CLUSTER 2
IMAGE PRODUCTION AND EVALUATION
1. This explains the theory of formation of the latent image.
A. Bergunie-Tribendeau Theory
B. Gurney-Mott Theory
C. Patter-Hollis theory
D. Geigger-muler theory
2. The emulsion layer of film is _______ um thick.
A. 3 to 5 . 1 to 5
C
B. 5 to 7 . 5 to 10
D
3. What causes grid cutoff artifacts?
A. Improper patient positioning
B. Improper use if caliper
C. Improper patient instruction
D. Improper technique factor
4. Base relative screen speed is equal to ______.
A. 1,000 . 100
C
B. 500 . 400
D
5. Panchromatic film is defined as _____.
A. Primarily receptive to red
B. Primarily receptive to green
C. Receptive to all colors
D. Receptive to one color
6. What is the time and temperature required for developing the film in an automatic processor?
A. 85 for 20 seconds . 75 for 10 seconds
C
B. 90 for 5 seconds . 65 for 40 seconds
D
7. Cleaning of film viewer box should be _______.
A. Quarterly . Annually
C
B. Semi annually . Weekly
D
8. What chemistry acts as a buffer and source of alkali?
A. Potassium bromide
B. Carbonate
C. Sulphate
D. Hydroxide
9. Which is the part of the cassette for easy opening and closing?
I. Felt padding
II. Locks
III. Hinged
A. III only . I and II
C
B. II and III . II only
D
10. How long should lead apparel be checked for protective integrity?
A. Annually C. Quarterly
B. Semi-annually D. Weekly
11. Which of the following views uses an intra-oral film?
A. Mandibular symphysis
B. Lateral nose
C. Optic foramen
D. Styloid process
12. In radiology, a film critique may be considered as ______.
A. Technical evaluation of a radiograph
B. An overexposed film
C. Excellent contrast and density
D. Proper and adequate radiographic technique
13. What is the common cause of inadequate agitation?
I. Failure of circulation pumps
II. Clogging of filters
III. Air lock in the lines
A. II and III . II only
C
B. I,II and III . III only
D
14. Which of the following acts to bind the different layers of the x-ray film?
A. Adhesive . overcoat
C
B. Emulsion . Base
D
15. Which of the following controls the swelling and softening of the x-ray film?
A. Hardener
B. Solvent
C. Preservative
D. Restrainer
16. The average replenishment rate for fixer is approximately _______ cc/film.
A. 100-110 . 200-220
C
B. 50-60 . 25-30
D
17. Quantum detection efficiency is also referred as the ______.
A. Atomic number
B. X-ray absorption
C. Light emission
D. Light absorption
18. What is the clearing time in a 90-second automatic processor?
A. 5 -10 . 10-15
C
B. 20-25 . 15-20
D
19. What is the traditional development time in manual processing?
A. 5 minutes . 6 minutes
C
B. 2 minutes . 60 minutes
D
20. The degree of the hotness and coldness of the solution is ______.
A. Dryness . Time
C
B. Wetness . Temperature
D
21. It is recommended that the processing solutions be changed every _____ months.
A. 2 C. 3
B. 5 .4
D
22. When sodium sulfite is used as an x-ray processing chemical, it is a/an _____.
A. Acceleration
B. Preservative
C. Reducing agent
D. Restrainer
23. Fresh x-ray film should be stored at approximately ______.
A. 60-70 degrees F at 50-60 relative humidity.
B. 60-70 degrees F at 25 relative humidity.
C. 50 degrees F at 80 relative humidity.
D. 70-80 degrees F at 80-90 relative humidity.
24. What agent is used to minimize fog and maintain chemical balance between fresh and seasoned
chemicals?
A. Stronger C. Less warping
B. Non flammable D. Thicker
25. Which of the following does NOT apply when you compare the base of polyester and the base of
cellulose triacetate ?
A. Stronger
B. Non flammable
C. Less warping
D. Thicker
26. Which of the following is NOT included in the replenishment system?
A. Device to control backflow
B. Heat exchangers
C. Strainer
D. Instrument to measure replenishment
27. The height of the darkroom safelight from loading bench should be ______.
A. 48 inches
B. 130 cm
C. All of the choices
D. At least 4 feet
28. The film that is sensitive to fluorescent light is ______.
A. Orthochromatic
B. Screen type
C. Direct exposure
D. High speed
29. Remnant x-rays are those that _____ patient.
A. Exit
B. Interact with the
C. Do not interact with the
D. Are absorbed by the
30. What kind of fog causes overdevelopment?
A. Oxidation
B. Contamination
C. Chemical
D. Exhaustion
31. Which of the following is the oldest method of silver recovery?
A. Metallic placement
B. Chemical precipitation
C. Electrolytic
D. Resin
32. A double-emulsion films contain the following.
A. Good recorded details
B. Wider latitude
C. Use with one intensifying screen
D. Higher contrast
33. One of the most common causes of wet film emerging from an automatic processor is ____.
A. Dirty wash water
B. Developer temperature too low
C. General lack of hardener in developer or fixer
D. Processor drain clogged
34. Screens are cleaned ______.
A. With souring powder
B. According to hospital rules and regulations
C. According to the manufacturer’s specification
D. With a mild soap such as ivory soap
35. What part of an automatic processor regulates the temperature?
A. Thermometer
B. Thermostat
C. Blower
D. Dryer
36. Which if the following is/are the function/s of the fixer?
I. Undeveloped silver halide crystals
II. To shrink and harden the gelaine
III. To neutralize the developer
A. I, II and III . II and III
C
B. I and II . I and III
D
37. The pH is the qualitative measurement of the acidity and alkalinity of the solution. The
abbreviation pH stands for ______.
A. Purification of helium
B. Phosphors of hydrogen
C. Power of helium
D. Power of hydrogen
38. The average developer immersion time in an automatic 90 second processor is approximately
____.
A. 30 C. 20
B. 25 D. 35
39. The essential ingredients of the fixer are ________.
A. Tanning agent, accelerator, reducer and preservative
B. Acid, harder, hypo and preservative
C. Preservative, reducer, hardener and acid
D. Alkali, preservative, reducer and restrainer
40. Artifacts can be created by means of ____.
A. When the film is being exposed
B. When the film is being processed
C. When the film is being handled and stored
D. All of the choices
41. Which of the following acts as a neutralizer during film development?
A. Silver bromide crsytals
B. Black metallic silver
C. Hydroquinone
D. Acetic acid
42. Which tool is used to identify poor screen contact?
A. Steep wedge . Anatomical phantoms
C
B. Densitometer . Wire mesh
D
43. What is the recommended tme in months that the solution be dischrarge?
A. 1 .3
C
B. 6 .5
D
44. Which of the following is/are causes of dirty intensifying screens?
I. Crinkles
II. Finger mark
III. Crescent mark
A. I and II . I and III
B . I,II and III
C D. II and III
45. What are the causes of poor screen contact?
I. Warping of the cassette
II. Wrinkled screen
III. Cracked cassette frames
A. III only . II and III
C
B. I only . I, II and III
D
46. Film should be stored at _____ degrees C.
A. 10-21 . 5-9
C
B. 21-29 . 0-5
D
47. Which of the following refers to a frame-like film container used as a mounting for intensifying
screens?
A. Cassette C. Film
B. Cardboard D. Grid
48. Which of the following are types of processing artifacts?
I. Roller marks
II. Static marks
III. Chemical fog
A. III only C. II only
B. I and III D. I and II
49. Agitation upon immersion of the film in the developer
A. Will increase the temperature of the developer
B. Produce uniform development
C. Has no effect on development
D. Produce streaks on the films
50. What material is used for cassettes to reduce attenuation up to 50 and permits a corresponding
reduction in patient dose?
A. Bakelite
B. Graphite
C. Lightweight
D. Radiolucent
51. In order to overcome magnification when employing a 6-in OFD air gap for chest radiography, one
should use in FFD of ______ feet.
A. 9 C. 10 or more
B. 7 D. 8
52. Which of the following technique would produce the greatest amount of radiographic density?
A. 300 mA, 2/5 sec
B. 200 mA, 2/10 sec
C. 400 mA, 1/10 sec
D. 500 mA, 1/10
53. The density on a radiograph can be doubled by ______.
A. Going down a step in exposure time
B. Cutting the distance in half
C. Increasing the kV by 15
D. Increasing the mAs by 30
54. Ensuring good screen-film contact also ensures reduced _____.
A. Magnification
B. Blur
C. Patient dose
D. Contrast resolution
55. When a technologist is comparing two radiographs of the chest, one is taken with a 72- in FFD and
the other with a 50-in FFD (and a compensated technique), the radiograph with the 50-in FFD would
exhibit?
A. Increased distortion of the heart
B. Less automatic motion
C. Increase quantum mottle
D. Greater definition
56. The primary reason why distortion usually occur because subject anatomy is ____.
A. Thin . Heavy
C
B. Inclined . Dence
D
57. A technique of 200 mA, ¼ sec has been used to produce a film of satisfactory density. If the
milliamperage was changed to 500, the time needed to obtain the same milliamperage, all other
factors remaining constant, would be _______ second
A. 1/15 C. 1/10
B. 3/20 D. 2/10
58. When a 6-in air gap is used in chest radiography, which of the following statements would be true?
A. Low ratio grid is required
B. The kV should be raised to 120
C. Soft pulmonary infiltrates and small densities are well demonstrated
D. A 72-in FFD is needed for true lung and heart size
59. Radiographic noise increases with an increase in which of the following?
A. Phosphor thickness
B. Exposure time
C. Image receptor distance
D. Grid ratio
60. The most important factor which affect the film sensitometry include
A. Activity of developer
B. All of the choices
C. Temperature of development
D. Time of development
61. Which if the following factors will DIRECTLY influence recorded detail?
I. Object-film distance
II. Focus-film distance
III. Focal-spot size
A. I, II and III . I and III
C
B. II and III . I and II
D
62. The silver halide latent image is produced by _______.
A. X-ray, light, or other forms of radiation
B. Developing agents
C. Sodium sulfite
D. Acetic acid
63. A grid ratio is determined by the relationship of the
A. The width to the space
B. None of the choices
C. Length to the width of the strip
D. The height to the width of the strip
64. Using a grid upside down will cause ____.
A. Severe grid cut off in the periphery of the film
B. Severe grid cut off in the center of the film
C. Uniform increase in density
D. Uniform lack of density
65. The use of a grid will protect the ______.
A. Film from primary radiation
B. Film from scattered radiation
C. Patient from scattered radiation
D. Patient from primary radiation
66. If the milliampere selector were set at 1000mA, what exposure time would be required to produce
80 mAs?
A. 4/5 sec C.1/125 sec
B. 8.0 sec D. 2/25 sec
67. Which of the following techniques would be exhibit the GREATES density?
A. 50 mA, 1 1/2 sec, 60 kV, 10:1 grid
B. 300 mA, 1/3 sec, 80 kV, 12:1 grid
C. 200 mA, 1/4 sec, 70 kV, 8:1 grid
D. 75 mA, 1 sec., 80 kV, 6:1 grid
68. Which of the following is the MOST opaque?
A. Bone . Solid organs
C
B. Cartilage . Muscle
D
69. The PRIMARY function of filters in an x-ray machine is to reduce the _______.
A. Field size of the primary beam
B. Film’s exposure to scattered radiation
C. Patient’s exposure to low-energy x-rays
D. Film’s exposure to secondary radiation
70. The higher the grid ratio, the greater the _______.
A. Focal-film distance required
B. Radius of the grid
C. Speed of the exposure
D. Clean up of the grid
71. X-rays emerge from the patient in the direction of the image receptor is considered to which type
of x-rays?
A. Emitted x-rays C. transmitted x-rays
B. Intercepted x-rays D. back-scattered x-rays
72. Which of the following factors does NOT affect subject contrast
A. kVp . object size
C
B. object shape . mAs
D
73. Which of the following factors statements relating to “artifacts” is FALSE?
A. Gray-white scum occurs from incomplete washing
B. Streaking occurs from failure to agitate once
C. Static occurs from the friction of the material used
D. Reticulation occurs from excessive fixation
74. Radiographic contrast is DIRECTLY influenced by _____.
A. Milliampere-seconds . Milliamperage
C
B. Kilovoltage . Time
D
75. To maintain the same density when changing a non-grid technique to utilize an 8:1 grid, the
technologist must make which of the following changes to milliampere seconds?
A. Quadruple C. Halve
B. Increase by 50 % D. Double
76. The 15 % rule in radiography indicates that _______.
A. To control motion and sharpness, exposure time must be decreased by 15%
B. 15 % of the x-ray examination must be repeated owing the incorrect exposure factors
C. To reduce the exposure (mAs) to one-half at any level of kV, add 15% more kilovoltage
D. Distance must be increased 15% to compensate for double the exposure time
77. Subject contrast is chiefly influenced by the ________.
A. Milliamperage . Kilovoltage
C
B. Type of film . time
D
78. The presence of ascites will result in an increase of _______.
A. Scattered radiation . Primary radiation
C
B. Density . Distortion
D
79. Which technique would yield the shortest scale contrast
A. 100 mAs, 60 kV, 10:1 grid, medium-speed screens
B. 2000 mAs, 62 kv, 12:1 grid , low-speed screens
C. 150 mAs, 58 kV, 16:1 grid , high-speed screens
D. 300 mAs. 56 kV, 6:1 grid, medium-speed screens
80. Beam restricting device.
A. A viewbox . A cone
C
B. A fluoroscopic . A PBL
D
81. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Solution in automatic processing has a longer solution life than of the manual.
B. Automatic and manual processing both have short solution life.
C. Solution in manual processing has a longer solution life than of the automatic.
D. Automatic and manual processing both have long solution life.
82. Which of the following sets of technical factors would produce the shortest scale of contrast?
A. 400 mA, 1/4 sec, 75 kV, 8:1 grid , large focal spot
B. 200 mA, 1/10 sec, 60 kV, 12:1 grid, large focal spot
C. 600 mA, 2/5 sec, 65 kV, 6:1 grid, small focal spot
D. 100 mA, 1/20 sec, 80 kV, 10:1 grid, small focal spot
83. Which of the following has an effect on the production of secondary and scattered radiation?
I. Thickness of the part being x-rayed
II. Density of the tissue being x-rayed
III. Kilovoltage
A. II and III . I and III
C
B. I only I, II and III
D
84. Which of the following radiographic screen system generally controls the resolution?
I. size of the intensifying screen crystal layer
II. size of the silver halide crystal
III. film graininess
A. I and II only . I and III only
C
B. I only . I, II and III
D
85. A technique of 100 mA, ½ sec at 80 kV is converted to 100 mA, 1/8 sec. in order to maintain the
same density, what would be the new kilovoltage?
A. 92 kV C. 106 lV
B. 100 kV D. 96 kV
86. Which of the following can be done to REDUCE absorption blur?
A. Patient refrained from eating
B. Patient compression
C. Patient suspended breathing
D. Patient immobilization
87. On collimating to the area of interest, x-ray exposure must be ______.
A. No change . Increased
C
B. Slight change . Decreased
D
88. Which of the following conditions can produced a fog-like image on a finished radiograph?
I. Improper safelights
II. A low ratio grid with high kV technique
III. Improper collimation
A. I and III . II and III
C
B. I and II . I, II and III
D
89. An adjustment in the kV from 60 to 80 will produce ______.
I. An increased in latitude
II. Less patient absorption
III. Shorter wavelength
A. I and III . I and II
C
B. I, II and III . II and III
D
90. Which of the following is considered as the simplest type of grid?
A. Horizontal grid . Focused grid
C
B. Crossed grid . Linear grid
D
91. A Potter-Bucky diaphragm is known as a ______
A. Grid without a ratio or radius
B. Special type of cone
C. Grid in motion during exposure
D. High ratio grid type
92. How often should the collimation be evaluated?
A. Bi-quarterly . Annually
C
B. Daily . Semi-annually
D
93. Which of the following techniques would produce the LEAST density?
A. 200 mA, 1/8 sec, 75 kVp, 60-in SID
B. 200 mA, 1/6 sec, 88 kVp, 50-in SID
C. 200 mA, 1/2 sec, 78 kVp, 40-in SID
D. 300 mA, 1/4 sec, 72 kVp, 40 in SID
94. FSB can be minimized by ______.
A. Increasing focal spot size
B. Increasing processing time or temperature
C. Reducing SID
D. Reducing OID
95. Definition is impaired by ____
I. Increase OFD
II. Decreased FFD
III. Motion
A. I and II only C. I, II and III
B. I and III only D. II and III only
96. Which of the following changes would have dramatic effect on radiographic contrast?
A. Changing mAs from 100 to 125
B. Changing from a table-top to a 12:1 grid
C. Changing from focal spot from small to large
D. Changing the kilovoltage from 86 kV to 82 kV
97. The PRIMARY function of filters in an x-ray machine is to ______.
A. Reduce the film’s exposure to scattered radiation
B. Restrict the field size of the primary beam
C. Restrict the film’s exposure to secondary radiation
D. Reduce the patient’s exposure to low-energy x-rays
98. A technique of 100 mA, 1/20 sec at 60 kV was used to adequately expose a fractured forearm.
What technique would be best to use after a cast has been applied?
A. 400 mA, 1/20 sec, 60 kV (8 x mAs)
B. 200 mA, 1/10 sec, 66 kV (2 x mAs + 10 % kV)
C. 100 mA, 1/20 sec, 75 kV (+ 15% kV)
D. 100 mA, 1/20 sec, 80 kV ( 2 x mAs + 20% kV)
99. Changing the grid with a higher grid ratio will result in a/an _______.
A. Greater positioning
B. Decrease patient dose
C. Increases patient dose
D. Decreased in spatial effect
100. The original exposure factors are 200 mA, 86 kV, and 1/2 seconds. What would the new
exposure time in second if the kilovoltage is reduced to 80?
A. 1/6
B. 2/5
C. 1/4
D. 3/4
