductor increases with increase V V V 100 100 100
= R R R 40 40 40
in temperature since is positive. The variation of 1 2 3

resistivity of copper with temperature is as shown. = 2.5+ 2.5 + 2.5 = 7.5 A

 EBD_7005
172 PHYSICS
(ii) The resistance of each heater is 40
2V 2V 2V
(iii) The energy supplied to the first heater is
H = I2Rt = (2.5)2 × 40 × 5 Wh, As current flowing
each heater is 2.5 A
H = 6.25 × 200 Wh = 1250 Wh = 12. • Key
1250
kWh 1.25kWh 5 8 12
1000 13. V = iR
Then three heaters in connection = 3 × 1.25 kWh Vtotal = 6V , Rtotal = 5 + 8 + 12 = 25
= 3.75 kWh energy is used in the circuit. V 6
i= = A
R 25
2V 2V 2V

+ I
Text-Book Question : –
A
+ –
1. A combination of electrical devices connected by V • Key
conducting wires is called an electric circuit.
5 8 12
2. Its S.I unit is ampere. If one coulomb of charge flows Reading in the voltmeter = V = iR
through a conductor in one second, then the amount of
6A
current flowing is said to be 1 ampere. = 12 2.88V
25
3. Charge on one electron = 1.6 × 10–19C
1.6 × 10–19C charge carried by 1 electron 1 1 1 106 1 1000001
14. (i) 6 =
1 C charge carried by R 1 10 10 6 1000000
1 1000000
= 6.25 ×1018 electrons R=
1.6 10 19 1000001
4. Cell is the device that helps to maintain a potential 1 1 1 1
difference across a conductor. (ii)
R 1 103 106
5. It means that 1 joule of work is done in carrying one coulomb
106 103 1 1001001
charge between the two given points. =
6. W = 6 × 1 = 6 joules 106 1000000
7. Resistance of a conductor depends upon 1000000
R = 0.9 (approx)
(i) nature of material (resistivity ) 1001001
(ii) length of wire ( ) 1 1 1 1 5 10 1 16
(iii) area of cross section of wire (A) 15. =
R 100 50 500 500 500
8. The current will flow through a thick wire easily because 500
the resistance of the thick wire (having area of cross-section R = 31.25
large as compared to thin wire) is less than thin wire. 16
9. At constant temp. V 220
I = 7.04A
V I V1 = V I1 = I R 31.25
16. The equivalent resistance of resistors connected in parallel
V1 I1 V is less than even the smallest resistance connected in
V2 I2 = ?
V2 I2 2 parallel, so, large current is obtained in the circuit for the
V 2 I I same potential difference. So resistances are connecting
I2 in parallel.
V I2 2 3
Current becomes half of its former value.
10. Alloys have high resistivity in comparison to pure metals.
Also alloys do not oxidise readily at high temperatures 17. (a) 2
but pure metals do. Therefore, alloys are used for making 6
coils of electric toasters and electric irons rather than a 3 and 6 are connected in parallel and this combination
pure metal. is connected in series to 2 resistor to get an equivalent
11. (a) Iron is a better conductor than mercury because the resistance of 4 .
resistivity of iron (=10 × 10–8 m) is less than the 2
resistivity of mercury (= 94 × 10–8 m). 3
(b) Silver having least resistivity ( = 1.6 × 10–8 m) is (b)
the best conductor.
6
Electricity 173

All these three resistances are connected in parallel to get R = 10 , = ?

an equivalent resistance of 1 . RA
18. (a) For highest resistance, resistors are connected in R =
A 6
series. 10 22 0.5 0.5 10
RS = R1 + R2 + R3 + R4 = 4 + 8 + 12 + 24 = 122.65 m
7 4 1.6 10 8
= 48 , If diameter is doubled, then resistance becomes one fourth.
(b) For lowest resistance, resistors are connected in
parallel. V2 V1
7. Resistance from graph =
1 1 1 1 1 I2 I1
Rp 4 8 12 24
y axis
6 3 2 1 12 1
= Rp 2
24 24 2
19. According to the Joule’s law of heating effect
V
H = I2RT and H R p.d
Because the resistance of heating element is very high.
So more heat is developed, hence it glows. But the cord x axis
has very low resistance, so it does not glow. current (I)
20. W = QV
H = QV = 96000 × 50 V
H = 4800000 J = 4.8 × 106 J 3.4 1.6 1.8
R1 = 3.6 ;
H = 4.8 × 103 kJ 1 0.5 0.5
21. H = I2 Rt = 52 × 20 × 30 = 15000 J, H= 15 kJ
22. The rate at which energy is delivered by a current is called 6.7 3.4
R2 = 3.3
the power which is given by 2.0 1.0
P = VI
Thus, the potential difference (V) determine the power 10.2 6.7
R3 = 3.5 ;
delivered by a current. 3 2
23. I = 5A ; V = 220V
P = VI = 220 × 5 = 1100 W 13.2 10.2
Energy consumed = P × t = 1100 W × 2 h = 2200 Wh = 2.2 R4 = 3.0
4 3
kWh.
Mean resistance,
Text-Book Exercise :
1. (d) Now, resistance of each wire is R/5. R1 R 2 R3 R4 3.6 3.3 3.5 3
R=
1 4 4
Equivalent resistance is given by
R
5 5 5 5 5 25 13.4
= =
R R R R R R 4
R
= 25 R = 3.35
R'
2. (b) 8. V = 12V ; I = 2.5 mA = 2.5 × 10–3 A
V2 V2 220 220 V 12V
3. (d) P R= 484 R = = 4.8 × 103
R P 100 I 2.5 10 3
V2 110 110 9. RS = 0.2 + 0.3 + 0.4 + 0.5 + 12 = 13.4
P = 25W V 9V
R 484 I = 0.67A
4. (c) RS = R1 + R2 = R + R = 2R R 13.4
1 1 1 1 1 1 n
1 1 2 10. = n times=
= R 176 176 176
R P R1 R 2 R R R
RP = R/2 176 V 220 n
R= and I = 5 n = 4
H1 V 2 R P R R 1 n R 176
= P 1: 4 .
H2 RS V2 RS 2 2R 4 Number of resistors = 4.
5. Voltmeter is connected in parallel to the appliance across
11. (i) For getting a resistance of 9 , the two resistors should
which the potential difference is to be measured.
6. d = 0.5 mm = 0.5 × 10–3m be connected in parallel and one in series with them.
= 1.6 × 10–8 m The equivalent resistance of the two resistors in
parallel, Rp is given by
 EBD_7005
174 PHYSICS
1 1 1 2
Rp 3 220
Rp 6 6 6 I= = 18.3 A.
12
Now, the equivalent resistance of Rp and 6 in series
is given by 1 2
6
14. Case (i)
6
6 6V
R = Rp + 6 = 3 + 6 = 9 . V 6
(ii) To get a resistance of 4 , two resistors should be R=1+2=3 and I = 2A
R 3
connected in series and one is parallel to them.
The equivalent resistance of the two resistors in series Voltage across 2 resistor = I × 2 = 2 × 2 = 4V
is given by P1 = VI = 4 × 2 = 8W
Rp 6 6 12 V 4
Case (ii) I2 2A.
Now, the equivalent resistance of Rp and 6 in R2 2
parallel is given by
6 6 12
I1
6 2
I2
1 1 1 1 1 1 2 3 1 I

R Rp 6 12 6 12 12 4
R=4 4V
12. Resistance of each bulb = R (say)
P2 across 2 resistor = 4 × 2 = 8W
2 ratio, P1 : P2 = 8 : 8 = 1.
V 220 220
R= 4840 15. Resistance of first lamp = R1
P 10
Resistance of second lamp = R2
Let n such bulbs be connected in parallel. Then
1 1 1 n V2 220 220
n times R= , R1 = 484
RP
= P 100
4840 4840 4840
4840 220 220 2420
Rp = R2 =
n 60 3
They are connected in parallel
V V
Rp = I = R 1 1 1 1 3
I p
R R1
=
R 2 484 2420
220 n
5 484 2420 605
4840 R = 2420 2
n 110 3 484
3
Number of electric bulbs = 110.
V 220 V 220 2 8
13. Case (i) I = 9.2A I= A
R 24 R 605 11
I = 0.727A
Case (ii) R = 24 + 24 = 48 16. E=P×t
V 220 For T.V. For toaster
I= 4.6A .
R 48 E1 = 250 × 1 × 3600 E2 = 1200 × 10 × 60
E1 = 900000 J E2 = 720000 J
1 1 1 2 1 E1 = 9 × 105 J E2 = 7.2 × 105 J
Case (iii) =
R 24 24 24 12 E1 > E2
R = 12 T.V. set uses more energy.
Electricity 175

E I2 Rt 2. R eq = 8
17. P = I2 R = 15 × 15 × 8 = 1800 W.
t t
80
So, heat is developed at a rate of 1800 J/sec. i= = 10 A
18. (a) Tungsten has very high melting point (3380°C). So it 8
can’t melt upto a high temperature. This is the reason why 20
tungsten is used almost exclusively for filament of electric i1 = A
3
lamps.
(b) Resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than that of 10
its constituent metals. i2 = A
3
(c) In series arrangement, the potential drop is divided into
different appliances. So, some appliances can not get 10
sufficient potential drop for its proper working. This is i AB = A
3 10
possible only in parallel connection. Hence, series A
arrangement is not used for domestic circuits. 6 A 12 3
(d) The resistance of a wire is inversely proportional to its
1 i1 10
area of cross-section, i.e., R A
A 3
(e) Copper and aluminium have low resistivity. Therefore,
there will be less energy loss. Hence, they are usually i2
empolyed for electricity transmission. i=10A
12 B 6 20
Exemplar Questi1ons : A
3
1. If a current larger than a specified value flows in a circuit,
temperature of fuse wire increases to its melting point. The
fuse wire melts and the circuit breaks. 80V
l V L
2. Use the formula R . Also, V = RI. R is doubled while 3. (a) E and R
A L D2
I (i) When V is halved , E is halved, R = same
V remains unchanged. Hence current becomes (ii) When L is halved , E = doubled, R is halved
2
3. Provide the same potential difference across each electrical 1
appliance. (iii) When D is doubled , E = same R becomes th
4
4. (i) No. The resistance of the bulbs in series will be three
times the resistance of single bulb. Therefore, the current 4. Given : l = 10 cm, A = 2 cm2, R = 20 ,P=?
in the series combination will be one-third compared to
current in each bulb in parallel combination. The parallel 1 A 20 x 2
R=P p = R. = = 4 -cm
combination bulbs will glow more brightly. A l 10
(ii) In series circuit bulbs will not glow because the circuit 5. Manganin should be thicker, since resistivity is more
has broken. (As p A for l and R constant).
8 8
5. (i) R R1R 2 / R1 R 2 4
8 8
8 8
(ii) I V / R 8 / 4 8 / 8 1A
8 8 Single Option Correct :
(iii) V = IR = 1 × 4 = 4V
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (d)
(iv) P = I2R = 12 × 4 = 4W
(v) No difference. 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (b)
Same current flows through each element in a series circuit. 11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (b)
16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (a)
Hots Questions :
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (c)
1. Maximum current through resistor
26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (a)
18 31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (b)
A= A = 3A.
2 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (a)
Thus the maximum current through resistors B and C each 41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (b)
1 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (b)
3 A 1.5A 51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (b)
2
 EBD_7005
176 PHYSICS
63. (a) Two resistance (R/2) will be in parallel, hence
Req = R/4
64. (a) V = i × R ; R = 60/15 = 4
(4 4) 4 8
54. (d) RAB 65. (b)
4 4 4 3
66. (b) Silver is the best conductor of electricity.
A B 67. (c)
55. (a) Same metal means same sp. resistance 68. (d) Copper is a conductor while germanium is a semi-
R1 A2 1 conductor. Resistance of temperature decreases with
R2 A1 3 R2 3R1 3 10 30
temperature while that of semi-conductor increases
R R1 R2 40 hence resistance of copper strip decreases and that of
germanium increases.
56. (c) R . Hence minimum for option (c) 69. (d) 2 , 4 , 2 on right side are in series resultant parallel
A to 8 then in series with 2 , 2 then in parallel with
8 , then in series with 3 , 2 . Thus, Req = 9 ohm.
R
1 1 1 th
57. (b) . Hence i = 9/9 = 1 amp flow from battery.
A r2 4
Passing through 3 it will divide into equal parts (1/2
2 amp) in 8 (near to cell) and remaining section then
0.4
4.2 10 3 again divide into equal parts (1/4 amp) in 8 (middle
58. (d) R ; RA 2
A 1.1m one) and remaining section hence 1/4 amp. passes
4.8 10 8
through 4 .
59. (c) Ideal voltmeter should not draw any current flow source 70. (a) 71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (d) 74. (c) 75. (b)
hence its resistance = . 76. (d) 77. (c) 78. (b) 79. (a)
Practically resistance is not possible, but ideal
80. (d) Fuse wire should be such that it melts immediatley when
voltmeter is possible with the help of potentiometer
strong current flows through the circuit. The same is
that you will learn in higher classes.
possible if its melting point is low and resistivity is
2 2
d high.
60. (d) R ; R
A m m 81. (a) A heating wire should be such that it produces more
heat when current is passed through it and also does
m m m
V A ,d A not melt. It will be so if it has high specific resistance
v A d
and high melting point.
9 4 1 1 82. (b) The rate of generation of heat, for a given potential
R1 : R2 : R3 : : 9:2: 27 : 6 :1
1 2 3 3 difference is, P = V2/ R
61. (c) Same material same density, specific resistance as 83. (b) The rate of heat generation
they are material property.
I2 R I2 ( / r 2 ).
V m
R 84. (a) Heat produced, H = V2 t /R i.e. H 1/R
A A2 dA 2
so H1/H2 = R2 / R1..
1 1 More Than One Option Correct :
R
2
A r4
1. (a, d) 2. (a, b, c) 3. (c, d) 4. (a, d)
RA rB4 24 5. (a, c, d) 6. (a, d) 7. (b, c)
24 16 RB 1.5
RB rA4 16 8. (b, c) Treat all voltmeters and ammeters as resistances. Draw
the circuit and find the currents and potential differences
62. (b) R for each section.
A r2
9. (a, b, d) 10. (a, d)
2 R
R 11. (a, c)
(2 r ) 2 4
Let R1 + R2 be the resistances of the two heaters and H be
Specific resistance will remain same as it is a material the heat produced.
property but remember it depends on temperature.
Electricity 177

The circuit reduces to figure (a)

V2 V2
H t1 t2
R1 R2 Now the 3.33 and the 4.0 are in series.
V 2t Rs1 3.33 4.0 7.33
When used in series, H
R1 R2
The circuit reduces to figure (b)
2 2 A 3.0 7.33 B
V V
When used in parallel, H t
R1 R2

Passage Based Questions :

I
3.0
3 6
1. (a) Equivalent resistance of 3 and 6 = 2
3 6
as they are in parallel they have same p.d. 12V
3 1
i (b)
6 2
The 7.33 and the 3.0 are in parallel.
1
P.D. across 2 2 1 volt (7.33 ) (3.0 )
2 R p2 2.13
7.33 3.0
4 2
A 3.0 2.13 B

I
3V
2. (b) 3. (a)
4. (d) Given : R1 = 12 , R2 = 3.0 , R3 = 5.0 , R4 = 4.0 , 12V
All four resistors are in series combination, so
Rs R1 R2 R3 R4
(c)
12 3.0 5.0 4.0 24 The circuit reduces to figure (c).
5. (c) The current through all resistors in series is the same Finally, the 2.13 and the 3.0 are in series.
V V 12V R Rs2 2.13 3.0 5.13 5.1
I 0.50 A
R Rs 24 A 5.13 B
6. (b) Potential drop across, 12 resistor
V = IR = 12 (0.5A)
or V = 6V
I
7. (b) Here we have a variety of series-parallel combinations.
We follow the general procedures outlined in the text
and above.
The 10 and the 5.0 are in parallel 12V

(10 ) (5.0 ) (d)

R p1 3.33
10 5.0 The circuit reduces to figure (d).
A 3.0 3.3 4.0 B V 12V
8. (a) From Ohm’s law, I 2.33 A 2.3 A
R 5.13
9. (d) To find the current through the 4.0 ohm resistor, we
need to expand the combinations.
I In figure 3, the current through the 2.13 and 3.0
3.0
is the same as the total current, 2.33 A.
The voltage across the 2.13 is then V2.13 = (2.13 )
12V (2.33 A) = 4.96 V.
In figure 2, the voltage across the 7.33 and 3.0 is
the same as that across the 2.13 , 4.96V.
(a)
 EBD_7005
178 PHYSICS
So, the current through the 7.33 is I´R1 = I (R1 + R2)
4.96V I ( R1 R2 )
I7.33 0.677 A or I
7.33 R1
In figure 1, the current through the 3.33 and the
4.0 is the same as the current through the 7.33 If P´ is the power consumed, then
Therefore, I4.0 = 0.68 A. ( R1 R2 )( R1 R2 )
10. (a) e.m.f. of the battery = 2V P I 2 R1 I2
Effective resistance of the parallel resistors is given by R1
R1. When both the lamps were present then total power
1 1 1 1 3 4 2 3 consumed was given by:
R1 1.5 PS= P1 + P2 = I2 (R1 + R2), i.e., P´ > PS
R1 6 2 6 6 3 2
i.e., illumination gets increased when only one bulb is
Total resistance of the circuit, R = 1.5 + 0.5 = 2 used.
V 2 17. (a) If a water pipe is given bend at some points, then it
11. (a) Main current I 1A
R 2 definitely reduces the flow of water in the pipe but this
is not true in case of an electric current flowing in a
Current flowing through 0.5 resistor = 1A
conductor because electric current is established in a
12. (d) P.D. across the junctions : conductor due to drift motion of electrons in it along
V1 = IR1 = 1 × 1.5 = 1.5V the line of the potential gradient. Hence, illumination
is not affected due to bending along the length of supply
Hence current I1, flowing through 6 resistor wires.
V1 1.5 Assertion & Reason :
I1 0.25 A
6 6 1. (c) In the case of a short-circuited battery, the current
13. (a) When the lamps are connected in parallel, then potential E (e.m.f. of the battery)
difference V across each lamp will be same and will be I 0
equal to potential necessary for full brightness of each r (internal resistance)
bulb. Because illumination produced by a lamp is Terminal voltage V = IR = I (i) = I (0) = 0
proportional to electric power consumed in it, and where R = external resistance = 0
power consumed, 2. (c) It is common error to say that V = Ri is a statement of
Ohm’s law. The essence of Ohm’s law is that the value
V2 V2
P1 P2 of R is independent of the value of V. The equation
R1 R2
V = Ri is used for finding resistance of all conducting
Hence, illumination produced by 2nd bulb will be devices, whether they obey Ohm’s law or not.
higher than produced by lst bulb, i.e., bulb having lower 3. (c) (a) will read zero but (V) will read E
resistance will shine more brightly. 4. (c) is the characteristic of the material of resistors.
14. (b) When R1 burns out, then power is dissipated in R2 only. It does not depend on the length and cross-sectional
Because internal resistance is quite low in lighting area of resistors. But R depends on the length and the
circuit, potential difference is still equal to V, hence, cross-sectional are of the resistor.
power dissipated in 2nd lamp, i.e.,
So, R1 may be greater than R2 even when 1 2.
V2 V2 V2
R2 R1 R2 1
5. (c) Conductivity
i.e., net power consumed initially. In other words, net
Resistivity
illumination will now decrease. conductivity × resistivity = 1
15. (b) When two lamps are connected in series, the potential 6. (a)
difference across each lamp will be different but current 7. (d) S.I. is true only when current is drawn from cell.
I flowing through each lamp will be same. 8. (c) Resistivity is a material property.
Hence, P1 = I2R1 > I2R2 = P2 9. (c) 0 (1 T)
i.e., illumination produced by lst lamp will be higher 10. (b) Glow = Power (P) = I2R
as compared to that produced by 2nd lamp, i.e., lamp
having higher resistance will glow more brightly. dP dI
2 2 0.5 1%
16. (b) When lamp of resistance R2 burns out and only lamp P I
of resistance R1 is connected in the circuit then current
2
flowing the circuit will change. Let new current be I´. P
Because potential difference still remains same 11. (b) Power loss = i²R = R
V
(due to low internal resistance), hence
Electricity 179

[P = Transmitted power] 360

2 R= = 4.23
V 1 85
12. (b) P ; R (same rated voltage)
R P V 6
13. (d) In tube light majority portion of radiation comes under V = IR I= = = 1.41 A
R 4.23
visible region while bulb radiation consists of visible,
ultraviolet, infrared radiation giving less visible part. 7. R1 = 7.2 , R2 = 8 , R 3 = 12 ,V=6V
(i) Now, R1 and R 3 are in parallel,
E2
14. (c) Here, P , so P R only when I is constant.
R 1 1 1 1 1
= + = +
Here I increases as R is decreased. Hence the reason is R' R2 R3 8 12
wrong.
15. (a) 3 2 5 24
= = R' = = 4.8
16. (c) 24 24 5
Multiple Matching Questions : Now, R1 and R' in series,
1. (a) (A) q, s; (B) p; (C) q, s; (D) r R = R1 + R' = 7.2 + 4.8 = 12

2. (a) (A) p; (B) p; (C) s, q; (D) r V 6

(ii) V = IR I= = = 0.5 A
R 12
3. (b) (A) p; (B) q, r; (C) q; (D) s
(iii) V1 = I × R1 = 0.5 × 7.2 = 3.6 V.
4. (a) (A) q ; (B) r; (C) p,s (D) s
15V
Integer/ Numeric Questions : 8. (i)
R1 6V
4. Total power = 100 + 25 = 125 W
5 R2
Power = V × I
P 125
I= = = 0.57 A
V 220 V
5. P = 3000 W, V = 240 V R1 = 5 , V1 = 15V,, R 2 = ?, V2 = 6 V
P 3000 V1 15
P = VI I= = = 12.5 A
V 240 I= = =3A
R1 5
V 240
V = IR R= = = 19.2 V2 V2 6
I 12.5R (ii) I = R2 = = =2
2 R2 I 3
S

7 10 V = V1 + V2 V = 15 + 6 = 21 V.
10
6. 9. V = 250 V, t = 10 sec, R = 500 ,
Q E = ?, I = ?, V = IR
P 30
R1 = 7 , R 2 = 2 , R 3 = 10 , V 250
I= = = 0.5 A
R 500
R 4 = 30 , R 5 = 10 , V = 6 V
Now, R1 and R 2 are in series, E = I 2 Rt = 0.5 × 0.5 × 500 × 10 = 1250 J.
10. P = 2000W, t = 1 hr. E = ?
R' = R1 + R2 = 7 + 2 = 9
Also, R4 and R5 are in series, 2000
E= n × P × t = 1 1 2 kWh.
R" = R 4 + R 5 = 30 + 10 = 40 1000
Now, R' , R" and R 3 are in parallel, T.E. = 30 × 2 = 60 kWh.
1 1 1 1 11. R1 = 5 , R 2 = 10 , R 3 = 15 I=1A
= + +
R R' R" R3 1 1 1 1 1 3 2 5
(i) = + = + = =
1 1 1 1 R ' R 2 R 3 10 15 30 30
= + +
R 9 40 10 30
1 40 9 36 85 R' = =6
5
= =
R 360 360 R = R1 + R' = 5 + 6 = 111
 EBD_7005
180 PHYSICS
Now, V = IR = 1 × 11 = 11V
L
(ii) V1 = I R1 = 1 × 5 = 5 V. R=
A
Therefore, V2 = V – V1 = 11 – 5 = 6V
R A 10 r2
L= =
V2 6 V
(iii) V2 = I1 R 2 I1 = = = 0.6 A; I 2 = 2
R2 10 R3 8
10 22 25 25 10 9m
6 = = 121.25 × 10
= = 0.4 A 7 16.2 10 10
15
8
= 12.12 × 10 m.
12. R1 R2
C D E 8
14. L = 60 cm = 0.6 m, = 2.6 × 10 m, R = ?,
I1 6 4 A = 1mm2
R3 1 6
B 1 mm2 = = 10 m2
A
I2 10 6
12
L
Therefore, R =
A
1.5 V 8
2.6 10 0. 6 2
R1 and R2 are in series R= = 1.56 × 10
6
10
RS = R1 + R2 = 6 + 4
15. Given : 1 = 0.2 A, V = 0.8 V, R = ?
RS = 10
RS and R3 are in parallel From Ohm's law, V= IR
V 0.8
1 1 1 1 1 R= = =4
1 0.2
RP RS R3 10 12
16. 12 and 4 since in parallel they give 3 and in series
they give 16
1 6 5 11
17. The resistance of bulb and heater we respectively 240 and
RP 60 60 60 , and these are connected in parallel. Their equivalent
resistance is 48 . When only bulb is switched on, current
60 from the mains is
RP
11 120V
0.488 A . When heater is also turned on,
V 1.5 11 11 (240 6)
I A
Rp 60 40 120V
current becomes (48 6) 2.22 A
V 1.5 3
I2 0.075A 18. Resistance of 60 W bulb is more than in 100 W bulb.
R3 12 40 So equivalent resistance of the network drops on placing
1.5 1.5 F I
2
I1
RS 10
0.15A. 100 W bulb and so the power or heat GH VR tJK is more
3 V2
VAB = I2 R3 = 12 = 0.9V 19. Since, P = , P1 : P2 = R2 : R1 = 2 : 1
40 R
VCD = I1 R1 = .15 × 6 = 0.9V 20. Electrical energy consumed in 30 days
VDE = I1 R2 = 0.15 × 4 = 0.6V = 500 × 2 × 30 + 0.5 × 746 × 5 × 30 (1 hp = 746 W)
= 30000 + 55950 = 85950 Wh = 85 . 95kW h
1 Cost of energy = 3 × 85.95 = ` 258.
13. d = 0.5 mm 0.5 mm = × 0.5 m
1000 V2 2202
(Since 1000 mm = 1m) 21. (i) R= = = 484
P 100
4 (ii) Energy consumed per day
d = 5 × 10 m.
= P× t = 100 × 5 = 500 Wh = 0.5 k Wh.
d 5 10 4 4 22. Power of lamp = 60 W
r= = = 2.5 × 10 m
2 2 Light liberated = 7.5 W
R = 10 , = 16.2 m, L = ? 7.5
% of transfer = x 100 = 12.5%
60
Electricity 181

= Current flowing from D to C

20. (a,b)
The effective emf the two cells in parallel is
1. (c) i division deflected. 1 2 2 1
e 0.
V = 50G, 50G = 10 (G + 12) ; G = 3 1 2
2. (b) So null point will be at zero distance from A. When
jockey is touched to B, the current flows through 2 V
cell towards B.
21. (a, b, c)
Let E1 < E2.
E1 – E2
Current in the circuit = I = r r
1 2
VA – VB = E2 + Ir2 = PD across each cell
Hence, VA – VB > E2
As Wheatstone bridge is in balanced condition potential Current flows in E2 from the positive plate to the negative
difference across AB is zero hence resistance across AB is plate inside the cell and hence it absorbs energy.
ineffective circuit reduce to simple circuit as shown 22. (a, d)
resistance R in upper branch are in series and in parallel Equivalent e.m.f. of the battery is obtained by applying
with lower branch. Kirchhoff’s 2nd law to the two loops.
Req = R.
E1 R2 E2 R1
3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (b) E3
9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (a) R1 R2
13. (a) In parallel combination, total power P = P1 + P2 23. (a, c, d)
14. (d) 24. (a, c)
m Ag /m Zn = E Ag /E Zn = 108/31 4 and 6 resistances are short circuited. Therefore, no
15. (c)
current will flow through these two resistances. Current
or m Ag = m Zn × 108/31 = W × 108/31 passing through the battery is I = (20/2) = 10A.
This is also the current passing in wire AB from B to A.
16. (d)
Power supplied by the battery.
17. (a) Faraday’s laws are based on the conversion of electrical
P = EI = (20) (10) = 200 Watt
energy into mechanical energy; which is in accordance
Potential difference across 4 resistance
with the law of conservation of energy.
18. (b) The amount of decomposition (i.e., mass of the = Potential difference across 6 resistance = 0
substance liberated during electrolysis) is proportional 25. (a) Potential gradient,
to electro chemical equivalent of the substance. VAB I R 4 volt 10 ohm
K
20 5 L L (15 10) ohm 50 cm
C B
19. (a,b,d) A 5
D
20 40
= Volt/cm
20 I–I1 25 50
I1 C
40
E2 Kl 31.25 1volt
A I–2I1 B 25 50
I 5 20 26. (d) When both the keys are closed: In the situation, R1 is
short circuited and terminal potential difference of E2
I–I1 D I1
is balanced by the potentiometer, i.e.,
As C and D are joined, they must be at the same potential,
E2 4 10
and may be treated as the same point. This gives the R2 Kl 5
equivalent resistance as 8 . If we distribute current in the R2 r 10 50
network, using symmetry
1 5 4
VA – VD = VA – VC 5 or r = 7.5
5 r 50
I
or 20I1 = 5 (I – I1) or I1 = 27. (c) When key K2 is open and K1 is closed: In this case R1
5 is short circuited and e.m.f. E2 is balanced against
2I 3I potentiometer,
I – 2I1 1–
5 5 4 10 1 10 50
i.e., E2 l 12.5 cm
10 50 4 10
 EBD_7005
182 PHYSICS
28. (c) When key K1 is open and K2 is closed: In this case, R1 From 2 and 3 we get
is included in the potentiometer circuit and terminal –6I2 + 4(I1 – I2) = 27
potential difference of E 2 is balanced by the or 4I1 – 10I2 = 27 ......(4)
potentiometer. Solving eqns (1) and (4) we get
E2 R2 4 10 I1 = 3A, I2 = –1.5 A so I3 = I1 – I2 = 4.5 A
i.e., R r l Negative I2 means the direction should have been opposite
2 25 50
to shown in figure.
1 5 4 34. The circuit can be redrawn as
or l
5 7.5 1.25 P R 2
or l = 12.5 cm Here so bridge is balanced
Q S 3
29. (c) Kirchoff 's loop rule follows from conservation of C
energy.
30. (d) In tube light majority portion of radiation comes under P=2 Q=3
visible region while bulb radiation consists of visible,
ultraviolet, infrared radiation giving less visible part. 7
A B
2
E
31. (c) Here, P , so P R only when I is constant.
R R=4 S=6
Here I increases as R is decreased. Hence the reason is
D
wrong.
32. (a) So the resistance between c and d is non useful.
Equivalent resistance = (P + Q) | | (R + S)

R R (P Q)(R S) (2 3)(4 6)
R eq
A-r : RAC R A C P Q R S 2 3 4 6

R R 5 10 10
15 3

B P L 2
35.
Q 100 L 3
R 200
5R so, 3L = 200 – 2L or L 40cm.
B-q : R AB A 2R/3 5
8
V2
R
36. Since, P = , P1 : P2 = R2 : R1 = 2 : 1
R
37. Resistance of heater coil
C-p : It is the balance bridge and so VB VD .
V2 2002
D-t : VB VD . = = 400
P 100
33. Using kirchhoff’s II law in loop abcda Resistance of each cut part = 200
–2I1 + 24 – 27 – 6I2 = 0 When connected in parallel, the net resistance will be 100
or 2I1 + 6I2 = – 3 ......(1) Energy liberated per second
Using kirchhoff’s II law in loop cdfec we get
–27 – 6I2 + 4I3 = 0 V2 2002
= = = 400 joule
or – 6I2 + 4I3 = 27 ......(2) R 100
From junction rule at c we get
I1 = I2 + I3 ......(3)
 MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF
Chapter

4 ELECTRIC CURRENT

INTRODUCTION

The term magnetism comes from Magnesia, the name of an ancient city in Asia Minor, where the Greeks found certain
very unusual stones more than 2000 years ago. These stones, called lodestones, possess the unusual property of attracting
pieces of iron. Such magnets were first fashioned into compasses and used navigation by the Chinese in the twelfth
century A.D.

In the sixteenth century, William Gilbert, Queen Elizabeth’s physician, made artificial magnets by rubbing pieces of iron
against lodestones. He suggested that a compass always points north and south because the earth itself shows the
magnetic properties. Later in 1750, John Michaell in England found that magnetic poles obey the inverse-square law,
and his results were confirmed by Charles Coulomb. The subjects of magnetism and electricity developed almost
independently until 1820, when a Danish physicist named Hans Christian Oersted discovered, in a classroom
demonstration, that an electric current affects a magnetic compass. He saw that magnetism was related to electricity.
Shortly thereafter, the French physicist Andre Marie Ampere proposed that electric currents are the source of all magnetic
phenomena. This chapter is all about how electricity is connected with magnetism. The branch of physics which deals
with the magnetism produced due to electric current is called electromagnetism.
 EBD_7005
184 PHYSICS
OERSTED EXPERIMENT
Magnetic effect of electric current means-an electric current flowing in a conductor produces a magnetic field in the space around
it. In 1820, Hans Christian Oersted Showed that electricity and magnetism are related phenomena.
Oersted discovered a magnetic field around a conductor carrying electric current.
(a) A magnet at rest produces a magnetic field around it while an electric charge at rest produces an electric field around it.
(b) A current carrying conductor has a magnetic field and not an electric field around it. On the other hand, a charge
moving with a uniform velocity has an electric as well as a magnetic field around it.
(c) An electric field cannot be produced without a charge whereas a magnetic field can be produced without a magnet.
(d) No poles are produced in a coil carrying current but such a coil shows north and south polarities.

S I

N
Fig.4.1

(e) All oscillating or an accelerated charge produces E.M. waves also in addition to electric and magnetic fields.

ARTIFICIAL MAGNETS
Magnets produced from magnetic materials are called artificial magnets. They can be made in a variety of shapes and sizes and
are used extensively in electrical apparatus.

S N S

S N
N

Bar-magnet
(a) Bar magnet (b) U-shape or horseshoe
U-shape magnet magnet (c)Magnetic-needle
Magnetic-needle

Fig. 4.2
Artificial magnets are generally made from special iron or steel alloys which are usually magnetized electrically. The material to be
magnetized is inserted into a coil of insulated wire and a heavy flow of electrons is passed through the wire. Magnets can also be
produced by stroking a magnetic material with magnetite or with another artificial magnet. The forces causing magnetization are
represented by magnetic lines of force.
Artificial magnets are usually classified as permanent or temporary, depending on their ability to retain their magnetic properties
after the magnetizing force has been removed. Magnets made from substances, such as hardened steel and certain alloys which
retain a great deal of their magnetism, are called permanent magnets. These materials are relatively difficult to magnetize because
of the opposition offered to the magnetic lines of force as the lines of force try to distribute themselves throughout the material.
The opposition that a material offers to the magnetic lines of force is called reluctance. All permanent magnets are produced from
materials having a high reluctance.
A material with a low reluctance, such as soft iron or annealed silicon steel, is relatively easy to magnetize but will retain only a
small part of its magnetism once the magnetizing force is removed. Materials of this type that easily lose most of their magnetic
strength are called temporary magnets. The amount of magnetism which remains in a temporary magnet is referred to as its
residual magnetism. The ability of a material to retain an amount of residual magnetism is called the retentivity of the material.
Magnets are also described in terms of the permeability of their materials, or the ease with which magnetic lines of force distribute
themselves throughout the material. A permanent magnet, which is produced from a material with a high reluctance, has a low
permeability. A temporary magnet, produced from a material with a low reluctance, would have a high permeability.
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 185

PROPERTIES OF MAGNETS
(1) Attractive property and poles : When a magnet is dipped into iron fillings it is found that the concentration of iron filings, i.e.,
attracting power of the magnet is maximum at two points near the ends and minimum at the centre. The places in a magnet where
its attracting power is maximum are called poles while the place of minimum attracting power is called the neutral region.
(2) Directive property and N-S poles : When magnet is suspended its length becomes parallel to N-S direction. The pole pointing
north is called the north (N) pole while the other pointing south is called the south (S) pole.

W E
P1 Neutral region P2 n
ridia
(a) Attractive Property
S
neti c me
Mag
(b) Directive-Property

Fig. 4.3
(3) Opposite poles (N and S) attract and like poles (N and N, or S and S) repel one another.

(a) (b)
Fig. 4.4
The line joining the two poles of a magnet is called magnetic axis and the vertical plane passing through the axis of a freely
suspended or pivoted magnet is called magnetic meridian.
Magnetic Length (2 ) : The distance between two poles along the axis of a magnet is called its effective or magnetic length.
As poles are not exactly at the ends, the effective length is lesser than the actual length of the magnet.

Magnetic Axis

(a) Effective length = 2l (b) Effective length = 2R

Actual length = L Actual length = R
Fig. 4.5
(4) Poles exist in pairs : In a magnet the two poles are found to be equal in strength and opposite in nature. If a magnet is broken into
number of pieces, each piece becomes a magnet with two equal and opposite poles. This shows that monopoles do not exist.

S N S N S N S N
(a) (b)
Fig. 4.6
(5) Repulsion is a sure test of polarity : A pole of a magnet attracts the opposite pole while repels similar pole. A sure test of polarity
is repulsion and not attraction, as attraction can take place between opposite poles or a pole and a piece of unmagnetised
magnetic material due to ‘induction effect’.
(6) Magnetic induction : A magnet attracts certain other substances through the phenomenon of magnetic induction i.e., by
inducing opposite pole in a magnetic material on the side facing it as shown in fig.
S N
S N S
S
N
Magnetic-induction
N
Fig. 4.7
Interesting Fact
Seeds of two tomatoes varieties Rocco and Monza were treated by passing them through an artificial magnetic field (MF) with a
constant defined velocity before seeding. The seedlings obtained from MF treated and non MF-treated seeds were planted into
the MF treated and non MF-treated plots. They were irrigated by MF-treated and non MF treated water.
Observations were made on early-yield, total-yield, beginning of blooming, and quality of fruit. While significant differences
were not observed in Rocco, important MF effects were clearly seen on Monza. Yield increases on Monza in magnet treated plots
were around 28–51 percent, especially in early yields, and Monza bloomed three-four days earlier.
 EBD_7005
186 PHYSICS

CONNECTING TOPIC
POLE STRENGTH AND MAGNETIC MOMENT OF A MAGNET
The strength of attracting a magnetic material by a magnetic pole is measured by pole strength, generally denoted by m.
The north and south poles of a magnet are said to be associated with the pole strengths + m and – m, respectively, each of which
is a scalar, having the dimensional formula [MºLTºA] and SI unit Am.
Each pole strength is imagined to be distributed over the entire cross-section of the magnet. Therefore, if the magnet is cut along
it’s length into the two equal parts, each part will have it’s poles of the strengths + m/2 and – m/2, respectively, and if the magnet
is cut perpendicular to it’s length into the two equal parts, each part will have it’s poles of same initial strengths + m and – m,
respectively.

(– m) (+ m) (– m/2) (+ m/2) (–m)(+m) (–m)(+m)

M S M N M M
S N S N S N
S M N
2l
2l l l
(a) M = m (2l) (b) M = (m/2) (2l) (c) M = m (l)
= ml = M/2 = M/2
Fig. 4.8
The magnetic moment of a magnet is defined as a vector M whose magnitude is M = n (2l)
where m is the pole strength of magnet and 2l is the effective length of magnet and whose direction is from the south pole to the
north pole. It has the dimensional formula [MºL2TºA] and SI unit Am2.
If the magnet is cut along it’s length, or perpendicular to its length, into the two equal parts, each part will have it’s magnetic
moment of magnitude one-half of that of the original magnetic moment, as shown above.

COULOMB’S LAW IN MAGNETISM

This law defines the force F between the two magnetic poles of the strengths m1, m2 at a distance r apart in a medium as
m1m2 1 m1m2
F= 2 (in SI unit ) F= (in CGS unit)
4 r r2
where is the permeability of medium and = 0 = 4 × 10–7 N/A2 in SI and = 0 = 1
(unitless) in CGS. Evidently, the force F is directly proportional to the product of the pole N r N
F F
strengths and inversely proportional to the square of the distance r. It acts along the line S S
F r F
joining the two magnetic poles. It is attractive for the unlike magnetic poles and repulsive
for the like magnetic poles. It depends on the medium in which the magnetic poles are S r N
situated. F F
Fig. 4.9

Po i n t
A friend tells you that a refrigerator door, beneath its layer of white-painted plastic, is made of aluminum. How could you
check to see if this is true (without any scraping) ?
SOLUTION
I will bring a magnet and make it touch with the refrigerator door. If the magnet shows a feeble attraction with it then I can say that
it is aluminum.
ILLUSTRATION : 4.1
Four identical bar magnets, each of magnetic moment M, are arranged to form a square, as shown. Calculate the resultant
magnetic moment of the system.
M
1
M

M4 2 2M
M
2

3
M
Fig. 4.10
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 187

SOLUTION :
The magnetic moments of the given four identical bar magnets are acting along the sides of a square, as shown. The resultant of
each of the two pairs of magnetic moments, i.e., (1, 4) and (2, 3), is M 2 and it is represented by the same diagonal of the square.
Therefore, the resultant of all the four magnetic moments, taken together, is 2 2 M , which is acting along the diagonal.

MAGNETIC FIELD AND MAGNETIC FIELD LINES

Magnetic Field
The space around a magnet (or a current carrying conductor) in which its magnetic effect can be experienced is called the
magnetic field. It is a quantity that has both direction and magnitude.
The magnetic field in a region is said to be uniform if the magnitude of its strength and direction is same at all points in that region.
x x x x x x x x

x x x x x x x x

x x x x x x x x
(a) Uniform field in (b) Uniform field perpendicular (c) Uniform field perpendicular
plane of paper to plane of paper outwards to plane of paper inwards
Fig. 4.11
The strength of magnetic field is also known as magnetic induction or magnetic flux density.
The S unit of strength of magnetic field is tesla (T)
–1 –1 –1 –1 –2 –2
1 tesla = 1 newton ampere metre (NA m ) = 1 weber metre (Wb m )
–4
The cgs unit is gauss (G), 1 gauss (G) = 10 tesla (T).

Magnetic Field Lines

A line such that the tangent at any point on it gives the direction of the magnetic field at that point is called a magnetic field
line or magnetic lines of force.

Properties of Magnetic Field Lines

(i) All field lines are closed curves. They come out of the magnet from the side of the north pole and go into it on the side of the
south pole. They continue inside the magnet.
(ii) The field lines are close together near the poles and spread out away from them.
(iii) Two field lines never intersect each other.
ACTIVITY: Mapping of Magnetic Lines of Force
• Fix a sheet of white paper on a drawing board using some adhesive material. • Place a bar magnet in the centre of it.
• Sprinkle some iron filings uniformly around the bar magnet. A salt-sprinkler may be used for this purpose.
• Now tap the board gently. The iron filings rearrange themselves in the form of curves.
The curves represent the magnetic lines of force.

MAGNETIC FIELD DUE TO MAGNETIC POLE

In SI, the magnetic induction B due to a magnetic pole at a point at a distance r is defined as the force per unit north pole placed
there, having the magnitude
m B 1 m
B= tesla H= A/m
4 r2 4 r2
And direction away for north pole and towards for the south pole.
In CGS, the magnetic field intensity H due to a magnetic pole at a point at a distance r is defined as the force per unit north pole
placed there, having the magnitude
1 m m
H oersted B H gauss
2
r r2
And direction away for the north pole and towards for the south pole.
 EBD_7005
188 PHYSICS

FORCE ON MAGNETIC POLE PLACED IN MAGNETIC FIELD

In SI, the force on a magnetic pole of strength m placed in a magnetic field B is F mB
where + sign is for the north pole and – sign is for the south pole. Thus, the force is in the direction of B for the north pole and
in the opposite direction for the south pole
N S
F = +mB F = –mB
B
Fig. 4.12

In CGS, the force on a magnetic pole of strength m placed in a magnetic field H is F mH

where + sign is for the north pole and – sign is for the south pole. Thus, the force is in the direction of H for the north pole and
in the opposite direction for the south pole.
N S
F = +mH F = –mH
H
Fig. 4.13

CONNECTING TOPIC

BIOT-SAVART LAW
The Biot-Savart law defines the magnetic field B due to a current distribution. Let us consider a line distribution of steady
current I confined to a filamentary wire ST. The wire may be imagined to be subdivided into the many elementary parts, each
characterised by a vector d l whose magnitude is equal to the length of elementary part and whose direction is that of the
current, as shown.
T
0I dl R I
The magnetic field at a point P due to an elementary part is d B = 4
R3
where R is the position vector of point P with respect to the elementary part. This
magnetic field has the magnitude
0I dl sin
dB = this is Biot-savart’s law
4 R2 dl R
P
And the direction of the cross product (dl R), i.e., inwards and perpendicular to the R
× dB, B
plane of figure, as shown. The magnetic field B at the point P due to the complete wire
ST is obtained by performing a summation process over all the elementary parts.
S
The direction of B will be the same as that of an elementary magnetic field d B . Fig. 4.14

MAGNETIC FIELD DUE TO A CURRENT CARRYING CONDUCTOR

From Oersted experiment followed by Ampere we can conclude that a magnetic field is developed around a conductor when
electric current is passed through it. This observation is called magnetic effect of electric current. The presence of a current in
a wire near a magnetic compass affect the direction of the compass needle. We now know that current gives rise to magnetic
fields, just as electric charge give rise to electric fields.

Fig. 4.15 : Compass near a current-carrying wire

Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 189

Magnetic Field due to a Current Through a Straight Conductor

The magnetic field around a conductor carrying current is in the form of closed circular loops, in a plane perpendicular to the
conductor, and is given by right hand thumb rule.

Right Hand Thumb Rule

If we grasp the conductor in the palm of the right hand so that the thumb points in the direction of the flow of current, then the
direction in which the fingers curl, gives the direction of magnetic field lines.

Fig. 4.16
For the current flowing through the conductor in the direction shown in figures (a) or (b), the rule predict that magnetic field lines
will be in anticlockwise direction, when seen from above.
This rule is also called Maxwell’s corkscrew rule. If we consider ourselves driving a corkscrew in the direction of the current, then
the direction of the corkscrew is the direction of the magnetic field.
Ampere’s Swimming Rule
Imagine a man swimming along the wire, in the direction of current, (such that the current enters at his feet and leaves him at his
head) and facing towards a compass needle placed underneath the wire, then the magnetic field produced is such that the north
pole of the compass needle gets deflected towards his left hand.

Magnetic field due to long straight conductor x

I
0I 0tesla m 7
2

B= (sin 1 + sin 2) 10
4 r 4 amp.
If the conductor is infinitely long, then 1 = 90° and 2 = 90°
0I 0I 2I
B= sin sin [1 1] 0
4 r 2 2 4 r 4 r N
2
P
r 1

0
or B
2 r
If conductor is of infinite length but one end is in front of point P
i.e. one end of conductor starts from point N then I
1
0
= 0° and = 90° B y
1 2 4 r
Conductor is finite length and point P is just in front of middle of the conductor Fig. 4.17
I
B = 0 (2 sin ) [ 1= 2= ]
4 r
0 L L/2
B sin =
2 r L2 r 2 L
2

r2
2
Fig. 4.18
 EBD_7005
190 PHYSICS
ILLUSTRATION : 4.2
Compute the magnetic field at a point of 9 cm from the long straight wire carrying a current of 6A.
SOLUTION :
Here, a = 9 cm = 9 × 10–2 m, I = 6A, B = ?
m I 4p ´ 10-7 ´ 6
B= o = =1.33 × 10–5 T
2pa 2p´ 9 ´ 10-2

Magnetic Field Due to a Current Through a Circular Loop

At every point of a current-carrying circular loop, the concentric circles
representing the magnetic field around it would become larger and
larger as we move away from the wire. By the time we reach at the
centre of the circular loop, the arcs of these big circles would appear as
straight lines. Every point on the wire carrying current would give rise
to the magnetic field appearing as straight lines at the center of the
loop. By applying the right hand rule, it is easy to check that every
section of the wire contributes to the magnetic field lines in the
same direction within the loop.
Fig. 4.19

Magnetic field at the centre of a circular current-carrying coil

0I 0 nI
B For a coil of n turns, B
2r 2r I
Magnetic Field due to part of current carrying circular conductor (Arc)
0I
B
4 r r r
Magnetic field on the axis of a circular coil
0 N a2
B 2 Fig.4.20
2( a x 2 )3 / 2
At the centre of the loop, x = 0
N a2 0 N
B 0
or B
2 a3 2a
In terms of area A (= a ) of the circular current loop, the quantity N I A is known as the magnetic dipole moment M of the
2

current loop.
Magnetic dipole moment of the current loop
The current loop can be regarded as a magnetic dipole which produces its magnetic
field and magnetic dipole moment of the current loop is equal to the product of
ampere turns and area of current loop, we can write
B 0 N A
2 r( a )2 =
2
0
N A
a 3 or B
4
0 2N A
a3
S
0 2M
B
4 a3
If the observation point is far away from the coil, then a << x.
So, a2 can be neglected in comparison to x2.
0 N a2
B=
2 x3 Fig. 4.21
0 2M 0 N A 2N A
In terms of magnetic dipole moment, B = B = 0
4 x3 2 x3 4 x3
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 191

RIGHT HAND PALM RULE

If we hold the thumb of right hand mutually perpendicular to the grip of the fingers such that the curvature of the finger
represents the direction of current in the wire loop, then the thumb of the right hand will point in the direction of magnetic field
near the centre of the current loop.
B
CW

P
I ×B I
in

(a) (b) (c)

Fig. 4.22

ILLUSTRATION : 4.3
An infinite straight conductor carrying current 2I is split into a loop of radius r as shown in figure. The magnetic field at the
centre of the coil is
I

2I 2I
O

I
Fig. 4.23

0I
(a) Zero (b) (c) 0I (d) 2 0I
2
SOLUTION :
(a) Here, the wire does not produce any magnetic field at O because the conductor lies on the line of O. Also, the loop does not produce
magnetic field at O.
ILLUSTRATION : 4.4
A current of I ampere flows in a wire forming a circular arc of radius r metres subtending an angle at the centre as shown.
what will be the magnetic field at the centre O in tesla?
I

Fig. 4.24
SOLUTION :
µ0 I 0 I
Magnetic field at the centre ‘O’ B
2r 2 4 r
ILLUSTRATION : 4.5
A long conducting wire, carrying a current I, is arranged in the shape, as shown, with the two straight segments in the plane
of figure and the circular loop of radius r perpendicular to the plane of figure. Calculate the magnetic field at the centre O of the
circular loop.

O
I
r

I I
Fig. 4.25
 EBD_7005
192 PHYSICS
SOLUTION :
The magnetic field at the centre O of the circular loop due to the two straight segments, taken together, will be
I
B1 2 0
4 r
which is perpendicular to the plane of figure and outwards, according to the ‘Right-Hand Rule’.
The magnetic field at the centre O due to the circular loop will be
0I
B2
2r
which is parallel to the straight segments and towards right. Since, the two magnetic fields B1, B2 are mutually perpendicular, the
resultant magnetic field at the centre O is given by
0I 1
B B12 B22 1
2r 2

CONNECTING TOPIC
MAGNETIC FIELD DUE TO A BAR MAGNET
End-on Position
The magnetic field B at a point P on the axis of a bar magnet at distance r form it’s mid point O is given by
B = BN Bs B = BN – BS
M Axis
m m S O N P BN
– BS B
= 4 (r – l )2 4 (r l )2
l l
r
2 Mr 2M
= for l << r Fig. 4.26
4 (r 2 – l 2 ) 2 4 r3

which is having the direction parallel to the magnetic moment M of the bar magnet.
Broadside-on Position BN

The magnetic field B at a point P on the equator of the bar magnet at a

distance r from it’s mid point O is given by B P
B = B N Bs
r
B = 2BN cos = 2Bs cos BS (r 2 l 2 )
(r 2 l 2 )
m l
.
= 2 4 2 2
(r l ) (r 2 l 2 ) M
S O N
l l
Equator
M M
= for l << r Fig. 4.27
4 (r 2 l 2 )3 / 2 4 r3

which is having the direction antiparallel to the magnetic moment M of the bar magnet. Evidently, the magnetic field at the
broadside-on position is one-half of that at the end-on position for the same distance r from the mid point O of the bar magnet.
Any other position
The magnetic moment M of bar magnet has the two components, namely, M cos and M sin , as shown. The point P is neither
on the axis nor on the equator of bar magnet but having any other position at a distance r from the mid point O. It’s position is
end-on for the component M cos and broadside-on position for the component M sin . Therefore, the magnetic field B at the
point P is given by
B = Br B
B = (Br2 + B 2)
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 193

2 2 2 2 B
2M cos M sin
= 4 r3 4 r3 B Br
M P
= 3
(4 cos 2 sin 2 ) r
4 r

s
co
M

M
= (1 3cos 2 )
4 r 3 M
S O N
M
whose direction is inclined at an angle ( + ) with the magnetic moment M , where sin
B 1
tan = B 2 tan Fig. 4.28
r

FORCE ON A CURRENT CARRYING CONDUCTOR IN A MAGNETIC FIELD

For a conductor of length L carrying a current of I in a field B the force experienced by the conductor F = I L × B
Direction of force can be determined by fleming’s left hand rule, right hand palm rule or screw rule.
Fleming’s Left-Hand Rule
Stretch the fore-finger, central finger and thumb of left hand mutually perpendicular.
Then if the fore-finger points in the direction of field ( B) , the central finger in the direction of current , the thumb will point in
the direction of force Fig. 4.29.
Right-Hand Palm Rule
Stretch the fingers and thumb of right hand at right angles to each other. Then if the fingers point in the direction of field ( B) and
thumb in the direction of current , the normal to palm will point in the direction of force Fig. 4.30.
Screw Rule
Curl right hand finger from current towards magnetic field thumb will give the direction of force as shown in figure 4.31.
Left Hand Rule
Direction–
of force (F)

Magnetic
field (B)

Direction
of current (I) Fig. 4.30
Fig. 4.29 Fig. 4.31 : Magnetic force on straight wire segment.
You can see component of magnetic field perpendicular to current contributes in force on conductor. If current in wire is along
external magnetic field force will be zero and if perpendicular to field it will be maximum.

Magnetic Magnetic
Current f ield f ield
current
A B
Force =Fmax Force = 0

Fig. 4.32
 EBD_7005
194 PHYSICS
If direction of current or field reverses, direction of force also reverses as shown in figure 4.33

Fig. 4.33 : Magnetic forces - reversing the direction of the field B or the direction of the current I
reverses the direction of the force.
× × B ×
Any arbitrary shape in a uniform field experience a force

F ' B × × ×
'
A
where ' is the length vector joining initial and final points of the × × ×
conductor as shown in figure. Fig. 4.34

If the current-carrying conductor in the form of a loop of any arbitrary shape is placed in a uniform field, then, F 0
i.e., the net magnetic force on a current loop in a uniform magnetic field is always zero as shown in figure 4.35 (a).
Here it must be kept in mind that in this situation different parts of the loop may experience elemental force due to which the loop
may be under tension or may experience a torque as shown in figure 4.35 (b).
× × ×

× × × I F=0
Fin

Fout
× × ×
F=0
(a) (b)
F 0 0
0
Fig. 4.35

ILLUSTRATION : 4.6
A vertical straight conductor X of length 0.5 m is situated in a uniform horizontal magnetic field, of 0.1T (i) calculate the force
on X when a current of 4A is passed into it (ii) through what angle must X be turned in a vertical plane so that the force on X
is halved ?
Solution : F
(i) Here, L = 0.5 m, B = 0.1T, I = 4A, F = ?
F = BIL = 0.1× 4 × 0.5 = 0.2N
(ii) Let be the required angle.
= 90°–
The force on the conductor B
1 0.2
F' F 0.1N
2 2
F' BIL Sin
1
or, BIL BILSin(90 ) Fig. 4.36
2
1 1 1
or , cos or cos 60
2 2
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 195

CONNECTING TOPIC

FORCE ON A CHARGED PARTICLE IN A MAGNETIC FIELD

According to Lorentz , charge particle q moving with velocity v in a magnetic field B experiences
Force, F = q (v B)

The force F is always perpendicular to both the velocity v and the field B .
A charged particle at rest in a steady magnetic field does not experience any force.

If the charged particle is at rest then v = 0, so v × B = 0

A moving charged particle does not experience any force in a magnetic field if its motion is parallel or antiparallel to the field.
i.e., if = 0° or 180°,

then, | F | = q v B sin = 0 [ sin 0° = 0 and sin 180° = 0]

F F
B B

O O 90° v
q v q
= 180° = 90º
(a)
F=0 (b) F = qvB sin (c) Fmax = qvB
Fig. 4.37
If the particle is moving perpendicular to the field

In this situation all the three vectors F , v and B are mutually perpendicular to each other..
Then sin = max = 1, i.e., = 90°,
The force will be maximum Fmax = q v B
Work done by force due to magnetic field in motion of a charged particle is always zero.
When a charged particle moves in a magnetic field, then force acts on it is always perpendicular to displacement,
so the work done, W = F.s Fs cos = 0 (as = 90°),
1
And as by work-energy theorem W = KE, the kinetic energy (= mv2 ) remains unchanged and hence speed of charged
2
particle v remains constant.
However, in this situation the force changes the direction of motion, so the direction of velocity v of the charged particle
changes continuously.
The direction of the cross product can be obtained by using a right-hand rule:
Fingers of the right hand point in the direction of the first vector (v) in the cross product, then adjust your wrist so that you
can bend your fingers (at the knuckles) toward the direction of the second vector (B); extend the thumb to get the direction of
the force.

Fig. 6.38 : Magnetic force acting on a moving charge.

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196 PHYSICS

A charged particle moving in a plane perpendicular to a magnetic field

will move in a circular orbit with the
magnetic force playing the role of centripetal force.
The direction of the force is given by the right-hand rule. Equating the
centripetal force with the magnetic force and solving for R the radius of
the circular path we get,

mv2 / R = q v B and R=mv/qB

If charge particle projected at some angle with magnetic field, it will

move on helical path.

Fig. 4.39 : Orbit of charged particle

FORCE BETWEEN CURRENT CARRYING WIRES
in a magnetic f ield.
If currents through two wires placed parallel are in the same direction, they attract. If current flow in opposite direction, wires
repel. This is the opposite of the rule for charges: like charges repel, opposite charges attract. Using the two right hand rules,
one for finding the direction of the B-field of a wire, and the other for the direction of force on a wire, you can predict the results.

F I I
T F I
F F

(a) Repulsion (b) Attraction

Fig. 4.40
The force per unit length on one wire due to other wire
F 0 1 2
= 2 d [where I1, I2 current in two wires and d = distance between wires]

Definition of Ampere
0 1 2
As, F = N/m
2 r

0 4 10 7
When = 2 = 1 ampere and r = 1m, then F = =
N/m = 2 × 10–7 N/m
1
2 2
This leads to the following definition of ampere.
One ampere is that current which, if passed in each of two parallel conductors of infinite length and one metre apart in vacuum
causes each conductor to experience a force of 2 × 10–7 newton per metre of length of conductor.
Rotation
FORCE AND TORQUE ON BAR MAGNET PLACED IN MAGNETIC FIELD M

Uniform Magnetic Field

When a bar magnet is placed in a uniform magnetic field B at an angle , the FS = (+ m) B
N
total force on it becomes l sin
l
F = F N F S = (+ m) ( m) B (– m) B = 0 X B
and hence, it does not undergo any translatory motion.
l sin
l
The total torque on the bar magnet due to the magnetic field is S
FS= (–m) B
M B whose magnitude is
= (mB) l sin + (mB) l sin
= (2ml) B sin = MB sin Fig. 4.41

and whose direction is perpendicular to the plane of figure and inwards, as shown. This torque produces the rotatory motion
of the bar magnet in the clockwise direction.
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 197

Non-uniform Magnetic Field

Rotation
When the bar magnet is placed in a non-uniform magnetic field B at an M
angle , the total force on it becomes

F = FN FS
FN= (+ m) B
N
= (+ m) B (– m) B = m( B – B ) 0
l sin
which produces the translatory motion of the bar magnet in its’ direction.
The total torque on the bar magnet due to the magnetic field is X B

= M B av whose magnitude is l sin

= (mB) l sin + (mB´) l sin
FS= (–m) B S
B B
= (2ml) sin = MBav sin
2
Fig. 4.42
where B av is the average magnetic field, and whose direction is
perpendicular to the plane of figure and inwards, as shown. This torque
produces the rotatory motion of the bar magnet in the clockwise direction.

ELECTROMAGNET Iron nail

A magnetic field is produced when an electric current flows through a coil of

Battery
wire. This is the basis of the electromagnet. We can make an electromagnet
stronger by doing these things:
• Adding more turns to the coil.
• Increasing the current flowing through the coil. Coill of
insulated
The magnetic field around an electromagnet is just the same as the one around wire
a bar magnet. It can, however, be reversed by turning the battery around.
Unlike bar magnets, which are permanent magnets, the magnetism of
electromagnets can be turned on and off just by closing Switch
or opening the switch. Electromagnets are temporary magnets.
Uses of Electromagnet Fig. 4.43 : A simple electromagnet.
1. For lifting and transporting large masses of iron scrap, girders, plates etc.,
especially to places where it is not convenient to take the help of human
labour. Electromagnets are used to lift as much as 20-22 tonnes of iron in a
single lift. To unload the magnet at the desired place, the current in the
electromagnet is switched off so that the load drops.
2. For loading furnaces with iron.
3. For separating magnetic substances such as iron from other debris (e.g. for separating
iron from the crushed copper ore in copper mines).
4. For removing pieces of iron from wounds.
5. In several electrical devices such as electric-bell, telegraph, electric tram, electric
motor, relay, microphone, loud speaker, etc.
6. In scientific research to study the magnetic properties of a substance in a magnetic
field. Fig. 4.44 : Electric Crane.

DC AND AC ELECTRIC MOTOR

D.C. Motor
An electric motor converts electrical energy into mechanical energy. A d.c. motor converts direct current energy from a battery
into mechanical energy of rotation.
Principle : It is based on the fact that when a coil carrying current is held in a magnetic field, it experiences a torque, which
rotates the coil.
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198 PHYSICS
Construction : It consists of the five parts.
1. Armature : The armature coil ABCD consists of a large number of turns of insulated copper wire wound over a soft iron core.
2. Field magnet : The magnetic field is supplied by a permanent magnet NS.
3. Split-rings or commutator : These are two halves of the same ring. The ends of the armature coil are connected to these
halves which also rotate with the armature.
4. Brushes : These are two flexible metal plates or carbon rods B1 and B2, which are so fixed that they constantly touch the
revolving rings.
5. Battery : The battery consists of a few cells of voltage V connected across the brushes. The brushes convey the current to
the rings, from where it is carried to the armature.
Working : The battery sends current through the armature coil in the direction shown in figure. Applying Fleming’s Left Hand
rule, CD experiences a force directed inwards and perpendicular to the plane of the coil. Similarly, AB experiences a force
directed outwards and perpendicular to the plane of the coil. These two forces being equal, unlike and parallel form a couple.
The couple rotates the armature coil in the anticlockwise direction. After the coil has rotated through 180°, the direction of the
current in AB and CD is reversed, figure. Now CD experiences an outward force and AB experiences an inward force. The
armature coil thus continues rotating in the same i.e., anticlockwise direction.
Rectangular coil
B C C B

N S N S
Permanent
field magnet
A D D A
B1 B2 B1 B2
Split rings
R1 R2 R2 R1
or commutators
Brushes
V V
(a) (b)
Fig. 4.45
Efficiency of the d.c. motor :
Since the current is being supplied to the armature coil by the external source of e.m.f. V, therefore,
Input electric power = V
According to Joule’s law of heating, Power lost in the form of heat in the coil = 2 R
If we assume that there is no other loss of power, then Power converted into external work i.e.,
Output mechanical power = V – 2 R = (V – R) = E
Output mechanical power
Efficiency of the d.c. motor,
Input electric power
A d.c. motor delivering maximum output has an efficiency of only 50%.
Uses : (i) The d.c. motors are used in d.c. fans (exhaust, ceiling or table) for cooling and ventilation.
(ii) They are used for pumping water.
(iii) Big d.c. motors are used for running tram-cars and even trains.

A.C. Motor
Magnetic filed from
As in the DC motor case, a current is passed through the coil, generating "field coils" which
a torque on the coil. Since the current is alternating, the motor will run also have
AC current
smoothly only at the frequency of the sine wave. It is called a
Rectangular
synchronous motor. More common is the induction motor, where electric coil
current is induced in the rotating coils rather than supplied to them
Sliprings
directly.
One of the drawbacks of this kind of AC motor is the high current which
must flow through the rotating contacts. Sparking and heating at those
contacts can waste energy and shorten the lifetime of the motor. In
common AC motors the magnetic field is produced by an electromagnet
powered by the same AC voltage as the motor coil. The coils which
produce the magnetic field are sometimes referred to as the “stator”, AC current
Slipring contacts
while the coils and the solid core which rotates is called the “armature”. called "brushes"
in coil
In an AC motor the magnetic field is sinusoidally varying, just as the
current in the coil varies. Fig. 4.46
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 199

Galvanometer
The torque on a current loop in a uniform magnetic field is used to measure electrical magnetic field is used to measure electrical
currents. This current measuring device is called a moving coil galvanometer.

(a) (b)
Fig. 4.47
The galvanometer consists of a coil of wire often rectangular, carrying the current to be measured. There are generally many turns
in the coil to increase its sensitivity. The coil is placed in a magnetic field such that the lines of B remain nearly parallel to the plane
of wire as it turns. This is achieved by having a soft iron cylinder placed at the center of the coil. Magnetic field lines tend to pass
through the iron cylinder, producing the field configuration. The moving coil is hung from a spring which winds up as the coil
rotates; this winding up produces a restoring torque proportional to the winding up (or twisting) of the spring, i.e. to the angular
deflection of the coil. The coil comes to equilibrium when this restoring torque k balances the torque due to the magnetic field
balances the torque due to the magnetic field.

Po i n t
How could a light bulb near, yet not touching, an electromagnet be lit? Is AC or DC required? Defend your answer.
SOLUTION

For the bulb to be lit, AC should be supplied in the coil of the electromagnet so that an alternating magnetic field will be
established in the region around it. This changing magnetic field will induce a current in the circuit of the light bulb and the bulb
will glow.

ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
In the early 1800s, the only current-producing devices were voltaic cells, which produced small currents by dissolving metals in
acids. These were the forerunners of our present-day batteries. The question arose as to whether electricity could be produced
from magnetism. The answer was provided in 1831 by two physicists, Michael Faraday in England and Joseph Henry in the
United States—each working without knowledge of the other. Their discovery changed the world by making electricity common-
place—powering industries by day and lighting up cities at night.
Faraday and Henry both discovered that electric current could be produced in a wire simply by moving a magnet into or out of
a coil of wire. (Figure 4.48(a)). No battery or other voltage source was needed—only the motion of a magnet in a wire loop. They
discovered that voltage is caused, or induced, by the relative motion between a wire and a magnetic field. Whether the magnetic
field moves near a stationary conductor or vice versa, voltage is induced either way (Figure 4.48(b)).
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200 PHYSICS

Fig. 4.48 (a), When the magnet is plunged into the coil, Fig. 4.48(b), Voltage is induced in the wire loop whether
charges in the coil are set in motion, and voltage is induced in the coil. the magnetic field moves past the wire
or the wire moves through the magnetic field.
The greater the number of loops of wire moving in a magnetic field, the greater the induced voltage (Figure 4.49). Pushing a
magnet into a coil with twice as many loops induces twice as much voltage; Pushing into a coil with ten times as many loops
induces ten times as much voltage; and so on. It may seem that we get something (energy) for nothing simply by increasing the
number of loops in a coil of wire, but we do not.

Fig. 4.49, When a magnet is plunged into a coil with twice as many loops as another, twice as much voltage is induced. If the magnet is plunged into
a coil with three times as many loops, three times as much voltage is induced.

We find that it is more difficult to push the magnet into a coil made up of more loops. This is because the induced voltage
produces a current, which makes an electromagnet, which repels the magnet in our hand. So we must do more work against this
“back force” to induce more voltage (Figure 4.50).

Fig. 4.50, It is more difficult to push the magnet into a coil with many loops because the magnetic field of each current loop resists the motion
of the magnet.
The amount of voltage induced depends on how fast the magnetic field lines are entering or leaving the coil. Very slow motion
produces hardly any voltage at all. Rapid motion induces a greater voltage. This phenomenon of inducing voltage by changing
the magnetic field in a coil of wire is called electromagnetic induction.
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 201

FARADAY’S EXPERIMENT
In 1831, Michael Faraday carried out numerous experiments in his attempt to Induced Field inside Coil
IN
prove that electricity could be generated from magnetism. Within the course
of a few weeks, the great experimentalist not only had clearly demonstrated
this phenomenon, now known as electromagnetic induction, but also had
developed a good conception of the processes involved. Current
When a bar magnet is thrust into a coil connected to an electric circuit, a
current is caused to flow in the circuit to which the coil is attached. If the
magnet is withdrawn, the direction of the current is reversed. Such currents Induced Field inside Coil
OUT
are called induced currents.
The size of the current depends on how fast the magnet moves in or out of the
coil, and the number of loops in the coil.
The phenomenon of inducing a current by changing the magnetic field in a
coil of wire is known as electromagnetic induction. This phenomenon under- Current

pins the design of all electric generators.

Fig. 4.51
FARADAY’S EXPERIMENT AND OBSERVATION
S. No. Experiment Observation

1. Place a magnet near No current flows through the

a conducting loop with a galvanometer
galvanometer in the circuit

2. Move the magnet towards The galvanometer register

the loop a current

3. Reverse the direction of The galvanometer deflection

motion of the magnet reverses

4. Reverse the polarity of The galvanometer deflection

the magnet and move reverses
the magnet towards the loop

5. Keep magnet fixed and move The galvanometer register a

the coil towards the magnet current

6. Increases the speed of the magnet The deflection in the galvanometer increases
7. Increase the strength of the magnet The deflection in the galvanometer increases
8. Increase the diameter of the coil The deflection in the galvanometer increases
9. Fix the speed of the magnet but repeat The deflection in the galvanometer increases
the experiment with the magnet closer to the coil.
10. Move the magnet at an angle to the plane of the coil. Deflection decreases, it is maximum when the magnet
moves perpendicular to the plane of the coil and is zero
when the magnet moves parallel to the plane of the coil.
11. Increase the number of turns of the coil Magnitude of current increases.
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202 PHYSICS

CONNECTING TOPIC

MAGNETIC FLUX
In analogy with the electric flux E, a magnetic flux B of the magnetic field for a surface is defined. Imagine dividing a surface
into infinitesimal area elements. The direction of an area element d A at a point on the surface is perpendicular to the surface at
that point. A typical element for a surface is shown in fig. along with the magnetic field B at a point P.

dA
P B

Fig. 4.52

The magnetic flux d for the area element "dA" is d B. d A .

If the magnetic field B makes an angle with the normal to the surface as shown in fig. then the normal component of the field
is B cos and in this case, the magnetic flux is given by
BA cos or B. A

B A
A A B
B

P P
P

(a) (b) max = BA (when = 0°) (c) min = 0 (when = 90°)

Fig. 4.53
So, magnetic flux linked with a closed surface may be defined as the product of the surface area and the normal component
of the magnetic field acting on that area. It may also be defined as the dot or scalar product of magnetic field and surface
area.
The magnetic flux for a general surface is obtained by integrating (summing) the contributions d as the area element dA ranges
over the surface.
Thus, B . dA
Physically it represents total lines of force passing through a given area.
Positive and Negative Flux
In case of a body present in a field, either uniform or non-uniform outward flux is taken to be positive while inward negative.

B
– R2N + R2N
Negative Positive (Negative) (Positive)
f lux S N Total flux = 0
n B n B f lux n n Uniform field

=0 n
(a) Total f lux = 0 (b)
Nonuniform f ield
Fig. 4.54
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 203

If the normal drawn on the surface is in the direction of the field, then the flux is taken as positive. In this case, is 0° or < 90°.
If the normal on the surface is opposite to the direction of the field, then = 180°. In this case, the magnetic flux is taken as
negative.
Magnetic flux density, B
A
Lines of force are imaginary, but as magnetic flux associated with elemental area d A in a field B , so flux is a real scalar physical
quantity
S.I. unit of magnetic flux ( ) is weber (Wb)
The unit of magnetic field is tesla (T) or wb/m2
Different Ways Which can Vary the Magnetic Flux
Magnetic flux in planar area A due to an uniform magnetic field B , = B A cos
So, flux linked with a circuit will change only if field B, area A, orientation or any combination of these changes.
(1) By varying the magnetic field B with time. C

(2) By varying the area of the conducting loop A with time. d

A v 0 but dt 0
(3) Loop entering or leaving a finite region of magnetic field.
(4) Loop rotating in and out of a finite region of magnetic field.
(5) Effect of time varying angle between the area vector and the magnetic field vector . Fig. 4.55

FARADAY’S LAWS OF ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION

Faraday gave two laws of electromagnetic induction.
First law : Whenever there is change in the magnetic flux associated with a circuit, an e.m.f. is induced in the circuit. This is also
known as Neumann’s law
Second law : The magnitude of the induced e.m.f. (e) is directly proportional to the time rate of change of the magnetic flux
through the circuit.

i.e., e or, e k
t t
d
In the limit, t 0, e
dt
k = const. of proportionality depending upon the system of units used.
d
In the S.I. system, emf ‘e’ is measured in volt and in Wb/sec.
dt
In MKS or SI system, these units are so chosen that k = 1, and 1 volt = 1 Wb/sec
Induced current or e.m.f. lasts only for the time for which the magnetic flux is changing.
If the coil has N turns, then the emf will be induced in each turn and the emf’s of all the turns will be added up. If the turns of coil
are very close to each other, the magnetic flux passing through each turn will be same.

So, the induced emf in the whole coil e N

t
N = number of ‘flux linkages’ in the coil.

LENZ’S LAW AND CONSERVATION OF ENERGY

According to Lenz’s law, the direction of the induced current is such that it opposes the change in the magnetic flux that causes
the induced current or e.m.f. i.e., induced current tries to maintain flux.
d
On combining Lenz’s law with Faraday’s laws e
dt
–ve sign indicating that the induced e.m.f. opposes the change in the magnetic flux. The direction of the induced current or e.m.f.
is given by Lenz’s law. The Lenz’s law is consistent with the law of conservation of energy.
The induced e.m.f. is produced at the cost of mechanical work done by an external agent. In the magnet and coil experiment when
the N-pole of the magnet is moved towards the coil, the face of the coil facing the north pole acts like a north pole. (This can be
found by Flemings’ Right Hand Rule).
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204 PHYSICS

As the magnet is moved towards the coil, the magnetic flux linked with the coil increases.
To oppose this increase in flux, e.m.f. induced in the coil has to be in such a direction as to reduce the increase in flux.
The external agent has to do some work against this force of repulsion between the two N-poles.
Similarly, if the magnet with its N-pole is moved away from the coil, then the face of the coil acts like a South pole and hence the
flux linked with the coil tends to decrease. The induced current or e.m.f. must now be in a direction so as to increase the flux as
shown in figure.

N S

(a) Fig. 4.56 (b)

The external agent has to do work against this force of attraction between the N and S pole and this is converted into electrical
energy. Suppose if on moving the N pole of the magnet towards the coil, a south polarity is induced on the face of the coil, then
the magnet would be attracted to the coil, and there would be a continuous increase in magnetic flux linked with the coil leading
to a continuous increase in e.m.f. without any expenditure of energy and this would violate the principle of conservation of
energy.

Induced Current and Induced Charge

If in a coil of N turns the rate of change of magnetic flux be / t, then the induced emf in the circuit is e = – N ( / t).
If the coil be closed and the total resistance of its circuit be R, then the induced current in the circuit will be
e N
.
R R t
It is clear from this equation that the induced current in the circuit depends upon the resistance, whereas the induced emf is
independent of resistance.
The charge flowing through the circuit in time-interval t
q=I× t
N N
or q t
R t R
Number of turns × change in magnetic flux
Resistance
The induced charge does not depend upon the time-interval.
Whether the change in magnetic flux be rapid or slow, the charge in the circuit will remain the same.

Fleming's Right Hand Rule

Fleming's right hand rule gives the direction of the induced e.m.f. and current in a straight conductor moving perpendicular to
the direction of magnetic field.
Motion

Fi
eld

Current
or emf

Fig. 4.57
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 205

Statement : Stretch out the thumb, fore finger and middle finger of the right hand mutually perpendicular to each other. If the
fore finger points in the direction of magnetic field, the thumb in the direction of motion of the conductor, then the middle finger
will point out the direction of induced current or induced e.m.f.
Determination of the Direction of the Induced Current in a Circuit (Using Lenz’s Law)
The Lenz’s law can be systematically applied as follows to determine the direction of induced current.
(1) Identify the loop in which the induced current is to be determined.
(2) Determine the direction of the magnetic field in this loop (i.e., in or out of the loop).
(3) The direction of flux is the same as the direction of the magnetic field. Determine if the flux through the loop is increasing or
decreasing due to change in area, or change in magnetic field.
(4) Choose the appropriate current in the loop that will oppose the change in flux i.e.,
(i) If the flux is into the paper and increasing, the flux due to the induced current should be out of the paper.
(ii) If the flux is into the paper and decreasing, the flux due to the induced current should be into the paper.
(iii) If the flux is out of the paper and increasing, the flux due to the induced current should be into the paper.
(iv) If the flux is out of the paper and decreasing, the flux due to induced current should be out of the paper.
The above description is the physical interpretation of Lenz's law. We can determine the direction of the induced
d B
current mathematically by simply applying Lenz's law, eind = – with the appropriate sign conventions.
dt
The Right Hand Sign Convention :
Counter clockwise current/emf is +ve
Clockwise current/emf is –ve
Magnetic flux out of the paper is +ve
Magnetic flux into the plane of the paper is –ve
The rate of change of an increasing positive flux is +ve
The rate of change of a decreasing positive flux is –ve
The rate of change of an increasing negative flux is –ve
The rate of change of a decreasing negative flux is +ve

SELF INDUCTION
The phenomenon of induction of e.m.f. in a coil due to change in current or magnetic flux linked with the coil is called self
induction.
When a current I flows through a coil, the magnetic flux linked with the coil is = LI, where L is coefficient of self induction
or self inductance of the coil. On differentiating, we get

Direction in which
dI current increases
dt Coil
Direction of
induced e.m.f.
d dI (e )
L e
dt dt K

Fig. 4.58

If dI/dt = 1; L = – e.
Hence self inductance of a coil is equal to e.m.f. induced in the coil when rate of change of current through the same coil is unity.
Coefficient of self induction of a coil is also defined as the magnetic flux linked with a coil when 1 ampere current flows through
2
the same coil. The value of L depends on geometry of the coil and is given by L 0N A
.

Where is length of the coil (solenoid), N is total number of turns of solenoid and A is area of cross section of the solenoid.
The S.I. unit of L is henry. Coefficient of self induction of a coil is said to be one henry when a current change at the rate of
1 ampere/sec in the coil induces an e.m.f. of one volt in the coil.
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206 PHYSICS

Keep in memory
1 2
1. Energy stored in a coil = Li where L is the self-inductance and i the current flowing through the inductor.
2
The energy stored in the magnetic field of the coil.
2. The self inductance is a measure of the coil to oppose the flow of current through it. The role of self-inductance
in an electrical circuit is the same as that of the inertia in mechanics. Therefore it is called electrical inertia.
B2
3. The magnetic energy density (energy stored per unit volume) in a solenoid
2 0
2
1 2 1 2 B B2 B2
E Li ( 0n A )
A Volume
2 2 0n
2 0 2 0

MUTUAL INDUCTION
The mutual induction is another kind of electromagnetic induction in which a changing current ip in one circuit called the primary,
induces an emf es and , in turn, may induce a current is in another nearby circuit, called the secondary S. Out of the two circuits
involved in the mutual induction process, any one can be taken as primary, or secondary. However, the two circuits constitute a
mutual inductor.

ep
+ –
es
Switch just closed
Fig. 4.59
When a constant, or variable current i flows through the primary P, then the total magnetic flux through each turn of the
secondary S is ms and the total magnetic flux, or flux linkage, through all the Ns turns, assumed identical, of secondary S is
N s ms
Ns ip = Mip M
ms ip

where the constant of proportionatity M is a positive physical parameter, called the mutual inductance, or coefficient of mutual
induction, of the two circuits.
Evidently, M is total magnetic flux, or flux linkage, through the secondary per unit current in the primary.
If the primary current ip is variable, the induced emf in the secondary S is given by
d d d ip es
es ( Ns ms ) (M i p ) M or,, M di p
dt dt dt
dt

which means that the mutual inductance M is the induced emf in the secondary per unit rate of change of current in the primary.
The mutual inductance M depends on the geometry of two circuits and their proximity. It’s SI unit is the same as that of the self
inductance L, i.e., henry (H).

ELECTRIC GENERATOR
The large generators present in hydroelectric power plants depend on magnets for their operation. They convert the kinetic
energy in moving water into electricity. Generators in fossil-fueled and nuclear-fueled power plants harness the kinetic energy in
moving steam in the same way.
Electrical current can be generated by moving a metal wire through a magnetic field. This applies both to alternating current (AC)
and direct current (DC) electricity.
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 207

Principle : When a coil of conducting wire is rotated in a magnetic field, electromagnetic induction results in an induced current
flowing through the loop. In this way, mechanical energy is converted to electrical energy.
The device is called a generator or dynamo.
The generator will produce an electromotive force that will vary sinusoidally with the angle made by the coil and the applied
field. Thus the direction of the current will vary and the current so produced is called an alternating current. A better name for
the device is alternator.
Electric motor is analogous to an electric motor: the motor converts electrical energy into mechanical energy, while the
alternator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy. The alternator does not create electricity out of nothing.
Working of generator : An electric generator, consists of a rotating
rectangular coil ABCD placed between the two poles of a permanent
magnet. The two ends of this coil are connected to the two rings R1
and R2. The inner side of these rings are made insulated. The two
conducting stationary brushes B1 and B2 are kept pressed separately
on the rings R1 and R2, respectively. The two rings R1 and R2 are
internally attached to an axle. The axle may be mechanically rotated
from outside to rotate the coil inside the magnetic field.
Outer ends of the two brushes are connected to the galvanometer to
show the flow of current in the given external circuit. When the axle C
attached to the two rings is rotated such that the arm AB moves up B
(and the arm CD moves down) in the magnetic field produced by the D
permanent magnet. Let us say the coil ABCD is rotated clockwise in
the arrangement. By applying Fleming’s right-hand rule, the induced A R1 Slip
currents are set up in these arms along the directions AB and CD. B1 rings
Thus an induced current flows in the direction ABCD. If there are Induced current R2
larger numbers of turns in the coil, the current generated in each turn
adds up to give a large current through the coil. This means that the B2
current in the external circuit flows from B2 to B1.
Fig. 4.60 : AC generator
After half a rotation, arm CD starts moving up and AB moving down. As a result, the directions of the induced currents in both
the arms change, giving rise to the net induced current in the direction DCBA.
The current in the external circuit now flows from B1 to B2. Thus after every half rotation the polarity of the current in the
respective arms changes. Such a current, which changes direction after equal intervals of time, is called an alternating current
(abbreviated as AC). This device is called an AC generator.
To get a direct current (DC, which does not change its direction with time), a split-ring type commutator must be used. With this
arrangement, one brush is at all times in contact with the arm moving up in the field, while the other is in contact with the arm
moving down.

North Magnet Direct current

Armature
South
Magnetic field commutator brush
Fig. 4.61 : Split-ring type commutator.

The difference between the direct and alternating currents is that the direct current always flows in one direction, whereas the
alternating current reverses its direction periodically. Most power stations constructed these days produce AC. In India, the AC
changes direction after every 1/100 second, that is, the frequency of AC is 50 Hz. An important advantage of AC over DC is that
electric power can be transmitted over long distances without much loss of energy.
 EBD_7005
208 PHYSICS

CONNECTING TOPIC
TERRESTERIAL MAGNETISM
William Gilbert suggested that earth itself behaves like a huge magnet. This magnet is so oriented that its S pole is towards
geographic north and N pole is towards the geographic south.
The earth behaves as a magnetic dipole inclined at small angle 11.5° to the earth’s axis of rotation with its south pole pointing
geographic north.
The idea of earth having magnetism is supported by following facts.
(i) A freely suspended magnet always comes to rest in N-S direction.
(ii) A piece of soft iron buried in N-S direction inside the earth acquires magnetism.
(iii) Existence of neutral points.
When we draw field lines of bar magnet we get neutral points where magnetic field due to magnet is neutralized by earth’s
magnetic field.
The magnetic field at the surface of earth ranges from nearly 30 µT near equator to about 60 µT near the poles. The magnetic
field on the axis is nearly twice the magnetic field on the equatorial line.
Cause of earth’s magnetism
Sir William Gilbert first suggested the existence of a powerful magnet inside the earth. This is not possible because
(a) temperature inside earth is so high that it will not be possible for magnet to retain magnetism.
(b) if there was a magnet inside the earth then position of earth’s magnetic poles would have not changed.
(c) the process of magnetisation of this magnet is not understood.
Grover suggested that earth’s magnetism is due to flow of current near outer surface of earth. These currents are produced due
to sun. The hot air rising from regions near equator while going towards north and south hemispheres gets electrifield. These
then magnetise ferromagnetic materials near the surface of earth.
According to another view earth’s core has many conducting materials like iron and nickel in molten state. Conventional
currents are produced in this semi fluid core due to rotation of earth about its axis which generates magnetism.
Another view says magnetism is due to presence of ionised gases in atmosphere. The high energy sun rays ionize gas atoms
in upper layer of atmosphere. The radioactivity of atmosphere and cosmic rays also ionize the gases. Strong electric currents
flow due to rotation of earth producing magnetism.
Thus most likely cause of earth’s magnetism is the motion and distribution of charged materials in and outside the earth.

Some Definitions
Geographic Axis : It is straight line passing through the
geographic poles of the earth. It is the axis of rotation of
the earth. It is known as polar axis
.
Geographic Meridian : It is a vertical plane passing
through geographic north and south poles of the earth.
Geographic Equator : A great circle on the surface of the
earth in a plane perpendicular to geographical axis is
called geographic equator. All places on geographic
equator are at equal distances from geographical poles.
Magnetic Axis : It is a straight line passing through the
magnetic poles of the earth. It is
inclined to geographic axis at nearly 11.5°.

Fig. 4.62
Magnetic Meridian : It is a vertical plane passing through the magnetic north and south poles of the earth.
Magnetic Equator : A great circle on the surface of the earth in a plane perpendicular to magnetic axis is called magnetic equator.
All places on magnetic equator are at equal distance from magnetic poles.
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 209

COMPONENTS OF EARTH’S MAGNETIC FIELD

The resultant magnetic field B of earth at a place has the two components, namely, the vertical component BV and horizontal
component BH. The component BV has the vertical direction which is downwards in the northern hemisphere and upwards in the
southern hemisphere. The component BH has the horizontal direction which is from the south to the north everywhere.
Vertical component of earth’s magnetic field, BV = B sin Magnetic meridian
Horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field, BH = B cos
2 2
Resultant magnetic field B = BV BH

Bsin BV BH BV
S B
tan = B
B cos H
N
The vertical component BV = 0 at the magnetic equator and the N
S N
horizontal component BH = 0 at the magnetic north and south
B S
poles of earth. At Delhi, BH = 35 T = 0.35G. BV BH

Angle of Dip or Inclination, Fig. 4.63

At a place, the angle which the resultant magnetic field B of earth makes with the horizontal is called the angle of dip, or
inclination. A freely-suspended magnet will keep it’s axis at this angle with the horizontal, the south pole being above the north
pole in the northern hemisphere and the south pole being below the north pole in the southern hemisphere. It is 0º at the magnetic
equator and 90º at the magnetic north and south poles of earth. At other places, it lies between 0º and 90º. At Delhi, it is 42º 12.7´.
The angle of dip measured in the magnetic meridian is called the true angle of dip and the angle of dip ´ measured in any other
vertical plane inclined at an angle with the magnetic meridian is called the apparent angle of dip. The ‘Dip circle’ is used to
measure the angle of dip in any vertical plane.
BV
tan = ,
BH
BV BV
tan ´ =
BH BH cos

1
tan = tan
cos

>
Fig. 4.64
Angle of Declination,
At a place, the angle between the magnetic and geographic meridians is called the angle of declination. It is 0º at Delhi.
Magnetic Elements of Earth
The three parameters, namely, the angle of dip or inclination , variation or
declination and horizontal component BH of earth’s magnetic field B , are together
called the magnetic elements of earth. These elements completely define the earth’s
magnetism.
Magnetic Compass:
Present day magnetic compasses use the same forces that guided ancient mariners.
A magnetized needle, in conjunction with a compass card, rotates horizontally.
Present day compasses are superior to the ancient ones through a heightened
knowledge of magnetic laws and greater precision in construction.
The Earth's magnetic lines of force provide the directional information needed to
navigate. A compass detects and converts the energy from these magnetic lines
of force into a directional display. In order to understand the operation of a ship's
compass, it is first necessary to understand some basic information about the
Earth's magnetic field.
Fig. 4.65
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210 PHYSICS

Magnetism in medicine
An electric current always produces a magnetic field. Even weak ion currents that travel along the nerve
cells in our body produce magnetic fields. When we touch something, our nerves carry an electric impulse to the
muscles we need to use. This impulse produces a temporary magnetic field. These fields are very weak and are about
one-billionth of the earth’s magnetic field. Two main organs in the human body where the magnetic field produced is
significant, are the heart and the brain. The magnetic field inside the body forms the basis of obtaining the images of
different body parts. This is done using a technique called Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI). Analysis of
these images helps in medical diagnosis. Magnetism has, thus, got important uses in medicine.

Fact: In research and industry, MRI is known as NMR – Nuclear Magnetic Resonance. It’s more or less the same process, but
the medical establishment prefers the term MRI because some patients are scared off by the word nuclear.
The first MRI on a human was made in July 1977 by Dr. Raymond Damadian of New York. MRI patients are sometimes injected
with gadolinium, a contrast agent that can make abnormalities such as tumors clearer due to the element’s special magnetic
properties.
MRIs are most commonly used for cancer patients (about 35 percent of all scans) and patients with spinal problems (about 30%).

MRI Scanner Cutaway

Radio Patient
Frequency
coil

Patient
table

Gradient
coils

Magnet

Scanner

Fig. 4.66

NEUTRAL POINTS
Points where net magnetic field is zero are called neutral points.
Magnet in Horizontal Position
When a magnet is placed in the horizontal position with it north pole facing the north, we get the two neutral points P1 and P2
on the equator of magnet, symmetrically placed with respect to the magnet, as shown. At the neutral points, the earth’s
horizontal component B H and the magnetic field B of magnet balance each other so that the resultant magnetic field is zero
there. Therefore,
N M
M BH BH
BH = B = 4 N
( r 2 l 2 )3 / 2
l Equator
W E
M P r r P
1 l 2
for l << r S
4 r3
S B B
Fig. 4.67
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 211

When the magnet is placed in the horizontal position with it’s north pole facing the south, we get the two neutral points P1 and
P2 on the axis of magnet, symmetrically placed with respect to the magnet, as shown. At the neutral points, we have
2 Mr
BH = B = 4
(r – l 2 ) 2
2

2M
for l << r
4 r3
Magnet in Vertical Position
When the magnet is placed in the vertical position with it’s north pole resting on the table, we get only one neutral point P on the
south of magnet in the plane of the table top, as shown. At the neutral point we have
B H = B = BN – BS cos (for short magnet)
S
BN (for long magnet, i.e., l >> r)

l )2
where,

+4
2
S N

(r
BS 2l
m
BN =
4 r2 P r
BN N
m BS cos
BS = 4
( r 2 4l 2 ) B BH
are the magnetic fields due to the two poles, taken separately. Fig. 4.68
When the magnet is placed in the vertical position with it’s south pole resting on the table, we get only one neutral point P on the
north of magnet in the plane of the table top, as shown. At the neutral point, we have
B H = B = BS – BN cos (for short magnet)
BS (for long magnet, i.e., l >> r) N (r 2
+4 2
m l)
where BN = 4 2
(r 4l 2 ) 2l
S N
m P BN cos
and BS = S
4 r2
BS
are the magnetic fields due to the two poles. B BN
BH
Fig. 4.69

Po i n t
Magnet A has twice the magnetic field strength of magnet B, and, at a certain distance, it pulls on magnet B with a force of
50 N. With how much force, then, does magnet B pull on magnet A ?
SOLUTION
The magnet B will pull on magnet A with the same force as magnet A pulls on magnet B, i.e, with a force of 50 N only because
the force of attraction between the two magnets is a combined property of both the magnets and acts equally on both.

MAGNETIC MATERIALS
Certain materials, when placed in a magnetic field B 0 , i.e., in a magnetising field intensity H B0 / 0 , get magnetised. Such
materials are called the magnetic materials. Some materials get magnetised very strongly, e.g., ferromagnetics and others get
magnetised very feebly, e.g., diamagnetics and paramagnetics.

Terms Related to Magnetism

Magnetic intensity (H ) : When a magnetic material is placed in a magnetic field, it becomes magnetised. The capability of the
magnetic field to magnetise a material is expressed by means of a magnetic vector H , called the `magnetic intensity’ of the field.
 EBD_7005
212 PHYSICS

The relation between magnetic induction B and magnetising field H is B H , being permeability of medium.
Intensity of magnetisation (Im) : When a material is placed in a magnetising field, it acquires magnetic moment M. The intensity
M
of magnetisation is defined as the magnetic moment per unit volume i.e., I m , V being volume of mateiral.
V
If the material is in the form of a bar of cross-sectional area A, length 2l and pole strength m, then
M m.2 m
M = m × 2 ; V = A× 2 Im
V A.2 A
Magnetic susceptibility ( ) : The magnetic susceptibility is defined as the intensity of magnetisation per unit magentising field
Im
i.e., .
H
Magnetic permeability ( ) : The magnetic permeability of a material is the measure of degree to which the material can be
permeated by a magnetic field and is defined as the ratio of magnetic induction (B) in the material to the magnetising field
B
i.e.,
H

Relation Between Magnetic Susceptibility and Permeability

We have magnetic induction in mateiral, B = H
Also B = B0 + Bm
where B0 = magnetic induction in vacuum produced by magnetising field
Bm = magnetic induction due to magnetisation of material.
But B0 = 0H and Bm = 0 I m B 0 [ H Im ]
Im H
B 0H 1 B0 [1 ]; B / B0 [1 ] B / B0 /
H 0 , the relative magnetic permeability
0H

r 1 This is required relation.

CLASSIFICATION OF MAGNETIC MATERIALS

According to the behaviour of substances in magnetic field, they are classified into three categories
(I) Diamagnetic Substances: These are substances which when placed in a strong magnetic field acquire a feeble magnetism
opposite to the direction of magnetising field.
The examples are copper, gold, antimony, bismuth, alcohol, water, quartz, hydrogen, etc.
The characteristics of diamagnetic substances are:
(a) They are feebly repelled by a strong magnet
(b) Their susceptibility is negative (i.e. < 0)
(c) Their relative permeability is less than 1 (i.e. r < 1)
(d) Their susceptibility is independent of magnetising field and temperature (except for Bismuth at low temperature)
(II) Paramagnetic Substances: These are the materials which when placed in a strong magnetic field acquire a feeble magnetism in
the same sense as the applied magnetic field. The examples are platinum, aluminium, chromium, manganese, CuSO4, O2, air, etc.
The characteristics of paramagnetic substances are:
(a) They are attracted by a strong magnet
(b) Their susceptibility is positive but very small ( > 0)
(c) Their relative permeability is slightly greater than unity. ( > 1)
(d) Their susceptibility and permeability do not change with the variation of magnetising field.
1
(e) Their susceptibility is inversely proportional to temperature, i.e.
T
(f) Found in those material which have atoms containing odd number of electrons
(III) Ferromagnetic Substances: These are the substances which are strongly magnetised by relatively weak magnetising field in the
same sense as the magnetising field. The examples are Ni, Co, iron and their alloys.
The characteristics of ferromagnetic substances are :
(a) They are attracted even by a weak magnet.
(b) The susceptibility is very large and positive. ( >> 0)
(c) The relative permeability is very high (of the order of hundreds and thousands). ( >> 1)
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 213

(d) The intensity of magnetisation is proportional to the magnetising field H for smaller values, varies rapidly for moderate
values and attains a constant value for larger values of H.
(e) The susceptibility of a ferromagnetic substance is inversely proportional to temperature
C
i.e., 1/ T ; C curie constant.
T
This is called Curie law. At a temperature called curie temperature, ferromagnetic substance becomes paramagnetic.
The curie temperatures for Ni, Fe and Co are 360ºC, 740ºC and 1100ºC respectively.
(f) Found in those material which have domains and can be converted into strong magnets

HYSTERESIS
When a bar of ferromagnetic material is magnetised by a varying magnetic field and the intensity of magnetisation I m induced
is measured for different values of magnetising field H, the graph of I versus H is as shown in fig.

I
B
C
A

D O G
H

Fig. 4.70
The graph shows
(i) When magnetising field is increased from O the intensity of magnetisation Im increases and becomes maximum
(i.e. point A). This maximum value is called the saturation value.
(ii) When H is reduced, Im reduces but is not zero when H = 0. The remainder value OB of magnetisation when H = 0 is called
the residual magnetism or retentivity. OB is retentivity.
(iii) When magnetic field H is reversed, the magnetisaiton decreases and for a particular value of H, it becomes zero
i.e., for H = OC, I = 0. This value of H is called the coercivity.
(iv) When field H is further increased in reverse direction, the intensity of magnetisation attains saturation value in reverse
direction (i.e., point D).
(v) When H is decreased to zero and changed direction in steps, we get the part DFGA.

Properties of Soft Iron and Steel

For soft iron, the susceptibility, permeability and retentivity are greater while coercivity and hysteresis loss per cycle are smaller
than those of steel.
Permanent magnets are made of steel and cobalt while electromagnets are made of soft iron.

I I

O
H H

(a) Soft ferromagnetics (b) Hard ferromagnetics

Fig. 4.70
 EBD_7005
214 PHYSICS

1. (a) Fig. below shows a solenoid. Copy the diagram and mark on it :
(i) The direction of flow of current.
(ii) The magnetic polarity at ends A and B.

A S B
N

(.)
(b) Suggest three ways of increasing, strength of the magnetic field of a solenoid.
Sol. (a) The complete diagram is shown in Fig.

A S B
N

(.)
(i) Current flows from end A of the solenoid to end B in the clockwise direction.
(ii) As current at the end A is in clockwise direction, it develops south pole; and the current at end B is in anticlockwise
direction, it develops a north pole.
(b) The strength of the magnetic field can be increased by:
(i) increasing the current.
(ii) increasing number of turns of wire.
(iii) inserting a soft iron core along the axis of the solenoid.
2. Why is soft iron generally used as the core of the electromagnet?
Sol. (a) Soft iron has less retenitvity. So it acquires the magnetic properties only when the current flows through the coil wound on
it and loses the magnetic properties as the current is switched off.
(b) The soft iron intensifies the magnetic field of the electromagnet because of its high permeability.
3. Draw the magnetic lines of force in case of:
(a) a solenoid and (b) a bar magnet.
Sol. (a) Magnetic lines of force in case of a solenoid. (b) Magnetic lines of force in case of a bar magnet.

S N
S NN

(.)

The magnetic field of a solenoid is very similar to that of a bar magnet. Only difference is that the magnetic lines of force are
parallel to each other inside the solenoid.
4. State two dissimilarities between a d.c. motor and an a.c. generator.
Sol. (i) A d.c. motor converts electrical energy to mechnical energy, whereas an a.c. generator converts mechanical energy to
electrical energy.
(ii) A d.c. motor uses a split ring commutator, whereas an a.c. generator uses a pair of slip rings.
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 215

SOLVED EXAMPLES BASED ON CONNECTING TOPICS

5. A horizontal straight wire 5 cm long weighing 1.2 g–1 is placed perpendicular to a uniform horizontal magnetic field of the
flux density 0.6T. If the resistance of the wire is 3.8 m–1 calculate the potential difference that has to be applied between
the ends of the wire to make it just supporting (g = 9.8 ms–1 )
Sol. Here, l = 5cm = 5 ×10–2m
Mass of the wire, m = mass per unit length × length of the wire.
= 1.2 × 10–3 kg m–1 × 5 × 10–2m = 6 × 10–5 Kg,
B = 0.6T
Resistance of the wire R = (Resistance per unit length x length of the wire)
= 3.8 × 5×10–2 = 0 19
Let V be the P.d. applied between the ends of the wire, for the wire to be self supporting:
V
mg = BI l = B l
R
mg ´ R 6 ´10-5 ´9.8 ´ 0.19
\ V= = = 3.72 ´10-3 V
B 0.6 ´5 ´10-2
6. Two long parallel conductors carry respectively currents of 12 and 8A in the same direction. If the wires are
10 cm apart, find where the third parallel wire also carrying a current must be placed so that the force experienced by it shall
be zero.
Sol. For the force on the third conductor to be zero, the direction of the flux density due to the current flowing in the two wires must
be opposite in the position of the wire.
The third wire must be placed between the wire. Let the third wire placed at a distance x m from the wire carrying 12A,
then, B1 = B2
mo I1 m o I2
=
2px 2p(0.1 - x)
12A X 8A
12 8 3 2
or = or =
x 0.1 – x x 0.1 - x
0.3 0.lm
or 0.3 = 5x or, x = = 0.06 m
5
7. A narrow vertical rectangular coil is suspended from the middle of its upper side with its plane parallel to a uniform
horizontal magnetic field of 0.02 T. The coil has 10 turns and the lengths of its vertical and horizontal sides are 0.1 m and
0.05 m respectively. Calculate the torque on the coil when a current of 5A is passed into it. What would be the new value of the
torque if the plane of the vertical coil was initially at 60o to the magnetic field and a current of 5A was passed into the coil.
Sol. Given: B = 0.02 T, N = 10 turns
A = 1 × b = 0.1 × 0.05 = 0.005 m2 : I = 5A
Torque = BINA = 0.02 × 5 × 10 × 0.005 = 0.005 Nm = 5 × 10–3Nm
New value of the torque when the plane of the vertical coil was at 60 o to the magnetic field
= BINA cos = 5 × 10–3 cos 60o
= 5× 10–3 × ½ = 2.5 × 10–3 Nm.

8. Find the self inductance of a coil in which an e.m.f. of 10 V is induced when the current in the circuit changes uniformly from
1 A to 0.5 A in 0.2 sec.
dI 1 0.5 0.5
Sol. Given : e = 10 V and 2.5 A / s
dt 0.2 0.2
e 10 dI
Self inductance of coil L 4H e L (Considering magnitude only)
dI / dt 2.5 dt
9. A conductor of length 10 cm is moved parallel to itself with a speed of 10 m/s at right angles to a uniform magnetic induction
10–4 Wb/m². What is the induced e.m.f. in it?
Sol. Given : = 10 cm = 0.1 m, v = 10 m/s
B = 10–4 Wb/m²
e.m.f. induced in conductor e = B V = 10–4 × 0.1 × 10 = 10–4 V
 EBD_7005
216 PHYSICS

27. The unit of self-inductance in SI system is ............ .

28. An e.m.f. is induced in a coil when ................. linked with it
DIRECTIONS : Complete the following statements with an changes.
appropriate word / term to be filled in the blank space(s). 29. In an AC generator, maximum number of lines of force
pass through the coil when the angle between the plane
1. A compass needle is a .................... magnet.
of coil and lines of force is .....................
2. Field lines are used to represent a ................
3. Field lines are shown closer together where the magnetic
field is ....................
4. A metallic wire carrying an electric current has associated DIRECTIONS : Read the following statements and write your
with it a ........... field. answer as true or false.
5. The field lines about the wire consist of a series of concentric
circles whose direction is given by the ............ rule. 1. Energy associated with an electric field is analogous to
6. The magnetic lines of force are the lines drawn in a magnetic potential energy whereas the energy associated with the
field along which a .............. pole would move. magnetic field is analogous to kinetic energy.
7. An electric current can be used for making temporary 2. No net force acts on a rectangular coil carrying a steady
magnets known as ................. current when suspended freely in a uniform magnetic field.
8. The unit of magnetic field is ...................... 3. An electron and a proton move in a uniform magnetic field
9. The S.I. unit of magnetic flux ............... with same speed perpendicular to the magnetic field. They
10. The force between currents is called the .............. force. experience forces in opposite directions differing by a factor
11. The N-pole of a compass points to the .............. pole of a of 1840.
permanent magnet. 4. A positive charge projected along the axis of a current
12. The force that a magnetic field exerts on a current is always carrying solenoid moves undeviated from its original path.
perpendicular to the ............. and to the .............. 5. There is no change in the energy of a charged particle moving
13. In a magnetic field pointing away from you, an electron in a magnetic field although a magnetic force is acting on it.
traveling to the right will experience a force in the .............. 6. An electron does not suffer any deflections while passing
direction. through a region. This makes sure that there is no magnetic
14. Magnetic fields are produced by .................
field in that region.
15. You are looking into a solenoid, at its S-pole, along its axis.
7. The field at the centre of a long circular coil carrying current
From your view point, the direction of the current in the
solenoid is ................ will be parallel straight lines.
16. Crowding the wires of a solenoid more closely together will 8. A magnetic field exists in the region surrounding a magnet,
.............. the strength of the field inside it. in which the force of the magnet can be detected.
17. A paramagnet magnet behaves like a solenoid because both 9. The pattern of the magnetic field around a conductor due to
contain currents in the form of ............... an electric current flowing through it depends on the shape
18. Magnetic field lines emerge from the ............. pole of a of the conductor.
solenoid or a permanent magnet. 10. A current-carrying conductor when placed in a magnetic
19. You are looking down the axis of a solenoid, and the current field always experiences a force.
from your position is clockwise. The end of the solenoid 11. The direction of force on a current carrying conductor placed
facing you is a .............. pole. in a magnetic field can be reversed by reversing the direction
20. A generator converts mechanical energy into ......... energy. of current flowing in the conductor.
It works on the basis of ...................... 12. The direction of force on a current carrying conductor placed
21. In our houses we receive AC electric power of ......... with in a magnetic field cannot be reversed by reversing the
a frequency of .............. direction of magnetic field.
22. The frequency for A.C. (alternating current) in USA is 13. Two magnetic lines of force never intersect each other.
................ 14. The field lines inside the infinite solenoid are in the form of
23. The armature in a motor rotates within a(n) ............. field. parallel straight lines.
24. To produce DC, the output of a generator must be fed
15. An electric generator works on the principle of
through a (n) ...............
electromagnetic induction.
25. In any generator, the current in the armature is of the ..........
type. 16. In a DC electric motor a pair of split rings is used as
26. The phenomenon of production of back e.m.f. in a coil commutator.
due to flow of varying current through it is called..............
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 217

17. The induced e.m.f. depends only the turns of the coil 3. Why don’t two magnetic lines of force intersect each other?
18. The magnitude of induced current can be increased by 4. Consider a circular loop of wire lying in the plane of the
decreasing the speed of rotation of coil. table. Let the current pass through the loop clockwise.
19. The magnitude of induced current can be decreased by Apply the right-hand rule to find out the direction of the
increasing the area of cross section of coil. magnetic field inside and outside the loop.
5. List three sources of magnetic fields.
6. When is the force experienced by a current–carrying
conductor placed in a magnetic field largest?
DIRECTIONS : Each question contains statements given in two 7. What do you conclude from Oersted’s experiment?
columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) 8. Name the types of electromagnets commonly used.
in column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in 9. When can an electric charge give rise to a magnetic field?
column II. 10. Why is soft iron used as the core of the electromagnet used
in electric bell ?
1. Column I Column II 11. How will the direction of force be changed, if the current is
(A) An electric motor works on (p) to a battery reversed in the conductor placed in a magnetic field?
(B) An electric motor is also (q) direct current 12. Describe a set up for plotting the magnetic lines of force in
(C) A commutator is used to (r) reverse the direction a straight conductor.
of flow of current. 13. What is the direction of magnetic field at the centre of a coil
(D) Commutator rings are (s) known as DC carrying current in (i) clockwise (ii) anticlockwise
connected MOTOR direction?
2. Column II gives approximate values of magnetic fields due 14. Why does a current carrying, freely suspended solenoid
to source given in column I rest along a particular direction ?
Column I Column II 15. What constitutes the field of a magnet?
(A) At surface of neutron star (p) 10–10 T 16. Name the physical quantity whose S.I. unit is Wb - m2. Is it
a scalar quantity or vector quantity?
(B) Near big electromagnet (q) 1.5 T
17. Name the rule used to find the direction of force on a current
(C) At earth surface (r) 108 T
carrying conductor.
(D) In interstellar space (s) 10–4 T 18. State Fleming’s right hand rule.
3. Equal currents i flow in two wires along x and y axis as 19. Does the A.C. generator have any slip ring ?
shown. Match the following : 20. An alternating electric current has a frequency of 50 Hz.
How many times does it change its direction in one
second?
21. What will be the frequency of an alternating current if its
i direction changes after every 0.01 s?
22. Give the direction of induced current in the wire loop,
i when the magnet moves forward as shown in the figure.

Column I Column II
(A) Magnetic field in (p) inwards N S
first quadrant
(B) Magnetic field in (q) outwards
second quadrant
(C) Magnetic field in (r) may be inwards or DIRECTIONS : Give answer in 2-3 sentences.
third quadrant outwards
(D) Magnetic field in 1. State two ways through which the strength of an
fourth quadrant electromagnet can be increased.
2. State three factors on which, the magnitude of force on a
current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field,
depends. Can this force be zero for some position of the
DIRECTIONS : Give answer in one word or one sentence. conductor?
1. Why does a compass needle get deflected when brought 3. What do you mean by an electromagnet ? With the help of
near a bar magnet? diagrams show the two types of electromagnets. Give two
uses of electromagnets.
2. A current through a horizontal power line flows in east to 4. How will you experimentally show that a current-carrying
west direction. What is the direction of magnetic field at a conductor experiences a force when kept in a magnetic field?
point directly below it and at a point directly above it ? 5. Under what conditions permanent electromagnet is obtained
 EBD_7005
218 PHYSICS
if a current carrying solenoid is used? Support your answer over a long and thin hollow carboard tube. Copy the diagram
with the help of a labelled circuit diagram. (i) Show the polarity acquired by each face of the solenoid.
6. AB is a current carrying conductor in the plane of the paper (ii) Draw the magnetic field lines of force inside the coil and
as shown in Figure. What are the directions of magnetic also show their direction. (iii) Mention two methods to
fields produced by it at points P and Q? Given r 1 > r2, where increase the strength of the magnetic field inside the coil.
will the strength of the magnetic field be larger?
A B

r1 P

Ammeter
+

Q r2 3. A 0.4m wire, stretched horizontally, carries an electric current

of 15A from east to west, in a magnetic field whose magnetic
field intensity is 0.1 N/Am, directed vertically downwards.
What is
(a) the magnitude of the magnetic deflecting force on the
7. What does the divergence of magnetic field lines near the wire, and
ends of a current carrying straight solenoid indicate? (b) its direction?
8. List the properties of magnetic lines of force. 4. A straight conductor passes vertically through a cardboard
9. What is the magnetic field that exerts a force of 2.4 × 10–4 sprinkled with iron filings. Show the setting of the iron filings
newtons on a current of 12 amperes in a wire 30 cm long set when a weak current is passed in the downward direction.
perpendicular to the field ? What changes occur if,
10. A wire carrying 1.5 amp has a length of 20 cm in a magnetic (i) the strength of the current is increased.
field of 40 milliteslas. If the wire is perpendicular to the field, (ii) the single conductor is replaced by several parallel
how much force does the field exert on the wire ? conductors with current flowing in the same. direction.
11. What is the direction of the force that a vertical magnetic 5. The diagram shows a current carrying coil passing through
field, directed upward, will exert on an electron traveling a sheet of stiff cardboard. Draw three lines of magnetic field
eastward in it. on the cardboard.
12. What is the shape of magnetic field lines around a circular
current carrying conductor?
13. What is Solenoid? Coil
14. Why is soft iron generally used as the core of the
electromagnet?
15. State four factors on which the strength of electromagnet
depends. Cardboard
16. Explain different ways to induce current in a coil.
17. State the rule to determine the direction of a (i) magnetic
field produced around a straight conductor-carrying Current
current, (ii) force experienced by a current-carrying straight
conductor placed in a magnetic field which is State two factors on which the magnitude of magnetic field
perpendicular to it, and (iii) current induced in a coil due at the centre of coil, depends.
to its rotation in a magnetic field. 6. Draw a labelled diagram to make an electromagnet from a
18. Explain the underlying principle of an electric generator. soft iron bar. Mark the polarity at its ends. What precaution
What is the function of brushes? would you observe ?
19. What is electromagnetic induction ? Describe one 7. What is an electric motor? With the help of diagram, explain
exper iment to demonstrate the phen omenon of its principle, construction and working.
electromagnetic induction. 8. What is D.C. generator? Explain its principle, construction
and working with diagram.
9. What does the direction of thumb indicate in the right hand
DIRECTIONS : Give answer in 4 to 5 sentences. thumb rule. In what way this rule is different from Fleming's
left-hand rule?
1. What is the nature of magnetic field produced by a straight 10. Explain with the help of a diagram, the principle and working
current carrying conductor? Explain with the help of an
of an a.c. generator.
experiment.
2. Diagram below shows a circuit containing a coil wound
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 219

20. An electric oven of 2 kW power rating is operated in a

domestic circuit (220 V) that has a current rating of 5 A.
1. Why does a compass needle get deflected when brought
What result do you expect ? Explain.
near a bar magnet ?
21. What precaution should be taken to avoid the overloading
2. Draw magnetic field lines around a bar magnet.
of domestic electric circuits?
3. List the properties of magnetic lines of force.
4. Why don’t two magnetic lines of force intersect each other ?
5. Consider a circular loop of wire lying in the plane of the
table. Let the current pass through the loop clockwise. 1. Which of the following correctly describes the magnetic
Apply the right-hand rule to find out the direction of the field near a long straight wire?
magnetic field inside and outside the loop. (a) The field consists of straight lines perpendicular to
6. The magnetic field in a given region is uniform. Draw a the wire.
diagram to represent it. (b) The field consists of straight lines parallel to the wire.
7. Choose the correct option? (c) The field consists of radial lines originating from the
The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid-carrying wire.
current (d) The field consists of concentric circles centred on
(a) is zero. the wire.
(b) decrease as we move towards its end. 2. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction is
(c) increases as we move towards its end. (a) the process of charging a body.
(d) is the same at all points. (b) the process of generating magnetic field due to a
8. Which of the following property of a proton can change current passing through a coil.
while it moves freely in a magnetic field? (There may be (c) producing induced current in a coil due to relative
more than one correct answer). motion between a magnet and the coil.
(a) mass (b) speed (d) the process of rotating a coil of an electric motor.
(c) velocity (d) momentum 3. The device used for producing electric current is called a
9. How the displacement of rod AB will be affected if (i) (a) generator (b) galvanometer
current in rod AB is increased, (ii) a stronger horse-shoe (c) ammeter. (d) motor.
4. The essential difference between an AC generator and a
magnet is used, and (iii) length of the rod AB is increased?
DC generator is that
10. A positively-charged particle (alpha-particle) projected
(a) AC generator has an electromagnet while a DC
towards west is deflected towards north by a magnetic
generator has permanent magnet.
field. The direction of magnetic field is
(b) DC generator will generate a higher voltage.
(a) towards south (b) towards east
(c) AC generator will generate a higher voltage.
(c) downward (d) upward (d) AC generator has slip rings while the DC generator
11. State Fleming’s Left hand rule. has a commutator.
12. What is the principle of an electric motor? 5. At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit
13. What is the role of the split ring in an electric motor. (a) reduces substantially.
14. Explain the different ways to induce current in a coil. (b) does not change.
15. State the principle of an electric generator. (c) increases heavily.
16. Name some sources of direct current. (d) very continuously.
17. Which sources produce alternating current. 6. State whether the following statements are true or false.
18. Choose the correct options? (a) An electric motor converts mechanical energy into
A rectangular coil of copper wires is rotated in a magnetic electrical energy.
field. The direction of the induced current changes once (b) An electric generator works on the principle of
in each electromagnetic induction.
(a) two revolutions (b) one revolution (c) The field at the centre of a long circular coil carrying
(c) half revolution (d) one-fourth revolution current will be parallel straight lines.
(d) A wire with a green insulation is usually the live wire
19. Name two safety measures commonly used in electric
of an electric supply.
circuits and appliances.
 EBD_7005
220 PHYSICS
7. List three sources of magnetic fields. will the strength of the magnetic field be larger?
8. How does a solenoid behave like a magnet? Can you
determine the north and south poles of a current-carrying
solenoid with the help of a bar magnet? Explain. r1 P
9. When is the force experienced by a current-carrying I
conductor placed in a magnetic field largest?
10. Imagine that you are sitting in a chamber with your back
to one wall. An electron beam, moving horizontally from Q r2
back wall towards the front wall, is deflected by a strong
magnetic field to your right side. What is the direction of
magnetic field?
11. Draw a labelled diagram of an electric motor. Explain its
4. It is established that an electric current through a metallic
principle and working . What is the function of a split ring
conductor produces a magnetic field around it. Is there a
in an electric motor?
similar magnetic field produced around a thin beam of
12. Name some devices in which electric motors are used.
moving (i) alpha particles, (ii) neutrons? Justify your answer.
13. A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a
5. What is the difference between a direct current and an
galvanometer. What will happen if a bar magnet is (i)
alternating current? How many times does AC used in India
pushed into the coil (ii) withdrawn from inside the coil (iii) change direction in one second?
held stationary inside the coil? 6. Why does a magnetic compass needle pointing North and
14. Two circular coils A and B are placed close to each other. South in the absence of a nearby magnet get deflected when
If the current in the coil A is changed, will some current be a bar magnet or a current carrying loop is brought near it.
induced in the coil B? Give reason. Describe some salient features of magnetic lines of field
concept.
15. State the rule to determine the direction of a (i) magnetic
field produced around a straight conductor carrying current,
(ii) force experienced by a current carrying
straight conductor placed in a magnetic field which is 1. Consider a circular loop of wire lying in the plane of the
perpendicular to it, and (iii) current induced in a coil due to its table. Let the current pass through the loop clockwise. Apply
rotation in a magnetic field. the right-hand rule to find out the direction of the magnetic
16. Explain the underlying principle and working of an electric field inside and outside the loop.
generator by drawing a labelled diagram. What is the 2. A current through a horizontal power line flows in east to
function of brushes? west direction. What is the direction of magnetic field at a
17. When does an electric short circuit occur? point directly below it and at a point directly above it ?
18. What is the function of an earth wire? Why is it necessary 3. When is the force experienced by a current–carrying
to earth metallic appliances? conductor placed in a magnetic field largest?
4. An electron in passing through a field but no forces acting
on it. Under what condition it is possible, that the motion of
1. A magnetic compass needle is placed in the plane of paper the electron will be in the (i) electric field (ii) magnetic field?
near point A as shown in Figure. In which plane should a 5. A loop of irregular shape carrying current is located in an
straight current carrying conductor be placed so that it external magnetic field. If the wire is flexible, why does it
passes through A and there is no change in the deflection change to a circular shape?
of the compass? Under what condition is the deflection 6. An electron does not suffer any deflection while passing
maximum and why? through a region. Are you sure that there is no magnetic
field? Is the reverse definite ?
7. Why is pure iron not used for making permanent magnets?
Name one materials used for making permanent magnets.
A Describe how permanent magnets are made electrically. State
two examples of electrical instruments made by using
S
2. Under what conditions permanent electromagnet is obtained permanent magnets.
if a current carrying solenoid is used? Support your answer 8. How does the strength of the magnetic field at the centre of
with the help of a labelled circuit diagram. a circular coil of wire depend on :
3. AB is a current carrying conductor in the plane of the paper (i) the radius of the coil
as shown in Figure. What are the directions of magnetic
(ii) the number of turns of wire in the coil
fields produced by it at point P and Q? Given r 1 > r2, where
(iii) the strength of current flowing in the coil ?
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 221

9. How will the magnetic field intensity at the centre of a circular 11. If your metal car moves over a wide, closed loop of wire
coil carrying current change, if the current through the coil embedded in a road surface, will the magnetic field of the
is doubled and the radius is halved? earth within the loop be altered? Will this produce a cur-
10. A rectangular coil ABCD is placed between the pole pieces rent pulse? Can you think of a practical application for
of a horse-shoe magnet as shown in figure. this at a traffic intersection?
12. At the security area of an airport, you walk through a
B C
weak AC magnetic field inside a large coil of wire. What is
the result of a small piece of metal on person that slightly
N S alters the magnetic field in the coil?
13. The closed loop PQRS is moving into a uniform magnetic
field acting at right angles to the plane of the paper as
A D shown in the following figure. State the direction in which
+ – the induced current flows in the loop.

P Q
× × × × × × ×

× × × × × × ×
(i) What is the direction of force on each arm?
(ii) What is the effect of the forces on the coil? × × × × × × ×
(iii) How is the effect of force on the coil changed if the S R
terminals of the battery are interchanged ?
 EBD_7005
222 PHYSICS

5. A small magnet is placed perpendicular to a uniform magnet

field. The forces acting on the magnet will result in
DIRECTIONS : This section contains multiple choice questions. (a) Rotational motion
Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which (b) Translatory motion
ONLY ONE is correct. (c) No motion at all
(d) Translational and rotational motion both
1. Choose the correct option(s). 6. The magnetic field at a point due to a current carrying
The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid-carrying conductor is directly proportional to the
current (a) current flowing through the conductor
(a) is zero. (b) Distance from the conductor
(b) decreases as we move towards its end. (c) Voltage across the conductor
(c) increases as we move towards its end. (d) Resistance of the conductor
(d) is the same at all points. 7. Which one of the following substances is the magnetic
2. A positively-charged particle (alpha-particle) projected substances?
towards west is deflected towards north by a magnetic field. (a) Mercury (b) Iron
The direction of magnetic field is (c) Gold (d) Silver
(a) towards south (b) towards east
8. Magnetic lines do not intersect on one-another because
(c) downward (d) upward
(a) they are at a distance
3. Which of the following correctly describes the magnetic
(b) they are in the same direction
field near a long straight wire?
(a) The field consists of straight lines perpendicular to (c) they are parallel to another
the wire. (d) at the point intersection there will be two direction of
(b) The field consists of straight lines parallel to the wire. the magnetic force which is impossible
(c) The field consists of radial lines originating from the 9. Instrument can be shielded from outside magnetic effects
wire. by surrounding them with
(d) The field consists of concentric circles centred on the (a) Rubber shield (b) Glass shield
wire. (c) Iron shield (d) Brass shield
4. A circular loop placed in a plane perpendicular to the 10. By removing the inducing magnet, the induced magnetism
plane of paper carries a current when the key is ON. is
The current as seen from points A and B (in the plane of (a) Finished after some time
paper and on the axis of the coil) is anti clockwise and (b) Finished just after
clockwise respectively. The magnetic field lines point (c) Not finished for a long time
from B to A. The N-pole of the resultant magnet is on the (d) Not changed
face close to 11. The effective length of the magnet is
(a) A (a) the complete length of the magnet
(b) B (b) the distance between the two poles of the magnet
(c) A if the current is small, and B if the current is large (c) the half of the length of the magnet
(d) B if the current is small and A if the current is large (d) the square of the length of the magnet
12. When the bars of bismuth are placed between the magnetic
poles they set their length
Variable (a) perpendicular to the lines of force
A. B.
resistance (b) along the lines of force
(c) neither perpendicular nor along the lines of force
+ – (d) In any direction
13. Which of the following processes will not produce new
magnetic poles?
+ – (a) cutting a bar magnet in half
A (b) turning on a current in a solenoid
K (c) running a current through a straight wire
(d) placing an iron rod in contact with a magnet
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 223

14. A tesla is equivalent to a (a) zero

(a) newton per coulomb (b) maximum
(b) newton per ampere-meter (c) inversely proportional to the current
(c) ampere per newton (d) none of the above
(d) newton per ampere-second 24. The value of intensity of magnetic field at a point due to a
15. A vertical wire carries a current upward. The magnetic field current carrying conductor depends
north of the wire will be directed (a) Only on the value of current
(a) upward (b) eastward (b) Only on a small part of length of conductor
(c) westward (d) northward
(c) On angle between the line joining the given point to
16. The magnetic flux is expressed in
the mid point of small length and the distance between
(a) dynes (b) Oerested
the small length of the point
(c) Gauss (d) Weber
(d) On all of the above
17. The magnetic lines of force, inside a current carrying
solenoid, are 25. An electric current i is flowing in a circular coil of radius a.
(a) along the axis and are parallel to each other At what distance from the center of the axis of the coil will
th
(b) perpendicular to the axis and equidistance from each the magnetic field be 1/8 of its value at the centre ?
other (a) 3a (b) 3a
(c) circular and they do not intersect each other (c) a/3 (d) a / 3
(d) circular at the ends but they are parallel to the axis 26. In a coaxial, straight cable, the central conductor and the
inside the solenoid. outer conductor carry equal currents in opposite direction.
18. Which of the following is not true The magnetic field is zero-
(a) Induction precedes attraction (a) outside the cable
(b) We cannot isolate a single pole (b) inside the inner conductor
(c) We can magnetise an iron ring (c) inside the outer conductor
(d) A permanent magnet retains its magnetism even when (d) in between the two conductors
heated on a flame. 27. When the number of turns in a toroidal coil is doubled, the
19. Which of the following statement is not correct about two value of magnetic flux density will become
parallel conductors carrying equal currents in the same (a) four times (b) eight times
direction? (c) half (d) double
(a) Each of the conductors will experience a force 28. By a current carrying toroid, whose area of cross-section is
(b) The two conductors will repel each other. fixed, the magnetic induction produced will be -
(c) There are concentric lines of force around each (a) maximum at inner end
conductor (b) maximum at outer end
(d) Each of the conductors will move if not prevented from (c) maximum at center of area of cross-section
doing so (d) equal at whole area of cross-section
20. Which of the following determines the direction of magnetic 29. A uniform magnetic field exists in the plane of paper
field due to a current carrying conductor? pointing from left to right as shown in Figure. In the field
(a) Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction an electron and a proton move as shown. The electron
(b) Fleming’s left-hand rule and the proton experience
(c) Lenz’s rule (a) forces both pointing into the plane of paper
(d) Maxwell’s cork screw rule (b) forces both pointing out of the plane of paper
21. Along the direction of current carrying wire, the value of (c) forces pointing into the plane of paper and out of
magnetic field is ? the plane of paper, respectively
(a) Zero (d) force pointing opposite and along the direction of
the uniform magnetic field respectively
(b) Infinity
(c) Depends on the length of the wire Proton
(d) Uncertain
22. To obtain maximum intensity of magnetic field at a point the
Uniform
angle between position vector of point and small elements magnetic
of length of the conductor is f ield
(a) 0 (b) /4
(c) /2 (d)
23. The value of magnetic field due to a small element of current
carrying conductor at a distance r and lying on the plane
perpendicular to the element of conductor is Electron
 EBD_7005
224 PHYSICS
30. When an electron beam is moving in a magnetic field, then (c) producing induced current in a coil due to relative
the work done is equal to the motion between a magnet and the coil.
(a) charge of electron (d) the process of rotating a coil of an electric motor.
(b) magnetic field 40. The device used for producing electric current is called a
(a) generator (b) galvanometer
(c) product of electronic charge and the magnetic field
(c) ammeter (d) motor
(d) zero
41. The direction of induced current is obtained by
31. Which of the following rays are not deflected by a magnetic (a) Fleming’s left hand rule
field - (b) Right hand thumb rule
(a) -rays (b) -rays (c) Biot and Savart rule
(c) -rays (d) positive rays (d) Fleming’s right hand rule
32. Two parallel beams of electron moving in the same direction 42. In an electric motor, conversion takes place of
will (a) Chemical energy into electrical energy
(a) repel each other (b) Electrical energy into mechanical energy
(b) attract each other (c) Electrical energy into light
(c) not interact with each other (d) Electrical energy into chemical energy
(d) annihilate each other 43. The current in a generator armature is AC because
33. An inverse square law of distance is obeyed by- (a) the magnetic field reverses at intervals
(a) the force per unit length between two long straight (b) the current in the field coils is AC
parallel current-carrying conductors in vacuum. (c) the rotation of the armature causes the field through it
(b) the electric field intensity outside an isolated charged to reverse
sphere (d) the commutator feeds current into it in opposite
(c) the magnetic flux density outside a long straight directions every half cycle
44. The current in the armature of a motor is reversed every half
current-carrying wire
cycle due to the action of a(n)
(d) the electrostatic potential
(a) armature (b) field coil
34. A current carrying loop lying in a magnetic field behaves
(c) brush (d) commutator.
like a. 45. In an electric motor, the energy transformation is
(a) A magnetic dipole (b) magnetic pole (a) from electrical to chemical
(c) magnetic material (d) non-magnetic material (b) from chemical to light
35. Two identical coaxial circular loops carry a current i each (c) from mechanical to electrical
circulating in the same direction. If the loops approach each (d) from electrical to mechanical
other, you will observe that 46. The direction of induced current is obtained by
(a) the current in each increases, (a) Fleming’s left hand rule
(b) Maxwell’s cork-screw rule
(b) the current in each decreases, (c) Ampere’s rule
(c) the current in each remains the same, (d) Fleming’s right hand rule
(d) the current in one increases whereas that in the other 47. Direction of induced e.m.f. is determined by -
decreases (a) Fleming’s left hand rule
36. An induced e.m.f. is produced when a magnet is plunged (b) Fleming’s right hand rule
into a coil. The strength of the induced e.m.f. is independent (c) Maxwell’s rule
of (d) Ampere’s rule of swimming
48. A metal sheet is placed in a variable magnetic field which is
(a) the strength of the magnet
increasing from zero to maximum. Induced current flows in
(b) number of turns of coil the directions as shown in figure. The direction of magnetic
(c) the resistivity of the wire of the coil field will be -
(d) speed with which the magnet is moved
N
37. The laws of electromagnetic induction have been used in
the construction of a
(a) galvanometer (b) voltmeter
W E
(c) electric motor (d) generator
38. The frequency of A.C. mains in India is
(a) 30 c/s (b) 50 c/s
(c) 60 c/s (d) 120 c/s S
39. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction is – (a) normal to the paper, inwards
(a) the process of charging a body.
(b) normal to the paper, outwards
(b) the process of generating magnetic field due to a
current passing through a coil. (c) from east to west
(d) from north to south
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 225

5. A charged particle enters into a space and continues to

move undeflected. Then in that space:
DIRECTIONS : This section contains multiple choice questions. (a) a uniform horizontal electric field and a vertical
Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which magnetic field may be present
ONE OR MORE may be correct. (b) a vertical electric field alone may be present
(c) uniform electric and magnetic fields, both directed
1. Which of the following is/are valid for a current carrying vertically downwards, may be present
circular coil? (d) a uniform horizontal magnetic field alone may be
(a) To induce magnetic induction of constant magnitude present
(at the centre of the coil), current required in it is directly 6. A flat circular coil carrying a current has a magnetic
proportional to its radius moment :
(b) Induction of inducted magnetic field at the centre is (a) has only magnitude; it does not have direction
inversely proportional to the radius of the coil (b) the direction of is along the normal to the plane of
(c) Induction of the inducted magnetic field at the centre the coil
is directly proportional to the current flowing through (c) the direction of depends on the direction of current
the coil flow
(d) None of the above (d) the direction of does not change if the current in the
2. A current flows along the length of a long thin cylindrical coil is reversed
shell: 7. A current carrying ring is placed in a magnetic field.
(a) magnetic field at all the points lying inside the shell is The direction of the field is perpendicular to the plane of the
zero ring:
(b) magnetic field at any point outside the shell varies (a) there is no net force on the ring
inversely with distance from the surface of the shell (b) the ring will tend to expand
(c) magnetic field strength is maximum just outside the (c) the ring will tend to contract
shell (d) either (b) or (c) depending on the directions of the
(d) none of the above current in the ring and the magnetic field
3. Figure shows a bar magnet and a long straight wire W 8. A solenoid is connected to a source of constant e.m.f. for a
carrying current into the plane of the paper. Point P is the long time. A soft iron piece is inserted into it. Then:
point of inersection of axis of the magnet and the line of the (a) self-inductance of the solenoid gets increased
shortest distance between the magnet and the wire. (b) flux linked with the solenoid increases; hence, steady
state current gets decreased
S P N (c) energy stored in the solenoid gets increased
(d) magnetic moment of the solenoid gets increased
9. In the loops shown in figure all curved sections are either
×W semicircles or quarter circles. All the loops carry the same
current. The magnetic fields at the centres have magnitudes
Which of the following statements is/are correct? B1, B2 , B3 and B4:
(a) If P is the midpoint of the magnet, the magnet
experiences no torque
(b) If P is on the left of the midpoint of the magnet, the a a
magnet experiences a leftward force as well as a torque B1
b b B2
(c) If P is the midpoint of the magnet, the magnet
experience a force along the line of the shortest
distance a
(d) None of the above a b B4
b
4. A straight conductor carries a current. Assume that all free B3
electrons in the conductor move with the same drift velocity v.
A and B are two observers on a straight line XY parallel to (a) B4 is maximum (b) B3 is minimum
the conductor. A is stationary. B moves along XY with a (c) B4 > B1 > B2 > B3 (d) B1 > B4 > B3 > B2
velocity v in the direction of the free electrons. 10. In which of the following cases does the electromagnetic
(a) A and B observe the same magnetic field induction occur –
(b) A observes a magnetic field, B does not (a) a current is started in a wire held near a loop of wire
(c) A and B observe magnetic fields of the same magnitude (b) the current is stopped in a wire held near a loop of wire
but opposite directions (c) a magnet is moved through a loop of wire
(d) A and B do not observe any electric field (d) a loop of wire is held near a magnet
 EBD_7005
226 PHYSICS
2. Assertion : Force experienced by moving charge will be
maximum if direction of velocity of charge is perpendicular
DIRECTIONS : Study the given paragraph(s) and answer the to applied magnetic field.
following questions.
Reason : Force on moving charge is independent of direction
Passage - I
of applied magnetic field.
Take a tightly-wound solenoid of radius a and length . the
3. Assertion : A neutral body may experience a net nonzero
number of turns per unit length in it is n. It carries current i.
Consider a small element of length dx of the solenoid at a magnetic force.
distance x from one end. This contains ndx turns and can Reason : The net charge on a current carrying wire is zero,
be assumed as a current carrying loop. The magnetic field but it can experience a force in a magnetic field.
due to whole solenoid will be the sum of magnetic field due 4. Assertion : There is no change in the energy of a charged
to such elements. particle moving in a magnetic field although a magnetic force
1. The magnetic field due to this solenoid at the centre of its is acting on it.
axis is : Reason : Work done by centripetal force is always zero.
0 i 0ni 5. Assertion: When two long parallel wires, hanging freely
(a) (b)
2a 2a are connected in series to a battery, they come closer to
each other.
0 ni 0n i Reason : Wires carrying current in opposite direction repel
(c) a2 (d) 4a 2 each other.
1 2
1 2 6. Assertion : A solenoid tends to expand, when a current
passes through it.
2. The magnetic field due to the solenoid at the centre of its
axis in the situation a >> is : Reason : Two straight parallel metallic wires carrying current
in same direction attract each other.
0n i 7. Assertion : In a conductor, free electrons keep on moving
(a) (b) 0ni
2
but no magnetic force acts on a conductor in a magnetic
0 ni 0 ni field.
(c) (d)
2a a Reason: Force on free electrons due to magnetic field always
3. The magnetic field due to the solenoid at the centre of its acts perpendicular to its direction of motion.
axis in the situation a << is : 8. Assertion : A small coil carrying current, in equilibrium, is
perpendicular to the direction of the uniform magnetic field.
0n i
(a) zero (b) Reason : Torque is maximum when plane of coil and direction
2
(c) of the magnetic field are parallel to each other.
0ni (d) infinite
9. Assertion : Basic difference between an electric line and
magnetic line of force is that former is discontinuous and
the later is continuous or endless.
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains an Assertion Reason : No electric lines of force exist inside a charged
followed by reason. Read them carefully and answer the question body but magnetic lines do exist inside a magnet.
on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that 10. Assertion : No net force acts on a rectangular coil carrying
best describes the two statements. a steady current when suspended freely in a uniform
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the magnetic field.
correct explanation of Assertion. Reason : Force on coil in magnetic field is always non-zero.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not 11. Assertion : An induced current has a direction such that
the correct explanation of Assertion. the magnetic field due to the current opposes the change in
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. the magnetic flux that induces the current.
(d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
Reason : Above statement is in accordance with
1. Assertion : A direction current flows through a metallic rod,
conservation of energy.
produced magnetic field only outside the rod.
Reason : There is no flow of charge carriers inside the rod.
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 227

DIRECTIONS : Following question has four statements (A, B, DIRECTIONS : Following are integer based/Numeric based
C and D) given in Column I and four statements (p, q, r and s) in questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one
Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct integer or numeric value.
matching with one or more statement(s) given in Column II. 1. The energy of a charged particle moving in a uniform
Match the entries in column I with entries in column II. magnetic field does not change. Explain
1. In column I, the positions of small current carrying loops 2. The flow of a current in a circular loop of wire creates a
have been shown and in column II information related to magnetic field at its centre. How may existence of this field
force experienced by coil is given. Match the entries of be detected? State the rule which helps to predict the
column I with the entries of column II. (Assume solenoid direction of this magnetic field.
radius to be small as compared to its length) 3. A force of 1N is exerted on a conductor of length 3 m
Column-I Column-II carrying a current of 2A when placed in a magnetic field.
Find the strength of field?
4. A coil of radius 22 cm has 14 turns. Find strength of field if
A. I a I (p) Attractive
a 5A current is flowing through the coil?
5. A circular coil of wire of radius 0.05 m having 500 turns
B. (q) Repulsive carries a current of 1A. Calculate the magnetic field at the
I 2a I centre of the coil?
6. Find magnetic field in air 0.01 m away from an infinitely long
C. I (r) Zero wire that carries a current of 2A?
I a
7. The radius of a circular coil having 20 turns is 15 cm. If a
current of 60A is flowing through this circular coil, calculate
D. (s) Initially zero, then starts the magnetic field produced at its centre?
I I a
8. A wire of length 0.04 m is placed perpendicular to a uniform
increasing
magnetic field of magnitude 0.30 T? Calculate the force on
A B C D
(a) p q r s the wire when the current flowing through it is 5A.
(b) p, q t s r 9. A particle having a charge of 1.6 × 10–19 coulomb is moving
(c) r p p s with a speed of 3.5 × 107 m/s in a magnetic field of 4T.
(d) t q, r p, s q Calculate the force experienced by this moving charged
particle?
 EBD_7005
228 PHYSICS

(b) repel each other

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-23) : This section contains multiple choice
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out (c) first attract and then repel
of which ONLY ONE is correct. (d) first repel and then attract
9. The angle of inclination of the axis of the magnetic needle
1. A magnet is placed vertically on a paper. Then the number of to the horizontal plane when suspended freely and is at rest
neutral points obtained on the paper is is known as
(a) zero (b) one (a) angle of inclination (b) angle of variation
(c) two (d) three
(c) angle of declination (d) none of the above
2. A charge of 1.6 × 10–19 coulomb enters in the magnetic field
10. Which of the following statement is not correct?
of 2 weber/m² normally with a velocity of 10 5 m/sec.
(a) The dip angle is the angle between the horizontal and
The force on the charge will be
earth’s total magnetic field.
(a) 3.2 × 10–14 N (b) 3.2 × 10–19 N
–14 (b) Neutral points are obtained where the earth’s magnetic
(c) 1.6 × 10 N (d) zero
field is perpendicular to that due to a magnet
3. The vertical plane which passes through the magnetic axis
(c) A magnetic field is a region in which a magnetic force
of a freely suspended magnet at rest is called
can be detected.
(a) Magnetic meridian (b) Geographical meridian
(d) Magnetic fields are vector quantities
(c) North meridian (d) South meridian
11. When a bar magnet is broken into two pieces?
4. The similar magnets of steel are ................. than the magnets (a) we will have a single pole on each piece
of soft iron (b) each piece will have two like poles
(a) stronger (b) of equal strength (c) each piece will have two unlike poles
(c) weaker (d) none of the above (d) each piece will be lose magnetism
5. A bar of soft iron is placed flat on the table. A bar magnet is 12. The permanent magnets are kept with soft iron pieces at
taken and its south pole is placed on one end of the bar of ends as keepers
soft iron. The magnet is held almost vertically. The bar is (a) to magnetise the soft iron pieces
stroked from one end to the other with magnet. On the other (b) to increase the strength of the magnets
end of the bar, magnet is lifted and again placed on the first (c) to avoid self demagnetisation
end and the bar is again stroked. The end of the bar where (d) for physical safety of the magnets
the magnet is lifted will be 13. The vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field is
(a) south pole (a) zero at the magnetic pole
(b) no pole (b) zero at the geographic pole
(c) south and north both type (c) same everywhere
(d) north pole (d) zero at the magnetic equator
6. The angle of decilination at a place is the angle 14. A small piece of a substance gas repelled when it is brought
(a) between the vertical plane and the geographical near a powerful magnet. The substance can be
meridian (a) dimagnetic (b) paramagnetic
(b) between the vertical plane and the magnetic meridian (c) ferromagnetic (d) non-magnetic
(c) between the geographical meridian and the magnetic 15. Whenever the magnetic flux linked with a coil changes, an
induced e.m.f. is produced in the circuit. The e.m.f. lasts
meridian
(a) for a short time
(d) between the geographical meridian and horizontal plane
(b) for a long time
7. The magnetism in a magnet is mainly due to
(c) for ever
(a) The orbital motion of the electrons
(d) so long as the change in flux takes place
(b) The spin motion of the electrons
16. A magnet is moved towards a coil (i) quickly (ii) slowly, then
(c) The nuclear charge
the induced e.m.f. is
(d) None of the above
(a) larger in case (i)
8. When the north pole of a strong magnet is brought near to
(b) smaller in case (i)
the north pole of a weak magnet then they will
(a) Attract each other (c) equal in both the cases
(d) larger or smaller depending upon the radius of the coil
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 229

17. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of (a) The net dipole moment of the loop directed towards
(a) charge (b) mass the magnet
(c) energy (d) momentum (b) The net dipole moment of the loop directed away from
18. The laws of electromagnetic induction have been used in the loop
(c) The loop gets attracted towards the magnet
the construction of a
(d) The loop gets repelled by the magnet.
(a) galvanometer (b) voltmeter
27. Which of the following statements are true about the
(c) electric motor (d) generator
magnetic susceptibility m of paramagnetic substance
19. Whenever, current is changed in a coil, an induced e.m.f. is
produced in the same coil. This property of the coil is due to (a) value of m is inversely proportional to the absolute
(a) mutual induction (b) self induction temperature of the sample
(c) eddy currents (d) hysteresis (b) m is positive at all temperature
20. If N is the number of turns in a coil, the value of self (c) m is negative at all temperature
inductance varies as
(d) m does not depend on the temperature of the sample
(a) N0 (b) N
(c) N 2 (d) N–2 DIRECTIONS (Qs. 28-33) : Study the given paragraph(s) and
21. The S unit of inductance, henry, can be written as answer the following questions.
(a) weber/ampere (b) volt second/ampere Passage - I
(c) joule/ampere2 (d) all of these In a television tube, each of the electrons in the beam has a kinetic
22. Two coils are placed close to each other. The mutual energy of 12.0 keV. The tube is oriented so that the electrons
inductance of the pair of coils depends upon move horizontally from geomagnetic south to geomagnetic north.
(a) relative position and orientation of the two coils. The vertical component of earth s magnetic field points down
and has a magnitude of 55.0 T.
(b) the materials of the wires of the coils.
28. The direction in which beam deflects :
(c) the currents in the two coils (a) east (b) west
(d) the rates at which currents are changing in the two (c) north-east (d) south-west
coils 29. The acceleration of any electron due to the magnetic field is :
23. The current in a generator armature is AC because
(a) the magnetic field reverses at intervals
(a) 3.14 1014 m / s 2 (b) 4.28 1014 m / s 2
(b) the current in the field coils is AC (c) 5.56 1012 m / s 2 (d) 6.28 1014 m / s 2
(c) the rotation of the armature causes the field through it 30. The transverse deflection of the beam after travelling
to reverse 20.0 cm through the television tube :
(d) the commutator feeds current into it in opposite (a) 1.96 mm (b) 2.98 mm
directions every half cycle (c) 4.24 mm (d) none of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 24-27): This section contains multiple choice Passage II
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out Modern Trains are based on Maglev technology in which trains
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct. are magnetically leviated, which runs its EDS Maglev System.
24. A proton moving with a constant velocity passes through a These are coils on both sides of wheels. Due to motion of train
region of space without any change in its velocity. If E and current induces in the coil of track which levitate it. This is in
B represent the electric and magnetic fields repectivelmy, accordance with Lenz’s law. If trains lower down, then due to
this region of space may have: Lenz’s law a repulsive force increases due to which train gets
(a) E = 0, B = 0 (b) E = 0, B 0 uplifted and if it goes much high then there is a net downward
(c) E 0, B = 0 (d) E 0, B 0 force due to gravity. The advance of Maglev train is that there is
25. In which of the following cases does the electromagnetic no friction ebtween the trains and the track, thereby reducing
induction occur – power consumption and enabling the train to attain very high
(a) a current is started in a wire held near a loop of wire speeds. Disadvantage of Maglev train is that as it slows down
(b) the current is stopped in a wire held near a loop of wire the electromagnetic force decreases and it become difficult to
(c) a magnet is moved through a loop of wire keep it leviated and as it moves forwards, according to Lenz’s law
(d) a loop of wire is held near a magnet there is an electromagnetic drop force.
26. Figure shows a loop model (loop L) for a diamagnetic 31. What is the advantage of this system?
material. (a) No friction, hence no power consumption
(b) No electric power is used
(c) Gravitation force is zero
(d) Electrostatic force draws the train
 EBD_7005
230 PHYSICS
32. What is the disadvantage of this system? 34. Assertion : A proton moves horizontally towards a vertical
(a) Train experiences an upward force according to Lenz’s long conductor having an upward electric current. It will
law deflect vertically downward.
(b) Friction force creates a drag on the train Reason : Seeing the proton and the conductor from the side
(c) Retardation of the proton, the magnetic field at the site of the proton will
(d) By Lenz’s law, train experiences a drag
33. Which force causes the train to elevate up? be towards right. Hence the force F qv B will deflect
(a) Electrostatic force
(b) Time varying electric field the proton vertically downward.
(c) Magnetic force 35. Assertion : An induced e.m.f. appears in any coil in which
(d) Induced electric field the current is changing.
Reason : Self induction phenomenon obeys Faraday's law
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 34-37): Each of these questions contains an of induction.
Assertion followed by reason. Read them carefully and answer 36. Assertion : Lenz's law violates the principle of conservation
the question on the basis of following options. You have to select of energy.
the one that best describes the two statements. Reason : Induced e.m.f. always opposes the change in
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the magnetic flux responsible for its production.
correct explanation of Assertion. 37. Assertion : When number of turns in a coil is doubled,
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not coefficient of self-inductance of the coil becomes 4 times.
the correct explanation of Assertion.
Reason : This is because L N².
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 38-39) : Following question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and four statements (p, q, r
and s) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with one or more statement(s) given in Column II.
Match the entries in column I with entries in column II.

38. In magnetic field, for a charged particle, match the entries of column I with the entries of column II.
Column I Column II
(A) Acceleration (p) may be zero
(B) Velocity (q) is zero
(C) Speed (r) may be constant
(D) Kinetic energy (s) is constant
A B C D
(a) p r s s
(b) s p q r
(c) p, q s r, s q
(d) q, s q, r s s
39. Two wires each carrying a steady current I are shown in four configurations in Column I. Some of the resulting effects are
described in Column II. Match the statements in Column I with the statements in column II
Column I Column II
(A) Point P is situated midway between (p) The magnetic fields (B) at P due to the currents
the wires. in the wires are in the same direction.

(B) Point P is situated at the mid-point of the (q) The magnetic fields (B) at P due to the currents
line joining the centers of the circular in the wires are in opposite directions.
wires, which have same radii.

P
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 231

(C) Point P is situated at the mid-point of the (r) There is no magnetic field at P.
line joining the centers of the circular
wires, which have same radii.

(D) Point P is situated at the common center (s) The wires repel each other.
of the wires.

A B C D
(a) p, r r, s q, s s
(b) s p q r
(c) q, r p q, r q, s
(d) q, s q, r s s
42. An electron is projected with a velocity of 105 m/s at right
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 40-45): Following are integer based/Numeric angles to a magnetic field of 0.019G . Calculate the radius of
based questions. Each question, when worked out will result in the circular path described by the electron, if charge of electron
one integer or numeric value. e = 1.6×10–19 C, and mass of electron m = 9.1 × 10–31 kg.
40. At a certain position, earth s magnetic field of 39 T is 43. Find the self inductance of a coil in which an e.m.f. of 10 V is
horizontal and directed due north. Suppose the net field is induced when the current in the circuit changes uniformly
zero exactly 8.0 cm above a long, straight, horizontal wire from 1 A to 0.5 A in 0.2 sec.
that carries a constant current. What are (a) the magnitude 44. The mutual inductance of a pair of coils is 0.75 H. If current
and (b) the direction of the current ? in the primary coil changes from 0.5 A to zero in 0.01 s find
41. A wire PQRSTU (with each side of length L) bent as shown average induced e.m.f. in secondary coil.
in figure and carrying a current I is placed in a uniform 45. An AC generator of 220 V having internal resistance r = 10
magnetic field B parallel to positive y direction. What is the and external resistance R = 100 . What is the power
force experienced by the wire? developed in the external circuit?
z
S

R
T
U
y
B
P
x Q
 EBD_7005
232 PHYSICS

SO L U T I O N S
Brief Explanations
of
Selected Questions

to the plane of paper inward and

Direction of magnetic field outside the loop – Perpendicular
to the plane of paper outward.
Fill in the Blanks : 5. (a) Natural and artificial magnets. (b) Electromagnets (c) A
1. small 2. magnetic field current carrying conductor produces magnetic field.
3. greater. 4. magnetic 6. The force experienced by a current-carrying conductor
5. right-hand 6. north magnetic placed in a magnetic field is largest when the direction of
7. electromagnets 8. tesla current is at right-angles to the direction of the magnetic
9. Weber 10. magnetic field.
11. S 12. field, current 7. Oersted’s experiment demonstrates the magnetic effect of
13. downward 14. currents current. It showed experimentally that the current flowing
15. clockwise 16. increase through a conductor produces a magnetic field.
17. circles 18. None 8. (i) Bar type (ii) Horse shoe type
19. south 13. (i) Along the axis of the coil inwards
20. electrical, electromagnetic induction. (ii) Along the axis of the coil outwards.
21. 220 V, 50 Hz. 22. 60 Hz 15. Magnetic field lines at any point constitute the field of a
23. magnetic 24. commutator magnet indicating that a north pole experiences a force at
25. A.C 26. self-induction that point.
27. henry 28. the magnetic flux 16. Magnetic field. It is a vector quantity.
29. 90 17. Fleming’s left hand rule.
18. M, B, I are represented by thumb, forefinger and middle
True / False :
finger of the right hand.
1. True 2. True 3. False 4. True 19. The A.C. generator has two slip rings.
5. False 6. True 7. True 8. True
20. Frequency of an alternating current is 50 Hz. It changes the
9. True 10. False 11. True 12. False
direction after every sec. i.e. the direction of current change
13. True 14. True 15. True 16. True
100 times per second.
17. False 18. False 19. False
21. 50 Hz.
Match the Following : 22. Anticlockwise from the side of the magnet.
1. (A) q, (B) s, (C) r, (D) p Short Answer Questions :
2. (A) r, (B) q, (C) s, (D) p 5. (i) The current through the solenoid should be direct
3. (A) r, (B) q, (C) r, (D) p current.
Very Short Answer Questions : (ii) The rod inside is made of a magnetic material such as
1. A compass needle gets deflected when brought near a bar steel.
magnet because magnetic force is exerted by the bar mag-
net on the compass needle, which is itself a tiny pivoted
magnet.
2. The current is in the east-west direction. Applying the right-
hand thumb rule, we get that the direction of magnetic field
at a point below the wire is from north to south. The direc- – + K
tion of magnetic field at a point directly above the wire is ()
from south to north. 6. Into the plane of paper at P and out of it at Q. The strength
3. Two magnetic lines of force never intersect each other. If of the magnetic field is larger at the point located closer i.e.
the lines intersect, then at the point of intersection there at Q.
would be two directions (the needle would point towards 7. The divergence, that is, the falling degree of closeness of
two directions) for the same magnetic field, which is not magnetic field lines indicates the fall in strength of magnetic
possible. field near and beyond the ends of the solenoid.
4. Direction of magnetic field inside the loop – Perpendicular
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 233

8. (i) The direction of the magnetic field is indicated by the 17. (i) The direction of magnetic field produced around a
arrow in the line at any point (Tangent). current-carrying conductor is given by right hand
(ii) The field lines come out of the north pole and get into thumb rule. If the conductor carrying current is held in
the south pole (closed loops are formed). the right hand in such a way that the thumb points in
(iii) The strength of magnetic field is indicated by the the direction of current, then direction of curl of fingers
closeness of the field lines. Closer the lines, more will gives the direction of the magnetic field.
be the strength and farther the lines, lesser will be the (ii) The direction of force experienced by a straight
field strength. conductor carrying-current placed in a magnetic field,
(iv) No two field lines will intersect each other if they which is perpendicular to it determined by Fleming’s
intersect there will be two different directions for field left hand rule. Hold the thumb and first two fingers of
at the same point which is not impossible. the left hand at right angles to each other with the first
F finger pointing the direction of the field and the second
9. The current is perpendicular to the field, B finger in the direction of the current, then the thumb
I
points in the direction of the motion.
2.4 10 4 N (iii) The direction of current induced in a circuit by
Therefore, B 6.7 10 5 N / A.m
(12A) (0.30m) changing magnetic flux due to motion of a magnet is
determined by Fleming’s right-hand rule. If we stretch
Since 1mT is 10–3 N/A.m, the answer can be written as
our right hand in such a way that the thumb, forefinger
0.067 mT
and central finger remain perpendicular to echo other,
10. With the wire perpendicular to the field,
so that the forefinger indicates the direction of the
F I B (1.5A) (0.20m) (0.040T) 0.012 N magnetic field and the thumb in the direction of motion
11. Point you left fingers upward, since your are dealing with a of conductor. Then the central finger indicates the
negative charge. Rotate your hand until the thumb points direction of induced current.
east. Your palm will point northward, and that is the direction 18. Principle : It is based on the principle of electromagnetic
of the force. induction, which is the process of producing induced current
12. Concentric lines around the two ends of the conductor and in a coil by relative motion between a magnet and the coil.
straight lines at the centre of the conductor. Function of brushes : The brushes carry the contact from
13. A cylindrical coil of many tightly wound turns of insulated rings to external load resistance.
wires with generally diameter of the coil smaller than its
Long Answer Questions :
length is called a solenoid.
14. (i) Soft iron has less retentivity so it acquires the magnetic 1. The magnetic field produced around a straight current
properties only when the current flows through the carrying conductor is in the form of concentric circles with
coil wound on it and loses the magnetic properties as the centre lying on the straight conductor.
the current is switched off. Take a copper wire AB. Pass it through a cardboard. Connect
(ii) The soft iron intensifies the magnetic field of the the wire to a battery through a key. Sprinkle some iron filings
electromagnet because of its high permeability. on the cardboard. Switch on the key and tap the cardboard
15. Factors on which the strength of an electromagnet depends gently. You will find that the iron filings arrange themselves
are: in the form of concentric circles. Reverse the direction of
(1) Strength of electromagnet is directly proportional to current by changing the polarity of the battery. You will find
the diameter of coil (Area of cross-section). that this time too, the iron filings arrange themselves in
(2) Strength of an electromagnet depends upon the nature concentric circle but in opposite direction.
of the core. Hence, the magnetic field lines of force around a straight
(3) Strength of an electromagnet is directly proportional conductor carrying electric current are concentric circles
to the number of turns in coil. with the conductor at the centre. The direction of magnetic
(4) Strength of electromagnet is directly proportional to field changes if the direction of current is reversed.
current. 2. (i) The polarity acquired by the two ends is as shown
16. (i) A current is induced in a coil when a magnet is moved below. (A shows North and B shows South polarity
relative to the fixed coil.
(ii) A current is also induced in a coil when it is moved
(ii)
relative to a fixed magnet.
(iii) Not any current is induced in a coil when the coil and
magnet both are stationary relative to one another.
(iv) When the direction of motion of magnet or coil is
reversed, the direction of current induced in the coil Ammeter
also gets reversed.
 EBD_7005
234 PHYSICS
(iii) Increase the strength of current, increase the number 6. The labelled diagram is shown in figure.
of turns in the coil, insert soft iron rod in the coil.
3. (a) Given : Length of the wire ( ) = 0.4 m
Current (I) = 15A
S
Magnetic induction (B) = 0.1 N/Am N
To calculate : (i) Force (F) = ? (ii) Direction = ?
Formula to be used : F BI
Substituting the given values, Soft iron
F = 0.1 × 15 × 0.4 = 0.6 N Battery bar
(b) By Fleming’s left hand rule, forefinger (magnetic field)
points vertically downwards, the middle finger (current) Key Rheostat
+ –
points west and the thumb (force) points towards the ( )
south.
4. Figure shows the setting of the iron filings.
Precaution : The source of current must be the d.c. source.
Conductor

10. Armature
B coil
C
Cardboard N S
A Field
D
R1 magnet
B1
Slip rings

R2 B2
(i) The shape of distribution of iron filings remains RL
unchanged but they get arranged upto a larger Brushes
distance from the conductor when the strength of Load resistance
current is increased. This is because on increasing the
strength of current, the strength of the magnetic field Principle: A dynamo or generator is a device which converts
is increased and it is effective upto a larger distance mechanical energy into electrical energy. It is based on
from the conductor. the principle of electromagnetic induction.
(ii) Magnetic field strength is increased so the iron filings Construction: It consists of four main parts-
get arranged upto a larger distance. (i) Field magnet: It produces the magnetic field. For a
5. Figure represents the magnetic lines of force due to current low power dynamo, the magnetic field in generated
by a permanent magnet but for a large power dynamo,
carrying coil.
the magnetic field is produced by an electromagnet.
(ii) Armature: It consists of a large number of turns of
insulated copper wire on a soft iron core. It can
Coil revolve round the axis between the two poles of the
field magnet. The soft iron core provides support to
the coils and increases the magnetic field through
the coil.
Cardboard
(iii) Slip rings: The slip rings R1 and R2 are two metal
rings to which the ends of the armature coil are
connected. These rings are fixed to the shaft which
Current rotates the armature coil so that the rings also rotate
along with the armature.
The magnitude of magnetic field at the centre depends on (iv) Brushes (B1 and B2): These are flexible metal plates
(i) the strength of current in the coil and (ii) the radius of or carbon rods which are fixed and constantly touch
coil. the revolving rings. The output current in external
load resistance R1 is taken through these brushes.
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 235

Working: When the armature coil is rotated in the strong

magnetic field, the magnetic flux linked the coil changes
and the current is induced in the coil. The direction of
current is given by Flemming’s left hand rule. It remains
same during the first half turn of the armature. During the
6.
second half revolution, the direction of current is reversed.
If N is the number in the coil, f is the frequency of
rotation, A is the area of the coil and B is the magnetic field
Magnetic field lines are parallel straight lines for a uniform
intensity then induced e.m.f..
field. The lines are closer for a strong field and for away
d d for a weak one.
e= – = (NBA cos 2pft) = 2pNBAf sin 2pft
dt dt 7. (d)
Therefore, the e.m.f. produced is alternating in nature and 8. (b, c, d)
the current is also alternating. 9. We know that when a current carrying conductor is kept
Current produced in a.c. generator can not be measured in a magnetic field, the force acting on it is given by
by moving coil galvanometer, because average value of F = BIL
a.c. over full cycle is zero. (i) F I I increases then force increases, hence,
displacement is more
(ii) F B B increases then force increases, hence,
displacement is more
(iii) F L L increases then force increases, hence,
displacement is more
Text-Book Questions :
10. (d) upward, according to the Fleming’s Right Hand
1. Compass needle is a tiny magnet, so due to force of
Thumb Rule.
repulsion or attraction between the poles of a magnet,
there is a deflection in the compass needle. 11. Refer to theory.
12. Refer to theory.
13. The split ring acts as a commutator. The reversal of current
2. also reverses the direction of force acting on the arms of the
coil. At this stage, the commutator reverses the direction of
N S
currrent.
14 (a) Either coil or a magnet should be in motion relative to
each other.
(b) If there is a relative motion between a current carrying
3. Magnetic field lines emerge from N-pole and enter S-pole. coil and a coil without current.
The magnetic field strength is represented 15. Refer to Theory.
diagrammatically by the degree of closeness of the field 16. (i) Electro chemical cells (ii) Lead accumulator (iii) D.C.
lines. Field lines cannot cross each other as two values of net Generator.
field at a single point cannot exist. Only one value, a unique 17. A.C. generator, hydropower stations, etc.
net value, can exist. If in a given region, lines of field are 18. (c) half revolution
shown to be parallel and equispaced, the field is understood 19. (a) A fuse of proper rating should be used to avoid
to be uniform. damages due to short circuiting and overloading.
4. Because we cannot have two directions of the magnetic (b) Earthing should be provided to avoid shocks when
field at the same point. the live wire touches the body of the appliances.
V2
5. 20. P
R
+ 220 220 220 220
2 103 R
N– S R 2 103
– V 220 2 103 100
I 9.09A
R 220 220 11
At this stage, due to very high value of current, oven will
be damaged.
 EBD_7005
236 PHYSICS
21. We can avoid overloading by not connecting too many 17. Electric short circuit occurs when
appliances to a single socket. (i) a current of value more than its rating passes through
Text-Book Exericse : a wire;
(ii) the live wire touches with the earth or neutral-wire;
1. (d) The field consists of concentric circles centred on
(iii) the insulation of the wires is weak;
the wire according to Maxwell’s Right Hand Grip Rule.
(iv) over load is provided in the circuit.
2. (c) Producing induced current in a coil due to relative
18. The earth wire is a wire which connects a given appliance
motion between a magnet & the coil.
to the earth. It is used as a safety measure especially for
3. (a) Generator. It is also called alternator.
4. (d) AC generator has slip rings while the DC generator electric appliances having a metallic body. Whenever the
has a commutator. live wire touches the body of the appliance, the current
5. (c) Increases heavily passes to the earth and the user doesn’t suffer a severe
6. (a) F, (b) T, (c) T, (d) F. electric shock.
7. (i) A natural manget (ii) A current carrying conductor (iii) Exemplar Questions :
A solenoid. 1. In the plane of the paper itself. The axis of the compass is
8. A coil of many circular turns of insulated copper wire in vertical and the field due to the conductor is also vertical. It
the shape of a cylinder is called a solenoid. One end of a could result in a dip of compass needle which is not possible
solenoid behaves like north pole and the other end as in this case (dips result only if axis of compass is horizontal).
south pole. The field lines inside the solenoid are in the The deflection is maximum when the conductor through A
form of parallel lines. So, the field is uniform inside the is perpendicular to the plane of paper and the field due to it
solenoid. is maximum in the plane of the paper.
Yes, If we bring the north pole of a bar magnet near one 2. (i) The current through the solenoid should be direct
end of a current carrying solenoid and if it is attracted, current.
then this end behaves as south pole & the other end is (ii) The rod inside is made of a magnetic material such as
north pole. steel.
9. We know that the force experienced by a current carrying
conductor in a magnetic field is
F = BIL sin .
So, if (i.e., angle between the direction of magnetic field
and current carrying conductor) is maximum i.e., 90°, then
the force is maximum. – + K
( )
10. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane containing
the beam of electrons and the force acting on it.
3. Into the plane of paper at P and out of it at Q. The strength
11. Refer to theory.
12. (a) Fan (b) Motor cycle of the magnetic field is larger at the point located closer i.e.,
(c) Cooler (d) Air conditioner. at Q.
13. (i) When a bar magnet with its north pole facing the coil 4. (i) Yes, Alpha particles being positively charged constitutes
is moved towards the coil, the galvanometer shows a a current in the direction of motion. (ii) No. The neutrons
deflection. being electrically neutral constitute no current.
(ii) When a bar magnet is moved away from the coil 5. Direct current always flows in one direction but the
galvanometer again shows deflection but now in alternating current reverses its direction periodically. The
opposite direction. frequency of AC in India is 50 Hz and in each cycle it alters
(iii) When the bar magnet is stationary near the coil, no direction twice. Therefore AC changes direction 2 × 50
= 100 times in one second.
deflection in the galvanometer is observed. 6. Current carrying loops behave like bar magnets and both
14. Yes, we know that larger the current, stronger will be the have their associated lines of field. This modifies the already
magnetic field. As there is change in current in coil A, existing earth’s magnetic field and a deflection results.
there is a decrease in the number of magnetic field lines Magnetic field has both direction and magnitude. Magnetic
passing through coil B and hence, due to change in the field lines emerge from N-pole and enter S-pole. The magnetic
number of magnetic field lines, there is an induced current field strength is represented diagrammatically by the degree
in coil B. of closeness of the field lines. Field lines cannot cross each
15. (i) Maxwell’s Right Hand Thumb Rule other as two values of net field at a single point cannot
(ii) Fleming’s Left Hand Rule exist. Only one value, a unique net value, can exist. If in a
(iii) Fleming’s Right Hand Rule given region, lines of field are shown to be parallel and
16. Refer to theory. equispaced, the field is understood to be uniform.t
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 237

Hots Questions :
(ii) directly proportional to the number of turns. (B N)
1. Direction of magnetic field inside the loop is perpendicular (iii) directly proportional to the current passing through it.
to the plane of paper inward and direction of magnetic field (B I)
outside the loop is perpendicular to the plane of paper 9. Four times
outward.
10. (i) In figure, the current in the coil is in
2. The current is in the east-west direction. Applying the right- direction DCBA. By Fleming’s left hand rule, on the
hand thumb rule, we get that the direction of magnetic field arm AB, the force is outward at right angles to the
at a point below the wire is from north to south. The direction plane of the coil. On the arm BC no force acts. On the
of magnetic field at a point directly above the wire is from arm CD, the force is inwards perpendicular to the plane
south to north. of the coil. On the arm DA, no force acts.
(ii) The force on the arms AB and CD are equal in magni-
3. The force experienced by a current-carrying conductor
tude, but opposite in direction. They form a clock-
placed in a magnetic field is largest when the direction of wise couple. So the coil will rotate clockwise with the
current is at right-angles to the direction of the magnetic arm AB coming out and the arm CD going in.
field. (iii) On interchanging the terminals of the battery, the
4. (i) In electric field, there is always a force on the moving coil will rotate anticlockwise.
electron opposite to the direction of field. Thus the 11. Yes, our metal cars moving over a wide, closed loop of
force will be zero only if field is zero. wire embedded in a road surface, change the magnetic
(ii) In magnetic field, the force acting on a moving electron field of the earth within the loop.
This change in the magnetic field induces currents in the
is F = q v B sin , it is zero if = 0° or 180° wire loops and a current pulse is produced.
i.e., the electron is moving parallel to the direction of At a traffic intersection, the color of the traffic light changes
magnetic field. as a result of these current pulses.
5. It assumes circular shape with its plane normal to the field 12. As soon as the piece of metal changes the magnetic field
to maximize flux, since for a given perimeter, a circle encloses in the coil, voltage is induced which sounds an alarm and
greater area than any other shape. the security personnel detect the metal.
6. If electron passing through a certain region does not suffer 13. The direction of induced current will be anti-clockwise i.e.
any deflection, then we are not sure that there is no magnetic along PSRQP. This is given by Flemming’s right hand rule.
field in that region. This is due to that electron suffers no
force when it moves parallel or antiparallel to magnetic field.
Thus the magnetic field may exist parallel or antiparallel to
the direction of motion of electron.
Single Option Correct :
7. Pure iron is not used for making permanent magnets because it
cannot retain their magnetism for long time and used only for 1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (a)
electromagnet since alloys of iron and steel have strongly 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (b)
magnetised and have a capacity to hold it for a longer time 11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c)
period, they are used for permanent magnets. 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (d)
Material used for permanent magnet–ALNICO. Formation of a 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (b)
permanent magnet electrically. Permanent magnets can be 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (d)
formed by placing a hard steel rod in the strong uniform magnetic 31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (b)
field produced by the solenoid. Steels have the quality to retain 36. (c) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (a)
its magnetism after switch off the solenoid current. 41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (d)
Permanent magnets are used in
46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (b)
(i) Galvanometer
(ii) Ammeter. More Than One Option Correct :
8. The strength of the magnetic field produced at the centre of 1. (a, b, c) 2. (a, c) 3. (a, b, c) 4. (a, d)
a circular coil of radius r, having N turns and carrying a 5. (b, c, d) 6. (b, c) 7. (a, d) 8. (a, c, d)
current, I, is given by 9. (a, b, c) 10. (a, b, c)
0 NI Passage Based Questions :
B testla
2r
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (c)
Thus, the strength of a magnetic field in the coil is
(i) inversely proportional to the radius of the loop. Assertion & Reason :
1. (b) In the case of metallic rod, the charge carries flow
1
B through whole of the cross section. Therefore, the
r
 EBD_7005
238 PHYSICS
magnetic field exists both inside as well as outside. B B
However magnetic field inside the rod will go no by F Pm , where is the increment of B along
r r
decreasing as we go towards the axis.
magnetic dipole moment of contour. You can write the
2. (c) From equation F = qvB sin . Force on moving charge will expression for magnetic field due to solenoid at a general
be maximum if direction of velocity of charge is point and then differentiate it. From this information, you
perpendicular to direction of magnetic field (when = 90°) can have the results. Whether the force is attractive or
3. (a) repulsive can also be found by using the concept of nature
4. (a) Magnetic force is always perpendicular to the direction of poles induced on the solenoid and coil.
of motion of charged particle, i.e., work done on the The force comes out to be zero at centre and as we approach
charge particle moving on a circular path in magnetic it from some outside point, its value increases.
field is zero. For D: The coil first rotates to allign itself in such a manner
5. (b) The wires are parallel to each other but the direction of so as to link the maximum flux and then the case would be
current in it is in same direction so they attract each same as that of C.
other. If the current in the wire is in opposite direction Integer/Numeric Question:
then wires repel each other. When the currents are in 1. When a charged particle is moving in a uniform magnetic
opposite directions, the magnetic forces are reversed field it experiences a force in a direction, perpendicular to
and the wires repels each other its direction of motion. Due to which the speed of the
6. (d) When current flows through a solenoid, the currents charged particle remains unchanged and work done on it is
in the various turns of the solenoid are parallel and in zero, hence its kinetic energy remains same.
2. To detect the presence of the magnetic field created by the
the same direction. Since the currents flowing through
current in a circular loop at the centre, one can draw the
parallel wires in the same direction lead to force of magnetic field lines with the help of compass needle. The
attraction between them, the turns of the solenoid will magnetic field lines appear as a straight line at the centre and
also attract each other and as a result the solenoid other lines appear in the same direction without the loop.
tends to contract. Direction of field is given by the right hand thumb’s rule.
7. (c) In a conductor, the average velocity of electrons is Right hand thumb rule. Hold the wire in your right hand
zero. Hence no current flows through the conductor. with your extended thumb pointing in the direction of
Hence, no force acts on this conductor. current. Your folded fingers will indicate the direction of
magnetic field around the wire.
8. (b) The torque acting on a coil is given by,
3. B = ?, I = 2 A, L = 3 m
NIAB sin F=1N
where is the angle between the plane of the coil and F=BIL
1
the direction of magnetic field. When = 90°, then = 1=2×3×B =B
6
0. The coil tries to orient itself in this position. Thus in B = 0.16 Tesla
equilibrium, the coil acquires a position, such that its 4. r = 22 cm = 0.22 m, n = 14, I = 5A, 0
plane makes an angle 90° with the direction of magnetic = 4 × 10 7 Tm/A
I 4 p 10 7 5 102
field. B = n × 0 = 14 ×
9. (a) In case of the electric field of an electric dipole, the 2r 2 122
22 10 5 5
electric lines of force originate from positive charge = 14 × 2 × × = 20 × 10 5 Tesla.
7 22
and, end at negative charge. Since, isolated magnetic 5. r = 0.05 m., n = 500, I = 1 A,
lines are closed continuous loops extending 7
0 = 4 × 10 Tm/A
throughout the body of magnet, hence they from 7
In 4 10 1 500
B= 0 =
endless curves. 2r 2 0.05
10. (c) Force acting on each pair of the opposite sides of the = 6.28 × 10 3 T..
coil are eq. 6. r = 0.01 m., 0 = 4 × 10 7 Tm/A, I = 2A
I 4 10 7 2
11. (a)S B= 0 = = 4 × 10 5 T
2 r 2 0.01
Muliple Matching Question: 7. 7
0 = 4 × 10 Tm/A; r = 15 cm = 0.15 m; I = 60A
1. (c) A r; B p ; C p; D s n = 20 turns
The force experienced by a coil in a magnetic field is given
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 239

n 0I 20 4 10 7 60 axial line towards right. Similarly, the magnetic field at P due

B= = = 5 × 10 3 T
2r 2 0.15 to current in loop B is also along the axial line towards right.
8. I = 5A, L = 0.04 m, B = 0.30 T C : q, r
F = B × I × L = 0.30 × 5 × 0.04 = 0.06 N
9. B = 4 T, Q = 1.6 × 10 19 C, V = 3.5 × 10 7 m/s The magnetic field due to current in loop A at P is equal and
F = B × Q × V = 4 × 1.6 × 10 19 × 3.5 × 10 7 opposite to the magnetic field due to current in loop B at P.
= 2.24 × 10 11 N D : q, s
The direction of magnetic field at P due to current in loop A
is perpendicular to the plane of paper directed vertically
upwards.
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) The direction of magnetic field at P due to current in loop B
5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (a) is perpendicular to the plane of paper directed vertically
9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (c) downward.
13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (a) Since the current are in opposite direction the wires repel
17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (c) each other.
21. (d ) 22. (a) 23. (c) 40. The magnetic field of earth at that point becomes zero, when
24. (a, d) wire produces equal and opposite field. So
25. (a, b, c) µ0 i
. = BH
26. (b, d) The near face of the loop behaves like south pole and 2 r
far face as north pole. So loop will be repelled by the
magnet. i BH r (39 10 6 ) 0.08
= 7
( µ0 / 2 ) 2 10
16 A from west to east
N S
41. If we join P to U by a straight conductor it will become a
C closed loop and as in case of closed loop in a uniform
27. (a, b) m .
(T TC ) magnetic field,

28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (b) z

31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (c) S
34. (a)
35. (b) R
36. (a) Lenz's law (that the direction of induced e.m.f. is always T
such as to oppose the change that cause it) is direct U
consequence of the law of conservation of energy. y
37. (b) B
38. (a) Work done by magnetic force is zero. From work-energy P
x Q
theorem, its speed or kinetic-energy is constant.
39. (c) A : q, r
If FW is the force on the given network of wires and F on
The magnetic field at P due to current flowing in AB is
perpendicular to the plane of paper acting vertically the wire PU, then
downward. And the magnetic field at P due to current flowing FW F 0 i.e., FW F
in CD is perpendicular to the plane of paper acting vertically
upwards. But as F' = B I L sin90° along negative z-axis,
Therefore, q is correct.
so, FW = B I L along z-axis
As P is the mid point, the two magnetic fields, cancel out
each other. Therefore, r is correct. 42. Given : v = 105 m/s ; e=1.6 × 10–19 C;
B:p m = 9.1 × 10–31 kg; B = 0.019 G = 0.019 × 10–4 T
The magnetic field at P due to current in loop A is along the
 EBD_7005
240 PHYSICS

9.1 10 31 105 dI
mv e M 0.75 50 37.5 V
r= = = 0.299 m dt
Be 0.019 10 4 1.6 10 19
45. = 220V; r = 10
dI 1 0.5 0.5
43. Given : e = 10 V and 2.5 A / s R = 10 + 100 = 110
dt 0.2 0.2
V 220
e 10 I 2A
Self inductance of coil L 4H R 110
dI / dt 2.5
P = I2R = 4 × 100 = 400 W
dI
e L (considering magnitude only)
dt

dI 0.5 0
44. Given : M = 0.75 H and 50 A / s
dt 0.01
Average induced e.m.f. in secondary coil
 SOURCES OF ENERGY
Chapter

5
INTRODUCTION

We use energy to do work. Energy lights our cities. Energy powers our vehicles, trains, planes and rockets. Energy
warms our homes, cooks our food, plays our music, gives us pictures on television. Energy powers machinery in
factories and tractors on a farm. Energy from the sun gives us light during the day. It dries our clothes when they’re
hanging outside on a clothes line. It helps plants grow. Energy stored in plants is eaten by animals, giving them
energy. And predator animals eat their prey, which gives the predator animal energy. Everything we do is con-
nected to energy in one form or another. Energy is defined as “the ability to do work.”

When we eat, our bodies transform the energy stored in the food into energy to do work. When we run or walk, we
“burn” food energy in our bodies. When we think or read or write, we are also doing work (everyday meaning not
scientific meaning). Cars, planes, light bulbs, boats and machinery also transform energy into work. Work means
moving something, lifting something, warming something, lighting something. All these are a few of the various
types of work. But where does energy come from? There are many sources of energy. Energy is an important part of
our daily lives.

Various forms of energy includes: Electricity, Biomass energy - energy from plants, Geothermal energy, Fossil Fuels
- Coal, Oil and Natural gas, Hydro power and Ocean energy, Nuclear energy, Solar energy, Wind energy.

All forms of energy are stored in different ways, in the energy sources that we use everyday. These sources are
divided into two groups -- renewable (an energy source that can be replenished in a short period of time) and
non-renewable (an energy source that we are using up and cannot recreate in a short period of time). Renewable and
non-renewable energy sources can be used to produce secondary energy sources including electricity.
 EBD_7005
242 PHYSICS
GOOD SOURCE OF ENERGY
A good source of energy would be one which would do a large amount of work per unit volume or mass, be easily accessible, be
easy to store and transport, and perhaps most importantly, be economical. so evaluation criteria for good source of energy are:
Capital Costs, Operating costs, efficiency, Is it renewable? Energy storage requirements, Pollution, Environmental
modification, Levelized cost to the consumer, Feasibility on large scale, unit Capacity .

CONVENTIONAL SOURCES OF ENERGY

Fossil Fuels
Fossil fuels are hydrocarbon based natural resources that were formed over 300 hundred millions of years ago by the fossilization
of prehistoric plants and animals. There are three major forms of fossil fuels: coal, oil and natural gas. We have learned to harness
the energy released from these fossil fuels during combustion in order to meet our energy needs. Fossil fuels are a common
source of energy we use everyday. They are used to generate the electricity that runs our household appliances, fuel the motors
of our cars, and heat our homes. Fossil fuels are currently essential to providing the energy needs of our everyday lives.
Although the supplies of these fossil fuels are vast, they are not unlimited. Fossil fuels are depleting at an alarming rate. They
are a non-renewable resource and we are consuming vast quantities of them every day. Varying estimates project a complete
depletion of oil and natural gas within anywhere from 40-100 years. Coal is the most abundant of the three and will last for about
another 230 years. It is very likely that within our life times that one of these fossil fuels, if not more, will be completely consumed
from the planet. And more important, the earth’s atmosphere and biosphere may not survive the environmental impact of burning
such enormous amounts of these fuels. Global warming is directly associated with the increase in greenhouse gases produced
from the burning of fossil fuels. Carbon stored over millions of years is being released in a matter of decades, disrupting the
earth’s carbon cycle in unpredictable ways.
But fossil fuels are not the only source of energy, and burning fuel is not the only way to produce heat and motion. Renewable
energy offers us a better way. Some energy sources are “renewable” because they are naturally replenished, because they can be
managed so that they last forever, or because their supply is so enormous that they can never be meaningfully depleted by
humans. Moreover, renewable energy sources have much smaller environmental impacts than fossil and nuclear fuels.

Thermal Power Plant

A thermal power station comprises all of the equipment and systems required to produce electricity by using a steam generating
boiler fired with fossil fuels or biofuels to drive an electrical generator. Such power stations are most usually constructed on a
very large scale and designed for continuous operation.

Steam

Turbine

Water
Power generator

Steam

Fig. 5.1 The principle of aclassical power plant

Electricity generation in thermal power plants includes firing of coal, gas or mazout. Steam is produced in a boiler, and it drives a
turbine connected to a generator. Heat energy is converted to electric energy within the so-called steam cycle.
A thermal plant comprises several separate production units with specific size and power.
A conventional power plant consists of a boiler room, interposed machine room, machine room, electric power output, and
auxiliary operations (coal loading, water treatment, water management, back fuel cycle, etc.). The following types of thermal
power plants exist: condensating, whose main focus is generation of electricity, thermal plants whose main focus is combined
generation of electricity and heat.
In a conventional condensating type thermal power plant, the electricity generation part is dominated by arrangement in production
units. Every production unit of the power plant represents a separate generation entity a separate power plant. By the method of
Sources of Energy 243

combustion, solid fuel firing boilers are classified into grate, granulation, fusion, and fluidized-bed type. Boilers firing solid and
gas fuels are in addition to the above mentioned boilers.
Every power plant unit may be operated independently. The principle of operation is quite simple. Stockpile coal is moved by a
bulldozer into an underground bunker, wherefrom it is taken by a coaling belt into a coal holder located at every boiler. The coal
is gradually dried and ground to powder that is subsequently fired in the boiler. Pipe or membrane type evaporators are located
in the boiler walls; there, water turns into steam and the steam generated (of a high temperature and pressure) is led to steam
cylinder, wherefrom it is led through pre-heaters and postheaters via steam distribution pipes to turbine blades. The turbine is
connected to a generator.
Turbine and electric generator comprises a single train – turbogenerator. In the turbogenerator, heat energy is converted into
electric energy. Electric energy thus produced is led through a system of transformers and distribution grid to end-consumers.
Having delivered its energy to turbine blades, the steam condensates in heat exchanger – condenser. Upon passing the turbine,
the steam temperature and pressure get reduced. The steam changes its state and turns into water called condensate. Large
quantities of cooling energy are needed for steam to condensate. Surface water from a stream or a reservoir is used for cooling.
If there is a plenty of cooling water, flow-through system of cooling is used; circulation system of cooling with water being cooled
in cooling towers is used for places with insufficient supply of cooling water.
On their way to the stack, flue gases produced during the firing of coal heat water in economizer, which is a heat exchanger for
combustion gas. Cooled stack gases then pass through electrostatic filters where ash is caught, and continue to the stack.
To reduce nitrogen and sulfur oxides, desulfurization and denitrification equipment are installed to conventional boilers. For
fluidized-bed boilers, desulfurization and denitrification is resolved directly by the boiler technology.
You may have heard about NTPC largest thermal power generating company of India.
In 1995, India had an installed electrical generating capacity of 81 gigawatts (GW), of which 73 per cent was thermal. This is the
world’s sixth largest capacity and equal to that of France and the United Kingdom. India’s power sector has grown at an average
annual rate of 8.8 per cent since 1950, when installed capacity was only 2.3 GW. About 85 per cent of the country was electrified
in 1995. Despite the dramatic increase in power generation capabilities, India has been unable to keep up with its domestic
demand for electricity. India’s electricity is generated overwhelmingly by coal (70 per cent). Hydroelectricity ranks a distant
second (about 25 per cent), followed by natural gas, nuclear power, oil, and renewables.

Hydro Power Plants

When it rains in hills and mountains, the water becomes streams and rivers that run down to the ocean. The moving or falling
water can be used to do work. Energy, you’ll remember is the ability to do work. So moving water, which has kinetic energy, can
be used to make electricity.
For hundreds of years, moving water was used to turn wooden wheels that were attached to grinding wheels to grind (or mill)
flour or corn. These were called grist mills or water mills.
Hydro means water. Hydro-electric means making electricity from water power. In fact, humans have been using the energy in
moving water for thousands of years. Today hydroelectric power is the largest source of renewable power worldwide. A quarter
of our energy requirement in India is met by hydro power plants.
Hydroelectric power uses the kinetic energy of moving water to make electricity. Dams can be built to stop the flow of a river.
Water behind a dam often forms a reservoir.
The water behind the dam flows through the intake and into a
pipe called a penstock.
The principle of the operation of hydroelectric power plants
is conversion of mechanical energy into electric energy. Water
stream passes stable turbine vanes and thus directed water
stream hits water turbine blades of the turbine runner curved in
an opposite direction; in this way, the blades are turned, and
receive mechanical energy from water. Mechanical energy of
water is converted into mechanical energy of the shaft, and
subsequently to electric energy in electric generators. Electric
generators of hydroelectric power plants convert mechanical
energy to electric energy with a high efficiency. In synchronous
generators, electric energy is generated by inducing rotating
magnetic field of the rotor into stable generator stator coil. To
generate magnetic field of the rotor, excitation direct current is Control
needed generated in generator exciter. Gate

Fig : 5.2
 EBD_7005
244 PHYSICS
Hydroelectric generation can also work without dams, in a process known as diversion, or run-of-the-river. Portions of water from
fast-flowing rivers, often at or near waterfalls, can be diverted through a penstock to a turbine set in the river or off to the side.
The generating stations at Niagara Falls are an example of diversion hydropower. Another run-of-the-river design uses a
traditional water wheel on a floating platform to capture the kinetic force of the moving river. While this approach is inexpensive
and easy to implement, it doesn’t produce much power. The entire Amazon River, if harnessed this way, would produce only 650
MW of power.
Another type of hydropower, though not a true energy source, is pumped storage. In a pumped storage plant, water is pumped
from a lower reservoir to a higher reservoir during off-peak times, using electricity generated from other types of energy sources.
When the power is needed, it is released back into the lower reservoir through turbines. Inevitably, some power is lost, but
pumped storage systems can be up to 80 per cent efficient. Future increases in pumped storage capacity could result from the
integration of hydropower and wind power technologies. Researchers believe that hydropower may be able to act as a battery for
wind power by storing water during high wind periods.
Although an inexpensive and nonpolluting energy resource, the environmental damage caused hydropower can be serious. The
most obvious effect is that fish are blocked from moving up and down the river, but there are many more problems.
When a dam is constructed, a river habitat is replaced by a lake habitat. While this may not sound so bad – fish and birds like
lakes, too it can cause a number of environmental problems. Dams can create large reservoirs submerging what used to be dry
land, producing many problems. Population density is typically higher along rivers, leading to mass dislocation of urban centers.
Opposition to the construction of Tehri Dam on the river Ganga and Sardar Sarovar project on the river Narmada are due to such
problems.
Wildlife habitats destroyed by reservoirs can be especially valuable. Another problem can occur when the land area behind the
dam is flooded without proper preparation. Later, as the plants and trees that were submerged began to rot, they reduced the
oxygen content of the water, killing off the plants and fish in the water. Moreover, the rotting plants gave off large quantities of
methane, a powerful global warming gas.
Impoundments used for hydropower can cause many other effects on water quality and aquatic life. Rivers and lakes can be filled
with sediment from erosion. Water falling over spillways can force air bubbles into the water, which can be absorbed into fish
tissue, ultimately killing the fish. By slowing down rivers, the water can become stratified, with warm water on top and cold water
on the bottom. Since the cold water is not exposed to the surface, it loses its oxygen and becomes uninhabitable for fish.
The risk of a dam breaking should also not be ignored. The great Johnstown flood in Pennsylvania was the result of a dam break
(although not a hydroelectric dam); 2,000 people were killed. In northern India and Nepal, in the Himalayas, huge hydroelectric
projects are planned that would create large reservoirs in a geographically unstable region. Frequent earthquakes make the dam
a risky venture for heavily populated areas downstream. This is compounded by the fear that large, heavy reservoirs would put
additional pressure on the plates in the region, causing even more earthquakes. Finally, breakage could also result from war or
terrorism, as dams have been considered potential military targets in the past. The environmental and social effects of hydropower
can be immense. But while hydropower has its problems, it can still be a safe and sustainable source of electricity if proper
measures are taken. By upgrading and improving the equipment at plants, by increasing fish-friendly efforts at dams, and by
improving run-of-the-river turbine technology, it may be possible to reduce the environmental effects of hydropower. Nonetheless,
remediation may be impossible at some sites, and wild rivers should be unshackled.
It is also important to compare the environmental effects of hydropower with alternatives. The damage to aquatic habitat from
dams may be significant, but acid rain, nitrogen deposition, and thermal pollution from coal plants also lead to aquatic damage,
as well as to air pollution and global warming.

IMPROVEMENTS IN TECHNOLOGY FOR USING CONVENTIONAL SOURCES OF ENERGY

Bio-Mass
Biomass is matter usually thought of as garbage. Some of it is just stuff lying around–dead trees, tree branches, yard clippings,
left-over crops, wood chips and bark and sawdust from lumber mills. It can even include used tires and livestock manure.
Your trash, paper products that cannot be recycled into other paper products, and other household waste are normally sent to the
dump. Your trash contains some types of biomass that can be reused. Recycling biomass for fuel and other uses cuts down on
the need for “landfills” to hold garbage.
This stuff nobody seems to want can be used to produce electricity, heat, compost material or fuels. Composting material is
decayed plant or food products mixed together in a compost pile and spread to help plants grow.
A similar thing can be done at animal feed lots. In places where lots of animals are raised, the animals - like cattle, cows and even
chickens-produce manure. When manure decomposes, it also gives off methane gas similar to garbage. This gas can be burned
right at the farm to make energy to run the farm.
Biomass is a renewable energy source because the energy it contains comes from the sun. Through the process of photosynthesis,
chlorophyll in plants captures the sun’s energy by converting carbon dioxide from the air and water from the ground into
Sources of Energy 245

carbohydrates, complex compounds composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. When these carbohydrates are burned, they
turn back into carbon dioxide and water and release the sun’s energy they contain. In this way, biomass functions as a sort of
natural battery for storing solar energy. As long as biomass is produced sustainably—with only as much used as is grown the
battery will last indefinitely.
A number of noncombustion methods are available for converting biomass to energy. These processes convert raw biomass into
a variety of gaseous, liquid, or solid fuels that can then be used directly in a power plant for energy generation. The carbohydrates
in biomass, which are comprised of oxygen, carbon, and hydrogen, can be broken down into a variety of chemicals, some of
which are useful fuels. This conversion can be done in three ways:
(1) Thermochemical : When plant matter is heated but not burned, it breaks down into various gases, liquids, and solids. These
products can then be further processed and refined into useful fuels such as methane and alcohol. Biomass gasifiers capture
methane released from the plants and burn it in a gas turbine to produce electricity. Another approach is to take these fuels and
run them through fuel cells, converting the hydrogen-rich fuels into electricity and water, with few or no emissions.
(2) Biochemical : Bacteria, yeasts, and enzymes also break down carbohydrates. Fermentation, the process used to make wine,
changes biomass liquids into alcohol, a combustible fuel. A similar process is used to turn corn into grain alcohol or ethanol,
which is mixed with gasoline to make gasohol. Also, when bacteria break down biomass, methane and carbon dioxide are
produced. This methane can be captured, in sewage treatment plants and landfills, for example, and burned for heat and power.
(3) Chemical : Biomass oils, like soyabean and canola oil, can be chemically converted into a liquid fuel similar to diesel fuel, and
into gasoline additives. Cooking oil from restaurants, for example, has been used as a source to make “biodiesel” for trucks. (A
better way to produce biodiesel is to use algae as a source of oils.)

Bio-gas
Bio-gas is made from organic waste matter after it is decomposed. The decomposition breaks down the organic matter, releasing
various gases. The main gases released are methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen and hydrogen sulphide. Bacteria carry out the
decomposition or fermentation. The conditions for creating bio gas has to be anaerobic that is without any air and in the presence
of water. The organic waste matter is generally animal or cattle dung, plant wastes, etc. These waste products contain carbohydrates,
proteins and fat material that are broken down by bacteria. The waste matter is soaked in water to give the bacteria a proper
medium to grow. Absence of air or oxygen is important for decomposition because bacteria then take oxygen from the waste
material itself and in the process break them down.
There are two types of bio gas plants that are used in India. These plants mainly use cattle dung called “gobar” and are hence
called gobar gas plant. Generally a slurry is made from cattle dung and water, which forms the starting material for these plants.
The two types of bio-gas plants are : (1) Floating gas-holder type (2) Fixed dome type
Floating gas holder type of bio-gas plant :
The diagram below shows the details of a floating gas holder type of bio gas plant.

Spent slurry

Fig : 5.3
A well is made out of concrete. This is called the digester tank T. It is divided into two parts. One side has the inlet, from where
slurry is fed to the tank. The tank has a cylindrical dome H made of stainless steel that floats on the slurry and collects the gas
generated. Hence the name given to this type of plant is floating gas holder type of bio gas plant. The slurry is made to ferment
for about 50 days. As more gas is made by the bacterial fermentation, the pressure inside H increases. The gas can be taken out
through outlet pipe V. The decomposed matter expands and overflows into the next chamber in tank T. This is then removed by
the outlet pipe to the overflow tank and is used as manure for cultivation purposes.
 EBD_7005
246 PHYSICS
Fixed dome type of bio-gas plant :
The diagram below shows the details of a fixed dome type of bio gas plant.

Over flow
tank

Fig : 5.4
A well and a dome are made out of concrete. This is called the digester tank T. The dome is fixed and hence the name given to this
type of plant is fixed dome type of bio gas plant. The function of the plant is similar to the floating holder type bio gas plant. The
used slurry expands and overflows into the overflow tank F.
Bio gas is used as cooking fuel as it contains up to 75% methane and burns without smoke, has high calorific value, can be piped
into kitchens directly from a plant and is cheaper in cost.
Bio gas can be used to run electric engines such as pumps, as they cause less air pollution.
Bio gas can be used for street lighting as they do not cause any smoke and the illumination obtained can be made to be quite
adequate.

Wind Energy
Along with sun, it was the air, which showed man its power. Even before the solar energy, it was the wind energy that man used
for his work. Initially, it was used in two main ways; to drive wind mills on land and to drive sailing vessels at sea. The first use
of windmills were to grind foods grains and to run pumps to irrigate. Farmers have been using wind energy for many years to
pump water from wells using windmills. Now with the advancement of science and technology, we have windmills generating
electricity. Naturally, now this energy can be used for many more works.

Fig : 5.5(a) Wind mill Fig : 5.5(b) Wind farm

Wind is simple air in motion. It is caused by the uneven heating of the earth’s surface by the sun. Since the earth’s surface is made
of very different types of land and water, it absorbs the sun’s heat at different rates.
During the day, the air above the land heats up more quickly than the air over water. The warm air over the land expands and rises,
and the heavier, cooler air rushes in to take its place, creating winds. At night, the winds are reversed because the air cools more
rapidly over land than over water.
Sources of Energy 247

Fig : 5.6
In the same way, the large atmospheric winds that circle the earth are created because the land near the earth’s equator is heated
more by the sun than the land near the North and South Poles.
Top of the atmosphere
What makes the wind blow?
Wind is the response of the atmosphere to uneven heating conditions.
This creates pressure differences in the atmosphere causing the wind Weight of the air in the column
applies a pressure to point "X"
to blow from regions of high atmospheric pressure to low atmospheric
pressure. The larger the pressure difference the greater the wind
velocity.
Air pressure represents the amount of atmosphere that is pressing
down on the surface of the earth at some point, as shown here: Surface
Pressure differences yield wind (bulk motion of the air).
Wind can be used to do work. The kinetic energy of the ×
wind can be changed into other forms of energy, either
mechanical energy or electrical energy. Infact wind energy Unit area
Fig. 5.7
is the fastest growing source of electricity in the world.
Harnessing the wind is one of the cleanest, most sustainable ways to generate electricity. Wind power produces no toxic
emissions and none of the heat trapping emissions that contribute to global warming. This, and the fact that wind power is one
of the most abundant and increasingly cost-competitive energy resources, makes it a viable alternative to the fossil fuels that
harm our health and threaten the environment.
Blowing wind spins the blades on a wind turbine – just like a large toy pinwheel. This device is called a wind turbine and not a
windmill. A windmill grinds or mills grain, or is used to pump water.
The blades of the turbine are attached to a hub that is mounted on a turning shaft. The shaft goes through a gear transmission
box where the turning speed is increased. The transmission is attached to a high speed shaft which turns a generator that makes
electricity. If the wind gets too high, the turbine has a brake that will keep the blades from turning too fast and being damaged.
In order for a wind turbine to work efficiently, wind speeds usually must be above 12 to 14 miles per hour. Wind has to be this
speed to turn the turbines fast enough to generate electricity. The turbines usually produce about 50 to 300 kilowatts of electricity
each. A kilowatt is 1,000 watts (kilo means 1,000). You can light ten 100 watt light bulbs with 1,000 watts. So, a 300 kilowatt (300,000
watts) wind turbine could light up 3,000 light bulbs that use 100 watts.
Once electricity is made by the turbine, the electricity from the entire wind farm is collected together and sent through a
transformer. There the voltage is increase to send it long distances over high power lines.
The wind resource–how fast it blows, how often, and when–plays a significant role in its power generation cost. The power
output from a wind turbine rises as a cube of wind speed. In other words, if wind speed doubles, the power output increases eight
times. Therefore, higher-speed winds are more easily and inexpensively captured.
Wind speeds are divided into seven classes–with class one being the lowest, and class seven being the highest. A wind resource
assessment evaluates the average wind speeds above a section of land (usually 50 meters high), and assigns that area a wind
class. Wind turbines operate over a limited range of wind speeds. If the wind is too slow, they won’t be able to turn, and if too fast,
they shut down to avoid being damaged. Wind speeds in classes three (6.7 – 7.4 meters per second (m/s)) and above are typically
needed to economically generate power. Ideally, a wind turbine should be matched to the speed and frequency of the resource to
maximize power production.
The more the wind blows, the more power will be produced by wind turbines. But, of course, the wind does not blow consistently
all the time. The term used to describe this is “capacity factor,” which is simply the amount of power a turbine actually produces
 EBD_7005
248 PHYSICS
over a period of time divided by the amount of power it could have produced if it had run at its full rated capacity over that time
period.
A more precise measurement of output is the “specific yield.” This measures the annual energy output per square meter of area
swept by the turbine blades as they rotate. Overall, wind turbines capture between 20 and 40 percent of the energy in the wind.
So at a site with average wind speeds of seven m/s, a typical turbine will produce about 1,100 kilowatt-hours (kWh) per square
meter of area per year. If the turbine has blades that are 40 meters long, for a total swept area of 5,029 square meters, the power
output will be about 5.5 million kWh for the year. An increase in blade length, which in turn increases the swept area, can have a
significant effect on the amount of power output from a wind turbine.

THE MECHANICS OF WIND TURBINES

Modern electric wind turbines come in a few different styles and many different Generator converts
sizes, depending on their use. The most common style, large or small, is the Blades catch the mechanical energy
wind and spin into electricity
“horizontal axis design” (with the axis of the blades horizontal to the ground).
On this turbine, two or three blades spin upwind of the tower that it sits on.
Small wind turbines are generally used for providing power off the grid, ranging
from very small, 250-watt turbines designed for charging up batteries on a
sailboat, to 50-kilowatt turbines that power dairy farms and remote villages.
Like old farm windmills, these small wind urbines have tail fans that keep Cable
carries electricity
them oriented into the wind. to transmission line
Large wind turbines, most often used by utilities to provide power to a grid,
Computer system
range from 250 kilowatts up to the enormous 3.5 to 5 MW machines that are controls direction
being used offshore. Today, the average land-based wind turbines have a of the blades
capacity of 1.5 MW. Large turbines sit on towers that can be anywhere from 50
to 100 meters tall, and have blades that range from 30 to 50 meters long. Utility-
scale turbines are usually placed in groups or rows to take advantage of prime
WIND
windy spots. Wind “farms” like these can consist of a few or hundreds of MACHINE
turbines, providing enough power for tens of thousands of homes. Fig : 5.8

From the outside, horizontal axis wind turbines consist of three big parts: the tower, the blades, and a box behind the blades,
called the nacelle. Inside the nacelle is where most of the action takes place, where motion is turned into electricity. Large turbines
don’t have tail fans; instead they have hydraulic controls that orient the blades into the wind.

Fig : 5.9
In the most typical design, the blades are attached to an axle that runs into a gearbox. The gearbox, or transmission, steps up the
speed of the rotation, from about 50 rpm up to 1,800 rpm. The faster spinning shaft spins inside the generator, producing AC
electricity. Electricity must be produced at just the right frequency and voltage to be compatible with a utility grid. Since the wind
speed varies, the speed of the generator could vary, producing fluctuations in the electricity. One solution to this problem is to
have constant speed turbines, where the blades adjust, by turning slightly to the side, to slow down when wind speeds gust.
Another solution is to use variable-speed turbines, where the blades and generator change speeds with the wind, and sophisticated
power controls fix the fluctuations of the electrical output. A third approach is to use low-speed generators. An advantage that
variable-speed turbines have over constant-speed turbines is that they can operate in a wider range of wind speeds. All turbines
Sources of Energy 249

have upper and lower limits to the wind speed they can handle: if the wind is too slow, there’s not enough power to turn the
blades; if it’s too fast, there's the danger of damage to the equipment. The “cut in” and “cut out” speeds of turbines can affect the
amount of time the turbines operate and thus their power output.

Denmark is called the country of ‘winds’. More than 25% of their electricity needs are generated through
a vast network of windmills. In terms of total output, Germany is the leader, while India’s ranked fifth in harnessing
wind energy for the production of electricity. It is estimated that nearly 45,000 MW of electrical power can be
generated if India’s wind potential is fully exploited. The largest wind energy farm has been established near
Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu and it generates 380 MW of electricity.
The world’s largest wind farm, the Horse Hollow Wind Energy Center in Texas, has 421 wind turbines that generate
enough electricity to power 230,000 homes per year.

ALTERNATIVE OR NON-CONVENTIONAL SOURCES OF ENERGY

Solar Energy
The energy obtained from the sun is called solar energy. The inner temperature of the sun is very high (107k). At this high
temperature the nucleus of lightest gas hydrogen atoms fuse to convert into heavy nucleus of helium. A lot of energy is released
in this nuclear reaction. Sun is the biggest source of energy. Energy of the sun reaching every year on earth is about 1.6 × 10 8
KWH (Kilo watt hour). Value of energy used by all the living beings on the earth is 7 × 1013 KWH per year. It is clear that every
year energy received from the sun is 2000 times more than its annual consumption. Man has been using solar energy in making
salt from the sea water, drying of clothes, heating water and in form of light. In the present technological era possibilities of more
broad based utilisation of solar energy are bring explored. Solar energy is tapped for heat and electricity generation. Solar energy
is used in solar cooker, solar heater and solar cells.
We know today, that the sun is simply our nearest star. Without it, life would not exist on our planet. We use the sun’s energy
every day in many different ways.
When we hang laundry outside to dry in the sun, we are using the sun’s heat to do work drying our clothes.
Plants use the sun’s light to make food. Animals eat plants for food, decaying plants hundreds of millions of years ago produced
the coal, oil and natural gas that we use today. So, fossil fuels is actually sunlight stored millions and millions of years ago.
Indirectly, the sun or other stars are responsible for all our energy. Even nuclear energy comes from a star because the uranium
atoms used in nuclear energy were created in the fury of a nova – a star exploding.
Solar energy is one the most resourceful sources of energy for the future. One of the reasons for this is that the total energy we
receive each year from the sun is around 35,000 times the total energy used by man. However, about 1/3 of this energy is either
absorbed by the outer atmosphere or reflected back into space (a process called albedo).
Solar power, or energy from the Sun, is a free, abundant, and nonpolluting source of energy. This vast, clean energy resource
represents a viable alternative to the fossil fuels that currently pollute our air and water, threaten our public health, and contribute
to global warming.
It is estimated that during a year India receives the energy equivalent to more than 5,000 trillion kWh. Under clear (cloudless) sky
conditions, the daily average varies from 4 to 7 kWh/m2.
The solar energy per unit time reaching unit area at outer edge of the earth’s atmosphere exposed perpendicularly to the rays of
the Sun at the average distance between the Sun and earth is known as the solar constant. It is estimated to be approximately
1.4 kJ per second per square metre or 1.4 kW/m2.
Solar energy can be used to heat buildings and water and to produce electricity. However, the Sun does not always shine, and the
process of collecting solar energy and storing it for use at night and on cloudy days is difficult and expensive.
Solar energy systems can be either passive or active. In a passive solar heating system, a building captures and stores the Sun’s
heat because of the way it is designed, the materials it is made of, or the heat-absorbing structures it possesses. An example of
a passive system is a building with large windows facing south (that allow sunlight to enter) and with thick walls that store heat
and release it at night.
Active solar energy systems use pumps or fans to circulate heat obtained by solar collectors. A solar collector is a device that
absorbs the energy of the Sun and converts it to heat for heating buildings and water. Flat-plate collectors are mounted to the
roofs of buildings and used for space heating. They are made of a heat-absorbing plate, such as aluminum or copper, covered by
glass or plastic. Water or air circulating in the collector absorbs heat from the plate and is carried to a heat storage tank. The stored
heat is circulated or blown over cold rooms using pumps or fans. A conventional heating system is used as a backup when solar
 EBD_7005
250 PHYSICS
heat is not available. Solar heating of water is accomplished using a collector, a hot water storage tank, and a pump to circulate
water.
Solar power plants using energy from the Sun to produce steam for driving turbines to generate electricity could potentially
replace fuel-driven power plants, producing energy without any environmental hazards.

Solar Cells
Solar cell is such a device which converts solar energy into electric energy. Solar cells are also known as photovoltaic cell (PV
cell) because it works on the principle of photo-voltaic effect. Incident radiation
Solar cells can be found on many small appliances, like calculators, and even
on spacecraft.. They are made of silicon, a special type of melted sand. Silicon
is abundant in nature but availability of the special grade silicon for making
solar cells is limited. C
When sunlight strikes the solar cell, electrons are knocked loose. They move Cathode Anode
toward the treated front surface. An electron imbalance is created between the A
front and back. When the two surfaces are joined by a connector, like a wire,
a current of electricity occurs between the negative and positive sides.
These individual solar cells are arranged together in a PV module and the
modules are grouped together in an array.
The electrical energy from solar cells can then be used directly. It can be used
in a home for lights and appliances. It can be used in a business. Solar energy A
can be stored in batteries to light a roadside billboard at night. Or the energy
B
can be stored in a battery for an emergency roadside cellular telephone when
Fig : 5.10
no telephone wires are around.
Some experimental cars also use PV cells. They convert sunlight directly into energy to power electric motors on the car.
The principal advantages associated with solar cells are that they have no moving parts, require little maintenance and work quite
satisfactorily without the use of any focussing device. Another advantage is that they can be set up in remote and inaccessible
hamlets or very sparsely inhabited areas in which laying of a power transmission line may be expensive and not commercially
viable. Artificial satellites and space probes like Mars orbiters use solar cells as the main source of energy. Radio or wireless
transmission systems or TV relay stations in remote locations use solar cell panels.

SUN

Cell

Module

Array

Solar cell panel

Fig : 5.11
Applications of Photo electric Cells :
1. In television cameras for telecasting scenes and photo telegraphy.
2. In reproduction of sound in motion pictures.
3. To switch on and off the street lights automatically.
4. To obtain electric energy from sun lightduring space travel.
5. To control temperature in furnaces and chemical reactions.
6. In fire and burglar’s alarm, to open and close the doors automatically and in counting devices.
7. To compare illuminating power of two sources.
8. To detect opacity of solids, defects in materials, etc.
Sources of Energy 251

Solar Cooker
A solar cooker is a device that uses the energy in sunlight to generate sufficient temperatures to be able to cook food. Solar
cookers can be used to perform most cooking tasks, such as baking cakes, roasting meat and vegetables, boiling soups, etc. The
principle of using the sun to cook food is not a new concept. Swiss naturalist Horace de Saussure was known to have been
experimenting with solar cookers as early as 1767. Three basic solar cooker designs exist:
• Parabolic Reflector • Box Cookers • Panel Cookers
Parabolic Reflectors
Two types of parabolic reflectors are available: Trough and dish. Parabolic cookers focus the light from the sun at or along a focal
axis, Dish cookers focus the sun onto one point and cook in a similar way to single hotplates whilst trough designs are similar to
rotisseries and are best used for cooking long thin foods such as sausages.
Box Cookers
As higher temperatures are often required for the cooking of food than would normally be obtained with flat plate collectors used
in water heating, box cookers usually have reflectors to increase the amount of radiation that enters the collector, as shown in
Figure.
Panel Cookers
A relatively new style of solar cooker, a panel cooker consists of a number of flat reflection panels that direct light onto a container
to be cooked.To retain the heat, the cooking dish is placed within a plastic bag or under a glass bowl.

(a) Parabolic reflector (b) A simple solar box cooker. (c) Panel cooker
Fig. 5.12

ENERGY FROM THE SEA

Tidal Energy
(Extracts energy from the kinetic energy of the earth-moon-sun system)
Tide arise due to the gravitational pull of mainly the moon on the spinning earth. The tide moves a huge amount of water twice
each day, and harnessing it could provide a great deal of energy. Although the energy supply is reliable and plentiful, converting
it into useful electrical power is not easy.
Tidal energy has been used since about the 11th Century, when small dams were built along ocean estuaries and small streams.
The tidal water behind these dams was used to turn water wheels to mill grains.
The simplest generation system for tidal plants involves a dam, known as a barrage, across an inlet. Sluice gates on the barrage
allow the tidal basin to fill on the incoming high tides and to empty through the turbine system on the outgoing tide, also known
as the ebb tide. There are two-way systems that generate electricity on both the incoming and outgoing tides.

Tide coming in Tide going out

Turbine and generator Turbine and generator

Sea
Estuary Sea Estuary

(a) Fig. 5.13 (b)

 EBD_7005
252 PHYSICS
Tidal energy is renewable. The tides will continue to ebb and flow, and the energy is there for the taking.
A major drawback of tidal power stations is that they can only generate when the tide is flowing in or out - in other words, only
for 10 hours each day. However, tides are totally predictable, so we can plan to have other power stations generating at those
times when the tidal station is out of action.
Tidal fences can also harness the energy of tides. A tidal fence has vertical axis turbines mounted in a fence. All the water that
passes is forced through the turbines. They can be used in areas such as channels between two landmasses. Tidal fences have
less impact on the environment than tidal barrages although they can disrupt the movement of large marine animals. They are
cheaper to install than tidal barrages too.

Fig : 5.14 Row of tidal current turbines

Advantages
• Tidal power is free. • It produces no greenhouse gases or other waste.
• It needs no fuel. • It produces electricity reliably.
• Not expensive to maintain. • Tides are totally predictable.
• Offshore turbines and vertical-axis turbines are not ruinously expensive to build and do not have a large environmental impact.
Disadvantages
• A barrage across an estuary is very expensive to build, and affects a very wide area - the environment is changed for many miles
upstream and downstream. Many birds rely on the tide uncovering the mud flats so that they can feed. There are few suitable
sites for tidal barrages.
• Only provides power for around 10 hours each day, when the tide is actually moving in or out.
Why are there two high tides and two low tides per day?
Tides exist as the earth is affected by the non-uniform gravitational force from the moon. What is a non-uniform gravitational
force? According to Newton’s Law of universal gravitation, the gravitational force between two objects is inversely proportional
to the square of the distance between them. That is, the shorter the distance, the greater the force, and the longer the distance,
the weaker the force.
Please look at Figure. Point A experiences a greater lunar gravitational force than
Point B (the earth’s centre). Seawater is being attracted naturally towards the moon. To the
A high tide is formed. Point C experiences a smaller lunar gravitational force than moon
Point B, therefore the water level is higher here relative to Point B. Thus there are high C B A
tides at Point A and Point C, while the water levels at Point D and Point E are lower,
that is, there are low tides.
During the rotation of the earth in one day, the location of the moon has no much E
change. Then a place on the earth will pass through two zones in which there are high place Fig : 5.15 The lunar gravitational force varies from
to place on the earth and this causes tides
tides. That is the reason why we see two high tides daily.

Wave Energy
Kinetic energy (movement) exists in the moving waves of the ocean. Waves are a powerful source of energy. That energy can be
used to power a turbine.
Sources of Energy 253

turbine and
generator

Air
Waves chamber

Waves make water in air

chamber rise & fall, causing
air to turn turbine

Fig : 5.16 (a)

Fig. 5.16 (b)

There are several methods of getting energy from waves, but one of the most effective works like a swimming pool wave machine
in reverse.
At a swimming pool, air is blown in and out of a chamber beside the pool, which makes the water outside bob up and down,
causing waves.
At a wave power station, the waves arriving cause the water in the chamber to rise and fall, which means that air is forced in and
out of the hole in the top of the chamber.
We place a turbine in this hole, which is turned by the air rushing in and out. The turbine turns a generator
Most wave-energy systems are very small. But, they can be used to power a warning buoy or a small light house.
Advantages
• The energy is free – no fuel needed, no waste produced.
• Not expensive to operate and maintain.
• Can produce a great deal of energy.
Disadvantages
• Depends on the waves – sometimes you’ll get loads of energy, sometimes nothing.
• Needs a suitable site, where waves are consistently strong.
• Some designs are noisy.
• Must be able to withstand very rough weather.

Ocean Thermal Energy

The energy from the sun heats the surface water of the ocean. In tropical regions, the surface water can be 40º celsius or more
degrees warmer than the deep water. This temperature difference can be used to produce electricity.

Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) Electric power

The idea is not new. Using the temperature of water to make energy
actually dates back to 1881 when a French Engineer by the name of
Jacques D'Arsonval first thought of OTEC. The final ocean energy
idea uses temperature differences in the ocean. If you ever went
swimming in the ocean and dove deep below the surface, you would
have noticed that the water gets colder the deeper you go. It’s warmer Condenser
on the surface because sunlight warms the water. But below the surface,
the ocean gets very cold. That’s why scuba divers wear wet suits
when they dive down deep. Their wet suits trapped their body heat to warmed water cold water
keep them warm.
Fig : 5.17 OTEC system
OTEC generates electricity by using the temperature difference of 20°C (36°F) or more that exists between warm tropical waters
at the sun-warmed surface, and colder waters drawn from depths of about 1000 m. To convert this thermal gradient into electrical
 EBD_7005
254 PHYSICS
energy, the warm water can be used to heat and vaporize a liquid (known as a working fluid). The working fluid develops pressure
as it is caused to evaporate. This expanding vapor runs through a turbine generator and is then condensed back into a liquid by
cold water brought up from depth, and the cycle is repeated.

Boiler Steam Generator

Turbine

pressure
Bight

Exhaust
Steam
Pump Lo
wp
Wat ress Heat
er
Exchanger
Waste
Heat
Pump

River

Fig : 5.18
There are potentially three basic types of OTEC power plants: closed-cycle, open-cycle, and various blendings of the two. All
three types can be built on land, on offshore platforms fixed to the seafloor, on floating platforms anchored to the seafloor, or on
ships that move from place to place

GEOTHERMAL ENERGY
Energy present in the depth of the earth is called geothermal energy. As we move inside the earth from the earth surface the
temperature increases with increasing depth. Temperature in the earth at a distance of 10 kilometres is about 120°C and it
increases to 300°C at the depth of 320 kilometres. It is evident that temperature increases with depth. Melted liquid, megma is
present in the depth of earth. It is surrounded by various layers of soil, sand and water. Whenever there is some passage, it comes
in contact with water present between these layers and converts this water into the steam of sufficient pressure. This vapour
pressure can be used for production of energy.
There is a huge possibility of the use of this energy in India because here there are 340 hot geological sites. In Manikarn and
Kalleshwar the possibilities of the use of geothermal energy are explored. One of the main characteristics of the geothermal
energy is that, it is pollution free.
Due to geological changes, molten rocks formed in the deeper hot
regions of earth’s crust are pushed upward and trapped in certain
regions called ‘hot spots’. When underground water comes in contact
with the hot spot, steam is generated. Sometimes hot water from that
region finds outlets at the surface. Such outlets are known as hot
springs.
Geothermal springs for power plants. The most common current way
of capturing the energy from geothermal sources is to tap into naturally
occurring “hydrothermal convection” systems where cooler water
seeps into Earth’s crust, is heated up, and then rises to the surface. Fig : 5.19
When heated water is forced to the surface, it is a relatively simple matter to capture that steam and use it to drive electric
generators. Geothermal power plants drill their own holes into the rock to more effectively capture the steam.
There are three designs for geothermal power plants, all of which pull hot water and steam from the ground, use it, and then return
it as warm water to prolong the life of the heat source. In the simplest design, the steam goes directly through the turbine, then
into a condenser where the steam is condensed into water. In a second approach, very hot water is depressurized or “flashed”
into steam which can then be used to drive the turbine.
In the third approach, called a binary system, the hot water is passed through a heat exchanger, where it heats a second liquid
Sources of Energy 255

such as isobutane in a closed loop. The isobutane boils at a lower temperature than water, so it is more easily converted into
steam to run the turbine. The systems are shown in the diagrams below.

(a) Fig. 5.20 (b)

The choice of which design to use is determined by the resource. If the water comes out of the well as steam, it can be used
directly, as in the first design. If it is hot water of a high enough temperature, a flash system can be used, otherwise it must go
through a heat exchanger. Since there are more hot water resources than pure steam or high-temperature water sources, there is
more growth potential in the heat exchanger design.
Direct use of geothermal heat. Geothermal springs can also be used directly for heating purposes. Hot spring water is used to heat
greenhouses, to dry out fish and de-ice roads, for improving oil recovery, and to heat fish farms and spas.
Hot dry rock. Geothermal heat occurs everywhere under the surface of the earth, but the conditions that make water circulate to
the surface are found only in less than 10 percent of Earth’s land area. An approach to capturing the heat in dry areas is known
as “hot dry rock.” The rocks are first broken up by pumping high-pressure water through them. Water is then pumped from the
surface down through the broken hot rocks. After the water heats up, it is brought back to the surface through a second well and
used to drive turbines for electricity or to provide heat.
The main problem with geothermal, of course, is lack of easily accessible surface sites
Direct use and heating applications have almost no negative impact on the environment.
Geothermal power plants do not burn fuel to generate electricity, so their emission levels are very low. They release about 1 to 3
percent of the carbon dioxide emissions of a fossil fuel plant. Geothermal plants use scrubber systems to clean the air of hydrogen
sulfide that is naturally found in the steam and hot water. Geothermal plants emit 97 per cent less acid rain - causing sulfur
compounds than are emitted by fossil fuel plants. After the steam and water from a geothermal reservoir have been used, they are
injected back into the earth.
In other places around the world, people used hot springs for rest and relaxation. The ancient Romans built elaborate buildings
to enjoy hot baths, and the Japanese have enjoyed natural hot springs for centuries.

In Iceland, virtually every building in the country is heated with hot spring water. In fact, Iceland gets
more than 50 per cent of its energy from geothermal sources. In Reykjavik, for example (population 115,000), hot
water is piped in from 25 kilometers away, and residents use it for heating and for hot tap water.

NUCLEAR ENERGY
Nuclear power is an alternative energy source that can be obtained from either the splitting of the nuclei of atoms (nuclear fission)
or the combining of the nuclei of atoms (nuclear fusion). In either of these two reactions, great amounts of energy are released.
Nuclear power plants use a device called a nuclear reactor in which uranium or plutonium atoms are split in controlled fission
reactions. The heat energy released is captured and used to generate electricity. Nuclear energy from Uranium is not renewable.
Once we’ve dug up all the Earth’s uranium and used it, there isn’t any more.

Nuclear Fission
 EBD_7005
256 PHYSICS
Nuclear fission was discovered by Otto Hahn and Strassman. The process of splitting of a heavy nucleus into two lighter nuclei
of comparable size and release of large energy is called nuclear fission.
235 1 236 141 92
92 U 0n 92 U 56 Ba 36 Kr 30 n1 200Mev energy
U235 nucleus captures a thermal neutron. This forms a compound nucleus U236 in excited state.
The shape of nucleus is distorted and nucleus splits into two fragments emitting three neutrons..
Energy
Energy

tron
Neu
Ba Energy

Slow 235 236

Neutron
U U
neutron

Energy
Kr Neu
tron

Ene
Energy rgy
Fig. 5.21

The neutrons emitted in fission are fast neutrons. Their energy is about 2MeV. On an average 2.5 neutrons are emitted per fission.
The binding energy per nucleon of products is greater than the reactants. The energy released in fission of Uranium is about 200
MeV. The fission energy released per nucleon is about 0.84 MeV. The fission of U235 may take place by different routes but
amount of energy released per fission is nearly equal.
235 1 236 95 139
92 U 0n 92 U 38Sr 54 Xe 20 n1
99 133
41 Nb 4 0 n1
51Sb 57 La
148
56 Br
85
3 0 n1 etc.
The fission fragments are highly radioactive. Nuclear fission can be explained on the basis of liquid drop model. The natural
Uranium has following isotopes
234
92 U (0.006%) ; 92 U 235 (0.72%) ; 92 U 238 (99.27%)
238 is not fissionable. This can be converted to plutonium which
92U is fissionable by neutrons.
238 1 239 0
92 U 0n 93 Np 1e
239 239 0
93 Np 94 Pu 1e
The Uranium in which fraction of U235 is increased from 0.7% to 2.3% is called enriched Uranium.
Energy released per gram of Uranium :
Energy released per gm of Uranium
Avogadro number
Energy released per fission
Mass number

6.023 1023
= 200 5.12 1023 MeV = 5.12 × 1023 MeV
235
= 8.2 × 1010 J = 2.28 × 104 kWh = 2 × 1010 calorie
This energy is equivalent to : (i) Energy obtained by burning 2560 kg of coal
(ii) Energy obtained by burning 20 tonne of explosive TNT
The energy is released in the form of kinetic energy of fission fragments, rays, heat, sound and light energy.
The fission process can take place at normal pressure and temperature.
Mass distribution in fission fragments
The mass distribution of fission fragments is highly asymmetric.
The curve shows two peaks at A = 95 and A = 139. These represent the most probable mass numbers obtained in fission
fragments.
Sources of Energy 257

Percentage yield
60 80 100 120 140 160 180

Mass number (A)

Fig. 5.22
The mass number of lighter fragment in nuclear fission is between 85 to 104.
The mass number of heavier fragment in nuclear fission is between 130 to 149.
Illustration : 5.1
The energy released per fission of Uranium is 200 MeV. Determine the number of fission per second required to generate
2MW power.
Sol. Energy obtained per fission
= 200 MeV = 200 × 1.6 × 10–13 J = 3.2 × 10–11 J
Number of fission per second required
Power 2 106
6.25 1016
Energy per fission 11
3.2 10
CONNECTING TOPIC
CHAIN REACTION AND NUCLEAR REACTOR
Chain Reaction
In fission of Uranium atom 2.5 neutrons are produced on an average. In favourable conditions these may produce fission of
other Uranium nuclei. At each stage number of neutrons available for fission gets multiplied which can cause further fission of
Uranium nuclei. The process once started continues by itself till entire Uranium is consumed. This process is called nuclear
chain reaction. Ba n3
The neutrons produced in each fission may be lost due to following reasons:
(a) Leakage of neutrons from the system U
235 n3

(b) Absorption of neutrons by U 238 Ba n2

n3
(c) Absorption of neutrons by impurities n2 Kr
235
Neutron multiplication factor U Ba n3
Ba n1
Rate of production of neutrons n2
K U
235 n3
Kr
Rate of loss of neutrons 235 n1
n U
n3
Slow Ba
(a) If K = 1 the chain reaction is sustained. neutron Ba Kr
n1
(i) This leads to a controlled chain reaction. Kr n2 235 n3
U
When only one of the neutron produced in each U
235 n3
n2
fission is able to produce fission then reaction is Kr n3
Ba
called controlled chain reaction. n2
Kr
(ii) The energy is produced at a uniform rate. 235 n3
U
(iii) This forms working principle of nuclear reactor
n3
(iv) The size of fissionable material is called critical size and its mass as critical mass.
(v) The minimum mass of Uranium for which chain reaction is possible Kr n3
Fig. 5.23
is called critical mass. For U235 it is 10 kg.
 EBD_7005
258 PHYSICS
(b) If K > 1 the chain reaction is accelerated because number of neutrons available for fission at each stage increases rapidly
(i) This leads to uncontrolled chain reaction
(ii) Energy is produced at rapidly increasing rate.
(iii) This is working principle of atom bomb.
(iv) The size of material is super critical.
(c) If K < 1 the chain reaction stops because number of neutrons available for fission decreases at each stage.
(i) The energy produced decreases
(ii) The size of material is sub critical
The rate of decay of neutrons is proportional to surface area of Uranium block. The rate of production of neutrons is
proportional to number of nuclei present in Uranium block or volume of the block.

Controlled Chain Reaction in Nuclear Reactor

When only one of the neutron produced in each fission is able to produce fission then reaction proceeds slowly and is called
controlled chain reaction.
Nuclear reactor is a device in which controlled nuclear chain reaction is initiated and maintained to produce energy.
Reactors are used :
(i) For power generation
(ii) To produce radioactive isotopes used in medicine, industry and agriculture
(iii) To produce Plutonium Pu239 used in making atom bomb
Thermal reactor:
A reactor in which energy is produced by fission of U235 by slow neutron is called thermal reactor.
Fission product Fission product
Ba Ba

Absorption by
control rod
Moderator

Moderator
n Fast Fast
235 235
Slow neutron U U
neutrons Slow neutron neutrons Slow neutron

238
Capture by u
or
Lost from system
Kr Kr
Fission product Fission product
Fig. 5.24

Main Parts of Nuclear Reactor

(a) Fuel: It is fissionable material used for fission. The common fuels are U233, U235, Pu239 etc.
(b) Moderator : These are used to slow down the fast neutrons. e.g., Heavy water, graphite, beryllium oxide etc.
(c) Control rods : These help in controlling the rate of fission by absorbing the neutrons produced in fission. e.g. Cadmium
rods.
(d) Coolant : A substance which is used to remove the heat produced and transfer it from core of nuclear reactor to the
surrounding is called coolant. e.g. Air, water or carbondioxide.
(e) Shield: The whole reactor is protected with concrete walls 2 to 2.5 m thick so that radiations emitted during nuclear reactions
do not produce harmful effects.
Breeder reactor : A reactor which can produce more fissionable fuel than it consumes is called a breeder reactor. No
moderator is used in these reactors. Sodium is used as coolant. The mixture of natural Uranium and Plutonium works as fuel.

238 + 0n 1 239 239

92U 92U 92U +
Sources of Energy 259

239 239 0
92U 92Np +– +

239 239 0
93Np 92Pu +– +
Using unfissonable 92 U238 we can produce fissionable 92Pu
239.

The chain reaction is maintained by fast neutrons. About 60 to 70% of natural Uranium is used in the process.

Nuclear Fusion
The process in which two or more lighter nuclei combine to form a heavy nucleus is known as nuclear fusion.

2 2 4
1H + 1H 2He + Energy (24 MeV)

The binding energy per nucleon of product is greater than the reactants. The energy released per nucleon is large ; 6.75 MeV..
Fusion is possible at high pressure ( ; 106 atom) and high temperature ( ; 108 ºC). The proton-proton cycle happens at lower
temperature as compared to carbon-nitrogen cycle. Nuclear fusion is possible at a place which has reactants in large quantity.
Hydrogen bomb works on the principle of nuclear fusion. The explosion of a hydrogen bomb needs an explosion of atom bomb
to generate required temperature. No harmful radiations are produced in fusion.

ENVIRONMENTAL CONSEQUENCES
Exploiting any source of energy disturbs the environment in some way or the other. In any given situation, the source we would
choose depends on factors such as the ease of extracting energy from that source, the economics of extracting energy from the
source, the efficiency of the technology available and the environmental damage that will be caused by using that source.
Research continues in these areas to produce longer lasting devices that will cause less damage throughout their life.

HOW LONG WILL AN ENERGY SOURCE LAST US ?

Renewable sources of energy are those which can be generated by us or which are constantly being generated by natural
processes or whose supply is unlimited. Examples : The sun, wind, flowing water.
Non-renewable sources of energy are those which were produced in the past by natural processes, whose supply is limited and
which we cannot generate again. Examples : Coal, petroleum, natural gas.
Renewable energy is available in our natural environment, in the form of some continuing or repetitive currents of energy, or is
stored in such large underground reservoirs that the rate of depletion of the reservoir because of extraction of usable energy
is practically negligible.
 EBD_7005
260 PHYSICS

1. The efficiency of a kerosene stove is 40%. The heat produced on combustion of 1 gram of kerosene in the stove could raise
the temperature of 100 gram of a liquid from 25°C to 25.3°C. If the specific heat capacity of the liquid be 0.6 × 103 kJ/kg °C.
Calculate the calorific value of kerosene?
Sol. Here, Mass of fuel consumed, m = 1 g
Mass of liquid, M = 100 g = 0.1 kg
Specific heat capacity of liquid, C = 0.6 × 10 3 KJ/Kg °C
Rise of temperature of liquid, T = (25.3 – 25.0) = 0.3°C.
Efficiency of stove, = 40% = 0.4
Calorific value of kerosene, c = ? (to be calculated)
From relation of calorimetry heat gained by liquid, Q = MC T
3
Putting values, we get Q = 0.1 × 0.6 × 10 × 0.3 = 18 kJ.
It is only 40% of the actual energy liberated by the kerosene
18 100
Actual heat liberated by the kerosene = = 45 kj
40
From relation, Q = mc
Q 45
We have, c = ; Putting values, we get c = = 45.
m 1
Calorific value = 45 KJ/g
2. The heat produced by burning of a cow dung cake of mass 210 g raises the temperature of 50 g of water by 2°C. Assuming that
all the heat was utilized for heating water whose specific heat capacity is 4.2 J/g°C, Calculate the calorific value of the dung
cake?
Sol. Here, Mass of fuel burnt, m = 210 g
Mass of water heated, M = 50 g
Rise of temperature of water, T = 2°C
Specific heat capacity of water, C = 4.2 J/g°C
Calorific value of fuel, c = ? (to be calculated)
From relation, of calorimetry, Q = 50 × 4.2 × 2 = 420 J
From relation, Q = mc
Q 420
We have, c = ; Putting value, we get, c = =2
m 210
i.e., Calorific value of cow dung cake, c = 2 J/g.
3. Heat produced on burning 5.0 g of a fuel raises the temperature of 1.0 kg water from 20°C to 60°C.
If the specific heat of water be 4.2 J/g°C, calculate the calorific value of the fuel?
Sol. Here, mass of the fuel burnt, m = 5 g
Mass of water heated, M = 1.0 kg = 1000 g
Rise of temperature of water, T = (60 – 20) = 40°C
Specific heat capacity of water, C = 4.2 J/g °C
Calorific value of fuel, c = ? (to be calculated)
From relation of calorimetry, Heat gained by water, Q = MC T
Putting values, we get Q = 1000 × 4.2 × 40 = 168000 J
From relation, Q = mc;
Q 168000
We have, c = ; Putting values, we get c = = 33600 J/g
m 5
Calorific value of fuel, c = 33.6 kJ/g.
Sources of Energy 261

SOLVED EXAMPLES BASED ON CONNECTING TOPICS

4. Find the disintegration energy Q for the fission event represented by equation
235
92 U + 0 n1 92 U
236 140 94
58 Ce + 40 Zr + 0 n
1

Some required data are :

Mass of 235 = 235.0439u
92 U
1 = 1.00867 u
0n
140 = 139.9054 u
58 Ce
94 = 93.9063 u
40 Zr
Find energy released in the process.
Sol. The mass lost in the process
m = 235.0439 – (139.9054 + 93.9063 + 1.00867)
= 0.22353 u
The corresponding energy released
= mc 2
= (0.22353)(3 108 ) 2 J
= 208 MeV
5. What is the power output of a 235 reactor if it takes 30 days to use up 2 kg of fuel, and if each fission gives 185 MeV
92U
of usable energy?
Sol. The number of 235 in 2 kg,
92U

(2 1000)
N = 6.02 10 23
235
= 5.12 × 1024
The fission of each 235 produces energy
92U
= 185 MeV
Total energy produces,
E = (5.12 10) 24 (185 1.6 10 13 )J
= 1572.3 × 1011 J
E 1572.3 1011
The power output P = =
t 30 24 3600
 EBD_7005
262 PHYSICS

DIRECTIONS : Complete the following statements with an DIRECTIONS : Each question contains statements given in two
appropriate word / term to be filled in the blank space(s). columns which have to be matched. Statements in column I have
1. Many of the sources ultimately derive their energy from to be matched with statements in column II.
the.............
2. A device that utilises solar energy for cooking purposes 1. Column I Column II
is called a ................ A. Peat p. liquid fuel
3. A solar cell is a device which converts solar energy di- B. Alcohol q. 27% of carbon
rectly into ............... C. Decay of biomass r. Difference in temperature
4. The energy possesses by wind is called .............. between warm surface
5. The flowing water possesses .............. energy waters and colder waters.
6. Electricity generated from sea waves is .............. D. Rise and fall of water s. biogas
7. The internal heat of an earth is known as ............. energy. levels in oceans
8. Bio-gas is a mixture of ..........., carbon dioxide, .............. and E. OTEC
.................. F. Ultimate source of t. tidal energy
9. When a complex material is heated strongly in the ab- energy
sence of air, then it decomposes to the simplest substance. u. sun
This process is called ..................... G.. Stored in food grains v. wind
10. The material obtained from the bodies of plants and ani- H. Moving air w. bioenergy
mals is called ...............
11. Coal gas is mixture of .............., ........... and .............
12. Coal, petroleum and ............... are the three important
source of modern fuels. DIRECTIONS : Give answer in one word or one sentence.

1. Why CNG considered as environmental friendly fuel ?

2. Name two main combustible components of biogas.
DIRECTIONS : Read the following statements and write your
3. Name the major constituent of natural gas.
answer as true or false.
4. State the energy transformation taking place when a boy
1. Our energy requirements increase with our standard of living. is ridding a bicycle.
2. In order to fulfil our energy requirements, we try to improve 5. Name the main constituents of bio-gas.
the efficiency of energy usage and also try and exploit 6. In what respect fuel oil is better than coal ?
new sources of energy. 7. How has the traditional use of wind and water energy
3. The main constituent of biogas is not methane. been modified for our convenience?
4. Black colour is a very good absorber of heat and good 8. What is geothermal energy?
reflector. 9. Name two energy sources that you would consider to be
5. The use of geothermal energy cause pollution. renewable. Give reasons for your choices.
6. Deep drilling in the earth to obtain geothermal energy is 10. Give the names of two energy sources that you would
very difficult. consider to be exhaustible. Give reasons for your choices.
7. Charcoal is a better fuel than wood and coal. 11. On what basis would you classify energy sources as (a)
8. Biogas is a better fuel than animal dung-cakes. renewable and non-renewable? (b) exhaustible and
9. The calorific value of methane is less than that of butane. inexhaustible?
10. Producer gas is obtained as one of the products of dry Are the options given in (a) and (b) the same?
distillation of coal.
12. What is a turbine?
11. The sun is an ultimate source of fossil fuel.
13. What do you mean by hydro energy?
12. Coal gas is an example of primary fuel.
14. What do you mean by tidal energy?
13. Natural gas is renewable source of energy.
14. Gobar gas is a non-renewable source of energy. 15. Why it is not possible to use the energy which is
15. Solar cookers make use of solar energy. consumed?
16. The sun is the ultimate source of energy. 16. What energy transformation takes place when we light a
Sources of Energy 263

candle and drop a metal plate from a certain height? 15. What are hot spots?
17. What are fossil fuels? 16. Why hot spots are important in harnessing Geothermal
18. What was the most common source of heat energy in energy?
ancient times? 17. Name a few cites where geothermal energy is harnessed?
19. Which fuel meets the growing demand of energy 18. What are the limitations of harnessing Geothermal energy?
nowadays and the past? 19. What are the advantages and disadvan tages of
20. Why most of the thermal power plants are set near coal or Geothermal energy?
oil mines? 20. Write four functions performed by the sun's energy.
21. Why hydro power plants are associated with dams?
22. What energy transformation takes place in the solar
cooker? DIRECTIONS : Give answer in 4 to5 sentences.
23. What is a solar cooker? 1. Write the working of a hydro power plant with a neat
24. Which part of sunlight is used in heating a solar cooker? diagram?
25. What is a solar geyser? 2. Draw the schematic picture a solar cooker?
3. Electricity generated at hydroelectric power stations is
considered to be another form of solar energy. Explain.
DIRECTIONS : Give answer in 2-3 sentences. 4. (a) Describe the steps involved in obtaining biogas and
explain what is meant by anaerobic decomposition.
1. List out the different power plants from which we get
(b) Which isotope of uranium can undergo fission readily?
electrical energy?
5. Hydroenergy is an indirect source of solar energy. Justify
2. What are the advantages and disadvantages of using
this statement.
energy from water?
6. Explain what causes the wind to blow in equatorial regions.
3. What is biomass and write few examples of biomass?
What is wind energy?
4. How is charcoal formed and what are the advantages of
7. What is biogas? How can biogas be obtained? Why is
using charcoal as a source of energy?
the use of biogas obtained from cow dung advised in
5. What is the major disadvantage of biomass and how can
preference to burning of cow dung cakes?
it be overcome ?
8. Name three forms in which energy from ocean is made
6. Write the different parts of a box type solar cooker.
available for use. What are OTEC power plants ? How do
7. Explain the working of a solar cooker.
they operate ?
8. Which type of solar spectrum is trapped in the solar
9. Describe the construction of solar cooker. How does it
cooker?
cause rise in temperature to cook food?
9. What is the cause for the tides on the ocean? (or) how are
10. (i) Distinguish between renewable and non-renewable
tides formed?
sources of energy giving one example of each.
10. How wave energy is an indirect form of solar energy?
(ii) Why is the use of wood as a fuel not advised although
11. What are the limitations of harnessing wave energy?
forests can be replenished?
12. What is OTEC?
13. What is the minimum requirement to operate the OTEC
system?
14. List out the energies that are dependent and non-
dependent of solar energy?
 EBD_7005
264 PHYSICS

What steps would you suggest to reduce energy

consumption?
1. What is a good source of energy ?
2. What is a good fuel ?
3. If you could use any source of energy for heating your 1. What are the environmental consequences of using fossil
food, which one would you use and why? fuels? Suggest the steps to minimise the pollution caused
4. What are the disadvantages of fossil fuels ?
by various sources of energy including non-conventional
5. Why are we looking at alternate sources of energy?
6. How has the traditional use of wind & water energy been sources of energy.
modified for our convenience ? 2. Why there a need to harness non-conventional source of
7. What kind of mirror-concave, convex or plane- would be best energy? Give two main reasons.
suited for use in a solar cooker? Why? 3. What is the role of a plane mirror and a glass sheet in a solar
8. What are the limitations of the energy that can be obtained cooker?
from the oceans? 4. Mention three advantages of a solar cell?
9. What is geothermal energy ? 5. What are the limitations in obtaining energy from wind?
10. What are the advantages of nuclear energy? 6. Why is there a need for harnessing non-conventional sources
11. Can any source of energy be pollution-free? Why or why of energy? How can energy be harnessed from the sea in
not?
different ways?
12. Hydrogen has been used as a rocket fuel. Would you
consider it a cleaner fuel than CNG ?Why or why not?
13. Name two energy sources that you would consider to be 1. “A burning match stick can ignite a piece of paper or an
renewable. Give reasons for your choices.
incense stick but cannot burn a wooden block”. Given
14. Give the names of two energy sources that you would
consider to be exhaustible. Give reasons for your choices. reasons.
2. Suppose a green tree absorbs, on an average, 108J of solar
energy per day, incident on it and the tree could convert 1%
1. A solar water heater cannot be used to get hot water on of the solar energy incident on it to produce wood, how
(a) a sunny day. (b) a cloudy day. many days would it take to produce 50 kg of wood?
(c) a hot day. (d) a windy day. (The calorific value of wood is 15 kJ g–1).
2. Which of the following is not an example of a biomass energy 3. Water that falls from a waterfall is used to generate electricity.
source? If the height of water fall is 100 m and 102m3 of water falls
(a) Wood (b) Gobar-gas every minute, then find the hydel energy in MW h generated
(c) Nuclear energy (d) Coal in one day. Assume that 60% of the energy of the flowing
3. Most of the sources of energy we use represent stored
water is converted into electricity. (Take density of water as
solar energy. Which of the following is not ultimately derived
1000 kg m–3).
from the Sun’s energy?
(a) Geothermal energy(b) Wind energy 4. Among methane (CH4) and methyl alcohol (CH3OH) which
(c) Nuclear energy (d) Biomass. is a better fuel and why?
4. Compare and contrast fossil fuels and the Sun as direct 5. 10 kg of water at 30ºC is heated to its boiling point on a
sources of energy. stove that uses LPG as fuel. If the efficiency of the stove is
5. Compare and contrast biomass and hydro electricity as 70%, then find the mass of the fuel that is consumed. Take
sources of energy. the calorific value of LPG (Butane) as 55,000 kJ kg–1.
6. What are the limitations of extracting energy from – 6. Find the electrical power generated in 1s by a wind mill that
(a) the wind? (b) waves? (c) tides? is erected in a location when air flows with an average speed
7. On what basis would you classify energy sources as of 54 km h–1. Assume that the moving air is completely
(a) renewable and non-renewable? stopped by the blades of the wind turbine of area 10 m2,
(b) exhaustible and inexhaustible? over which air flows normally and the energy conversion
Are the options given in (a) and (b) the same? from wind energy to electrical energy is only 50%. (Take
8. What are the qualities of an ideal source of energy? density of air = 0.3 kg m–3)
9. What are the advantages and disadvantages of using a 7. Why is geothermal energy better than wind energy for power
solar cooker? Are there places where solar cookers would generation?
have limited utility?
8. The sun is the ultimate source of energy on earth. Is the
10. What are the environmental consequences of the increasing
given statement true with respect to fossil fuels?
demand for energy?
Sources of Energy 265

9. Explain why : of India where wind energy is commercially harnessed.

(i) It is difficult to burn a piece of wood fresh from a tree. Compare wind power and power of water flow in respect of
(ii) Pouring dry sand over the fire extinguishes it. generating mechanical and electrical energies. What is the
(iii) It is difficult to use hydrogen as a source of energy. hindrance in developing them ?
(iv) Charcoal is considered a better fuel than wood.
10. Name the major fuel component of biogas. What are its
other combustible components ? What is the use for the
residual slurry and why ?
11. What is the main basic cause for wind to blow ? Name a part

7. The main constituent of biogas is

(a) methane (b) carbon dioxide
DIRECTIONS: This section contains multiple choice questions. (c) hydrogen (d) hydrogen sulphide
Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which 8. The power generated in a windmill
ONLY ONE is correct. (a) is more in rainy season since damp air would mean more
1. Which of the following is a non-renewable source of energy? air mass hitting the blades
(a) Wood (b) Sun (b) depends on the height of the tower
(c) Fossil fuels (d) Wind (c) depends on wind velocity
2. Acid rain happens because (d) can be increased by planting tall trees close to the tower
(a) sun leads to heating of upper layer of atmosphere 9. Choose the correct statement
(b) burning of fossil fuels release oxides of carbon, (a) Sun can be taken as an inexhaustible source of energy
(b) There is infinite storage of fossil fuel inside the earth
nitrogen and sulphur in the atmosphere
(c) Hydro and wind energy plants are non polluting
(c) electrical charges are produced due to friction
sources of energy
amongest clouds
(d) Waste from a nuclear power plant can be easily
(d) earth atmosphere contains acids disposed off
3. In a hydro power plant 10. Choose the incorrect statement regarding wind power
(a) Potential energy possessed by stored water is (a) its temperature increases
converted into electricity (b) larger amount of potential energy is converted into
(b) Kinetic energy possessed by stored water is converted kinetic energy
into potential energy (c) the electricity content of water increases with height
(c) Electricity is extracted from water (d) more water molecules dissociate into ions
(d) Water is converted into steam to produce electricity 11. Choose the incorrect statement regarding wind power
4. Which is the ultimate source of energy? (a) It is expected to harness wind power to minimum in
(a) Water (b) Sun open space
(c) Uranium (d) Fossil fuels (b) The potential energy content of wind blowing at high
5. Ocean thermal energy is due to altitudes is the source of wind power
(a) energy strored by waves in the ocean (c) Wind hitting at the blades of a windmill causes them to
rotate The rotation thus achieved can be utilised further
(b) temperature difference at different levels in the ocean
(d) One possible method of utilising the energy of
(c) pressure difference at different levels in the ocean
rotational motion of the blades of a windmill is to run
(d) tides arising out in the ocean the turbine of an electric generator
6. Which part of the solar cooker is responsible for green house 12. Most of the energy we use originally came from
effect? (a) the sun (b) the air
(a) Coating with black colour inside the box (c) the soil (d) the oceans
(b) Mirror 13. Electrical energy can be produced from
(c) Glass sheet (a) mechanical energy (b) chemical energy
(d) Outer cover of the solar cooker (c) radiant energy (d) All of the above
 EBD_7005
266 PHYSICS
14. Coal, petroleum, natural gas, and propane are fossil fuels. (c) having high caloric value
They are called fossil fuels because: (d) useless
(a) they are burned to release energy and they cause air 28. Biogas is produced from biomatter by
pollution (a) anaerobic fermentation
(b) they were formed from the buried remains of plants (b) distructing distillation
and tiny animals that lived hundred of millions of years (c) fractional distillation
ago (d) mixing petrol in biomatter
(c) they are nonrenewable and will run out 29. L.P.G. is mostly liquified
(d) they are mixed with fossils to provide energy (a) hydrogen (b) oxygen
15. Gasoline is produced by refining which fossil fuel? (c) butane (d) methane
(a) natural gas (b) coal 30. A solar water heater cannot be used to get hot water on
(c) petroleum (d) propane (a) a sunny day (b) a cloudy day
16. Propane is used instead of natural gas on many farms and (c) a hot day (d) a windy day
in rural areas. Why is propane often used instead of natural 31. Which of the following is not an example of a biomass
gas? energy source
(a) it’s safer (b) it’s portable (a) wood (b) gobargas
(c) it’s cleaner (d) it’s cheaper (c) nuclear energy (d) coal
17. What sector of the Indian economy consumes most of the 32. Most of the sources of energy we use represent stored
nation’s petroleum? solar energy. Which of the following is not ultimately
(a) residential (b) commercial derived from the Sun’s energy?
(c) industrial (d) transportation (a) geothermal energy (b) wind energy
18. Natural gas is transported mainly by (c) nuclear energy (d) bio-mass.
(a) pipelines (b) trucks 33. An example of secondary fuel is
(c) barges (d) all three equally (a) coal (b) water gas
19. Global warming focuses on an increase in the level of which (c) natural gas (d) petroleum
gas in the atmosphere? 34. Which of the following is an example of fossil fuel
(a) ozone (b) sulfur dioxide (a) coal gas (b) coke
(c) carbon dioxide (d) nitrous oxide (c) natural gas (d) producer gas
20. Solar, biomass, geothermal, wind, and hydropower energy 35. Most of the fuels are
are all renewable sources of energy. They are called (a) carbon compounds with sulphur
renewable because they (b) nitrogen compounds with carbon
(a) are clean and free to use (c) carbon compounds with hydrogen
(b) can be converted directly into heat and electricity (d) none of these
(c) can be replenished by nature in a short period of time 36. Producer gas is a mixture of
(d) do not produce air pollution (a) carbon monoxide and nitrogen gas
21. Today, which renewable energy source provides the India (b) carbon monoxide and hydrogen gas
with the most energy? (c) carbon monoxide and water vapour
(a) wind (b) solar (d) carbon monoxide and nitrous oxide
(c) geothermal (d) hydropower 37. The fractional distillation of coal tar yields
22. How much of the energy in burning coal reaches the (a) carbon disulphide (b) carbon tetrachloride
consumer as electricity (c) kerosene oil (d) benzene
(a) 1/3 (one-third) (b) 1/2 (one-half) 38. Which of the following is not used as a rocket fuel?
(c) 3/4 (three-quarters) (d) 9/10 (nine-tenths) (a) synthetic rubber (b) liquid hydrogen
23. Which form of energy is contained in wind energy (c) paraffin (d) liquid nitrogen
(a) Kinetic energy (b) Potential energy 39. The fraction of the sun's energy received on earth is about
(c) Electric energy (d) Thermal energy (a) 12% (b) 26%
24. In biogas, which gas is present in maximum amount (c) 38% (d) 47%
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Methane 40. Which of the following source of energy is different from
(c) Hydrogen (d) Oxygen others?
25. Which one of the following is not a source of non- (a) coal (b) lignite
convential energy (c) petroleum (d) plants
(a) Coal (b) Solar energy 41. Which of the following source of energy is different from
(c) Wind energy (d) Biogas others
26. White energy is freely available in ample amount of (a) bitumen (b) anthracite
(a) Sunlight (b) Water gas (c) coke (d) gobar gas
(c) Hydrogen (d) Wind energy 42. Choose the only renewable source of energy
27. Gobar gas is (a) coal (b) uranium
(a) foul smelling gas (c) natural gas (d) geothermal power
(b) sweet smelling gas
Sources of Energy 267

43. Which of the following is a false statement? (c) destructive distillation

(a) To overcome the energy crisis the use of solar cooker (d) fractional distillation
must be increased. 53. Among the following the sources of energy for which source
(b) To overcome the energy crisis more amount of non- sun is not a chief source of energy is
renewable sources of energy must be used. (a) Hydroelectric power plant
(c) The re-usage of waste material as a source of energy (b) Ocean thermal energy conversion (OTEC)
can be done to overcome the energy crisis. (c) Tidal energy
(d) To overcome the energy crisis water has to be saved. (d) Biomass
44. The main constituent of LPG is butane. Then 54. A good fuel should
(A) butane can be liquefied easily under high pressure.
(a) be safe to store and transport
(B) butane is liquefied by chemically reacting with ethane
(b) be able to provide desired quantity of energy at a steady
and propane.
(a) Only A is true rate over a long period of time
(b) Only B is true (c) have low content of non-combustibles and no
(c) Both A and B are true combustion pr oducts that are poisonous or
(d) Both A and B are false environmental pollutants
45. Which element contained in a fuel contributes to its high (d) All the above
calorific value?
(a) Carbon (b) Hydrogen
(c) Oxygen (d) Nitrogen DIRECTIONS : This section contains multiple choice questions.
46. Combustion, the process of burning a fuel, is Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which
(A) an oxidation and an exothermic reaction. ONE OR MORE may be correct.
(B) a reduction and an endothermic reaction.
(a) Only A is true 1. Which of the following are true statements?
(b) Only B is true (a) To overcome the energy crisis the use of solar cooker
(c) Both A and B are true must be increased.
(d) Both A and B are false (b) To overcome the energy crisis more amount of non-
47. ............... is used as a fuel in spaceships. renewable sources of energy must be used.
(a) Hydrogen (b) Alcohol (c) The re-usage of waste material as a source of energy
(c) Petrol (d) Diesel can be done to overcome the energy crisis.
48. In solar water heater, a copper pipe with its outer surface (d) To overcome the energy crisis water has to be saved.
painted in black is fixed in the form of a coil in box. 2. Which of the following are renewable sources of energy?
(a) The only purpose of bending copper pipe is to increase (a) Wood (b) Sun
the capacity of water storage. (c) Fossil fuels (d) Wind
(b) Bending copper pipe as a coil helps to increase the 3. Ocean thermal energy is not due to
surface area for heating. (a) energy strored by waves in the ocean
(c) Both (1) and (2) are true (b) temperature difference at different levels in the ocean
(d) Both (1) and (2) are false (c) pressure difference at different levels in the ocean
49. In the extraction of some metals from their ores, coke can be (d) tides arising out in the ocean
used as a /an
4. Choose the incorrect statements
(a) oxidizing agent (b) reducing agent
(a) Sun can be taken as an inexhaustible source of energy
(c) catalyst (d) flux
(b) There is infinite storage of fossil fuel inside the earth
50. Find the false statement from the following statements given
below: (c) Hydro and wind energy plants are non polluting
(a) Geothermal power plants cannot operate round the sources of energy
clock. (d) Waste from a nuclear power plant can be easily
(b) The initial cost in setting up this plant will be high. disposed off
(c) This type of source is free and renewable. 5. Choose the correct statements regarding wind power
(d) Operating cost involved in a geothermal plant is less. (a) It is expected to harness wind power to minimum in
51. Is used to produce energy in OTEC. open space
(a) Tidal energy (b) The potential energy content of wind blowing at high
(b) Temperature difference between the different layers of altitudes is the source of wind power
water in ocean (c) Wind hitting at the blades of a windmill causes them to
(c) Ocean waves
rottate The rotation thus achieved can be utilised
(d) None of the above
52. The curde oil extracted from the earth is separated into its further
constituents by a process called (d) One possible method of utilising the energy of
(a) disintegration distillation rotational motion of the blades of a windmill is to run
(b) compound idstillation the turbine of an electric generator
 EBD_7005
268 PHYSICS
6. Choose the correct statements?
(a) We are encouraged to plant more trees so as to ensure
clean environment and also provide bio-mass fuel DIRECTIONS : Following are integer based/Numeric based
(b) Gobar-gas is produced when crops, vegetable wastes, questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one
etc., decompose in the absence of oxygen
integer or numeric value.
(c) The main ingredient of bio-gas is ethane and it gives a
lot of smoke and also produces a lot of residual ash 1. How much energy will 1 kg mass of wood yield on complete
(d) Bio-mass is a renewable source of energy combustion, if its calorific value were 15 kJ/g?
2. Suppose the average solar energy incident on the green
leaves (canopy) of a tree were 108 J per day. The calorific
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains an Assertion value of the wood obtained from this tree is 15 kJ/g. If the
followed by reason. Read them carefully and answer the question tree could convert 1% of the incident solar energy as wood,
how many days will it take to produce 10 kg of wood?
on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that
3. 0.06 kg of kerosene oil is used to heat 500 gms of water so
best describes the two statements. that its temperature rises from 20°C to 70°C. Find CV of
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the kerosene oil (S = 4.2 J/g/°C)?
4. The heat produced on complete combustion of 10 gm of
correct explanation of Assertion.
fuel raises the temperature of 2 kg of water from 20°C to
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not
70°C. Find the CV of the fuel if C = 4.2 J/kg/°C?
the correct explanation of Assertion.
5. A family consumes 14 kg of LPG in 30 days. If Calorific
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
value of LPG is 50 KJ/gm, find average energy consumption
(d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
1. Assertion : Nuclear forces are independent of charges. per day?
Reason : Nuclear force is not a central force. 6. A family consumes 10 kg of kerosene oil in 30 days. Find
2. Assertion : U235 nucleus, by absorbing a slow neutron average energy consumption for a day if CV of kerosene oil
undergoes nuclear fission with the evolution of a significant is 45 kJ/gm?
quantity of heat 7. Find the CV of methane according to the following reaction
Reason : During nuclear fission a part of the original mass :-
of U235 is lost and gets converted into heat. C H 4 + 2O2 C O 2 + 2 H 2 O + 805 kJ
3. Assertion : In street light circuits, photo-cells are used to 8. CV of a fuel is 50 kJ/gm. How many grams of this fuel will be
switch on and off the lights automatically at dusk and dawn. required to raise the temperature of 2 kg of water by 40°C (S
Reason : A photocell can convert a change in intensity of = 4,200 J/kg/°C)?
illumination into a change in photocurrent that can be used 9. If mass equivalent to one mass of proton is completely
to control lighting system. converted into energy then determine the energy produced?
10. The energy released per fission of uranium is 200 MeV.
Determine the number of fission per second required to
generate 2MW power.
DIRECTIONS : Following question has four statements (A, B, 11. Determine the energy released in the process 1H2 + 1H2
C and D) given in Column I and 4 statements (p, q, r and s) in
He4 + Q
Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct 2
Given M (1H2) = 2.01471 amu M (2He4)
matching with one or more statement(s) given in Column II. = 4.00388 amu
Match the entries in column I with entries in column II.
12. A neutron is absorbed by a 3 Li6 nucleus with subsequent
1. Column A Column B emission of an alpha-particle. The corresponding nuclear
(A) Ramagundam thermal (p) Andhra Pradesh reaction is
plant is in 6 1 4 3
3 Li 0n 2 He 1H
(B) Raichur thermal plant is in (q) Karnataka Calculate the energy release in this reaction.
(C) Korba thermal plant is in (r) Madhya Pradesh Given
(D) Farraka thermal plant is in (s) West Bengal
6
A B C D m 3 Li 6.015126 amu
(a) r s p q
(b) p r s q m 2 He4 4.0026044 amu
(c) q p r s
(d) p q r s m 1
0n 1.0086654 amu

m 1 H3 3.016049 amu
Sources of Energy 269

7. The functions of moderators in nuclear reactor is to

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-9) : This section contains multiple choice (a) Decrease the speed of neutrons
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out (b) Increase the speed of neutrons
of which ONLY ONE is correct. (c) Decrease the speed of electrons
(d) Increase the speed of electrons
1. The control rod in a nuclear reactor is made of
8. In a working nuclear reactor, cadmium rods (control rods)
(a) Uranium (b) Cadmium
are used to
(c) Graphite (d) Plutonium
(a) Speed up neutrons (b) Slow down neutrons
2. The process by which a heavy nucleus splits into light (c) Absorb some neutrons (d) Absorb all neutrons
nuclei is known as 9. Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because
(a) Fission (b) – decay (a) Atoms are ionised at high temperature
(c) Fusion (d) Chain reaction (b) Molecules break-up at high temperature
3. The explosion of the atomic bomb takes place due to (c) Nuclei break-up at high temperature
(a) Nuclear fission (b) Nuclear fusion (d) Kinetic energy is high enough to overcome repulsion
(c) Scattering (d) Thermionic emission between nuclei
4. In nuclear reaction 2He4 + z XA z +2YA + 3 + A, A denotes DIRECTIONS (Q. 10) : This section contains multiple choice
(a) Electron (b) Positron questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out
(c) Proton (d) neutron of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
5. Which of the following is the fusion reaction 10. The heavier nuclei tend to have large N/Z ratio, because
(a) 1H2 + 1H2 2He4 (a) Coulomb forces have longer range compared to the
(b) 0n1 + 7N14 6C14 + 1H1 nuclear forces
(c) 0n1 + 92U238 93Np239 + –1 + (b) a neutron doesnot exert electric repulsion
(d) 1H3 2He3 + –1 + (c) a neutron is an unstable particle
6. What is used as a moderator in a nuclear reactor? (d) a neutron is heavier than a proton
(a) Water (b) Graphite
(c) Cadmium (d) Steel

DIRECTIONS (Q. 11) : Following question has statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and statements (p, q, r and s) in
Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with one or more statement(s) given in Column II. Match the
entries in column I with entries in column II.

11. Match the following

Column – I Column – II
(A) Hydrogen bomb (p) Fission
(B) Atom bomb (q) Fusion
(C) Stellar energy (r) Critical mass
(D) Nuclear reactor (s) Controlled chain reaction
A B C D
(a) r p s q
(b) s q r p
(c) q p r s
(d) p q s r

DIRECTIONS (Q. 12) : Following are integer based/Numeric based questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one
integer or numeric value.

12. In a nuclear reactor U235 undergoes fission liberating 200 MeV of energy. The reactor has 10% efficiency and produces 1000
MW power. If the reactor is to function for 10 year, find the total mass of the uranium required.
 EBD_7005
270 PHYSICS

SO L U T I ON S
Brief Explanations
of
Selected Questions

11. We would classify energy sources as (a) renewable and

non-renewable.
Renewable sources of energy are inexhaustible whereas
Fill in the Blanks : non-renewable sources of energy are exhaustible. Thus,
1. Sun the options in (a) and (b) are the same.
2. solar cooker. 3. electricity. 12. It is a machine for converting the kinetic energy of the
4. wind energy 5. kinetic fluid (flowing water or gas) into mechanical energy.
6. tidal energy 7. geothermal 13. The energy of water is called hydro energy.
8. methane, hydrogen, hydrogen sulphide 14. The enormous movement of water between the high tides
9. destructive distillation. 10. biomass and low tides provides a source of energy, which is called
11. H2, CH4 and CO 12. natural gas tidal energy.
23. It is a device that cooks food by absorbing solar radia-
True / False : tions.
1. True 2. True 3. False 4. False 24. Infra-red radiations.
5. False 6. True 7. True 8. True 25. It is a device used to supply hot water using sunlight.
9. False 10. False 11. True 12. False Long Answer Questions :
13. False 14. False 15. True 16. True 3. The energy of water (or hydro-energy) is in fact an indirect
Match the Following : source of solar energy because it is the solar energy which
is responsible for water cycle. The heat of solar energy
1. (A) q; (B) p; (C) s; (D) t; (E) r; (F) u; (G) evaporates water from ocean and the surface of the earth.
w; (H) v The water vapours rise high in the atmosphere, get cooled
Very Short Answer Questions : and fall back to the earth. The water vapours rise high in
1. CNG gas create less pollution. the atmosphere, get cooled and fall back to the earth in
2. (i) Methane (ii) Hydrogen. the form of rain and snow. The rain water and the water
3. The major constituent of natural gas is methane. formed by melting of snow then flows rapidly in the rivers
and provides us with hydro energy.
4. Muscular energy to Mechanical energy.
4. (a) Anaerobic decomposition : The process in which the
5. Methane is the main constituent of Biogas.
complex compound of cow dung slurry decomposes or
6. (i) Fuel oil has higher calorific value than coal.
breaks down in the absence of oxygen by anaerobic
(ii) Fuel oil does not leave ash or residue.
micro-organisms called anaerobic bacteria is known as
7. The traditional use of wind has been modified by using
anaerobic decomposition.
windmills and that of water by constructing hydroelectric
It generates gases like methane (75%), carbon dioxide,
power plants.
hydrogen and hydrogen sulphide.
8. The energy extracted from hot water springs on the earth Steps involved in obtaining biogas :
is called geothermal energy. (i) Slurry is made by mixing of animal dung with an equal
9. (i) wind energy (ii) solar energy amount of water.
These sources of energy can be used again and again (ii) Slurry is passed through an inlet chamber of an
endlessly. They will never get exhausted. underground digester tank.
10. (i) Fossil fuels (ii) Nuclear fuels (iii) In digester tank, slurry is decomposed by anaerobic
Fossil fuels are present in a limited amount in the earth. bacteria in about 50-60 days to produce biogas.
Once exhausted, they will not be available to us again. (iv) The biogas collected in domes built over the digester
The nuclear material which can be conveniently extracted tank and has a gas outlet with value.
from the earth are limited and hence they will get exhausted (v) The pressure exerted by the biogas on the slurry
one day. forces the spent slurry to the overflow tank via outlet
chamber.
Sources of Energy 271

(vi) The spent slurry is periodically removed and used as In the OTEC system, the warm surface water is used to
a good manure. boil a liquid like ammonia. The vapour of liquid is then
(vii) The whole process is repeated again for regular used to rotate the turbine of a generator. The cold water
supply of biogas. from the deeper level is used to convert the ammonia vapour
(b) 235
can undergo fission readily.. again into liquid.
92 U
9. Construction. It consists of an insulated metal box which
5. The energy of water (or hydro-energy) is in fact an indirect is painted all black from inside. There is thick glass sheet
source of solar energy because it is the solar energy which as a cover over the box and a plane mirror reflector attached
is responsible for water cycle. The heat of solar energy to the box.
evaporates water from ocean and the surface of the earth. Cooking of food. The food to be cooked is placed in a
The water vapours rise high in the atmosphere, get cooled metal container kept in the box and covered with glass
and fall back to the earth. The water vapours rise high in sheet. When solar energy falls on reflector, the reflector
the atmosphere, get cooled and fall back to the earth in the
sends them to the top of solar cooker in the form of strong
form of rain and snow. The rain water and the water formed
beam of sunlight which is absorbed by the black surface
by melting of snow then flows rapidly in the rivers and
in the box. The infra-red rays cause heating effect which
provides us with hydro energy.
raises the temperature to 100ºC–140ºC which cooks the
6. Solar energy is responsible for wind to blow. The intensity
food.
of sun-rays is much more stronger near the equator of the
10. (i) Renewable sources of energy are those that can be
earth than in the polar region. Due to more intense heat,
used without depleting their reserves and do not get
the air near the surface of the earth in equatorial regions
exhausted e.g., solar energy, wind energy, hydro
become quite hot. The hot air being lighter rises upward
energy, etc.
and cooler air from the polar region of earth starts flowing
Non-renewable sources of energy are those which
which causes wind to blow from the high pressure to low
pressure region. So wind blows to equatorial regions. The cannot be replenished and exhausted with the
energy possessed by this wind is called wind energy. passage of time. e.g., : coal, petroleum and natural
7. Biogas. The gas produced by the decay of biomass in the gas.
presence of water by anaerobic micro-organisms in the (ii) Wood is not advisable used as a fuel, although forests
absence of oxygen is called biogas. Biogas can be obtained can be replenished, due to the following reasons :
by using fixed dome type biogas plant. (a) Burning of wood causes pollution.
The burning of cow-dung cakes is not advisable because (b) The left-over residue after combustion have a
of the following reasons : disposed off problem.
(i) It produces a lot of ash as residue. (c) Smoke produced by burning of wood causes health
(ii) It produces a lot of smoke causes air pollution as well hazard.
as creates health hazards. (d) Wood is a less heat generating fuel.
(iii) It has low heat efficient fuel. (e) Trees are essential for our life as they absorb CO2
(iv) It destroys the useful manure. and give out O2.
Whereas during the production of biogas only organic
matter is decomposed by anaerobic bacteria and convert
into biogas. So use of biogas obtained from cow dung
advised in preference gives (i) a clean fuel, free from
pollution and (ii) spent slurry can be used as a manure.
8. Three forms of oceanic energy are Text-Book Questions :
(a) Sea wave energy 1. A good source of energy has the following characteristics:
(b) Tidal energy (i) It could do a large amount of work per unit volume of
(c) Ocean thermal energy. mass.
OTEC power plant. The plants which are used to harness (ii) It should be easily accessible.
ocean thermal energy is called OTEC power plant. (iii) It should be easy to store and transport.
Working of OTEC power plant. A temperature difference (iv) It should be economical.
between warm surface water heated by sun and colder 2. (a) It should have high calorific value.
water at deeper level upto 1000 m is 20ºC or more is required (b) It should have low ignition temperature.
to operate OTEC plant. (c) It should not leave more ashes.
 EBD_7005
272 PHYSICS
(d) It should not produce harmful gases on burning. (iii) The nuclear fuel (like U-235), once kept in nuclear power
(e) It should be economic and easy to handle. plants, produce electricity for a long time.
3. If we are in a rural area, gobar-gas or biogas should be used 11. No source of energy is absolute pollution free. But hydro-
as they are easily available there and are almost pollution energy, bio-mass energy, wind-energy, solar energy, etc.
free. Also, they have high calorific value. are almost pollution free.
In a city, LPG should be used since it doesn’t produce 12. Hydrogen is a cleaner fuel than CNG because :
pollution, it is easily available and economical than other
sources. (i) Hydrogen has high calorific value than CNG.
4. (i) They are formed under the earth’s surface by a long (ii) CNG is conventional source of energy but H2 is not.
process which takes million of years to form. (iii) CNG is green house gas but H2 is not.
(ii) It is non-renewable source of energy. (iv) Burning of CNG gives out CO and CO2 gases but
(iii) They cause air pollution burning of H2 does not give any such harmful gases.
5. Because of our changing life style and new technology we
want more efficient fuels which are pollution free, cheap 13. Solar energy and wind energy are two kinds of renewable
and renewable which cannot be fulfilled by using traditional energy whose sources are the sun and the wind. Both of
sources of energy. these sources are available everywhere and can be used to
6. (i) Wood is converted into charcoal by destructive distillation produce other forms of energy like electric energy.
of wood which is a better fuel than wood. Use of charcoal is also 14. Coal and petroleum are two exhaustible sources of energy.
ecofriendly because it causes very less pollution and leaves less Both are the reserve inside the earth which are in a limited
residue on burning. amount and can exhaust after some days if it will be used
(ii) Use of water energy needs the construction of big at present rate.
dams. These dams are being constructed near to a big
river and it is more expensive. To improve the efficiency Text-Book Exercise :
of water energy, the technology is being developed to 1. (b) a cloudy day. 2. (c) Nuclear energy
increase the efficiency of devices used to convert water 3. (a) Geothermal energy
energy into electrical energy. 4. Comparision :
7. Plane mirror is best suited for a solar cooker because it reflects (i) Both are widely used sources of energy
(ii) Both are natural sources.
the parallel rays of sunlight to the top of solar cooker box in the
Contrast :
form of a strong beam of sunlight, which helps the food to
Fossil Fuels Sun
cook fast. (i) It is a conventional (i) It is a non conventional
8. The energy from the ocean can be obtained mainly in three source of energy source of energy
forms- (i) tidal energy (ii) wave energy and ocean thermal (ii) It is in a limited (ii) Energy provided from Sun is
energy. But these energy can’t be a potential source of energy quantity very large or unlimited
in future because of the following reasons – (iii) They can be used (iii) Solar energy can be used
(i) there are very few places around the world which are at any time only in day time & on a
suitable for building tidal dams. sunny day.
(ii) the rise and fall of sea-water during high and low tides (iv) It causes air (iv) Solar energy does not cause
is not enough to generate electricity on a large scale. pollution air pollution.
(v) It costs to buy (v) It is free of cost.
9. Geothermal energy : It is a form of heat energy which is
fossil fuel
available under the earth’s crust. Temperature, inside the earth’s 5. Comparision :
crust in the deeper levels is high as compared to temperature (i) Both are non-conventional sources of energy.
near the surface of earth i.e. as depth increases temperature (ii) Working cost of both sources is very low.
also increases. Due to this heat, rocks melt to form hot magma Contrast :
and heat starts flowing from deeper levels to upper levels due Biomass Hydroelectricity
to which heat gets collected at some depth below the earth’s (i) It is a renewable (i) It is a non renewable
surface. Such places are known as hot spots. These hot spots source of energy source of energy.
(ii) It possesses (ii) It possesses kinetic
are the main source of geothermal energy. Water in contact
chemical energy energy of running water at
with these hot spots turns into steam which can be utilised to high altitudes.
generate electricity. (iii) It causes air (iii) It does not cause
10. (i) It doesn’t produce gases like carbon dioxide and pollution air pollution.
sulphur dioxide which contribute to pollution. (iv) Biomass is (iv) It is costly source
(ii) It produces a large amount of useful energy from a relatively more as compared to
very small amount of nuclear fuel. economical biomass.
source of energy.
Sources of Energy 273

6. Limitation of extracting energy from (ii) The increase of demand makes excessive use of
(i) Wind : (a) Everywhere and any time the flowing air conventional sources of energy. Thus, energy crisis
is not available. in future may be caused.
(b) To generate electricity the wind should Following steps can be suggested to reduce the energy
have speed more than 15 km / h. consumption -
(ii) Waves: (a) The wave is not available source of (i) Misuse of energy should be avoided.
energy to generate electricity. (ii) Renewable sources of energy, such as solar energy,
(b) It is costly to set up device to trap wave tidal energy, etc., should be used.
energy. (iii) Pollution free sources of energy should be used.
(iii) Tides: (a) The location for constructing dam for (iv) Best possible technology should be made available.
harnessing tide are limited. For example, smokeless chullas should be preferred to
(b) Construction of dams is a very costly traditional chullas.
setup.
7. (a) If the source of energy can be converted back to its Exemplar Questions :
original form after extracting energy, then it is said to 1. Air pollution, Green house effect, Environment
be renewable source of energy e.g., hydroelectricity. consequences: Acid rain, global warming etc. Steps: Use of
If the source of energy cannot be converted back into smokeless appliances, Refined technology, Judicious use
its original form. It is said to be non renewable source of energy etc.
of energy, e.g., coal and petroleum. 2. (i) Our demand for energy is increasing to improve quality
(b) Sources of energy that will not exhaust in significant of life and growth of population.
time are called inexhaustible sources, e.g., Sun, water, (ii) Fossil fuels are limited.
etc. Sources of energy that will exhaust in reasonable 3. Plane mirror acts as a reflector.
time are called exhaustible source e.g., coal. Glass sheet results in green house effect.
Renewable sources of energy produce inexhaustible 4. (i) Solar cells have no moving parts
energy whereas non-renewable sources produce (ii) Requires little maintenance
exhaustible energy. (iii) They can be set up in remote areas
8. (i) It should give large amount of work per unit volume or 5. Because of it being erratic, energy cannot be harnessed
mass of fuel. continuously. Large areas are required for wind farms.
(ii) It should be easily accessible. 6. (i) Fossil fuels are depleting. Population is increasing,
Quality of life is to be improved etc.
(iii) It should be easy to store and transport.
(ii) Tidal/wave/OTEC
(iv) It should be economical.
9. Advantages : Hots Questions :
(i) It cooks food without causing any pollution.
2. (i) Find q (i.e.,) 1% of 108J. This is the solar energy that is
(ii) It is economical to use a solar cooker.
converted to wood in one day.
(iii) It is easy to handle a solar cooker.
Find the amount of heat energy liberated on burning 50 kg
(iv) The nutrients of food do not get destroyed.
of wood by using the formula,
Disadvantages :
Q = mS ....... (1) where S is the calorific value of wood.
(i) It cannot be used at night and in cloudy day.
Then, find the number of days required to produce 50 kg of
(ii) It takes more time to cook food.
wood by using formula,
(iii) The direction of solar cooker is to be changed
Q = nq = mS ........(2)
continuously towards the direction of sun.
(ii) 750 days
(iv) Solar energy is not available at all time and at all the
3. (i) Find the amount of water (m) flows in one day.
place
Let the volume of water that flows in every minute = V.
(v) It cannot be used for baking and frying purpose.
At south pole, sunlight doesn’t reach. Therefore, a solar m
(ii) Density of water (d) =
cooker cannot be utilised at this place. V
10. Affluent life style and industrialisation have increased the (iii) One day = 24 × 60 minutes
demand of energy. Consequences are given below - (iv) Mass of the water that flows in one day is m = Vd × (60
(i) The increase of demand can make excessive × 24)
exploitation of sources of energy which disturbs the (v) Potential energy, PE = mgh
environmental balance. (vi) The energy of the flowing water in one day is = mgh
 EBD_7005
274 PHYSICS

(vii) 60% of the (mgh) is used to generate electricity 45000 MW of electrical power from wind energy.
(viii) 24 × 103 kW h or 24 MW h Hydro power potential. It is estimated that India can
4. CH4 is a better fuel. generate about 4 × 1011 kWh of electricity when its hydro
5. (i) Find the amount of heat (Q) required to boil given power potential is fully exploited. At present, India can exploit
water by using Q = ms ( t). only 11% of its potential capacity.
(ii) The above value of Q is only 70% of the amount of Drawbacks of wind power plant.
heat liberated by combustion of fuel (Q1) (i) Wind is not available at all the places all the time.
(ii) Establishment of wind energy requires large area and
Q1 huge structure of windmill which increase the cost.
(iii) Then the mass of the fuel combusted is, mfuel =
S Drawbacks of hydro power plant.
(i) The imbalance in ecosystem over a long period of time.
(iv) 76 g
(ii) Conversion efficiency of water energy into electrical
6. (i) The volume of air that makes blades to rotate = V =
energy is very low.
× area of the blade

(ii) Velocity (v) =

t
(iii) Mass of the air = m = volume × density of air
1 2 Single Option Correct :
(iv) Kinetic energy (KE) of air = mv
2 1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b)
(v) 50% of kinetic energy of air is converted into electrical 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b)
energy (EE) 11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (c)
EE 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (c)
(vi) The power of electrical generation is, P
1s 21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (a)
(vii) 2.53 kW 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (b)
9. (i) It is because a piece of fresh wood is not dry and 31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (c)
therefore it is to be heated at high temperature before 36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (d)
it catches fire, that is why it is difficult to burn. 41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (a)
(ii) It cuts off the supply of air (oxygen) which is required 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (b)
for combustion to take place. 51. (d) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (a)
(iii) Hydrogen is highly combustible and burns with an
More Than One Option Correct :
explosion, therefore, it is difficult to store and transport.
1. (a, c, d) 2. (a,b,d) 3. (a,c,d) 4. (b,c,d)
(iv) Charcoal, has higher calorific value than wood and
produces less smoke than wood. 5. (a,c,d) 6. (a,b,d)
10. Major fuel component of biogas–Methane. Other Assertion & Reason :
combustile component of biogas–Hydrogen, Hydrogen
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a)
sulphide, Carbon dioxide.
Use of residue slurry. Left-over slurry from the biogas plant Multiple Matching Questions :
is used as a manure because it is rich in nitrogen and 1. (d)
phosphorus compounds and can be used in place of Integer/ Numeric Questions :
nitrogeneous and phosphorus fertilizers.
11. Cause of wind to blow. Unequal heating of the different 1. Here, mass of fuel, m = 1 kg = 1000 g
land mass and water bodies such as river, lake, ocean etc. Calorific value, c = 15 kJ/g
by solar radiations creates a different pressure regions. The Energy yielded, Q = ? (to be calculated)
flow of air from higher pressure region i.e., polar region From relation, Q = mc
towards the lower pressure region i.e., equatorial region, putting value, we get, Q = 1000 × 15 kJ
constitutes wind. = 15000 kJ.
It is Kanya Kumari in Tamil Nadu where wind energy is
2. Heat received per day, Q' = 10 8 J per day
commercially harnessed.
Wind power potential. From the wind power India generates = 10 5 kJ per day
only 2000 MW whereas India has the potential to generate
Sources of Energy 275

Efficiency of conversion, = 1% = 0.01 Q = CV × X = 50 × 14000 kJ

Mass of wood to be produced, m = 10 kg = 10 g 4 Energy consumed in 30 days = 7,00,000 kJ
Calorific value of wood, c = 15 kJ/g
Energy consumed in 1 day = 7,00,000 kJ
Number of days required, N = ? (to be calculated) 30
From relation, total energy required, Q = mc
= 23333.33 kJ/day.
4 6. CV = 45 kJ/gm.; X = 10,000 gm
Putting values, we get, Q = 10 × 15 kJ

= 15 × 10 4 kJ Q Q
CV = 45 = Q = 4,50,000 kJ
It is 1% of the total solar energy incident. X 10,000
Energy consumed in 30 days = 4,50,000 kJ
Q
Total energy incident, Q Total =
4,50,000
Energy consumed in 1 day =
30
15 10 4 = 15,000 kJ
Putting values, we get, Q Total =
0.01 7. 1 mole of methane = 16 gm
16 gm of methane provides 805 kJ of energy
= 15 × 10 6 kJ.
805
From relation, Q Total = Number of days × Heat received 1 gm of methane provide =
16
= 50.3 kJ/gm
per day i.e., Q Total = NQ’ CV = 50.3 kJ/gm.
8. CV = 50 kJ/gm; M = 2 kg;
Q Total
We have, N = ; Putting values, we get, N = s = 4200 J/kg/°C; T = 40°C
Q'
Q = Ms t = 2 × 4200 × 40 J
15 106 kJ 2 4200 40
5 = 150 days = kJ = 42 × 8 kJ
10 kJ per day 1000
Number of days taken, N = 150 days. Q 42 8
3. M = 500 g; s = 4.2 J/g/°C; T = 70°C – 20°C CV = 50 = ;
X X
= 50°; mass of fuel (X) = 0.06 kg = 60 gm
Q = Ms T = (500 × 4.2 × 50) J 42 8 168
X= = = 6.72 gm.
50 25
(500 4.2 50)J
= = 105 kJ 9. E = mc2 = (1.66 × 10–27) (3 × 108)2 joule
1000
= 1.49 × 10–10 J
105 1.49 10 10
CV = = 1.75 kJ/gm. MeV = 931.49 MeVs
60 1.6 10 13
4. X = 10 gm; M = 2000 gm; T = 50°C; 10. Energy obtained per fission = 200 MeV
C = 4.2 J/kg°C = 200 × 1.6 × 10–13 J = 3.2 × 10–11 J
Q = MC T = 2000 × 4.2 × 50 J No. of fission per second required

2000 4.2 50 2 10 6
= = 10 × 42 kJ = 6.25 1016
1000 3.2 10 11
11. Mass defect m = 2 × 2.01471 – 4.00388
Q 10 42 = 0.02554 amu
CV = = = 42 kJ/gm
X 10 Energy liberated = 0.02554 × 931.5 MeV
5. CV = 50 kJ/gm; X = 14 kg. = 14000 gm; = 23.79 MeV
12. Mass of reactants = 6.015126 + 1.0086654
Q
CV = = 7.0237914 amu
X
Mass of products= 4.0026044 + 3.016049
 EBD_7005
276 PHYSICS
= 7.0186534 amu nuclei
Difference in mass= 7.0237914 – 7.0186534
( m 1000) 6.02 1023
= 0.0051380 amu =
235
Energy corresponding to mass difference
= 0.005138 × 931 Each U 235 nucleus releases energy 200 MeV,,
= 4.78 MeV. total energy released in 10 years

m 6.02 1026
Ein = 200
235
Energy required in 10 years, Eour= Pt
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (a) =(1000 ×106) × (10 ×365× 24 ×3600)
6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (d)
Eout
10. (a,b) Efficiency = Ein
11. (c)
12. If m kg is the required mass of the uranium, then number of Substituting the values, we get
m = 3.8 104 kg .
 STATIC ELECTRICITY
Chapter

6
INTRODUCTION

Electricity is the cause of something present in matters called the ‘electric charge’. Although charges are present in all
matters but all of them do not produce electricity. Actually, electricity is produced by those matters which are ‘electrically
charged’ or by charges in motion. The electricity produced by charges at rest is known as electrostatics or static electricity
and the electricity produced by charges (electrons) in motion is called ‘current electricity’. Static electricity can only be
generated in insulators e.g., glass, plastic, rubber etc.

This chapter deals with the electricity produced by charges at rest. A static charge can produce an electric field but it
cannot produce an electric current. Electric current can be produced only when the charges are in motion. Electric
charges can be stored and used as per requirement. The device which stores charges is known as ‘capacitor’.
 EBD_7005
278 PHYSICS
ELECTRIC CHARGE
Charge is something associated with matter due to which it produces and experiences electric and magnetic field.
There are two types of charges.
(i) Positive charge (due to loss of electrons) (ii) Negative charge (due to excesss of electrons)
Charge on one electron e = – 1.6 × 10–19 coulomb.
When there is neither an excess nor a lack of electrons the body is uncharged.
We know that mass is responsible of gravitational force. Similarly, there is a property to every massive object which is responsible
for another kind of force which can be attractive or repulsive unlike gravitational force which is only attractive. Also, this force
is much more stronger than gravitational force. This force is termed as electrical force. So, charge is responsible for electrical
forces.

Electric eel. (Electrophorus electricus) is an electrical fish which is capable

of generating powerful electric shocks of up to 600 volts in order to stun prey and keep
predators at bay. Up to 6,000 electroplates are arranged like a dry cell in the eel's
body. Its internal organs are all in a small area behind the head, with 7/8 of the eel
being tail. The electrical shocks come from muscles mainly in the tail portion of the
electric eel's body. The body of an electric eel is similar to a battery.
The tail end of the eel has a positive charge and the head region is negatively charged.
When the eel touches its tail and head to other animals it sends electric shocks through
their bodies. When the eel is at rest, there is no generation of electrical impulses. Fig. 6.1 : Electric eel

HISTORICAL PREVIEW
It was discovered centuries ago that certain types
of materials would mysteriously attract one
another after being rubbed together. For example:
after rubbing a piece of silk against a piece of Attraction
glass, the silk and glass would tend to stick (after rubbing)
together. Indeed, there was an attractive force
that could be demonstrated even when the two
Glass rod (a) Silk cloth
materials were separated.
Glass and silk aren’t the only materials known to
behave like this. Anyone who has ever brushed
up against a latex balloon only to find that it tries
to stick to them has experienced this same
Attraction
phenomenon. Paraffin wax and wool cloth are
another pair of materials early experimenters
Wax
recognized as manifesting attractive forces after (b)
being rubbed together. Fig. 6.2 Wool cloth
Static Electricity 279

This phenomenon became even more interesting when it was discovered that identical materials, after having been rubbed
always repelled each other.

Repulsion Repulsion
(after rubbing)
Wax (b) Wax

Glass rod (a) Glass rod

It was also noted that when a piece of glass rubbed with silk
Attraction
was exposed to a piece of wax rubbed with wool, the two
materials would attract one another.
Wax (c)
Furthermore, it was found that any material demonstrating
Glass rod
properties of attraction or repulsion after being rubbed could
be classed into one of two distinct categories: attracted to glass
and repelled by wax, or repelled by glass and attracted to wax. It
was either one or the other: there were no materials found that
Repulsion
would be attracted to or repelled by both glass and wax, or that
reacted to one without reacting to the other.
More attention was directed toward the pieces of cloth used to
(d) Silk cloth
do the rubbing. It was discovered that after rubbing two pieces Silk cloth
of glass with two pieces of silk cloth, not only did the glass
pieces repel each other, but so did the cloths. The same
phenomenon held for the pieces of wool used to rub the wax.
Now, this was really strange to witness. After all, none of these Repulsion
objects were visibly altered by the rubbing, yet they definitely
behaved differently than before they were rubbed. Whatever (e)
change took place to make these materials attract or repel one Wool cloth
Wool cloth
another was invisible. Fig. 6.3

Some experimenters speculated that invisible “fluids” were being transferred from one object to another during the process of
rubbing, and that these “fluids” were able to effect a physical force over a distance. Charles Dufay was one the early experimenters
who demonstrated that there were definitely two different types of changes brought by rubbing certain pairs of objects together.
The fact that there was more than one type of change manifested in these materials was evident by the fact that there were two
types of forces produced: attraction and repulsion. The hypothetical fluid transfer became known as a charge.
One pioneering researcher, Benjamin Franklin, came to the conclusion that there was only one fluid exchanged between rubbed
objects, and that the two different “charges” were nothing more than either an excess or a deficiency of that one fluid. After
experimenting with wax and wool, Franklin suggested that the coarse wool removed some of this invisible fluid from the smooth
wax, causing an excess of fluid on the wool and a deficiency of fluid on the wax. The resulting disparity in fluid content between
the wool and wax would then cause an attractive force, as the fluid tried to regain its former balance between the two materials.
Postulating the existence of a single “fluid” that was either gained or lost through rubbing accounted best for the observed
behavior: that all these materials fell neatly into one of two categories when rubbed, and most importantly, that the two active
materials rubbed against each other always fell into opposing categories as evidenced by their invariable attraction to one another.
In other words, there was never a time where two materials rubbed against each other both became either positive or negative.
Following Franklin’s speculation of the wool rubbing something off of the wax, the type of charge that was associated with
rubbed wax became known as “negative” (because it was supposed to have a deficiency of fluid) while the type of charge
associated with the rubbing wool became known as “positive” (because it was supposed to have an excess of fluid). Little did he
know that his innocent conjecture would cause much confusion for students of electricity in the future.
 EBD_7005
280 PHYSICS
Precise measurements of electrical charge were carried out by the French physicist Charles Coulomb in the 1780’s using a device
called a torsional balance measuring the force generated between two electrically charged objects. The results of Coulomb’s work
led to the development of a unit of electrical charge named in his honor, the coulomb. If two “point” objects (hypothetical objects
having no appreciable surface area) were equally charged to a measure of 1 coulomb, and placed 1 meter (approximately 1 yard)
apart, they would generate a force of about 9 billion newtons (approximately 2 billion pounds), either attracting or repelling
depending on the types of charges involved.
It was discovered much later that this “fluid” was actually composed of extremely small bits of matter called electrons, so named
in honour of the ancient Greek word for amber: another material exhibiting charged properties when rubbed with cloth.
Experimentation has since revealed that all objects are composed of extremely small “building-blocks” known as atoms, and that
these atoms are in turn composed of smaller components known as particles. The three fundamental particles comprising atoms
are called protons, neutrons, and electrons.
The result of an imbalance of this “fluid” (electrons) between objects is called static electricity. It is called “static” because the
displaced electrons tend to remain stationary after being moved from one material to another.
ACTIVITY :
Take any two materials from the following list and then rubbed with each other.
Fur glass paper metal silk plastic amber rubber sulpur
We can always find that the former one is positively charged and the later one is negatively charged.
When a charged body is close enough to a neutral body, they attract each other.
One of the applications of this effect is to use tiny paint droplets to paint the automobiles uniformly.

Po i n t
When one material is rubbed against another, electrons jump readily from one to the other, but protons do not. Why
is this? (Think in atomic terms.)
SOLUTION
Protons are bound with the nucleus of an atom but electrons revolve round it. Therefore, electrons can easily be dislodged
from an atom but it is difficult to take out a proton from the atom. This is why, when one material is rubbed against another,
electrons jump readily from one to the other, but protons do not.

PROPERTIES OF CHARGES
1. Charge is conserved : That is, net charge can neither be created nor destroyed. Note the term net charge. Although charges can
be created or destroyed in some processes but the net charge always remains conserved.
2. Charge is quantized : Charge on any particle can never be less than the charge of an electron (i.e., e = –1.6 × 10–19 C).
In other words, the total charge on any particle is an integral multiple of the charge of electron (e). Let a particle has charge q then
q ne, where n = 1, 2, 3, 4, .......

2 1 4
It means that a charge of e, e or e on any body is not possible as they are not integral multiple of the charge of electron.
3 4 5
3. Unlike charges repel each other and like charges attract each other.
4. A charge at rest produces an electric field in the space around it. A uniformly moving charge produces both electric and magnetic
field and a non-uniformly moving charge radiates energy.
ILLUSTRATION : 6.1
Calculate the net charge on a substance consisting of (a) 5 × 1014 electrons (b) a combination of 7 × 1013 protons and 4 × 1013
electrons.
SOLUTION :
(a) The charge of one electron is –1.6 × 10–19C. So net charge on a substance consisting of 5 × 10 14 electrons is
5 × 1014 × (–1.6 × 10–19C) 8 10 5 C 80 C.
(b) Similarly the net charge on a substance consisting of a combination of 7 × 1013 protons and 4 × 1013 electron is
[7 1013 (1.6 10 19 C )] [4 1013 ( 1.6 10 19
C ] = + 4.8 C.
( the charge on one proton is + 1.6 × 1019C)
Static Electricity 281

ILLUSTRATION : 6.2
When a piece of polythene is rubbed with wool, a charge of –2 × 10–7 C is developed on polythene. What is the amount of mass,
which is transferred to polythene?
SOLUTION :
q
No. of electrons transferred, n
e

q 2 10 7
Mass transferred = me n me 9.1 10 31 11.38 10 19
kg
e 1.6 10 19

CONDUCTORS AND INSULATORS

Suppose you charge a rubber rod and then touch it to a neutral object. Some charge, repelled by the negative charge on the rod,
will be transferred to the originally-neutral object. What happens to that charge then depends on the material of which the
originally-neutral object consists. In the case of some materials, the charge will stay on the spot where the originally neutral
object is touched by the charged rod. Such materials are referred to as insulators.
i.e., materials through which charge cannot move, or, through which the movement of charge is very limited are called
insulators. Examples of good insulators are quartz, glass, and air.
In the case of other materials, the charge, almost instantly spreads out all over the material, in response to the force of repulsion
(recalling that force causes acceleration which leads to the movement) that each elementary particle of the charge exerts on every
other elementary particle of charge.
Materials in which the charge is free to move about are referred to as conductors. Examples of good conductors are metals and
saltwater.
When you put some charge on a conductor, it immediately spreads out all over the conductor. The larger the conductor, the more
it spreads out. In the case of a very large object, the charge can spread out so much that any chunk of the object has a negligible
amount of charge and hence, behaves as if were neutral. Near the surface of the earth, the earth itself is large enough to play such
a role. If we bury a good conductor such as a long copper rod or pipe, in the earth, and connect to it another good conductor such
as a copper wire, which we might connect to another metal object, such as a cover plate for an electrical socket, above but near
the surface of the earth, we can take advantage of the earth’s nature as a huge object made largely of conducting material. If we
touch a charged rubber rod to the metal cover plate just mentioned, and then withdraw the rod, the charge that is transferred to
the metal plate spreads out over the earth to the extent that the cover plate is neutral. We use the expression “the charge that was
transferred to the cover plate has flowed into the earth.” A conductor that is connected to the earth in the manner that the cover
plate just discussed is connected is called “ground.” The act of touching a charged object to ground is referred to as grounding
the object. If the object itself is a conductor, grounding it (in the absence of other charged objects) causes it to become neutral.

METHODS OF CHARGING AN UNCHARGED BODY

By Induction: When a charged particle is taken near to neutral metallic object then the electrons move to one side and there is
excess of electrons on that side making it negatively charged and deficiency on the other side making that side positively
charged. Hence charges appear on two sides of the body (although total charge of the body is still zero). This phenomenon is
called induction and the charge produced by it is called induced charge.
+ +
+ + + Neutral or
+
+ + + uncharged body + +
+ + + + +
+ + + + + + +
+ + + e
= q' = – ve
Charging q' 0 q' = –ve
V' = – ve
V ' = + ve q' = – e V' = 0
body
V' = 0 Step 4: Charged body
Step 1: Charged body is Step 2: Unch arg e d b ody is Step 3: Uncharge d body is
dis connecte d is rem ove d
brought ne ar co n nected to th e E a rth
uncharged body from the Earth
Fig. 6.4
Friction or rubbing, conduction, thermionic ionisation, photoelectric effect and field emission are some other methods of
charging a body.
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282 PHYSICS
COULOMB’S LAW
The force exerted by one point charge (when separation between charged bodies is much larger than their linear sizes) on
another, acts along the line joining the two charges, it varies inversely as the square of the distance separating the charges and
is proportional to the product of the charges. The force depends on the medium. The force is repulsive if the charges have the
same sign and attractive if the charges have opposite signs.
The magnitude of the electric force exerted by a charge q1 on another charge q2 a distance r away is thus given by

q1 q2
k | q1q2 | r
F=
r2 Fig. 6.5

Where k is an experimentally determined constant called the Coulomb constant, which has the value
9 2 2
k = 8.99 × 109 Nm2 / C2 ; 9 10 Nm / C
If q1 is at position r1 and q2 is at r2 , the force F1,2 exerted by q1 on q2 is

kq1q2
F1,2 r1,2
r12, 2

Where r1,2 r2 – r1 is the vector pointing from q1 to q2, and rˆ1,2 r1,2 / r1,2 is a unit vector pointing from q1 to q2.
It is common practice to express k in terms of another constant 0, by writing k = 1/(4 0); 0 is called the permittivity of free space
or absolute electrical permittivity and has a value of 0 = 1/(4 k) = 8.85 × 10 C2 / (Nm2).
–12

If some dielectric (insulator) is present in the space between the charges, the net force acting on each charge is altered. The force
decreases k times if the medium extends till infinity. Here k is a dimensionless constant which depends on the medium and called
dielectric constant of the medium. Thus

1 qq Fe 1 qq 1 q1q2
Fe . 1 2 or Fe . 1 2 .
4 0 r2 k 4 0 k r2 4 r2
Here, = 0 k is called permittivity of the medium.
For vacuum or air K = 1, for water k = 80, for mica k = 7 to 10

Po i n t
How does the magnitude of electric force compare with the charge between a pair of charged particles when they are
brought to half their original distance of separation? To one-quarter their original distance? To four times their
original distance? (What law guides your answers?)
SOLUTION
According to inverse-square law, the electric force between two charges is inversely proportional to the square of the
distance of their separation. Therefore, when the charges are brought to half their original distance of separation, the electric
force between them increases by four times as F q1 q2.

1
If the separation distance is made one-quarter their original distance, the force increases by sixteen times as F .
r2

Similarly, the force between the charges decreases by sixteen times when the separation distance between them is made four
times their original distance.
(The inverse square law guides our answer).
Static Electricity 283

ILLUSTRATION : 6.3
Three identical point charges are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle. If the electrostatic force between the any two
charges is F, then find the net electrostatic force on the each one.
SOLUTION :
Three identical points charges, say, positive and having magnitude q,
are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle, as shown. The
F F
charge at the top corner experiences two electrostatic repulsive forces
F, F due to the other two charges. Then, the net electrostatic force on 60º q
this charge becomes.
30º30º
F F2 F2 2 F F cos 60º

F 3 90º
q q
and acts in direction perpendicular to the base of triangle, as shown
Fig. 6.6
ILLUSTRATION : 6.4
Tow points charges q1 = + 2C and q2 = – 1C are separated by a distance r. Then, define the position of a third point charge
q3 = + 1C in the equilibrium on the line passing through the two charges.
SOLUTION :
The third charge q3 must be situated on the line passing through the two charges q1 and q2, as shown. This charge experiences
a repulsive electrostatic force F31 due to q1 and an attractive electrostatic force F32 due to q2. The forces F31 and F32 are equal
but opposite so that the net electrostatic force on the charge q3 is zero and hence, it is in the equilibrium.
F31 F32

1 2 1 1 1 1 q3 1C
q1 2C q2 –1C
2
4 0 (r r ) 4 0 (r )2 F31
F32
r r 2r
r
r r
r which is the distance of q3 from q2. Fig. 6.7
( 2 – 1)

ELECTRIC FIELD
If we place a charge in any region of space, it is observed that any other charge placed in that region experiences a force.
The space around an electric charge in which its influence can be experienced by other charges is called electric field.
The intensity of electric field at a point, is defined as the force experienced by a unit positive charge placed at that point. Its
direction is in the direction of the electric field if the charge is positive and opposite to it if the charge is negative. It is a vector
quantity
F
Mathematically, E , where E = electric field; F = force experienced by charge q.
q
The S.I. unit of electric field is newton per coulomb (N/C).
ILLUSTRATION : 6.5
A particle of mass m and charge +q is placed at rest in a uniform electric field E , as a shown, and released. Calculate the
kinetic energy it gains after moving a distance h.
SOLUTION :
The particle experiences an electric force of magnitude F = qE + + m +q + +
in the downward direction. This force does a positive work
W = F × h = qEh
E
on the particle and the particle gains a kinetic energy equal to – – – –
this work done, when it is released in the electric field and moves
dawnwards through the distance h due to the electric force on it. Fig. 6.8
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Electric Field due to a Single Point Charge

The electric field E at a point P at a distance r due to a single point charge q has the magnitude

+q P
1 q 1 r E
E E
4 2 2
0K r r
E
and direction along the line joining the point charge q and point P,
being away for the positive charge and towards for the negative charge.
O r
Fig. 6.9

Electric Field due to Many Point Charges

The electric field due to many point charges qj q1, q2, q3, .............. at a point P at the distances rj r1 ,r2 ,r3 , r4 , ............. from the

charges qj is given by the superposition principle, i.e.,

E E1 E2 E3 E4 ............ Ej
j

where j = 1, 2, 3, 4, ................ The magnitude Ej due to a single point charge qj at the distance rj is

1 qj
Ej
4 0K r j2

For example, the electric field at the origin (x = 0) due to an infinite number of positive point charges, each of the magnitude q,
situated at the points x = 1m, 2m, 4m, ...... has the magnitude

1 q q q q
E ......
2 2 2
4 0K 1 2 4 82
q 1 1 1 q 1 4 q
1 ............
4 0K 4 16 64 4 0K 1–1/ 4 3 4 0K

O +q +q +q
E x
x=0 1m 2m 4m
If the infinite number of point charges are alternately positive and negative, then the electric field has the magnitude

1 q q q q
E – – .......
2 2 2
4 0K 1 2 4 82
q 1 1 1
1– – ......
4 0K 4 16 64
q 1 4 q
4 0K 1 1/ 4 5 4 0K
Static Electricity 285

Less
CHARGED CONDUCTOR CARRYING NO CURRENTS
+
Any charge given to a conductor spreads over the whole external-most surfaces + S+
S of the conductor, with the varying surface charge density . The surface E 0
charge density is more on the bulging parts and less on the flat parts of the S1 +
+
external-most surface. No part of the charge given resides over the inner E 0 +
surfaces, S1, S2 ........ etc. of the conductor, i.e., the cavity surfaces, if any.
E E 0 +
+
The electric field E is vanishing inside of the external-most surface S and,
S2
even, inside of the inner surfaces S1, S2,.... of the conductor. The field is + E 0
nonvanishing on and near the surface S in the direction normal to it, being +
away from the conductor for the positive charge and towards for the negative +
charge. +
+

Electric field, E
0K More
Fig. 6.10
which shows that the field is independent of the position and depends on the
surface charge density .

ELECTRIC LINES OF FORCE OR ELECTRIC FIELD LINES

The concept of electric field was introduced by Michael Faraday. The magnitude of electric field strength at any point is measured
by the number of electric line of force passing per unit small area around that point normally and the direction of field at any point
is given by the tangent to the line of force at the point.
An electric line of force is that imaginary smooth curve drawn in an electric field along which a free isolated unit positive
charge moves.
Properties of Electric Lines of Force
(1) The lines of force diverge out from a +ve charge and converge at a – ve charge. More correctly the lines of force are always
directed from higher to lower potential.
(2) The tangent drawn at any point on line of force gives the direction of force acting on a positive charge placed at that point.
(3) Two lines of force never intersect. If they are assumed to intersect, there will be two directions of electric field at the point
of intersection, which is impossible.
(4) These lines have a tendency to contract in tension like a stretched elastic string. This actually explains attraction between
opposite charges.
(5) These lines have a tendency to separate from each other in the direction perpendicular to their length. This explains
repulsion between like charges.
(6) The no. of lines originating or terminating on a charge is proportional to the magnitude of charge. In rationalised MKS
1
system electric lines are associated with unit charge. So if a body encloses a charge q. Total line of force associated
0
q
with it (called flux) will be . + –
0 A
(7) Total lines of force may be fractional as lines of force are imaginary.
(8) Line of force ends or starts normally on the surface of a conductor.
Fig. 6.11
(9) If there is no electric field there will be no lines of force.
(10) Lines of force per unit area normal to the area at a point represents magnitude of intensity, electric lines represent strong field
while distant weak field.
(11) Electric lines of force differ from magnetic lines of force.
(a) Electric lines of force never form closed loop while magnetic lines are always closed or extended to infinity.
(b) Electric lines of force always emerge or terminate normally on the surface of charged conductor, while magnetic lines
emanate from or terminate on the surface of a magnetic material at any angle.
(c) Electric lines of force do not exist inside a conductor but magnetic lines of force may exist inside magnetic material. Lines of
force do not exist inside a conductor as field inside a conductor is zero.
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Po i n t
Which among the curves shown in figure cannot possibly represent electrostatic field lines?

Conductor

(d)
(a)
(b) (c)

Fig. 6.12

SOLUTION
(a) It is wrong, because electric field lines must be normal to the surface of conductor outside it.
(b) It is correct
(c) It is wrong, because electric field lines never intersect each other.
(d) It is wrong, because electric field lines cannot form closed loops.

ELECTRIC FLUX ( )

z z
The total number of electric lines of force through a given area is called the electric flux.
(i) For open surface, 0 = d = E . ds

z
(ii) For closed surface, c = E . ds (flux definition formula)
q net
c= or 4 kqnet (Gauss theorem formula).
0
= E . ds = Es cos .
s always normal to surface and pointed outwards.
Electric flux is a scalar quantity
The S.I. unit of electric flux is V – m or N – m2/C
The value of electric flux ' ' does not depend upon the distribution of charges and the distance between them inside the closed
surface.
The value of is zero in the following circumstances :
(a) If a dipole is enclosed by a closed surface.
(b) Magnitude of +ve and –ve charges are equal inside a closed surface.
(c) If no charge is enclosed by a closed surface.
(d) In coming flux (–ve) = out going flux (+ ve).

(i) Electric field due to linear charge distribution, E where = linear charge density
2 0r

(ii) Electric field due to a plane sheet of charge E where, = surface charge density
2 0

(iii) Electric field near a charged conducting surface E

0

1 q
Electric field due to charged spherical shell or solid conducting sphere E
4 0 R2
1 q 1 q
Einside = 0, E surface 2, Eoutside 4
4 0 R 0 R2
Static Electricity 287

ILLUSTRATION : 6.6
A surface encloses an electric quadrupole. What is the total electric flux through the surface?
SOLUTION :
An electric quadrupole consists of the two electric dipoles, each one having the two point charges +q, – q and the zero net
charge. Therefore, the net charge of a quadrupole is zero, and then, according to the Gauss’s Law, the total electric flux through
the surface enclosing the quadrupole given by the net charge inside of the surface divided by the permittinity 0, is zero.

ILLUSTRATION : 6.7 E
R

L
Fig. 6.13

A cylinder of radius R and length L is placed in a uniform electric field

E , parallel to its axis, as shown. Calculate the total electric flux through
the surface of cylinder.
SOLUTION :
The cylinder is simply placed in the uniform electric field E which may otherwise be in any direction, and it does not have any charge
enclosed inside of it. Therefore, according to the Gauss’s law, the total electric flux through the surface of cylinder must be zero.

ELECTRIC POTENTIAL
It is the amount of work done by an external force in moving a unit positive charge (without acceleration) from one point to
another in an electrostatic field. In case both the points are within the electrostatic field work done per unit positive charge is
called potential difference.
When first point lies at infinity work done per unit positive charge is called potential at the second point.
WAB
VB – VA
q0

ELECTRIC POTENTIAL DIFFERENCE

Electric potential difference between two points A and B in an electric field is defined as the amount of work done per unit charge
to move a test charge q0 from A to B, always keeping it in equilibrium, against the electrostatic force of the field along any path
between the two points.
W AB B
VB – VA – E.dl
q0 A

WAB q 1 1
or q – –1
0 4 0 rB rA (Unit = JC )
where rA are r B are position vectors of points A and B respectively.

Electric Potential due to a Point Charge

Electric potential at a point in an electric field is the amount of work done in moving a unit positive test charge from infinity to
taht point against the electrostatic forces, along any path.
q q
V
4 0 r
where r is the position vector of the point, and q is the source charge.

Electric Potential due to a Group of Point Charges

Electric potential at a point due to a group of point charges is the algebraic sum of the potentials due to individual charge.
n
q qi
V 2
4 0r i 1 ri
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288 PHYSICS
Potential on Axial line of an Electric Dipole
q
V 2
4 0r
Potential on Equatorial line of an Electric Dipole
V = 0.
as electric potential at a point due to an electric dipole is given by the relation
p cos
V 2
4 0r

where is the angle between the dipole moment vector and the position vector of the point from the centre of the dipole.
Relation between Electric Field and Potential Gradient
dV
The potential gradient at a point (along the x-axis) and the electric field intensity E, at that point are related as:
dx
dV
E –
dx
Here the negative sign indicates that although the electric field vector and potential gradient vector are along the same line,
they are oppositely directed.

EQUIPOTENTIAL SURFACES
(a) An equipotential surface is a surface, every point of which is at the same electric potential.
dV
(b) the electric potential gradient along an equipotential surface will be zero and hence the electric field along an equipotential
dx
surface will be zero. Thus, electric field will only be normal to an equipotential surface.
(c) No work is done in moving a charge between two points on an equipotential surface.
(d) As equipotential surfaces are normal to E, they also do not cross/intersect each other.

ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL ENERGY

The electrostatic potential energy of a point charge q placed at a point in the electric field E is given by
U = qV
i.e., it is the work done in displacing the point charge q from the reference point which is arbitrarily chosen at infinity and U is
arbitraily taken zero there, to that point. The electrostatic potential energy gain (UB – UA) in displacing the charge q from the point
A to the point B in the electric field E is equal to the work done in displacing the charge q from A and B. Therefore,
(UB – UA) = q (VB – VA)
where (VB – VA) is the electrostatic potential difference between the points A and B. This gain may be positive, or zero, or negative,
depending on the charge and the electrostatic potential difference. For example, when an electron of charge – e moves from a
lower to higher potential, it loses its electrostatic potential energy. The loss, or gain, of electrostatic potential energy is normally
expressed in the unit, i.e.,
1 eV 1.6 10 –19 J
The electrostatic potential energy of a system of two point charge q1 and q2, separated by a distance r12, is

1 q1q2
U
4 0K r12
which is defined as the amount of work done in assembling the two point charges from the infinite separation between them. The
electrostatic potential energy of a system of three point charges q1, q2 and q3, having the separation r12 between q1, q2,
separation r23 between q2, q3 and separation r31 between q3, q1, becomes

1 q1q2 q2 q3 q3 q1
U
4 0K r12 r23 r31

which is equal to the amount of work done in assembling the system of three point charges from the infinite separations between
them.
Static Electricity 289

Po i n t
A balloon may easily be charged to several thousand volts. Does that mean it has several thousand joules of energy?
Explain.
SOLUTION
No, it doesn't mean that the balloon has several thousand joules of energy always. It can have several thousand joules of
energy only if the balloon acquires high charge.
ILLUSTRATION : 6.8
Three point charges q1, q2 and q3 of 0.1C each are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle of the side 1m. If this system
is supplied energy at the rate of 1kW, then how much time will be required to move one of the charges to the mid point of the line
joining the others?
SOLUTION : q1
The three charges are at the corners of an equilateral triangle, as shown.
The total electrostatic potential energy of the system is

1 q1 q 2 q 2 q3 q 3 q1
U1
4 o r12 r23 r31 1m 1m

0.1 0.1 0.1 0.1 0.1 0.1

(9× 109 ) = 2.7 × 108J
1 1 1
q2 1m q3
When one of the charges, say q1, is moved to the mid point of the line joining
Fig. 6.14
the other two charges, as shown,
The total electrostatic potential energy of the system will be 0.5m 0.5m
q2 q1 q3
0.1 0.1 0.1 0.1 0.1 0.1
U2 (9 109 ) = 4.5 × 108J
0.5 0.5 1 Fig. 6.15

Then, the total energy supplied to the system becomes

U U 2 – U1 (4.5 – 2.7) 108 1.8 108 J

As the power supplied to the system is 1kW 1000W, we have the time taken in supplying the energy U,

1.8 108
i.e., t 1.8 105 s 50h
1000

ILLUSTRATION : 6.9
Two identical point charges, +q and +q are placed on the x-axis at the points x = a and x = – a, respectively. A third point charge
Q is placed at the origin x = 0. Prove that the change in the lectrostatic potential energy of Q is approximately,

1 2Qqd 2
U when it is displaced by a distance d < < a along the x-axis.
0 a3
SOLUTION :
Before the displacement of the point charge Q, its electrostatic potential energy is
a a

+q +q
1 Qq Qq 1 2Qq
U1 x=–a
4 0 a a 4 a x=0 x=+a
0
Fig. 6.16
When Q is displaced by a distance d < < a in the + x direction, then its electrostatic potential energy becomes
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290 PHYSICS

1 Qq Q 1 2aQq
U2
4 0 (a d ) (a – d ) 4 0 (a 2 – d 2 )
–1
1 2Qq d2 1 2Qq d2
1– 1
4 0 a a2 4 0 a a2
Now, the change, i.e., increase, in the electrostatic potential energy of Q becomes

1 2Qq d2 1 2Qqd 2
U = U2 – U1
4 0 a a2 4 0 a3

The torque on a dipole in uniform electric field as shown in figure is given by, qE 2 sin p E
So is maximum, when dipole is to field & minimum (=0) when dipole is parallel or antiparallel to field.
If p pxiˆ py ˆj pzkˆ and E Exiˆ Ey ˆj Ezkˆ +q
qE
2l
iˆ ˆj kˆ
Then px py pz qE
–q E
Ex Ey Ez
Fig.6.17
The work done in rotating the dipole from equilibrium through an angle d is given by
dW d pE sin d
2 2
And from 1 2 ,W dW pE sin d
1 1

If 1 = 0 i.e equilibrium position, then

2
W= pE sin d pE(1 cos 2 )
0
Workdone in rotating an electric dipole in uniform electric field from 1 to 2 is W = pE (cos 1 – cos 2)
Time period of a dipole in uniform electric field is

I
T 2
pE
where I = moment of inertia of the dipole about the axis of rotation.
Potential energy of an electric dipole in an electric field is,
U – p .E i.e. U = –pE cos

where is the angle between E and p .

We can also write
U px Ex py Ey pz Ez
Electric field due to an electric dipole
(a) Alogn axial line (end-on position) 2l P
E
p and E are parallel –q +q
p x
1 2px
Eax = . when x >> l Fig. 6.18
Î 0 (x 2 –l2 )2
Static Electricity 291

(b) Along equatorial line (Broad - side on position) p

E
x
1 p
E eq . where x >>l –q +q
4 2 3/ 2
0 (x )
Fig. 6.19
p and E are anti parallel i.e when x >>l , Eax = 2 Eeq

Ey E E
x
(c) At any point (for first dipole)
p
1 p 1 x
E 3cos 2 1 ; tan tan
4 x 3 2
0

(d) Electric field intensity due to a point charge varies inversely as cube of –q p +q
the distance and in case of quadrupole it varies inversely as the fourth Fig.6.20
power of distance from the quadrupole.

ILLUSTRATION : 6.10
Calculate the electric field intensity due to a dipole of length 10 cm and having a charge of 500 C at a point on the axis distant
20 cm from one of the charges in air.
SOLUTION :
The electric intensity on the axial line of the dipole is given by

1 2r p
E axial
4 2
o 2
2 a
r
2

Here, a = 10 cm or a/2 = 5 × 10–2 m, r = (20 + 5) cm = 25 × 10–2 m

p = q × a = (500 × 10–6) × (10 × 10–2) = 5 × 10–5 Cm

2 (25 10 2 ) (5 10 5 )
Eaxial (9 109 ) 3.25 107 NC
10 8 [(25) 2 (5) 2 ]2

CAPACITORS AND CAPACITANCE

A capacitor or condenser is a device that stores electrical energy. It consists of conductors of any shape and size carrying
charges of equal magnitude and opposite signs and separated by an insulating medium
The symbol of a capacitor is or
The net charge on a capacitor is zero.
Capacitance or capacity of a capacitor is a measure of ability of the capacitor to store charge on it.
When a conductor is charged then its potential rises. The increase in potential is directly proportional to the charge given to the
conductor.
Q
i.e., Q V or Q = CV or, C
V
The constant C is known as the capacitance of the conductor.
Capacitance is a scalar quantity.
Its SI unit is farad (F) or coulomb/volt

IC 3 109 esu of charge

1 farad = = = 9 × 1011 state farad (esu of capacity)
IV (1/ 300) esu of potential
Capacitance depends on :
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292 PHYSICS
(i) Area of the conductor : If the surface area of a conductor is increased keeping charge q constant its potential decreases and
q
hence the capacity increases C =
V
(ii) The presence of other conductor in the vicinity of the charged conductor: The presence of other conductor near a charged
conductor decreases the potential of the charged conductor, there by the capacity increases.
(iii) The medium around the charged conductor : If the capacity of the conductor is C when air is the medium around it, then the
capacity becomes KC when another medium of dielectric constant K is around it. This is because of the reason that
potential becomes V/K.
Capacitance is independent of : M
(i) Charge on conductor Q
+ +
(ii) Potential of conductor + +
(iii) Nature of material and theckness of the conductor. + +
+ +
Principle of a capacitor : Consider a conducting plate M which is +
+
given a charge Q such that its potential rises to V, then, + +
Q + +
Capacitance, C = + +
V
where C is the capacitance of the capacitor. Fig. 6.21
Let us now place another identical conducting plate N parallel to it
N
such that charge is induced on plate N as shown in figure.
If V_ is the potential at M due to induced negative charge on N and V+ M – +
is the potential at M due to induced positive charge on N, then + – +
+
+ + – +
Q Q + – +
C' +
V' V V V + + – +
+ + – +
Since V' < V (as the induced negative charge lies closer to the plate M
+ +
in comparison to induced positive charge).
Fig. 6.22
Therefore, C' > C
Further, if N is earthed from the outer side (see figure) then
V'' = V+ – V– (Since the entire positive charge flows to the earth) N
M –
Q Q
Therefore, C '' C '' C + + –
V '' V V + –
+
If an identical earthed conductor is placed in the vicinity of a charged + + –
conductor then the capacitance of the charged conductor increases + + –
appreciable. This is the principle of a parallel plate capacitor. + + –
+ +
DIFFERENT TYPES OF CAPACITOR Fig. 6.23

The Parallel Plate Capacitor

The capacitor has two parallel metallic plates of any shape each of surface area A. Both these plates are separated by a distance
d apart. Plate 1 is given a positive charge so that equal negative charge is induced on the plate 2 which is earthed from outside.
This earthing reduces the potential difference between the plates, as a result capacitor can store more charge and hence its
capacity C increases.
K 0A
The capacitance is given by, C
d
1 2
where K is the dielectric constant of the medium in between the plates.
+ –
Special cases : + –
(i) When medium between the plates is air (K ; 1) + –
+ E –
0A
C + – ++
d +
+ – +
(ii) When the space between the capacitor is partly filled with the dielectric, +
d
Fig. 6.24
Static Electricity 293

0A 0A
C
1 t
d t d t 1
K K
where t is the thickness of dielectric medium between the plates. The induced charge on the dielectric faces is q , which is given
as

q q

(iii) When a metallic sheet of thickness t (t < d) is introduced between the plates, then
0A
C
d t
(iv) When the space between the plates is filled with a dielectric medium which linearly varies as such its value near one plate
is K1, and that near the other plate is K2, then
0 A( K 2 K1 )
C
loge ( K2 / K1 )
(v) If the space between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is filled with two dielectric medium of thicknesses d1 and d2
(d = d1 + d2) having dielectric constants K1 and K2 then

0A
the capacitance will be, C
d1 d2
K1 K2

Spherical Capacitor
A spherical capacitor consists of two concentric spherical conductors of radii R1 and R2.
Case I : When outer sphere is earthed :
When a charge Q is given to inner sphere it is uniformly distributed on its surface A charge –Q is induced on inner surface of outer
sphere. The charge +Q is induced on outer surface of outer sphere flows to earth as it is grounded.
E = 0 for r < Rl
and E = 0 for r > R2 V
Potential of inner sphere
Q Q R1
V1 = +
4 0 R1 4 0R 2 R2
Q
Q R 2 R1
Fig. 6.25
4 0 R1R 2
As outer surface is earthed so potential
V2 = 0
Q R 2 R1
Potential difference between plates V V1 V2
4 0 R1 R 2
Q RR
so, C 4 0 1 2 (in air or vacuum)
V R2 R1
In presence of medium between plates
R1 R2
C 4 r 0
R2 R1
Case II : When inner sphere is earthed
Here the system is equivalent to a spherical capacitor of inner and outer radii R1 and R2 respectively and a spherical conductor
of radius R2 in parallel.
This is because charge Q given to outer sphere distributes in such a way that for the outer sphere charge on the inner side is,
 EBD_7005
294 PHYSICS

R1 + + +
Q and charge on the outer side is +
R2 + V +
+ +
R1 (R 2 R1 ) ++ +
Q Q Q + +
R2 R2 +
+ R1 +
2 + R2 Q +
R 1R 2 4 0 R2
So total capacity of the system, C 4 4 R 2 or, C + +
0
R 2 R1
0 R2 R1 + + + +
Fig. 6.26
ILLUSTRATION : 6.11
If the distance between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is made half and the area of plates is doubled then what will be the
capacitance?
SOLUTION
0A
As we know, capacitance, C =
d

C1 A1 d 2 A1 1 d1 1
C2 = 4C1
C2 A 2 d1 2A1 d1 2 4

ENERGY STORED IN A CAPACITOR

When a conductor is charged its potential changes from 0 to V and work is done against repulsion between charge stored on the
conductor and charge coming from the charging body. This work is stored as electrostatic potential energy (U).
q2 1 1
= qV = CV2.
U=
2C 2 2
The energy is stored in the electric field between the plates of the capacitor.

The energy stored per unit volume in the electric field between the plates is called energy density.
1 1 2
Energy density, u = 2
2 0E = 2
.
0

WORK DONE BY BATTERY

Work done by battery is given by
W = Charge that flow through battery × battery EMF
Whenever there is a charging of capacitor, work done by battery, in part is stored as electrostatic energy in between capacitor
plates and remaining is dissipated as heat due to charge flow through connecting wires.
In general, heat produced is given by H = work done by battery – energy stored in capacitor

Po i n t
What meaning would you give to the capacitance of a single conductor?
SOLUTION

It means that a single conductor is a capacitor whose other plate can be considered to be at infinity.

COMBINATION OF CAPACITORS

Series Combination of Capacitors

In this arrangement of capacitors the charge has no alternative path(s) to flow.
Let us consider a number of capacitors, connected in series, as shown.
Static Electricity 295

They have the same charge q but the different electric potential differences V1, V2, V3,............, Vn across them due to their different
capacitances C1, C2, C3, ........., Cn . The total electric potential difference applied across the combination is
V = V1 + V2 + V3 + ............... q q q

q q q + C1 – + C2 – + C3 –
=C C ............ V1 V 2 V3
1 2 C3

1 1 1
=q C C2 C3
...........
1 + –
Therefore, the equivalent capacitance C of the series combination is given by V
Fig. 6.27
1 V 1 1 1 1
.......... +
C q C1 C2 C3 Cn
Evidently, therefore, the equivalent capacitance C is smaller than each one of the capacitances of combination.

Parallel Combination of Capacitiors

In this arrangement of capacitors, the charge has an alternative path(s) to flow.
We, now, consider a number of capacitors, connected in parallel, as shown. They have the same electric potential difference V
across them, but the different charges q1, q2, q3 .........., qn on them due to their different capacitances C1, C2, C3 ......., Cn .
The total charge of the combination is q1
q = q1 + q2 + q3 +............ C
+ 1–
= C1V + C2 V + C3 V + .............. V1
q2
= V (C1 + C2 + C3 + .............) C2
+ –
from which we have the equivalent capacitance of the combination, V3
q3
q C
i.e., C = C1 C2 C3 ....... + 3–
V V3
Evidently, therefore, the equivalent capacitance C is more than each
one of the capacitances of combination. + –
V
ILLUSTRATION : 6.12 Fig. 6.28

A circuit is shown in figure. Find the charge on the condenser having a capacity of 5 F.
A B
2 F
3 F

5 F

4 F
+ –
6V
Fig. 6.29
SOLUTION :
Potential difference between A and B = 6 volts. The condensers of capacitance 2 F and 5 F are in parallel.
Their effective capacitance, C = 2 + 5 = 7 F.
C 3 7 3 21
The capacitance between A and B is given by C´ F
C 3 7 3 10
21 63
Total charge Q CV 6 C
10 5
Q 63 1 21
Total potential difference across 3 F capacitor, is V1 volts
3 5 3 5
 EBD_7005
296 PHYSICS

21 9
Hence the common potential difference across the condensers in parallel is V2 6 V
5 5

9
So, the charge on 5 F condenser is Q 5 V2 5 9 C
5

ILLUSTRATION : 6.13
In the given circuit, consisting of the four capacitors and a battery, the potential difference across the 7 F capacitors is 6V.
Then, calculate the potential differences across the remaining three capacitors and the battery emf.

+ + –
12 F –
3.9 F
+ –
6V
+ – + –
7 F 3 F
Fig. 6.30
SOLUTION :
The capacitors of 7 F and 3 F are in series and therefore, they have the same charge on them and the potential differences across
them are in a ratio equal to the inverse ratio of capacitances. Therefore, the potential difference across the 3 F capacitor is
6V 7 F
= 14V
3 F
The potential difference across the parallel combination of 3.9 F capacitor with the series combination of 7 F and 3 F capacitor
is, therefore, 20V. The total capacitance of this combination is
7 3
= 3.9 6 F
7 3
which is in series with the capacitor of 12 F and therefore, they have same charge and the potential differences are in a ratio equal
to the inverse ratio of capacitances. The potential difference across the 12 F capacitor becomes
20V 6 F
10V
12 F
and then, the battery emf E = 20 + 10 = 30 V.

LOSS OF ENERGY ON JOINING TWO CHARGED CONDUCTORS OR CAPACITORS

When the two charged conductors, having the capacitances C1 and C2 and the potentials V1 and V2, respectively, are connected
together by the conducting wires, the charge flows from the higher potential say, V1 to the lower potential say, V2 till, the
potentials of the two conductors are equalised. Then, the common potential of the two conductors will be
(q1 q2 ) (C1V1 C2V2 )
V
C1 C2 (C1 C2 )
The same thing, as outlined above, happens, when the two charged capacitors are connected, with the plates of the like polarities
together, by the conducting wires. Before connecting together, the total energy of the charged conductors, or capacitors, is
1 1
U1 = C1V12 C2V22
2 2

V1 V2 V V

C1 C2 C1 C2

q1 q2 q´1 q´2
Before connecting conductors After connecting conductors
Fig. 6.31
Static Electricity 297

After connecting together, the total energy of charged conductors, or capacitors, will be
1 (C1V1 C2V2 )
U2 (C1 C2 )V 2
2 2(C1 C2 )

1 C1C2 2
Therefore, the loss of energy becomes U = U1 – U2 = 2 (C C ) (V1 – V2 )
1 2
which is mainly as the heat and also as the light and sound due to the sparking taking place. This loss is zero, when
q1 q2 q1 C1
V1 = V2 C1 = C2 q2 = C2
i.e., the charges of the two conductors, or capacitors, before joining together are in the ratio of their capacitances.
After connecting together, the charges on the two conductors, or capacitors, will also be in the ratio of their capacitances,

q1 C1V C1
i.e., =CV
q2 2 C2

ILLUSTRATION : 6.14
A 4 F capacitor is charged by a 200V supply. It is then disconnected from the supply and then, connected to another uncharged
2 F capacitor. How much electrostatic potential energy of the first capacitor is lost in the form of heat and other radiation?
SOLUTION :
The electrostatic potential energy of the first capacitor of 4 F capacitance, lost in the form of heat and other radiation, when it is
charged by a 200 V supply and connected to another unchanged capacitor of 2 F capacitances after disconnection from the
supply, is

1 C1C2 1 4 10–6 2 10 –6
U = 2 C C (V1 : V2 )
2
(200 – 0)2 = 2.67 × 10–2J
1 2 2 4 10 –6 2 10 –6
 EBD_7005
298 PHYSICS

1. Two protons in a molecule is separated by 3 × 10–10 m. Find the electrostatic force exerted by one proton on the other.
Sol. Here, q1 = q2 = 1.6 × 10–19C , r = 3 × 10–10 m
According to Coulomb’s law, the electrostatic force F between two charges q1 and q2, which are seperated by distance r is

r = 3 10 10
q q m
1 1 2
F
4 2 –19 –19
0 r q1= 1.6 × 10 C q2 = 1.6 × 10 C
–19 2
So, F = 9×10 9 (1.6×10 ) = 2.56×10 –9 C (Repulsive)
9×10 –20
2. Two negative charges of unit magnitude each and a positive charge q are placed along a straight line. At what position and for
what value of q will the system be in equilibrium? Check whether it is stable, unstable or neutral equilibrium?
Sol. Let the charge + q be held at a distance x1 from unit negative charge at A, and at a distance x2 from unit negative charge at B.
q ( 1) q ( 1)
For equilibrium of q, +q
4 2
o x1 4 2
o x2
–1 –1
x1 = x2 i.e. q must be equidistant from A and B. A B
For equilibrium of unit negative charge at B. x1 x2
Force on B due to charge at A + force on B due to q = 0
( 1) ( 1) q ( 1) 1 ( q)
2 2
0 ( x1 x2 )
4 o ( x1 x2 ) 4 o x2 4 2 2
o (2 x2 ) 4 o x2
1 1
q= i.e. th of the magnitude of either unit charge.
4 4
Stability : If q is displaced slightly towards A, force of attraction due to A exceeds the force of attraction due to B. Therefore,
q will get displaced further towards A. Hence the equilibrium of q is unstable.
However, if q is displaced in a direction to A, net force would bring q back to its normal position. Therefore, the equilibrium
will be stable.
3. Electric force between two point charges q and Q at rest is F. Now if a charge – q is placed next to q what will be the (a) force on
Q due to q (b) total force on Q ?
Sol. (a) As electric force between two body interaction, i.e., force between two particles, is independent of presence or absence of
other particles, the force between Q and q will remain unchanged, i.e., F.
(b) An electric force is proportional to the magnitude of charges, total force on Q will be given by
F Qq q 0
0 [as q' = q + (– q) = 0]
F Qq q q
i.e., The resultant force on Q will be zero.
4. Calculate the electric field strength required to just support a water drop of mass 10–7 kg and having charge 1.6 × 10–19 C.
Sol. Here, m = 10–7 kg, q = 1.6 × 10–19 C
Step 1 : Let E be the electric field strength required to support the water drop.
Force acting on the water drop due to electric field E is F = qE = 1.6 × 10–19 E
Weight of drop acting downward, W = mg = 10–7 × 9.8 newton.
Step 2 : Drop will be supported if F and W are equal and opposite.
i.e., 1.6 × 10–19 E = 9.8 × 10–7
7
9.8 10
E= 19 = 6.125 × 1012 N C–1.
1.6 10
Static Electricity 299

5. n small drops of same size are charged to V volt each. If they coalesc to form a single large drop, then what will be its potential?

Sol. As Volume remains constant, therefore, 4 R 2 n

4 3
r R n1/3 r.
3 3
nq nq q
New potential V´
1/3 n2/3 n2/3 V .
4 oR 4 o (n r ) 4 or
6. The following figure shows a surface S which is enclosing – 2q charge. The charge +q is kept outside the surface S. Calculate
the net outward/ inward flux from the surface S.

–2q

+q

S
Sol. According to Gauss law, the net flux is
1 2q
× net charge enclosed by closed surface
o 0
Because +q is outside the surface S, so net flux due to +q thought S is zero.
7. In which figure, the electric flux is maximum?

q
q q

A B C
Sol. According to Gauss law, the electric flux linked with a closed surface depends only on net charge enclosed by that surface.
It does not depend on the shape and size of that closed surface. Hence electric flux linked in above three figures are same
i.e., A = B = C.
8. A charge q is enclosed in a cube. What is the electric flux associated with one of the faces of cube?
Sol. According to Gauss theorem the total electric flux
1 1
× total enclosed charge q.
o o
Since cube has six faces, hence electric flux linked with each face (1/ 6 ) q / 6 o .
9. A charge Q C is placed at the centre of a cube. What will be the flux coming out from any surface?
Sol. According to Gauss’s law
Q C Q 6
( flux from all six surfaces of cube) = 10
o o

Q
So, flux from any one of surface of cube 10 6
6 o
10. A 10 mF capacitor is charged to a potential difference of 50 V and is connected to another uncharged capacitor in parallel.
Now the common potential difference becomes 20 volt. What is the capacitance of second capacitor?
Sol. Here, q1 10 50 500 C , C1 10 F , C2 ? , q2 0
q1 q2
As V
C1 C2

q1 q2 500 0
C1 C 2 25 F
V 20
Therefore, C2 25 C1 25 10 15 F
 EBD_7005
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8. A charge Q is placed at the corner of a cube. The electric

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-42) : This section contains multiple choice flux through all the six faces of the cube is
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out (a) Q/3 0 (b) Q/6 0
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(c) Q/8 0 (d) Q/ 0
1. An electric dipole, consisting of two opposite charges of 9. In a parallel plate capacitor, the distance between the plates
6 is d and potential difference across the plates is V. Energy
2 10 C each separated by a distance 3 cm is placed in an
stored per unit volume between the plates of capacitor is
electric field of 2 10 5 N/C. Torque acting on the dipole is
Q2 1 V2
(a) (b) 12 10 2 N m (a) (b) 0
12 10 1 N m 2V 2 2 d2
(c) 12 10 3 N m (d) 12 10 4 N m 1 V2 1 V2
(c) 2 0d 2 (d) 0
2. If the potential of a capacitor having capacity 6 F is 2 d
increased from 10 V to 20 V, then increase in its energy will be 10. Energy stored in a capacitor is
(a) 4 × 10–4 J (b) 4 × 10–6 J 1
(c) 9 × 10–4 J (d) 12 × 10–6 J (a) QV (b) QV
2
3. A charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining two 1 2
exactly equal positive charges Q. The system of three (c) QV
(d) QV
charges will be in equilibrium, if q is equal to 11. Three capacitors each of capacity 4 F are to be connected
Q in such a way that the effective capacitance is 6 F.
(a) (b) + Q This can be done by
4
(a) connecting two in parallel and one in series
Q (b) connecting all of them in series
(c) –Q (d)
2 (c) connecting them in parallel
4. The formation of a dipole is due to two equal and unlike (d) connecting two in series and one in parallel
point charges placed at a 12. When a body is charged by induction, then the body
(a) short distance (b) long distance (a) becomes neutral
(c) above each other (d) none of these (b) does not lose any charge
5. A parallel plate condenser with oil between the plates (c) loses whole of the charge on it
(dielectric constant of oil K = 2) has a capacitance C. (d) loses part of the charge on it
If the oil is removed, then capacitance of the capacitor 13. If a body is positively charged, then it has
becomes (a) excess of electrons (b) excess of protons
(c) deficiency of electrons (d) deficiency of neutrons
C C 14. On charging by conduction, mass of a body may
(a) 2C (b) 2 C (c) (d)
2 2 (a) increase (b) decreases
6. When air is replaced by a dielectric medium of force (c) increase or decrease (d) none
constant K, the maximum force of attraction between two 15. Coulomb’s law is true for
charges, separated by a distance (a) atomic distances (= 10–11 m)
(a) decreases K-times (b) increases K-times (b) nuclear distances (= 10–15 m)
(c) charged as well as uncharged particles
1
(c) remains unchanged (d) becomes times (d) all the distances
K2 16. Two charges are placed a certain distance apart. A metallic
7. A capacitor is charged to store an energy U. The charging sheet is placed between them. What will happen to the force
battery is disconnected. An identical capacitor is now between the charges?
connected to the first capacitor in parallel. The energy in (a) increase (b) decrease
each of the capacitors is (c) remains unchanged (d) either ‘a’ or ‘b’
(a) U/2 (b) 3U/2 17. Which of the following is best insulator?
(c) U (d) U/4 (a) Carbon (b) Paper
(c) Graphite (d) Ebonite
Static Electricity 301

18. Two spheres A and B of exactly same mass are given equal 29. A hollow sphere of charge does not have electric field at
positive and negative charges respectively. Their masses
(a) outer point (b) interior point
after charging
(a) remains unaffected (b) mass of A > mass of B (c) beyond 2 m (d) beyond 100 m
(c) mass of A < mass of B (d) nothing can be said 30. If one penetrates a uniformly charged solid sphere, the
19. What happens when some charge is placed on a soap electric field E
bubble? (a) increases
(a) its radius decreases (b) its radius increases (b) decreases
(c) the bubble collapses (d) none of the above (c) is zero at all points
20. Quantisation of charge implies (d) remains same as at the surface
(a) charge cannot be destroyed 31. If one penetrates a uniformly charged spherical cloud,
(b) charge exists on particles electric field strength
(c) there is a minimum permissible charge on a particle (a) decreases directly as the distance from the centre
(d) charge, which is a fraction of a coulomb is not possible. (b) increases directly as the distance from the centre
21. Two charges are placed a certain distance apart in air. If a (c) remains constant
glass slab is introduced between them, the force between (d) none of the above
them will 32. Electric lines of force about a negative point charge are
(a) increase (b) decrease (a) circular anticlockwise (b) circular clockwise
(c) remains the same (d) be zero (c) radial, inwards (d) radial, outwards
22. A charge q1 exerts some force on a second charge q2 . 33. Electric lines of force
If third charge q3 is brought near, the force of q1 exerted on q2 (a) exist everywhere
(a) decreases (b) exist only in the immediate vicinity of electric charges
(b) increases (c) exist only when both positive and negative charges
are near one another
(c) remains unchanged
(d) are imaginary
(d) increases if q3 is of same sign as q1 and decreases if
q3 is of opposite sign. 34. Debye is the unit of
(a) electric flux (b) electric dipole moment
23. A positively charged rod is brought near an uncharged
conductor. If the rod is then suddenly withdrawn, the charge (c) electric potential (d) electric field intensity
left on the conductor will be 35. An electric dipole will experience a net force when it is placed in
(a) positive (b) negative (a) a uniform electric field
(c) zero (d) not sure (b) a non-uniform electric field
24. The ratio of electric force between two electrons to two (c) both the above cases
protons separated by the same distance in air is (d) none of these
(a) 100 (b) 106 36. An electric dipole is kept in a uniform electric field.
(c) 10 4 (d) none it experiences
(a) a force and a torque
25. The dielectric constant of a metal is
(b) a force, but no torque
(a) (b) 0
(c) A torque but no force
(c) 1 (d) none
(d) neither a force nor a torque
26. A metallic particle having no net charge is placed near a 37. A charge q is enclosed in a cube. What is the electric flux
finite metal plate carrying a positive charge. The electric
associated with one of the faces of cube
force on the particle will be
(a) towards the plate (b) away from the plate (a) q/ o (b) o /q
(c) parallel to the plate (d) zero (c) 6q/ o (d) q/6 o
27. If a body is charged by rubbing it, its weight 38. A charge Q is placed at the corner of a cube. The electric
(a) remains precisely constant flux through all the faces of the cube is
(b) increases slightly (a) Q/ o (b) Q/6 o
(c) decreases slightly
(d) may increase slightly or may decrease slightly (c) Q/8 o (d) Q/3 o
28. An electric field can deflect 39. Positive electric flux indicates that electric lines of force
(a) neutrons (b) X-rays are directed
(a) outwards (b) inwards
(c) -rays (d) -particles
(c) outwards or inwards (d) none of these
 EBD_7005
302 PHYSICS
40. Electric flux at a point in an electric field is 47. Consider two identical charges placed at a distance 2d apart
(a) positive (b) negative as shown in the figure. The equilibrium of a positive test
charge placed at the point O midway between them may be:
(c) zero (d) none of these Y
41. Electric flux over a surface in an electric field may be
(a) positive (b) negative
(c) zero (d) positive, negative, zero
42. The electric potential at a point on the equatorial line of an
electric dipole is
Q O Q
(a) directly proportional to distance 2d
(b) inversely proportional to distance (a) neutral
(c) inversely proportional to square of the distance (b) stable for displacement along the x-axis
(c) stable for displacement along the y-axis
(d) none of the above (d) unstable for displacement along the x-axis
48. Across the surface of a charged conductor, the electric:
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 43-58): This section contains multiple choice
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of (a) field is continuous (b) potential is continuous
which ONE OR MORE may be correct. (c) field is discontinuous (d) potential is discontinuous
49. A point charge is brought in an electric field. The electric
43. Four electric charges are arranged as shown in the figure at field at a nearby point:
the four corners of a square of side a. The potential energy (a) will increase if the charge is positive
of the system is: (b) will decrease if the charge is negative
+q –q (c) may increase if the charge is positive
(d) may decrease if the charge is negative
50. Which of the following quantities do not depend on the
choice of zero potential or zero potential energy?
(a) Potential at a point
(b) Potential difference between the points
(c) Potential energy of a two charge system
(d) Change in potential energy of a two charge system
–q +q 51. An electric dipole is placed at the centre of a sphere. Mark
the correct option:
(a) zero (b) negative
(a) the flux of the electric field through the sphere is zero
(b) the electric field is zero at every point of the sphere
1 2q 2
(c) positive (d) greater than (c) the electric field is not zero anywhere on the sphere
4 0 a (d) the electric field is zero on a circle on the sphere
44. Three charged particles are in equilibrium under their 52. In a uniform electric field, equipotential surfaces must:
electrostatic forces only: (a) be plane surfaces
(b) be normal to the direction of the field
(a) the particles must be collinear
(c) be placed such that surfaces having equal differences
(b) all the charges cannot have the same magnitude in potential are separated by equal distances
(c) all the charges cannot have the same sign (d) have decreasing potentials in the direction of the field
(d) the equilibrium is unstable 53. S1 and S2 are two equipotential surfaces on which the
potentials are not equal:
45. lnside a uniformly charged spherical conductor, the electric:
(a) S1 and S2 both cannot intersect
(a) potential is zero everywhere (b) S1 and S2 both cannot be plane surfaces
(b) potential is non-zero and same everywhere (c) in the region between Sl and S2, the field is maximum
(c) field is zero everywhere where they are closest to each other
(d) a line of force from S1 to S2 must be perpendicular to
(d) field has the same magnitude everywhere but it is not
both
zero 54. Which of the following is/are proportional to the inverse
46. Four charges, all of the same magnitude are placed at the square of the distance x?
four corners of a square. At centre of the square, the potential
(a) The potential at a distance x from an isolated point
is V and the field is E. By suitable choices of the signs of
four charges, which of the following can be obtained? charge
(a) V = 0, E = 0 (b) V = 0, E 0 (b) The electric field at a distance x from an isolated point
(c) V 0, E = 0 (d) V 0, E 0 charge
Static Electricity 303

(c) The force per unit length between two thin, straight, 60. The charge on inner surface of plate C, if plate B is earthed,
infinitely long current carrying conductors, parallel to (a) 5 C (b) 6 C
each other, separated by a distance x (c) 3 C (d) –3 C
(d) The gravitational attraction between two small bodies 61. The charge on left surface of B, if B and C both are earthed,
kept at a distance x apart (a) 5 C (b) 6 C
55. A parallel plate capacitor is charged to a definite potential (c) 3 C (d) –3 C
and the charging battery is disconnected. Now if the plates Passage – II
of capacitor are moved apart, then: Related to the following diagram of two charges, +Q and
(a) the stored energy of the capacitor increases – 4Q.
(b) charge on the capacitor increases
(c) voltage of the capacitor increases
(d) the capacitance increases
62. The net electric field is zero near which point?
56. A capacitor of capacity 100 F is discharged through a
(a) A (b) B
resistance of 1000 ohm:
(c) C (d) D
(a) its time constant is 1 × 10–1 s
63. At which point does the net electric field vector point to the
(b) during time 0.693 × 10–1 s, the charge left on the
left?
capacitor is half of its maximum charge
(a) A (b) B
(c) during its time constant charge left on the capacitor is
(c) C (d) D
0.63 times to its maximum charge
64. At which point would a small positive charge q feel the
(d) during its time constant, charge left on the capacitor is
greatest force?
0.37 times to its maximum charge
(a) A (b) B
57. Two parallel plate capacitors are constructed one by a pair
(c) C (d) D
of iron plates and the second by a pair of copper plates of
Passage – III
same area and same spacings. Then:
Two fixed charges –2 Q and Q are located at the points with
(a) the copper plate capacitor has a greater capacitance
coordinates (–3 a, 0) and (+ 3 a, 0) respectively in the X–Y
than the iron one
plane.
(b) both capacitors have equal, non-zero capacitances in
65. All the points in the X–Y plane where the electric potential
the uncharged state
due to the two charges is zero, lie on a;
(c) both capacitors will have equal capacitances only if
(a) straight line (b) circle
they are charged equally
(c) parabola (d) ellipse
(d) the capacitances of the two capacitors are equal even
66. The expression for the potential V(x) at a general point on
if they are unequally charged
58. Mark the correct statements? the x-axis is given by:
(a) A given conducting sphere can be charged to any 1 Q 2Q
extent. (a) V(x) = 4 3a x (3a x)
for 0 < x < 3a
0
(b) A given conducting sphere cannot be charged to a
1 2Q Q
potential greater than a certain value. (b) V(x) = for 0 < x < 3a
4 0 3a x (3a x)
(c) A given conducting sphere cannot be charged to a
potential less than a certain minimum value. 1 Q 2Q
(c) V(x) = for 0 < x < 3a
(d) None of the above 4 0 3a x (3a x)

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 59-66): Study the given paragraph(s) and 1 Q 2Q

answer the following questions. (d) V(x) = 4 3a x (3a x)
for 0 < x < 3a
0

Passage – I DIRECTIONS (Qs. 67-73): Each of these questions contains an

Three large plates A, B and C are placed parallel to each Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer
other and charges are given as shown. the question on the basis of following options. You have to select
the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the
correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not
the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
59. The charge that appears on the left surface of plate B is: (d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
(a) 5 C (b) 6 C 67. Assertion : Consider two identical charges placed distance
(c) 3 C (d) –3 C
2d apart, along x-axis.
 EBD_7005
304 PHYSICS

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 74-77) : Each question has four statements

(A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements (p, q, r, s
and t) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have
correct matching with one or more statement(s) given in Column
The equilibrium of a positive test charge placed at the II. Match the entries in column I with entries in column II.
point O midway between them is stable for displacements
along the x-axis. 74. For the situation shown in the figure below, match the entries
Reason: Force on test charge is zero. of column I with the entries of column II.
68. Assertion : A deuteron and an -particle are placed in an
electric field. If F1 and F2 be the forces acting on them and
a1 and a2 be their accelerations respectively then, a1 = a2. b
b
Reason : Forces will be same in electric field.
69. Assertion : Four point charges q1, q2, q3 and q4 are as
shown in figure. The flux over the shown Gaussian surface Column I Column II
depends only on charges q1 and q2. (A) If we displace the (p) distribution of charge on
inside charge the inner surface of
conductor is uniform
(B) If we displace the (q) distribution of charge
outside charge on the inner surface of
conductor is nonuniform
(C) In ths situation (r) distribution of charge on
Reason : Electric field at all points on Gaussian surface shown the outer surface of
depends only on charges q1 and q2. conductor is uniform
70. Assertion : The positive charge particle is placed in front of (D) If outside charge is (s) distribution of charge
a spherical uncharged conductor. The number of lines of not present on the outer surface of
forces terminating on the sphere will be more than those conductor is nonuniform
emerging from it.
A B C D
Reason : The surface charge density at a point on the sphere
(a) r, s p r, s q
nearest to the point charge will be negative and maximum in
magnitude compared to other points on the sphere. (b) q, s p, s p, s p, r
71. Assertion : Charges are given to plates of two plane parallel (c) q, r s r q
plate capacitors C1 and C2 (such that C2 = 2C1) as shown in (d) r, s p, q s q, r
figure. Then the key K is pressed to complete the circuit. 75. In the circuit shown in figure, plates of capacitor C1 are
Finally the net charge on upper plate and net charge on gradually pulled apart. Then, match the entries of column I
lower plate of capacitor C1 is positive. with the entries of column II.

C1 C2

Column I Column II
(A) Potential difference (p) will increase
Reason : In a parallel plate capacitor both plates always across C2
carry equal and opposite charge. (B) Charge on C2 (q) will decrease
72. Assertion : Each of the plates of a parallel-plate capacitor is (C) Potential energy (r) will remain same
given equal positive charge Q. The charges on the facing stored in C2
surfaces will be same. (D) Electric field between
Reason : A negative charge (–Q) will be induced on each of plates of C1
the facing surfaces. A B C D
73. Assertion : Electric potential and electric potential energy
(a) r p q q
are different quantities.
Reason : For a system of positive test charge and point (b) q q q q
charge electric potential energy = electric potential. (c) q s r q
(d) q q q q
Static Electricity 305

76. In the circuit shown in the following figure, C1 = C, C2 = 2C, A B C D

C3 = 3C, C4 = 4C. Match the entries of column I with the (a) q, s p, r q, r p
entries of column II. (b) r, s r p, s q
C3 (c) q s r q
(d) p, r q q, s q
C4
C1 C2 DIRECTIONS (Qs. 78-86): Following are integer based/
Numeric based questions. Each question, when worked out will
result in one integer or numeric value.

Column I Column II
(A) Maximum potential (p) across C1 78. Find the electric field between two metal plates 3 mm apart,
difference connected to a 12 V battery.
(B) Minimum potential (q) across C2 79. Calculate the electric potential at the surface of a gold nucleus.
difference Given, the radius of the nucleus = 6.6 × 10–15 m and atomic
(C) Maximum potential (r) across C.3
number of gold = 79.
energy
(D) Minimum potential (s) across C4 80. Calculate the potential at a point P due to a charge of
energy 4 × 10–7 C located 10 cm away.
A B C D 81. At a point due to a point charge, the values of electric field
(a) p r, s p r intensity and potential are 32 N/C and 16 J/C respectively.
(b) r, s r p r, s Calculate magnitude of charges and distance of charge
(c) p r, s q, r s
from the point of observation.
(d) s q r p, r
77. In the given figure, the separation between the plates of C1 82. A parallel plate capacitor with air has a capacitance of
is slowly increased to double of its initial value, then match 10 F. If the distance between the plates is reduced to half
the following. and the space between them is filled with a material of
dielectric constant 10, find the new capacitance.
C1 C2
83. Each plate of a parallel plate capacitor has an area of
2 F F 6 × 10–3 m2 and the distance between the plates is 3mm.
Calculate the capacitance of the capacitor with air as
dielectric. If this capacitor is connected to a 200 V supply,
what is the change on each plate of the capacitor?
V
84. How much energy will be stored by a capacitor of 470 F
Column I Column II
when charged by a battery of 20 V?
(A) The potential (p) increases
difference across C1 85. A given charge situated at a distance from an electric dipole
(B) The potential (q) decreases in the end on position, experiences a force F. If the distance
difference across C2 of charge is doubled, what will the force acting on the
(C) The energy stored (r) increases by a factor charge?
in C1 of 6/5 86. In a parallel plate capacitor the potential difference of
(D) The energy stored (s) decreases by a factor of
102 V is maintained between the plates. What will be the
in C2 18/25
electric field at points A and B?
 EBD_7005
306 PHYSICS

SO L U T I ON S
Brief Explanations
of
Selected Questions

attached in parallel with Ist capacitor then Ceq.=C' = 2C.

1 q2
1. (c) Charges (q) = 2 × 10–6 C, Distance
U1 2 C C' 2C
(d)= 3 cm = 3 × 10 –2 m and electric field (E) Now, ( C' 2C)
= 2 × 105 N/C. Torque ( ) = q.d.
U2 1 q2 C C
E =(2 × 10–6) × (3 × 10–2) × (2 × 105) 2 C'
= 12 × 10–3 N–m .
U
2. (c) Capacitance of capacitor (C) = 6 F = 6 × 10–6 F; Initial U2
potential (V1) = 10 V and final potential (V2) = 20 V. 2
The increase in energy ( U) 8. (d) According to Gauss’s theorem,
1 q
C V22 V12 electric flux through a closed surface
2 0

1 where q is charge enclosed by the surface.

6
(6 10 ) [(20) 2 (10) 2 ] 9. (b) Energy stored per unit volume
2
2
(3 10 6 ) 300 9 10 4 J . 1 2 1 V 1 V2 V
0E 0 0 E
2 2 d 2 2 d
3. (a) At equilibrium, net force is zero d
10. (a) Energy stored in capacitor
1 Qq 1 Q2
0 1 1Q 2
4 0 (r / 2) 2 4 0 r2 = CV
2
.V (Q CV)
2 2V
Q
or 4q = – Q or q . 1
4 = QV
2
4. (a) Dipole is formed when two equal and unlike charges are
placed at a short distance. C1 C 2 4 4
5. (d) When oil is placed between space of plates 11. (d) For series, C' 2 F
C1 C 2 4 4
2A 0 KA 0
C ...(1) C , if K 2 For parallel, Ceq C ' C3 2 4 6 F
d d

A 0
When oil is removed C' ...(2) A C1 C2 B
d
On comparing both equations, we get C' = C/2 C3
1 q1q 2 12. (b) Charging by induction involves transfer of charges
6. (a) In air, Fair = from one part to the other of the body. No loss of
4 0 r2
charge is involved.
1 q1q 2 13. (c) Positive charge is due to deficiency of electrons.
In medium, Fm = 14. (c) On charging by conduction, body may gain mass, if it
4 0 Kr 2
acquires negative charge. It may lose mass, if it acquires
Fm 1 Fair positive charge.
Fm (decreases K-times) 15. (d) Coulomb’s law is true for all distances small and large.
Fair K K
Hence it is called a long range force.
7. (a) In 1st case when capacitor C attached with battery
charged with the energy. F0
16. (b) Fm . For metals K , therefore, Fm 0 , in
K
U1= U (stored energy on capacitor).
the thickness of sheet. Hence force between the
In IInd case after disconnect of battery similar capacitor is
charges will decrease.
Static Electricity 307

17. (d) Ebonite is the best insulator. 39. (a) Positive electric flux is due to + charge. So lines of
18. (c) A loses electrons and B gains electrons. Therefore, force are directed outwards.
mass of A < mass of B. 40. (c) As area of a point is zero,
19. (b) The radius of soap bubble increases because of
outward force acting on the bubble due to charging. E (ds) cos E cos 0 Zero.

20. (d) q ne shows that minimum value of q 1e. 41. (d) Though electric flux is scalar, yet its value may be
positive, negative or zero.
where e = 1.6×10–19
Coulomb = Charge of one electron 42. (d) At a point on equatorial line of electric dipole, V=0.

1 q1 q2 F 43. (b, c) 44. (a, b, c, d)

21. (b) Fg 45. (b, c) 46. (a, b, c, d)
4 0 r2 K
47. (b, c, d) 48. (b, c,)
As K (for glass) > 1. Fg F
49. (c, d) 50. (b, d)
22. (c) The force of q1 or q2 is not affected by q3. However,
51. (a, c) 52. (a, b, c, d)
resultant force on q2 will be affected.
23. (c) Positively charged rod induces negative charge on 53. (a, c, d) 54. (a, c)
the side of the sphere closer to the rod and an equal 55. (a, c) 56. (a, b, d)
positive charge on the side away from the rod.When
the rod is withdrawn, the negative charges move to 57. (b, d) 58. (b, c)
neutralise the equal positive charge. The charge left is 59. (b) 60. (a) 61. (c) 62. (a)
zero. 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (b) 66. (a)
Fe.e 67. (c) If +ve charge is displaced along x-axis, then net force
24. (a) 100 1 , because force depends only on will always act in a direction opposite to that of
F p. p
displacement and the test charge will always come back
charges, distance and nature of medium. to its original position.
25. (a) Metal is a good conductor. So, its K = .
26. (d) 68. (d) qd = e, md = 2mp = 2m
27. (d) The weight can be increased slightly, if it acquire q = 2e, m = 4mp = 4m
negative charge & weight can be decreased slightly, if F1 = F = eE, F2 = F = 2eE F1
it acquires positive charge.
28. (d) An electric field can deflect only a charged particle. F1 eE
Further, a1
29. (b) E = 0, at any point inside the sphere. 2m 2m
30. (b) E decreases as we move from the surface of the sphere
to its centre. F2 2eE eE
31. (a) A spherical cloud behaves as a solid sphere. Therefore, and a 2 a1
2m 4m 2m
E decreases directly with the decreasing distance from
the centre. 69. (d) Electric field at any point depends on presence of all
32. (c) For a single negative point charge, electric lines of charges.
force are radial and inwards. 70. (a) No. of lines entering the surface = No. of lines leaving
33. (d) Electric lines of force are imaginary. the surface.
34. (b) Debye is the unit of electric dipole moment.
35. (b) Net force (as well as torque) are experienced by the 71. (d) Charge distribution on each surface makes both
dipole in a non uniform electric field. capacitor of same potential difference hence charge
will not flow.
36. (c) In a uniform electric field, net force = 0, but torque 0 .
37. (d) According to Gauss theorem-the total electric flux 72. (d) The charge on each of two facing surfaces will be zero.
73. (d) Potential and potential energy are different quantities
1 1
× total enclosed charge q. and cannot be equated.
o o
74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (a) 77. (d)
Since cube has six faces. Hence electric flux linked
with each face (1/ 6 ) q / 6 o . dV 12
78. E = 4 × 103 N/C.
38. (c) We require eight cubes to surround completely this
dr 3 10 3
corner charge. So, the flux through one cube is 79. Charge on gold nucleus = q = Ze = 79 × 1.6 × 10–19

1 Q Q kq 9´109 ´ 79´1.6´10-19
V= = = 1.724 × 107 V..
8 o 8 o r 6.6´10-15
 EBD_7005
308 PHYSICS

kq 9´109 ´ 4 ´10-7 1
80. V= = = 3.6´10 4 V. 85. For an electric dipole, F
r 0.1 r3

kq kq
81. E= = 32 and V = = 16 New force, F1 = F F.
2 r
r 23 8
16 kq
r= = 0.5 m \ = 16 Þ q = 8.89 × 10–10 C 86. + + + + + + + +
32 0.5 B
e A ke A A
82. C1 = 0 = 10 pF , C 2 = 0
d d/2
= 10 × 10 × 2 F = 200 F.

A 8.85´10-12 ´ 6´10-3 Electric field between the plates of a capacitor is uniform

83. C= 0 = = 17.7 mF
d 3´10-3
that is constant at every point E .
q = CV = 17.7 × 10–12 × 200 = 3.54 × 10–9 C.
0
1 1 Electric field is same at A and B.
84. Energy = CV 2 470 10 6
(20) 2 = 94 × 10–3 J.
2 2
 ALTERNATING CURRENT
Chapter

7
INTRODUCTION

The alternating currents play an important role in the present day technology and industry. The transmission of electri-

cal power over the long distances becomes very much easier and more economical with the alternating currents than the

direct currents. The circuits used in the modern communication systems, including the radio and television, computer

systems, and so on, make an extensive use of the alternating currents. The alternating currents are involved in the many

life processes. The electrocardiography, i.e., the detection and study of alternating currents induced in the surrounding

tissues due to the heart beating, provides a valuable information about the health and pathology of heart. The

electroencephalograms, being the recordings of alternating currents in the brain, provide a vital information regarding

the functioning of brain.

 EBD_7005
310 PHYSICS

ALTERNATING CURRENT (A.C.)

An alternating current is one which periodically changes in magnitude and direction. It increases from zero to a maximum value,
then decreases to zero and reverses in direction, increases to a maximum in this direction and then decreases to zero.
The alternating currents change both in magnitude and direction periodically. They have the various different waveforms, or
waveshapes, e.g., sinusoidal, square, triangular, sawtoothed, and so on, depending on their applications.
The alternating currents, in the normal use, have the sinusoidal waveform and represented analytically as
i = I0 sin ( t)
where i is the instantaneous value, I0 is the peak value, or amplitude, = 2 /T = 2 f is the angular frequency, T being the time
period and f being the frequency, and t is the phase angle.
i
i
+ I0 + I0

O t
O T T 2T 3T
T 2T 3T –I0
– I0 (a) Triangular
(a) Sinusoidal
+ I0

O t
T 2T 3T
–I0
(b) Saw-toothed

Fig. 7.1 Fig 7.2

The alternating currents are generated in the circuits energised by the sources of alternating e.m.f., or voltage, such as, the ac
generators and electronic oscillators, represented graphically by the symbol ~

The sinusoidal e.m.fs, or voltages, are represented analytically as

V = V0 sin ( t)
where V is the instantaneous value, V0 is the peak value, or amplitude, and = 2 /T = 2 f is the angular frequency, T being the
time period and f being the frequency, and t is the phase angle.

ADVANTAGES OF A.C. OVER D.C

(i) The generation of A.C. is cheaper than that of D.C.
(ii) Alternating voltage can be easily stepped up or stepped down by using a transformer.
(iii) A.C. can be easily converted into D.C. by rectifier.
(iv) It can be transmitted to a long distance without appreciable loss.

AVERAGE OR MEAN VALUE OF ALTERNATING CURRENT

The average or mean value of sinusoidal current i = I0 sin ( t) over a complete cycle is
T
1 T 1 T 1 – I 0 cos( t )
Iav = i dt = I0 sin( t )dt =
T 0 T 0 T w 0

1 – I 0 cos(2 ) I 0 cos(0)
= T =0

It is zero because the integral represents the area between the curve and time axis over a complete cycle and this area is negative
as much as it positive. This is the reason that if a sinusoidal current is sent through a moving-coil galvanometer, it reads zero.
The non-zero average, or mean, value of sinusoidal current i = I0 sin ( t) over a half-cycle is
T /2
2 T /2 2 T /2 2 – I 0 cos( t )
Iav = i dt = I 0 sin( t )dt =
T 0 T 0 T 0
Alternating Current 311

2 – I 0 cos I 0 cos(0) 2I 0
=T = 0.637I0

This average value is the height of rectangle, shown shaded in the figure, having its area equal to the area under one loop of the
sine curve.
Similarly, the non-zero average, or mean, value of sinusoidal e.m.f., or voltage, v = V0 sin ( t) over a half cycle is
i
+I0
+Iav +
2V0 O t
T/2 – T
Vav = 0.637V0
–I0

Fig. 7.3

ROOT-MEAN SQUARE (RMS) VALUE OF ALTERNATING CURRENT

Most of the ac meters are calibrated to record not the peak value of alternating current, or voltage, but the root-mean-square (rms)
value, i.e., the square root of the average, or mean, of the square of current, or voltage. Because i2 is always positive and the graph
of i2 against the time t lies above the t-axis, as shown, the average of i2 is never zero, even when the average of i itself is zero.
The average value of i2, called the mean square current, over a complete cycle is
1 1 2
T 2 T 2 1 T I0
I2 rms I2 i dt = I sin 2 ( t )dt = [1 – cos(2 t )] dt
T 0 T 0 0 T 0 2

T
I02 sin(2 t ) I02 sin(4 ) sin(0) I2
= t– T–
= = 0
2T 2 0 2T 2 2 2
which is the height of rectangle, shown shaded in the figure.
i2
2
I0

I02/2

O t
T/2 T 3T/2 2T
Fig. 7.4
Its square root gives the root-mean-square (rms) current,
I0
i.e., Irms I
0.707 I 0
2
Similarly, the root-mean-square (rms) value of a sinusoidal voltage
V0
Vrms V 0.707V0
2
When a sinusoidal current i = I0 sin ( t) flows through a resistance R, the average rate of heating during a complete cycle is given
by
1 T 2 1 T 2
P=i R dt = R i dt = R (I )2
rms
T 0 T 0
which also equals the rate of heating, when a dc of the value Irms flows through the same resistance R.
For this reason, Irms is also called the effective value, or virtual value, or dc value of ac.
The currents and voltages in the power distribution systems are always quoted in terms of their rms values. Thus, when we speak
of our house-hold power supply as ‘220V ac’, we mean to say that the rms voltage is 220V. Then, the peak voltage is
V 0 = 2Vrms 2 220 311V
i.e., the voltage varies between +311V and –311V in a complete cycle. For the reason, an ac of 220V is more dangerous than a dc
of 220V.
 EBD_7005
312 PHYSICS
ILLUSTRATION : 7.1
If a domestic appliance draws 2.5 A from a 220-V, 60- Hz power supply, find
(a) the average current
(b) the average of the square of the current
(c) the current amplitude
(d) the supply voltage amplitude.
SOLUTION :
(a) The average of sinusoidal AC values over any whole number of cycles is zero.
(b) RMS value of current = Irms = 2.5 A

( I 2 )av ( I rms )2 6.25 A2

Im
(c) I rms
2

Current amplitude 2 I rms 2(2.5 A) = 3.5 A

Vm
(d) Vrms 220V
2

Supply voltage amplitude Vm 2(Vrms ) 2(220V ) = 311 V..

ILLUSTRATION : 7.2
What is the ratio of mean value over half cycle to r.m.s. value of A.C.?
SOLUTION :
We know that Irms I0 / 2 and I m 2 I0 /

Im 2 2
Irms

Keep in Memory:
(i) Time period : The time taken by A.C. to go through one cycle of changes is called its time period. It is given as
2
T
(ii) Phase : Phase is that property of wave motion which tells us the position of the particle at any instant as well
as its direction of motion. It is measured either by the angle which the particle makes with the mean position or
by fraction of time period.
(iii)Phase Angle : Angle associated with the wave motion (sine or cosine) is called phase angle.
(iv) Lead : Out of the current and e.m.f the one having greater phase angle will lead the other e.g. in equation

i = i0 sin t and e = e0 sin wt, the current leads the e.m.f. by an angle .
2 2

(v) Lag : Out of current and e.m.f. the one having smaller phase angle will lag the other. In the above equations,
the e.m.f lags the current by .
2
Alternating Current 313

RESISTANCE OFFERED BY VARIOUS ELEMENTS (RESISTOR, INDUCTOR, CAPACITOR) TO A.C.

Alternating current in a circuit may be controlled by resistance, inductance and capacitance, while the direct current is controlled
only by resistance.
(i) Impedance (Z) : In alternating current circuit, the ratio of e.m.f. applied and consequent current produced is called the impedance
E E0 Erms
and is denoted by Z, i.e., Z I I0 I rms
Physically impedance of ac circuit is the hindrance offered by resistance alongwith either inductance or capacitance or both in the
circuit to the flow of ac through it. Its S.I.unit is ohm.
(ii) Reactance (X) : The hindrance offered by inductance or capacitance or both to the flow of ac in an ac circuit is called reactance
and is denoted by X. Thus when there is no ohmic resitance in the cirucit, the reactance is equal to impedance. The reactance due
to inductance alone is called inductive reactance and is denoted by XL, while the reactance due to capacitance alone is called the
capacitive reactance and is denoted by XC. Its S.I.unit is also ohm.
1
(iii) Admittance. The inverse of impedance is called the admittance and is denoted by Y, i.e., Y
Z
Its S.I.unit is ohm–1.

IMPEDANCES AND PHASES OF AC CIRCUIT CONTAINING DIFFERENT ELEMENTS

As already pointed out that in an ac circuit the current and applied e.m.f.’s are not necessarily in same phase. The applied e.m.f.
(E) and current produced (I) may be expresed as
E = E0 sin t and I = I0 sin ( t + ) with I0 = E0/Z
where E0 and I 0 are peak values of alternating e.m.f. and current.
(i) Circuit containing only resitance (R): Consider a pure ohmic resistor (zero inductance) of resistance R connected to an alternating
source of e.m.f. E = E0 sin t. Then current I in the circuit is
E E 0 sin t
I= = = I 0 sin t where I0 = E0/R
R R

R
E
or E
I I X
I E
Phasor diagram
t
E = E0 sin t
(a) (b) (c)
Fig. 7.5

Comparing this with standard equation, we note that

Impedance of circuit, Z = R and phase difference between current and e.m.f. = 0.
Hence we conclude that in a purely resistive ac circuit the current and voltage are in same phase and impedance of circuit is equal
to the ohmic resistance.
(ii) Circuit contianing only inductance(L): Consider a pure inductor (zero ohmic resistance) of inductance L connected to an
alternating source of e.m.f. E = E0 sin t. Then current I in the circuit is

E0 L
I I0 sin t where I0
2 L

E = E0 sin t
Fig. 7.6
Comparing this with standard equation, we know that Z = L and = /2.
Hence we conclude that in a purely inductive circuit the current lags behind the applied voltage by an angle /2 and the
impedance to the circuit is L and this is called as inductive reactance.
 EBD_7005
314 PHYSICS

O E XL
E X
or E 90º
I I
I
t f
Phasor diagram
Y Graph between XL and f

(a) (b) (c)

Fig. 7.7
(iii) Circuit containing only capacitance(C): Consider a capacitor of capacitance C connected to an alternating source of e.m.f.,
E = E0 sin t

Then the current through C is given by, I I0 sin t

2
Comparing this with standard equation, we find that XC = 1/ C and = + /2
C XC
IC
VC /2

Phasor f
VC diagram Graph between
E = E0 sin t Xc and f
(a) (b) (c)
Fig. 7.8
Hence we conclude that in a purely capacitive circuit the current leads the applied e.m.f. by an angle /2 and the impedance of the
1
circuit is 1/ C and this is known as capacitive reactance Z XC .
C

E
or E
I I
3
/2 2 t
Fig. 7.9

CIRCUIT CONTAINING RESISTANCE, INDUCTANCE AND CAPACITANCE IN SERIES (SERIES LCR CIRCUIT)
Consider a circuit containing a resistance R, inductance L and capacitance C in series having an alternating e.m.f. E = E 0 sin t.
Let I be the current flowing in circuit. VR, VL and VC are respective potential differences across resistance R, inductance L and
capacitance C.
R L C VL

VR
VR VL VC I
VC E VC – VL (if VC > VL)

E = E0 sin t
(a) (b)
Fig. 7.10
Alternating Current 315

The p.d. VR is in phase with current I . The p.d. VC lags behind the current by angle /2. The p.d. VL leads the current by
angle /2.

Resultant applied e.m.f., E [ VR2 ( VC VL ) 2 ]

E/R
i.e., E (R I ) 2 (I X C I X L )2 Current
E
E 2R
Impedance, Z R 2 ( X C X L )2
I
The phase leads of current over applied e.m.f. is given by
O fo
VC VL IX C IX L XC XL Frequency
tan
VR RI R
Fig. 7.11

1 XC XL
i.e., tan
R
It is concluded that
(a) If XC > XL, the value of is positive, i.e., current leads the applied e.m.f..
(b) If XC < XL, the value of is negative, i.e., current lags behind the applied e.m.f..
(c) If XC = XL, the value of is zero, i.e., current and e.m.f. are in same phase. This is called the case of resonance and resonant
frequency for condition XC = XL, is given by Z

1 1
L i.e.,
C LC
R
1 f
fo
fo /2 .
2 ( LC) Fig. 7.12

Thus the resonant frequency depends on the product of L and C and is independent of R.
E E
At resonance, impedance is minimum, Zmin = R and current is maximum I max
Z min R
It is interesting to note that before resonance the current leads the applied e.m.f., at resonance it is in phase, and after resonance
it lags behind the e.m.f.. LCR series circuit is also called as acceptor circuit and parallel LCR circuit is called rejector circuit.
ILLUSTRATION : 7.3
Obtain the resonant frequency r of a series LCR circuit with L = 2.0 H, C = 32 F and R = 10 . What is the Q-value of this
circuit?

SOLUTION :
Given, L = 2H, C = 32 F = 32 × 10–6 F, R = 10 , r = ?, Q = ?
By relation,
1 1 103
r= = 6 = = 125 rad s–1.
LC 2 32 10 8

rL 125 2
Quality factor (Q-value) 25
R 10

RESONANCE
1
When the impedance of the circuit is maximum i.e., Z = R or admittance of the circuit becomes minimum Y G ,
R
condition of resonance occurs in parallel resonance circuit.
 EBD_7005
316 PHYSICS
In this condition XL = XC
1 1
or r ; fr = 2 LC
LC
In parallel circuit at resonance :
• IOL = IOC, the phase = 0°, cos = 1 • The peak current is minimum
R fr
• The quality factor Q • The bandwidth BW
rL Q

Practical LCR Parallel Resonant Circuit

The inductance coil has some resistance R and it is connected in parallel to a capacitor C.
C

1
For this circuit, the impedance is obtained from Y,
Z L R

2
where the admittance is Y (1 LC ) 2 ( CR ) 2
E
R2 ( L )2
~
The resonance occurs when the admittance is minimum. Fig. 7.13

1/2
1 R 2C
Resonance frequency r 1
LC L L
Zmax =
RC

Zmax
1 R2 1 1 R2 Z
or r or, fr 2
LC L2 2 LC L2
If R = 0 in fig. then it becomes a parallel LC circuit.
O f
f1 fr f2
1 1
Resonance occurs at r ; fr Fig. 7.14
LC 2 LC

1 R2
If has negative value then resonance does not occurs. A
LC L2
parallel LCR circuit offers maximum impedance at f = fr. The impedance
decreases for f < fr and f > fr. Since the impedance between frequencies
f1 and f2 is large, current between this band is small.
The parallel LCR circuit is therefore, also called Band Rejector circuit. f1 and f2 are half power frequencies and impedance in
Z Zmax
between these two is .
2

Choke Coil
A choke coil is simply an inductor with a large self-inductance and negligible resistance (zero in ideal case). It is used in A.C.
circuits for reducing current without consuming power.
The choke coil is put in series with the electrical device, such as fluorescent tube requiring a low value of current. The inductive

reactance decreases the current. Since the alternating e.m.f. leads the current by phase angle .
2

The average power consumed by the choke coil Pav = Ev Iv cos = 0.

2
However, a practical inductance possesses a small resistance i.e., a practical inductance may be treated as a series combination
of inductance L and a small resistance r.
Alternating Current 317

r
Average power consumed in a practical inductance Pav = Ev Iv × 2 2 2
r L
r
For practical inductance power factor (cos ) =
r2 2 2
L
Uses : In a.c. circuits, a choke coil is used to control the current in place of a resistance. If a resistance is used to control the
current, the electrical energy will be wasted in the form of heat. A choke coil decreases the current without wasting electrical
energy in the form of heat.

TRANSFORMER
It is a device used for transforming a low alternating voltage of high current into a high alternating voltage of low current and
vice versa, without increasing power or changing frequency.
Principle : It works on the phenomenon of mutual induction.
Construction: It has three main parts described below:
1. Laminated core C: It is of sand-mixed iron in shell type, it has more resistance
due to laminations and mixing of sand. It is done to reduce eddy current in the
core and minimize its heating. A.C.
2. Primary coil P : It is a coil of enamelled copper wire wrapped supply P S
over the central arm of the core and is insulated by varnish. C
3. Secondary coil S : It is also a coil of enamelled copper wire. It is wrapped over
the primary coil and insulated by wax paper. Transformed alternating voltage is Fig. 7.15

obtained from it. It forms output section of the transformer.

If a low voltage is to be transformed into a high voltage, then the number of turns in secondary is more than those in primary. The
transformer is called a step up transformer.
If a high voltage is to be transformed into a low voltage, then the number of turns in secondary is less than those in primary. The
transformer is called a step-down transformer.
Transformation ratio of the transformer,
Number of turns in sec ondary ( N s )
K=
Number of turns in primary ( N p )
K > 1, for step-up transformer.
K < 1, for step-down transformer.
The whole arrangement is kept immersed in a special oil called transformer oil, taken in metallic cans. The oil provides insulation
as well as cooling.
Working : As voltage applied to the primary is alternating, it produces a continuous change in magnetic flux in primary as well
as in secondary. Due to mutual induction, an e.m.f. is induced in secondary. It is higher or lower than that induce in primary
depending upon whether the transformer is a step-up or step-down transformer. The induced e.m.f. in secondary gives output
voltage.
Theory : An alternating e.m.f. Ep is applied across the primary which produces current Ip in the primary circuit and a current Is in
the secondary circuit. The currents in the coils produce a magnetization in the soft-iron core and there is a corresponding
magnetic field B inside the core. The field due to magnetization of the core is large as compared to the field due to the current in
the coils. We assume that the field is constant in magnitude everywhere in the core and hence, its flux (BA) through each turn is
same for the primary as well as for the secondary coil.
Let the flux through each turn be .
d
The emf induced in the primary, EP = – Np
dt
d
and induced emf in the secondary, ES = – Ns ×
dt
If we neglect the resistance in the primary circuit, Kirchhoff's loop law applied to the primary circuit which gives,
d
Ep Np ......(i)
dt
d
Also, Es Ns ......(ii)
dt
 EBD_7005
318 PHYSICS

Ns
From eqs. (i) and (ii), Es Ep
Np
The minus sign shows that Es is 180° out of phase with Ep.
Equns. (i) and (ii) are valid for all values of currents in the primary and the secondary circuits. If there is no loss of power in output
and input circuit then, input power = output power
Ip Es Ns
i.e., Ep × Ip = Es × Is or,
Is Ep Np
But in practice there is always energy loss so, input power > output power.
Hence, Ep × Ip > Es × Is
Energy loss in a transformer :
(i) Copper loss : Energy lost in winding of the transformer is known as copper loss. Primary and secondary coils of a transformer are
generally made of copper wires. These copper wires have resistance (R). When current (I) flows through these wires, power loss
(I2R) takes place. This loss appears as the heat produced in the primary and secondary coils. Copper loss can be reduced by
using thick wires for the windings.
(ii) Flux loss : In actual transformer, the coupling between primary and secondary coil is not perfect. It means that magnetic flux
linked with the primary coil is not equal to the magnetic flux linked with secondary coil, so a certain amount of electric energy
supplied to the primary coil is wasted.
(iii) Eddy current loss : When a changing magnetics flux links with the iron core of the transformer, eddy currents are set up. These
eddy currents produce heat which leads to the wastage of energy. This energy loss is reduced by using laminated core.
Eddy currents are reduced in a laminated core because their paths are broken as compared to solid core as shown in figure.

Solid core Laminated core

Fig. 7.16
(iv) Hysteresis loss : When alternating current passes through the primary coil, core of the transformer is magnetized and demagnetised
over a complete cycle. Some energy is lost in magnetising and de-magnetising the iron core. The energy loss in a complete cycle
is equal to area of the hysteresis loop.
This energy loss can be minimized by using suitable material having narrow hysteresis loop for the core of a transformer.
(v) Loss due to vibration of core or humming loss : A transformer produces humming noise due to magnetostriction effect. Some
electrical energy is lost in the form of mechanical energy to produce vibration in the core.

Efficiency of a Transformer
In an ordinary transformer, there is some loss of energy due to coil resistance, hysteresis in the core, eddy currents in the core etc.
The percentage efficiency of a transformer is defined as
Output power VS I S
i.e., = 100 100
Input power VP I P
Efficiency for an ideal transformer is 100% but of practical transformer lies between 70% – 90%.

Uses of Transformer
A transformer is used in almost all ac operation.
(i) In voltage regulators for TV, refrigerator, computer, air conditioner etc.
(ii) In the induction furnaces.
(iii) Step down transformer is used for welding purposes.
(iv) In the transmission of ac over long distance.
(v) Step down and step up transformers are used in electrical power distribution.
Alternating Current 319

Transmission lines

Low High High Low Load House or

G V V V V factory

Power Step up Step down

Station transformer transformer
Fig. 7.17
(vi) Audio frequency transformers are used in radiography, television, radio, telephone etc.
(vii) Radio frequency transformers are used in radio communication.
The ease with which voltages can be stepped UP or down with a transformer is the principal reason that most electric power
is AC rather then DC

Fig. 7.18 Voltage generated in power stations is stepped up with transformers prior to being transferred across country by
overhead cables. Then other transformers reduce the voltage before supplying it to homes, offices, and factories.

ILLUSTRATION : 7.4
A lossless transformer steps down 220 V to 22 V and operates a device having an impedance of 220 . What is the primary
current ?
SOLUTION :
In the lossless transformer, we are given that
Vs 22
VP = 220 V, VS = 22 V, IS = 0.1A : Ip = ?
R 220
VS IP 22 I
VP = IS = P IP = 0.01A
220 0.1

ILLUSTRATION : 7.5
In a transformer, the primary and secondary have 1000 and 3000 turns, respectively. If the primary is connected across an
ac source of 80V, then what will be the voltage across each turn of the secondary?
SOLUTION :
Given: Np = 1000; Ns = 3000 Vp 80v; Vs = ?
In the transformer, we have
VS NS VS 3000
= = VS = 240 V
VP N P 80 1000
VS 240
and then, the voltage across each turn of secondary becomes = = 0.08 V
NS 3,000
ILLUSTRATION : 7.6
A transformer is used to step-down a voltage from 220 V to 11V. If the primary and secondary currents are 5A and 90A,
respectively, what is the efficiency of transformer?
SOLUTION :
Here, Vp = 220V; VS = 11V Ip = 5A; I2 = 90A
The efficiency of transformer

VS I S
= 100% = 11 90 100% = 90%
VP I P 220 5
 EBD_7005
320 PHYSICS

1. A current of 4A flows in a coil when connected to a 12V dc source. If the same coil is connected to a 12V, 50 rad/s a.c. source,
a current of 2.4A flows in the circuit. Determine the inductance of the coil.
Sol. A coil consists of an inductance (L) and a resistance (R).
In dc only resistance is effective. Hence,
V 12
R 3
i 4
2
Vrms Vrms 1 Vrms
In ac, i rms L2 2
R2
Z R 2 2 2
L i rms

2 2
1 Vrms 1 12
L R2 (3)2 = 0.08 henry
i rms 50 2.4
2. When a series combination of inductance and resistance are connected with a 10V, 50Hz a.c. source, a current of 1A flows in
the circuit. The voltage leads the current by a phase angle of /3 radian. Calculate the values of resistance and inductive
reactance.
E 10
Sol. As we know, Z R2 X L2 10
I 1
XL
tan tan 3 XL 3R
R 3

Z R2 3R 2 10
2R = 10 R = 5 and XL = 3R 5 3
3. For a series LCR circuit I = 100 sin (100 t – /3) mA and V = 100 sin (100 t) volt, then
(a) calculate resistance and reactance of circuit.
(b) find average power loss.
V0 100
Sol. (a) Impedance, Z 3
1000
I0 100 10

Resistance, R Z cos 1000cos 500 ohm

3
Z
X
Reactance, X Zsin 1000sin 500 3 ohm
3
(b) Average power loss, Pav Vrms Irms cos R
100 100 1
= cos =5 2.5 watts
2 2 1000 3 2
4. A R-L circuit draws a power of 440W from a source of 220V, 50Hz. The power factor of the circuit is 0.5. To make the power
factor of the circuit as 1.0, what capacitance will have to be connected with it ?
V2
Sol. Power P = VI cos = cos
Z
Alternating Current 321

V 2 cos (220) 2 (0.5)

Z 55
P (440)
Also power factor
R
cos R Z cos = (55) (0.5) = 27.5
Z
2
55 55 3
XL Z2 R2 (55)2
2 2
when power factor is 1.0 then XL = XC
1 1 1
so X L C = 6.68 × 10–5 F
C XL 55 3
(314)
2
5. A series LCR circuit with L = 0.12 H, C = 480 nF, R = 23 is connected to a 230V variable frequency supply find :
(a) Source frequency for which current is maximum.
(b) Q-factor of the given circuit.
1 1 105
Sol. (a) we know, rad / s
LC 0.12 480 10 9 24

1 105
f 6.63 10 2 Hz
2 24
XL L 105 0.12 103
(b) Q-factor, 21.7
R R 24 23 46
6. A variable frequency 230V alternating voltage source is connected across a series combination of L = 5.0H,
C = 80µF and R = 40 . Calculate :
(a) The angular frequency of the source at resonance.
(b) Amplitude of current at resonance frequency.
Sol. (a) Angular frequency at resonance

1 1 102
r 50 rad / s
LC 5.0 80 10 6 2

V 230 2
(b) Amplitude of current at resonance Im 8.13 A
R 40
7. A transformer having efficiency 90% is working on 100 V and at 2.0 kW power. If the current in the secondary coil is 5A,
calculate (i) the current in the primary and (ii) voltage across the secondary coil.
9
Sol. Here, = 90% = , I = 5A, Ep = 100 V..
10 s
EpIp = 2 kW = 2000 W
(i) EpIp = 2000 W
2000 2000
Ip = or Ip = = 20 A
Ep 100

Output power Es Is
(ii)
Input power E p Ip

9 1800 1800
or, EsIs = × EpIp = × 2000 = 1800 W ES = = 360 Volt
10 Is 5
 EBD_7005
322 PHYSICS

8. With increase in frequency of an A.C. supply, the inductive

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-23) : This section contains multiple choice
reactance
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out
(a) decrease
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(b) increases directly proportional to frequency
1. An inductor, a resistor and a capacitor are joined in series (c) increases as square of frequency
with an AC source. As the frequency of the source is slightly (d) decreases inversely with frequency
increased from a very low value, the reactance of the 9. With increase in frequency of an A.C. supply, the impedance
(a) inductor increases of an L-C-R series circuit
(b) reasistor increases (a) remains constant
(c) capacitor increases (b) increases
(d) circuit increases (c) decreases
2. An A.C. source is connected to a resistive circuit. What is (d) decreases at first, becomes minimum and then
true of the following? increases.
(a) current leads ahead of voltage in phase 10. For long distance transmission, the ac is stepped up because
(b) current lags behind voltage in phase of high voltage, the transmission is
(c) current and voltage are in same phase (a) faster (b) economical
(d) any of the above may be true depending upon the (c) undamped (d) less dangerous
value of resistance. 11. The transformer voltage induced in the secondary coil of a
3. The capacitive reactance in an A.C. circuit is transformer is mainly due to
(a) effective resistance due to capacity (a) a varying electric field
(b) effective wattage (b) a varying magnetic field
(c) effective voltage (c) the vibrations of the primary coil
(d) none of the above (d) the iron core of the transformer
4. The power factor in a circuit connected to an A.C. The value 12. Eddy currents in the core of transformer can’t be developed
of power factor is (a) by increasing the number of turns in secondary coil
(a) unity when the circuit contains an ideal inductance (b) by taking laminated transformer
only (c) by making step down transformer
(b) unity when the circuit contains an ideal resistance only (d) by using a weak a.c. at high potential
(c) zero when the circuit contains an ideal capacitance
13. The frequency of A.C. mains in India is
only
(a) 30 c/s (b) 50 c/s
(d) None of these
(c) 60 c/s (d) 120 c/s
5. Current in a circuit is wattless if
14. Hot wire ammeters are used for measuring
(a) inductance in the circuit is zero
(a) A.C. only (b) D.C. only
(b) resistance in the circuit is zero
(c) both A.C. and D.C. (d) none of these
(c) current is alternating
15. Alternating current cannot be measured by D.C. ammeter
(d) resistance and inductance both are zero
because
6. Power factor is one for
(a) A.C. cannot pass through D.C. ammeter
(a) pure inductor
(b) average value of current for complete cycle is zero
(b) pure capacitor
(c) A.C. is virtual
(c) pure resistor
(d) A.C. changes its direction
(d) either an inductor or a capacitor.
16. Alternating current is converted to direct current by
7. Of the following about capacitive reactance which is correct
(a) rectifier (b) dynamo
(a) the reactance of the capacitor is directly proportional
(c) transformer (d) motor
to its ability to store charge
17. A transformer is employed to
(b) capacitive reactance is inversely proportional to the
(a) convert A.C. into D.C.
frequency of the current
(b) convert D.C. into A.C.
(c) capacitive reactance is mesured in farad
(c) obtain a suitable A.C. voltage
(d) the reactance of a capacitor in an A.C. circuit is similar
(d) obtain a suitable D.C. voltage
to the resistance of a capacitor in a D.C. circuit
Alternating Current 323

18. To convert mechanical energy into electrical energy, one 27. Figure shows a circuit with two resistors and an ideal
can use inductor.
(a) DC dynamo (b) AC dynamo
(c) motor (d) (a) & (b)
19. The AC voltage across a resistance can be meausred using
(a) a potentiometer
(b) a hot-wire voltmeter
(c) a moving-coil galvanometer
(d) a moving-magnet galvanometer
20. A choke is preferred to a resistance for limiting current in (a) The current in R1 is zero just after closing the switch S.
A.C. circuit because
(a) choke is cheap (b) The current in R1 is maximum just after closing the
(b) there is no wastage of energy switch S.
(c) current becomes wattless (c) The current in R2 is zero just after closing of the switch S.
(d) current strength increases (d) The currents in the resistors are maximum of their values
21. A choke coil has a long time after closing the switch S.
(a) high inductance and high resistance 28. L, C and R represent inductance, capacitance and resistance
(b) low inductance and low resistance respectively. Which of the following have dimensions of
(c) high inductance and low resistance frequency ?
(d) low inductance and high resistance L 1
22. Transformers are used (a) (b)
C LC
(a) in DC circuit only
(b) in AC circuits only R 1
(c) in both DC and AC circuits (d) (d)
L RC
(d) neither in DC nor in AC circuits 29. If the inductance L in an oscillating LC circuit having a
23. A rectangular coil of copper wires is rotated in a magnetic given maximum charge Q is increased, then
field. The direction of the induced current changes once in (a) the current magnitude increases
each (b) the maximum magnetic energy increases
(a) two revolutions (b) one revolution (c) the maximum magnetic energy decreases
(c) half revolution (d) one-fourth revolution (d) current magnitude and maximum magnetic energy
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 24-29): This section contains multiple choice remain constant.
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out DIRECTIONS (Qs. 30-37): Study the given paragraph(s) and
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct. answer the following questions.
24. The reactance of a circuit is zero. It is possible that the Passsage I
circuit contains One application of LRC series circuit is to high pass or low pass
(a) an inductor and a capacitor filters, which filter out either the low or high frequency
(b) an inductor but no capacitor components of a signal. A high pass filter is shown in figure,
(c) a capacitor but no inductor where the output voltage is taken across the LR combination,
(d) neither an inductor nor a capacitor where LR combination represents an inductance coil that also
25. In an AC series circuit, the instantaneous current is zero has resistance due to large length of the wire in the coil.
when the instantaneous voltage is maximum.Connected to
the source may be a
(a) pure inductor ~ Vs
(b) pure capacitor R L
(c) pure resistor
(d) combination of an inductor and a capacitor
26. An inductor-coil having some resistance is connected to V out
an AC source. Which of the following quantities have zero 30. Find the ratio for Vout/Vs as a function of the angular
average value over a cycle? frequency of the source :
(a) current
(b) induced e.m.f. in the inductor R2 L2 R2 ( L) 2
2 2
(c) joule heat 1 1
(a) R2 L (b) R2 L
(d) magnetic energy stored in the inductor C C
 EBD_7005
324 PHYSICS
35. Which of the following is a correct expression for R, the
R2 2
L resistance of the load connected to the secondary coil?
2
(c) 1 (d) 1 2
R2 L V1 N2 V1 N2
C (a) (b)
I1 N1 I1 N1
31. Which of the following statements is correct when is
small, in the case of Vout/Vs? 2
V1 N1 V1 N1
(c) I1 N2 (d)
R I1 N2
(a) RC (b)
L
1
36. The primary coil of a given transformer has as many
R 3
(c) RL (d)
C turns as in its secondary coil. What primary current is
32. Which statement is correct in the limit of large frequency is required to provide a secondary current of 3.0 mA?
reached? (For Vout/Vs?) (a) 1.0 mA (b) 6.0 mA
(c) 9.0 mA (d) 12.0 mA
(a) 1 (b) RC
37. A 12 V battery is used to supply 2.0 mA of current to the 300
R turns in the primary coil of a given transformer. What is the
(c) RL (d) current in the secondary coil if N2 = 150 turns?
L
(a) 0A (b) 1.0 mA
Passsage II
(c) 2.0 mA (d) 4.0 A
A fresh man physics lab is designed to study the transfer of
electrical energy from one circuit to another by means of a magnetic DIRECTIONS (Qs. 38-42): Each of these questions contains an
field using simple transformers. Each transformer has two coils of Assertion followed by reason. Read them carefully and answer
wire electrically insulated from each other but wound around a the question on the basis of following options. You have to select
common core of ferromagnetic material. The two wires are close the one that best describes the two statements.
together but do not touch each other. The primary coil is connected
(a) Assertion is true, Reason is true; Reason is a correct
to a resistor such as a light bulb. The AC source produces an
explanation for Assertion
oscilating voltage and current int he primary coil that produces
(b) Assertion is true, Reason is true; Reason is not a correct
an oscillating magnetic field in the core material. This in turn
explanation for Assertion
induces an oscilating voltage and AC current in the secondary
(c) Assertion is true, Reason is false
coil. Students collected the following data comparing the number
of turns per coil (N), the voltage (V) and the current (I) in the coils (d) Assertion is false, Reason is true
of three transformeers. 38. Assertion : Alternating current does not show magnetic
field.
Primary Coil Secondary Coil Reason : Alternating current varies with time.
N1 V1 I1 N2 V2 I2 39. Assertion : A step up transformer can be used as a step
Transformer 1 100 10V 10A 200 20V 5A down transformer.
Transformer 2 100 10V 10A 50 5V 20A Es ns
Reason : This is because in a transformer, E .
Transformer 3 200 10V 10A 100 5V 20A p np

33. The primary coil of a transformer has 100 turns and is 40. Assertion : When number of turns in a coil is doubled,
connected to a 120V AC source. How many turns are in the coefficient of self-inductance of the coil becomes 4 times.
secondary coil if there is a 2400V across it? Reason : This is because L N².
(a) 5 (b) 50 41. Assertion : An induced current has a direction such that
(c) 200 (d) 2000 the magnetic field due to the current opposes the change in
34. A transformer with 40 turns in its primary coil is connected the magnetic flux that induces the current.
to a 120 V AC source. If 20 watts of power is supplied to the Reason : Above statement is in accordance with
primary coil, how much power is developed int eh secondary conservation of energy.
coil? 42. Assertion : The coil in the resistance boxes are made by
(a) 10 W (b) 20 W doubling the wire.
(c) 80 W (d) 160 W Reason : Thick wire is required in resistance box.
Alternating Current 325

DIRECTIONS (Q. 43) : Following question has four statements 44. A 100 F capacitor in series with a 40 resistance is
connected to a 110 V, 60 Hz supply.
(A, B, C and D) given in Column I and four statements (p, q, r
(a) What is the maximum current in the circuit?
and s) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have
(b) What is the time lag between maximum current and
correct matching with one or more statement(s) given in Column maximum voltage?
II. Match the entries in column I with entries in column II. 45. A R-L circuit draws a power of 440W from a source of 220V,
50Hz. The power factor of the circuit is 0.5. To make the
43. Column I gives some incomplete statements. Column II gives
power factor of the circuit as 1.0, what capacitance will have
some completing statements. Match them correctly.
to be connected with it ?
Column I Column II 46. A variable frequency 230V alternating voltage source
(A) A.C. changes periodically (p) Np>Ns is connected across a series combination of L = 5.0H,
(B) Rate of transferring energy(q) Ns > Np C = 80µF and R = 40 . Calculate :
(C) Step-up transformer (r) Power (a) The angular frequency of the source at resonance.
(D) Step down transformer (s) magnitude (b) Amplitude of current at resonance frequency.
(t) direction 47. A small town with a demand of 800 kW of electric power at
A B C D
220 V is situated 15 km away from an electric power plant
(a) s,r r, p q q
(b) s, t r, q p generating power at 440 V. The resistance of the two wire
(c) p, q s r, t q line carrying power is 0.5 per km. The town gets from the
(d) q, r q, p s s,t line through a 4000 – 220 V step down transformer at a sub-
station in the town.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 44-47) : Following are integer based/ (a) Estimate the line power loss in the form of heat.
Numeric based questions. Each question, when worked out will (b) How much power must be plant supply, assuming there
result in one integer or numeric value. is a negligible power loss due to leakage?
(c) Characterise the step up transformer at the plant.
 EBD_7005
326 PHYSICS

SO L U T I ON S
Brief Explanations
of
Selected Questions

2
55 55 3
XL Z2 R2 (55) 2
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c) 2 2
7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (b) when power factor is 1.0 then XL = XC
13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (d)
1 1 1
19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (c) so X L C = 6.68 × 10–5 F
C XL 55 3
24. (a, d) 25. (a, b, d) 26. (a, b) 27. (b, c, d) (314)
2
28. (b, c, d) 29. (a, b)
30. (b) 31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (b) 46. (a) Angular frequency at resonance
36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (a) 41. (b) 1 1 102
42. (c) 43. (b) r 50 rad / s
LC 5.0 80 10 6 2
44. (a) Here, C = 100 F = 100 × 10–6 F, R = 40 ,
(b) Amplitude of current at resonance
Vrms = 110 V, f = 60 Hz
V 230 2
Peak voltage, V0 2.Vrms 110 2 155.54 V Im 8.13 A
R 40
Circuit impedance, 47. The diagram shows the network :
Step-up Step-down
1 440V transformer transformer
2 1 2 4000V
Z= R = 40
2 2
C (2 60 100 10 6 ) 2 220V

= 1600 703.60 = 2303.60 = 48 800kW

Hence, maximum current in coil,
15km
V0 155.54
I0 3.24 A Power Town
Z 48 plant Sub-station
(b) Phase lead angle (for current), For sub-station, P = 800 kW = 800 × 103 watt
1 V = 220 V
tan 1
CR P 800 103 40
IS = = = × 103 A.
1 1 V 220 11
tan 6 Primary current (Ip) in sub-station transformer will be given
2 3.14 60 100 10 40
by 4000 × IP = 220 × IS
= tan–1 0.66315 = 33° 33 (taken 33.5°)
Time lead, 220 40 103
IP = = 200 A
33.5 11 4000
t (a) Hence transmission line current = 200 A
2 360 60
= 0.001551 sec = 1.551 × 10–3 sec Transmission line resistance = 2 × 15 × 0.5 = 15
Voltage will lag current by time 1.551 ms. Transmission line power loss
= I2R = 200 × 200 × 15 = 6 × 105 watt = 600 kW.
V2
45. Power P = VI cos = cos (b) Power to be supplied by plant = power required at
Z
substation + loss of power of transmission
V 2 cos (220) 2 (0.5) = 800 + 600 = 1400 kW.
Z 55
P (440) (c) Voltage in secondary at power plant has characteristics
Also power factor Power 1400 kW 1400 1000
R = = 7000 V
cos R Z cos = (55) (0.5) = 27.5 Current 200 A 200
Z Step-up transformer at power plant has characteristics
440 - 7000 V.
 MODERN PHYSICS
Chapter

8
INTRODUCTION

All matters are composed of what is called ‘atom’. Atom is composed of fundamental particles electron, proton and
neutron and it has a nucleus in which its mass i.e., no. of protons + no.of neutrons is concentrated.

The story of how atom was discovered is very long. But the brief story is that first of all Thomson provided something
acceptable in scientific community about the atom. After him, Rutherford presented the modified and almost acceptable

atomic model but it had also some discrepencies which was removed by Neils Bohr when he presented the most
updated form of the atomic model in 1913.

This chapter provides us the structure of atom and its different features. The chapter also gives a glimpse of the
nucleus and different phenomena occuring in it like radioactivity, fission, fusion etc.

You will also study the applications of these nuclear phenomena such as in atom bomb, hydrogen bomb, and so on.
 EBD_7005
328 PHYSICS
THE ATOM
Observations and experiments have concluded that atom is the basic constituent of each substance; which is neutral and stable.
In Vedas, references are given about the basic constituent of the substances. It is called atom. After the Rutherford experiments,
it has been accepted that positive nucleus is the centre of the atom and electrons are revolving around the nucleus in different
orbits. In last hundred years, scientists have discovered the following facts regarding the atom. These are :
(i) The atom as a whole is neutral.
(ii) The atom is stable.
(iii) The size of the atom is order of 10–10 m.
(iv) The atom emits discrete radiations etc.

THOMSON’S ATOMIC MODEL

This model suggests an atom to be a tiny sphere of radius 10 10 m, containing the positive charge. The atom is electrically
neutral. It contains an equal negative charge in the form of electrons, which are embedded randomly in this sphere, like seeds in
a watermelon.
–
This model failed to explain:
(i) Large scattering angle of -particle – –
– –
(ii) Origin of spectral lines observed in the spectrum of hydrogen atom. – –
–

RUTHERFORD’S ATOMIC MODEL Fig 8.1 Thomson’s atomic model

(i) Atom is sphere of diameter about 10–10 m and central part called nucleus contains + ve charge protons most of the masses
of atom.
(ii) The diameter of the nucleus is of the order of 10 –15 m
(iii) The space around the nucleus is almost empty. It is filled only with tiny sized electrons which revolve around the nucleus
in different orbits.
(iv) The electrostatic attraction between the nucleus and electron provides centripetal force required for circular motion.
(v) Total positive charge in the nucleus is equal to total negative charge at the atom.
Drawbacks of Rutherford Model
(i) The electron orbiting around the nucleus is under acceleration. So it must radiate energy. This may result in radius of orbits
decreasing gradually.
(ii) According to the Rutherford, electron can revolve in all possible orbits hence the atom should emit radiation of all possible
wave length. But in reality atoms are found to have line spectrum.

BOHR’S ATOMIC MODEL

In 1913 Bohr gave his atomic theory primarily to explain, the spectra of hydrogen and hydrogen-like atoms. His theory, contained
a combination of views from Plank’s quantum theory, Einstein’s photon concept and Rutherford model of atom. The Bohr theory
can explain, the atomic spectra of hydrogen atom and hydrogen-like ions such as He+, Li2+, Be3+.......(one electron ions). But his
theory failed to explain, the spectra of more complex atom and ions. The basic postulates of Bohr’s model are
(i) The electron moves in circular orbits around the nucleus under the influence of coulombic force of attraction between the
electron and the positively charged nucleus (as shown in figure below).

e–
r

+ Fc v

Fig. 8.2 Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom

(ii) The electron rotates about the nucleus in certain stationary circular orbits, for which the angular momentum of electron

about the nucleus is an integral multiple of h , where h is plank’s constant i.e.,

2
nh
mvr n --- (n = 1, 2, 3......... where n is principal quantum number) ...(1)
2
Modern Physics 329

(iii) When the electron is in one of its stationary orbits, it does not radiate energy, hence the atom is stable.These stationary
orbits are called allowed orbits.
(iv) The atom radiates energy when the electron “jumps” from one allowed stationary state to another. The frequency of
radiation follows the condition hv = Ei – Ef ...(2)
Where Ei and Ef are total energies of initial and final stationary states. This difference in energy (Ei – Ef) between two allowed
stationary states is radiated/absorbed in the form of a packet of electromagnetic energy (hv - one photon of frequency v) called
a photon.

Radius and Energy of Hydrogen and Hydrogen Like Ions

Now, we calculate the allowed energies of hydrogen atom, by using the model shown in fig, in which the electron travels in a
circular orbit of radius r with an orbital speed v.
For moving an electron in a circular orbit the required centripetal force is provided by the coulomb force of attraction which acts
between nucleus [Ze+, here Z = 1 (atomic number) for hydrogen atom] and electron (e–),
2
i.e., mv k e2 ...(3)
r r2
1
where k is electrostatic constant and o is permittivity of free space.
4 o
Eliminating v from eq (1) & (3) we obtain
2 2
r (radius of nth state) n 2 h2 on h
(n = 1, 2, 3 .............) ...(4)
2
mke me 2
Equation (4) gives the radii of various orbits (have discrete values).
The smallest radius (also called Bohr radius) corresponds to n = 1 is
2
r0 0.529 Aº ...(5)
mke 2
n2
r = 0.529 n2 Å for hydrogen atom and r = 0.529 × Å for hydrogen like ions.
Z

2 n2 2
k 2e 4 ke2
From equations (4) and (1) we obtain, v v
m2 r 2 n2 2 n

e2 c 1
or v (For hydrogen atom ) ...(6)
2 o nh 137 n
(velocity in nth state)
c Z c
v for hydrogen like ions 2.19 106 ms 1
137 n 137
The total energy of electron is given by
1 2 ke ( e)
E = K.E. + P.E. = Kinetic energy + Potential energy mv
2 r
ke2 me 4
E (allowed energy state) ...(7)
2r 8 o n2 h2
After substituting numerical values in Eq.(7), we obtain
13.6
E eV (For hydrogen atom) ...(8)
n2
13.6 Z 2
E eV / atom for hydrogen like ions.
n2
me 4
The lowest energy state, or ground state, corresponds to n = 1 is E0 13.6eV
8 o h2
13.6ev 13.6ev
The next state corresponds to n = 2 i.e., first excited state has an energy, E = – – = –3.4 eV
n2 4
 EBD_7005
330 PHYSICS
Limitations of Bohr's Model
(i) It could not explain the spectra of atoms containing more than one electron.
(ii) There was no theoretical basis for selecting mvr to be an integral multiple of h / 2 .
(iii) It involved the orbit concept which could not be checked experimentally.
(iv) It could not explain Zeeman and Stark effect and fine lines of spectra.
(v) It was against De-broglie concept and uncertainty principle

If Bohr’s quantization postulate (angular momentum = nh/2 ) is a basic law of nature, it should be equally valid for the case of
planetary motion also. Why then do we never speak of quantization of orbits of planets around the sun?
h
Angular momentum mvr n
associated with planetary motion are incomparably large relative to h. For example angular
2
h
momentum of Earth in its orbital motion is of the order of 1070 .
2
For such large value of n, the difference in successive energies and angular momenta of the quantised levels of the Bohr model
are so small that one can predict the energy level continuous.

ENERGY LEVEL DIAGRAM FOR HYDROGEN ATOM

Some transitions for Lyman, Balmer and Paschen series are shown.
The quantum numbers are at left and energies of levels are at right.
In this case ......E = 0 for r = (because n = )
If the electron jumps from allowed state ni to allowed state nf, then frequency of emitted photon is given by

Ef Ei me 4 1 1 ...(i)
3
h 8 oh ni2 n 2f

1 me 4 1 1
and the wavelength of emitted photon is 3 ...(ii)
c 8 o ch ni2 n 2f

1 1 1
R for hydrogen atom
n i2 n 2f

1 1 1
and RZ 2 ( for H-like atoms)
n12 n22 Fig 8.3 Energy level diagram for
hydrogen atom
where R = 1.096776 × 107m–1 is known as Rydberg constant. By using this expression (i.e., equation ii) we can calculate the
wavelengths for various series (Lyman, Balmer...) in hydrogen spectrum, i.e.
(i) Lyman series ni = 1 & nf = 2, 3, 4............... (ii) Balmer series ni = 2, & nf = 3, 4, 5...............
(iii) Paschen series ni = 3 & nf = 4, 5, 6.............. (iv) Brackett series ni = 4 & nf = 5, 6, 7...............
(v) P fund series ni = 5 & nf = 6, 7, 8...............
R
In practice, the value of Rydberg constant varies between and R
2
This is because in above calculations we assumed that electron revolves around a massive fixed nucleus of mass M. But in
reality, the electron & nucleus each revolve round their common center of mass i.e., the motion of nucleus cannot be ignored.
The correction for nuclear motion amounts to replacing electronic mass m by reduced mass which is defined as
Reduced mass, mM ...(iii)
m M
So total energy by taking this correction is
e4
E ...(iv)
8 o h2n2
Modern Physics 331

If we are dealing with hydrogen like ions such as – He+, Li2+, Be3+, Be4+ (one electron ions), each can be considered as a system
of two charges, the electron of mass m & charge –e & nucleus of mass M & charge +Ze, where Z is atomic number. The radii of
circular orbits for these one electron ions can be written as
2 2
on h n2 2
r (n = 1, 2, 3............) ...(v)
2
Ze kZe 2
Z 2 e4
and the allowed energies are given by E (n = 1, 2, 3.........) ...(vi)
2 2
8 oh n

WAVELENGTH LIMITS IN VARIOUS SPECTRAL SERIES OF HYDROGEN ATOM

(i) For Lyman series (in ultraviolet region)
m ax 12 1 6 Å , m in 9 12 Å here ni 1, n f 2, 3...............
(ii) For Balmer Series (in visible region)
max 6563 Å and min 3646 Å here ni 2, n f 3, 4, 5...............
(iii) For Paschen series (in infrared region)
max 18751Å and min 8107 Å here ni 3, n f 4, 5, 6...............
(iv) For Brackett series (in infrared region)
max 40477Å and min 14572Å here ni 4, n f 5, 6, 7...............
(v) For p-fund series (in infrared region)
max 74515 Å and min 22768 Å here ni 5, n f 6, 7, 8...............
Keep in Memory
1. Energy of electrons in different orbits in an atom varies inversely with the square of the number of orbits. So, energy of
electrons increases (decreases in negative) as the orbit becomes higher.
2. If energy of a particular orbit is E for H-atom then its value for a H-like atom with atomic number Z is given by E = E × Z2.
R
3. If the radius of a particular orbit of H-atom is R then its value for a H-like atom is given by R = .
Z
4. If velocity of an electron in a particular orbit of H-atom be v then its value for a H-like atom is given by v = v × Z.
5. The time period of the electron in an orbit T 2 r 3
n( n 1)
6. Maximum number of spectral lines that can be emitted when an electron jumps from nth orbit is
2
7. The first line of Lyman series is when electron jumps from 2 1, it is also called -line
The second line of lyman series is when electron jumps from 3 1, it is also called –line
depend on the area of cross-section of the wire used?

An electron drops from the fourth energy level in an atom to the third level and then to the first level. Two frequencies of light
are emitted. How does their combined energy compare with the energy of the single frequency that would have been emitted if
the electron had dropped from the fourth level directly to the first level?
n=4
A
n=3
n=2
B C
n=1
Fig. 8.4
In this figure we have shown the drop of an electron from fourth energy level (n = 4) to third energy level (n = 3) and during this
transition it emits photons of frequency A. In another transition from third energy level (n = 3) to first energy level (n = 1), it emits
photons of frequency B. In case the electron drops from fourth level to first level, it emits photons of frequency C. From the
above diagram we can easily see that the sum of frequencies (and energies) for transitions A and B equals the frequency (and
energy) of transition C. Energy of transition C = energy of transition A + energy of transition B
 EBD_7005
332 PHYSICS
ILLUSTRATION : 8.1
Ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Hydrogen atom in the ground state are excited by monochromatic radiation of
photon energy 12.1 eV. Which spectral lines will be emitted by hydrogen atoms according to Bohr’s theory?
SOLUTION :
Given that (I.E.)H = 13.6 eV (E1)H = –(I.E.)H = – 13.6 eV.
After absorbing 12.1 eV energy, the energy becomes
–13.6 eV + 12.1 eV = –1.5 eV.
This energy corresponds to n = 3 level i.e., hydrogen atoms are excited to n = 3 level.
Now following three transitions are possible
n = 3 to n = 1, n = 3 to n = 2, and n = 2 to n = 1.
ILLUSTRATION : 8.2
The ionisation energy of Hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Following Bohr’s theory, what is the energy corresponding to a transition
between the 3rd and the 4th orbit?
SOLUTION :
As we know, energy corresponding to nth orbit,
En = 13.6/n2
E3 = – (13.9/9) = –1.51 eV and E4 = – (13.6/16) = –0.85 eV
Now E4 – E3 = –0.85 – (–1.51) = 0.66 eV
ILLUSTRATION : 8.3
If the wavelength of the first line of the Lyman series for the hydrogen atom is 1210 Å, then what is the wavelength of the first
line of the Balmer series of the hydrogen spectrum ?
SOLUTION :
1 1 1
We know that, R
n12 n22
For first line of Lyman series, n1 =1 and n2 = 2
1 1 1 3R 4
R or R
1 1 4 4 3 1
For first line of Balmer series n1 =2 and n2 = 3
1 1 1 5R 5 4
R
2 4 9 36 36 3 1

1 5 4 1 36 3 1210
or, or, 2 6434 Å
2 36 3 1210 5 4
ILLUSTRATION : 8.4
If the electron in hydrogen atom jumps from the third orbit to second orbit, what is the wavelength of the emitted radiation?
SOLUTION :

1 1 1 1 1 1 5R 36
R or R
n12 n22 4 9 36 5R

CATHODE RAY AND ITS PROPERTIES

Discharge Tube Experiment

• When a very strong potential difference is applied across the two electrodes in a discharge tube and the pressure of the air is
lowered gradually, then a stage is reached at which the current begins to flow through the air with cracking noise. The potential
at which this happens is called sparking potential.
Modern Physics 333

• As pressure is lowered to 0.1 m.m. Hg – cathode glow, Crooke’s dark space, negative glow, Faraday dark space and striations are
observed.

High potential
V ~ 30kV

Cathode glow Faraday dark

space

Cathode Anode

At pressure 0.1 mm
Crooke’s dark space
Fig. 8.5 Discharge tube

• At pressure 0.01 m.m. Hg entire tube is dark (Crooke’s dark space) except the glass wall behind anode. Colour is yellowish-green
for soda glass and greyish-blue for lead glass.
• The luminous streaks travelling from cathode to anode, below 0.01 m.m. Hg, are called cathode rays.

Properties of Cathode Rays

(i) Emitted perpendicularly to cathode (ii) Travel in straight lines (iii) Carry energy (iv) Possess momentum (v) Deflected by
electric and magnetic fields (vi) Excite fluroescence (vii) Ionise gas (viii) Produce highly penetrating secondary radiation when
suddenly stopped (ix) Effect photographic plate.

Positive Rays
Stream of +ve ions moving towards cathode in discharge tube.
Properties of positive rays
(i) Rays are made up of positively charged particles.
(ii) Being heavy, their velocity is much less than that of cathode rays.
(iii) They ionise the gas through which they pass and ionising power of positive rays is more than that of cathode rays.
(iv) Positive rays are deflected by electric and magnetic field showing that they carry +ve charge with them.

PHOTOELECTRIC EFFECT
In 19th century, experiments showed that when light is incident on certain metallic surfaces, electrons are emitted from the
surfaces. This phenomenon is known as the photo-electric effect and emitted electrons are called photoelectrons. The first
discovery of this phenomenon was made by Hertz.
Figure shows, when light strikes the cathode C, electrons are emitted and they are collected on anode A due to potential difference
provided by battery and constitutes the current in the circuit (observed by Galvanometer G.)

o de C Light incident
ic ca th
ll
e ta Anode A
(M fa c e ) C

su r
G
V

– + Battery

Fig. 8.6 When light strikes the cathode C (metallic surface), photoelectrons are ejected.
Electrons are collected at anode A, constituting a current in the circuit. (Photoelectric effect)
 EBD_7005
334 PHYSICS
A plot of photoelectric current versus the potential difference V between cathode and anode is shown in figure below.
I Current

High Intensity

Low Intensity

–V0 V

Fig. 8.7 Photoelectric current versus voltage for two light intensities. The current increases with intensity,
but reaches a saturation. At voltage less than –V0 the current is zero.
It is clear from figure that photoelectric current increases as we increase the intensity of light and obtain saturation value at larger
value of potential difference V between cathode and anode. If V is negative then, photoelectrons are repelled by negative anode
and only those electrons reaches anode, who have energy equal to or greater than eV. But if V is equal to V0, called stopping
potential (i.e., cut off. potential), no electrons will reach the anode i.e.,
Maximum Kinetic energy of electron = eV0
or Kmax = eV0 ...(1)
–19
where e is charge of electron (i.e. 1.6 × 10 coulomb).
But some features of photoelectric effect cannot be explained by classical physics and the wave theory of light.
(1) No photoelectrons are emitted, if the frequency of incident light is less than some cut-off frequency (i.e., threshold frequency)
0. It is inconsistent with the wave theory of light, which predicts that photoelectric effect occurs at any frequency provided
intensity of incident light is sufficiently high.
(2) The maximum kinetic energy of the photo electrons is independent of light intensiy, but increases with increasing the frequency
of incident light.
(3) Electrons are emitted from surface almost instantaneously (less than 10–9 sec after the surface illumination), even at low
intensity of incident light(classicaly we assume that the electrons would require some time to absorb the incident light before
they acquire enough kinetic energy to escape from metal).
These above points were explained by Einstein in 1905 by treating the light as stream of particles. Taking Max Planck’s
assumption, Einstein postulated that a beam of light consists of small packets of energy called photons or quanta. The energy
E of a photon is equal to a constant h times its frequency

i.e., E hc ....(2)
h

Where h is a universal constant called Planck’s constant and numerical value of h = 6.62607 × 10–34 J.s
When a photon arrives at surface, it is absorbed by an electron. This energy transfer is an All-or-Nothing process, in contrast
to continuous transfer of energy in classical theory; the electrons get all photon’s energy or none at all. If this energy is greater
than the work function of the metal ( i.e., work function is the minimum energy required to remove the electron from metal
surface), the electron may escape from the surface. Greater intensity at a particular frequency means greater number of photons
per second absorbed and consequently greater number of electrons emitted per second and so greater current.
1
To obtain maximum kinetic energy K max mv 2max for an emitted electron, appling conservation of energy. According to it
2
1 2
K max mvmax h
2
K max h( 0) ...(3)
or eV0 K max h( 0) ...(4)
WhereV0 = cut-off potential
max = maximum velocity obtained by photoelectrons
= frequency of incident light i.e., photon
0 = cut off frequency or threshold frequency.
0 is different for different metallic surfaces. For most metals the threshold frequency is in ultarviolet region of spectrum.
(Corresponding to l between 200 and 300 nm), but for potassium and cesium oxides, it is in the visible spectrum ( between 400
and 700 nm).
Modern Physics 335

WORK FUNCTIONS OF SOME ELEMENTS

Every metal has a definite work function. Why do all photoelectrons not come out with the same energy if incident radiation is
monochromatic? Why is there an energy distribution of photoelectrons?
By work function of a metal, we mean the minimum energy required for the electron in the highest level of conduction band to get
out of the metal. Since all the electrons in the metal do not belong to that level but they occupy a continuous band of levels,
therefore, for the given incident radiation, electrons knocked off from different levels come out with different energies.

Element (Work function) (eV)

Al (A luminium) (4.3) Ni (Nickel) (5.1)
C (Carbon) (5.0) Si (Silicon) (4.8)
Cu (Copper) (4.7) Ag (Silver) (4.3)
Au (Gold) (5.1) Na (Sodium) (2.7)

Where 1 eV = 1.602 × 10–19 joule.

Within the frame work of photon theory of light (Quantum theory of light) we can explain above failures of classical physics.
(1) It is clear from eq. (3) that if energy of photon is less than the work function of metallic surface, the electrons will never be ejected
from surface regardless of intensity of incident light.
(2) Kmax is independent of intensity of incident light, but it depends on the frequency of incident light [i.e., Kmax (frequency
of light)].
(3) Electrons are emitted almost instantaneously consistent with particle view of light in which incident energy is concentrated in
small packets (called photons) rather than over a large area (as in wave theory).
ILLUSTRATION : 8.5
The work function of cesium is 1.8 eV. Light of 5000 Å is incident on it. Calculate (a) threshold frequency and threshold
wavelength. (b) maximum K.E. of emitted electrons. (c) maximum velocity of emitted electrons (d) if the intensity of the incident
light be doubled, then what will be the maximum K.E. of the emitted electrons? (h = 6.6 × 10–34 joule second, mass of electron
m = 9.0×10–31 kg and speed of light c = 3 × 108 m/s).
SOLUTION :
(a) As we know, W0 h v0 or v0 h / W0

W0 1.8 (1.6 10 19
) = 2.9 × 10–19 joule

19
W0 2.9 10 joule
Threshold frequency, 0
h 34 = 4.4 × 1014 sec–1
6.6 10 joule second

c 3.0 108 m/s

Threshold wavelength 0 = 6.8 × 10–7 metre = 6800 Å
0 4.4 1014 s 1

hc
(b) Maximum kinetic energy. Ek h W0 W0

34
(6.63 10 ) (3 108 ) 19
= (2.9 10 joule) = (4.0 – 2.9) ×10–19 = 1.1 × 10–19 joule.
10
5000 10

1 2
(c) Ek mvmax
2

19
2 Ek 2 (1.1 10 )
vmax 31 = 5.0 × 105 m/sec.
m 9.0 10

(d) The K.E. of emitted electrons does not depend upon the intensity of light. Hence if the intensity of incident light be
doubled, the energy will remain unchanged.
 EBD_7005
336 PHYSICS
X-RAYS
The X-rays were discovered by Prof. Roentgen, a German scientist in 1885. He was awarded Nobel Prize for this discovery in
1901. The modern apparatus for the production of X-rays was developed by Dr. Coolidge in 1913.
Production of X-rays
X-rays are produced when fast moving cathode rays are stopped suddenly by a metal called target.
The modern device used in the production of X-ray is called the Coolidge tube, which consists of a highly evacuated glass tube
as shown in the figure.
A filament F emits electrons when it is heated by passing a low
current through it. It also acts as a cathode. It is surrounded by B
a molybdenum cylinder M. The cylinder M focusses the
electrons on a fine beam. The target is tungesten which is P
embedded in copper anode A. The anode A is inclined at 45º to M
T A +
the horizontal. It is cooled by circulating water around it. To F
produce X-rays, high speed electrons are required. For this,
the electrons emitted from the filament are accelerated by Q
applying a high potential difference between the anode and
the cathode. L.T X
The fast moving electrons produce X-rays when they strike Fig. 8.8 Coolidge tube
the target.

Applications of x-rays
X-rays have important and useful applications in surgery, medicine, engineering and studies of crystal structures.
1. Scientific applications: The diffraction of X-rays at crystals opened a new dimension to X-rays crystallography. Various diffrac-
tion patterns are used for determining internal structure of crystals. The spacing and dispositions of atoms of a crystal can be
precisely determined using Bragg’s law : n = 2d sin .
2. Industrial applications: Since X-rays can penetrate through various materials, they are used in industry to detect defects in
metallic structures in big machines, railway tracks and bridges. X-rays are used to analyse the composition of alloys and pearls.
3. In radio therapy: X-rays can cause damage to the tissues of body (cells are ionized and molecules are broken). So X-ray damages
the malignant growths like cancer and tumors which are dangerous to life, when it used in proper and controlled intensities.
4. In medicine and surgery: X-rays are absorbed more in heavy elements than in lighter ones. Since bones (containing calcium and
phosphorus) absorb more X-rays than the surrounding tissues (containing light elements like H , C , O ), their shadow is casted
on the photographic plate. So the cracks or Fractures in bones can be easily located. Similarly intestine and digestive system
abnormalities are also detected by X-rays.

ATOMIC NUCLEUS
Rutherford proposed the existence of a nucleus in 1911 to explain the results of his particle scattering experiment.
It is the central core of an atom in which the entire positive charge and neutron i.e., almost the entire mass of an atom is
concentrated. All nuclei except hydrogen are made up of neutrons and protons. Hydrogen nucleus contains a single proton.
A nuclide is a specific nucleus of an atom characterized as Z X AN where A is mass number, Z is proton number and N is neutron
number of an elements.
Proton : It is a charged particle carrying unit positive charge. Mass of proton mp = 1.6726 × 10–27 kg = 1.007825 amu. It was
discovered by Goldstein in 1919. The number of protons present inside the nucleus of an atom is called atomic number (Z) of an
element. As atom is electrically neutral so number of protons inside the nucleus is equal to number of electrons (negatively
charged particles) in an atom.
In lighter nuclei the number of neutrons and protons are equal while in heavier nuclei number of neutrons is greater than number
of protons.
Neutron : It is a neutral particle carrying no charge. Mass of neutron mn = 1.6749 × 10–27 kg = 1.008665 amu
They are not deflected by external electric and magnetic fields, have high penetrating power and low ionizing power are stable
inside the nucleus. Outside the nucleus they are unstable with a half life of about 13 minutes.
Neutron was discovered by James Chadwick in 1932 when he tried to explain results of collision of particles with Berrylium.
4 4 13 12 1
2Be + 2He 6C 6C + 0n + Q .
Size of Nucleus
Modern Physics 337

Rutherford in his particle scattering experiment calculated the distance of closest approach at which particle approaching
nucleus is turned around by Coulomb repulsion.
When particle is turned, the kinetic energy must be converted to electric potential energy since collision is elastic.
1 K(2e) (Ze) 4K Ze 2
mv 2 ; Distance of closest approach d
2 d mv 2
1 2
For gold, Z = 79 , mv 7MeV 7 1.6 10 13 J
2
2 9 109 79 (1.6 10 19 2
) 14
So, d 13
3.2 10 m
7 1.6 10
He assumed the distance of closest approach as a measure of size of nucleus.
Radius of nucleus (R) is related to mass number (A) as R = R0A1/3 where R0 is constant and R0 = 1.25 × 10–15m
Density of Nucleus
4 3 4 3
Volume of nucleus V = R = R 0 A so, volume V A
3 3
Mass of nucleus = mass of protons + mass of neutrons = mA where m is mass of one nucleon
mass of nucleus mA 3m
Density of nucleus
volume of nucleus 4 3 3
R 0A 4 R 0
3
The nuclear density is independent of mass number A. The nuclear density is nearly constant and is equal to
27
3m 3 1.67 10
1.8 1017 kg / m3
4 R 304 3.14 (1.25 10 ) 15 3

The distance from the centre of nucleus where density becomes 50% of its density at centre is called nuclear radius. The high
density of nucleus indicates compactness of nucleus.
1
Atomic mass unit : 1 atomic mass unit (amu) = of mass of carbon (6C12) atom
12
1 12
1 amu = 1.66 10 24 g = 1.66 × 10–27 kg
12 6.023 1023
Energy equivalent to 1 amu mass : According to Einstein’s mass energy equivalence relation
E = mc2 = 1.66 × 10–27 (3 × 108)2 joule = 1.49 × 10–10 joule = 931.5 MeV, [1 amu = 1.49 × 10–10 J = 931.5 MeV]
Nuclear Forces
The strong forces of attraction which firmly hold the nucleons in the small nucleus and account for stability of nucleus are called
as nuclear forces.
The nuclear force is a short range force and is strongest force in nature. They are charge independent.
Force between a pair of protons, a pair of neutrons and a pair of neutron (n) and proton (P) is equal.
F(n — n) = F (p — p) = F (n — p)
The net force between pair of neutrons and a pair of neutron and proton is equal. This is slightly greater than force between pair
of protons because force between protons is reduced due to electrostatic repulsion.
Net force F (n — n) = net force F(n — p) > net force F (p — p)
They are non-central forces i.e., they do not act along line joining the centre of two nucleons.
The nuclear forces originate by exchange of mesons ( +, º, –) between the nucleons.
Mass Defect
The mass of the nucleus is always less than the sum of masses of nucleons composing the nucleus.
The difference between the rest mass of nucleus and sum of rest masses of nucleons constituting the nucleus is known as mass
defect. Mass defect m = [ZmP + (A – Z)mn] – M(ZXA)
BINDING ENERGY
The energy required to break a nucleus into its constituent nucleons and place them at infinite distance is called binding
energy. The energy equivalent to mass defect is called binding energy. This is the energy with which the nucleons are held together.
The binding energies (~MeV) are very large as compared to molecular binding energies (~eV)
Binding energy BE = ( m) c2 = c2 [ ZmP ( A Z )mn M (Z X A ) ]
Rest mass of protons + rest mass of neutrons = rest mass of nucleus + BE.
The binding energy per nucleon of a nucleus is the average energy required to extract a nucleon from the nucleus.
 EBD_7005
338 PHYSICS

mc 2
16
Total binding energy BE 8O
Binding energy per nucleon B 8.0
Total number of nucleons A A
12
6C

(MeV)
c2 6.0 He4

Binding energy
= [Zm p (A Z)mn M( Z X A )] 2

per nucleon
A 4.0
The plot of binding energy per nucleon with mass number A is shown.
Binding energy per nucleon gives a measure of stability of nucleus. 2.0
More is binding energy per nucleon more is the stability of nucleus. 56
It is small for lighter nuclei i.e. 1H1, 1H2 etc. 0
50 100 150 200 250
For A < 28 at A = 4n the curve shows some peaks at Mass number A
He 4, Be8, C12, O16 , Ne20, Mg24 .
2 4 6 8 10 12 Fig. 8.9
This represents extra stability of these elements with respect to their neighbours .
It is almost constant about 8.5 MeV in range 40 < A < 120. It is maximum about 8.8 MeV for Fe56.
It decreases for A > 200. They become less stable and exhibit radioactivity.
Illustration 8.6
A nucleus breaks into two parts whose velocity is in the ratio of 2:1 . Find the ratio of their radii.
SOLUTION
m1 v2
As per conservation of momentum m1v1 + m2v2 = 0 so,
m2 v1
1/3 1/3 1/3
R1 A1 m1 1
Ratio of radii or, R1 : R2 = 1 : 21/3
R2 A2 m2 2
Illustration 8.7
Calculate the binding energy per nucleon for 35 . Given M (Cl 35 ) = 34.9800 amu mn = 1.008665 amu and
17 C
mP = 1.007825 amu.
SOLUTION
Binding energy BE = ZmP + (A – Z) mn – M (Cl35) = 17 × 1.007825 + 18 × 1.008665 – 34.9800 = 0.308995 amu
BE = 0.308995 × 931.5 = 287.83 MeV
BE 287.75
Binding energy per nucleon, B 8.22 MeV/nucleon
A 35
Illustration 8.8
Calculate the mass defect of a deutron (1H2). Given M(1H2) = 2.014102 amu, mn = 1.008665 amu, mp = 1.007825 amu.
SOLUTION
Mass defect m = [ZmP + (A – Z)mn] – M(1H2)
= (1 × 1.007825 + (2 – 1) 1.008665) – 2.014102
m = 0.002388 amu

TYPES OF NUCLEI
Isotopes : These are nuclei of same element having same atomic number Z but different mass number A
e.g. 8O16, 8O17, 8O18 ; 1H1, 1H2, 1H3 ; 92U234, 92 U235, 92 U238
All isotopes of an element have same chemical properties. They occupy same place in periodic table. They cannot be separated
by chemical analysis. They can be separated by mass spectrometers or mass spectrographs.
Isotones : These are nuclei of different elements having same no. of neutrons N but different A.
e.g . 6 C13 14 3 4
7 & 7 N 7 ; 1 H 2 & 2 He 2
; 2 Be59 & 5 B10
5

Isotones are different elements with different chemical properties. They occupy different positions in periodic table. They can be
separated by chemical analysis and mass spectrometers.
Isobars : These are nuclei of different elements having same A but different N and Z.
e.g 6C14 and 7N14 ; 18Ar40 and 20Ca40
Isobars are different elements with different chemical properties. They occupy different positions in periodic table. They can be
separated by chemical analysis but cannot be separated by mass spectrometers.
Modern Physics 339

Mirror nuclei : These are nuclei with same A but in which neutron and proton number are interchanged.
e.g. 4 Be37 (Z 4, N 3) and 3 Li 74 (Z 3, N 4)
Isomer nuclei : These are nuclei with same A and same Z but differ in their nuclear energy states. They have different life times
and internal structure. These nuclei have different radioactive properties. e.g. Co60 & Co60*

RADIOACTIVITY
The phenomenon of spontaneous emission of radiations ( , & )from a substance is called radioactivity.
Radioactivity was discovered by Henry Becquerel in 1896 in Uranium salts. The substances like Uranium, Radium, Thorium,
Polonium etc. which show radioactivity are called radioactive substances. Nuclei with Z > 83 spontaneously disintegrate with
emission of and particles. In radioactivity emission of alpha ( ), beta ( ) and gamma ( ) radiation takes place. These are called
radioactive radiations or Becquerel rays. The simultaneous emission of and particles is not possible. Only one particle is
emitted at a time. The emission of radiations causes a change in structure of nucleus. This causes transformation of an atom to
new lighter atom or changes a radioactive element into element of lower atomic weight. All heavier radioactive elements emit
radiations till they are converted to stable 82Pb206. It is a statistical process, so it is governed by the laws of probability. The
disintegration of all atoms has equal probability. It is a spontaneous process which is independent of all external conditions. It
is not affected by temperature, pressure, electric or magnetic field.
PROPERTIES OF , AND RADIATION
Property – rays – rays – rays
1. Nature These are doubly ionized These are beam of fast These are electromagnetic
helium atom 2He4 moving electrons (– 0) and radiations of high frequency
charge q = +2e = 3.2 × 10–19C positions (+ 0) charge and travel in form of photons.
mass m = 2p + 2n = 4amu 0 –19C
– = – e = –1.6 × 10 charge q = 0 (chargeless)
= 4 × 1.6 × 10–27 kg +
0 = + e = 1.6 × 10–19C rest mass = 0
h h
0
m (– ) = m(+ 0) effective mass = 2 c
c
=9.1×10–31 kg
2. Speed Speed ranges between Speed ranges from 1% to Speed equals velocity of
1.4 × 107 to 2.20 × 107 m/s 90% of velocity of light light v = c
v ~ 0.05 c v 0.9c
3. Ionising These have maximum There ionizing power is There ionizing power is
power ionizing power (10000) less than particles and least (1)
( ) more than rays (100)
4. Penetration The penetration power is Penetration power is about Penetration power is very
power smallest. Can only penetrate 100 times that of rays, large. Can penetrate about
( ) through 0.01 mm thick can penetrate through 30 cm thick Al sheet (10000)
Al sheet (1) 1 mm thick Al sheet (100)
5. Range Range is very small Range is more than rays. Range is very large
(few cms in air) (few meters in air) (many hundreds of meter in air)
6. Nature of Line spectrum Continuous spectrum Line spectrum
spectrum
7. Interaction Produces heat Produces heat Produces photoelectric effect,
with matter Compton effect and pair production
8. Effect on photo Affects photographic plate Affects photographic plate Affects photographic plate
graphic plate and produces fluorescense and produces fluorescence and produces fluorescence
and ZnS on ZnS on ZnS on ZnS
9. Effect of Suffers small deflection Suffers large deflection Pass undeflected
electric and
magnetic field
 EBD_7005
340 PHYSICS
TYPES OF RADIOACTIVE DECAY PROCESSES
(A) Alpha ( ) decay
Alpha ( ) particle consists of 2 neutrons, 2 protons and carries positive charge in magnitude equal to 2 electrons. It is doubly
ionized helium nuclei. emission takes place when size of nucleus becomes too large. The decay reduces the size of nucleus.
emission is explained on the basis of quantum mechanical tunnel effect.
The energy released in decay Q = (Mx – My – M ) c2.
A 4
The kinetic energy of particle E Q where A is mass number and Q is disintegration energy..
A
A A-4 (daughter nucleus) + He4 (alpha particle)
ZX (parent nucleus) Z–2Y 2
e.g. 92U238 90Th
234 + He4
2
(B) Beta ( ) decay
(i) Electron ( –) emission : Beta ¯ particles are fast moving electrons carrying negative charge. They are emitted when
nucleus has too many neutrons relative to number of protons i.e. N/Z ratio is larger than required. The emission of electron takes
place when a neutron is converted to proton inside the nucleus. This helps in correction of N/Z ratio.
1 1 0
0n 1p + –1e +
The interaction responsible for decay is weak interaction.
A A + –1e0 ( ¯ particle) +
ZX z+1Y

e.g. 6C14 14
7N + –1e +
0 (antineutrino)
(ii) Positron ( ) emission : Beta + particles are positrons with mass equal to an electron but carry a unit positive charge. They
+

are emitted when nucleus has too many protons relative to number of neutrons i.e. N/Z ratio is smaller than required. The
emission of positron takes place when a proton is converted to neutron inside the nucleus. This increases N/Z ratio .
1 1 0
1p = 0n + +1e +
A
ZX
A
Z 1X 1 e0 ( + particle) +
64
eg. 29 Cu 28 Ni64 1e
0 (neutrino)

(C) Gamma ( ) decay

Gamma rays are electromagnetic radiations which are chargeless, massless and emitted when nucleus has excess energy. They
are emitted when nucleus jumps from excited state to lower level or ground state. This reduces the energy of nucleus. They are
electromagnetic radiations of short wavelength (~ 10–12m) which travel with speed of light.
A* A
ZX ZX +

e.g. 12 12* + e0 +
5B 6C –1
12* 12
6C 6C +

(D) Electron capture

This process takes place when nucleus has too many protons relative to number of neutrons i.e. N/Z ratio is larger than required.
In this process parent nucleus captures one of its own orbital atomic electron and emits a neutrino.
In most cases, it is k-shell electron that is captured and for this reason this process is referred to as k-capture.
A 0 + z–1YA +
ZX + +1e

e.g. 7 0 7+
4Be + –1e 3Li

Soddy and Fajan's Displacement Laws

1. For alpha ( ) decay : When a radioactive element emits an particle, the new element has mass number A reduced by 4 and atomic
number Z reduced by 2. The new element is displaced by two places on left in periodic table.
A
ZX Y A 4 2 He 4
Z 2
2. For beta ( ¯) decay : When an element emits a ¯ particle the mass number A remains unchanged and atomic number Z is
increased by 1 . The new element is displaced by one place on right in periodic table
A A 0 + antineutrino ( )
ZX Z 1Y 1e
Modern Physics 341

3. For positron ( +) decay : When an element emits a + particle the mass number remains unchanged and atomic number Z is
decreased by one. The new element is displaced by one place on left in periodic table
A A 0 + neutrino ( )
ZX Z 1Y 1e
4. For gamma ( ) decay : When an element emits a particle the mass, charge or position of element in periodic table remains
unchanged. Here the excited nucleus returns to ground state by emission of ray photon.
LAW OF RADIOACTIVE DECAY, DECAY CONSTANT, HALF-LIFE AND MEAN LIFE
Law of Radioactive Decay
The disintegration of a radioactive substance is random and spontaneous. Radioactive decay is purely a nuclear phenomenon and
is independent of any physical and chemical conditions. The radioactive decay follows first order kinetics, i.e., the rate of decay is
proportional to the number of undecayed atoms in a radioactive substance at any time t. If dN be the number of atoms (nuclei)
disintegrating in time dt, the rate of decay is given as dN/dt.
dN
From first order of kinetic rate law: N where is called as decay or disintegration constant.
dt
Let N0 be the number of nuclei at time t = 0 and Nt be the number of nuclei after time t , then according to integrated first order rate
law, we have
slope = –l
Nt N 0e t logeN0 N0
–lt
N0e
N N
t ln 0 2.303 log 0 logeN
Nt Nt N(t)

The fraction of active atoms remaining at time t is

N t Time Time
e
N0 (a) (b)
The number of atoms that have decayed in time t is N0 – N = N0 (1 – e– t) Fig. 8.10

N0 N t
The fraction of atoms that have decayed in time t is 1 e
N0

Decay Constant
Decay constant is rate of decay of radioactive atoms per active atom.
dN / dt rate of decay
Decay constant,
N number of active atoms

1 N0
At t ; N
e
The decay constant of radioactive element is equal to reciprocal of the time after which number of remaining active atoms
reduce to 1/e times of original value.
1 N 1
At t fraction of active nuclei left = 0.37 or 37%
N0 e

N
Hence, fraction of decayed nuclei = 1 N 0.63 63%
0

The S.I. unit of decay constant is second–1 and dimension is [ M 0 L0 T 1

]
If there are more than one radioactive elements in a group then the resultant decay constant is equal to sum of individual decay
constants.
1 1 1
eq = + ........
1 2+ 3 + ................. and T T1 T2
 EBD_7005
342 PHYSICS
Radioactive equilibrium : When the rate of formation of daughter nuclei becomes equal to rate of its decay then this is called as
NA NB
state of radioactive equilibrium NA A
= NB B
= ............ or TA TB = ............

Half-life (T)
The half-life period (T) of a radioactive substance is defined as the time in which one-half of the radioactive substance is
disintegrated. If N0 be the number of nuclei at t = 0, then in a half life T, the number of nuclei decayed will be N0/2.

t
N0 T
Nt N 0e …(i) N0 e …(ii)
2

t /T n
Nt 1 1
From eqs. (i) and (ii) here, n = number of half lives
N0 2 2

0.693
Also, T
T

Mean Life ( )
The mean life of an atom in a radioactive substance is called average life of radioactive substance.

N0 N0
t dN N0 t e dt
the sum of lives of all active atoms 0 0 1
Mean life or
total number of active atoms N0 N0

Thus mean life is equal to reciprocal of decay constant ( 1/ )

0.693 T
Half life T 0.693 and mean life 1.44T
0.693
Clearly > T i.e. Average life is greater than half life.
Mean life is the time in which number of active atoms reduces to 37% of its initial value
or number of decayed atoms is 63%

N
N = N0e– t so log N t
log N
0
N0 slope = –
N
Mean life is equal to magnitude of reciprocal of slope of log v / st curve.
N0
0 Time
Activity of Radioactive Substance Fig. 8.11
The number of decays per unit time or decay rate is called activity.
dN
Activity A = = N0 e– t = A0e– t = N
dt
where N0 = A0 is initial activity
A = A0e– t is the activity law which shows activity decreases exponentially with time.
The activity of one gram of radioactive substance called specific activity.
A0
Units of activity
Acitivity

Curie : The specific activity of 1 gm of Radium 226 is called one curie.

1 curie = 3.7 × 1010 disintegrations per second
Rutherford : 1 rutherford = 106 disintegrations per second
Becquerel : 1 becquerel = 1 disintegration per second Time

Fig. 8.12
Modern Physics 343

RADIOACTIVE SERIES AND CARBON DATING

Radioactive Series
The heavy nuclides change their mass number by a decay and atomic number by a and b decay.
They can decay to stable end products by four paths. The four paths have mass numbers given as 4n, 4n + 1, 4n + 2, 4n + 3
where n is an integer.
Last element of radioactive series is stable and has a decay constant zero.

Series Mass number Starting isotope Stable end product Natural/Artificial

Thorium 4n 232 208
90Th 82Pb Natural
Neptunium 4n+1 237 209
93Np 83Bi Artificial
Uranium 4n+2 238 206
92U 82Pb Natural
Actinium 4n+3 235 207
92U 82Pb Natural

Carbon Dating
Carbon dating is the process of determination of time interval which has passed by making use of radioactive decay of a sample
containing radioactive substance. It helps in calculating age of geological specimens like rocks, biological specimens like bones
of animals or trunk of trees and age of earth. The isotope of carbon 6C14 is radioactive.
It is formed in atmosphere by bombardment of nitrogen atoms with cosmic rays
14 1 14 1
7N + 0n 6C + 1H
The 6C combines with oxygen to form carbondioxide which is absorbed by plants so concentration of 6C14 is constant with
14

time. The living plants and animals have a fixed ratio of 6C14 to ordinary carbon 6C12. When a plant or animal dies the content of
14 12
6C decreases while that of 6C remains constant. The ratio of two indicates the time that has passed since death of plant or
animal. The time interval is calculated from the laws of radioactive disintegration.
1 N 0 2.303 N N0 A0
t log e log10 0
N N N A
where No is number of 6C14 nuclei at the time of death, is decay constant of 6C14 and N is number of 6C14 nuclei currently present
in sample.
ILLUSTRATION 8.9
How long will it take for a radioactive sample to decrease to 10%, if its half life is 22 years?
SOLUTION :
t /T t /22
N 1 1 10
Using we get
N0 2 2 100
t
or 10 = 2t/22 or log1010 = log10 2
22
22 log10 10 22 1
t= = 73 years.
log10 2 0.3010

ILLUSTRATION 8.10
The charcoal sample showed a C14 activity of 11.3 counts/g min . The absolute activity of C14 is 15.3 counts/g min. Estimate the
age of charcoal sample. Half life of C14 is 5568 years.
SOLUTION :
Here, A0 = 15.3 counts/g - min, A = 11.3 counts/g-min and half life T = 5568 years
0.693 0.693 per year
T 5568

Age of sample, t 2.303 log A 0 2.303 5568 log 15.3 2.303 5568 0.1316 2434 years
10 10
A 0.693 11.3 0.693
 EBD_7005
344 PHYSICS
ILLUSTRATION 8,11
–
A radioactive nucleus decays as X X1 X2 X3 X4
If mass number and atomic number of X are 180 and 72 then find these values of X4.
SOLUTION :
–
180
72 X 70 X1176 71 X 2
176
69 X 3172 69 X 4172

Hence, mass number and atomic number of x4 are 172 and 69 respectively.

ILLUSTRATION 8.12
A count- rate meter is used to measure the activity of a given sample. At one instant the meter shows 4750 counts per minute.
Five minutes later it shows 2700 counts per minute. Find decay constant and the half life of the sample.
SOLUTION :
Initial activity, A0 = dN/dt at t = 0
Final activity, At = dN/dt at t = t
dN dN 4750 N0
N0 and Nt
dt t 0 dt t 5 2700 Nt
N0 4750
Using, t 2.303log (5) 2.303log
Nt 2700
2.303 4750 1 0.693
Decay constant log 0.1129 min and half life t1/ 2 6.14 min.
5 2700 0.1129
Modern Physics 345

1. Find the ratio of the area of orbit of first excited state of electron to the area of orbit of ground level for hydrogen atom.
Sol. As we know, area A r2 n4 ( radius r n2)
4
A2 2 16
Ratio of area of orbits, 16 :1
A1 1 1
2. The activity of a radioactive substance drops to 1/32 of its initial value in 7.5 h. Find the half life of the radioactive subustance.
t /T 7.5/T
A 1 1 1
Sol. Using or
A0 2 32 2
5 7.5/T
1 1 7.5
or or 5 T = 1.5 hours
2 2 T
3. The half life of a radioactive substance is 34.65 minute. If 1022 atoms are active at any time then find the activity of substance?
Sol. Here, half life T = 34.65 minute = 34.65 × 60s N = 1022
dN
Activity A = N
dt
0.693 0.693
A N 10 22 = 3.34 × 1018 disintegration /sec.
T 34.65 60
4. The mean life of a radioactive material for and decay are 1620 years and 520 years. What is the half life of sample.
Sol. Here, T = 1620 years; T = 520 years; half life T = ?
1 1 1 1620 520
There are two channels of decay so or = = 394 years
1620 520
The half life T = 0.693 = 0.693 × 394 = 273 years
5. The binding energy of 10Ne20 is 160.64 MeV. Find the atomic mass. mP = 1.007825 amu and mn = 1.008665 amu
Sol. Binding energy BE = mc2 = c2 [ZmP + (A – Z) mn – M]
M = Zmp + (A – Z) mn – BE(amu)
160.64
M = 10 × 1.007825 + 10 × 1.008665 19.992 amu.
931.25
6. How many and particles are emitted when 90Th232 converts to 82Pb208.
Sol. Change in mass number A = 232–208 = 24
Mass number (A) changes only in decay so number of particles = 24/4 = 6
This decreases atomic number, Z by 6 × 2 = 12 giving final Z = 90 – 12 = 78
But final Z given is 82.
Beta ¯ emission increases Z by 1
so, no. of ¯ particle = 82 – 78 = 4
7. Ultraviolet light of wavelength 2271Å from a 100 W mercury source irradiates a photo-cell made of molybdenum metal. If
the stopping potential is – 1.3 V, estimate the work function of the metal. How would the photo-cell respond to a high intensity
(~105 W m–2) red light of wavelength 6328Å produced by a He-Ne laser?
Sol. Let us find energy of each photon of given ultraviolet light
hc 6.63 10–34 3 108
E 5.47 eV ( = 2271 Å given)
2271 10 –10 1.6 10 –19
Maximum kinetic energy of emitted electron can be judged by stopping potential of 1.3 volt.
1 2
mvmax 1.3 eV
2
1 2
Using Einstein’s equation h W0 mvmax
2
5.47 eV = W0 + 1.3 eV W0 = 4.17 eV
Red light of wavelength 6328Å will have energy of each photon
 EBD_7005
346 PHYSICS

hc 6.63 10 –34 3 108

E 1.96 eV ( l = 227Aº given)
6328 10–10 1.6 10 –19
Thus energy of red light photons is less than work function 4.17 eV, hence irrespective of any intensity no emission will take
place.
8. The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of the hydrogen atom is about – 3.4 eV.
(a) What is the kinetic energy of the electron in this state?
(b) What is the potential energy of the electron in this state?
(c) Which of the answer above would change if the choice of the zero of potential energy is changed?
1 e( Ze)
Sol. Kinetic energy of an electron in an orbit, K ...(i)
4 0 2r

1 Ze 2
Potential energy of an electron in an orbit U – ...(ii)
4 0 r

1 Ze 2 U
Total energy E K U – –K
4 0 2r 2
It is given, total energy E = (–3.4 eV)
(a) Kinetic energy of electron in this state E = – K
So, K = E = – (– 3.4 eV) = 3.4 eV
(b) Potential energy E = U/2
U = 2E = 2 (– 3.4) = – 6.8 eV
(c) If the zero of the potential energy is chosen differently, the kinetic energy remain the same. Althugh potential energy and
hence total energy changes.
9. A radioactive isotope has a half-life of T years. How long will it take the activity to reduce to (a) 3.125%, (b) 1% of its original
value?
Sol. Activity R = R0e– t
0.693
Also instantaneous activity, R = – N R – N
T
0.693
Initital activity, R0 = – N0 So, R0 – N0
T
n 5
R N 3.125 1 N 1 1
(a) or or n = 5 t = nT = 5T years.
R0 N0 100 32 N0 2 2

R N 1
(b) R0 N0 100
Required time, as cannot be solved by direct calculation as in part (a).
2.303 N0 2.303T 2.303 2 T
t log log100 6.65T years.
N 0.693 0.693
10. The half-life of 90
38 Sr is 28 years. What is the distintegration rate of 15 mg of this isotope?
Sol. Given: T1/2 = 28 years = 28 × 3.154 × 107s
Mass m = 15 mg = 0.015g
80
Number of atoms in 0.015g sample of 38 Sr,

m 0.015 6.023 1023 atoms

N × Avogadro’s number
M 90

0.693 0.693 0.015 6.023 1023

Activity of the sample, R /N N
T1/ 2 28 3.154 107 90

7.877 1010
= 7.877 × 1010 disintegration/sec = 7.877 × 1010 Bq Ci = 2.13 Ci.
3.7 1010
Modern Physics 347

11. The neutron was discovered by

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-28) : This section contains multiple choice
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out (a) Marie Curie (b) Pierre Curie
of which ONLY ONE is correct. (c) James Chadwick (d) Rutherford
12. The order of magnitude of the density of nuclear matter is
1. The volume occupied by an atom is greater then the volume (a) 104 kg/m3 (b) 1017 kg/m3
of the nucleus by a factor of about (c) 1027 kg/m3 (d) 1034 kg/m3
(a) 101 (b) 105
13. Force between protons in nucleus will be
(c) 1010 (d) 1015
(a) only nuclear (b) only coulomb
2. Which of the following is true for isotopes of specimen of
U235 and U238? (c) nuclear & coulomb (d) coulomb & gravitational
(a) both contain same number of neutrons 14. The mass equivalent of 931 MeV energy is
(b) both contain same of number of proton, electron and (a) 1.66 × 10–27 kg (b) 6.02 × 10–24 kg
–20
(c) 1.66 × 10 kg (d) 6.02 × 10–27 kg
neutron
(c) both contain same number of proton and electron but 15. When four hydrogen nuclei fuse together to form helium
U238 contains three more neutrons than U235 nucleus, then in this process
(d) U238 contain three less neutrons than U235 (a) Energy is absorbed.
3. Atomic nucleus contains (b) Energy is liberated.
(a) electron & photon (c) Absorption and liberation of energy depends upon
(b) electron, proton & neutron the temperature.
(c) electron & neutron (d) Energy is neither liberated nor absorbed.
(d) proton & neutron 16. Two lighter nuclei are fused together to form a nucleus of
4. The atomic number & mass number of element is Z & m medium atomic mass and energy is released in this process
then number of neutron will be
because
(a) m × z (b) m + z
(a) Binding energy of lighter nuclei is more.
(c) m / z (d) m – z
5. Nuclei containing different number of protons but same (b) Binding energy per nucleon of lighter nuclei is more.
number of neutrons are called (c) Binding energy per nucleon of medium nucleus is more.
(a) Iso clinics (b) isobars (d) Energy is always released when two nuclei are fused.
(c) isotones (d) isotopes 17. In atomic explosion, a temperature of about 10 million
6. 1 amu is equivalent to degrees is developed at the moment of explosion. The
(a) 9.31 MeV (b) 931 KeV wavelength of light coming from the hot region of the atomic
(c) 93.1 MeV (d) 931 MeV explosion lie in the region
7. The dependence of density [d] of nuclear matter on the (a) ultraviolet region (b) visible region
mass number A is (c) infrared region (d) x-ray region
(a) d A (b) d A 18. When light is incident on surface, photo electrons are
(c) d = const. (d) d 1/A emitted. For photoelectrons
8. The wrong statement is (a) The value of kinetic energy is same
(a) Nuclear forces are strongest (b) Kinetic energy does not depend on the wave length of
(b) Nuclear forces are very short range forces incident light
(c) Nuclear force increase when the number of nucleons (c) The value of kinetic energy is equal to or less than a
is increased maximum energy
(d) Nuclear force is produced by the exchange of pions (d) None of the above
9. Range of nuclear force is approximately
19. The phenomenon of photo electric emission depends on
(a) 2 × 10–10 m (b) 1.5 × 10–20 m
–4 (a) Only wave length of incident light
(c) 7.2 × 10 m (d) 1.4 × 10–15 m
(b) Only work function of surface
10. The mass number of a nucleus is equal to the number of
(c) Only nature of surface
(a) Electron it contains (b) Protons it contains
(c) Neutrons it contains (d) Nucleons it contains (d) All of the above
 EBD_7005
348 PHYSICS
20. Photo electric effect is the phenomenon in which
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 29-46) : This section contains multiple choice
(a) Photons come out of a metal when it is hit by a beam of
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out
electrons
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
(b) Photons come out of the nucleus of an atom under the
action of an electric filed 29. 9.1 × 10–34 kg
(c) Electrons come out of metal with a constant velocity (a) 0.51 MeV (b) 9.1 × 10–28 gm
depending on frequency and intensity of incident light (c) 0.0005477 amu (d) none of these
30. According to Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom, for the
(d) Electrons come out of a metal with different velocity
electron in the nth allowed orbit, the
not greater than a certain value which depends only
(a) linear momentum is proportional to (1/n)
on the frequency of the incident light wave and not on (b) radius is proportional to n
its intensity. (c) the kinetic energy is proportional to (1/n2)
21. The electrons are emitted in the photo electric effect from a (d) the angular momentum is proportional to n
metal surface 31. An electron orbiting in a circular orbit around the nucleus
(a) Only if the frequency of radiation is above a certain of an atom
threshold value (a) has a magnetic dipole moment
(b) Only if the temperature of the surface is high (b) exerts an electric force on the nucleus equal to that on
(c) At a rate that is independent of the nature of metal it by the nucleus
(d) With a maximum velocity which is proportional to the (c) does produces a magnetic induction at the nucleus
frequency of incident radiation (d) has a net energy inversely proportional to its distance
from the nucleus
22. Work function is
32. A particular hydrogen like atom has its ground state binding
(a) Energy necessary to eject the electron from its orbit energy 122.4 eV. Then
(b) Energy necessary to eject the electron from metal (a) its atomic number is 3
(c) Minimum necessary energy to eject the electron from (b) an electron with 90 eV energy can interact with it and
metal excite it
(d) Wavelength necessary for releasing an electron from (c) an 80 eV electron emerges when an 80 eV electron
a body interacts with it
23. Einstein got noble prize for (d) an electron of 8.2 eV and a photon of 91.8 eV are emitted
(a) Photo electric effect (b) Compton effect when a 100 eV electron interacts with this atom
(c) Theory of relativity (d) None of the above 33. In which of the following situations the heavier of the two
24. A radioactive substance has a half life of four months. Three particles has smaller de Broglie wavelength? The two
particles
fourth of the substance will decay in
(a) move with the same speed
(a) Three months (b) Four months
(b) move with the same linear momentum
(c) Eight months (d) Twelve months (c) move with the same kinetic energy
25. When hydrogen atom is in its first excited level, it’s radius is (d) have fallen through the same height
(a) Four times, it ground state radius 34. In the hydrogen atom in the ground state
(b) Twice times, it ground state radius (a) the kinetic energy of the electron is less than the
(c) Same times, it ground state radius potential energy which is positive
(d) Half times, it ground state radius. (b) the potential energy is less than the kinetic energy
26. If N0 is the original mass of the substance of half-life period which is positive
t1/2 = 5 years, then the amount of substance left after 15 (c) the potential energy is negative and the kinetic energy
years is numerically less than the numerical value of potential
(a) N0/8 (b) N0/16 energy
(d) the total energy is negative
(c) N0/2 (d) N0/4
35. Mark the correct options
27. If mass-energy equivalence is taken into account, when (a) An atom with a vacancy has a smaller than the neutral
water is cooled to form ice, the mass of water should atom
(a) increase (b) K X-ray is emitted when a hole makes a jump from the
(b) remain unchanged K-shell to some other shell
(c) decrease (c) The wavelength of K X-ray is smaller than the
(d) first increase then decrease wavelength of L X-ray of the same material
28. Which of the following cannot be emitted by radioactive (d) The wavelength of K X-ray is smaller than the wave
substances during their decay? length of K X-ray of the same material
(a) Protons (b) Neutrinoes 36. Who was/were won the novel prize of physics in 1903?
(c) Helium nuclei (d) Electrons (a) Pierre Curie (b) Becquerel
(c) Rutherford (d) Madame Curie
Modern Physics 349

37. When the nucleus of an electrically neutral atom undergoes (c) quite an appreciable quantity of U235 will remain, even
a radioactive decay process, it will remain neutral after the after average life
decay if the process is (d) the energy of emitted -particle is less than the
(a) an -decay (b) a -decay disintegration energy of the U235 nucleus
(c) a -decay (d) a K-capture process 45. During the radioactive decay
38. When a nucleus with atomic number Z and mass number A (a) atomic mass number cannot increase
undergoes a radioactive decay process
(b) atomic number may increase
(a) both Z and A will decrease if the process is -decay
(c) atomic number may decrease
(b) Z will decrease but A will not change if the process is
+ - decay (d) atomic number may remain unchanged
(c) Z will increase but A will not change, if the process is 46. An electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition n1 n2
–- decay where n1 and n2 are principle quantum numbers of the two
(d) Z and A will remain unchanged if the process is state. Assume the Bohr model to be valid. The time period
- decay of the election in the initial state is eight times that in the
39. During a –- decay which of the following statements are final state. The possible values of n1 and n2 are
correct? (a) n1 = 4, n2 = 2 (b) n1 = 8, n2 = 2
(a) The daughter nucleus has one proton less than the (c) n1 = 8, n2 = 1 (d) n1 = 6, n2 = 3
parent nucleus
(b) The daughter nucleus has one proton more than the
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 47-52) : Study the given paragraph(s) and
parent nucleus
(c) An electron which is already present within the nucleus answer the following questions.
is rejected
(d) A neutron in the nucleus decays emitting an electron Passage - 1
40. The decay constant of a radioactive substance is 173 A physicist wishes to eject electrons by shining light on a metal
(years)–1. Therefore surface. The light source emits light of wavelength of 450 nm.
(a) nearly 63% of the radioactive substance will decay in The table lists the only available metals and their work functions.
0.173 years Metal W0 (eV)
(b) half-life of the radioactive substance is (1/0.173) year Barium 2.5
(c) one-fourth of the radioactive substance will be left Lithium 2.3
after 8 years Tantalum 4.2
(d) all the above statements are true Tungsten 4.5
41. Which of the following reactions are not possible? 47. Which metal(s) can be used to produce electrons by the
(a) p n + positron + energy photoelectric effect from given source of light ?
(b) n p + electron + energy (a) Barium only
27 2 25 4
(c) 13 A1 + 1 H1 12 Mg + 2 He (b) Barium or lithium
235 1 140
+ 38 Sr95 2 0 n1 (c) Lithium, tantalum or tungsten
(d) 92 U + 0 n 54 Xe
(d) Tungsten or tantalum
42. The probability of disintegration per second of a nucleus in 48. Which option correctly identifies the metal that will
a given radioactive sample produce the most energetic electrons and their energies ?
(a) increases proportional to the life time lived by the
(a) Lithium, 0.45 eV (b) Tungston, 1.75 eV
nucleus
(c) Lithium, 2.30 eV (d) Tungston, 2.75 eV
(b) decreases with the life time lived
49. Suppose photoelectric experiment is done separately with
(c) is independent of the life time lived
(d) depends on the total number of identical nuclei present these metals with light of wavelength 450 nm. The maximum
in the sample magnitude of stopping potential amongst all the metals
43. The heavier nuclei tend to have larger N/Z ratio because is-
(a) a neutron is heavier than a proton (a) 2.75 volt (b) 4.5 volt
(b) a neutron is an unstable particle (c) 0.45 volt (d) 0.25 volt
(c) a neutron does not exert electric repulsion Passage - II
(d) Coulomb force has longer range as compared to the Gold nucleus (79Au198) can decay into mercury nucleus (80Hg198)
nuclear force by two decay schemes shown in figure. (i) it can emit a particle
44. U235 is an alpha active nucleus. Then in a large quantity ( 1) and come to ground state by either emitting one ray ( 1) or
92
of the element emitting two rays ( 3 & 4) (ii) it can emit one particle ( 2) and
(a) the probability of a nucleus disintegrating during one come to ground state by emitting 2 ray.
second is lower in the first half-life and greater in the Atomic masses : 198
Au 197.9682 amu ,
fifth half-life
198
(b) the probability of a nucleus disintegrating during one Hg 197.9662 amu , 1 amu = 930 MeV/c². The energy levels
second remains constant for all the time of the nucleus are shown in figure.
 EBD_7005
350 PHYSICS
198 58. Assertion : In street light circuits, photo-cells are used to
79 Au
switch on and off the lights automatically at dusk and dawn.
Reason : A photocell can convert a change in intensity of
illumination into a change in photocurrent that can be used
E3 = – 1 MeV
to control lighting system.
Second excited state
DIRECTIONS (Q. 59) : Following question has four statements
(A, B, C and D) given in Column I and 5 statements (p, q, r, s
E2 = –1.6 MeV
and t) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have
First excited state correct matching with one or more statement(s) given in Column
II. Match the entries in column I with entries in column II.
E 1 = – 2 MeV
Ground state 59. Match the following
198
80 Hg Column – I Column – II
50. What is the maximum kinetic energy of emitted 2 particles– A. Isobars (p) Saturation
(a) 1.44 MeV (b) 0.59 MeV
B. Isotones (q) Same mass number
(c) 1.86 MeV (d) 1.46 MeV
51. What is the maximum kinetic energy of emitted 1 particle C. Isotopes (r) Different chemical
is – properties
(a) 1.28 MeV (b) 0.77 MeV D. Nuclear force (s) Same atomic number
(c) 1.86 MeV (d) 0.86 MeV (t) Non-central
52. The wavelength of emitted rays are in the other – A B C D
(a) (b) (a) r r, s, t s p, q, r
2 3 1 3 2 1
(b) s p q r, t
(c) 1 2 3
(d) 3 2 1 (c) p, q s r, s, t q
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 53-58) : Each of these questions contains an (d) q, s q, r s s, t
Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer DIRECTIONS (Qs. 60-65) : Following are integer based/Numeric
the question on the basis of following options. You have to select based questions. Each question, when worked out will result in
the one that best describes the two statements. one integer or numeric value.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the 60. The mean lives of a radio-active substances are 1620 years
correct explanation of Assertion. and 405 years for -emission and -emission respectively.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not Find out the time during which three-fourth of a sample will
the correct explanation of Assertion. decay if it is decaying both by -emission and -emission
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. simultaneously.
(d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct. 61. Find the binding energy per nucleon for a lithium nucleus
7 7
53. Assertion : Nuclear forces are independent of charges. 3Li . Take mass of 3Li = 7u, mass of proton 1.007825 u and
Reason : Nuclear force is not a central force. mass of neutron = 1.008665 u. Take 1 u = 931.5 MeV.
54. Assertion : The strength of photoelectric current depends 62. Using E = mc2, find out the energy released, when 1 u of
upon the intensity of incident radiation. mass disappears.
Reason : A photon of energy E (= h ) possesses a mass Take 1 u = 1.66 × 10–27 kg.
equal to E/c² and momentum equal to E/c. 63. x- alpha and y-beta particles are emitted when uranium
55. Assertion : Binding energy (or mass defect) of hydrogen (92U238) decays to lead 82Pb206. The value of x and y are ?
nucleus is zero. 64. A radioactive nucleus undergoes a series of decay according
Reason : Hydrogen nucleus contain only one nucleon. to the scheme
56. Assertion : The rest mass energy of a nucleus is smaller A A1
-

A2 A3 A4 .
than the rest mass energy of its constituent nucleons in
If the mass number and atomic number of A are 180 and 72
free state.
respectively, what are these numbers for A4?
Reason : Nucleons are bound together in a nucleus.
65. Some amount of a radioactive substance (half life = 10 days)
57. Assertion : In a decay process of a nucleus, the mass of
is spread inside a room and consequently the level of
products is less than that of the parent.
radiation becomes 50 times permissible level for normal
Reason : The rest mass energy of the products must be less
occupancy of the room. After how many days the room will
than that of the parent.
be safe for occupation?

.
Modern Physics 351

SO L U T I O N S
Brief Explanations
of
Selected Questions

hv 0
Vs = = 0.45 volt.
e
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c)
6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (d) 50. (d) Total energy released from Au198 Hg198 in ground
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (b)
state = ( mloss ) c 2 = (197.9682 – 197.9662) (930) = 1.86
16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (c)
MeV
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (a)
Energy released from 198Hg in first excited state Hg
3 1 in ground state = (–1.6) – (–2) MeV = 0.4 MeV
24. (c) Substance left undecayed - N 0 N0 N0
4 4 Energy released from Ag198 Hg198 second excited
state = 1.86 – 0.4 = 1.46 MeV = max K.E. of 2 particle.
n 51. (d) Similarly maximum kinetic energy of 1 particle
N 1 1
= 1.86 – 1 = 0.86 MeV
N0 4 2
52. (a)
n = 2 i.e. in two half lives 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (a) 57. (a) 58. (a)
t = nT = 2 × 4 = 8 months 59. (a)
25. (a) rn= ro.n2, where r o is radius of G-state & r n is radius of 60. Let at time t, numbers of atoms of the radioctive substance
nth state. (For first excited state n = 2). are N.
26. (a) Amount left = N0/2n = N0/8 (Here n = 15/5 = 3) It may decay either by -emission or by -emission.
27. (a) Because thermal energy decreases, therefore mass dN dN dN
should increase. dt dt dt
net
28. (a)
If, decay constant is , then
29. (b, c) 30. (a, c, d) 31. (a, b, c, d) N= N+ N
32. (a, c, d) 33. (a, c, d) 34. (c, d)
1 1 1 1
35. (b, c) 36. (a, b) 37. (c, d) year
1620 405 324
38. (a, b, c, d) 39. (b, d) 40. (a, c)
As N = N0 e– t
41. (a, d) 42. (c, d) 43. (c, d)
44. (b, c, d) 45. (a, b, c, d) 46. (a, d) N0
Here, N
4
12400
47. (d) DE =
4.500Å 1 1
t n 1.386 t 1.386
= 2.75 eV 4 324
For photoelectric effect, E > W0 (work function). t = 449 years
48. (a) E = W0 + E ; (Ek) = E – W0 61. (i) Mass defect = [3 × mp + 4 × mn] – 7u
For maximum value of (Ek), W0 should be minimum (ii) Binding energy = mass defect × 931.5 MeV
W0 for lithium = 2.3 eV
Binding energy
(Ek) = 2.75 – 2.3 = 0.45 eV (iii) Binding energy per nucleon =
7
49. (c) The maximum magnitude of stopping potential will be
for metal of least work function. 62. E = mc2
required stopping potential is 63. The equation of decay process is
238 206
92U 82 Pb n( 2 He4 ) m( 1 )
 EBD_7005
352 PHYSICS
Here n and m are the numbers of and particles We know that N = N0e– t … (1)
respectively. By conservation of mass 0.693
206 + n (4) = 238 where = t1/ 2
n = 8
Also82 + 2n + m(–1) = 92 0.693
= = 0.0693 day–1
or 82 2 8 m = 92 10
m = 6 From equation (1), we have
64. The process can be expressed as : N0
= N0 e –0.0693t
180 176 176 172 172 50
72 A 70 A1 71A 2 69 A 3 69 A 4

Thus, the mass number of A4 is 172. or t = 56.45 days

65. If N0 is the initial level of radiation and N is the permissible
level, then
N0
N = .
50
 ELECTRONICS
Chapter

9
INTRODUCTION

We watch T.V. in our houses for entertainment, news, sports live etc. We use computers for multi-purposes. We use

calculators, electronic watches, digital thermometers, digital glucometers to measure the amount of glucose in our body

and so on. There are a number of devices which we use in our day to day life which are based on the subject matter of this

chapter. The chapter is all about the branch of physics called electronics. There is no wonder to say that we are living in

the age of electronics. It is prevailing in every walk of our life. The most powerful discovery of this branch of physics is

the mobile technology which has become an inevitable part of our life. This chapter deals with the components of

electronics such as semiconductors, diodes, p-n junction, transistor, the logic gates etc. The semiconductor junctions led

to the discovery of integrated circuits (I.C.) which have revolutionised the electronic industry.
 EBD_7005
354 PHYSICS
ENERGY BANDS IN SOLIDS
In an isolated atom, electrons present in energy level but in solid, atoms are not isolated. There is interaction among each other.
Due to this, energy level split into different energy levels. Quantity of these different energy levels depends on the quantity of
interacting atoms. Splitting of sharp and closely compact energy levels result into energy band. This is discrete in nature.
The order of energy levels in a band is 1023 and their energy difference = 10–23eV
Let us see the energy bands in sodium.
When the sodium atoms are far apart, all 3s electrons have same energy and as we begin to move them together, the energy levels
begin to “split”. The situation for four sodium atoms is shown in figure. As the number of atoms is increased (may be 1020 atoms),
the levels become so numerous and so close that we can no longer distinguish the individual levels as shown in figure. We can
regard the N atoms as forming an almost continuous band of energy. Since, those levels were identified
with 3s atomic levels of sodium, we refer to the 3s band.

3p

N 3s

6N 2p

2N 2s

1N 1s
Fig. 9.1- Energy bands in sodium metal (ground state)

Each band has a total of N individual levels. Each level can hold 2 × (2 + 1) electrons ( is azimuthal quantum number), so the
capacity of each band is 2(2 + 1)N electrons.
Figure shows a complete representation of energy bands in sodium metal. The 1s, 2s and 2p bands are each full, 3s band is half
and 3p band is completely empty. The 1s and 2s bands each contain 2N electrons and 2p band contain 6N electrons. The 3s band
contain N electron, so it is half filled. The band, which can hold 6N electrons is completely empty.
When we add energy to a system i.e., to sodium metal, the electron can move from filled state to empty state. In this case, the
electron can move from partially full states of 3s band to empty states of 3s band by absorbing small amount of energy or move
to 3p band by absorbing larger amount of energy.
In a solid at zero temperature, the electron settle into the available states of lowest energy. The lower energy bands will therefore
be completely filled and the upper most energy band will be either filled or partially filled, depending on the number of electrons
and on the number of available states. The diffence between conductor and insulator arises from a partially filled or a completely
filled upper most energy band.

Valence Band and Conduction Band

According to Pauli exclusion principle, each energy level can have two electrons with opposite spins. So normally only lower
energy bands are filled with electrons. The highest energy band containing electrons is called valence band. This band may be
completely or partially filled with electrons. In inert gases, it is completely filled whereas for other material, it is partially filled. The
next higher band to valence band is called conduction band. All electrons in the conduction band are free electrons. The
conduction band is partially filled for conductors and is empty for insulators.

CLASSIFICATION OF SOLIDS-CONDUCTORS, INSULATORS AND SEMICONDUCTORS

If the valence band and the conduction band overlap, the substance is called conductor. If the forbidden gap between valence
band and conduction band is very large (more than 3 eV), the substance will be insulator. In such material a very high electric
field is required to push the electron from valance band to conduction band. If the forbidden gap between valence band and
conduction band is less than 3 eV, the substance is called semi-conductor. Germanium (Ge) and silicon (Si) are the well known
semiconductors. In germanium forbidden gap Eg = 0.7 eV and in silicon Eg = 1.1 eV. At 0 K, semiconductor behaves like an
insulator.
Electronics 355

Fig. 9.2

Types of Semiconductor
There are two types of semiconductor.
(i) Intrinsic Semiconductor : These semiconductors are pure materials in which the thermal vibrations of the lattice have liberated
charge carriers (i.e., electrons & holes). In intrinsic semiconductor, the number of electrons are equal to the number of holes.
(ii) Extrinsic Semiconductor : They are impure semiconductors in which minutes traces of impurity introduces mobile charge
carriers [which may be + ve (holes) or–ve (electrons)] in addition to those liberated by thermal vibration.
Again there are two types of Extrinsic semiconductors (i) N-type semiconductor (ii) P-type semiconductor.
N- type semiconductor
When a pure semiconductor (Si or Ge) is doped by pentavalent impurity (P, As, Sb, Bi) then four electrons out of the five valence
electrons of impurity take part, in covalent bonding, with four silicon atoms surrounding it and the fifth electron is set free. These
impurity atoms which donate free e– for conduction are called as Donor impurity (ND). Here free e– increases very much so it is
called as n-type semiconductor. Here impurity ions known as “Immobile Donor positive Ion”. Free e– called as majority charge
carriers and holes called as minority charge carriers.
P -type semiconductor
When a pure semiconductor (Si or Ge) is doped by trivalent impurity (B, Al, In, Ga) then outer most three electrons of the valence band
of impurity take part, in covalent bonding with four silicon atoms surrounding it and except one electron from semiconductor and make
hole in semiconductor. These impurity atoms which accept bonded e– from valance band are called as Acceptor impurity (NA). Here
holes increases very much so it is called as p-type semiconductor here impurity ions known as “Immobile Acceptor negative Ion”.
Free e– are called as minority charge carriers and holes are called as majority charge carriers.

Ge Ge Ge
Ge Ge Ge

Ge As Ge
Ge Al Ge
Free electron
Ge Ge Ge Hole

Ge Ge Ge Ge

Ge

(a) N-type semiconductor (b) P-type semiconductor

Fig.9.3
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356 PHYSICS

Property Conductors Semiconductors Insulators

Resistivity range 10–6 – 10–8 m 10–4 – 0.5 m 107 – 1016 m
Conductivity range 10–6 – 10–8 mho/m 104 – 0.5 mho/m 10–7 – 10–16 mho/m
Temp. coefficient Positive Negative Negative
of resistance ( )
Flow of current Due to free electrons Due to electrons and holes No current flow

Conduction band Conduction band

(CB) Conduction band
(CB)
(CB)
Electron energy

Ele ctron e ne rgy

Electron energy
Energy band diagram
No gap Overlapping
Forbidden
region
gap Eg 1eV Forbidden
gap Eg 6eV

Valence band
(VB)
Valence band
(VB) Valence band
(VB)

Forbidden energy gap 0eV 0.1 – 3eV 6eV

Examples Pt, Al, Cu, Ag etc. Ge, Si, C, Ga, As Wood, plastic
GaF2 etc. diamond, mica

P-N JUNCTION OR P-N JUNCTION DIODE

When a P-type semiconductor is suitably joined to an N-type semiconductor, then resulting arrangement is called P-N junction
or P-N junction diode.
P-N Junction

+
P N
–

Hole Electron
P N

Anode Cathode
Diode
Fig.9.4
Depletion region : On account of difference in concentration of charge carriers in the two sections of P-N junction, the electrons
from N-region diffuse through the junction into P- region and the hole from P region diffuse into N-region.
Due to diffusion, neutrality of both N and P-type semiconductor is disturbed. A layer of negative charged ions appear near the
junction in the P-crystal and a layer of positive ions appears near the junction in N-crystal. This layer is called depletion
region or layer.
P-N JUNETION DIODE AS A RECTIFIER
Junction diode (p-n junction) can be used to convert the alternating current (a.c.) into direct current (d.c.). The process of
conversion from a.c. to d.c. is known as rectification and the device is called rectifier. A p-n junction can be used as a half wave
or full wave rectifier.
Electronics 357

Half Wave Rectifier

For half wave rectification we have to use only one P-n junction diode. The arrangement is shown in Figure.

P1 – + Diode
S1 D A
AC mains
220V RL Output

E or I

E or I
50Hz
t t
S2 B Output pulse = 50
P2 + – Input frequency = 50Hz
Transformer No. of input pulse = 100
(a) (b) (c)
Fig.9.5
During the first half (positive) of the input signal, let S1 is at positive and S2 is at negative potential. So, the PN junction diode D
is forward biased. The current flows through the load resistance RL and output voltage is obtained.
During the second half (negative) of the input signal, S1 and S2 would be negative and positive respectively. The PN junction
diode will be reversed biased. In this case, practically no current would flow through the load resistance. So, there will be no
output voltage.
Thus, corresponding to an alternating input signal, we get a unidirectional pulsating output.
Peak voltage (PIV) Vs = Vin
In half wave rectifier PIV = maximum voltage across secondary coil of transformer.

Full Wave Rectifier

When the diode rectifies the whole of the AC wave, it is called full wave rectifier. For full wave rectification we have to use two
diodes. Figure shows the experimental arrangement for using diode as full wave rectifier. The alternating signal is fed to the
primary of a transformer. The output signal appears across the load resistance RL.

Vm Input waveform

P–1
+ D1
S1 Vi t
AC mains 2 3 4
220V 5
50Hz RL
Output D1 D2 D1 D 2 D1 D2
S2 D2
Vo
P2+ –
(a) Centre tap
(b) Output waveform
Transformer
Fig.9.6
During the positive half of the input signal : Let S1 positive and S2 negative.
In this case diode D1 is forward biased and D2 is reverse biased. So only D1 conducts and hence the current flows in the load
resistance RL.
During the negative half of the input signal : Now S1 is negative and S2 is positive.
So D1 is reverse-biased and D2 is forward biased. So only D2 conducts and hence the current flows through the load resistance RL.
It is clear that whether the input signal is positive or negative, the current always flows through the load resistance in the same
direction and full wave rectification is obtained.

JUNCTION TRANSISTOR
Transistors are three terminal (solid state) devices just like triode. It can be assumed to consist of two back to back p-n junctions.
In practice a junction transistor (p-n-p) consists of silicon (or germanium) bar crystal in which a layer of n-type silicon (or Ge) is
sandwiched between two layers of p-type silicon and we get p-n-p transistor. Alternatively, it may consist of a layer of p-type
between two layers of n-type material and we get a n-p-n transister as shown by figure.
B(base) B(base)
n n
p p E C
E (e mitter )

E C
p n p C n p n C
(collector) (collector) p B
n B symbol of n-p-n transistor
symbol of p-n-p transistor E (emitter )
Fig.9.7
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358 PHYSICS
Components of Transistor
Emitter (E) : It supplies charge carriers (electron in n-p-n transistor and holes in p-n-p transistor) and it has high density of
impurity concentration i.e., highly doped. It is always forward biased.
Collector (C) : It is a region on other side of base. It has maximum area out of other sections (emitter and base) of transistor to
dissipate the heat. It collects the charge carriers and it is always reverse biased.
Base (B) : It is middle region which forms the two junctions between emitter and collector. It is very lightly doped.

Po i n t
Why is a transistor so called ?
SOLUTION
The word Transistor can be treated as short form of two words ‘transfer + resistor’. In a transistor, a signal is introduced in the
low resistance circuit and output is taken across the high resistance circuit. Thus, a transistor helps to transfer the current from
low resistance part to the high resistance part.

Biasing of Transistor
In proper biasing of transistor the input (i.e., base emitter junction) is always forward biased and output (i.e., collector base
junction) is always reverse biased as shown in figure. [This scheme of biasing is same for all three transistor configurations;
common base configuration (C.B), common emitter configuration (C.E) and common collector configuration (C.C)]
p-n-p n-p-n
E C E C

IE IE

B B

(a) (b)
Fig.9.8
Transistor Configuration
There are three types of transistor configuration. We can take either terminal as input terminal and other terminal as output.
(i) Common base configuration (C.B.) : Here base terminal is common to both input and output terminals. The emitter terminal
is taken as input.
(ii) Common emitter configuration (C.E.) : Here emitter terminal is common to both input and output terminal. The base terminal
is taken as input and collector is taken as output.
(iii) Common collector configuration (C.C.) : Here the collector terminal is common to both input as well as output terminals.
The base terminal is input and emitter is output terminal.
p-n-p C IC
E C IC E I
E
B V CC B V EE
IE VCC
IB
B IB E C
IB IE VBB IC
VEE Ground Ground
V BB Ground
(a) C.B. Configuration (b) C.E. Configuration (c) C.C. Configuration
Fig.9.9
Working of Transistor
Figure shows a common base configuration of p-n-p transistor. The forward biasing of emitter junction lowers the emitter base
potential barrier height, whereas the reverse biasing of collector junction increases the collector-base potential barrier height.
Hence, holes (majority carriers in p-type) flows through emitter to base and constitutes an emitter current IE. Since, emitter is
heavily doped in comparison to base, so approximately (only 5% holes recombine with electrons in base region and constitute
base current IB) 95% holes reach to collector and constitute collector current IC.
From Kirchhoff’s current law, IE = IC + IB ...(1)
Electronics 359
p-n-p
Equation (1) holds true regardless of circuit configuration or transistor E C IC
type (p-n-p or n-p-n) that is used.
The current gain ( ) of transistor is defined as ratio of collector IE
current IC to base current IB
VCC
Ic B
i.e., IB ...(2) IB
The value of lies between 10 and100.
VEE
Since I E IC and exactly IE = IC ...(3) Fig.9.10
Whereas is defined as the ratio of collector current IC to emitter current IE. The value of is always less than unity.
In terms of

...(4)
1 1

Po i n t
The base region of a transistor is lightly doped. Explain why?
SOLUTION
In a transistor, the majority carriers (holes or electrons) from emitter region move towards the collector region through base. If
base is made thick and highly doped, then majority of carriers from emitter will combine with the carriers in the base and only small
number of carriers will reach the collector. Thus the output or collector current will be considerably small. To get large output or
collector current, base is made thin and lightly doped so that only few electron-hole combination may take place in the base
region.

TRANSISTOR AS AN AMPLIFIER
Amplification is the process of linearly increasing the amplitude of a signal and is one of the major properties of a transistor.
This amplifing action was produced by transfering a current from a low (base emitter loop in forward biased and hence provide
low resistance path and collector base junction is reverse biased and hence gives high resistance path in common emitter
configuration) to a high resistance circuit.

Common-Emitter Amplifier
Figure shows a p–n–p transistor as an amplifier in common emitter mode. The emitter is common to both input and output
circuits. The input (base-emitter) circuit is forward biased by a low voltage battery VBE. The output (collector-emitter) circuit is
reverse bised by means of a high voltage battery VCC.
Since, the base-emitter circuit is forward biased, input C ic
resistance is low. Similarly, collector-emitter circuit is i b B
p–n–p RL
reverse biased, therfore output resistance is high. The
E ic
weak input AC signal is superimposed on VBE and the VCE –
amplified output signal is obtained across the collector- ie VCC
Input AC + Output AC
emitter circuit. signal – + i signal
ic
In the figure we can see that, VBE
b

VCE = VCC – ic RL Fig. 9.11

When the input AC voltage signal is applied across the base-emitter circuit, it fluctuates VBE and hence the emitter current ie.
this in turn changes the collector current ic consequently VCE varies in accordance with the above equation. This variation in
VCE appears as an amplified output.

CURRENT GAIN, VOLTAGE GAIN, POWER GAIN AND TRANSCONDUCTANCE

(i) Current gain : Also called ac current gain ( ac), is defined as the ratio of the collector current to the base current at constant
collector to emitter voltage.
ic
ac or simply i b (VCE = constant )
(ii) Voltage gain : It is defined as the ratio of the change in the output voltage to the change in the input voltage. It is denoted
by AV. Thus,
 EBD_7005
360 PHYSICS

i c R out R out
AV = or AV
i b R in R in
(iii) Power gain : It is defined as the ratio of change in output power to the change in the input power. Since,
P = Vi
Therefore, power gain = current gain × voltage gain
2 R out
or Power gain
R in
(iv) Transconductance: It is the ratio of the change in the collector current to the change in the base to emitter voltage at
constant collector to emitter voltage.
ic
i.e. Transconductance gm = VBE Rin [VCE = constant]
ILLUSTRATION : 1
For a transistor, the current amplification factor is 0.8, the transistor is connected in common emitter configuration. Find the
change in the collector current when the base current changes by 6 mA.
SOLUTION
Given: a = 0.8 ; Ib 6mA; Ic ?
0.8
4; c / b or c b 4 6 24 mA
1 1 0.8
Illustration : 2
The current gain of a transistor in a common emitter configuration is 40. If the emitter current is 8.2 mA, then find base
current.
SOLUTION
c e b e
As we know, 1 or e
1
b b b b

e 8.2 8.2
or b 0.20 mA
1 1 40 41
ILLUSTRATION : 3
In a common emitter transistor amplifier = 60, R0 = 5000 and internal resistance of a trnasistor is 500 . Find the voltage
amplification of amplifier.
SOLUTION
R0 5000
As we know, voltage amplification A v 60 600
Ri 500
Illustration : 4
In a n-p-n transistor 1010 electrons enter the emitter in 10–6 s. 4% of the elctrons are lost in the base. What will be the
current transfer ratio.
SOLUTION
96
No. of electrons reaching the collector, n c 1010 0.96 1010
100
Emitter current, n e e ; Collector current, nc e
e c
t t
c n c 0.96 1010
Current transfer ratio, a = 0.96
e ne 1010

Po i n t
Explain why the emitter is forward biased and the collector is reverse biased in a transistor ?
SOLUTION

In a transistor, the charge carriers move from emitter to collector. The emitter sends the charge carriers and collector collects them.
This can happen only if emitter is forward biased and the collector is reverse biased so that it may attract the carriers.
Electronics 361

Logic Gate
A logic gate is a digital circuit which is based on certain logical relationship between the input and the output voltage of the
circuit.
• The logic gates are built using the semiconductor diodes and transistors.
• Each logic gate is represented by its characteristic symbol.
• The operation of a logic gate is indicated in a table, known as truth table. This table contains all possible combinations of
inputs and the corresponding outputs.
• A logic gate is also represented by a Boolean algebraic expression. Boolean algebra is a method of writing logical equations
showing how an output depends upon the combination of inputs. Boolean algebra was invented by George Boole.
Basic Logic Gates
There are three basic logic gates.
They are (a) OR gate (b) AND gate, and (c) NOT gate.
(a) OR gate : (b) AND gate :
Symbol of OR gate Truth table Symbol of AND gate Truth table
Input Output Input Output
A B Y A B Y
A
Y 0 0 0 A 0 0 0
Y
0 1 1 0 1 0
B 1 0 1 B 1 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1
Fig. 9.12 Fig. 9.13
Boolean algebraic expression : Y A B Boolean algebraic expression : A B Y
(e) NOT gate:
Symbol of NOT gate Truth table
Input Output
A Y
A Y 0 1
1 0
Fig. 9.14
Boolean algebraic expression : Y A
Combination of Logic Gates
(a) NAND gate : It is the combination of AND and NOT gate (b) NOR gate : It is the combination of NOT and OR gate
Symbol of NAND gate Truth table Symbol of NOR gate Truth table
Input Output Input Output
A A B Y A A B Y
Y Y
0 0 1 0 0 1
B 0 1 1 B 0 1 0
1 0 1 1 0 0
1 1 0 1 1 0
Fig.9.15 Fig. 9.16
Boolean algebraic expression : Y A B Boolean algebraic expression : Y A B
(c) Exclusive OR gate (XOR gate) :
Symbol of XOR gate Truth table for XOR gate
A A B Y = AB + AB
0 0 0
B 0 1 1
Fig. 9.17 1 0 1
1 1 0
Boolean algebraic expression: Y AB AB
Note : The NAND gate is the universal building block of all digital circuits. Repeated use of NAND gate or NOR gate gives other
gates. Therefore, any digital system can be achieved entirely from NAND or NOR gate.
 EBD_7005
362 PHYSICS
(i) NOT gate from NAND gate :
Figure Truth table

B B B Y B B
Y
0 0 1
1 1 0
Fig. 9.18
(ii) AND gate from NAND gate :
Figure Truth table

A Y' A B A B Y' Y Y '

Y
0 0 1 0
B
Fig. 9.19 0 1 1 0
1 0 1 0
(iii) OR gate from NAND gate : 1 1 0 1
Figure Truth table
B A
A B A B Y (A B)
Y 0 0 1 1 0
0 1 1 0 1
A B
1 0 0 1 1
Fig. 9.20
1 1 0 0 1

BINARY NUMBERS AND DECIMAL NUMBERS

In a binary system, a number is expressed by only two digits 0 and 1. The base of the binary system is thus 2.
0 and 1 represent the coefficients of powers of 2.
A binary digit (0 or 1) is known as a bit.
A group of 4 bit is called a nibble and a group of 8 bit is called byte.
In a decimal number system, we have ten digits i.e., 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9. The base of decimal system is 10.
Different names for the digital signals
State code 1 0
On Off
Up Down
Close Open
Excited Unexcited
Name of the state
True False
Pulse No pulse
High Low
Yes No
Decimal to Binary Conversion
1. When the decimal number is an integer : Divide the decimal number progressively by 2 until the quotient is zero. The
remainders of the successive divisions, written in the reverse order, give the binary number.
For example: We want to convert (9)10 into binary system.
9
1 first remainder
2
4
0 second remainder ( Read up)
2
1
0 third remainder
0
1 fourth remainder
So, (9)10 = (1001)2
Electronics 363

2. When the decimal number is a fraction : The number is multiplied repeatedly by 2, and the carry in the integer position is
recorded each time. The process is continued until the fractional part is zero or sufficient binary bits have been obtained.
For example: We want to convert (0.85)10 into binary number
0.85 × 2 = 1.7 = 0.7 with a carry 1
0.7 × 2 = 1.4 = 0.4 with a carry 1
0.4 × 2 = .8 = 0.8 with a carry 0 ( Read down)
0.8 × 2 = 1.6 = 0.6 with a carry 1
0.6 × 2 = 1.2 =0.2 with a carry 1
0.2 × 2 = .4 = 0.4 with a carry 0
So, (0.85)10 = (0.110110)2

Binary to Decimal Conversion

1. When the binary number is an integer : Binary can be converted into its decimal equivalent by noting that the successive digits
from the extreme right of a binary number are the coefficients of ascending power of 2, beginning with the zeroth power of 2 at
the extreme right.
For example: (111111100101)2 = 1 × 210 + 1 × 29 + 1 × 28 + 1 × 27 + 1 × 26 + 1 × 25 + 0 × 24 + 0 × 23 + 1 × 22 + 0× 21 +
1× 20 = 2021
2. When the binary number is a fraction : The decimal equivalent of the binary number is found by multiplying each digit in
fraction sucessively by 2–1, 2–2, 2–3...etc.
For example: We want to convert (101.011)2 into its decimal equivalent.
(101.011)2 = 1 × 22 + 0 × 21 + 1 × 20 + 0 × 2–1 + 1 × 2–2 + 1 × 2–3 = (5.375)10
5.375 = 5 × 100 + 3 × 10–1 + 7 × 10–2 + 5 × 10–3

LAWS OF BOOLEAN ALGEBRA AND DE-MORGAN’S THEOREM

Basic OR, AND, and NOT operations are given below:
OR AND NOT
A 0 A A 0 0 A A 1
A 1 1 A1 A A A 0
A A A A A A A A A
Boolean algebra obeys commutative, associative and distributive law as given below :
Commutative laws : Associative laws : Distributive laws :
A+ B = B +A A + (B + C) = (A + B) + C A . (B + C) = A.B + A.C
A . B = B .A A . (B . C) = (A . B) . C
Some other useful identities :
(i) A + AB = A (ii) A . (A + B) = A (iii) A (AB) A B
(iv) A . (A B) A . B (v) A + (B . C) = (A + B). (A + C) (vi) (A B).(A C) A .C B.A B.C
De Morgan’s Theorem :
First theorem : A B A.B
Second theorem : A.B A B
ILLUSTRATION : 5
Construct the truth table for the function X of A and B represented by figure shown here.
A X
B Fig. 9.21
Sol. The output X in terms of the input A and B can be written as, X = A. (A + B)
Let us make the truth table corresponding to this function.

Table
A B A+B X = A. (A + B)
0 0 0 0
0 1 1 0
1 0 1 1
1 1 1 1
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364 PHYSICS

1. The diode used in the circuit shown has a constant voltage drop at 0.5 V at all currents and a maximum power rating of 100
milli-watts. What should be the value of the resistor R, connected in series with diode and obtaining maximum current?
Sol. Given : VP = 0.5 V, maximum power rating P = 100 mW = 100×10–3 W and
source voltage V = 1.5 V. R 0.5V
s

Vp2 (0.5) 2
Now diode resistance R D 2.5
P 100 10 3

VD 0.5 1.5V
Current in diode D 0.2A
RD 2.5

Vs 1.5 150
Total resistance in the circuit R T 7.5
D 0.2 D1

So, resistance R in circuit = R T R D 7.5 2.5 5

D2 50
2. The circuit shown in fig. contains two diodes each with a forward resistance
100
of 50 and with infinite reverse resistance. If the battery voltage
is 6 V, find the current through the 100 resistance. 6V
Sol. In this circuit, diode D1 is forward biased and offers a resistance of 50 . The 50 150
diode D2 is reverse biased and offers infinite resistance to the current i.e. no D1
current flows through D2. Thus the equivalent circuit is as shown in fig.
I I
Total resistance of circuit = 50 + 150 + 100 = 300 100
V 6 I
Current through 100 , R 300
0.02 A . 6V

3. A p-n-p transistor is used in common-emitter mode in an amplifier circuit. A change of 40 A in the base current brings a
change of 2 mA in collector current and 0.04 V in base emitter voltage. Find the (i) input resistance Ri (ii) the base current
amplification factor ( ) (iii) If a load resistance of 6 k is used, then also find the voltage gain of the amplifier.
Sol. Here, b 40 10 6 A ; c 2 10 3 A ;

Vi 0.04
(i) Input resistance, R i 103
6
b 40 10

3
c 2 10
(ii) Base current amplification factor, 50
6
b 40 10

R0 6000
(iii) Voltage gain, Av 50 300
Ri 103
Vi 0.04 V ; R0 = 6000
4. In the binary number system 100 + 1011 is equal to
(a) 1000 (b) 1011 (c) 1110 (d) 1111
Sol. (d) (100)2 + (1011)2 = (0 × 20 + 0 × 21 + 1 × 22) + (1×20 + 1 × 21 + 0 × 22 +1 × 23)
= (0 + 0 + 4) + (1 + 2 + 0 + 8) = (15)10 = (1111)2 or 0100 + 1011 = 1111
Electronics 365

5. Identify the gate represented by the block diagram of fig. Write the Boolean expression and truth table.

A
I y

III
B
II

Sol. Here for the input, the two NOR gates have been used as NOT gates (by joining the input terminals of NOR gate). Their outputs
are jointly fed to the NOR gate. From the NOR gate I, for the input A, the output is A . From the NOR gate II, for the input B, the
output is B . From NOR gate III, the output is given by Y A B A.B
Thus, Boolean expression for this combination of gate is Y = A + B = A.B .
Thus, the combination will work as AND gate. The truth table of the combination of gates is
A B A B Y
0 0 1 1 0
1 0 0 1 0
0 1 1 0 0
1 1 0 0 1
6. The combinations of the ‘NAND’ gates shown here in fig. are equivalent to
(a) an ‘OR’ gate and an ‘AND’ gate respectively A A
(b) an ‘AND’ gate and a ‘NOT’ gate respectively C1
B B
(c) an ‘AND’ gate and an ‘OR’ gate respectively
(d) an ‘OR’ gate and a ‘NOT’ gate respectively
A C2
B
Sol. (a) For first case, C1 A. B ( A B) (by Demorgan's theorem)
The truth table is shown below

A B A B A.B A.B
1 0 0 1 0 1
0 1 1 0 0 1
0 0 1 1 1 0
1 1 0 0 0 1
This is truth table for C1 = A + B i.e., OR gate

For second case, C2 A .B A . B i.e., AND gate.

7. The diagram of a logic circuit is given below. The output F of the circuit is represented by
W
X
F
W
Y
(a) W . (X + Y) (b) W . (X . Y) (c) W + (X . Y) (d) W + (X + Y)
Sol. (c) (W + X) . (W + Y) = W + (X . Y)
 EBD_7005
366 PHYSICS
8. The following configuration of gate is equivalent to

A OR
B
Y
AND
NAND

(a) NAND gate (b) XOR gate (c) OR gate (d) NOR gate
Sol. (b) Y1 A B , Y2 A.B
A Y1

Y ( A B) AB AA AB BA BB B
Y
0 AB BA 0 AB BA
This expression is for XOR Y2
9. Following diagram performs the logic function of

A
Y
B

(a) XOR gate (b) AND gate (c) NAND gate (d) OR gate
Sol. (b) X AB
A
Y X AB Y
B X
Y = AB by Demorgan theorem
This diagram performs the function of AND gate.
Electronics 367

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-48) : This section contains multiple choice (a) diffusion of charges
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out (b) drift of charges
of which ONLY ONE is correct. (c) depends on the nature of material
(d) both drift and diffusion of charges
1. p-n junction is said to be forward biased, when
(a) the positive pole of the battery is joined to the 9. What is the value of A A in the Boolean algebra ?
p-semiconductor and negative pole to the (a) 0 (b) 1
n-semiconductor
(c) A (d) A
(b) the positive pole of the battery is joined to the
n-semiconductor and p-semiconductor 10. Which of the following gates corresponds to the truth table
(c) the positive pole of the battery is connected to given below?
n- semiconductor and p- semiconductor A B Y
(d) a mechanical force is applied in the forward direction 1 1 0
2. At absolute zero, Si acts as 1 0 1
(a) non-metal (b) metal 0 1 1
(c) insulator (d) none of these 0 0 1
3. When n-type semiconductor is heated
(a) NAND (b) OR
(a) number of electrons increases while that of holes
decreases (c) AND (d) XOR
(b) number of holes increases while that of electrons 11. In the diagram, the input is across the terminals A and C and
decreases the output is across B and D. Then the output is
(c) number of electrons and holes remain same B
(d) number of electrons and holes increases equally.
4. The following truth table corresponds to the logic gate
A B X
A C
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
D
1 1 1
(a) NAND (b) OR (a) zero (b) same as the input
(c) AND (d) XOR (c) full wave rectifier (d) half-wave rectifier
5. To use a transistor as an amplifier 12. Which of the following, when added as an impurity, into
(a) the emitter base junction is forward biased and the base the silicon, produces n-type semi-conductor?
collector junction is reverse biased (a) Phosphorous (b) Aluminium
(b) no bias voltage is required (c) Magnesium (d) Both b and c
(c) both junctions are forward biased 13. When an n–p–n transistor is used as an amplifier then
(d) both junctions are reverse biased. (a) the electrons flow from emitter to collector
6. For amplification by a triode, the signal to be amplified is (b) the holes flow from emitter to collector
given to (c) the electrons flow from collector to emitter
(a) the cathode (b) the grid (d) the electrons flow from battery to emitter
(c) the glass-envelope (d) the anode 14. When arsenic is added as an impurity to silicon, the
7. The part of the transistor which is heavily doped to produce resulting material is
large number of majority carriers is (a) n-type semiconductor
(a) emitter (b) p-type semiconductor
(b) base (c) n-type conductor
(c) collector (d) insulator
(d) any of the above depending upon the nature of 15. To obtain a p-type semiconductor, germanium should be
transistor doped with
8. When a p-n junction diode is reverse biased the flow of (a) arsenic (b) antimony
current across the junction is mainly due to (c) indium (d) phosphorus
 EBD_7005
368 PHYSICS
16. The following truth table belongs to which of the following 24. In semiconductors, at room temperature
four gates? (a) the conduction band is completely empty
A B Y (b) the valence band is partially empty and the conduction
1 1 0 band is partially filled
1 0 0 (c) the valence band is completely filled and the
0 1 0 conduction band is partially filled
0 0 1 (d) the valence band is completely filled
(a) NOR (b) XOR 25. The output of OR gate is 1
(c) NAND (d) OR (a) if either input is zero
17. Which of the following gates will have an output of 1? (b) if both inputs are zero
(c) if either or both inputs are 1
1 0 (d) only if both inputs are 1
1 1 26. Application of a forward bias to a p–n junction
(A) (B) (a) widens the depletion zone.
0 (b) increases the potential difference across the depletion
0
zone.
1 0 (c) increases the number of donors on the n side.
(C) (D) (d) increases the electric field in the depletion zone.
27. When the temperature of a semiconductor is increased, its
(a) D (b) A
electrical conductivity
(c) B (d) C
(a) increases
18. A gate has the following truth table.The gate is
(b) decreases
A B Y
(c) remains the same
1 1 1 (d) increases at first and then decreases
1 0 0 28. A piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled
0 1 0 from room temperature to 80 K. The resistance of
0 0 0 (a) each of them increases
(a) AND (b) NOR (b) each of them decreases
(c) OR (d) NAND (c) copper increases and germanium decreases
19. The intrinsic semiconductor becomes an insulator at (d) copper decreases and germanium increases
(a) 0º C (b) 0 K 29. At absolute zero temperature, a crystal of pure germanium.
(c) 300 K (d) –100º C (a) behaves as perfect conductor
20. In a p-n junction (b) behaves as perfect insulator
(a) the potential of the p and n-sides becomes higher (c) contains no electron
alternately (d) none of the above
(b) the p-side is at higher electrical potential than the 30. In an intrinsic semiconductor
n-side (a) only electrons are responsible for flow of current
(c) the n-side is at higher electrical potential than the (b) both holes and electrons carry current
p-side (c) both holes and electrons carry current with electrons
(d) Both the p and n-sides are at the same potential being majority carriers
21. An n-p-n transistor conducts when (d) only holes are responsible for flow of current
(a) both collector and emitter are negative with respect to 31. An increase in temperature increases the conductivity of
the base (a) conductor (b) semiconductor
(b) both collector and emitter are positive with respect to (c) insulator (d) alloy
the base 32. If the conductivity of a semiconductor is only due to break
(c) collector is positive and emitter is negative with respect up of the covalent bonds due to thermal excitation, then the
to the base semiconductor is called
(d) collector is positive and emitter is at same potential as (a) intrinsic (b) extrinsic
(c) donor (d) acceptor
the base
33. In a good conductor the number of electrons in the valence
22. Barrier potential of a p-n junction diode does not depend on
shell, in general, is
(a) doping density (b) diode design
(a) less than 4 (b) more than 4
(c) temperature (d) forward bias
(c) equal to 4 (d) none of these
23. Reverse bias applied to a junction diode 34. The mobility of conduction electrons is greater than that of
(a) increases the minority carrier current holes, since electrons
(b) lowers the potential barrier (a) are lighter (b) are negatively charged
(c) raises the potential barrier (c) require smaller energy for moving through crystal lattice
(d) increases the majority carrier current (d) undergo smaller number of collisions
Electronics 369

35. The majority of current carriers in an n-type semiconductor are 47. One way in which the operation of an n-p-n transistor differs
(a) holes (b) electrons from that of a p-n-p is
(c) negative ions (d) positive ions (a) the emitter junction is reverse biased in n-p-n.
36. A hole in p-type semiconductor is (b) the emitter junction injects minority carriers into base
(a) an excess electron (b) a missing electron region of the p-n-p is
(c) a missing atom (d) a donor level (c) the emitter injects holes into the base of the p-n-p and
37. An n-type semiconductor is electrons into the base region n-p-n
(a) negatively charged (d) the emitter injects holes into the base of n-p-n
(b) positively charged 48. n-p-n transistors are preferred to p-n-p transistors because
(c) neutral (a) they have low cost
(d) negatively or positively charged depending upon the (b) they have low dissipation energy
amount of impurity (c) they are capable of handling large power
38. A hole in a semiconductor (d) electrons have high mobility than holes and hence high
(a) has zero mass mobility of energy
(b) has mass equal to that of proton
(c) has mass equal to that of positron DIRECTIONS (Qs. 49-53) : This section contains multiple choice
(d) is a positively charged vacancy questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out
39. The conductivity of a pure semiconductor can be increased by of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
(a) increasing temperature 49. Holes are charge carriers in
(b) mixing trivalent impurity (a) intrinsic semiconductors
(c) mixing pentavalent impurity (b) ionic solids
(d) all of the above (c) p-type semiconductors
40. In p-type semiconductor the majority and minority charge (d) metals
carriers are respectively 50. Which of the following statements concerning the depletion
(a) protons and electrons zone of an unbiased PN junction is (are) true
(b) electrons and protons (a) the width of the zone is independent of the densities
(c) electrons and holes of the dopants (impurities)
(d) holes and electrons (b) the width of the zone is dependent on the densities of
41. When boron is added as an impurity to silicon , the resulting the dopants
material is (c) the electric field in the zone is produced by the ionized
(a) n-type semiconductor (b) n-type conductor dopant atoms
(c) p-type conductor (e) p-type semiconductor (d) the electric field in the zone is provided by the electrons
42. The depletion layer in the p-n junction is caused by in the conductor band and the holes in the valence
(a) drift of holes band
(b) diffusion of charge carriers 51. A transistor is used in common emitter mode as an amplifier.
(c) migration of impurity ions Then
(d) drift of electrons (a) the base-emitter junction is forward biased
43. The doping of the base of a transistor is (b) the base-emitter junction is reverse biased
(a) equal to that of emitter or collector (c) the input signal is connected in series with the voltage
(b) slightly more than that of emitter or collector applied to the base-emitter junction
(c) less than that of emiiter or collector (d) the input signal is connected in series with the voltage
applied to bias the base collector junction
(d) much more than that of emitter or collector
52. When a potential difference is applied across, the current
44. In the symbol of a transistor , the arrow head points in the
passing through
direction of flow of
(a) an insulator at 0K is zero
(a) holes (b) electrons
(b) a semiconductor at 0K is zero
(c) majority carriers (d) minority carriers (c) a metal at 0K is finite
45. In a transistor (d) a P-N diode at 300K is finite, if it is reverse biased
(a) emitter is more highly doped than collector 53. The following logic circuit represents
(b) collector is more highly doped than emitter
(c) both are equally doped X A O
(d) none of the above Y
46. In a transistor (a) NAND gate with output O X Y
(a) length of emitter is greater than that of collector
(b) length of collector is greater than that of emiter (b) NOR gate with output O X Y
(c) length of base is greater than that of emitter (c) NAND gate with output O XY
(d) length of base is greater than that of collector (d) NOR gate with output O X .Y
 EBD_7005
370 PHYSICS
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 54-55): Study the given passage and answer
correct explanation of Assertion.
the following questions.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not
Passage the correct explanation of Assertion.
In the study of transistor as an amplifier, if = Ic/Ie and = Ic/Ib, (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
where Ic, Ib and Ie are the collector, base and emitter curents, then (d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
54. What is the correct relation between and ?
56. Assertion : NAND or NOR gates are called digital building
1–
(a) (b) blocks.
1– Reason : The repeated use of NAND (or NOR) gates can
1 produce all the basis or complicated gates.
(c) (d)
1 57. Assertion : When two semi conductor of p and n type are
55. For a transistor, in a common emitter arrangement, the alter- brought in contact, they form p-n junction which act like a
nating curent gain is given by, rectifier.
Ic IB Reason : A rectifier is used to convent alternating current
(a) IB V (b) Ic V into direct current.
C C
58. Assertion : NOT gate is also called inverter circuit.
IC IE Reason : NOT gate inverts the input order.
(c) IE (d) IC 59. Assertion: In common base configuration, the current gain
VC VC
of the transistor is less than unity.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 56-59): Each of these questions contains an Reason: The collector terminal is reverse biased for
Assertion followed by reason. Read them carefully and answer amplification.
the question on the basis of following options. You have to select
the one that best describes the two statements.

DIRECTIONS (Q. 60) : Following question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and 4 statements (p, q, r, s) in
Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with one or more statement(s) given in Column II. Match the
entries in column I with entries in column II.
60. Match column I and column II.
Column I Column II
(A) p-n junction is forward biased (p) Low voltage battery used
(B) p-n junction is reverse biased (q) High voltage battery is used
(C) In n-p-n transistor emitter-base junction is forward biasesd. (r) The conduction across the junction is due to
electrons.
(D) In p-n-p transistor collector-base junction is reverse biased. (s) The conduction across the junction is due to
holes.
A B C D
(a) r, p p q, r q, s
(b) s p q r, t
(c) p,r, s q, r p, r p, s
(d) s q,r p, r s

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 61-64) : Following are integer based/

Numeric based questions. Each question, when worked out will
result in one integer or numeric value.

61. Frequency of input voltage of a half-wave rectfier is 50 Hz.

What will be the frequency of the output voltage.
64. Using a suitable combination from a NOR, an OR and a NOT
62. When the base current in a transistor is changed from
gate, draw circuits to obtain the truth table given below.
30 µA to 80 µA, the collector current is changed from 1.0 mA
to 3.5 mA. Find the current gain . A B Y A B Y
63. The output of two NOT gates is made input for NOR gate. 0 0 0 0 0 1
Name the new logic gate obtained and write down its truth 0 1 0 0 1 1
1 0 1 1 0 0
table. 1 1 0 1 1 1
(i) (ii)
Electronics 371

SO L U T I ON S
Brief Explanations
of
Selected Questions

0
1. (a) For forward biasing of p-n junction, the positive terminal 1
1
of external battery is to be connected to p-semiconductor
and negative terminal of battery to the n-semiconductor. Following is NAND Gate
2. (c) Semiconductors are insulators at room temperature.
Y A.B
3. (d) Due to heating, when a free electron is produced then
18. (a) P, Q and R are related as R = P. Q which is relation of
simultaneously a hole is also produced.
AND gate.
4. (b) This truth table is of identity, X = A + B. Hence, OR gate. 19. (a) At 0K, motion of free electrons stop. Hence conductivity
5. (a) To use a transistor as an amplifier the emitter base becomes zero. Therefore, at 0K intrinsic semiconductor
junction is forward biased while the collector base becomes insulator.
junction is reverse biased. 20. (b) For conduction, p-n junction must be forward biased.
6. (b) The amplifying action of a triode is based on the fact For this p-side should be connected to higher potential
that a small change in grid voltage causes a large change and n-side to lower potential.
in plate current. The AC input signal which is to be 21. (c) When the collector is positive and emitter is negative
amplified is superimposed on the grid potential. w.r.t. base, it causes the forward biasing for each junction,
7. (a) The function of emitter is to supply the majority carriers.
which causes conduction of current.
So, it is heavily doped
22. (b) Barrier potential does not depends on diode design while
8. (b) When p-n junction is reverse biased, the flow of current
is due to drifting of minority charge carriers across the barrier potential depends upon temperature, doping
junction. density, and forward biasing.
23. (c) In reverse biasing, the conduction across the p-n
9. (b) When A = 1, then A A 1 0 1 junction does not take place due to majority carriers but
and when A = 0, then A A 0 1 1 takes place due to minority carriers if the voltage of
external battery is large. The size of the depletion region
10. (c) This truth table is of the identity, Y A.B , hence, it is increases thereby increasing the potential barrier.
NAND gate. 24. (c) In semiconductros, the conduction is empty and the
Here, the output is high even if all inputs are low or one valence band is completely filled at 0 K. No electron
input is low. from valence band can cross over to conduction band
11. (c) the given circuit is a circuit of full wave rectifier. at 0K. But at room temperature some electrons in the
12. (a) Phosphorous (P) is pentavalent and silicon is valence band jump over to the conduction band due to
tetravalent. Therefore, when silicon is doped with the small forbidden gap, i.e. 1 eV.
pentavalent impurity, it forms a n-type semiconductor. 25. (c) Output will be one if A or B or both are one Y = A + B
13. (a) In an n-p-n transistor, the charge carriers, are free 26. (c)
electrons in the transistor as well as in external circuit;
these electrons flow from emitter to collector.
14. (a) Arsenic contains 5 electrons in its outermost shell.
When Arsenic is mixed with silicon there is one electron
extra in silicon crystal. Hence, such type of semi
conductor is n-type semiconductor.
15. (c) p-type germanium semiconductor is formed when it is
doped with a trivalent impurity atom.
16. (a) The given truth table is of
(OR gate + NOT gate) NOR gate
17. (d) (a) is a NAND gate so output is 1 1 1 0
(b) is a NOR gate so output is 0 1 1 0
(c) is a NAND gate so output is 0 1 0 1
(d) is a XOR gate so output is 0 0 0
 EBD_7005
372 PHYSICS
Number of donors is more because electrons from
-ve terminal of the cell pushes (enters) the n side and 63. y A B A.B A.B
decreases the number of uncompensated pentavalent Hence, AND gate is formed.
ion due to which potential barrier is reduced. The A
neutralised pentavalent atom are again in position to
y
donate electrons.
B
27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (b) 31. (b)
32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (b)
36. (b) In a p-type semiconductor, a hole is a missing elec Truth Table: A B Y
tron in a covalent bond. 0 0 0
37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (d) 41. (d) 0 1 0
42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (a) 46. (b)
47. (c) 48 (d) 1 0 0
49. (a, c) 50. (b, c) 51. (a, c) 1 1 1
52. (a, b, d) At 0 K, the motion of electrons cease and so electric 64. (i) Circuit diagram for truth table (i)
current becomes zero.
53. (b, d)The given logic current is A Y A B
OR NOT NOR
B
Also X Y = X .Y
54. (b) 55. (a)
56. (b) These gates are called digital building blocks because A B A A B Y A B
using these gates only (either NAND or NOR) we can
compile all other gates also (like OR, AND, NOT, XOR) 0 0 1 1 0
57. (c) Study of junction diode characteristics shows that the 0 1 1 1 0
junction diode offers a low resistance path, when 1 0 0 0 1
forward biased and high resistance path when reverse
biased. This feature of the junction diode enables it to 1 1 0 1 0
be used as a rectifier. (ii) Circuit diagram for truth table (ii)
58. (b) A NOT gate puts the input condition in the opposite
order, means for high input it give low output and for
low input it give high output. For this reason NOT A
gate is known as invertor circuit. Y A B
59. (c) Assertion is true but reason is false. B
The common base configuration of n-p-n transistor is
used for voltage amplification. The current
amplification is very small.
Assertion is true. A B A Y A B
the collector is reverse biased for voltage amplification. 0 0 1 1
The reason given has not mentioned that it is voltage 0 1 1 1
amplification. The reason is therefore, incomplete by 1 0 0 0
itself. It is wrong.
1 1 0 1
60. (c) (A) p,r, s,; (B) q, r; (C) p,r; (D) p,s
61. 50 Hz
ic 3
(3.5 – 1.0) 10
62. We know that = i = 6
50
B (80 – 30) 10