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VISION IAS Prelims 2025 Test 3 With Solution in English

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VISION IAS Prelims 2025 Test 3 With Solution in English

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com/

VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in

Test Booklet Series

TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2025 – Test – 4703

C
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
BBOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TURN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT
REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN
THE ANSWER SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. Do NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (Questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response with you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE
response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the
answers sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks. Attempt all items. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct
responses marked by you in the answer sheet. For every incorrect response 1/3rdof the allotted marks will be
deducted.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet, you have to
fill in some particulars in the answer sheets as per instruction sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all responses on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to Invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test
Booklet.

9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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1. Consider the following rivers: 4. Consider the following pairs:

1. Ganga Desert Continent

2. Cauvery 1. Kalahari desert : Africa

3. Godavari 2. Namib desert : South America

Which of the following is the correct 3. Mojave desert : North America

decreasing order of catchment area (in India) How many of the above pairs are correctly

of the rivers given above? matched?

(a) 1-2-3 (a) Only one

(b) Only two
(b) 1-3-2
(c) All three
(c) 3-1-2
(d) None
(d) 3-2-1

5. Consider the following statements regarding

2. Consider the following statements:
Tsunamis:
Statement I: Most of the big ports in India
1. They are a kind of earthquake having an
are situated on western coast of India. epicenter below the oceanic waters.
Statement II: Western Coast of India is 2. The height of the waves is inversely
submergent coast. proportional to the depth of the water.
Which one of the following is correct in Which of the statements given above is/are
respect of the above statements? correct?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (a) 1 only

correct and Statement-II is the correct (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2
explanation for Statement-I
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is not the
6. The river originates in the western flank of
correct explanation for Statement-I
the Amarkantak plateau. Flowing in a rift
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
valley between the Satpura in the south and
incorrect
the Vindhyan range in the north forms a
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II picturesque gorge in marble rocks and
is correct Dhuandhar waterfall near Jabalpur.
The above description resembles which of
3. The term kokborok is related to the following River?
(a) ethnic community in Lakshadweep. (a) Chenab

(b) tribal language in North East. (b) Tapi

(c) primate species found in Africa. (c) Narmada

(d) Mahanadi
(d) medicinal tree species.
2 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

7. Consider the following statements with 10. Consider the following statements:
reference to Savanna Climate: 1. Latitude is the linear distance of a point
1. Highest temperature in the Savanna on the earth's surface measured in
climate happens in the month of May degrees from the equator.
and June in the Northern Hemisphere. 2. Longitude is an angular distance,
2. Savanna forests are mostly present measured in degrees along the equator
between tropics on the eastern margins east or west of the prime meridian.
of Africa and western margin of South Which of the statements given above is/are
America. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2 11. Consider the following statements with
reference to Red and Yellow soil in India:
8. With reference to Spur-winged lapwing,
1. They develop on crystalline igneous
consider the following statements:
rocks in areas of low rainfall.
1. It is a bird that prefers for marshes and
2. The reddish color of the soil is due to the
similar freshwater wetland habitats.
diffusion of Iron.
2. It is native to India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

12. With reference to Koeppen’s scheme of

9. Consider the following statements with
climate classification, consider the following
reference to favorable conditions for
pairs:
temperature inversion:
Type of Climate Associated Region
1. A long winter night with clear sky helps
1. As : West Coast of India
in creating the phenomenon of
temperature inversion. 2. E : Jammu and Kashmir

2. In mountain valley of tropical areas 3. Aw : Extreme western

temperature inversion is common Rajasthan

throughout the year 4. Cwg : Gangetic Plains

Which of the statements given above is/are How many of the pairs given above are
correct? correctly matched?
(a) 1 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 only (b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Only three
(d) Neither 1 and 2 (d) All four
3 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

13. With reference to the Raisina dialogue, 16. Which of the following reasons may be
consider the following statements: attributed to excessive cold in North India
1. It is an annual conference on geopolitics during the winter season?
and geo-economics. 1. Cold winds coming from the Caspian
2. It is hosted by NITI Aayog. Sea
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. Early-onset of easterly jet streams
correct? 3. Continentality of the north Indian region
(a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 only given below.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
14. Arrange the following types of soil in India (d) 1, 2 and 3
on the basis of their percentage share of
occurrence: 17. “It is a basin with mountains and hills
(a) Black Soil> Red soil> Alluvial Soil> around, where the drainage is towards the
Peaty Soil center of the basin, and due to gradual
(b) Alluvial Soil > Black Soil > Red Soil > deposition of sediments from basin margins,
Peaty Soil a nearly level plain forms at the center of
(c) Alluvial Soil > Red Soil > Black Soil > basin”.
Peaty Soil The above landform is best described by
(d) Black Soil > Alluvial Soil > Red Soil > which of the following?
Peaty Soil (a) Playas
(b) Sand Dunes
15. Consider the following statements: (c) Pediments
Statement I: The shadow zone of the S-wave (d) Pediplain
is greater than that of the P-waves.
Statement-II: S-waves are secondary and 18. Consider the following statements with
arrive at the surface with some lag. reference to Sand Dunes:
Which one of the following is correct in 1. Barchans are formed in the areas of
respect of the above statements? varying wind speeds
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2. The presence of vegetation hinders the
correct and Statement-II is the correct process of formation of sand dunes
explanation for Statement-I. 3. Sand dunes cannot form perpendicular to
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are the direction of wind movement
correct and Statement-II is not the How many of the statements given above
correct explanation for Statement-I. is/are correct?
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (a) Only one
incorrect. (b) Only two
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II (c) All three
is correct. (d) None
4 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

19. Consider the following with reference to 22. Consider the following statements regarding
karst landform: the structure of the atmosphere:
1. The troposphere reaches its maximum
1. Karst region has very little surface
thickness around the 30-degree latitudes,
drainage.
both north and south of the equator.
2. Stalactites and stalagmites are both 2. The zone separating the stratosphere
depositional features of karst landform. from the troposphere is known as the

Which of the statements given above is/are stratopause.

3. The ionosphere is located above the
correct?
mesopause.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
20. Grand Canyon of North America was
created by which of the following rivers? 23. The famous Subika painting style is deeply
(a) River Mississipi connected to the cultural history of which of
the following communities?
(b) River Missouri
(a) Meitei
(c) River Hudson
(b) Munda
(d) River Colorado (c) Kuki
(d) Naga

21. Consider the following statements regarding

24. Consider the following statements regarding
soils:
Bochasanwasi Akshar Purushottam
1. The younger soils show similarity with Swaminarayan Sanstha (BAPS) Hindu
the parent material. Mandir:
2. Soils in hot tropical regions exhibit 1. It is the first Hindu temple in Abu
Dhabi.
shallower profiles.
2. The temple built in Nagara style
3. Humus accumulation is a characteristic
architecture, belongs to Swaminarayan
feature of the soils in the subarctic Sect of Hinduism.
regions. 3. The seven shikhara in the temple
How many of the statements given above are represents seven Emirates of UAE.
How many of the statements given above are
correct?
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) All Three (c) All three

(d) None (d) None

5 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

25. Consider the following statements with 28. Consider the following rivers:
reference to the local time and the standard 1. Mandovi
2. Pamba
time:
3. Brahmani
1. The local time changes with the change
4. Subansiri
in the longitudes.
Which of the above rises from the Western
2. At the standard meridian of a country Ghats?
both local and standard times are the (a) 1 and 2 only
same. (b) 2 and 4 only

Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 3 only
correct?
(a) 1 only
29. Which of the following is mainly responsible
(b) 2 only for transmitting heat from Earth to
(c) Both 1 and 2 Atmosphere?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Shortwave solar radiation
(b) Short wave terrestrial radiation
(c) Long wave terrestrial radiation
26. Consider the following statements about
(d) Scattered Solar Radiation
India-Bangladesh relations:
1. Bangladesh is India’s largest trade 30. 'Shahpur Kandi barrage' is situated on which
partner in South Asia. of the following rivers?
2. Since 2022, India and Bangladesh have (a) Ravi

had a Free Trade Agreement. (b) Jhelum

(c) Chenab
3. Recently, India-Bangladesh opened
(d) Sutlej
trade through Maia (West Bengal) -
Sultanganj (Bangladesh) river ports on 31. Consider the following statements:
the Ganga River. 1. The Tamil Nadu coast is situated parallel
How many of the above statements are to the Bay of Bengal branch of the

correct? southwest monsoon.

2. The Tamil Nadu coast lies in the
(a) Only one
rainshadow area of the Arabian Sea
(b) Only two
branch of the southwest monsoon.
(c) All three 3. The occurrence of cyclonic storms in the
(d) None Bay of Bengal.
Which of the statements given above are

27. ‘Bortle Scale’ is used to measure the correct explanations of the Tamil Nadu coast
being remained dry during the southwest
(a) depth of the sea.
monsoon?
(b) level of light pollution in a certain area.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) estimate of the area affected by an oil (b) 1 and 3 only
spill at sea. (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) greenhouse gas emissions. (d) 1, 2 and 3
6 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

32. With reference to the Himalayan and the 35. Consider the following statements regarding
Peninsular Rivers, consider the following the Andaman and Nicobar Islands:
statements: 1. Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands
1. Himalayan rivers are perennial while are separated by the Ten-degree channel.
2. These islands are an elevated portion of
Peninsular Rivers are seasonal in nature.
submarine mountains.
2. Peninsular rivers generally follow
3. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands lie in
straight courses whereas in the
the South-east direction to the mainland
Himalayan Rivers meandering by rivers of India.
is very prominent. How many of the above statements are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct? (a) Only one
(a) 1 only (b) Only two
(b) 2 only (c) All three
(d) None
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
36. Consider the following statements with
reference to thermohaline circulation:
33. In India, the Tropic of Cancer passes through 1. The surface ocean drastically changes its
which of the following states? salinity and density in the process of
1. Gujarat upwelling and downwelling.
2. Chhattisgarh 2. The process of thermohaline circulation
3. Tripura ensures fast exchange of water between
4. Manipur poles and tropics.
3. The surface ocean water movement
How many of the above options are correct?
leads to maximum transfer of water
(a) 1 and 4 only
between poles and equator.
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
How many of the statements given above
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only is/are correct?
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) Only one
(b) Only two
34. Consider the following: (c) All three
1. Western Ghats (d) None
2. Eastern Himalaya
37. Consider the following statements regarding
3. Sundarban
the Musi river:
4. Indo Burma
1. It is a tributary to the Krishna iver.
5. Sundalannd
2. Visakhapatnam is located on the bank of
6. Terrai-Duar this river.
How many of the above are the recognised Which of the statements given above is/are
biodiversity hotspots in India? correct?
(a) Only three (a) 1 only
(b) Only four (b) 2 only
(c) Only five (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) All six
7 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

56. Consider the following statements with 59. Consider the following pairs:
reference to Steppe Climate: Famous place River
1. The steppe type of climate in both the
1. Ujjain : Shipra
northern and southern hemisphere has
extreme winter and summer. 2. Ayodhya : Gomti
2. The steppe type of climate found in 3. Srinagar : Jhelum
tropical regions of the world.
4. Madurai : Kaveri
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? How many pairs given above are not
(a) 1 only correctly matched?
(b) 2 only
(a) Only one
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2 (b) Only two
(c) Only three
57. With reference to plate tectonics theory, (d) All four
consider the following statements
1. It was proposed by American geologist
Harry Hess in 1961 60. Which of the following is the correct order
2. Plates are composed of both continental for lakes moving from North to South?
and oceanic crust.
(a) Lake Victoria, Lake Tanganyika, Lake
3. The movement of the hot softened
mantle below the crust causes the plate Malawi and Lake Turkana
movement. (b) Lake Turkana, Lake Victoria, Lake
Which of the statements given above are
Tanganyika and Lake Malawi
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Lake Tanganyika, Lake Victoria, Lake
(b) 2 and 3 only Malawi and Lake Turkana
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Lake Turkana, Lake Victoria, Lake
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Malawi and Lake Tanganyika
58. Consider the following statements with
reference to warm temperate eastern margin 61. Consider the following pairs:
climate:
River Waterfall
1. It experiences extreme temperatures
with scarce rainfall. 1. Narmada : Dhuandhar
2. It is found in the south-eastern U.S.A. 2. Subarnarekha : Hundru
bordering the Gulf of Mexico and
3. Chambal : Chuliya
Parana-Paraguay-Uruguay basin.
3. This climate can only support the lowest 4. Mandovi : Dudhsagar
form of vegetation, mosses, lichens, and Which of the above given pairs are correctly
sedges. matched?
How many of the above statements are
(a) 1 and 2 only
correct?
(a) Only one (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Only two (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) Only three
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) None
11 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

62. Which of the following can be considered as 65. Consider the following statements:
1. Some rivers of the northern plain show a
the primary reason for formation of Labrador
dendritic river pattern.
Current? 2. When the primary tributaries of rivers
(a) The divergence of Gulf Stream towards flow parallel to each other and
secondary tributaries join them at right
the west coast of Greenland.
angles, the pattern is known as trellis
(b) Inflow of cold melting water coming river pattern.
from the Arctic region. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(c) Divergence of North Atlantic Drift from
(a) 1 only
eastern coast of Greenland. (b) 2 only
(d) Convergence of Irminger current and (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
north Atlantic Drift.

66. With reference to River Satluj, consider the

63. Agra and Darjeeling, despite sharing the following statements:
1. The Satluj River originates near
same latitude, exhibit notable differences in Mansarovar in Tibet and goes through
vegetation. Which of the following factors Shipki La pass in the Himalayas.
2. River Satluj feeds the canal system of
primarily determines this disparity in
the Bhakra Nangal project.
vegetation between the two regions? 3. River Ravi meets the Satluj near Harike
(a) Distribution of Land and Water as the right bank tributary.
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Distance from the Sea
correct?
(c) Different longitudes (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Altitude of the region (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
64. Consider the following countries:
1. Bangladesh 67. Consider the following statements regarding
Lakshadweep:
2. China
1. The entire island group is built of coral
3. Pakistan deposits.
2. The maritime boundary between the
4. Srilanka
Maldives and India (Lakshadweep) runs
5. Myanmar through the Eight-degree channel.
How many of the above countries share land 3. Saddle Peak is the highest peak in the
Lakshadweep Islands.
boundaries with India?
How many of the above statements are
(a) Two only correct?
(b) Three only (a) One one
(b) Only two
(c) Four only
(c) All three
(d) All five (d) None
12 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

68. The Gandhi Sagar dam is constructed on 71. Consider the following statement with
which river? reference to change in atmospheric
(a) Barakar temperature:
(b) Krishna Statement I: Temperature in the troposphere
(c) Chambal and stratosphere tends to decrease with rise
(d) Bhagirathi in altitude.
Statement II: Temperature tends to decrease
69. Consider the following statements with with height due to heat energy of the sun
reference to a particular climatic region: radiated back from Earth.
1. The summer is dry and warm, while Which one of the following is correct in
there is rainfall in winter. respect of the above statements?
2. Trees have small broad leaves and are (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
widely spaced leading to the absence of correct and Statement-II is the correct
shade. explanation for Statement-I.
3. This climate favours viticulture and wine (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
production is an economic activity here. correct and Statement-II is not the
Which of the following climatic regions best correct explanation for Statement-I
reflects the above-mentioned features? (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(a) Equatorial climate incorrect
(b) Polar climate (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(c) Savanna climate is correct
(d) Mediterranean climate
72. These are the most widespread forests of

70. Consider the following statements with India. They are also called the monsoon

reference to the Eastern Ghats and the forests and spread over the region receiving

Western Ghats: rainfall between 70 cm to 200 cm. Trees of

1. The highest peak of the Western Ghats is this forest type shed their leaves for about

Anaimudi. six to eight weeks in dry summer. These

2. The highest peak of the Eastern Ghats is forests exist, mostly in the eastern and

Mahendragiri. rainier parts of the Peninsular plateau of the

3. The Eastern and the Western Ghats meet country. The most dominant species of this

each other at the Nilgiri hills. forest are Bamboo, sal teak and peepal.

Which of the statements given above is/are The above paragraph describes which types

correct? of vegetation?

(a) 1 only (a) Tropical Evergreen Forests

(b) 1 and 2 only (b) Tropical Deciduous Forests

(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Tropical Thorn Forests and Scrubs

(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Montane Forests

13 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

73. Consider the following statements with 76. Consider the following statements with
reference to the tropical cyclones: reference to Tropical Monsoon Climate:
1. Tropical Monsoon Climate receives
Statement-I: It is extremely rare for tropical
heavy rainfall throughout the year.
cyclones to form within a few degrees of the
2. Forests in Tropical Monsoon Climate are
equator. usually evergreen forests.
Statement-II: The Coriolis force is negligible Which of the statements given above is/are
at the equator. correct?
(a) 1 only
Which one of the following is correct in
(b) 2 only
respect of the above statements?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I 77. Consider the following statements:
1. Google LLC has recently introduced
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Gemma which is a new search engine.
correct and Statement-II is not the
2. Gemma will help in encrypting the
correct explanation for Statement-I online content that is not indexed by
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is conventional search engines.
incorrect Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(a) 1 only
is correct
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
74. With reference to the 'Ol Chiki script', (d) Neither 1 nor 2
consider the following statements:
78. Which one of the following is a direct source
1. It is used to write Mundari language.
for the study of the interior of the earth?
2. It was devised by Pandit Raghunath
(a) Volcanic eruption
Murmu. (b) Meteorite
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Gravitional field strength
correct? (d) Seismic activity

(a) 1 only
79. Consider the following statements regarding
(b) 2 only
soil flow or solifluction:
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. Soil flow occurs when the soil is
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 completely devoid of moisture.
2. Soil flow is not possible in the tundra
and arid regions.
75. The term Hori Habba is used in the context
3. In Ireland, bog bursts are a related
of
phenomenon.
(a) tribal community in North East. How many of the statements given above are
(b) tradition of bull sport in South India. correct?
(c) festival of harvest in eastern India. (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(d) tribal language on the verge of
(c) All three
extinction.
(d) None
14 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

80. Which one of the statements given below is 83. Consider the following peninsular rivers:
not correct regarding Glacial Lake Outburst 1. Vaigai
Floods (GLOF)? 2. Sharavati
(a) They are associated with Glacial Lakes
3. Vamsadhara
formed over the moraine dammed
How many of the rivers given above flow
meltwater.
(b) Retreat and Expansion of Glacial Lakes from east to west?

increase the probability of GLOF. (a) Only one

(c) It is not advisable to practice slash-and- (b) Only two
burn farming in GLOF-prone areas. (c) All three
(d) Presence of Black carbon can lessen the
(d) None
chances of the formation of Glacial
Lakes.
84. Mohorovicic discontinutiy or Moho

81. Recently, India has ranked 38th on the discontinuity lies between which of the

Logistics Performance Index 2023. This following?

Index is released by: (a) Inner core and outer core
(a) International Monetary Fund (b) Outercore and mantle
(b) United Nations Conference on Trade and
(c) Mantle and Crust
Development
(d) The lower crust and the upper crust
(c) World Bank
(d) World Economic Forum
85. Consider the following pairs:
82. Consider the following statements with Name of Strait Water bodies
reference to the Tropical Evergreen forests: connected
1. The trees, inside the Tropical Evergreen
1. Bering strait : Arctic Ocean and
forests, do not shed their leaves.
Pacific Ocean
2. Pure stands of natural vegetation are not
found inside the Tropical Evergreen 2. Cook strait : Tasman sea and South

Forests. pacific ocean

3. In India these forests are found in the 3. Strait of Bab : Red Sea and Gulf of
eastern slope of the Western Ghats, the
el Mandab Aden
hills of the northeastern region, and the
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
matched?
How many of the statements given above are
correct? (a) Only one

(a) Only one (b) Only two

(b) Only two (c) All three
(c) All three (d) None
(d) None
15 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

86. Consider the following statements: 89. Consider the following statements:
1. Tokamak is an experimental machine 1. Entire India observes overhead sun on
designed to harness the energy of fusion the summer solstice of the northern
on the Earth. hemisphere.

2. Joint European Torus is the first device 2. As compared to northern India, southern
India experiences high temperatures
to achieve controlled fusion power.
throughout the year with small daily and
Which of the statements given above is/are
annual ranges.
correct?
Which of the above can be attributed to the
(a) 1 only
passing of the Tropic of Cancer roughly
(b) 2 only
through the central part of India?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
87. Consider following passage: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Soil A is found in arid and semi-arid regions
of western ghats and eastern coast and is 90. Consider the following statements with
infertile due to lack in nitrogen and calcium. reference to the coastal climate in India:
Soil B develop in areas with high Statement-I: There is hardly any seasonal

temperature and high rainfall and contains change in the distribution pattern of the
temperature in coastal areas.
large proportion of iron and aluminium.
Statement-II: The oceans take much longer
Identify which of the above passage describe
to warm up or cool down than land mass.
soil A and soil B respectively?
Which one of the following is correct in
(a) Laterite soil and Usara soil
respect of the above statements?
(b) Usara Soil and Laterite Soil
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(c) Red Soil and Laterite soil correct and Statement-II is the correct
(d) Laterite soil and Red soil explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
88. Consider the following statements with correct and Statement-II is not the
reference to Earthquake waves: correct explanation for Statement-I
1. Both P wave and S wave are examples (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
of Surface waves incorrect
2. Surface waves are more destructive in (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II

nature as compared to body waves is correct

Which of the statements given above is/are

91. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (STR) is
correct?
located in which of the following states?
(a) 1 only
(a) Telangana
(b) 2 only
(b) Kerala
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Karnataka
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Tamil Nadu
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92. Consider the following statements with 95. Consider the following statements
reference to Ocean currents: withregard to social forestry:
Statement I : Most of the hot deserts are 1. Urban forestry pertains to the raising and
formed on the western margins of management of trees on public lands
continents.
only.
Statement II: The presence of cold ocean
2. Agro-forestry is the raising of trees and
current on the eastern margins of oceans
agriculture crops on the same land
leads to areas of less precipitation.
inclusive of the waste patches.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements? 3. Community forestry involves the

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are raisingof trees on public, privately
correct and Statement-II is the correct owned orcommunity lands.
explanation for Statement-I How many of the statements given above are
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct?
correct and Statement-II is not the (a) Only one
correct explanation for Statement-1 (b) Only two
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (c) All three
incorrect
(d) None
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
is correct
96. With reference to basic lava, consider the
following statements:
93. Consider the following countries:
1. Latvia 1. It is highly fluid.
2. Lithuania 2. It leads to explosive eruptions.
3. Netherlands 3. It commonly results in the formation of
4. Estonia composite volcanoes.
How many of the above borders with the Which of the statements given above is/are
Baltic Sea? correct?
(a) Only one (a) 1 only
(b) Only two (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Only three
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All four
(d) 1, 2 and 3

94. Consider the following pairs:

97. Consider the following trees:
Martial art State
1. Silambam : Tamil Nadu 1. Mahogany (Swietenia)
2. Thang-ta : Sikkim 2. Greenheart (Chlorocardium rodiei)
3. Gatka : Punjab 3. Baobab (Adansonia)
How many of the above pairs are correctly How many of the above trees are tropical
matched? evergreen trees?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) All three (c) All three
(d) None
(d) None
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98. With reference to the National Commission

for Scheduled Castes (NCSC), consider the
following statements:
1. It is a constitutional body under Article
338 of the constitution of India.
2. It was separated from the National
Commission for ST by the 89th
Constitutional Amendment Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

99. Consider the following statements regarding

tropical forest soils:
1. These soils are rich in humus and fertile
in their natural state.
2. The deterioration of these soils is not
possible even after repeated vegetation
cycles.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

100. Consider following statements with

reference to the favorable condition for
formation of delta:
1. The presence of a large oxbow lake in
the river course is one of the favorable
conditions for formation of delta.
2. The presence of steep gradient around
the delta helps in consolidation of
sediments around delta.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in
ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS
GENERAL STUDIES (P) TEST – 4703 (2025)

Q 1.B
• A catchment is an area of land where water collects when it rains, often bounded by hills. As the water
flows over the landscape it finds its way into streams and down into the soil, eventually feeding the river.
Some of this water stays underground and continues to slowly feed the river in times of low rainfall.

• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 2.A
• Off the coast of Bombay, the West Continental shelf is the widest measuring around 350 km. They
are submerged coastal plains and provide ideal conditions for the development of ports and
harbors. Some of the important and big ports are Kandla, Mazagaon, JLN port, Marmagao, Mangalore,
Cochin etc. Hence Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is correct. Both Statement-I and
Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
• Submergent Coasts are those that have been flooded by ocean waters because of a relative rise in
the elevation of sea level at that location.
o The rise in sea level can be either the result of an increase in the volume of water in the ocean basins
or the result of the land surface sinking, both of which create an apparent rise in the elevation of sea
level.
o The western coast of India because is a submergent coast, it allows greater draft capacity as compared
to the Eastern coast.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

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Q 3.B
• Recent context: After a week of protests, dialogues and a police complaint against the Tripura Board of
Secondary Education (TBSE) over the script of preference for the Kokborok examination, the president
of the state board said both Roman and Bengali scripts would be allowed in the examination. Earlier, the
board had allowed only the Bengali script.The debate around the script of the Kokborok language is
several decades old.
• Kokborok was first recognised as an official state language of Tripura in 1979.
• Native Speakers: Borok people or Tripuris. It is spoken by 9 sub-tribe or clan of Borok community
namely: Debbarma, Reang, Jamatias, Tripura, Noatia, Kalai, Murasing, Rupini, Uchai.
• According to 2011 census the total population of Kokborok is 8, 80,537 (23.97% of total population).
• Lingua franca: For Tripura’s 19 tribal communities.
• Language family: Tibeto-Burman, also has close affinity with other language family like Bodo, Garo,
Dimasa etc.
• Spread: The Borok or Tripuris are mainly in Tripura state, some in North-Eastern states, Pithoragarh of
Uttarakhand.They are also present in countries like Bangladesh, Myanmar, Nepal and Bhutan comprising
about 1.5 million in numbers.
• Lineage: A branch of Boro people of Assam belonging to the Sino-Tibetan linguistic group and racially
Mongoloids. The British Historians has recognized this people as Tibeto-Burmise linguistic group.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 4.B
• Deserts are regions of scanty rainfall which may be hot deserts of Saharan type; or temperate as are
the mid-latitude deserts like the Gobi. The aridity of the hot deserts is mainly due to the effects of
off-shore Trade Winds, hence they are also called Trade Wind Deserts. The temperate deserts are
rainless because of their interior location in the temperate latitudes, well away from the rain-bearing
winds.
• The Kalahari Desert is a large basin-like plain of the interior plateau of Southern Africa.
Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
o It occupies almost all of Botswana, the eastern third of Namibia, and the northernmost part of the
Northern Cape province in South Africa. In the southwest, it merges with the Namib, the coastal
desert of Namibia. The climate is sub-humid rather than semi-arid in the north and east, where
the dry forests, savannahs, and salt lakes prevail. South and west, where the vegetation is
predominantly xeric savanna or even semi-desert, the climate is "Kalaharian" semi-arid. It joins
the Sonoran, Great Basin, and Chihuahuan deserts in forming the North American Desert.
• The Mojave Desert, an arid region of southeastern California and portions of Nevada, Arizona, and
Utah, U.S. Its desert climate is characterized by extreme variation in daily temperature, with frequent
winter frosts, and an average annual precipitation of 2 to 6 inches (50 to 150 mm). Near the undefined
Great Basin–Mojave border lies Death Valley. The intermittent Mojave River flows predominantly
underground to Soda Lake. The Colorado River and Lake Mead are situated near the eastern edge of the
desert. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
• Namib, is a cool coastal desert extending for 1,200 miles (1,900 km) along the Atlantic coast of
Africa from Namibe (formerly Moçâmedes) in Angola southward across Namibia to the Olifants River in
the Western Cape province of South Africa. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
o The Namib is arid and is almost totally uninhabited, except for a small number of scattered towns.
o It is important because of the trade routes that cross it, its mineral deposits, the fisheries of the
bordering sea, and its increasing utilization for recreational purposes.
o In much of the southern half of the desert, the platform is surmounted by a vast expanse of sand—
yellow-gray near the coast and brick-red inland—which is derived from the Orange River and from
other rivers that flow westward from the escarpment but never reach the sea.
o The dunes run in lines from north-northwest to south-southeast.
o The coastal area is almost rainless, yet its air is almost always at or near the saturation point.
o The cold Benguela Current flows northward along the coast, chilling the air above it and thus
producing fog. This cool air moves inland as a southwest sea breeze, creating a temperature
inversion.

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Q 5.B
• Earthquakes and volcanic eruptions that cause the sea floor to move abruptly resulting in sudden
displacement of ocean water in the form of high vertical waves are called tsunamis (harbour waves) or
seismic sea waves. Normally, the seismic waves cause only one instantaneous vertical wave; but, after the
initial disturbance, a series of afterwaves are created in the water that oscillate between high crest and low
trough to restore the water level. The effect of a tsunami would occur only if the epicentre of the tremor is
below oceanic waters and the magnitude is sufficiently high. Tsunamis are waves generated by the
tremors and not an earthquake in itself. Though the actual quake activity lasts for a few seconds, its
effects are devastating provided the magnitude of the quake is more than 5 on the Richter scale. Hence,
statement 1 is not correct.
• The speed of waves in the ocean depends upon the depth of water. The tsunami wave slows down in
shallow water than in the ocean deep. Its wavelengths decrease in shallow water (with decreasing
depth), but the waves grow in height (amplitude increases), and currents intensify. At the shore, most
tsunamis slow to the speed of a car, approximately 20 to 30 mph (30 to 50 km/h). As a result of this, the
impact of tsunamis is less over the ocean and more near the coast where they cause large-scale
devastations. Therefore, a ship at sea is not much affected by tsunami and it is difficult to detect a tsunami
in the deeper parts of the sea. It is so because over deep water the tsunami has very long wave length and
limited wave height. Thus, a tsunami wave raises the ship only a metre or two and each rise and fall takes
several minutes. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Q 6.C
• The above description resembles the Narmada River. The river originates in the western flank of
the Amarkantak plateau at a height of about 1,057 m.
• Flowing in a rift valley between the Satpura in the south and the Vindhyan range in the north, it
forms a picturesque gorge in marble rocks and the Dhuandhar waterfall near Jabalpur. After
flowing a distance of about 1,312 km, it meets the Arabian Sea south of Bharuch, forming a broad 27 km
long estuary. The Sardar Sarovar Project has been constructed on this river. Hence option (c) is the
correct answer.
• The Chenab is the largest tributary of the Indus. It is formed by two streams, the Chandra and the
Bhaga, which join at Tandi near Keylong in Himachal Pradesh. Hence can be eliminated easily as it
is not close to vidhyas and Satpura.
• The Tapi river rises from the Satpura Range of Betul in MP. The basin is bounded by the Satpura
range on the north, Mahadev hills on the east, Ajanta Range and the Satmala hills on the south, and
by the Arabian Sea on the west. As it flows south of satpura hence can be eliminated.
• Mahanadi rises from Raipur district of Chhatisgarh and flows for about 851 km before its outfall into the
Bay of Bengal. As it is not in between Vindhyas and tapi hence can be eliminated easily. Its main
tributaries are the Seonath, the Jonk, the Hasdeo, the Mand, the ib, the Ong and the Tel.

Q 7.D
• Highest temperature in the Savanna climate does not coincide with the summer season in the northern and
southern hemisphere. The highest temperature occurs just before the onset of the rainy season. In the
northern hemisphere the highest temperature occurs in the months of July and August. Hence
statement 1 is not correct.
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• Savanna forest are transitional types of forests found between Equatorial forest and hot deserts. It is
mostly present between tropics in the western and central part of the African continent (For
example Kuno) and the eastern margin of South America(For example Llanos and Campos). Hence
statement 2 is not correct.

Q 8.A
• Recent Context: First time in India’: African-Mediterranean wader bird spotted in Warangal also known
an Spur-winged lapwing.
• It is a rare wader bird, scientifically known as Vanellus spinosus, was observed near Bhattupalle village.
• The spur-winged lapwing is native to North Africa, the Middle East, and Mediterranean regions and
has never been previously sighted in the Indian sub-continent. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The spur-winged lapwing, also known as spur-winged plover (Vanellus spinosus), belongs to the lapwing
species within the family Charadriidae.
• This species has a preference for marshes and similar freshwater wetland habitats. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
• The food of the spur-winged lapwing consists of insects and other invertebrates, which are picked from
the ground.

Q 9.A
• Normally, temperature decreases with increase in elevation. It is called normal lapse rate. At times,the
situation is reversed and the normal lapse rate is inverted. It is called Inversion of temperature, Inversion
is usually of short duration but quite common nonetheless. A long winter night with clear skies and still
air is an ideal situation for inversion. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The heat of the day is radiated off during the night, and by early morning hours, the earth is cooler than
the air above. Over polar areas, temperature inversion is normal throughout the year.
o Under normal weather conditions, the air temperature typically decreases with height. A classic
example is when colder air settles into mountain valleys of tropical areas during times of stable,
high-pressure weather conditions. Colder, more dense air pushes under the warmer, less dense
air in the valley, which creates the inversion. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Q 10.B
• Statement 1 is not correct: Latitude is the angular distance of a point on the earth's surface measured in
degrees from the center of the earth. It is parallel to a line, the equator, which lies midway between the
poles. These lines are therefore called parallels of latitude.
• Statement 2 is correct: Longitude is an angular distance measured in degrees along the equator east or
west of the prime meridian. On the globe longitude is shown as a series of semicircles that run from pole
to pole passing through the equator. Such lines are also called meridians.
Q 11.C
• Red soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall in the eastern and southern
part of the Deccan Plateau. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Along the piedmont zone of the Western Ghat, long stretch of area is occupied by red loamy soil. Yellow
and red soils are also found in parts of Odisha and Chattisgarh and in the southern parts of the middle
Ganga plain.
• Due to a wide diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks, the soil develops a reddish
color. When it occurs in a hydrated form, it looks yellow. The fine-grained red and yellow soils are
normally fertile, whereas in dry upland areas the soil has poor fertility due to coarse-grained structure.
They are generally poor in humus, phosphorus, and nitrogen. Hence statement 2 is correct.
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Q 12.B
• Type of Climate as per Koeppen’s scheme of climate classification:
o Amw (Monsoon with short dry season) - West coast of India south of Goa
o As (Monsoon with dry summer) - Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu
o Aw (Tropical savannah) - Most of the Peninsular plateaus, south of the Tropic of Cancer
o Bwhw (Semi-arid steppe climate) - North-western Gujarat, some parts of western Rajasthan and
Punjab
o Bwhw (Hot desert) - Extreme western Rajasthan
o Cwg (Monsoon with dry winter) - Ganga plain, eastern Rajasthan, northern Madhya Pradesh,
most of North-east India
o Dfc (Cold humid winter with short summer) - Arunachal Pradesh
o E (Polar type) - Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttaranchal
• Hence only pairs 2 and 4 are correctly matched.

Q 13.A
• Recent Context: The ninth edition of the Raisina Dialogue was held in New Delhi.
• The Raisina Dialogue is an annual conference on geopolitics and geoeconomics, which aims to
address the most challenging issues faced by the world. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The conference takes place in New Delhi and is attended by people from political, business, media, and
civil society backgrounds.
• “The Dialogue is structured as a multi-stakeholder, cross-sectoral discussion, involving heads of state,
cabinet ministers and local government officials, who are joined by thought leaders from the private
sector, media and academia.
• Delhi-based think tank Observer Research Foundation, in partnership with the Ministry of External
Affairs, hosts the conference. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The theme of the 2024 edition is “Chaturanga: Conflict, Contest, Cooperate, Create,”.

Q 14.C

• Alluvial soils are most widespread in the northern plains and covers about 40 percent of the total
area of the country. Red soil covers around 18.5%. Black soil covers around 15% of total area and
then Peaty and marshy soil with less than 10% of total geograhical area.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
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Q 15.B
• Earthquake waves are basically of two types — body waves and surface waves. Body waves are
generated due to the release of energy at the focus and move in all directions travelling through the body
of the earth. There are two types of body waves- P and S waves.
• P-waves move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface. These are also called ‘primary waves’.
o The P waves are similar to sound waves. They travel through gaseous, liquid and solid materials.
o S-waves arrive at the surface with some time lag. These are called secondary waves.
o An important fact about S-waves is that they can travel only through solid materials. This
characteristic of the S-waves causes the shadow zone of the S-wave to be larger than the P-waves.
• Earthquake waves are recorded in seismographs located at far-off locations. However, there exist some
specific areas where the waves are not reported. Such a zone is called the ‘shadow zone’.
o The study of different events reveals that for each earthquake, there exists an altogether different
shadow zone. It was observed that seismographs located at any distance within 105° from the
epicentre, recorded the arrival of both P and S-waves.
o However, the seismographs located beyond 145° from the epicentre, record the arrival of P-waves, but
not that of S-waves. Thus, a zone between 105° and 145° from the epicentre was identified as the
shadow zone for both types of waves. The entire zone beyond 105° does not receive S-waves.
o The shadow zone of the S-wave is much larger than that of the P-wave. The shadow zone of P-
waves appears as a band around the earth between 105° and 145° away from the epicentre. The
shadow zone of S-waves is not only larger in extent but it is also a little over 40 per cent of the
earth's surface.
• Hence, both statement-I and statement II are correct and statement II is not the correct explanation
for statement I.

Q 16.C
• There are three main reasons for the excessive cold in north India during the winter season:
o Continentality- States like Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan are far away from the moderating
influence of sea experience continental climate.
o The snowfall in the nearby Himalayan ranges creates a cold wave situation.
o Around February, the cold winds coming from the Caspian Sea and Turkmenistan bring cold
waves along with frost and fog over the northwestern parts of India.
• The easterly jet stream sets in along 15°N latitude only after the western jet stream has withdrawn itself
from the region i.e. around the month of June. This easterly jet stream is held responsible for the burst of
the monsoon in India. It does not play a role in an excessively cold climate in North India during the
winter season. Hence option 2 is not correct.
• Hence only options 1 and 3 are correct.

Q 17.A
• Playas are by far the most prominent landforms in the deserts.
• It is a dry, vegetation-free, flat area at the lowest part of an undrained desert basin.
• In basins with mountains and hills around and along, the drainage is towards the center of the basin
and due to gradual deposition of sediment from basin margins, a nearly level plain forms at the
center of the basin.
• It is a location where ephemeral lakes form during wet periods, and is underlain by stratified clay, silt, and
sand, and commonly, soluble salts.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 18.D
• Barchans are crescent shaped dunes with points or wings directed away from wind direction. It forms in
an area where speed of wind and its direction is constant. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Plants play a role in the formation and maintenance of dunes by trapping and stabilizing sand particles
through their root systems, preventing erosion and promoting dune growth. Parabolic Sand Dunes form
when sandy surfaces are partially covered with vegetation. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Sand Dunes such as Transverse dunes are aligned perpendicular to direction of winds.These dunes form
when the direction is constant and the source of sand is an elongated feature at right angles to the wind
direction. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• Hence option(d) is the correct answer.

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Q 19.A
• Karst landscapes lack surface drainage due to the porous nature of the bedrock, which allows water
to infiltrate underground rather than flowing on the surface. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The lack of surface drainage can have significant implications for the local hydrology, as it affects the
availability of surface water resources and can lead to rapid groundwater recharge and discharge.
Additionally, karst landscapes are often vulnerable to issues such as sinkhole formation and groundwater
contamination due to the interconnected nature of underground water flow.
• Stalactites are the sharp, slender, downward-growing pinnacles that hang from the cave-roofs. The
water carries calcium in solution and when this lime-charged water evaporates, it leaves behind the
solidified crystalline calcium carbonate. As moisture drips from the roof it trickles down the stalactite
and drops to the floor where calcium is deposited to form stalagmites. Thus stalactites are an
erosional landform whereas stalagmites are depositional features of Karst landform. Hence statement 2 is
not correct.

Q 20.D
• A canyon is a deep, narrow valley with steep sides. The term “gorge” is often used synonymously with
“canyon,” but a gorge is almost always steeper and narrower than a canyon. The movement of rivers,
the processes of weathering and erosion, and tectonic activity create canyons. The water pressure of a
river can cut deep into a river bed. Sediments from the river bed are carried downstream, creating a deep,
narrow channel.
• Canyons are also formed by tectonic activity. As tectonic plates beneath the Earth’s crust shift and
collide, their movement can change the area’s landscape. Sometimes, tectonic activity causes an area of
the Earth’s crust to rise higher than the surrounding land. This process is called tectonic uplift. Tectonic
uplift can create plateaus and mountains. Rivers and glaciers that cut through these elevated areas
of land create deep canyons.
• Grand Canyon was cut by the Colorado River in the high plateau region of northwestern Arizona, U.S.A.
The Grand Canyon lies in the southwestern portion of the Colorado Plateau and consists essentially of
horizontal layered rocks and lava flows. The Grand Canyon is a product of tectonic uplift. The
Colorado River carved this tectonically uplifted Colorado plateau to form the Grand Canyon.
• Hence option (d) is correct is the correct answer.

Q 21.B
• The basic features of the soil include:
o Parent Material: Soil formation depends upon the texture, structure as well as the mineral and
chemical composition of the rock debris. Nature, rate, and depth of weathering are important
considerations under parent materials. Generally young soils or the lowermost horizon show similarity
with the parent material. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o Climate: Major influence in governing the rate and type of soil formation. The effect of temperature
is to influence the rate of chemical and biological reactions. Precipitation has a major influence in
governing the rate and type of soil formation. In cool climates, bacterial action is relatively slow while
in the tropics, bacteria thrive. The soil of the hot tropical region shows deeper profiles as compared to
the soils of the cold tundra region. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
o Biological Activity: The vegetative cover and organisms that occupy the parent materials from the
start to later stages help in adding organic matter, moisture retention, and nitrogen. Some organic
acids that form during humification aid in decomposing the minerals of the soil's parent
materials. Humus accumulates in cold climates as bacterial growth is low and thus layers of peat
develop in subarctic and tundra climates. Hence, statement 3 is correct. It helps maintain the
fertility of the soil by bringing bases (Calcium, Magnesium) from the lower parts of the soil into
stems and leaves, and then releasing them into the upper soil horizons

Q 22.D
• Statement 1 is not correct: The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. Its average height
is 13 km and extends roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator. The
thickness of the troposphere is greatest at the equator because heat is transported to great heights by strong
convectional currents.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The zone separating the troposphere from the stratosphere is known as the
tropopause. The temperature here is nearly constant, and hence, it is called tropopause.
• Statement 3 is correct: The mesosphere lies above the stratosphere, which extends up to a height of 80
km. The upper limit of mesosphere is known as the mesopause. The ionosphere is located between 80 and
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of meanders. As such, the rivers of the Peninsular Plateau follow more or less straight courses.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Q 33.C
• Tropic of Cancer is an imaginary line, at an angle of 23.50 degrees North from the Equator, that
passes through roughly the middle of India. If you run this imaginary line around Earth, it passes
through 17 countries, India being one of them.
• The Tropic of Cancer passes through eight states in India:
o Gujarat (Jasdan),
o Rajasthan (Kalinjarh),
o Madhya Pradesh (Shajapur),
o Chhattisgarh (Sonhat),
o Jharkhand (Lohardaga),
o West Bengal (Krishnanagar),
o Tripura (Udaipur) and
o Mizoram (Champhai)
• Mahi River is the only river in India that cuts the Tropic of Cancer twice, first in Madhya Pradesh from
where it flows towards Rajasthan and enters Gujarat where it cuts for the second time. Udaipur in Tripura
is the city nearest to the Tropic of Cancer.

• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 34.B
• The International Union for the Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) has identified
certain areas as biodiversity hotspotsHotspots are delineated based on their vegetation, as plants play a
crucial role in determining the primary productivity of an ecosystem.
• India has four biodiversity hotspots. Western Ghats, Along the western coast of India, spanning states
like Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, and Goa and Gujrat. Rich and unique
biodiversity with diverse ecosystems including tropical rainforests, evergreen forests, moist deciduous
forests, and montane grasslands. Home to numerous species of plants and animals found nowhere else on
Earth. Hence option 1 is correct.
• Eastern Himalayas: Eastern part of India, covering states like Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Sikkim, and
parts of West Bengal. Hence option 2 is correct.
• Indo-Burma: Northeastern states of India including parts of Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur,
Mizoram, Nagaland, and Tripura. Hence option 4 is correct.
• Sundaland: Andaman and Nicobar Islands and parts of the Bay of Bengal. Hence option 5 is correct.
• Sundarban and Terrai-Duar are not part of the biodiversity hotspots. Hence options 3, and 6 are not
correct.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

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Q 35.C
• Two major island groups in India are present in the Bay of Bengal and the other in the Arabian Sea. The
Bay of Bengal island groups consist of about 572 islands/islets. These are situated roughly between 6°N-
14°N and 92°E -94°E. The two principal groups of islets include the Ritchie’s archipelago and the
Labyrinth island.
• The Andaman and Nicobar Islands lie in the South-east direction to the mainland of India. Among
these, the Andamans are situated in the north and the Nicobar in the south. Hence statement 3 is
correct.
• Both Andaman and Nicobar are separated by a waterbody which is called the Ten Degree channel.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
• These islands are an elevated portion of submarine mountains. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Some smaller islands are volcanic in origin. Barren Island, the only active volcano in India is situated in
the Andaman Sea. It is a historically active volcano along the N-S-trending volcanic arc extending
between Sumatra and Burma.
• Other Related Information: Once a hill range extending from Myanmar to Indonesia, these picturesque
undulating islands are covered with dense rain-fed, damp, and evergreen forests and endless varieties of
exotic flora and fauna.
• Most of these islands (about 550) are in the Andaman Group, 28 of which are inhabited.
• The smaller Nicobars, comprise some 22 main islands (10 inhabited).
• These islands also boast of freedom fighting days’ historically significant landmarks viz. Cellular Jail,
Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose Island, Viper Island, Hopetown, and Mount Harriet.
• Indigenous people of Andamans were: the Great Andamanese, who collectively represented at least 10
distinct subgroups and languages; the Jarawa: the jungle (or Rutland Jarawa); the Onge; and the
Sentinelese (the most isolated of all the groups).
• The indigenous peoples of the Nicobars include two main groups: the Nicobarese, or Nicobari living
throughout many of the islands; and the Shompen, restricted to the interior of Great Nicobar.
• Port Blair is the capital of the Union Territory of Andaman & Nicobar Islands.

Q 36.D
• The cold, dense water sinks, and once it is removed from the surface, its temperature and salinity remain
unchanged, so it keeps the same characteristics as it moves throughout the ocean as part of the
thermohaline circulation. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The process of thermohaline circulation results in slow water movement between tropics and poles. It
takes hundreds of years for the entire cycle of thermohaline circulation to complete. Hence statement 2 is
not correct.
• The ocean currents are driven by the wind, and since they only involve surface water they only affect
about 10% of the ocean’s volume. However, the deep water ocean currents that are independent of the
wind, and involve water movements in the other 90% of the ocean. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

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Q 37.A
• Recent Context: Rs 58,000-cr Musi River redevelopment poses a significant challenge to the state.
• The river runs in the State of Telangana and is a tributary to the Krishna River. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
• The city of Hyderabad is located on the banks of this river. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• It was previously known as the Muchukunda River and originated in the Anantagiri Hills.
• The Himayat Sagar and Osman Sagar dams are built on this river.

Q 38.A
• Recently, the Union Cabinet approved the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana (PM-
MKSSY). It is a Central Sector Sub-scheme (and not a Centrally Sponsored Scheme) under the
Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada (PMMSY) for the formalization of the fisheries sector and
supporting fisheries micro and small enterprises. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• It aims to gradually formalize the unorganised fisheries sector through the self-registration of fishers,
fish farmers, and supportive workers under a National Fisheries Sector Digital Platform (NFDP).
Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The scheme intends to benefit fishermen, fish (aquaculture) farmers, fish workers, vendors, and other
stakeholders including micro and small enterprises, cooperatives, self-help groups, and other entities
engaged in fisheries value chains. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q 39.B
• The Himalayan drainage system has evolved through a long geological history. It mainly includes the
Ganga, the Indus, and the Brahmaputra river basins. Since these are fed both by melting of snow and
precipitation, rivers of this system are perennial.
• These rivers pass through the giant gorges carved out by the erosional activity carried on
simultaneously with the uplift of the Himalayas. Because of that most of the Himalayan rivers are
antecedent in nature.
• The Satluj River:
o The Satluj rises from the Manasarovar-Rakas Lakes in western Tibet at a height of 4,570m within
80 km of the source of the Indus.
o It is an antecedent river. Hence It takes a north-westerly course up to the Shipki La on the Tibet-
Himachal Pradesh boundary.
o It cuts deep gorges where it pierces the Great Himalayas and the other Himalayan ranges. Before
entering the Punjab plain, it cuts a gorge in Naina Devi Dhar, where the famous Bhakra dam has
been constructed. After entering the plain at Rupnagar (Ropar), it turns westwards and is joined by
the Beas at Harike. From near Ferozepur to Fazilka it forms the boundary between India and
Pakistan for nearly 120 km. During its onward journey, it receives the collective drainage of the
Ravi, Chenab and Jhelum rivers.
o It joins the Indus a few kilometers above Mithankot.
o Out of its total length of 1,450 km, it flows for 1,050 km in Indian territory.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 40.A
• Seismic waves are caused by the release of energy, generating waves that travel in all directions. These
waves travel through the Earth's layers and result from earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, magma
movement, large landslides, and large human-made explosions.
• Types of Seismic Waves: Earthquake waves are basically of two types — body waves and surface
waves.
o Body waves are generated due to the release of energy at the focus and move in all directions,
traveling through the body of the earth. These body waves interact with the surface rocks and generate
a new set of waves called surface waves.
o Surface waves move along the surface. The velocity of waves changes as they travel through materials
with different densities. The denser the material, the higher the velocity. Their direction also
changes as they reflect or refract when encountering materials with different densities. Hence,
statement 1 is not correct.
• Primary Waves (P-waves): Primary waves are called so because they are the fastest among the seismic
waves and are recorded first on the seismograph. P-waves are also called longitudinal waves because the
displacement of the medium is in the same direction as, or the opposite direction to, (parallel to) the

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direction of propagation of the wave. They are also known as compressional waves because they produce
compression and rarefaction when traveling through a medium. P-waves are also called pressure waves
because they produce increases and decreases in pressure in the medium. Therefore, P-waves can travel
through solid, liquid, and gaseous mediums. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Secondary Waves (S-waves): Secondary waves (recorded second on the seismograph) or S-waves are
also called transverse waves, shear waves, or distortional waves. Transverse or shear waves mean that the
direction of vibrations of the particles in the medium is perpendicular to the direction of propagation of
the wave. These waves are of high frequency and possess slightly higher destructive power compared to P
waves. S-waves cannot pass through fluids (liquids and gases) as fluids do not support shear stresses.
Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Q 41.B
• The "Weimar Triangle" is a regional alliance of France, Germany, and Poland created in 1991 in the
German city of Weimar.
• The group is intended to promote co-operation between the three countries in cross-border and
European issues.
• The governments of Poland, France and Germany vowed Monday to make Europe a security and defence
power with a greater ability to back Ukraine, amid concerns that former U.S. President Donald Trump
might return to the White House and allow Russia to expand its aggression on the continent.
• The Foreign Ministers of the three countries recently met in the Paris suburb of La Celle-Saint-
Cloud to talk about Ukraine, amid other issues.They discussed reviving the so-called Weimar Triangle.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 42.B
• The systems developing in the mid and high latitudes, beyond the tropics are called the middle latitudes or
extratropical cyclones. The passage of the front causes abrupt changes in the weather conditions over the
area in the middle and high latitudes. Extratropical cyclones form along the polar front. Extratropical
cyclones have a clear frontal system which is not present in tropical cyclones. Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
• Extratropical cyclones have cold air at their core and derive their energy from the release of potential
energy when cold and warm air masses interact.
• They cover a larger area and can originate over the land and sea. Whereas tropical cyclones originate only
over the seas and on reaching the land they dissipate. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Extratropical cyclones move from west to east but tropical cyclones move from east to west. Hence
statement 3 is correct.

Q 43.A

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• Mount Vesuvius is an Active Volcanic Mountain that rises above the Bay of Naples on the plain of
Campania in Italy (Europe). Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• It is a strato-volcano. It erupted in 79 AD and destroyed the city of Pompeii of the Roman Empire. It is a
"humpbacked" peak, consisting of a large cone partially encircled by the steep rim of a summit caldera
caused by the collapse of an earlier (and originally much higher) structure called Mount Somma. The
volcano is part of several volcanos forming the Campanian Volcanic Arc.
o It was formed as a result of the collision of two tectonic plates, the African and the Eurasian. The
African plate was subducted at a convergent boundary beneath the Eurasian. As the water-saturated
sediments of the African oceanic plate were pushed to hotter depths inside the planet, the water boiled
off and lowered the melting point of the upper mantle enough to partially melt the rocks. Because
magma is less dense than the solid rock around it, it was pushed upward. Finding a weak spot at the
Earth's surface, it broke through, thus forming the volcano.

Q 44.B
• Prairies are flat, fertile lands dominated by grasses. Prairie grasses, like these in the U.S. state of
Colorado, hold soil firmly in place, so erosion is minimal. Prairie grass roots are very good at reaching
water more than a meter deep, and they can live for a very long time. Grains are a type of grass, so the
prairie grassland is perfect for growing grains like wheat, rye, and oats.
• The prairies in North America formed as the Rocky Mountains grew taller and taller. They grew
taller and taller because of plate tectonics, the process where a small number of plates on the
Earth’s crust interact with each other. Once the mountains got tall enough, they blocked significant
amounts of rain from falling on the east side of the mountains, creating what is called a rain shadow. This
rain shadow prevented trees from growing extensively east of the mountains, and the result was the prairie
landscape. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• The North American prairie is ideal for agriculture. In fact, of the two million acres of North American
prairie, less than one percent is not used for agricultural development

Q 45.D
• Based on these macro variations, India can be divided into the following physiographic divisions:
• The Northern and North-eastern Mountains.
• The Northern Plain.
• The Peninsular Plateau
• The Indian Desert
• The Coastal Plains
• The Islands.

• The Peninsular Plateau: Above the river plains up to an elevation of 600-900 m is the irregular triangle
known as the Peninsular Plateau. The Delhi Ridge in the northwest (an extension of the Aravalis), the
Rajmahal Hills in the east, the Gir range in the west, and the Cardamom Hills in the south constitute the
outer extent of the Peninsular plateau.

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• The Peninsular India is made up of a series of flatland plateaus such as the Hazaribagh plateau, the
Palamu plateau, the Ranchi plateau, the Malwa plateau, the Coimbatore plateau, and the Karnataka
plateau, etc.
• Parts of the Peninsular plateau:
o The Deccan Plateau
o The Central Highlands
o The Northeastern Plateau
✓ The Meghalaya Plateau is part of the Northeastern Plateau. It is believed that due to the force
exerted by the northeastward movement of the Indian plate at the time of the Himalayan origin, a
huge fault was created between the Rajmahal hills and the Meghalaya plateau. Today, the
Meghalaya and Karbi Anglong plateaus stand detached from the main Peninsular Block.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 46.C
• The world's distribution of earthquakes coincides very closely with that of volcanoes. Regions of
greatest seismicity are Circum-Pacific areas, with the epicenters and the most frequent occurrences along
the Pacific Ring of Fire. It is said that as many as 70 percent of earthquakes occur in the Circum-Pacific
belt. Another 20 percent of earth-quakes take place in the Mediterranean-Himalayan belt including Asia
Minor, the Himalayas and parts of North-western China. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Volcano and Earthquake can take place both at Divergent and convergent plate boundaries.
Earthquakes and volcanoes are common and magma (molten rock) rises from the Earth's mantle to the
surface, solidifying to create a new oceanic crust. The Mid-Atlantic Ridge is an example of divergent
plate boundaries. St. Helena is one of the famous volcanoes in Mid-Atlantic Ridge. Similarly the great
african rift valley which is formed due to divergent plate boundaries is epicenter of many earthquakes.
Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 47.A
• Recently, the Government of India has decided to issue Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs) in tranches
for 2023–24. These bonds are issued by the Reserve Bank of India on behalf of the Government of
India and are sold through Scheduled Commercial banks (except Small Finance Banks, Payment
Banks, and Regional Rural Banks), Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited, Clearing Corporation of
India Limited, designated post offices, and the National Stock Exchange of India Limited and Bombay
Stock Exchange Limited, either directly or through agents. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The first SGB scheme was launched by the Government in 2015, under Gold Monetisation Scheme. Its
main objective was to reduce the demand for physical gold. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• To incentivize the purchase of these bonds, the investors will be compensated at a fixed rate of 2.50% per
annum, payable semi-annually on the nominal value (face value or stated value).
• Further, the capital gains tax arising on the redemption of SGB to an individual is exempted.

Q 48.D
• Alluvial soil is formed by depositing sediments brought from the mountains. The new alluvium is called
Khadar while older deposited one is called Bangar. Khadar is renewed annually with fresh floods. They
are generally rich in potash but poor in phosphorous. Alluvial soils are intensively cultivated. Hence
statement 1 is not correct.
• Alluvial soils are most widespread in the northern plains and the covers about 40 percent of the total area
of the country.Through a narrow corridor in Rajasthan, they extend into the plains of Gujarat. In the
Peninsular region, they are found in deltas of the east coast and in the river valleys.These soils are loamier
and more clayey in the lower and middle Ganga plain and the Brahmaputra valley.The sand content
decreases from the west to east. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Q 49.C
• India is abundant in its fauna, encompassing approximately 90,000 animal species. The country is
home to about 2,000 species of birds, comprising 13% of the global avian population. Its aquatic
ecosystems harbor 2,546 species of fish, representing nearly 12% of the world's stock. Additionally, India
shares between 5 and 8 percent of the world's amphibians, reptiles, and mammals. This rich biodiversity
underscores India's ecological significance.
• The elephants are the most majestic animals among the mammals. They are found in the hot wet
forests of Assam, Karnataka, and Kerala. Hence statement 1 is correct.
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• One-horned rhinoceroses are the animals living in swampy and marshy lands of Assam and West
Bengal. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Arid areas of the Rann of Kachchh and the Thar Desert are the habitat for wild ass and camels
respectively. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q 50.C
• Recent Context: The union government has raised the authorised capital of FCI from 10,000 crores to
21,000 crores to bolster its operational capabilities and fulfil its mandate effectively.
o Authorized capital, also known as nominal or registered capital, refers to the maximum amount of
share capital a company is permitted to issue as outlined in its Memorandum of Association (MoA).
The company cannot issue shares beyond this specified amount.
• Food Corporation of India (FCI):
o Public Sector Undertaking under the Department of Food & Public Distribution, Ministry of
Consumer Affairs, Food, and Public Distribution. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o Established in 1965 under the Food Corporation Act 1964 to address grain shortages, especially in
wheat.
o Operates alongside the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), which recommends
fair prices to farmers.
o Main responsibilities include purchasing, storing, transporting, distributing, and selling food
grains and other essential food items. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q 51.C
• A biosphere reserve is a designated area that aims to conserve biodiversity while promoting sustainable
development through scientific research, monitoring, education, and community involvement. These
reserves encompass three interconnected zones: a core, a buffer zone surrounding the core area where
limited human activity is allowed to facilitate ecosystem protection, and a transition zone.
• There are 18 biosphere reserves in India. They protect larger areas of natural habitat than a typical
national park or animal sanctuary and often include one or more national parks or reserves, along with
buffer zones.
• Eighteen biosphere reserves have been set up in the country to protect flora and fauna. Twelve of the
eighteen biosphere reserves are a part of the World Network of Biosphere Reserves, based on
the UNESCO Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme, the Sundarbans Nanda Devi, the Gulf of
Mannar, the Nilgiri, Nokrek, Great Nicobar, Simlipal, Pachmarhi, Achanakmar-Amarkantak,
Agasthyamalai, Kangchendzonga and Panna.
• Dibru Saikhowa, Seshachalam, Kachchh, Cold Desert, Dihang-Dibang, and Manas are not part of the
World Network of Biosphere Reserves.

• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 52.C
• Recently, in 2023 the Dhordo village in the Kutch district of Gujarat was awarded as the Best
Tourism Village by the United Nations World Tourism Organization (UNWTO).
• Dhordo is a village located within the vast expanse of the Great Rann of Kutch. It is renowned worldwide
for hosting the annual Rann Utsav, a vibrant cultural festival that showcases the region's traditional arts,
music, and crafts.
• The recognition of Dhordo as the "Best Tourism Village" has significant implications for the region's
economy.
• The village promotes “Bhunga” houses, local handicrafts, Rogan art, “Ran Utsav,” Tent City, and
UNESCO-declared cultural phenomenon of Garba.
• In this year, Gujrat state tableaux was about ' Dhordo: A Global Icon Of Gujarat’s Border Tourism '.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
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Q 53.A
• The laterite soils develop in areas with high temperatures and high rainfall. These are the result of intense
leaching due to tropical rains. Red laterite soils in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Kerala are more
suitable for tree crops like cashew nut.
o These soils are poor in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate, and calcium, while iron oxide and potash
are in excess. Hence, laterites are not suitable for the cultivation of paddy. Hence pair 1 is not
correctly matched.
• Peaty and Marshy Soils: Peaty soils originate in humid regions as a result of the accumulation of large
amounts of organic matter in the soils. These soils contain a considerable amount of soluble salts and 10-
40 percent of organic matter. They are found in areas of heavy rainfall and high humidity, where there is a
good growth of vegetation.
o The peaty soils are black, heavy, and highly acidic. They are deficient in potash and phosphate. Most
of the peaty soils are underwater during the rainy season but as soon as the rain ceases, they are put
under paddy cultivation. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Black soils are also known as the ‘Regur Soil’ or the ‘Black Cotton Soil’ as prominent for cotton
cultivation. Black soil covers most of the Deccan Plateau which includes parts of Maharashtra, Madhya
Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, and some parts of Tamil Nadu. In the upper reaches of the Godavari
and the Krishna, and the northwestern part of the Deccan Plateau. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.

Q 54.A
• Recent Context: A new study reveals that an area the size of France is threatened by AFR100 initiative
i.e. African Forest Landscape Restoration Initiative due to inappropriate forest restoration in the form
of tree-planting. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• Launched in: 2015, at COP21 of UNFCCC in Paris.
• Launched by: African Union Development Agency (AUDA-NEPAD), World Resources Institute
(WRI), World Bank and Germany’s Federal Ministry for Economic Cooperation and Development
(BMZ).
• Aim: To restore 100 million hectares of land in Africa by 2030 and to accelerate restoration to enhance
food security, increase climate change resilience and mitigation, and combat rural poverty.
• Coverage: 34 countries and 130 million hectares as of now.
• Forest and Landscape Restoration (FLR), a process of regaining ecological functionality and
enhancing human well-being across deforested or degraded forest landscapes. Restoring the whole
landscape to meet the present and future needs of people and biodiversity.

Q 55.C
• Coniferous trees are well adapted to withstand the inhospitable environment of Siberian or cool
temperate continental-type climate. These are found in Eurasia and North America and richest
source of softwood. Softwood is used in building construction, furniture, matches, paper and pulp, rayon,
and other branches of the chemical industry. The world's greatest softwood producers are the U.S.S.R., the
U.S.A, Canada, and Fenoscandian countries (Norway, Finland, and Sweden). Hence statement 1 is
correct.
• Characteristics of coniferous forests:
o Coniferous forests are of moderate density: These are uniform and grow straight and tall, up to a
height of about 100 feet.
o Almost all confers are evergreen: There is no annual replacement of leaves. The same leaf remains
on the tree for as long as five years. Food is stored in the trunks, and the bark is thick to protect the
trunk from excessive cold.
o Conifers are conical in shape as an adaption to survive harsh climates. The sloping branches prevent
snow accumulation.
o Leaves are small, thick, leathery, and needle-shaped: This is to control excessive transpiration. The
leaf surface is reduced to the minimum, as transpiration can be quite rapid in the warm summer due to
intense continental heating. Hence statement 3 is correct.
o Little undergrowth: The podzolized soils of the coniferous forests are poor. They are excessively
leached and very acidic. The evergreen leaves provide little leaf-fall for humus formation and the
rate of decomposition of the leathery 'needles' in such low temperatures is slow. The absence of
direct sunlight and the short duration of summer contribute to sparse undergrowth.
• There are four major species in the coniferous forests:
o Pine, e.g., white pine, red pine, Scots pine, Jack pine, lodgepole pine.

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o Fir, e.g. Douglas fir and balsam fir.

o Spruce.
o Larch. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q 56.D
• The steppe type of climate in the northern hemisphere receives extreme temperatures in summer and
winter seasons due to continentality. However the steppe type of climate in the southern hemisphere
receives moderate temperatures in summer and winter seasons due to its proximity with sea. Hence
statement 1 is not correct.
• Regions of Steppe climate are temperate grassland. In the northern hemisphere, a steppe type of climate
can be found in Eurasia(Steppe) and continental Europe. In the southern hemisphere, a steppe type of
climate can be found in Argentina(Pampas) and South Africa(Veld). Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Q 57.B
• Statement 1 is not correct: The theory of plate tectonics was proposed by Mckenzie, Parker and Morgan
in 1967. Harry Hess is widely credited with proposing the theory of seafloor spreading.
• Statement 2 is correct: According to this theory a tectonic plate, also called a lithospheric plate, is a
massive irregularly-shaped slab of solid rock. A plate may be composed of both continental and oceanic
crust. It is referred to as the continental plate or oceanic plate depending on which of the two occupy a
larger portion of the plate.
• Statement 3 is correct: Plates move horizontally over the asthenosphere (mantle) as rigid units. The slow
movement of the hot, softened mantle that lies below the rigid plates is the driving force behind the plate
movement.

Q 58.A
• The warm temperate eastern margin climate is found on the eastern margins of continents in warm
temperate latitudes, just outside the tropics. It is typified by a warm moist summer and a cool, dry winter.
The temperature is strongly modified by maritime influence. Occasionally, the penetration of cold air
from the continental interiors may bring down the temperature to the freezing point. The relative
humidity is a little high in mid-summer when the heat becomes oppressive. Rainfall is more than
moderate, anything from 25 inches to 60 inches. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• This type of climate is found in the south-eastern U.S.A. bordering the Gulf of Mexico, the Parana-
Paraguay-Uruguay basin, south-eastern Australia, The Natal region of southeastern Africa, and the
Nanking region of China. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• The natural vegetation of this type of climate is luxuriant. The lowlands carry both evergreen broad-
leaved forests and deciduous trees. On the highlands, are various species of conifers such as pines and
cypresses which are important softwoods. This region is home to valuable timber species. In eastern
Australia, the most important are eucalyptus trees. From the forests of south-eastern Brazil, eastern
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Paraguay, and north-eastern Argentina come valuable warm temperate timbers such as the Parana pine,
the quebracho, and wild yerba mate trees. In the Natal region, the warm Mozambique current encourages
heavy precipitation and many species of palm trees thrive. The highlands yield extensive forests of
chestnuts, ironwood, and blackwoods. The forests of China and southern Japan include oak, camphor,
camelia, and magnolia.
• The lowest form of vegetation, mosses, lichens, and sedges is tundra vegetation and is found in Arctic
or Polar climates. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Q 59.B
• Ayodhya is situated on the banks of the Sarayu River in the Indian state of Uttar Pradesh. (not on
Gomti) The Sarda or Saryu river rises in the Milam glacier in the Nepal Himalayas where it is known as
the Goriganga. Along the Indo-Nepal border, it is called Kali or Chauk, where it joins the Ghaghara(a
major left-bank tributary of the Ganga River). The Gomti, Gumti or Gomati River is a tributary of the
Ganges. Lucknow is located on the Gomti River. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Madurai Is situated on the Vaigai River (Not on Kaveri). The Vaigai is a river in the Tamil Nadu state
of southern India; it passes through the towns of Theni, Madurai, and Ramanathapuram. It originates in
Varusanadu Hills, the Periyar Plateau of the Western Ghats range. Hence pair 4 is not correctly
matched.
• Ujjain city situated on the eastern bank of the Shipra River, Ujjain was the most prominent city on the
Malwa plateau of central India for much of its history. It was the capital of the ancient Avanti kingdom,
one of the sixteen Mahājanapadas. The Shipra River rises in the North of Dhar district,(MP) and
flows north across the Malwa Plateau to join the Chambal River at the MP-Rajasthan boundary in
Mandsaur district. It is one of the sacred rivers in Hinduism. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Srinagar lies in the Kashmir Valley along the banks of the Jhelum River, and the shores of Dal Lake and
Anchar Lakes, between the Hari Parbat and Shankaracharya hills. The Jhelum originates at Verinag. It is a
tributary of the Chenab River and Flows through Wular Lake. Hence pair 3 correctly matched.

Q 60.B

• The aforementioned lakes are part of the East African Lakes. The majority of the East African lakes lie
within the East African Rift System, which forms a part of a series of massive fissures in the Earth’s
crust extending northward from the Zambezi River valley through eastern and northeastern Africa
and the Red Sea to the Jordan River valley in southwestern Asia.
• Lake Turkana formerly known as Lake Rudolf, is a lake in the Kenyan Rift Valley, in northern
Kenya, with its far northern end crossing into Ethiopia. Lake Turkana is the most saline lake in East
Africa and the largest desert lake in the world. Its only perennial tributary is the Omo River, which
flows from Ethiopia. Having no outlet, the lake’s waters are brackish.
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• Lake Victoria is the largest African Great Lake by area, the world’s largest tropical lake, and the
second-largest freshwater body in the world. The shoreline is shared by Kenya (6%), Uganda (43%),
and Tanzania (51%). Its waters fill a shallow depression in the center of the great plateau that stretches
between the Western and Eastern Rift Valleys. It is also the chief reservoir of the river Nile.
• Lake Tanganyika, is the second largest of the lakes of eastern Africa. It is the longest freshwater lake
in the world (410 miles [660 km]) and the second deepest (4,710 feet [1,436 metres]) after Lake
Baikal in Russia. It forms the boundary between Tanzania and the Democratic Republic of the Congo
(DRC) and part of the boundary between Burundi and the DRC as well as part of the boundary between
Tanzania and Zambia. It occupies the southern end of the Western Rift Valley, and for most of its length,
the land rises steeply from its shores. Its waters tend to be brackish.
• Lake Malawi/Lake Nyasa is an African Great Lake – the southernmost lake in the East African Rift
system. It is the fifth-largest freshwater lake in the world (by volume) and the third-largest in Africa
(behind Lake Victoria and Lake Tanganyika). It lies between Mozambique, Malawi and Tanzania. The
largest river feeding the lake is the Ruhuhu River, which flows south from Tanzania, while the renowned
Shire River serves as the lake’s primary outlet.
o Lake Malawi is classified as a meromictic lake. This means that the layers of water (surface and
deep waters) do not mix, unlike the more common holomitic lakes where the physical mixing of
the layers occurs at least once a year. This stable “stratification” of the waters creates radically
different environments for the lake’s organisms as the deeper waters are almost entirely without
oxygen and considerably cooler.
• Looking at the map it is clear that the correct order from North to South is Lake Turkana, Lake Victoria,
Lake Tanganyika, and Lake Nyasa/Lake Malawi. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 61.D
• A waterfall is any point in a river or stream where water flows over a vertical drop or a series of steep
drops. Some important waterfalls in India:
Waterfall River Location
Kunchikal Varahi Shimoga district, Karnataka
Dudhsagar Mandovi Karnataka and Goa
Jog Falls Sharavati Shimoga district, Karnataka
Hundru Subarnarekha Ranchi district, Jharkhand
Chuliya Chambal Rajasthan
Dhuandhar Narmada Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh
• Hence all the pairs are correctly matched.

Q 62.B
• The Labrador Current is a cold ocean current that originates in the North Atlantic Ocean. Its formation is
closely linked to the broader circulation patterns of the North Atlantic Ocean. It forms primarily due to
melting water coming from the Arctic region.

• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 63.D
• India's vegetation is influenced by various factors, which can be categorized into two main groups:
Factors related to location and relief, and factors related to air pressure and winds.
• Altitude: Temperature Decreases with Height. Due to the thinner air at higher elevations, mountainous
areas tend to be cooler than plains. For instance, Agra and Darjeeling are situated at the same latitude, yet
experience contrasting January temperatures of 16°C and 4°C, respectively. This temperature variation
significantly impacts the vegetation diversity between the two regions.
• Agra, located on the plains, experiences a hot and dry climate characterized by relatively high
temperatures throughout the year. This climatic condition supports vegetation adapted to arid or semi-
arid environments. On the other hand, Darjeeling, situated at a higher altitude in the Himalayan
foothills, enjoys a cooler and more temperate climate.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 64.C
• India shares its land boundaries with Pakistan and Afghanistan in the northwest, China (Tibet), Nepal
and Bhutan in the north, and Myanmar and Bangladesh in the east.
• Our southern neighbours across the sea consist of the two island countries, namely Sri Lanka and
Maldives.
o Sri Lanka is separated from India by a narrow channel of sea formed by the Palk Strait and the Gulf of
Mannar, while Maldives Islands are situated to the south of the Lakshadweep Islands.
• Name of the country: Length of the border (in km):
o Bangladesh: 4,096.7
o China: 3,488
o Pakistan: 3,323
o Nepal: 1,751
o Myanmar: 1,643
o Bhutan: 699
o Afghanistan: 106

• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 65.C
• Rivers of the northern plain Show a Dendritic river pattern. The drainage pattern resembling the
branches of a tree is known as “dendritic”.The pattern develops in areas where the rock beneath the
stream has no particular structure and can be eroded equally easily in all directions. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
• When the primary tributaries of rivers flow parallel to each other and secondary tributaries join them at
right angles, the pattern is known as ‘trellis’. Trellis drainage develops in folded topography where hard
and soft rocks exist parallel to each other. E.g. The rivers in the upper part of the Himalayan region;
Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q 66.A
• The Satluj originates in the ‘Raksas tal’ near Mansarovar at an altitude of 4,555 m in Tibet where it is
known as Langchen Khambab. It flows almost parallel to the Indus for about 400 km before entering India
and emerges from a gorge at Rupar. It passes through the Shipki La on the Himalayan ranges and
enters the Punjab plains. It is a significant river as it feeds the canal system of the Bhakra Nangal
project (Bhakra Nangal Dam is a concrete gravity dam on the Satluj River in Bhakra Village in Bilaspur
district, Himachal Pradesh. The dam forms the Gobind Sagar reservoir). Hence Statements 1 and 2 are
correct.
• The River Beas meets the Satluj near Harike(not the Ravi). The Ravi is the tributary of the
Chenab. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Q 67.B
• The islands of the Arabian Sea include Lakshadweep and Minicoy.
• The entire group of islands is broadly divided by the Eleventh-degree channel, north of which is the
Amini Island and to the south of the Cannanore Island.
• These are scattered between 8°N-12°N and 71°E -74°E longitude.
• These islands are located at a distance of 280 km-480 km off the Kerala coast.
• The entire island group is built of coral deposits. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The entire group of islands is broadly divided by the Eleven-degree channel, north of which is Amini
Island, and to the south of Cannanore Island.
• The Islands of this archipelago have storm beaches consisting of unconsolidated pebbles, shingles,
cobbles, and boulders on the eastern seaboard.
• The maritime boundary between the Maldives and India(Lakshadweep) runs through the Eight-
degree channel, locally known as Addigiri Kandu. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Saddle Peak or Saddle Hill is located on North Andaman Island in India's Andaman and the
Nicobar Islands. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Q 68.C
• Maithon Dam is located in Jharkhand Constructed on the Barakar River (a tributary of Damodar
River) for the main purpose of Flood control. Not on the Godavari River Which flows through
Maharashtra Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
• Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is a masonry dam across the Krishna River at the border between Palnadu
district in Andhra Pradesh and Nalgonda district in Telangana.
• The Gandhi Sagar Dam is one of the four major dams built on India's Chambal River. The dam is
located in the Mandsaur, districts of the state of Madhya Pradesh. Hence option (c) is the correct
answer.
o The Chambal River rises in the Vindhya Range at an elevation of 853 metres, 15 kilometres west-
southwest of the town of Mhow, near Indore. It flows north-northeast through Madhya Pradesh, runs
for a time through Rajasthan, and then forms the boundary between Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh
before turning southeast to join the Yamuna River in the state of Uttar Pradesh.
• Tehri Dam is the tallest dam in India. It is a multi-purpose rock and earth-fill embankment dam on the
Bhagirathi River Garhwal district in Uttarakhand.
o The headwaters of the Bhagirathi River are formed at Gaumukh at the foot of the Gangotri glacier. At
Devprayag, the Bhagirathi River converges with the Alaknanda River and travels onward as the
Ganges River.

Q 69.D
• The warn Temperate Western Margin (Mediterranean) Climate regions are entirely found in the western
portion of continental masses, between 30° and 45° north and south of the equator. The basic cause of this
type of climate is the shifting of the wind belts. It is found in Europe and Africa around the Mediterranean
Sea, central Chile, the California region of the U.S.A., the south-western tip of Africa, and southern and
southwest Australia.

• This climate has the following features:

o A dry, warm summer with off-shore trades- In summer when the sun is overhead, the influence of
the westerlies is shifted a little polewards. Rain-bearing winds are therefore not likely to reach the
Mediterranean lands. The prevailing trade winds are off-shore and there is practically no rain. The air
is dry, the heat is intense and the relative humidity is low.
o A concentration of rainfall in winter with on-shore Westerlies- This region receives rainfall in
winter when westerlies shift equatorwards. In the northern hemisphere, the prevailing on-shore
Westerlies bring much cyclonic rain from the Atlantic to the countries bordering the Mediterranean
Sea.
o Natural Vegetation is not luxuriant. Trees with small broad leaves are widely spaced and never very
tall. Though there are many branches they are short and carry few leaves. The absence of shade is a
distinct feature of Mediterranean lands.
o Orchard farming is a distinct feature of the Mediterranean climate region. Viticulture is by tradition a
Mediterranean occupation and the regions bordering the Mediterranean Sea account for three-quarters
of the world's production of wine.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 70.D
• Western Ghats are locally known by different names such as Sahyadri in Maharashtra, Nilgiri
hills in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, and Anaimalai hills and Cardamom hills in Kerala.
• The Western Ghats are comparatively higher in elevation and more continuous than the Eastern
Ghats.
• Their average elevation is about 1,500 m with the height increasing from north to south.
• ‘Anaimudi’ (2,695 m), the highest peak of the Western Ghats is located on the Anaimalai hills of
the Western Ghats followed by Dodabetta (2,637 m) on the Nilgiri hills. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
• Most of the Peninsular rivers have their origin in the Western Ghats i.e. the Kaveri, the Krishna, etc.
• Eastern Ghats comprising the discontinuous and low hills are highly eroded by rivers such as the
Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna, the Kaveri, etc. Some of the important ranges include the
Javadi Hills, the Palconda Range, the Nallamala Hills, the Mahendragiri Hills, etc.
• The Mahendragiri is the highest peak of the eastern ghats. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Eastern and the Western Ghats meet each other at the Nilgiri hills. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q 71.D
• The temperature of the troposphere decreases with increase in height of altitude. However
temperature of stratosphere increases with increase in height. Hence statement I is not correct
• The temperature usually declines with increasing altitude in the troposphere because the troposphere is
mostly heated through energy transfer from the surface. Thus, the lowest part of the troposphere (i.e. the
surface of the Earth) is typically the warmest section of the troposphere, which promotes vertical mixing.
Hence statement II is correct.

• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 72.B
• Various types of vegetation thrive across our country, encompassing a diverse range of ecosystems.
These include Tropical Evergreen Forests, Tropical Deciduous Forests, Tropical Thorn Forests and
shrubs, Montane Forests, and Mangrove Forests.
• Tropical Deciduous Forests are the most widespread forests of India. They are also called the monsoon
forests and spread over the region receiving rainfall between 200 cm and 70 cm. Trees of this forest type
shed their leaves for about six to eight weeks in dry summer.
• Forests based on water availability are categorized into moist and dry deciduous types. Moist deciduous
forests thrive in regions receiving rainfall ranging from 200 to 100 cm. These forests are predominantly
found in the eastern part of the country, including northeastern states, along the Himalayan foothills,
Jharkhand, West Odisha, Chhattisgarh, and on the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats.
• Teak stands out as the most dominant species within moist deciduous forests. Other commercially
significant species found in these forests include bamboo, sal, Shisham, sandalwood, khair, Kusum,
Arjun, and mulberry.

• The dry deciduous forests are found in areas having rainfall between 100 cm and 70 cm. These forests
are found in the rainier parts of the Peninsular Plateau and the plains of Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.
There are open stretches, in which teak, sal, peepal, and neem grow. A large part of this region has been
cleared for cultivation and some parts are used for grazing. In these forests, the common animals found
are lions, tigers, pigs, deer, and elephants. A huge variety of birds, lizards, snakes, and tortoises are also
found here.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 73.A
• A tropical cyclone is a rapidly rotating storm system characterized by a low-pressure center and a closed
low-level atmospheric circulation.
• Essential conditions for the formation of tropical cyclones:
o Large and continuous supply of warm and moist air that can release enormous latent heat.
o Strong Coriolis force that can prevent the filling of low pressure at the center.
o Unstable conditions through the troposphere that create local disturbances around which a cyclone
develops.
o Finally, the absence of a strong vertical wind wedge, disturbs the vertical transport of latent heat.
• Coriolis Force: The Coriolis force is a fictitious force caused by the Earth’s rotation. It is responsible for
deflecting winds towards the right in the northern hemisphere and towards the left in the southern
hemisphere. This is also known as 'Ferrel’s Law'. The Coriolis force is absent at the equator. So, the
absence of the Coriolis force near the equator prohibits the formation of tropical cyclones between
0°-5° latitude.
• Hence both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation
for Statement-I.

Q 74.B
• Recent Context: Recently, a book ‘10 Indian Languages and How They Came to Be’ was published that
traced the evolution, transformation and development of Santhali language.
• It is the predominant language of the Santhals. Santhal is India’s largest tribal community and are also
refereed as Santoor.
• Native speakers: Majority of its speakers are spread across 4 states with about 44% in Jharkhand
followed by West Bengal, Odisha and Bihar. Besides India, they are also found in Nepal and Bangladesh.
• 2011 Census: It recorded about 7.3 million speakers, an increase from 6.4 million of 2001 Census.
• Family: Austro-Asiatic language.
• Literature: Ol Chiki is also known as Ol Cemet', Ol Ciki, Ol or the Santhali alphabet. The first attempts
to write were made in the 19th century with scripts like Bangla, Devanagari, Odia and Roman.
• Jeremiah Phillips, an American missionary, devised a writing system for Santhali using the Bangla
script. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Ol Chiki (Alchiki) script: It was devised by Pandit Raghunath Murmu (Guru Gomke) in 1925 which
used signs and symbols from their environment like hills, rivers, trees, plough, and sickle. Hence
statement 2 is correct.
• Recognition: It was included in the 8th Schedule in 2003 and is an additional official language in
Jharkhand and West Bengal.

Q 75.B
• Hori Habba, also known as Hatti Habba, Kobbari Hori Competition is a rural sport related with bull
catching in which hundreds of trained and decorated draught cattle and bulls are made to run through
huge crowds.
• Catchers try to subdue the cattle and snatch away prizes such as copra, cash, gift items tied to them.
• The sports is practiced mainly in Shivamogga, Haveri and Uttara Kannada districts of the Indian state of
Karnataka during the Deepavali festival.
• It was in news recently due to death of 19 year youth during the competition.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 76.D
• Tropical Monsoon Climate has on shore wet monsoon in the summer and off shore dry monsoon in the
winter. It is characterized by three distinct seasons i.e summer, winter and rainy season.Hence statement
1 is not correct.
27 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

• The natural vegetation in the tropical monsoon climate depends on rainfall in the summer season. Trees
are normally deciduous because of the marked dry period, during which they shed their leaves to
withstand the drought. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 77.D
• Recent Context: Google LLC has recently introduced Gemma, latest open artificial intelligence (AI)
model.
• Gemma is a family of open-source AI models developed by Google DeepMind.
• Its name is derived from the Latin word ‘gemma,’ which translates to precious stone.]
• It has been built using the same research and technology used in Gemini models by Google.
Gemma is being offered in 2 model sizes, Gemma 2B and Gemma 7B, which have been released with pre-
trained and instruction-tuned variants.
• Google also noted that both models are lightweight enough to run directly on a developer's laptop
or desktop computer.
• Hence both the statements are not correct.

Q 78.A
• The Earth can be divided in one of two ways: mechanically or chemically.
o Mechanically, which refers to the study of liquid states, it can be divided into the lithosphere,
asthenosphere, mesospheric mantle, outer core, and inner core.
o However, chemically or by composition, which is the more popular of the two, it can be divided into
the crust, the mantle (which can be subdivided into the upper and lower mantle), and the core – which
can also be subdivided into the outer core, and inner core.
• Sources to study the Earth’s interior can be divided into two parts:
o Direct sources:
✓ Surface rock
✓ Volcanoes
✓ Mining Projects
✓ Drilling Projects
✓ Deep Ocean Drilling Project
✓ Integrated Ocean Drilling Project
o Indirect sources:
✓ Temperature and pressure variation
✓ Seismic activities
✓ Meteorites
✓ Gravitation
✓ Magnetic field
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 79.A
• When the soil is completely saturated with water the individual particles are almost suspended in the
water and move easily over one another and over the underlying rock. The soil acts like a liquid and a
soil-flow or mud-flow occurs. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• In arid regions, a mantle of weathered debris may become saturated with rainwater after a storm and flow
downslope as a semi-liquid mass. In temperate and tundra regions soil flow occurs when the surface
28 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

layers of frozen ground thaw in spring. Soil and rock debris, lubricated by the melt-water flow easily over
the underlying frozen subsoil. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• In areas of peat soils, the peat absorbs much more moisture. However, if the saturation point is reached
the peaty soil may flow downslope. In Ireland, such flows are known as “bog bursts.” Hence statement
3 is correct.

Q 80.D
• Glacial lakes are ice-dammed, moraine-dammed, and bedrock-dammed lakes. These lakes are
formed by the trapping of meltwater from the glacier within the dammed structure.
• Due to global warming glaciers are retreating and glacier lakes are expanding in size and
numbers. Glacial lake outburst flood (GLOF) is a sudden release of a significant amount of water
retained in a glacial lake, irrespective of the cause. The formation of moraine-dammed glacial lakes and
glacial lake outburst flood (GLOF) is a major concern in the Himalayan states of India.
• The following factors are responsible for triggering GLOFs:
o Rapid movement into the lake.
o Long-term dam degradation.
o Black Carbon, reduces the surface albedo (ability to reflect the sunlight) and heats the surface. Hence,
option (d) is not correct.
o Earthquake
o Increased water inflow into a lake.
o Anthropogenic activities like mass tourism, development of roads and hydropower projects, and
the practice of slash and burn type of farming.

Q 81.C
• The Logistics Performance Index is an interactive benchmarking tool developed by the World Bank
Group. It ranks the countries based on the challenges and opportunities faced in their performance in
trade logistics.
• The ranking takes place on the basis of 6 parameters to evaluate logistics performance, namely:
o Customs performance
o Infrastructure quality
o Ease of arranging shipments
o Logistics services quality
o Consignment tracking and tracing
o Timeliness of shipments
• The index is released by the World Bank every two years. In the 2023 edition, India was ranked 38 out
of 139 countries, marking an improvement of six places from 44 in 2018. This improvement is believed
to be on the account of PM GatiShakti National Master Plan, Unified Logistics Interface
Platform and Logistics Data Bank which improved the logistics eﬀiciency and reduced the logistics
costs.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 82.A
• Natural vegetation refers to a plant community that has been left undisturbed over a long time,
to allow its individual species to adjust themselves to climate and soil conditions as fully as
possible.
• Types of Natural Vegetation in India:
o Tropical Evergreen Rain Forests.
o Deciduous or Monsoon Type of Forests.
o Dry Deciduous Forests.
o Mountain Forests.
o Tidal or Mangrove Forests.
o Semi-Desert and Desert Vegetation.
• Tropical Evergreen Rain Forests:
o Climatic Conditions:
✓ Annual rainfall exceeds 250 cm
✓ The annual temperature is about 25°-27°C
✓ The average annual humidity exceeds 77 percent

o Characteristics:
✓ Evergreen: Due to high heat and high humidity,
✓ Trees do shed their leaves but not all the trees shed their leaves together. Hence statement 1
is not correct.
✓ Lofty: The trees often reach 45 – 60 meters in height.
✓ Thick Canopy: From the air, the tropical rain forest appears like a thick canopy of foliage,
broken only where it is crossed by large rivers or cleared for cultivation. All plants
struggle upwards (most epiphytes) for sunlight resulting in a peculiar layer arrangement. The
entire morphology looks like a green carpet when viewed from above.
✓ Less undergrowth: The sunlight cannot reach the ground due to the thick canopy. The
undergrowth is formed mainly of bamboo, ferns, climbers, orchids, etc.
✓ Distribution:
▪ The western (not eastern as the eastern side is the rainshadow region) slope of
the Western Ghats. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
▪ Hills of the northeastern region and
▪ the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
✓ Timber Hardwood: The timber of these forests is fine-grained, hard, and durable. It has high
commercial value but it is highly challenging to exploit due to dense undergrowth, absence of
pure stands, and lack of transport facilities. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o The important species of these forests are mahogany, mesua, white cedar, jamun, canes, bamboo
etc.

Q 83.A
• The Western Ghats, which run close to the western coast, serve as a water divide between the major
Peninsular rivers, which discharge their water into the Bay of Bengal, and the small rivulets joining the
Arabian Sea.
• Most of the major Peninsular rivers except Narmada and Tapi flow from west to east.The rivers flowing
towards the Arabian Sea have short courses.
• The Sharavati is one such river, which originates in the Shimoga district of Karnataka and drains a
catchment area of 2,209 sq. km. The total length of the river is around 128 km, and it joins the Arabian
Sea at Honnavar in Uttara Kannada district. On its way, the Sharavati forms the Jog Falls, where the river
falls from a height of 253 metres. Hence option 2 is correct.
• There are a number of small rivers that join the Bay of Bengal. The Subarnrekha, the Baitarni, the
Brahmani, the Vamsadhara, the Penner, the Palar, and the Vaigai are important east flowing
rivers. Hence options 1 and 3 are not correct.

Q 84.C
• The Earth's interior is composed of several layers with distinct boundaries, known as discontinuities.
These boundaries separate the Earth's interior into distinct zones characterized by variations in
composition, density, and physical properties. Some of the major interior Earth discontinuities include:
• The Conrad discontinuity (named after the seismologist Victor Conrad) is considered to be the border
between the upper continental crust and the lower one. It is not as pronounced as the Mohorovičić
discontinuity and is absent in some continental regions.
• The Mohorovičić Discontinuity, often referred to as the "Moho," is one of the most important seismic
boundaries within the Earth's interior. It is named after the Croatian seismologist Andrija Mohorovičić,
who discovered it in 1909. The Moho represents a significant boundary that separates the Earth's
outermost layer, known as the crust, from the underlying mantle. The Moho is typically located at
depths that vary depending on the geological setting and location. On average, it is situated around 5 to 10
kilometers (3 to 6 miles) below the Earth's surface beneath oceanic crust and approximately 20 to 70
kilometers (12 to 43 miles) below the Earth's surface beneath continental crust. Hence option (c) is the
correct answer.
• The Gutenberg Discontinuity, also known as the "Gutenberg-Weber Discontinuity," is a significant
seismic boundary or discontinuity within the Earth's interior. It is named after two German seismologists,
Beno Gutenberg and Ernst Mohr Weber. The Gutenberg Discontinuity marks the boundary between two
major portions of the Earth's mantle: the mantle and the outer core. These portions have distinct physical
properties and behave differently in response to seismic waves.
• The Repetti Discontinuity: This is the boundary between the upper mantle and the lower mantle.

• The Lehmann Discontinuity, named after the Danish seismologist Inge Lehmann, is a seismic boundary
or discontinuity within the Earth's interior. Inge Lehmann discovered this important boundary in 1936.
The Lehmann Discontinuity is located deep within the Earth's core and marks a transition zone within this
region. The Lehmann Discontinuity is found near the boundary between the Earth's outer core and its
inner core. It marks the interface between these two core regions.

Q 85.C
• A strait is a narrow area of water connecting two larger areas of water. It can be formed by a water body
overflowing the land that has been eroded or subsided.
• Bering Strait connects the Arctic Ocean with the Bering Sea (part of the Pacific Ocean). Bering Strait
separates the continents of Asia and North America. The U.S.A – Russia Boundary passes through this
strait. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.

• Cook Strait separates the north and south islands of New Zealand. This strait connects the Tasman Sea
and the South Pacific Ocean. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.

• Bab el-Mandeb Strait, the strait between Arabia (northeast) and Africa (southwest) that connects the
Red Sea (northwest) with the Gulf of Aden and the Indian Ocean (southeast). The strait is divided
into two channels by Perim Island; the western channel and the eastern channel. With the building of the
Suez Canal, the strait assumed great strategic and economic importance, forming a portion of the link
between the Mediterranean Sea and East Asia. The flow through this strait provides for circulation
between the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden since no flow takes place through the Suez Canal. The strait’s
Arabic name means “the gate of tears” so called from the dangers that formerly attended its navigation.
Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.

Q 86.C
• Nuclear Fusion: Joint European Torus (JET)
o Context: European researchers at the Joint European Torus (JET) in the UK achieved a significant
breakthrough in nuclear fusion, generating a record-breaking 69 megajoules of energy from just 0.2
milligrams of fuel. This achievement marks the largest amount of energy ever produced in a fusion
experiment.
o What is JET?
✓ It is a large tokamak, the first device to achieve controlled fusion power using deuterium and
tritium. Hence statement 2 is correct.
✓ Led by the European research consortium EURO fusion, the experiment demonstrates progress in
magnetic fusion, a leading approach in fusion research. Despite not achieving a positive energy
balance, this milestone contributes to advancing fusion technology for future power plants like
ITER and DEMO.
o What are Tokamaks?
✓ They are machines that confine plasma using magnetic fields in a donut shape. Hence statement
1 is correct.
o India has been actively involved in nuclear fusion initiatives, including:
✓ ITER Project Participation: India joined the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor
(ITER) project in 2005. ITER is a global initiative aimed at constructing the largest tokamak
reactor in the world.
✓ Institute of Plasma Research (IPR): The Institute of Plasma Research (IPR) is an autonomous
institute under the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) and leads India’s fusion program.
Q 87.B
• Usara soil i.e Saline soil contains large proportion of sodium, potassium and magnesium , has more salts,
largely because of dry climate and poor drainage. It lacks in nitrogen and calcium and they are infertile,
and do not support any vegetation. It is found in arid and semi-arid regions of western ghats and eastern
coast and in sunderban areas of West Bengal.
32 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

• Laterite soil formed under specific monsoon conditions of climate. Under such conditions, leaching of soil
is accelearated. This process reduces the silica content of rocks in soil leaving soil rich in iron and
aluminium content. Humus content of the soil is removed fast by bacteria that thrive well in high
temperature. It is poor in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate and calcium, while iron oxide and potash are
in excess. Red laterite soil in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala are most suitable for tree crops like
cashew. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 88.B
• P waves and S waves are examples of Body waves. Body waves are generated due to the release of energy
at the focus and move in all directions traveling through the body of earth. Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
• Surface waves are a type of seismic wave that propagate along the Earth’s surface, rather than through its
interior. These waves are responsible for much of the damage and shaking felt during an earthquake.
• There are two main types of surface waves: Love waves and Rayleigh waves.
• Love waves are the fastest type of surface wave and are characterized by their side-to-side or horizontal
motion. They move in a horizontal plane perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. Love
waves cause the ground to move in a snake-like or serpentine motion, with the surface shifting
horizontally from side to side. The amplitude of Love waves decreases with depth beneath the surface.
• Rayleigh waves are slower than Love waves and have a rolling or elliptical motion. They cause the
ground to move in an elliptical path, with both vertical and horizontal components. Rayleigh waves
produce an up-and-down motion similar to ocean waves, and they result in a circular or elliptical motion
at the Earth’s surface.These waves are often responsible for the rolling sensation felt during an
earthquake. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q 89.B
• India’s climate is controlled by a number of factors which can be broadly divided into two groups:
o Factors related to location and relief,
o Factors related to air pressure and winds.
• Latitude is one of the factors related to Location and Relief.
• Tropic of Cancer passes through the central part of India in the east-west direction. Thus, the northern part
of India lies in the sub-tropical and temperate zone and the part lying south of the Tropic of Cancer falls in
the tropical zone.
• The tropical zone being nearer to the equator experiences high temperatures throughout the year with
small daily and annual ranges. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The area north of the Tropic of Cancer away from the equator experiences an extreme climate with high
daily and annual ranges of temperature.
• India lies wholly in the northern and eastern hemispheres. The mainland of India extends from 8°4' 28" N
to 37°17' 53" N latitudes.
• Tropic of Cancer lies at 23°27′ N of the terrestrial Equator. It is the circle marking the latitude 23.5
degrees north, where the sun is directly overhead at noon on June 21, the beginning of summer in the
northern hemisphere. Beyond the Tropic of Cancer, Northern India does not observe the overhead Sun on
the summer solstice of the northern hemisphere. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

Q 90.A
• The fact that the ocean takes much longer to warm up than land, and its ability to retain heat much
longer than as well, do not just play a role in the creation of land and sea breezes but are also
responsible for the moderate climate of coastal regions.
• Hence both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation
for Statement-I.
• Mechanism Behind it: There is a physical parameter or property called specific heat it means the heat
required to raise the temperature of the unit mass of a given substance by a given amount (usually one
degree or some other unit). The specific heat of water is 4182 J/kg°C and of land mass(usually dry soil)
is 810 J/kg°C approximately. So one kg of the water will need almost five times more energy than dry
soil to raise its temperature by 1 degree. That is why the climate around coastal areas remains relatively
moderate and the same throughout the year.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 91.D
• Recent Context: Devotees asked to adhere to court guidelines during the temple festival inside
Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve.
• Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve is situated at the junction of the Eastern and Western Ghats in the
Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, Erode District, Tamil Nadu. It is adjacent to Mudumalai Tiger Reserve,
Bandipur Tiger Reserve (Karnataka), and BR Tiger Reserve and Wildlife Sanctuary (Karnataka).
• Vegetation: includes southern tropical dry thorn forests, mixed deciduous forests, semi-evergreen forests,
and riparian forests.
• Climate: Subtropical and dry climate with hot and dry summers and wet and cooler monsoons causing
river flooding.
• Rivers: Prominent rivers in the region include Bhavani, Moyar, and Noyyal rivers.
• Tribal Communities: Home to indigenous tribal communities like the Irula and Kurumba tribes.
• Flora: Common tree and shrub species include Albizzia amara, Chloroxylon swietenia, Gyrocarpus
jacquini, Neem, Tamarind, Sandalwood, Randia dumetorum, Zizyphus, and their associates.
• Fauna: Dominated by species such as Elephant, Tiger, Panther, Sloth bear, Gaur, Black Buck, Spotted
deer, Wild boar, Black-napped hare, Common langur, Nilgiri langur, Striped-neck mongoose, and Bonnet
macaque.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 92.A
• Most of the desert is confined within 15 degree to 30 degree parallels of latitude north and south of desert.
They lie in the trade wind belt on western part of the continent where trade Winds are offshore. Hence
statement I is correct.
• The presence of cold current on eastern margins of oceans. It creates a desiccating effect so that moisture
is not easily condensed into precipitation. Hence statement II is correct.

• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 93.C
• The Baltic Sea is a semi-enclosed inland sea located in the northern sea. The Baltic Sea is bordered by
Denmark, Sweden, Finland, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Poland, Germany and Russia. The
Netherlands lies between Belgium and Germany and borders the North Sea, not the Baltic Sea. Estonia,
Latvia, and Lithuania border the Baltic Sea and are called Baltic nations. Hence option (c) is the correct
answer.
34 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

• Considered an arm of the Atlantic Ocean, it is connected to it via the Kattegat Strait, Skagerrak Strait, and
the North Sea. It extends northward from southern Denmark to within a few degrees latitude of the Arctic
Circle separating the Scandinavian Peninsula from continental Europe.
• The northern part of the Baltic Sea is known as the Gulf of Bothnia, of which the northernmost part is the
Bothnian Bay. The Baltic is one of the most brackish water bodies in the world, receiving both ocean
and river water.

Q 94.B
• Army Martial Arts Routine (AMAR)
o Context: Recently, a Punjab Regiment unit deployed close to the Line of Actual Control (LAC) in
Kibithu in eastern Arunachal Pradesh, demonstrated their martial arts training to a group of visiting
journalists.
o AMAR: A unique and standardised mixed martial arts (MMA) programme to train soldiers in basic and
advanced techniques and manoeuvres of MMA.
o Induction of martial arts: Post the Galwan conflict in 2020, the Udhampur-based Northern Command
introduced the Israeli-origin martial art Krav Maga. Later units picked up different martial arts based
on their affiliations.
✓ The Ghatka: By the Punjab regiment
✓ The Khukri dance: By the Gorkha Regiment
✓ The Kalari Payattu: By the Madras regiment
o Aim: To improve soldier readiness and close-quarters fighting skills by focussing on offensive assault
training and the ability to counter sharp-edged weapons.
o Battle Preparedness and Efficiency Test (BEPT) is a mandate for all personnel up to 45 years of age
once in every quarter. One has to run 5 km in 25 minutes for up to 30 years of age and for those above 30
years up to 40, additional 2 minutes are given.

o Important Martial Arts:

o Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 95.A
• Social forestry means the management and protection of forests and afforestation on barren lands with
the purpose of helping in the environmental, social and rural development.
• The National Commission on Agriculture (1976) has classified social forestry into three categories. These
are Urban forestry, Rural forestry and Farm forestry.
• Urban forestry pertains to the raising and management of trees on public and privately owned lands in and
around urban centres such as green belts, parks, roadside avenues, industrial and commercial green belts,
etc. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Rural forestry lays emphasis on promotion of agro-forestry and community-forestry.Agro-forestry is the
raising of trees and agriculture crops on the same land inclusive of the waste patches. Hence statement 2
is correct.
• Community forestry involves the raising of trees on public or community land such as the village pasture
and temple land, roadside, canal bank, strips along railway lines, and schools etc. Hence statement 3 is
not correct.
• Community forestry programme aims at providing benefits to the community as a whole.Community
forestry provides a means under which the people of landless classes can associate themselves in
treeraising and thus, get those benefits which otherwise are restricted for landowners.

Q 96.A
• Statement 1 is correct: Basic lavas are the hottest lavas & are highly fluid. They are dark coloured like
basalt, rich in iron and magnesium but poor in silica. They have low viscosity due to their low silica
content, which allows them to flow more easily compared to other types of lava.
• Statement 2 is not correct: They do not typically lead to explosive eruptions. Instead, it tends to result in
relatively gentle, effusive eruptions where lava flows steadily rather than explosively.
• Statement 3 is not correct: Basic lavas commonly result in the formation of shield volcanoes, not
composite volcanoes. Shield volcanoes are characterized by their broad, gently sloping profiles formed by
successive basaltic lava.

Q 97.B
• Tropical evergreen forests lie within the tropics, in areas where air temperatures are relatively high,
with little seasonal or diurnal fluctuation (20-30 °C), rainfall is generally greater than about 1500
mm per year, and relative humidity is uniformly high. They have a thick canopy of foliage. All plants
struggle upwards for sunlight resulting in a peculiar layer arrangement.
• Vegetation found here is evergreen trees which comprise tropical hardwood e.g. mahogany, ebony,
greenheart, cabinet woods, and dyewoods. Hence options 1 and 2 are correct.
• The Baobab tree is found in the Savanna or Sudan climate. It has a broad trunk with water water-
storing device to survive through the prolonged drought. Hence option 3 is not correct.

Q 98.C
• Recent Context: Recently, Vice-Chairman (Chairman in-charge) of the National Commission for
Scheduled Castes (NCSC) submitted its annual report 2022-23 to the President of India.
• It is a constitutional body under Article 338 of the Constitution of India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Aim: To provide safeguards against the exploitation of SCs and Anglo Indian communities and to
promote & protect their social, educational, economic and cultural interests.
36 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

• Composition (5 members): Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and 3 other Members.

• Appointed by: President, by warrant under his hand and seal.
• President may by rule determine the conditions of service and tenure of office of all the members.
• 89th Constitutional Amendment Act (2003), separated the erstwhile National Commission for
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes into 2 separate commissions - National Commission for SC and
National Commission for ST (NCST). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Report: Its report is presented to the President, annually and at such other times as the Commission may
deem fit where it recommends measures that should be taken by the Union or any State.
• National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) under Article 338 (A) and National
Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) under Article 338 (B) are constitutional bodies for the
protection and development of STs and BCs of India respectively.

Q 99.A
• Tropical Forest Soils: They are found in very hot regions with yearly rainfall along the tropics.
• It is a misconception that tropical soils are rich. In this virgin, untouched state, due to heavy leaf fall and
the decomposition of leaves by bacteria, a thick mantle of humus makes the soil fairly fertile. This is clear
from the shifting cultivators’ heavy croppings in their newly cleared landangs. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
• But once the humus is used and the natural vegetative cover is removed, the torrential downpours soon
wash out most of the soil nutrients. The soil deteriorates rapidly with subsequent soil erosion and soil
impoverishment. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Q 100.D
• Sediment plays a crucial role in the formation and evolution of river deltas. A delta is a landform that
forms at the mouth of a river where it meets a body of water, such as an ocean, sea, or lake. Sediment,
which includes sand, silt, and clay particles carried by the river, is the primary building material for deltas.
Presence of oxbow lakes leads to localized deposition of sediments. It hinders sediment load in the river
and hinders the formation of delta in the downstream. Hence statements 1 is not correct.
• One of the favorable conditions for the formation of delta is the presence of shallow sea near the mouth of
the river. The presence of steep gradients near the delta leads to the disappearance of sediment in the deep
water of the adjoining sea. Hence statements 2 is not correct.

• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

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VISION IAS Prelims 2025 Test 3 With Solution in English

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Test Booklet Series

GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2025 – Test – 4703

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

1 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

1. Consider the following rivers: 4. Consider the following pairs:

2. Cauvery 1. Kalahari desert : Africa

3. Godavari 2. Namib desert : South America

Which of the following is the correct 3. Mojave desert : North America

of the rivers given above? matched?

(a) 1-2-3 (a) Only one

5. Consider the following statements regarding

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (a) 1 only

correct and Statement-II is the correct (b) 2 only

(b) tribal language in North East. (b) Tapi

(c) primate species found in Africa. (c) Narmada

12. With reference to Koeppen’s scheme of

2. In mountain valley of tropical areas 3. Aw : Extreme western

temperature inversion is common Rajasthan

throughout the year 4. Cwg : Gangetic Plains

Which of the statements given above is/are stratopause.

21. Consider the following statements regarding

(d) None (d) None

Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 3 and 4 only

had a Free Trade Agreement. (b) Jhelum

correct? southwest monsoon.

66. With reference to River Satluj, consider the

Western Ghats: rainfall between 70 cm to 200 cm. Trees of

Anaimudi. six to eight weeks in dry summer. These

Mahendragiri. rainier parts of the Peninsular plateau of the

(a) 1 only (a) Tropical Evergreen Forests

(b) 1 and 2 only (b) Tropical Deciduous Forests

(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Tropical Thorn Forests and Scrubs

(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Montane Forests

increase the probability of GLOF. (a) Only one

Logistics Performance Index 2023. This following?

Forests. pacific ocean

(a) Only one (b) Only two

nature as compared to body waves is correct

Which of the statements given above is/are

94. Consider the following pairs:

98. With reference to the National Commission

99. Consider the following statements regarding

100. Consider following statements with

18 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

1 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

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• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

11 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

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13 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

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• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

18 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

o Fir, e.g. Douglas fir and balsam fir.

• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

21 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

23 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

24 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

• This climate has the following features:

25 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

26 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

29 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

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• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

35 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

o Important Martial Arts:

o Hence option (b) is the correct answer.