JAWAHAR NAVODAYA VIDYALAYA, KODAGU

AISSCE 2022-23 CHEMISTRY QUESTIONS FROM VARIOUS SETS

1. The colligative property used for the 8. Low concentration of oxygen in the blood and
determination of molar mass of polymers and tissues of people living at high altitude is due to:
proteins is: (a) high atmospheric pressure
(a) Osmotic pressure (b) low temperature
(b) Depression in freezing point (c) low atmospheric pressure
(c) Relative lowering in vapour pressure (d) both low temperature and high atmospheric
(d) Elevation is boiling point pressure
2. Which one of the following pairs will not form an 9. Solubility of gas in liquid decreases with
ideal solution? increase in
(a) Benzene and Toluene (a) Pressure
(b) Nitric acid and Water (b) Temperature
(c) Hexane and Heptane (c) Volume
(d) Ethyl chloride and Ethyl bromide (d) Number of solute molecules
3. 1 mole of liquid A and 2 moles of liquid B make 10. Isotonic solutions have:
a solution having a total vapour pressure 40 (a) same osmotic pressure
torr. The vapour pressure of pure A and pure B (b) same boiling point
are 45 torr and 30 torr respectively. The above (c) same melting point
solution (d) same vapour pressure
(a) is an ideal solution.
(b) shows positive deviation. 11. Value of Henry’s constant KH:
(c) shows negative deviation. (a) increases with decrease in temperature.
(d) is a maximum boiling azeotrope. (b) decreases with increase in temperature.
(c) increases with increase in temperature.
4. If molality of a dilute solution is doubled, the (d) remains constant.
value of the molal elevation constant (Kb) will be
(a) halved (b) doubled 12. A compound undergoes complete dimerization
(c) tripled (d) unchanged in a given organic solvent. The Van’t Hoff factor
“i” is
5. On dissolving ammonium chloride in water at (a) 2.0 (b) 0.5
room temperature, the solution feels cool to (c) 0.25 (d) 1.0
touch. Under which of the following conditions
does salt dissolve faster? 13. A compound undergoes complete
(a) Powdered salt in cold water tetramerization in a given organic solvent. The
(b) Powdered salt in hot water Van’t Hoff factor “i” is
(c) Salt crystals in cold water (a) 4.0
(d) Salt crystals in hot water (b) 0.25
(c) 0.125
6. An azeotropic mixture of two liquids will have a (d) 2.0
boiling point lower than either of the two liquids
when it 14. Which of the following cell was used in Apollo
(a) shows a negative deviation from Raoult’s law space programme?
(b) forms an ideal solution (a) Mercury cell (b) Daniel cell
(c) shows a positive deviation from Raoult’s law (c) H2–O2 Fuel cell (d) Dry cell
(d) is saturated
15. Which of the following aqueous solution will
7. An azeotropic mixture of two liquids has a have highest boiling point?
boiling point higher than either of the two (a) 1.0 M KCl (b) 1.0 M K2SO4
liquids when it: (c) 2.0 M KCl (d) 2.0 M K2SO4
(a) Shows large negative deviation from Raoult’s
16. A compound CaCl2.6H2O undergoes complete
law
dissociation in water. The Van’t Hoff factor “i”
(b) Shows no deviation from Raoult’s law
is
(c) Shows large positive deviation from Raoult’s
(a) 9 (b) 6
law
(c) 3 (d) 4
(d) Obeys Raoult’s law
17. Out of the following 1.0 M aqueous solutions, Fe2+ (aq) + 2e- → Fe (s), E0 = 0.44 V,
which one will show largest freezing point Find the Ecell for:
depression? Fe (s) + 2Ag+ (aq) →Fe2+ (aq) + 2Ag (s)
(a) NaCl (b) Na2SO4 (a) 1.6 V
(c) C6H12O6 (d) Al2(SO4)3 (b) 1.16 V
(c) 2.04 V
18. Which of the following relations is incorrect?
(d) 1.24 V
28. Consider the following standard electrode
potential values:
Fe3+ (aq) + e–  Fe2+ (aq), E = + 0.77 V
MnO4– (aq) + 8H+ + 5e–  Mn2+ (aq) + 4H2O(l),
19. Which of the following solutions of KCl will
E = + 1.51 V.
have the highest value of molar conductivity?
What is the cell potential for the redox
(a) 0.01 M
reaction?
(b) 1 M
(a) – 2.28 V (b) – 0.74 V
(c) 0.5 M
(c) + 0.74 V (d) + 2.28 V
(d) 0.1 M
29. The cathode reaction during the charging of a
20. The unit of molar conductivity is
lead storage battery leads to the:
(a) S cm–2 mol–1 (b) S cm2 mol–1
(a) formation of PbSO4
(c) S cm mol
–1 2 –1 (d) S cm2 mol
(b) reduction of Pb2+ to Pb4+
21. Corrosion of iron is: (c) formation of PbO2 and Pb
(a) a decomposition process (d) deposition of Pb at the anode
(b) a photochemical process
(c) an electrochemical process 30. A voltaic cell is made by connecting two half
(d) a reduction process cells represented by half equations below:
Sn2+ (aq) + 2e–  Sn(s), E = – 0.14 V
22. The number of faradays passed through a
solution of CuSO4 to produce 1 mol of Cu and Fe3+ (aq) + e–  Fe2+ (aq), E = + 0.77 V
O2 will be: Which statement is correct about this voltaic
(a) 1.0 (b) 4.0 cell?
(c) 8.0 (d) 2.0 (a) Fe2+ is oxidised and the voltage of the cell is
–0.91 V
23. How many Faradays are required to reduce 1 (b) Sn is oxidised and the voltage of the cell is
mol of MnO4- to Mn2+? 0.91 V
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) Fe2+ is oxidised and the voltage of the cell is
(c) 6 (d) 5 0.91 V
24. The correct cell to represent the following (d) Sn is oxidised and the voltage of the cell is
reaction is: Zn + 2Ag+ → Zn2+ + 2Ag 0.63 V
(a) 2Ag/Ag+//Zn/Zn2+
(b) Ag+/Ag//Zn2+/Zn 31. Four half reactions I to IV are shown below:
(c) Ag/Ag+//Zn/Zn2+ I. 2Cl–  Cl2 + 2e–
(d) Zn/Zn2+//Ag+/Ag II. 4OH–  O2 + 2H2O + 2e–
25. Kohlrausch gave the following relation for III. Na+ + e–  Na
strong electrolyte: ꓥ = ꓥ0 - A√𝐶 Which of the IV. 2H+ + 2e–  H2
following equality holds true? Which two of these reactions are most likely to
(a) ꓥ = ꓥ0 as C → √𝐴 occur when concentrated brine is electrolysed?
(b) ꓥ = ꓥ0 as C → 0 (a) I and III (b) I and IV
(c) ꓥ = ꓥ0 as C → ∞ (c) II and III (d) II and IV
(d) ꓥ = ꓥ0 as C → 1 32. The rate of reaction A + B → Products, is given
26. ΔG and E0cellfor a spontaneous cell reaction by the equation r = k[A] [B]. If B is taken in
will be: large excess, the order of reaction would be:
(a) positive, negative (a) 2
(b) negative, negative (b) 0
(c) negative, positive (c) 1
(d) positive, positive (d) Cannot be predicted

27. Ag+ (aq) + e- → Ag (s), E0 = + 0.80 V,

33. A first order reaction takes 30 minutes for 50%
completion. The value of rate constant k would
be:
(a) 2.5 × 10-3 min-1
(b) 2.75 × 10-4 min-1
(c) 1.25 × 10-3 min-1
41. The slope in the plot of ln[R] vs. time for a first
(d) 2.31 × 10-3 min-1
order reaction is:
34. The unit of the rate of reaction is the same as
that of the rate constant for a:
(a) first order reaction
(b) second order reaction
(c) zero order reaction
(d) it cannot be same
42. The half-life for a zero order reaction equals:
35. The half-life of a reaction is doubled when the
(a)
initial concentration is doubled. The order of
the reaction is:
(a) 1
(b)
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 0 (c)

36. For a zero-order reaction of the type A

products, the rate equation may be expressed
(d) , where R is the initial concentration.
as:
(a) k =
[ ] [ ]
43. For a reaction 2A  3B, rate of reaction – is

(b) k =
[ ] [ ] equal to
[ ] [ ]
(c) k =
[ ] [ ]
(d) k = .t

37. The number of molecules that react with each

other in an elementary reaction is a measure of 44. For the reaction A + 2B → C + D, the rate law
the: is given by r = k[A] [B]2, the concentration of A
(a) activation energy of the reaction is kept constant while that of B is doubled. The
(b) order of the reaction rate of the reaction will:
(c) stoichiometry of the reaction (a) double
(d) molecularity of the reaction (b) become half
38. In a reaction, the initial concentration of the (c) not change
reactants increases four-fold and the rate (d) quadruple
becomes sixteen times its initial value. The
order of the reaction is: 45. For the reaction 3A  2B, rate of reaction –
(a) 2.0 is equal to
(b) 3.5
(c) 1.5
(d) 2.5
39. If the initial concentration is reduced to 1/4th
in a zero-order reaction, then the time taken
for half the reaction to complete: [ ]
(a) remains the same 46. The slope in the plot of log vs. time for a
[ ]
(b) reduces to one-fourth first order reaction is:
(c) increases four times
(d) doubles

40. For the reaction 3A  2B, rate of reaction +

is equal to
47. Which of the following is affected by catalyst? (b) 3d5 4s1
(a) ΔH (c) 3d5 4s2
(b) ΔG (d) 3d6 4s2
(c) Ea
54. Which of the following ions has the electronic
(d) ΔS
configuration 3d6?
48. The order of the reaction H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) 2HCl (Atomic number: Mn = 25, Co = 27, Ni = 28)
(g) is: (a) Ni3+ (b) Co3+
(a) 2 (c) Mn2+ (d) Mn3+
(b) 1 55. KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent in alkaline
(c) 0 medium. When alkaline KMnO4 is treated with
(d) 3 KI, iodide ion is oxidised to:
49. The slope in the plot of [R] vs. time for a zero- (a) I2 (b) IO-
order reaction is (c) IO3- (d) IO4-
56. Which of the following Cu2+ halide is not
known?
(a) CuBr2 (b) CuI2
(c) CuCl2 (d) CuF2
57. Which of the following transition metals does
50. The following experimental rate data were not show variable oxidation state?
obtained for a reaction carried out at 25 C: (a) Ti (b) Cr
A(g) + B(g)  C(g) + D(g) (c) Cu (d) Sc
Initial [A(g)] Initial [B(g)] Initial rate 58. Which of the following ions has the maximum
(mol dm–3) (mol dm–3) (Mol dm–3s –1
number of unpaired d-electrons?
3.0 × 10–2 2.0 × 10–2 1.89 × 10–4 (a) Fe3+
3.0 × 10–2 4.0 × 10–2 1.89 × 10–4 (b) V3+
(c) Ti3+
6.0 × 10–2 4.0 × 10–2 7.56 × 10–4
(d) Sc3+
[Atomic number: Fe = 26, V = 23, Ti = 22,
What are the orders with respect to A(g) and
Sc = 21]
B(g)?
Order with respect Order with 59. The interstitial compounds of transition metals
to A(g) respect to B(g) are
(a) Zero Second (a) softer
(b) more ductile
(b) First Zero
(c) harder
(c) Second Zero (d) more metallic than the metal itself.
(d) Second First
60. The ions of metals of Group 12 (Zn, Cd and Hg)
have completely filled d orbitals and so they:
51. Which one among the following metals of 3d (a) behave like semiconductors
series has the lowest melting point? (b) are very high melting solids
(a) Fe (c) do not behave like transition metals
(b) Mn (d) behave like superconductors
(c) Zn
(d) Cu 61. Which property of transition metals enables
them to behave as catalysts?
52. Which of the following transition metals shows (a) High melting point
+ 1 and + 2 oxidation states? (b) High ionisation enthalpy
(a) Mn (c) Alloy formation
(b) Zn (d) Variable oxidation states
(c) Sc
(d) Cu 62. In the two tetrahedral structures of dichromate
ion
53. Among the following outermost configurations (a) 4 Cr – O bonds are equivalent in length.
of transition metals which one shows the (b) 6 Cr – O bonds are equivalent in length.
highest oxidation state? (c) All Cr – O bonds are equivalent in length.
(a) 3d3 4s2 (d) All Cr – O bonds are non-equivalent.
63. The formula of the complex Iron (III) 72. The most common and stable oxidation state of
hexacyanidoferrate (II) is: a Lanthanoid is:
(a) Fe2 [Fe (CN)6]3 (a) + 2
(b) Fe4[Fe (CN)6]3 (b) + 3
(c) Fe [Fe (CN)6] (c) + 4
(d) Fe3 [Fe (CN)6]2 (d) + 6
64. Which of the following complexes is a chelate 73. The compounds [Co (SO4)(NH3)5]Br and [Co
complex? (Br)(NH3)5] SO4 represent:
(a) [Co (NH3 )6 ]3+ (a) optical isomerism
(b) [Co (en)3 ]3+ (b) linkage isomerism
(c) [Co (NH3)4Cl2] + (c) ionisation isomerism
(d) [CoF6]3- (d) coordination isomerism
65. How many ions are produced in the solution 74. [Co (NH3)5NO3]SO4 and [Co (NH3)5SO4]NO3
from the complex [Ni (NH3)6] Cl2? exhibit:
(a) 4 (a) linkage isomerism
(b) 3 (b) ionization isomerism
(c) 2 (c) optical isomerism
(d) 5 (d) coordination isomerism

66. Which of the following species is not expected 75. What type of isomerism is shown by the
to be a ligand? following pair of complex compounds?
(a) CO [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6 ] and [Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6 ]
(b) NH4+ (a) Linkage isomerism
(c) NH3 (b) Hydrate isomerism
(d) H2O (c) Coordination isomerism
(d) Ionization isomerism
67. Which of the following is a polydentate ligand?
(a) NH3 76. The compounds [Cr(H2O)6 ]Cl3,
(b) H2NCH2CH2NH2 [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O and [Cr(H2O)4Cl2 ]Cl. 2H2O
(c) EDTA4- exhibit:
(d) C2O42- (a) Linkage isomerism
(b) Geometrical isomerism
68. Which of the following coordination (c) Ionization isomerism
compounds exhibits linkage isomerism? (d) Hydrate isomerism
(a) [Co (NH3 )3Cl3]
(b) [Co (NH3 )5 (CO3)] Cl 77. Which of the following characteristics of
(c) [Co (NH3 )5NO2] (NO3 )2 transition metals is associated with their
(d) [Co(en)3] Cl3 catalytic activity?
(a) Paramagnetic nature
69. Which of the following is the most stable (b) Colour of hydrated ions
complex species? (c) High enthalpy of atomisation
(a) [Fe (C2O4)3]3 - (d) Variable oxidation states
(b) [Fe (CN)6]3-
(c) [Fe (CO)5] 78. What is the secondary valency of Cobalt in
(d) [Fe (H2O)6]3- [Co(en2) Cl2] +?
(a) 6 (b) 4
70. Optical isomerism is not shown by the
(c) 2 (d) 8
complex:
(a) [Co(en)2Cl2] + (trans form) 79. Which of the following ligands is an
(b) [Co(en)2Cl2] + (cis form) ambidentate ligand?
(c) [Cr(ox)3 ]3- (a) CO
(d) [Cr(en)3 ]3+ (b) NO2
71. Lanthanoid contraction is due to increase in: (c) NH3
(a) atomic number (d) H2O
(b) shielding by 4f electrons 80. The oxidation state of Fe in [Fe (CO)5] is
(c) effective nuclear charge (a) + 2
(d) atomic radius (b) 0
(c) + 3
(d) + 5
 (b) m-Dichlorobenzene
81. The formula of the complex dichloride bis
(c) p-Dichlorobenzene
(ethane –1, 2-diamine) platinum (IV) nitrate is
(d) All have the same melting point
(a) [Pt Cl2 (en)2 (NO3)2]
(b) [Pt Cl2 (en)2] (NO3)2 90. Racemisation occurs in
(c) [Pt Cl2 (en)2 (NO3)]NO3 (a) SN1 reaction
(d) [Pt (en)2 (NO3)2] Cl2 (b) SN2 reaction
(c) Neither SN1 nor SN2 reaction
82. In which of the following does the central atom
(d) SN2 reaction as well as SN1 reaction
exhibit an oxidation state of +3?
(a) K2 [Ni (CN)4] 91. Which of the following belongs to the class of
(b) K4 [Fe (CN)6] Vinyl halides?
(c) [Fe (C2O4)3 ]3-
(d) [Cu (NH3)4 ]2+
83. In which of the following does the central atom
exhibit an oxidation state of +4?
(a) K2 [Ni(CN)4 ] 92. Which of the following molecules has a chiral
(b) [Cu(NH3 )4 ]2+ centre correctly labelled with an asterisk (*)?
(c) [Pt(NH3 )2Cl2 ] (a) CH3C*HBrCH3
(d) [Pt(en)2Cl2 ]2+ (b) CH3C*HClCH2Br
84. The crystal field splitting energy in tetrahedral (c) HOCH2C*H(OH)CH2OH
crystal field (Δt) is equal to: (d) CH3C*Br2CH3
(a) Δ0
93. The conversion of an alkyl halide into an
(b) Δ0 alkene by alcoholic KOH is classified as
(c) Δ0 (a) a substitution reaction
(b) an addition reaction
(d) 2Δ0 (c) a dehydrohalogenation reaction
85. The magnetic moment of [NiCl4 ]2– (d) a dehydration reaction.
(a) 1.82 BM (b) 2.82 BM
94. Which of the following belongs to the class of
(c) 4.42 BM (d) 5.46 BM
alkyl halides?
[Atomic number : Ni = 28]
86. The species that attacks benzene in following

is:
(a) Cl-
(b) AlCl4-
(c) AlCl3 95. Auto oxidation of chloroform in air and
(d) Cl+ sunlight produces a poisonous gas known as
(a) Tear gas
87. Benzene diazonium chloride on hydrolysis
(b) Mustard gas
gives:
(c) Phosgene gas
(a) Phenol
(d) Chlorine gas
(b) Chlorobenzene
(c) Benzene 96. The synthesis of alkyl fluoride is best obtained
(d) Aniline from:
88. Which of the following is not true about (a) Free radicals
enantiomers? (b) Swartz reaction
(a) They have the same density. (c) Sandmeyer reaction
(b) They have the same melting or boiling (d) Finkelstein reaction
point. 97. For the conversion of propene into 1-propanol,
(c) They have the same specific rotation. which of the following reagents and conditions
(d) They have the same chemical reactivity. should be used?
(a) Conc. H2SO4; H2O and heat
89. Which of the following has the highest melting
(b) B2H6; H2O2/OH-
point?
(c) Dilute H2SO4
(a) o-Dichlorobenzene
(d) H2O/H+
98. In the reaction ROH + HCl ⎯⎯ RCl + H2O, (a) Pentan-3-one
what is the correct order of reactivity of (b) Pentanal
alcohol? (c) Pentanol
(a) 10 < 20 < 30 (d) Pentan-2-one
(b) 10 > 30 > 20 107. Which of the following is most reactive in
(c) 10 > 20 > 30 nucleophilic addition reactions?
(d) 30 > 10 > 20 (a) HCHO (b) CH3CHO
99. Which of the following alcohols will not (c) CH3COCH3 (d) CH3COC2H5
undergo oxidation?
(a) Butanol 108. Aldehydes and ketones react with
(b) Butan-2-ol hydroxylamine to form
(c) 2-Methylbutan-2-ol (a) hydrazones
(d) 3-Methylbutan-2-ol (b) cyanohydrins
(c) semi carbazones
100. Sodium phenoxide when heated with CO2 (d) Oxime
under pressure, followed by acidification, ,
yields: 109. C6H5CHO + CH3COCH3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ C6H5CH=CH
(a) Sodium benzoate COCH3 This reaction is known as:
(b) Salicylic acid (a) Aldol condensation
(c) Salicylaldehyde (b) Cross-Aldol condensation
(d) Benzoic acid (c) Cannizaro reaction
(d) Friedel-Crafts reaction
101. Aspirin is obtained by the acetylation of
which of the following compounds? 110. Which of the following is an ‘Acetal’?
(a) Salicylaldehyde
(b) Salicylic acid
(c) Acetyl salicylic acid
(d) Phenol
102. Which of the following alkenes on acid
catalysed hydration gives a tertiary alcohol?
(a) 2-Butene
(b) 2-Methylpropene
(c) Propene
(d) 1-Butene
103. Which of the following reagents would one 111. Which of the following compounds will
choose to transform CH3COCl into acetone? undergo self-condensation in the presence of
(a) (CH3)2Cd (b) CH3MgBr dilute NaOH solution?
(a) C6H5CHO
(c) CH3Cl (d) (CH3O)2Mg
(b) CH3CH2CHO
104. Reaction of 1-phenyl-2-chloropropane with (c) (CH3)3C – CHO
alcoholic KOH gives mainly: (d) H – CHO
(a) 1-phenylpropene 112. Which of the following does not give aldol
(b) 3-phenylpropene condensation reaction?
(c) 1-phenylpropan-3-ol
(d) 1-phenylypropan-2-ol
105. The reagent that can be used to distinguish
acetophenone and benzophenone is
(a) 2, 4-dinitrophenyl hydrazine
(b) aqueous NaHSO3
(c) Fehling solution 113. The reactivities of the carbonyl compounds
(d) I2 and NaOH HCHO (I), CH3CHO (II) and CH3COCH3 (III)
106. A compound (A) with molecular formula towards nucleophilic addition reaction
C5H10O, forms a phenylhydrazone and gives decreases in the order:
negative Tollen’s and Iodoform tests. The (a) III > II > I
compound on reduction gives n-pentane. The (b) I > II > III
compound (A) is: (c) II > III > I
(d) I > III > II
 121. When Benzene diazonium chloride reacts
with phenol, it forms a dye. This reaction is
called
114. (a) Diazotisation reaction
(b) Condensation reaction
This reaction is known as: (c) Coupling reaction
(a) Cannizzaro reaction (d) Acetylation reaction
(b) Etard reaction
122. The reaction of ammonia with a large excess
(c) Rosenmund’s reduction
of methyl chloride will yield mainly:
(d) Aldol condensation
(a) methylamine
115. The product formed in the reaction: (b) dimethylamine
(c) tetramethylammonium chloride
(d) trimethylamine
123. The reduction of ethanenitrile with sodium
and alcohol gives:
(a) 1-aminopropane
(b) 1-aminoethane
(c) Ethanoic acid
(d) Ethanamide
124. Which one of the following has lowest pKa
116. Which of the following reactions are feasible? value?
(a) CH3CH2Br + Na+O–C(CH3)3  CH3CH2–O– C (a) CH3–COOH (b) O2N–CH2–COOH
(CH3)3 (c) Cl–CH2–COOH (d) HCOOH
(b) (CH3)3C–Cl + Na+O– CH2CH3  CH3CH2–O–
125. Which of the following is least basic?
C(CH3)3
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b).
117. Which of the following would not be a good
choice for reducing nitrobenzene to aniline?
(a) LiAlH4 (b) H2 /Ni 126. Among the following, which is the strongest
(c) Fe and HCl (d) Sn and HCl base?

118. When diethyl ether is heated with excess of

HI, it produces:
(a) ethanol
(b) iodoform
(c) methyl iodide
(d) ethyl iodide
127. Among the following, which has the highest
119. CH3CONH2 on reaction with NaOH and Br2 in value of pKb?
alcoholic medium gives:
(a) CH3COONa
(b) CH3NH2
(c) CH3CH2Br
(d) CH3CH2NH2
120. When nitrobenzene is heated with tin and 128. The action of nitrous acid on ethylamine gives
concentrated HCl, the product formed is: mainly:
(a) ethyl nitrite (b) ethyl alcohol
(c) nitroethane (d) ethane
129. Amides can be converted into amines by the
reaction named
(a) Hoffmann degradation
(b) Ammonolysis
(c) Carbylamine
(d) Diazotisation
130. In the reaction (a) ionic bond
C6H5NH2 + CHCl3 + 3 KOH  A + 3B + 3C, (b) covalent bond
the product A is (c) hydrogen bond
(a) C6H5NC (b) C6H5CN (d) Van der Waals forces
(c) C6H5Cl (d) C6H5NHCH3
141. -pleated sheet structure in proteins refers to
131. The glycosidic linkage involved in linking the (a) primary structure
glucose units in amylase part of starch is: (b) secondary structure
(a) C1- C6 α linkage (c) tertiary structure
(b) C1 -C6 β linkage (d) quaternary structure
(c) C1- C4 α linkage
142. Which of the following vitamins is water
(d) C1- C4 β linkage
soluble?
132. Which of the following is a non-reducing (a) Vitamin A
sugar? (b) Vitamin D
(a) Sucrose (c) Vitamin E
(b) Maltose (d) Vitamin C
(c) Glucose
143. Deficiency of Vitamin B causes:
(d) Lactose
(a) rickets
133. Proteins are polymers of (b) muscular weakness
(a) Nucleic acids (c) scurvy
(b) Amino acids (d) beri-beri
(c) Monosaccharides
144. The deficiency of which of the following
(d) Amines
vitamins causes Scurvy?
134. When D-glucose reacts with HI, it forms (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B6
(a) Gluconic acid (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin B12
(b) n-hexane
145. Which of the following structures represents -
(c) Saccharic acid
D-glucose?
(d) Iodohexane
135. A vitamin which plays a vital role in the
clotting of blood is:
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin K
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin B
136. On hydrolysis, which of the following
carbohydrates gives glucose and fructose?
(a) Sucrose (b) Starch
146. Which of the following statements is not true
(c) Lactose (d) Maltose
about glucose?
137. On hydrolysis, which of the following (a) It is an aldohexose.
carbohydrates gives only glucose? (b) On heating with HI, it forms n-hexane.
(a) Starch (c) It is present in pyranose form.
(b) Fructose (d) It gives 2, 4 DNP test.
(c) Lactose
147. On hydrolysis, which of the following
(d) Sucrose
carbohydrates gives only glucose?
138. In the ring structure of glucose, the anomeric (a) Maltose
carbon is: (b) Sucrose
(a) C-2 (c) Lactose
(b) C-3 (d) Galactose
(c) C-4
148. On hydrolysis, which of the following
(d) C-1
carbohydrates gives glucose and galactose?
139. Hydrolysis of sucrose is called (a) Sucrose
(a) inversion (b) hydration (b) Lactose
(c) esterification (d) saponification (c) Maltose
(d) Cellulose
140. Helical structure of proteins is stabilized by:
149. Deficiency of which of the following vitamins 156. Assertion (A): When glucose is added to
causes Pernicious anaemia? water, an elevation in boiling point is
(a) Vitamin B1 observed.
(b) Vitamin B2 Reason (R): The lowering of vapour pressure
(c) Vitamin B6 causes elevation in the boiling point.
(d) Vitamin B12 157. Assertion (A): Conductivity decreases with
decrease in concentration of electrolyte.
150. The deficiency of which of the following
Reason (R): Number of ions per unit volume
vitamins causes “Rickets”?
that carry the current in a solution decrease
(a) Vitamin A
on dilution.
(b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin B 158. Assertion (A): ꓥm for weak electrolytes shows
(d) Vitamin C a sharp decrease when the electrolytic
151. An α-helix is a structural feature of: solution is diluted.
(a) Sucrose Reason (R): For weak electrolytes, degree of
(b) Starch dissociation increases with dilution of solution.
(c) Polypeptides 159. Assertion (A): ꓥm for weak electrolytes shows
(d) Nucleotides a sharp increase when the electrolytic
solution is diluted.
For Questions number 152 to 193, two
Reason (R): For weak electrolytes, degree of
statements are given one labelled as Assertion
dissociation decreases with dilution of
(A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select
solution.
the correct answer to these questions from the
160. Assertion (A): Molar conductivity decreases
codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
with increase in concentration.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R): When concentration approaches
Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the zero, the molar conductivity is known as
Assertion (A). limiting molar conductivity.
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but
161. Assertion (A): Limiting molar conductivity
Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the
(ꓥm) is obtained by the extrapolation of the ꓥm
Assertion (A).
versus C1/2 curve of strong electrolyte.
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. Reason (R): ꓥm for weak electrolytes is
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true. obtained by using Kohlrausch’s law.

152. Assertion (A): The enthalpy of mixing mixH is 162. Assertion (A): Electrolysis of aqueous
equal to zero for an ideal solution. solution of NaCl gives chlorine gas at anode
Reason (R): For an ideal solution the instead of oxygen gas.
interaction between solute and solvent Reason (R): Formation of oxygen gas at anode
molecules is stronger than the interactions requires overpotential.
between solute-solute or solvent-solvent 163. Assertion (A): The molecularity of the
molecules. reaction H2 + Br2 → 2HBr appears to be 2.
153. Assertion (A): Osmotic pressure is a Reason (R): Two molecules of the reactants
colligative property. are involved in the given elementary reaction.
Reason (R): Osmotic pressure is proportional
to the molality. 164. Assertion (A): Order and molecularity of a
reaction are always same.
154. Assertion (A): Elevation in boiling point is a Reason (R): Complex reactions involve a
colligative property. sequence of elementary reactions and the
Reason (R): The lowering of vapour pressure of slowest step is rate determining.
solution causes elevation in boiling point. 165. Assertion (A): Order of reaction is
155. Assertion (A): When NaCl is added to water, applicable to elementary as well as complex
a depression in freezing point is observed. reactions.
Reason (R): The lowering of vapour pressure of Reason (R): For a complex reaction
a solution causes depression in the freezing molecularity has no meaning.
point.
166. Assertion (A): For a zero-order reaction the 178. Assertion (A): ECu2+/Cu is positive (+0.34 V).
unit of rate constant and rate of reaction are Reason (R): Copper has high ΔaH0 and low
same. ΔhydH0.
Reason (R): Rate of reaction for zero order
179. Assertion (A): Trans [CrCl2(ox)2]3– shows
reaction is independent of concentration of
optical isomerism.
reactant.
Reason (R): Optical isomerism is common in
167. Assertion (A): The half-life of a reaction is the octahedral complexes involving didentate
time in which the concentration of the ligands.
reactant is reduced to one half of its initial
180. Assertion (A): [Co(NH3)5 SO4]Cl gives a white
concentration.
precipitate with silver nitrate solution.
Reason (R): In first order kinetics when
Reason (R): The complex dissociates to give Cl–
concentration of reactant is doubled, its half-
and SO42– ions.
life is doubled.
168. Assertion (A): Transition metals show their 181. Assertion (A): Nucleophilic substitution of
highest oxidation state with oxygen. iodoethane is easier than chloroethane.
Reason (R): The ability of oxygen to form Reason (R): Bond enthalpy of C-I bond is less
multiple bonds to metals. than that of C-Cl bond.
169. Assertion (A): Transition metals have high 182. Assertion (A): Chlorobenzene is resistant to
enthalpy of atomisation. electrophilic substitution reaction.
Reason (R): Greater number of unpaired Reason (R): C-Cl bond in chlorobenzene
electrons in transition metals results in weak acquires partial double bond characters due to
metallic bonding. resonance.
170. Assertion (A): Low spin tetrahedral 183. Assertion (A): Acetic acid but not formic acid
complexes are rarely observed. can be halogenated in presence of red P and
Reason (R): Crystal field splitting energy is Cl2.
less than pairing energy for tetrahedral Reason (R): Acetic acid is a weaker acid than
complexes. formic acid.
171. Assertion (A): Zinc is not regarded as a 184. Assertion (A): Bromination of benzoic acid
transition element. gives m-bromobenzoic acid.
Reason (R): In zinc, 3d orbitals are completely Reason (R): Carboxyl group increases the
filled in its ground state as well as in its electron density at the meta position.
oxidised state. 185. Assertion (A): NH2 group is o- and p-
172. Assertion (A): Copper is a non-transition directing in electrophilic substitution
element. reactions.
Reason (R): Copper has completely filled d- Reason (R): Aniline cannot undergo Friedel-
orbitals in its ground state. Crafts reaction.
173. Assertion (A): EDTA is used to determine 186. Assertion (A): Acetylation of aniline gives a
hardness of water. monosubstituted product.
Reason (R): EDTA is a bidentate ligand. Reason (R): Activating effect of NHCOCH3
group is more than that of amino group.
174. Assertion (A): EDTA is a hexadentate ligand.
Reason (R): EDTA has 2 nitrogen and 4 187. Assertion (A): The final product in Aldol
oxygen donor atoms. condensation is always - unsaturated
carbonyl compound.
175. Assertion (A): Fe2+ acts as a reducing agent.
Reason (R): -unsaturated carbonyl
Reason (R): Fe3+ state is stable due to 3d5
compounds are stabilised due to conjugation.
configuration.
188. Assertion (A): (C2H5)2NH is more basic than
176. Assertion (A): Zr and Hf have almost
(C2H5)3N in aqueous solution.
identical radii.
Reason (R): In (C2H5)2NH, there is more steric
Reason (R): Both Zr and Hf exhibit similar
hindrance and +I effect than (C2H5)3N.
properties.
177. Assertion (A): Manganese shows the highest
oxidation state of +7 in 3d series.
Reason (R): Transition metals show variable
oxidation states.
189. Assertion (A): Ammonolysis of alkyl halides
is not a suitable method for the preparation
of pure primary amines.
Reason (R): Ammonolysis of alkyl halides
yields mainly secondary amines.
190. Assertion (A): Monobromination of aniline
can be conveniently done by protecting the
amino group by acetylation.
Reason (R): Acetylation decreases the
activating effect of the amino group.
191. Assertion (A): Proteins are polymers of -
amino acids connected by a peptide bond.
Reason (R): A tetrapeptide contains 4 amino
acids linked by 4 peptide bonds.
192. Assertion (A): Vitamin C cannot be stored in
our body.
Reason (R): Vitamin C is fat soluble and is
excreted from the body in urine.
193. Assertion (A): The backbone of DNA and RNA
molecules is a chain consisting of heterocyclic
base, pentose sugar and phosphate group.
Reason (R): Nucleotides and nucleosides
mainly differ from each other in presence of
phosphate group.

ANSWER KEY:
Q.NO. ANS Q.NO. ANS Q.NO. ANS Q.NO. ANS Q.NO. ANS Q.NO. ANS Q.NO. ANS Q.NO. ANS
1 a 26 c 51 c 76 d 101 b 126 c 151 c 176 b
2 b 27 d 52 d 77 d 102 b 127 d 152 c 177 b
3 b 28 c 53 c 78 a 103 a 128 b 153 c 178 a
4 d 29 b 54 b 79 b 104 a 129 a 154 b 179 d

5 b 30 b 55 c 80 b 105 d 130 a 155 a 180 c

6 c 31 b 56 b 81 b 106 a 131 c 156 a 181 a
7 a 32 c 57 d 82 c 107 a 132 a 157 a 182 a
8 c 33 d 58 a 83 d 108 d 133 b 158 d 183 b
9 b 34 c 59 c 84 a 109 b 134 b 159 c 184 c
10 a 35 d 60 c 85 b 110 c 135 b 160 b 185 b
11 c 36 a 61 d 86 d 111 b 136 a 161 b 186 c
12 b 37 d 62 b 87 a 112 c 137 a 162 a 187 a
13 b 38 a 63 b 88 c 113 b 138 d 163 a 188 c

14 c 39 b 64 b 89 c 114 b 139 a 164 d 189 c

15 d 40 b 65 b 90 a 115 a 140 c 165 b 190 a
16 c 41 b 66 b 91 b 116 a 141 b 166 a 191 b
17 d 42 d 67 c 92 b 117 a 142 d 167 c 192 c
18 c 43 b 68 c 93 c 118 d 143 d 168 a 193 b
19 a 44 d 69 a 94 119 b 144 c 169 c
20 b 45 a 70 a 95 c 120 a 145 a 170 a
21 c 46 a 71 b 96 b 121 c 146 d 171 a
22 d 47 c 72 b 97 b 122 c 147 a 172 d
23 d 48 c 73 c 98 a 123 b 148 b 173 c
24 d 49 b 74 b 99 c 124 b 149 d 174 a
25 b 50 c 75 c 100 b 125 c 150 b 175 a