c 0

Er. S. Kumar

2nd Edition
AUTOMOBILE
ENGINEERING
Objective Questions with
Answers
Important for SSC JE, Motor vehicle
Inspector, State PSC JE Exams
 AUTOMOBILE
ENGINEERING
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

1050+ MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Compilation of most important automobile engineering MCQ

from various recruitment examinations and statdard
Automobile Engineering Text books.
Important for various recruitment
examinations like ssc junior engineer,
motor vehicle inspector recruitment exams, state
PSC junior engineer recruitment examinations like
uppsc, mppsc, hppsc etc.

For any query or suggestion, Please contact at : [email protected],

whatsapp +91 9459993942.

1
 About the Author
Er. S. Kumar (Suresh Kumar) was born on 27 November, 1989 in a small
village in Himachal Pradesh. He complete his schooling in HP and the he
completed his professional studies from PTU, Mohali and Chandigarh.

He is B.Tech in Mechanical Engineering with wide knowledge of Automobile

industries and other subjects related to his profession.

He is the founder of www.examobjective.com an Online Preparation plateform

to help students and job aspirants. He always thought about its development.

He has a very strong will power. From the year 2014 to 2108, he was preparing for Govt. recruitment
exams like SSC JE, Railway JE, GATE, PSC JE, AMVI, RTO many times he failed to pass but he was
still always positive and high spirited. His wife and his family had been his greatest strength and
support during this period. They take good care of him and finally he is now able start my career
with my inspiration to the students.

He started his career as Junior Engineer in the state of HP from 2018. He passed HPPSC in 2018 he
stated his career. But he has a strong desire for Higher Studies and Book Writing. With his self
motivation to help student for quick preparation for Govt. job recruitment exams and entrance
exams, he always look forward to prepare study material for Govt. Job aspirant.

He has wide knowledge of SSC, PSC recruitment examination pattern of MVI, JE so, he decided to
prepare the ebooks/PDFs. He has certification of participation in Workshop related to 3D laser
scanning of automobile in Techfest, IIT Bombay, 2013. He has certification in Autocad advance
involving design of automobile and other components in Mechanical Enginnering.

EXAMOBJECTIVE Learning
He has started Examobjective eLearning plate form as a part time work to give the students study
material prepared with his knowledge of competitive examination.

Since the very beginning, the purpose of the Examobjective is solely focused on providing study
material on all levels as well as prepare students for careers and professions that provide support and
services for the well-being of individuals. Within this purpose, we work towards our PDFs and
MCQs, aiming to provide MCQ material that can help our students peak their performance to the
best of their capabilities and reach the heights of their careers through determination.

Contacts:
Email : [email protected]
Phone No.: +91 9459993942 (Whatsapp only)
Official Email: [email protected]
Website: www.examobjective.com
 CONTENTS
1. Introduction
2. Chassis Construction
3. Transmission
4. Clutch
5. Drive Line
6. Front axle & rear axle
7. Suspension system
8. Tyres and wheels
9. Braking System
10. Electrical System
11. Automobile equipments & tools
12. Automotive Body
13. Automotive material
14. Safety consideration
15. Vehicle chassis specifications
16. Cooling system
17. Engine service
18. Lubricants & lubrication
19. Fuels
20. Combustion and combustion chamber
21. Diesel engine fuel supply system
22. Petrol engine fuel supply system
23. Engine performance
24. Electronic ignition system
25. Conventional ignition system
26. Charging system
27. Starting system
28. Emission control
29. Automotive engine specification
30. Storage batteries
31. Motor Vehicle Act

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 AUTMOBILE ENGINEERING MCQ

Question: 1. The basic automobile structure consists of the suspension

system, axles, wheels and
(a) steering
(b) brakes
(c) frame
(d) lights
Ans. C

Question: 2. Compared to framed construction, the frame less

construction of automobiles is economical
(a) always
(b) when produced in small quantities
(c) when produced on large scale
(d) never
Ans. C

Question: 3. The purpose of gear box in an automobile is to

(a) vary speed
(b) vary torque
(c) provide permanent speed reduction
(d) to disconnect the road wheels from the engine when desired
Ans. B

Question: 4. The cooling system of automobile engine most simple when

the engine is placed at the
(a) front
(b) centre
(c) rear on the left

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(d) rear on the right
Ans. A

Question: 5. In case of a four-wheel driven vehicle

(a) clutch operating linkage is simplified
(b) cooling system is simplified
(c) the road adhesion is increased
(d) the road adhesion is decreased
Ans. C

Question: 6. The example of a saloon is

(a) Premier car
(b) Tata Truck
(c) Leyland bus
(d) none of these
Ans. A

Question: 7. The distance between the centers of the front and rear
wheel is known as—
(A) Chassis
(B) Wheel Base
(C) Chassis overhang
(D) Wheel track
Ans: (B)

Question: 8. The example of a hatchback is

(a) Maruti 800
(b) Premier Padmini
(c) Ambassador Nova
(d) Fiat 1100
Ans. A

4
Question: 9. The number of points at which the engine-clutch-gear box
unit is supported on the chassis frame is
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Ans C

Question: 10. 4 × 2 drive chassis vehicle consists of …… wheels out of

which …… wheels are the driving wheels.
(A) 4, 2
(B) 2, 4
(C) 4, 4
(D) None
Ans: A

Question: 11. Weight of the vehicle produces in the side members of the
Frame
(a) vertical bending
(b) horizontal bending
(c) torsion
(d) all of these
Ans. B

Question: 12. The frame may get distorted to a parallelogram shape due
to
(a) weight of vehicle
(b) weight of passengers
(c) cornering force
(d) wheel impact with road obstacle

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Ans. D

Question: 13. What is fitted at the front of the vehicles by means of

spring assemblies?
(A) Gear Box
(B) Engine
(C) Rear axle
(D) Front axle
Ans: (D)

Question: 14. Lateral bending of the frame side members may be caused
on account of
(a) weight of passengers
(b) side wind
(c) engine torque
(d) braking torque
Ans. B

Question: 15. The major assembly of motor vehicles is—

(A) Chassis
(B) Body
(C) Both
(D) None
Ans: C

Question: 16.The most effective section against bending is

(a) rectangular bar
(b) round bar
(c) round hollow tube
(d) square hollow section
Ans. D

6
Question: 17. A clutch is usually designed to transmit maximum torque
which is
(a) equal to the maximum engine torque
(b) 80 percent of the maximum engine torque
(c) 150 per cent of the maximum engine torque
(d) none of the above
Ans. C

Question: 18. The inertia of the rotating parts of the clutch should be
(a) minimum
(b) maximum
(c) zero
(d) none of the above
Ans. A

Question: 19. The first automobile powered by steam engine was built in
France by—
(A) Nicholas Joseph Cugnot
(B) Elwood J. Haynes
(C) Henry Ford
(D) Diamler Benz
Ans: (A)

Question: 20. The maximum value of axial force at the clutch which a
driver can apply while driving, without getting fatigued is approximately
(a) 10 N
(b) 100 N
(c) 500 N
(d) 5000 N
Ans. B

7
Question: 21. The driving member of clutch usually consists of two ……
plates machines.
(A) Aluminium
(B) Copper
(C) Cast iron
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 22. The maximum intensity of pressure which the clutch

facing can withstand without being damaged is about
(a) 10 Pa
(b) 10 kPa
(c) 100 kPa
(d) 1000 kPa
Ans. C

Question: 23.The clutch is located between the transmission and the

(a) engine
(b) rear axle
(c) propeller shaft
(d) different
Ans. A

Question: 24. What is the final unit in transmission system?

(A) Engine
(B) Front axle
(C) Wheel
(D) Rear axle
Ans: (D)

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Question: 25. The parts of the cover assembly that hold the pressure
plate against the clutch plate are the
(a) release levers
(b) thrust bearings
(c) struts
(d) springs
Ans. D

Question: 26. Cushioning springs in clutch plate are meant to reduce

(a) torsional vibrations
(b) vehicle speed
(c) jerky starts
(d) none of the above
Ans. C

Question: 27. The lateral run out should not exceed …… mm if it is more,
clutch plate should be disordered.
(A) 10 mm
(B) 5 mm
(C) 1·1 mm
(D) 0·7 mm
Ans: D

Question: 28. The thrust bearing should come into contact with the
release levers when the
(a) vehicle is stationary
(b) vehicle is running very fast
(c) vehicle is driven very slow
(d) clutch pedal is pressed
Ans. D

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Question: 29. In the year 1885, the real automobile was built by which of
the following man?
(A) Nicholas-Joseph Cugnot
(B) Daimler Benz
(C) Henry ford
(D) Elwood J. Haynes
Ans: (B)

Question: 30. In a clutch will coil springs, the wear of the clutch lacing
will cause the clamping load to
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain constant
(d) become infinite
Ans. B

Question: 31. Clutch facings arc usually attached to the plate by

(a) steel rivets
(b) brass rivets
(c) aluminum screws
(d) steel screws
Ans. B

Question: 32. The cause of the fault “slippage of clutch” is—

(A) Worn out or broken clutch facings
(B) Rusty or jammed pressure plates
(C) Oil on clutch facing
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 33. The cause of the fault ‘Clutch Grabing’ is—

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(A) Oily clutch facing
(B) Loose or broken engine foundation
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 34. The cause of the fault ‘Clutch vibration’ is—

(A) Bent clutch shaft
(B) Loose hub in clutch disc
(C) Engine idling too fast
(D) None of these
Ans: A

Question: 35. The cause of the fault ‘failure of clutch’ is—

(A) Worn out clutch plates
(B) Oil or grease in clutch lining
(C) Bent clutch shaft
(D) All are correct
Ans: A

Question: 36. The cause of the fault ‘Noisy clutch’ is—

(A) Oily clutch facing
(B) Defective release bearing
(C) Loose clutch plate hub
(D) All are correct
Ans: C

Question: 37. Requirements of a good braking system is—

(A) Brake should be beauty
(B) Brake should be noisy
(C) Brake should have less wearing parts

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(D) All are correct
Ans: C

Question: 38. Free pedal play in car clutches is about

(a) 3mm
(b) 30mm
(c) 60mm
(d) 100mm
Ans. B

Question: 39. Which of the following system is incorporated in the

vehicle so that the moving vehicle can be stopped by the driver as and
when he wants?
(A) Brake system
(B) Transmission system
(C) Ignition system
(D) Hand brake
Ans: (A)

Question: 40. The purpose of transmission in an automobile is

(a) to vary the speed of automobile
(b) to vary torque at the road wheels
(c) to vary the power of auto mobile
(d) none of the above
Ans. B

Question: 41. In liquid cooling method, instead of water, other liquids

having …… boiling points are used for cooling.
(A) Lower
(B) Higher
(C) Any

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(D) None
Ans: B

Question: 42. The example of higher boiling point liquid is—

(A) Glycerine
(B) Ethylene glycol
(C) Both
(D) None
Ans: C

Question: 43. Which is a type of temperature indicators?

(A) Mechanical type
(B) Electric type
(C) Both
(D) None
Ans: C

Question: 44. A good anti-freeze material have the requirements—

(A) It should mix readily with water
(B) It should circulate freely in the cooling system
(C) It should be reasonably cheap
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 45. What are the possible causes of overcooling?

(A) Defective thermostat
(B) Inaccurate temperature gauge
(C) Both
(D) None of these
Ans: C

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Question: 46. Increase in torque in a vehicle is obtained by
(a) decreasing speed
(b) decreasing power
(c) decreasing petrol consumption
(d) all of the above
Ans. A

Question: 47. Two advantages of using helical gears rather than spur
gears in a transmission are
(a) High strength and low cost
(b) High strength and less end thrust
(c) Low noise level and high strength
(d) Low noise level and economy
Ans. C

Question: 48. By using synchronizing device, the two involved adjacent

gears have their speeds
(a) increased
(b) reduced
(c) equalized
(d) un-equalized
Ans. C

Question: 49. In a simple planetary gear set, the output member to

increase torque is always the
(a) sun gear
(b) ring gear
(c) planet carrier
(d) none of the above
Ans. C

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Question: 50. In a simple epicyclic gear set, the output member to
increase torque in reverse is always
(a) ring gear
(b) planet carrier
(c) sun gear
(d) none of the above
Ans. A

Question: 51. The planetary gears are used to …… speed by arranging to

have the ring gear driven by the planet pinion cage.
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Same
(D) None of these
Ans: A

Question: 52. The maximum speed at which the engine can do this is
called—
(A) Cut out speed
(B) Cut in speed
(C) Cut-cut speed
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 53. Which of the following is the cause of the trouble ‘Not
going into overdrive’?
(A) Defective wiring
(B) Defective solenoid
(C) Defective relay
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

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Question: 54. Which of the following is the cause of the trouble ‘oil
leakage’?
(A) Defective or broken gasket or oil seals
(B) Loose mounting
(C) Excessive lubricant
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 55. What is the cause of the trouble ‘Noise in overdrive’?

(A) worn gears
(B) Worn main shaft bearing
(C) Both are correct
(D) None are correct
Ans: C

Question: 56. What is the cause of the trouble ‘Not coming out of
overdrive’?
(A) Defective wiring
(B) Defective solenoid
(C) Jammed pawl
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 57. The distance between the centre of front wheels is known
as—
(A) Wheel track
(B) Wheel base
(C) Chassis
(D) Body
Ans: (A)

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Question: 58. The central gear of an epicyclic gear set is called a
(a) ring gear
(b) sun gear
(c) planet gear
(d) internal gear
Ans. B

Question: 59. The component of the torque converter that allows

multiplication of torque is the
(a) turbine
(b) impeller
(c) pump
(d) stator
Ans. D

Question: 60. The component of the torque converter that drives the oil
is the
(a) turbine
(b) impeller
(c) freewheel
(d) stator
Ans. B

Question: 61. The maximum torque multiplication ratio in a torque

converter is about
(a) 2.5
(b) 10
(c) 25
(d) 100
Ans. A

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Question: 62. The component or me torque converter that redirects the
flow of oil to impeller is
(a) turbine
(b) impeller
(c) stator
(d) freewheel
Ans. C

Question: 63. In a torque converter maximum torque multiplication

occurs at
(a) stop
(b) low speed
(c) medium speed
(d) high speed
Ans. A

Question: 64. The blades in a torque converter have a shape which is

(a) square
(b) round
(c) flat
(d) curved
Ans. D

Question: 65. Critical whirling speed of a shaft is increased by

(a) Increasing its length
(b) Decreasing its length
(c) Decreasing its diameter
(d) None of the. these
Ans. B

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Question: 66. The function of a universal joint is to allow the propeller
shaft to
(a) change length
(b) bend sideways
(c) transfer torque at a angle
(d) change inclination
Ans. C

Question: 67. Central portion of a propeller shaft is made from a

(a) steel shaft
(b) gun metal shaft
(c) steel tube
(d) cast iron rod
Ans. C

Question: 68. A two piece propeller shaft requires

(a) one universal joint
(b) a center support bearing
(c) the shaft to be solid
(d) none of the above
Ans. B

Question: 69. The inner end of axle shaft is splined to the

(a) sun gear
(b) planet pinion
(c) crown wheel
(d) differential cage
Ans. A

Question: 70. The adjustment for backlash in a differential is provided

between

19
(a) crown wheel and the sun gear
(b) sun gear and the planet gear
(c) crown wheel and the drive pinion
(d) crown wheel and the planet gear
Ans. D

Question: 71. Hypoid gear require special lubricant casing are

(a) teeth are made of sift material
(b) teeth are made of hard material
(c) such gear rotate faster
(d) sliding action is there between the teeth
Ans. D

Question: 72. The smaller gears inside the differential casing are
(a) pinion gears
(b) sun gears
(c) side gears
(d) ring gears
Ans. A

Question: 73. When the rear wheels are jacked up and gears are in
neutral, turning one rear wheel forward in a rear drive vehicle will
cause the other wheel to
(a) turn backward
(b) turn forward
(c) turn in either direction
(d)remain stationary
Ans. A

Question: 74. The type of gear axle used on trucks is

(a) semi-floating

20
(b) fully-floating
(c) three-quarter floating
(d) none of these
Ans. B

Question: 75. Salisbury type rear axle casing is also known as

(a) banjo type casing
(b) unitized carrier casing
(c) separate carrier casing
(d)none of these
Ans. B

Question: 76. The vehicle ride will be comfortable if

(a) unsprung weight is kept minimum
(b) sprung weight is kept minimum
(c) vehicle weight is kept minimum
(d) all of the above.
Ans. A

Question: 77. The function of a stabilizer in an automobile is to decrease

the tendency to
(a) roll
(b) yaw
(c) pitch
(d) dip
Ans. A

Question: 78. Panhard rod is used to absorb the

(a) vertical loading
(b) driving thrust
(c) side thrust

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(d) braking torque
Ans. C

Question: 79. The function of a shackle with a leaf spring is to

(a) allow pivoting of spring end
(b) allow spring length to change
(c) control sidesway
(d) control rear torque
Ans. B

Question: 80. Spring eyes in case of cars are usually lined with
(a) bronze bushes
(b) rubber bushes
(c) steel bushes
(d) metal bushes
Ans. B

Question: 81. The turning circle for a car is approximately

(a) 1 metre
(b) 2 metres
(c) 10 metres
(d) 30 meters
Ans. C

Question: 82. Cornering force divided by slip angle is called

(a) self-righting torque
(b) cornering power
(c) pneumatic trail
(d) castor trail
Ans. B

22
Question: 83. The side force sustained by the wheel during cornering
divided by the slip angle is called
(a) cornering force
(b) camber force
(c) cornering power
(d) none of the above
Ans. C

Question: 84. Another name for the steering link rod is

(a) track rod
(b) tie rod
(c) drag link
(d) pitman
Ans. C

Question: 85. Most popular manual steering gear for cars today is
(a) rack and pinion type
(b) worm and wheel type
(c) cam and roller type
(d) worm and nut type
Ans. A

Question: 86. The steering ratio for manual steering of cars is

approximately
(a) 5
(b) 15
(c) 50
(d) 100
Ans. B

23
Question: 87. One purpose of a recirculating ball type steering gear is to
reduce the
(a) operating friction
(b) operating cost
(c) toe-out during turns
(d) number of pats
Ans. A

Question: 88. In the recirculating ball type steering gear, the ball travel
between the ball nut and the
(a) gear track
(b) worm wheel
(c) steering wheel shaft
(d) worm shaft
Ans. D

Question: 89. The type of steering gear used in a Maruti 800 car is
(a) gear rack
(b) worm and roller
(c) worm and wheel
(d) none of the above
Ans. A

Question: 90. On car having rack and pinion steering, the gear rack is
attached to
(a) relay rod
(b) pitman axis
(c) cross shaft
(d) tie rod
Ans. D

24
Question: 91. The side walls are …… compound which serve as protective
covering to the casing.
(A) Rubber
(B) Steel
(C) Aluminium
(D) None of these
Ans: A

Question: 92. The rim which can be removed easily from the wheel is
called—
(A) Mountable rim
(B) Demountable rim
(C) Both
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 93. Mag wheels are called as such because they are cast
from magnesium—
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Both
(D) None
Ans: A

Question: 94. To which wheels should new tyres be filled?

(A) Front wheels
(B) Back wheels
(C) Middle wheels
(D) None of these
Ans: A

25
Question: 95. …… refers to an uncontrollable motion of the front wheel
due to violent vibration at high speed.
(A) Brake drums
(B) Wheel tramp
(C) Tyre
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 96. Which of the following is the major parts of a tubeless

tyre?
(A) Carcass
(B) Tread
(C) Both
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 97. The type of wheel which cannot be used with a tubeless
tyre is
(a) disc wheel
(b) wire wheel
(c) light alloy wheel
(d) composite wheel
Ans. B

Question: 98. That part of the wheel which is the supporting member
between the axle and the rim is called—
(A) Wheel centre
(B) Rim
(C) Dual wheel
(D) None of these
Ans: A

26
Question: 99. That part of the wheel on which the tyre is mounted and
supported is called—
(A) Wheel centre
(B) Rim
(C) Dual wheel
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 100. A wheel so constructed that the centre line of the rim is
located in board of the attachment face of the disc is called—
(A) Zero set wheel
(B) Dual wheel
(C) Rim
(D) Inset wheel
Ans: D

Question: 101. A wheel so constructed that the centre line of the rim is
located out board of the attachment face of the disc is called—
(A) Outset wheel
(B) Zeroset wheel
(C) Rim
(D) Dual wheel
Ans: A

Question: 102. The distance between the centre lines of the rims to
provide the required clearance between tyres is called—
(A) Dual spacing
(B) Zeroset wheel
(C) Rim
(D) None of these

27
Ans: A

Question: 103. The type of wheels preferred in sports cars are

(a) disc wheel
(b) wire wheel
(c) magnesium alloy wheel
(d) aluminum alloy wheel
Ans. C

Question: 104. In case of a wire wheel the vehicle weight is supported

by the wires in
(a) tension
(b) compression
(c) bending
(d) shear
Ans. A

Question: 105. The term ‘ply rating’ with reference to a tyre refers to the
(a) actual number of plies
(b) recommended inflation pressure
(c) aspect ratio
(d) rated strength
Ans. (d) rated strength

Question: 106. For wheel and tyre troubles the cause of one side wear
of tyres is—
(A) Incorrect camber angle and toe-in
(B) High tyre pressure
(C) Buckled wheel
(D) None of these
Ans: A

28
Question: 107. For wheel and tyre trouble the cause of Uneven tyre
wear is—
(A) Buckled wheel
(B) Unbalanced wheel
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 108. For wheel and tyre troubles the cause of the trouble
uniform rapid wear is—
(A) Driving on rough road
(B) Fast driving
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of the above
Ans: C

Question: 109. For wheel and tyre troubles the cause of the trouble
Loss of pressure is—
(A) Normal diffusion of air through the tube material
(B) Faulty valve
(C) Leaking patch
(D) All of the above
Ans: D

Question: 110. Excessive tyre wear due to mechanical defect is due to—
(A) Toe in or toe out defective
(B) Wrong setting of camber angle
(C) Bent chassis
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

29
Question: 111. Which of the following factor affect the wheel and tyre
assembly balance?
(A) Lateral run out of the wheel
(B) Radial run out or run-of round of the wheel
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of the above
Ans: C

Question: 112. The purpose of tyre sipes is to

(a) increase tread life
(b) decrease noise level
(c) provide softer ride
(d) increase traction
Ans. D

Question: 113. Tread distortion is least on

(a) radial ply tyres
(b) cross ply tyres
(c) cross ply belted tyres
(d) none of these
Ans. A

Question: 114. Out of round brake drums cause the tyres to wear
(a) on the inside
(b) on the outside
(c) in single spots
(d) uniformly all round
Ans. C

Question: 115. Heel’ and toe wear’ in tyres is caused by

30
(a) excessive acceleration and braking
(b) overinflation
(c) underinflation
(d) excessive camber
Ans. A

Question: 116. The permissible mixing of cross-ply and radial-ply

automobile tyres allows
(a) cross-ply tyres on left wheels
(b) cross-ply tyres on right wheels
(c) cross-ply tyres on front wheels
(d) cross-ply tyres on rear wheels
Ans. C

Question: 117. The brake efficiency of a new vehicle is about

(a) 30 per cent
(b) 50 per cent
(c) 80 per cent
(d) 100 per cent
Ans.C

Question: 118. Brake fade is

(a) loss of pedal
(b) loss of coefficient of friction
(c) loss of hydraulic fluid
(d) none of these
Ans. B

Question: 119. Fading of brakes occurs

(a) at high speed
(b) at low speed

31
(c) during continuous application
(d) when brake lining is worn
Ans: C

Question: 120. Due to weight transfer, the ratio of braking effect at the
front and at the rear wheels should be
(a) 50% at front and 50% at rear
(b) 60% at front and 40% at rear
(c) 40% at front and 60% at rear
(d) none of the above
Ans. B

Question: 121. The brakes employed in cars are usually operated

(a) mechanically
(b) hydraulically
(c) by means of engine vacuum
(d) by compressed air
Ans. B

Question: 122. Component of the wheel cylinder which seals the brake
fluid is
(a) piston
(b) spring
(c) dust cover
(d) cup
Ans. D

Question: 123. During braking the push rod directly operates

(a) piston
(b) primary seal
(c) residual pressure valve

32
(d) compensating port
Ans. A

Question: 124. In drum type brakes the fluid on releasing, returns to the
master cylinder due to the action of the piston spring and
(a) by-pass port
(b) wheel-cylinder spring
(c) compensating port
(d) brake shoe retractor spring
Ans. B

Question: 125. Intake port in the master cylinder allows brake fluid to
flow
(a) into the reservoir
(A) through the fluid check valve
(c) around the recessed section of piston
(d) all of the above
Ans. C

Question: 126. Efficiency of cooling system depends upon which of the

following?
(A) Area of fins
(B) Temperature of the engine
(C) Fitting position of the engine
(D) All of the above
Ans: D

Question: 127. If proportioning valve is not working

(a) front brakes may lock
(b) rear brakes may lock

33
(c) from brakes may drag
(d) rear brakes may drag
Ans. A

Question: 128. Most anti-skid devices are employed on

(a) rear brakes
(b) front brakes
(c) secondary' brakes
(d) parking brakes
Ans. B

Question: 129. In disc brakes, pad-to-disc adjustment is provided by

(a) caliper
(b) piston
(c) piston seal
(d) bleed screw
Ans. C

Question: 130. In Maruti car the brakes used are

(al) disc brakes only
(b) drum brakes only
(c) disc on front and drum on rear
(d) drum on front and disc on rear.
Ans. C

Question: 131. Power from the engine is transmitted to the rear wheel
by which of the following method—
(A) Direct coupled
(B) Chain drive
(C) V-belt drive
(D) All are correct

34
Ans: D

Question: 132. Power from gear box is transmitted to rear wheel with
the help of …… bell.
(A) V
(B) B
(C) X
(D) S
Ans: A

Question: 133. Ordinarily all scooters and motor cycles have …… forward
speeds.
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 9
(D) 10
Ans: A

Question: 134. But now-a-day Lumbretta and export model OC of Bajaj

has …… forward speed.
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 9
(D) 10
Ans: B

Question: 135. Rajdoot motor cycle contains which type of chassis—

(A) Tubular section
(B) Integral frame
(C) Box section
(D) None of these

35
Ans: C

Question: 136. The scooters, motor cycles and mopeds contain the type
of chassis as—
(A) Tubular section
(B) Integral frame
(C) Box section
(D) All are correct
Ans: A

Question: 137. The Bajaj scooters contain the chassis—

(A) Tubular section
(B) Integral frame
(C) Box section
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 138. The bulb is fitted on the axle shaft with the help of—
(A) Ball bearing
(B) Taper roller
(C) (A) or (B)
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 139. What is the remedy of the cause “crankshaft woodruft

key loose in flywheel hub”?
(A) Fill up tank
(B) Replace with new key
(C) Clean the same
(D) None of these
Ans: B

36
Question: 140. What is the remedy of the cause “carbon deposit in
combustion chamber”?
(A) Clean the exhaust pipe
(B) Tight the chamber
(C) Decarbonize the engine
(D) All are correct
Ans: C

Question: 141. What is the remedy of the cause “Gummed up rings”?

(A) Clean it
(B) Clean the ring groove and use new piston rings
(C) Overhaul the carburettor
(D) All are correct
Ans: B

Question: 142. What is the remedy of the cause “choked air bleed hole in
carburettor”?
(A) Overhaul the carburettor
(B) Set it right
(C) Clean it
(D) Fit it correctly
Ans: A

Question: 143. What is the remedy of the cause “short condenser”?

(A) Replace with a new one
(B) Set it correctly
(C) Clean it
(D) Fit it correctly
Ans: A

37
Question: 144. Nearly …… tractors are made every year in India.
(A) 52000 to 54 000
(B) 20000 to 25000
(C) 10000 to 15000
(D) 5000 to 15000
Ans: A

Question: 145. Which of the following is a tractor?

(A) Eicher
(B) Escorts
(C) Ford
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 146. The front axle beam is used in which of the following
sections—
(A) I-section
(B) Tubular section
(C) Oblong section
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 147. “ ” Shows which of the following section?

(A) Circular section
(B) Oblong section
(C) Square section
(D) None
Ans: B

Question: 148. Which of the following is a type of draw bar?

(A) Regular draw-bars

38
(B) Three point linkage draw bar
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 149. To control the depth of implement to safe limit which of

the following methods are employed?
(A) Depth wheel
(B) Hydraulic depth control
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 150. Which of the following is a type of pumps?

(A) Plunger pump
(B) Gear pump
(C) Vane pump
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 151. The used valve (Hydraulic valve) is—

(A) Spool valve
(B) Rotary valve
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 152. Tappet clearance for 4-stroke engine is usually kept at

…… for inlet.
(A) 0·003"
(B) 0·004"

39
(C) 0·005"
(D) 0·006"
Ans: A

Question: 153. Tappet clearance for 4-stroke engine is usually kept at

…… for exhaust.
(A) 0·003"
(B) 0·004"
(C) 0·005"
(D) 0·008"
Ans: B

Question: 154. What is the remedy of the cause ”Fault ignition timing”?
(A) Set it correctly
(B) Clean it
(C) Overhaul the carburettor
(D) Tight cylinder head nuts properly
Ans: A

Question: 155. Electric brakes are commonly used on

(a) two wheelers
(b) cars
(c) trucks
(d) trailers
Ans. B

Question: 156. On suspended vacuum brakes, there is vacuum on both

sides of the piston during
(a) brake application
(b) brake release
(c) part application of brakes

40
(d) all of these
Ans B

Question: 157. Air brakes are mostly used in case of

(a) cars
(b)jeeps
(c) trucks
(d) three-wheelers
Ans C

Question: 158. What is the speed ratio of second shift position?

(A) 3·583
(B) 2·166
(C) 0·999
(D) None
Ans: B

Question: 159. What is the speed ratio of top shift position?

(A) 3·589
(B) 2·166
(C) 0·999
(D) None
Ans: C

160. What is the gear ratio of reverse shift position?

(A) 37/22 × 22/11
(B) 27/30
(C) 27/20 × 11/30
(D) None
Ans: A

41
Question: 161. What is the speed ratio of reverse shift position?
(A) 3·363
(B) 2·932
(C) 0·999
(D) 0·876
Ans: A

Question: 162. The transfer case is essentially a …… speed

transmission.
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans: B

Question: 163. Noise in gear is due to—

(A) Dry rear bearing on main shaft
(B) Damaged speedometer drive gear
(C) Both
(D) None of the above
Ans: C

Question: 164. A hum or bowl in neutral is due to—

(A) Lack of lubrication
(B) Worn shaft
(C) Worn bearings
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 165. Oil leaks from the gear box due to the following
reasons—

42
(A) Too high oil level in case
(B) Loose cover bolts
(C) Loose drain or filler plug
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 166. Hard shifting occurs due to—

(A) Distorted splines of the main shaft
(B) Too strong shifter lock spring
(C) Battered gear teeth
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 167. Slipping out of gear is due to—

(A) Too much clearance between teeth in mesh
(B) Insufficient mesh or gears
(C) Weak shifter lock spring
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 168. To turn the drive at 90° and to give the required speed
reduction, the basic type of gearing is—
(A) Bevel gear
(B) Worm and worm wheel
(C) Both
(D) None
Ans: C

Question: 169. The worm and worm wheel arrangement for final gear
reduction is extremely—
(A) Weak

43
(B) Strong
(C) Same
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 170. The transversely mounted engine does not require its
final drive turned through—
(A) 180°
(B) 0°
(C) 60°
(D) 90°
Ans: D

Question: 171. The trouble noisy differential is due to—

(A) Loose star pinion
(B) Wrong out hub bearing
(C) Both of them
(D) None of the above
Ans: C

Question: 172. “Vehicle does not move when put in gear” this is due to—
(A) Broken propeller shaft
(B) Broken pinion flange key
(C) Broken axle shaft
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 173. When the axle moves up and down from its normal
position the distance between the output flange of gearbox and input
flange of differential—
(A) Is same

44
(B) Decreases
(C) Increases
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 174. Constant velocity joint point are mostly used in front axle
drive vehicles or in vehicles having …… wheel drive.
(A) 4 × 4
(B) 4 × 6
(C) 6 × 6
(D) 2 × 2
Ans: A

Question: 175. Constant velocity joints are used when the angle of drive
is more than—
(A) 90°
(B) 60°
(C) 45°
(D) 30°
Ans: D

Question: 176. Propeller shaft is made out of …… tubing.

(A) Steel
(B) Aluminium
(C) Rubber
(D) None of these
Ans: A

Question: 177. Hotchkiss drive is mostly used in all the—

(A) Cars
(B) Trucks

45
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans: C

Question: 178. What is the remedy of the trouble loose flanged yoke?
(A) Tighten it fully
(B) Replace universal joint
(C) Replace a part
(D) None of the above
Ans: A

Question: 179. What is the method of employed of type of drive for rear
axle?
(A) Radius rod drive
(B) Torque tube drive
(C) Torque arm drive
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 180. The hand brake usually operates on

(a) rear wheels
(b) front wheels
(c) right wheels
(d) left wheels
Ans A

Question: 181. Brake lining consists mainly of

(a) asbestos
(b) copper
(c) cast iron
(d) aluminium

46
Ans A

Question: 182. The maximum disc run-out allowed on the vehicle is

generally
(a) 1 mm
(b) 0.5 mm
(c) 0.1 mm
(d) 0.01 mm
Ans: C

Question: 183. Which is correct?

(A) A metal having lower conductivity dissipates more amount of heat
(B) A metal having higher conductivity dissipates more amount of heat
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 184. The carbon-ceramic brakes are standard with effect

from 2008, on all
(a) Ferraris
(b) Porsches
(c) Audis
(d) BWS
Ans A

Question: 185. For identification, the color of tail lights in a car is

(a) white
(B) red
(c) green
(d) yellow
Ans B

47
Question: 186. The two quantities used for specifying an electrical wire
are
(a) the color and length
(b) the length and diameter
(c) the diameter and number of strands
(d) the colour and diameter
Ans C

Question: 187. The type of reflector used for automobile head lamp is
(a) spherical
(b) parabolic
(c) hyperbolic
(d) none of these
Ans. B

Question: 188. In a head lamp the metal shield is placed below the
(a) dipper beam
(b) main beam
(c) both the beams
(d) none of these
Ans A

Question: 189. For aiming the headlights, the distance between the
headlights and the screen should be
(a)1.5m
(b) 4.6 m
(c)7.6m
(d) 10.6 m
Ans C

48
Question: 190. In modern vehicles, the headlight dimming switch is
mounted on the
(a) steering column
(b) dash board
(c) flour board
(d) side panel.
Ans A

Question: 191. Trafficators are light signals used for

(a) heavy traffic
(b) light traffic
(c) reversing the car in traffic
(d) indicating the direction in which turning
Ans D

Question: 192. What is the possible cause of poor coolant circulation?

(A) Restriction in system
(B) Loose fan belt
(C) Both
(D) None
Ans: C

Question: 193. The most commonly used car heater is the

(a) hot air type
(b) hot water type
(c) petrol type
(d) diesel type
Ans. B

Question: 194. The object of air conditioning a car is to control therein

the

49
(a) temperature and pressure
(b) pressure and humidity
(c) humidity and temperature
(d) none of these
Ans. C

Question: 195. Best spanner for automobile work is the

(a) open-ended type
(h) combination type
(c) ring type
(d) socket type
Ans. D

Question: 196. For tightening cylinder head bolls we should prefer to

use
(a) open-ended spanner
(b) torque wrench
(c) ring spanner
(d) adjustable spanner
Ans B

Question: 197. For speeding up the tightening work we have to use

(a) long handle
(b) ratchet handle
(c) braced handle
(d) extension bar
Ans C

Question: 198. Before drilling a hole, its center should be marked with a
(a) punch
(b) chisel

50
(c) drill bit
(d) none of the above
Ans. A

Question: 199. For measuring clearance between two flat surfaces the
tool used is
(a) steel rule
(b) caliper
(c) micrometer
(d) feeler gauge
Ans D

Question: 200. High pressure of coolant produces—

(A) High frictional forces
(B) Low frictional forces
(C) Power loss
(D) None of these
Ans: A

Question: 201. The tool employed to measure the shaft run out is the
(a) feeler gauge
(b) dial gauge
(c) micrometer
(d) caliper
Ans. C

Question: 202. The spray of water from a car washer is at a pressure of

about
(a) 3 MPa
(b) 30 MPa
(c) 3 kPa

51
(d) 30 kPa
Ans A

Question: 203. The function of the steering system is to convert—

(A) The rotary movement of the steering wheel into angular turn of the
front wheels
(B) The angular turn of the front wheels into the rotary movement of the
steering wheel
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of these are correct
Ans: A

Question: 204. Which of the following is the function of steering

system?
(A) In helps in swinging the wheels to the left or right
(B) It helps in turning the vehicle at the will of the driver
(C) It provides directional stability
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 205. The assembly of the shaft and jacket is called—

(A) Steering row
(B) Steering matrix
(C) Steering column
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 206. The diameter of the steering wheel lies between …… in

case of motor cars.
(A) 24·5 to 54 cm
(B) 42·5 to 45 cm

52
(C) 32·1 to 5·4 cm
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 207. Steering wheel diameter of ambassador is—

(A) 15 cm
(B) 22 cm
(C) 32 cm
(D) 43·2 cm
Ans: D

Question: 208. Steering wheel diameter of Willys Jeep is—

(A) 43·8 cm
(B) 39·3 cm
(C) 32 cm
(D) None
Ans: A

Question: 209. Steering wheel diameter of Maruti 800 car is—

(A) 30 cm
(B) 37 cm
(C) 37 m
(D) 30 m
Ans: B

Question: 210. The steering wheel diameter of premier car is—

(A) 34 cm
(B) 43 cm
(C) 22 cm
(D) 12 cm
Ans: B

53
Question: 211. The steering wheel diameter of the standard-10 car is—
(A) 39 cm
(B) 93 cm
(C) 22 cm
(D) None
Ans: A

Question: 212. The length of the steering arm or drop arm varies
between …… in case of motor cars.
(A) 10·5 to 10·8
(B) 12·5 to 20·0
(C) 20·0 to 25·0
(D) None
Ans: B

Question: 213. The length of the steering arm or drop arm varies
between …… for commercial vehicles of the heavy type.
(A) 20·0 to 25·0
(B) 12·5 to 20·0
(C) 9·5 to 9·8
(D) None
Ans: A

Question: 214. The angle between the wheel inclination and the path
taken by the wheel is called—
(A) Slip angle
(B) Steering angle
(C) Drum angle
(D) None
Ans: A

54
Question: 215. Which of the following factor affect the wheel alignment?
(A) Factors pertaining to wheel
(B) Steering geometry
(C) Steering linkages
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 216. The angle between the centre line of the tyre and the
vertical line is known as—
(A) Chamber
(B) Steering geometry
(C) Camber
(D) None
Ans: C

Question: 217. For fiat 1100 what is the value of king pin inclination?
(A) 8°
(B) 2°
(C) 3°
(D) 7°
Ans: D

Question: 218. For jeep CJ-3 B the value of steering ratio is—
(A) 14: 5
(B) 14: 1
(C) 10: 1
(D) None
Ans: B

55
Question: 219. For Hindustan Ambassador Mark II, the type of steering
is—
(A) Worm and Roller
(B) Rack and pinion
(C) Cam
(D) Recirculating ball
Ans: B

Question: 220. The type of steering for Ashok leyland is—

(A) Worm and roller
(B) Rack and pinion
(C) Cam and double roller
(D) None of the above
Ans: C

Question: 221. For fiat 1100 the value of steering ratio is—
(A) 14: 1
(B) 164: 1
(C) 24: 1
(D) 1: 12
Ans: B

Question: 222. The caster angle for Ashok leyland is—

(A) 1°
(B) 3°
(C) 7°
(D) 9°
Ans: A

Question: 223. The camber angle for Jeep CJ-3B is—

(A) 1°

56
(B) 112 °
(C) 3°
(D) 7°
Ans: B

Question: 224. The camber angle for Jeep CJ-3B is—

(A) 1°
(B) 112 °
(C) 3°
(D) 7°
Ans: B

Question: 225. The value of b l for correct steering lies between—

(A) 0·4 to 0·5
(B) 1·2 to 1·5
(C) 0·1 to 0·2
(D) 1·1 to 1·9
Ans: A

Question: 226. The value of king pin inclination for dodge is—
(A) 8°
(B) 7°
(C) 3°
(D) 1°
Ans: A

Question: 227. A chassis dynamometer measures the vehicle power at

the
(a) engine crankshaft
(b) transmission shaft
(c) wheels

57
(d) none of these
Ans C

Question: 228. Car clutch is usually operated

(a) mechanically
(b) hydraulically
(c) pneumatically
(d) electrically
Ans. A

Question: 229. The clutch used in cars in usually

(a) Multiple disc type
(h) Single disc type
(c) Centrifugal type
(d) None of these
Ans. B

Question: 230. Number of forward gear box speeds in Indian cars is

usually
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 7
Ans. C

Question: 231. Permanent speed reduction ratio of final drive of cars is

about
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 12

58
Ans. B

Question: 232. Independent suspension on all four wheels is used in

(a) Alto
(b) i 10
(c) A.C. sports car
(d) Morgan plus 8
Ans C

Question: 233. The thickness of the film between the bearing and
journal depends upon—
(A) Load
(B) Speed
(C) Type of the lubricant
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 234. Dion axle is employed in

(a) Alto K10
(b) Alfa Romeo Alfetta
(c) Austin Rover VandanPlas
(d) Audi 100
Ans B

Question: 235. Rack and pinion type steering gear is used in

(a) Premier car
(b) Mahindra Jeep
(c) Standard 20 Van
(d) Maruti Estilo car
Ans. D

59
Question: 236. The first Indian car to use disc brakes was
(a) Maruti 800
(b) maruti 1000
(c) Ambassador Nova
(d) Tata Sierra
Ans. A

Question: 237. Disc brakes on all four wheels is used in

(a) Maruti Estilo
(b) Ambassador Nova
(c) Chrysler 180
(d) Rolls-Royce Phantom VI
Ans C

Question: 238. Diagonally-split hydraulic brakes are used in

(a) Maruti 800
(b) Audi 100
(c) Volkswagen Passat
(d) All of these
Ans D

Question: 239. What is necessary for tuning procedure?

(A) Test engine compression
(B) Clean and inspect rotor and replace it, if it is not in good condition
(C) Check distributor centrifugal advance
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 240. Crankshaft thumping may originate from which one of

the following cause—
(A) Excessive main bearing clearance

60
(B) Excessive crankshaft axial play
(C) Low oil pressure
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 241. The noises due to connecting rod are usually …… intense
than those originated by main bearings.
(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Same
(D) None
Ans: A

Question: 242. Which of the following cause is of rod noise?

(A) Insufficient lubrication
(B) Low oil pressure
(C) Both are correct
(D) None are correct
Ans: C

Question: 243. A reading of what specific gravity indicate a fully

charged condition—
(A) 2·00 to 3·00
(B) 1·220 to 1·230
(C) 1·111 to 2·222
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 244. The cam angle for prestolite is—

(A) 42°
(B) 90°

61
(C) 60°
(D) 0°
Ans: A

Question: 245. The cam angle for lucas TVS is—

(A) 42°
(B) 30°
(C) 45°
(D) 90°
Ans: B

Question: 246. The point gap of prestolite is—

(A) 0·50 mm
(B) 0·41 mm
(C) 0·01 mm
(D) None of these
Ans: A

Question: 247. The point gap of lucas TVS is—

(A) 0·50 mm
(B) 0·41 mm
(C) 0·01 mm
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 248. The spark plugs gap for making MICO or KLG is—
(A) 0·76 mm
(B) 0·11 mm
(C) 1·0 mm
(D) None of these
Ans: A

62
Question: 249. For tuning up a jeep engine which is adjusted correctly
at last—
(A) Spark plug
(B) Carburettor
(C) Ignition timing
(D) None
Ans: B

Question: 250. The normal oil pressure in a new or overhauled engine

must be …… kg/cm2.
(A) 1 to 5
(B) 2·5 to 3
(C) 3 to 5
(D) 5 to 9
Ans: B

Question: 251. Which one of the following is possible cause of

insufficient oil pressure?
(A) Unsuitable grade of oil
(B) Spoiled oil
(C) Defective relief valve
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 252. Which of the following causes is for engine vibrations?

(A) Defective ignition
(B) Defective carburetion
(C) Clutch out of balance
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

63
Question: 253. The excessive axial play of crankshaft gives a …… noise
at irregular intervals.
(A) Higher
(B) Lower
(C) Same
(D) None
Ans: A

Question: 254. What is the possible cause of trouble “engine runs but
misses are cylinder”?
(A) Defective spark plug
(B) Stuck valve
(C) Defective head gasket
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 255. Engine turns over slowly but does not start what is its
possible cause?
(A) Discharge battery
(B) Defective cranking motor
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of the above
Ans: C

Question: 256. Which one of the following is smoky exhaust?

(A) Blue smoke
(B) Black smoke
(C) Both
(D) None
Ans: C

64
Question: 257. What is the possible cause if the engine overheats?
(A) Lack of water
(B) Late ignition timing
(C) Clogged water jackets
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 258. Which one of the following is the cause of overheating?

(A) Low type pressure
(B) Over speeding
(C) Rich fuel mixture
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 259. When the vehicle’s starter will not run then its possible
cause is—
(A) Main fuse is blown off
(B) Run-down battery
(C) Defective brushes in starter
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 260. What is the possible cause when horn will not sound off?
(A) Blown-off fuse
(B) Broken circuit wire
(C) Defective horn
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

65
Question: 261. What is the possible cause when fuel meter gives no
indication?
(A) Open circuit
(B) Burnt point
(C) Both
(D) None
Ans: C

Question: 262. What is the possible cause of faulty meter indication?

(A) Incomplete metal to metal contact
(B) Defective receiver gauge
(C) Erratic float movement
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 263. What is the possible cause of steering noise?

(A) Loose bolts and nuts
(B) Loose leaf spring seats
(C) Worn or sticky tie rod ends
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 264. Maximum combustion pressure in a car petrol engine is

about
(a) 6 kpa
(b) 60 kPa
(c) 6 MPa
(d) 60 MPa
Ans C

66
Question: 265. Doubling the cylinder diameter of an engine could give
power output, which is 'x' times the original value, where ‘x’ is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 8
Ans B

Question: 266. In a six-cylinder engine, the power impulse occurs after

‘x’ degrees of crankshaft rotation, where ‘x’ is
(a)90
(b)120
(c) 240
(d) 360
Ans B

Question: 267. The lubricant used for steam cylinders is—

(A) Lard oil
(B) Tallow oil
(C) Tape oil
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 268. Firing order of a 6-eylinder in-line engine is usually

(a) 1-5-3-6-2-4
(b) 1-6-3-5-2-4
(c) 1-4-3-2-6-5
(d) 1-3-6-2-4-5
Ans A

67
Question: 269. The cylinder bores of aluminum alloy cylinder blocks arc
usually plated with
(a) steel
(b) brass
(c) chromium
(d) molybdenum
Ans C

Question: 270. The angle between the cylinder axes and the crankshaft
centre line in an engine is
(a) 60
(b) 90
(c) 120
(d) 180
Ans B

Question: 271. Most difficult gasket sealing problem occurs at the

(a) head
(b) oil pan
(c) liming cover
(d) intake manifold
Ans A

Question: 272. Each time a joint is assembled, it is recommended to

replace
(a) cork gaskets
(b) asbestos gaskets
(c) rubber gaskets
(d) all gaskets
Ans D

68
Question: 273. Flat bottomed inlet manifolds are commonly used in car
engine to
(a) allow space for two runner levels
(b) increase fuel evaporation in the manifold
(c) provide uniform air-fuel mixture to various cylinders
(d) maximise the cross-sectional area for the given wall surface area
of the manifold
Ans B

Question: 274. The oil pan in an engine may be made of

(a) steel or aluminum
(b) steel or cast iron
(c) cast iron or brass
(d) cast iron or zinc
Ans A

Question: 275. A dish in the piston head is employed to

(a) decrease piston weight
(b) provide valve clearance
(c) control compression ratio
(d) adjust piston displacement
Ans C

Question: 276. The largest diameter of a cam ground piston is

(a) along piston pin axis
(b) at the piston land
(c) at 45° to the piston pin axis
(d) al 90° to the piston pin axis
Ans A

Question: 277. The piston-skirt clearance at room temperature is about

69
(a) 0.004 mm
(b) 0.04 mm
(d) 1 mm
(c) 0.4 mm
Ans B

Question: 278. Piston pins on some engines are offset to the

(a) right side
(c) major thrust side
(b) left side
(d) minor thrust side
Ans B

Question: 279. The purpose of piston rings is to control

(a) combustion pressures
(b) cylinder wall lubrication
(c) oil consumption
(d) all of the above
Ans D

Question: 280. In auto thermic pistons steel inserts arc used to

(a) reduce piston expansion
(b) control the direction of expansion
(c) reduce piston weight
(d) make the piston stronger
Ans: B

Question: 281. The minimum number of compression rings in an

automotive engine is
(a) one
(b) two

70
(c) three
(d) four
Ans: B

Question: 282. compression rings are generally made of

(a) low carbon steel
(b) high carbon steel
(c) aluminium
(d) chromium
Ans: D

Question: 283. Which of the following chemical is used in the battery?

(A) Sponge lead (solid)
(B) Lead oxide (paste)
(C) Sulphuric acid (Liquid)
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 284. When the battery is fully charged than its specific gravity
at 27° is—
(A) 1·220
(B) 1·175
(C) 1·100
(D) None
Ans: A

Question: 285. When the battery is half discharged then its specific
gravity (27°) is—
(A) 1·100
(B) 1·175
(C) 1·220

71
(D) None
Ans: B

Question: 286. When the battery is fully discharged then its specific
gravity (27°) is—
(A) 1·175
(B) 1·220
(C) 1·100
(D) None
Ans: C

Question: 287. For battery the amount of current depends upon the
following factor—
(A) No. of plates
(B) Area of plates
(C) Temperature
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 288. Which of the following test of primary importance with

respect to the lead acid battery is—
(A) Capacity test
(B) High rate discharge test
(C) Life cycle test
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 289. It is important that specific gravity …… be used to

determine the degree of recharge except at the final stages.
(A) Can
(B) Can not

72
(C) Remain
(D) None
Ans: B

Question: 290. The uppermost ring on a piston is usually plated with

(a) steel
(b) cast iron
(c) aluminium
(d) chromium
Ans: D

Question: 291. On the compression stroke the rings are pressed against
(a) top of groove
(b) bottom of groove
(c) inner side of groove
(d) all of these
Ans: B

Question: 292. The primary purpose of a ring expander is to

(a) make up for cylinder wear
(b) increase static ring tension
(c) decrease dynamic ring tension
(d) reduce ring vibrations
Ans: A

Question: 293. Connecting rod connects the crankshaft and the

(a) cylinder head
(b) cylinder block
(c) piston
(d) camshaft
Ans: C

73
Question: 294. The piston pins in the modern automobile engines are
usually
(a) semi-floating
(b) fully-floating
(c) three-quarter floating
(d) fixed to both piston and the connecting rod end
Ans: B

Question: 295. The counterweights on a crankshaft are located opposite

the
(a) main bearings
(b) big-end hearings
(c) small-end bearings
(d) vibration damper
Ans: B

Question: 296. On the front end of a crankshaft is mounted

(a) timing gear
(b) vibration damper
(c) fan pulley
(d) all of these
Ans: D

Question: 297. All the heavier vehicles use a …… battery system.

(A) 2 V
(B) 6 V
(C) 12 V
(D) 24 V
Ans: D

74
Question: 298. …… is the quantity of electrical charge furnished by a
current of one ampere for one hour.
(A) Ampere
(B) Ampere hour
(C) Ampere second
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 299. If a battery is continuously undercharged it becomes—

(A) Acideted
(B) Leaded
(C) Sulphated
(D) None
Ans: C

Question: 300. It is commonly believed that a storage battery stores the

…… but it is not true.
(A) Electric energy
(B) Chemical energy
(C) Both of them
(D) None of these
Ans: A

Question: 301. On the rear end of a crankshaft mounted

(a) flywheel
(b) counterweight|
(c) vibration damper
(d) timing sprocket
Ans A

75
Question: 302. The ratio of main journal diameter and the cylinder bore
in a ear engine is approximately
(a) 0.1
(b) 0.25
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.75
Ans: D

Question: 303. In a six-cylinder car engine the angle between the

successive crank throw is
(a) 60
(b) 90
(c) 120
(d) 180
Ans: C

Question: 304. The vibration damper on a crankshaft reduces the

(a) longitudinal vibrations
(b) transverse vibrations
(c) torsional vibrations
(d) all of these
Ans: C

Question: 305. The number of main bearings in a 4-cylinder car engine

is usually
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Ans: B

76
Question: 306. The most commonly used valve in an automobile engine
is
(a) poppet valve
(b) sleeve valve
(c) rotary valve
(d) none of these
Ans: A

Question: 307. Exhaust valve face angle is generally

(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 75°
Ans: B

Question: 308. The material used for inlet valve is usually

(a) silico-chrome steel
(b) austinic steel
(c) precipitation-hardening steel
(d) nimonic alloy
Ans: A

Question: 309. Most commonly used valve-actuating mechanism in

modem cars is
(a) side valve mechanism
(b) overhead valve mechanism
(c) overhead inlet and side exhaust valve mechanism
(d) none of these
Ans: B

Question: 310. The engine valves are closed by

77
(a) crankshaft
(b) camshaft
(c) timing device
(d) valve spring
Ans: D

Question: 311. The camshaft controls

(a) valve opening
(b) valve closing
(c) valve liming
(d) all of these
Ans: D

Question: 312. How many times in a minute does each valve on a four
stroke engine running at 2000 RPM open and close?
(a) 1000
(b) 2000
(c) 4000
(d) 6000
Ans: A

Question: 313. The camshaft drive which does not require lubrication is
(a) chain drive
(b) gear drive
(c) toothed rubber belt
(d) none of these
Ans: C

Question: 314. The push rod is located between the

(a) valve and valve spring
(b) valve and rocker arm

78
(c) tappet and rocker arm
(d) none of these
Ans: C

Question: 315. A says that rocker arms reverse reciprocating motion

while B says that rocker arms convert rotating motion to reciprocating
motion. Who is right?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) Both are right
(d) Both arc wrong
Ans: A

Question: 316. A asserts that intake valves are cooled while they are
open. However. B states that exhaust valves are heated while they are
open. Who is right?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) Both are right
(d) Both arc wrong
Ans: C

Question: 317. The exhaust valve usually starts opening

(a) at BDC
(b) at TDC
(c) before BDC
(d) before TDC
Ans: C

Question: 318. Valve overlap occurs between

(a) intake and compression strokes

79
 (b) compression and power strokes
(c) power and exhaust strokes
(d) exhaust and intake strokes.
Ans: D

Question: 319. The engine requires overhauling in case of

(a) poor compression
(b) excessive consumption of lubricating oil
(c) mechanical failure
(d) all of the above
Ans: D

Question: 320. The carbon from the cylinder head is removed with
(a) water
(b) caustic soda
(c) scraper
(d) soap
Ans: C

Question: 321. The warpage of cylinder head is checked with a

(a) metal rule
(b) vernier caliper
(c) micrometer
(d) dial gauge
Ans: A

Question: 322. The cylinder head nuts should be tightened to a torque of

about
(a) 15 Nm
(b) 150 Nm
(c) 50 Nm

80
(d) 1500 Nm
Ans: C

Question: 323. Aluminized valves are never ground they have to be

replaced because
(a) aluminium is a costly material
(b) aluminium surface is difficult to he ground
(c) grinding such valves will make them corrosion prone
(d) none of these.
Ans: C

Question: 324. The valves have to be replaced if the metal to be

removed or smoothening their end surfaces is more than
(a) 0.05 mm
(b) 0.5 mm
(c) 1.5 mm
(d) 5 mm
Ans: B

Question: 325. The width of the valve seat should not be kept more than
(a) 0.2 mm
(b) 0.5 mm
(c) 1.2 mm
(d) 5 mm
Ans: C

Question: 326. While lapping a valve, the lapping compound is applied to

its
(a) face
(b) stem
(c) guide

81
(d) tip
Ans: A

Question: 327. The stem clearance in the valve guide is checked by

means of a
(a) metal rule
(b) vernier caliper
(c) micrometer
(d) dial gauge
Ans: D

Question: 328. Maximum permissible bearing clearance for the

camshaft is usually
(a) 0.05 mm
(b) 0.15 mm
(c) 0.5 mm
(d) 1.5 mm
Ans: A

Question: 329. The bearing clearance is never measured with a

(a) vernier calliper
(b) micrometer
(c) feeler gauge
(d) plastigage
Ans: A

Question: 330. Maximum permissible ovality in a cylinder is usually

(a) 0.01 mm
(b) 0.1 mm
(c) 0.5 mm
(d) 1.0 mm

82
Ans: A

Question: 331. The cylinder bore oversize for reboring is calculated on

the basis of
(a) minimum ovality in any cylinder
(b) maximum ovality in any cylinder
(c) average value of ovality in the cylinder
(d) size of the piston available
Ans: B

Question: 332. For checking the alignment of the crankshaft, the best
method is to place it
(a) on V-blocks
(b) on its ends
(c) on lathe centres
(d) on a plane smooth table
Ans: B

Question: 333. The crankshaft bending should not generally exceed

(a) 0.008 mm
(b) 0.08 mm
(c) 0.8 mm
(d) 8 mm
Ans: B

Question: 334. Percentage of fuel energy lost to the cylinder walls in an

automobile engine is approximately
(a) 1 per cent
(b) 10 per cent
(c) 30 per cent
(d) 80 per cent

83
Ans: C

Question: 336. Sequence of coolant circulation is:

(a) pump-radiator-block-head
(b) pump-block-head-radiator
(c) pump-block-radiator-head
(d) pump-radiator-head-block
Ans: B

Question: 336. On leaving the engine the coolant goes to

(a) pump inlet
(b) header tank
(c) collector tank
(d) none of the above
Ans: B

Question: 337. The radiator core is made of

(a) brass
(b) steel
(c) cast iron
(d) plastic
Ans: A

Question: 338. A pressure cap contains a

(a) pressure valve
(b) thermostat valve
(c) blow-off-valve
(d) pressure and vacuum valve
Ans: D

Question: 339. The purpose of the thermostat is to keep the engine

84
(a) hot
(b) cool
(c) at desire temperature
(d) none of the above
Ans: C

Question: 340. The thermostat valve starts to open at about

(a) 90°C
(b) 80°C
(c) 50°C
(d) 20°C
Ans: B

Question: 341. Coolant pumps are of

(a) vane type
(b) reciprocating type
(c) centrifugal type
(d) all of the above type
Ans: C

Question: 342. The purpose of the fan is to

(a) increase flow of coolant
(b) draw air through the radiator
(c) cool the engine by blowing air over it
(d) provide drive to the coolant pump
Ans: B

Question: 343. Cooling fans are driven by

(a) electricity and belts
(b) gears and belts
(c) chains and gears

85
(d) all of the above
Ans: A

Question: 344. The fan in the Maruti car is controlled

(a) electrically
(b) mechanically
(c) hydraulically
(d) magnetically
Ans: A

Question: 345. Engine overheating may result due to

(a) radiator pressure cap stuck closer
(b) thermostat stuck open
(c) broken fan belt
(d) excess coolant in the system
Ans: C

Question: 346. The friction that occurs between the layers of oil in an oil
film is called
(a) viscous friction
(b) solid friction
(c) boundary friction
(d) greasy friction
Ans: A

Question: 347. The primary function of lubrication is to

(a) provide cooling effect
(b) provide sealing effect
(c) provide cleaning action
(d) reduce wear
Ans: D

86
Question: 348. The most important characteristic of a lubricating oil is
its
(a) viscousity
(b) physical stability
(c) chemical stability
(d) resistance against corrosion
Ans: A

Question: 349. Most commonly used lubricants in automobiles are the

(a) animal oils
(b) mineral oils
(c) vegetable oils
(d) synthetic oils
Ans: B

Question: 350. The most common lubrication system in automobile is

the
(a) petroit system
(b) splash system
(c) pressure system
(d) none of the above
Ans: C

Question: 351. The approximate oil pressure in the lubrication system in

modern cars is
(a) 45-50 kPa
(b) 200-400 kPa
(c) 1-5 MPa
(d) more than 10 MPa
Ans: B

87
Question: 352. Maximum oil pressure in the lubrication system is
controlled by
(a) oil filter
(b) pump rotor
(c) pressure relief valve
(d) pressure switch
Ans: C

Question: 353. The lubrication system in all modern cars has

(a) gear type pump
(b) rotor type pump
(c) oil filter
(d) oil cooler
Ans: C

Question: 354. From the oil pump the oil directly to

(a) oil gallery
(b) oil strainer
(c) oil filter
(d) main bearings
Ans: C

Question: 355. End play of gears of an oil pump may be checked by

using
(a) inside caliper
(b) outside caliper
(c) vernier caliper and feeler gauge
(d) straight edge and feeler gauge
Ans: D

88
Question: 356. The best hydrocarbons from detonation viewpoint are
(a) paraffins
(b) olefins
(c) naphthenes
(d) aromatics
Ans: D

Question: 357. The process of changing the molecular structure of the

straight-run gasoline is called
(a) cracking
(b) reforming
(c) refining
(d) none of the above
Ans: B

Question: 358. The process in which hydrocarbons are decomposed into

smaller hydrocarbons is called
(a) cracking
(b) reforming
(c) polymerisation
(d) alkylation
Ans: A

Question: 359. The calorific value of gasoline is about

(a) 45 J/kg
(b) 45 kJ/kg
(c) 45 MJ/kg
(d) 45 GJ/kg
Ans: C

Question: 360. The calorific value of alcohol is

89
(a) less than that of gasoline
(b) equals to that of gasoline
(c) more than that of gasoline
(d) depends upon type of the engine where used
Ans: A

Question: 361. The octane number of iso-octane is

(a) 0
(b) 10
(c) 80
(d) 100
Ans: D

Question: 362. One effect of detonation is

(a) delay in ignition
(b) interruption in lubrication
(c) loss of power
(d) deterioration in the quality of air-fuel mixture
Ans: C

Question: 363. An effective method of prevention of detonation is the

(a) cooling of the charge
(b) heating of the charge
(c) locating spark plug at one end of the combustion chamber
(d) reducing the quantity of aromatics in the fuel used.
Ans: A

Question: 364. Octane number of Indian lead-free petrol is

(a) less than octane number of leaded petrol
(b) equal to octane number of leaded petrol
(c) greater than octane number of leaded petrol

90
(d) not specified
Ans: B

Question: 365. Lead peroxide is of …… colour.

(A) Black
(B) White
(C) Green
(D) Chocolate
Ans: D

Question: 366. Now a day …… type of chargers are commonly used.

(A) Amplifier
(B) Fire
(C) Rectifier
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 367. Body of the dynamo is made of …… steel in circular pipe

shape.
(A) Oil
(B) Black
(C) Milk
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 368. End shields are made of—

(A) Cast iron
(B) Aluminium allay
(C) Both of them
(D) None of these
Ans: C

91
Question: 369. For checking the field coil connect the coil in …… with 12
volt battery and fix up 36 watts bulb in the circuit.
(A) Series
(B) Parallel
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans: A

Question: 370. The use of tetraethyl lead in gasoline is being gradually

discontinued because
(a) it is costly
(b) it has bad odour
(c) it blocks the catalytic converter
(d) it decreases the engine efficiency
Ans: C

Question: 371. The function of quench area in a wedge-shaped

combustion chamber is to
(a) improve the compression ratio
(b) cool the end gases
(c) decrease the volume of combustion chamber
(d) increase the area of combustion chamber
Ans: B

Question: 372. An indication of ignition quality of a diesel fuel is given

by
(a) detonation
(b) octane number
(c) preignition
(d) cetane number

92
Ans: D

Question: 373. The most widely used fuel supply system for car engines
is the
(a) gravity system
(b) pressure system
(c) vacuum system
(d) pump system
Ans: D

Question: 374. The drive for the mechanical fuel pump is taken from the
(a) crankshaft
(b) camshaft
(c) distributor shaft
(d) any of these
Ans: B

Question: 375. Small holes in the pump body provide a vent for
(a) air
(b) water
(c) fuel
(d) oil
Ans: A

Question: 376. fuel pump outlet pressure should be approximately

(a) 3 kPa
(b) 30 kPa
(c) 100 kPa
(d) 300 kPa
Ans: B

93
Question: 377. Lean air-fuel mixture is required for
(a) starting
(b) idling
(c) cruising
(d) acceleration
Ans: C

Question: 378. The carburettor provides the correct quality of air-fuel

mixture during
(a) starting
(b) idling
(c) acceleration
(d) all conditions
Ans: D

Question: 379.The venturi in the carburettor causes the

(a) increase or air velocity
(b) decrease of air velocity
(c) decrease of fuel flow
(d) decrease of manifold vacuum
Ans: A

Question: 380. The throttle valve controls the supply of

(a) air only
(b) fuel only
(c) air fuel mixture
(d) none of these
Ans: C

Question: 381. A single jet carburettor tends to supply richer mixture

during

94
(a) starling
(b) idling
(c) low speed operation
(d) high speed operation
Ans: D

Question: 382. The choke is usually closed when the engine is

(a) hot
(b) cold
(c) idling
(d) accelerating
Ans: B

Question: 383. When the choke is applied the fuel come out from the
(a) main jet
(b) idle port
(c) transfer port
(d) progression hole
Ans: (a) main jet

Question: 384. In a single jet carburettor the mixture tends to become

richer
(a) during winter
(b) at low altitudes
(c) at high altitudes
(d) during idling
Ans: C

Question: 385. At very low temperatures the ice tends to form in the
carburettor in the
(a) air cleaner

95
(b) venturi
(c) idle jet
(d) float
Ans: B

Question: 386. The example of a ‘variable venturi’ type carburettor is

the
(a) Carter carburettor
(b) SolexCarburettor
(c) S.U. Carburettor
(d) Zenith carburettor
Ans: C

Question: 387. Ami-dieseling device is incorporated in the carburettor

used in the
(a) Ambassador car
(b) Premier Padmini car
(c) maruti 800 car
(d) All of these
Ans: C

Question: 388. The carburettors in which air-fuel mixture is controlled

automatically by a computer are called the
(a) downdraft carburettors
(b) updraft carburettors
(c) Feedback carburettors
(d) automatic carburettors
Ans: C

Question: 389. The most accurate petrol injection system is the

(a) direct injection

96
(b) port injection
(c) manifold injection
(d) throttle body injection
Ans: B

Question: 390. The cheapest yet reasonably precise gasoline injection

system is the
(a) direct injection
(b) port injection
(c) sequential injection
(d) throttle body injection
Ans: D

Question: 391. The amount of fuel delivered by the injector depends

upon the
(a) size of injector nozzle
(b) pressure pushing fuel through the injector
(c) length of time the injector is open
(d) all the above factors.
Ans: D

Question: 392. The compression ratio in an automotive diesel engine is

usually
(a) 7:1
(b) 10:1
(c) 15:1
(d) 22:1
Ans: D

Question: 393. The cranking compression pressure in a diesel engine is

about

97
(a) 1000 kPa
(b) 2000 kPa
(c) 3000 kPa
(d) 10000 kPa
Ans: C

Question: 394. The cylinder temperature after compression in a diesel

engine is approximately
(a) 300°C
(b) 450°C
(c) 800°C
(d) 1000°C
Ans: B

Question: 395. The ignition temperature of diesel fuel is about

(a) 300°C
(b) 400°C
(c) 600°C
(d) 800°C
Ans: B

Question: 396. The fuel feed pump in a diesel engine is mounted

(a) on the fuel tank
(b) on the injection pump
(c) on the injector
(d) inside the fuel tank
Ans: B

Question: 397. In some diesel engines injection pressures can reach as

high as
(a) 100 MPa

98
(b) 200 MPa
(c) 300 Mpa
(d) 400 MPa
Ans: B

Question: 398. The fuel injection timing in a distributor type pump is

controlled by
(a) changing plunger stoke
(b) changing speed of rotor
(c) rotating the cam ring
(d) changing the number of cams on the ring
Ans: C

Question: 399.The opening pressure of hole type nozzles varies from

(a) 7-15 MPa
(b) 11-22 MPa
(c) 17-34 Mpa
(d) 35-45 Mpa
Ans: C

Question: 400. The opening pressure of pintle type nozzles varies from
(a) 7-15 MPa
(b) 11-22 MPa
(c) 17-34 Mpa
(d) 35-45 Mpa
Ans: A

Question: 401. Secondary filter in a diesel engine is

(a) a must
(b) installed between the fuel tank and feed pump
(c) optional

99
(d) not capable of removing water from the fuel
Ans: A

Question: 402. A glow plug is

(a) a decompression device
(b) installed in the inlet manifold
(c) screwed into the combustion chamber
(d) used to plug the leakage of fuel
Ans: C

Question: 403. It is common for the diesel engine to emit excessive

smoke during
(a) starting
(b) acceleration
(c) deceleration
(d) idling
Ans: B

Question: 404. Aneroid is a

(a) cold starting device
(b) emission control device
(c) decompression device
(d) device for timing injection
Ans: B

Question: 405. From the engine indicator diagram, we obtain

(a) I.M.E.P.
(b) B.M.E.P.
(c) mechanical efficiency
(d) relative efficiency
Ans: A

100
Question: 406. The units of spring scale for the engine indicator are
(a) kW
(b) N
(c) Nm
(d) N/m^2/m
Ans: D

Question: 407. Engine indicators not having any inertia effects are
(a) mechanical type
(b) electrical type
(c) optical type
(d) none of these
Ans: C

Question: 408. The most accurate dynamometer is the

(a) prony brake type
(b) hydraulic type
(c) swinging field type
(d) eddy current type
Ans: C

Question: 409. Most commonly used dynamometer on account of its

simplicity of construction is the
(a) prony brake type
(b) hydraulic type
(c) swinging field type
(d) eddy current type
Ans: A

Question: 410. A four-speed gear box provides—

101
(A) I, II and III gear
(B) I, II and top gear
(C) I, II, III and top gear
(D) None of the above
Ans: C

Question: 411. A five-speed gear box provides—

(A) Five speed gear
(B) Four-speed gear
(C) All possible gear
(D) Not more than three gears
Ans: A

Question: 412. What is the gear ratio of low shift position?

(A) 43
(B) 43/12
(C) 87
(D) 87/20
Ans: B

Question: 413. What is the gear ratio of top shift position?

(A) 27/30
(B) 43/12
(C) 87/20
(D) 80/12
Ans: A

Question: 414. What is the gear ratio of second shift position?

(A) 27/30
(B) 43/12
(C) 39/18

102
(D) 80/17
Ans: C

Question: 415. What is the gear ratio of third shift position?

(A) 27/30
(B) 43/12
(C) 39/18
(D) 32/24
Ans: D

Question: 416. What is the ratio of final reduction shift position?

(A) 3·858
(B) 2·333
(C) 0·999
(D) 4·350
Ans: D

Question: 417. What is the speed ratio of low shift position?

(A) 3·583
(B) 0·999
(C) 0·234
(D) None
Ans: A

Question: 418. Brake thermal efficiency for S.I. engines usually varies
between
(a) 25% and 30%
(b) 30% and 60%
(c) 60% and 80%
(d) More than 80%
Ans: A

103
Question: 419. The three components of primary ignition circuit are
(a) the contact breaker, condenser and distributor cup
(b) the contact breaker, ignition coil and spark plug
(c) the contact breaker, ignition switch unit condenser
(d) the contact breaker, ignition switch and rotor
Ans: C

Question: 420. The components of secondary ignition circuit include the

secondary winding of ignition coil, distributor rotor, distributor cap and
(a) condenser
(b) spark plug
(c) ignition switch
(d) distributor drive gear
Ans: B

Question: 421. The primary winding of ignition coil consists of

(a) a few turns of thin wire
(b) many turns of thin wire
(c) a few turns of thick wire
(d) many turns of thick wire
Ans: C

Question: 422. Contact breaker points are generally made of

(a) plastic
(b) steel
(c) copper
(d) tungsten
Ans: D

Question: 423. The ‘dwell’ is

104
(a) The time for which the points remain closed
(b) the distance between the cam lobes
(c) the angle at which the heal contacts the cam
(d) none of the above
Ans: A

Question: 424. Excessive contact breaker gap results in

(a) advanced timing
(b) increased dwell
(c) rapid burning of point
(d) all of the above
Ans: A

Question: 425. The spark occurs when the

(a) points closed
(b) increased dwell
(c) ignition switch is on
(d) none of the above
Ans: B

Question: 426. Contact breaker points are opened by the cam and
closed by the
(a) same cam
(b) centrifugal force
(c) magnetic force
(d) spring tension
Ans: D

Question: 427. The dwell angle on a six- cylinder engine compared to a

four-cylinder engine is
(a) more

105
(b) less
(c) equal
(d) sometimes less and sometimes more
Ans: B

Question: 428. The contact breaker gap is set most accurate by means
of a
(a) feeler gauge
(b) steel rule
(c) dial gauge
(d) dwell meter
Ans: D

Question: 429. Contact breaker gap should be set

(a) before adjusting dwell angle
(b) after adjusting dwell angle
(c) first after starting the engine
(d) after setting spark plug gap
Ans: B

Question: 430. The capacity of an automotive engine consider is

approximately
(a) 0.2 microfarads
(b) 2 microfarads
(c) 20 microfarads
(d) 2 millifarads
Ans: A

Question: 431. The ratio of the distributor shaft and the crankshaft
speed is
(a) one

106
(b) one-half
(c) one-fourth
(d) two
Ans: B

Question: 432. The centrifugal advance machine provides ignition

advance proportional to
(a) engine load
(b) engine speed
(c) both a and b
(d) none of the above
Ans: B

Question: 433. Vacuum advance mechanism operate at

(a) light engine load
(b) heavy engine load
(c) high engine speed
(d) any of the above
Ans: A

Question: 434. Ignition timing can be adjusted by a

(a) accurate clock
(b) stop watch
(c) stroboscopic light
(d) vacuum gauge
Ans: C

Question: 435. The commonly used material of insulator of spark plug is

(a) bakelite
(b) asbestos
(c) alumina

107
(d) copper
Ans: C

Question: 436. Compare to the life of a spark plug of two stroke engine,
the spark plug life of a four-stroke engine is approximately
(a) same
(b) twice
(c) one-half
(d) none of the above
Ans: B

Question: 437. A spark may be fouled by

(a) petrol
(b) oil
(c) lead
(d) all of these
Ans: D

Question: 438. Spark plug having white insulator tip indicates

(a) over advanced ignition
(b) retarded ignition
(c) leaded fuel
(d) gas leak
Ans: A

Question: 439. A spark plug with a black centre insulator indicates

(a) over advance ignition
(b) retarded ignition
(c) stuck-up choke valve in the carburretor
(d) excessive dwell
Ans: C

108
Question: 440. A semi-conductor is a material with
(a) more than four electrons in its outermost orbit
(b) less than four electrons in its outermost orbit
(c) exactly four electrons in its outermost orbit
(d) none of the above
Ans: C

Question: 441. N-type semi-conductor material is obtained by doping

with
(a) antimony
(b) iron
(c) boron
(d) silicon
Ans: A

Question: 442. Two types of semi-conductors are

(a) doped and undoped
(b) P and N
(c) hole and electron
(d) white and grey
Ans: B

Question: 443. Current will flow through a diode when it is connected

(a) in forward bias
(b) in reversed bias
(c) to any suitable battery in any manner
(d) none of the above
Ans: A

Question: 444. A zener diode is used for

109
(a) rectification of current
(b) blocking the current flow in reverse direction
(c) voltage regulation
(d) all of the above
Ans: C

Question: 445. A transistor consists of a base,

(a) diode and emitter
(b) diode and collector
(c) emitter and collector
(d) diode and thyristor
Ans: C

Question: 446. A transistor is controlled by the current at

(a) the base
(b) the emitter
(c) the collector
(d) both the emitter and the collector
Ans: A

Question: 447. The ignition coil in an electronic ignition system is

triggered on and off by means of a
(a) contact breaker
(b) diode
(c) permanent magnet
(d) timer
Ans: D

Question: 448. A pulse generator consists of a

(a) permanent magnet, ignition coil and electronic control unit
(b) permanent magnet, reluctor and electronic control unit

110
(c) ignition coil, reluctor and electronic control unit
(d) permanent magnet, reluctor and timer coil
Ans: D

Question: 449. The most accurate timer for electronic ignition system is
the
(a) diode
(b) transistor
(c) Hall effect switch
(d) pulse generator
Ans: C

Question: 450. The number of ignition coils in a distributorless ignition

system for a 6-cylinder engine is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 6
Ans: C

Question: 451. The colour of positive plate of a lead-acid battery is

(a) brown
(b) grey
(c) white
(d) black
Ans: A

Question: 452. The colour of negative plate of a lead-acid battery is

(a) brown
(b) white
(c) grey

111
(d) black
Ans: B

Question: 453. The positive plate of a lead-acid battery has

(a) PbO2
(b) Pb
(c) PbSO4
(d) H2SO4
Ans: A

Question: 454. The negative plate of a lead-acid battery has

(a) PbO2
(b) Pb
(c) PbSO4
(d) H2SO4
Ans: B

Question: 455. Battery electrolyte consists of approximately (by

volume)
(a) 35 percent sulphuric acid and 65 percent waler
(b) 65 percent sulphuric acid and 35 percent water
(c) 65 percent nitric acid and 35 percent water
(d) 35 percent nitric acid and 65 percent water
Ans: A

Question: 456. To increase output voltage, battery cells are connected

in
(a) series
(b) parallel
(c) series-parallel
(d) None of the above

112
Ans: A

Question: 457. The capacity of a battery is determined by the number of

plates per cell and
(a) number of cells
(b) shape of plates
(c) size of plates
(d) number of separators
Ans: C

Question: 458. A maintenance-free battery

(a) has lead-anlimony plate grid
(b) has lead-calciuin plate grid
(c) does not contain acid
(d) does not contain water
Ans: B

Question: 459. The number of positive plates in a battery cell is

(a) one more than the negative plates
(b) one less than the negative plate
(c) two less than the negative plates
(d) two more than the negative plates
Ans: B

Question: 460. A discharged lead-acid battery has on its plates

(a) PbO2
(b) Pb
(c) Pb3O4
(d) PbSO4
Ans: D

113
Question: 461. A fully-charged 6 cell automotive battery should indicate
(a) 12 V
(b) 12.6 V
(c) sp. gravity of 1.290 at 32°C
(d Both (b) and (c)
Ans: D

Question: 462. With the increase of battery temperature, the specific

gravity of electrolyte
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) stays the same
(d) none of these
Ans: D

Question: 463. In a d.c. generator magnetic field is produced in the

(a) armature
(b) commutator
(c) carbon brushes
(d) stator
Ans: D

Question: 464. The three units contained in a regulator for automobile

d.c. generator are
(a) voltage regulator* current regulator and Zener diode
(b) voltage regulator, current regulator and temperature compensator
(c) voltage regulator, current regulator and cutout relay
(d) any three of the above
Ans: C

114
Question: 465. The frequency of a vibrating contact type regulator for
d.c. generator is
(a) 20 per second
(6) 200 per second
(c) 20 per minute
(d) 200 per minute
Ans: B

Question: 466. The charging voltage at the start of the engine is

……………….than when the engine is running on load.
(a) lower
(b) higher
(c) same
(d) any of the above
Ans: B

Question: 467. In an alternator the magnetic field is produced in the

(a) rotor
(b) stator
(c) frame
(d) regulator
Ans: A

Question: 468. An alternator frame is made of

(a) cast iron
(b) brass
(c) aluminium
(d) copper
Ans: C

Question: 469. The number of windings in the stator of an alternator is

115
(a) 1
(2)2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans: C

Question: 470. The number of windings in the stator of an alternator is

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 6
Ans: D

Question: 471. The output of an alternator is controlled by

(a) voltage regulator
(b) cutout relay
(c) current regulator
(d) all of the above
Ans: A

Question: 472. A thermister is used in an alternator regulator to

(a) control maximum voltage
(b) control maximum current
(c) compensate for temperature change
(d) all of the above
Ans: C

Question: 473. Gear reduction between the starting motor and the
flywheel is about
(a) 5
(b) 10

116
(c) 15
(D) 50
Ans: C

Question: 474. In a starter motor the field windings are wound around
(a) armature
(b) commutator
(c) brush
(d) pole shoes
Ans: D

Question: 475. Automotive starting motors ae

(a) series wound
(b) series-shunt wound
(c) shunt wound
(d) both (a) and (b)above
Ans: D

Question: 476. The stalling torques of starting motors for cars vary
between
(a) 10-30Nm
(b) 30-60 Nm
(c) 60-100 Nm
(d) 100-180 Nm
Ans: B

Question: 477. Inertia type drives are commonly employed in

(a) cars
(b) light transport vehicles
(c) heavy transport vehicles
(d) cross-country vehicles

117
Ans: A

Question: 478. Any short-circuit in the armature winding may be tested

with a
(a) multimeter
(b) growler
(c) voltmeter
(d) ammeter
Ans: B

Question: 479. Continuity in the field windings can be tested with a

(a) multimeter
(b) growler
(c) voltmeter
(d) none of the above
Ans: A

Question: 480. Apart from hydrocarbons, the main Pollutants in the

engine exhaust are
(a) CO and CO2
(b) CO2 and NOX
(c) CO and NOX
(d) CO2 and H2O
Ans: C

Question: 481. Maximum allowable hydrocarbons in the car emission

are approximately
(a) 10 ppm
(b) 100 ppm
(c) 1000 ppm
(d)5000 ppm

118
Ans: B

Question: 482. CO in the exhaust of a car engine should not be more

than
(a) 0.5%
(b) 2 %
(c) 5%
(d) 10%
Ans: A

Question: 483. The PCV valve is located between the

(a) air cleaner and the carburettor
(b) carburettor and the intake manifold
(c) intake manifold and air cleaner
(d) intake manifold and crankcase
Ans: D

Question: 484. In ease of engines backfiring, the PCV valve

(a) opens maximum
(b) closes
(c) disintegrates
(d) sticks in the centre position
Ans: B

Question: 485. The position of the PCV valve plunger at idle speed is
(a) towards the valve outlet side
(d) near the valve centre
(c) towards the crankcase
(b) towards the valve inlet side
Ans: A

119
Question: 486. The function of charcoal granules is to absorb
(a) water vapour
(b) carbon monoxide
(c) petrol vapour
(d) liquid petrol
Ans: C

Question: 487. The liquid-vapour separator is located near the

(a) fuel tank
(b) carburettor
(c) charcoal canister
(d) purge valve
Ans: A

Question: 488. EGR system is employed for controlling emissions of

(a) HC
(b) CO
(c) NO
(d) HCandCO
Ans: C

Question: 489. The pump for the air injection system is of

(a) gear type
(b) eccentric type
(c) vane type
(d) reciprocating type
Ans: C

Question: 490. The main purpose of the diverter valve in the air
injection system is to

120
(a) close the check valve
(b) prevent backfire in the exhaust system
(c) prevent backfire in the inlet manifold
(d) weaken the air-fuel mixture
Ans: B

Question: 491. The catalyst used in the reduction converter is

(a) copper
(b) charcoal
(c) rodium
(d) platinum
Ans: C

Question: 492. The catalyst used in the converter for oxidising HC and
CO is
(a) copper
(b) charcoal
(c) radium
(d) platinum
Ans: D

Question: 493. In a three-way converter, the first converter controls

(a) HC
(b) CO
(c) NOx
(d) all of these
Ans: C

Question: 494. The air fuel ratio required for the efficient operation of a
three-way converter is approximated
(a) 5:1

121
(b) 10:1
(c) 15:1
(d) 20:1
Ans: C

Question: 495. Heavy duty oil bath type air cleaner is/was used in the
engine of
(a) Premier Padmini
(c) Premier Roadmaster
(b) Dolphin
(d) Maruti 800
Ans: C

Question: 496. Compression ratio of 22.4 is used in the engine of

(a) Premier Roadmaster
(b) Mahindra MM-540 DP Jeep
(c) Tata LPT-1210D
(d) Ashok Leyland Comet
Ans: B

Question: 497. V-eight engine was employed in

(a) Rolls-Royce Camargue
(b) Chrysler Averagerdelux
(c) Citroen CX 2400 safari
(d) Audi 100 SE
Ans: A

Question: 498. Five cylinder in-line engine is used in

(a) Gold GTI 16 V
(b) Mercedes Benz 200
(c) Renault R 2106

122
(d) Audi 100 SE
Ans: D

Question: 499. V-12 engine is used in

(a) Rolls-Royce Camargue
(b) Morgan Plus 8
(c) Daimler Double-six
(d) Alfa Romeo 2000 Spider Veloce
Ans: C

Question: 500. Electronic fuel injection system system is used in engine

of
(a) Daimler Double-six
(b) Audi 100 SE
(c) Volvo 740 GLE
(d) all of these
Ans: D

Question: 501. Valve-actuating mechanism with two overhead

camshafts is employed in the engine of
(a) Volvo 740
(b) Alfa Romeo 2000 Spider Veloce
(c) Volkswagen Caddy
(d) Mercedes Benz 200
Ans: B

Question: 502. Catalytic converter for controlling exhaust emission is

used in engine of
(a) Volkswagen Caddy
(b) Mercedes Benz. 200
(c) Audi 100 SE

123
(d) Volvo 740
Ans: A

Question: 503. Microprocessor-controlled ignition system is used in

engine of
(a) Audi 100 SE
(b) Daimler Double-six
(c) Rolls-Royce Camargue
(d) Volvo 740 Turbo
Ans: D

Question: 504. Which of the following is not an automobile?

(a) Motor cycle
(b) Passenger car
(c) Aeroplane
(d) Truck
Ans: (c) Aeroplane

Question: 505. If the total fuel energy is 100 units; then fuel energy used
for useful work is—
(A) 20%
(B) 5%
(C) 45%
(D) 2%
Ans: (A)

Question: 506. The torque available at the contact between driving

wheels and road is known as
(a) brake effort
(b) tractive effort
(c) clutch effort

124
(d) none of these
Ans: (b) tractive effort

Question: 507. The engine torque increases with the increase in engine
speed up to a certain point after
(a) Correct
(b) Incorrect
Ans: (a) Correct

Question: 508. The rolling resistance is because of the friction between

the
(a) wheel rim and tyre
(b) tyre and the road surface
(c) wheel rim and road surface
(d) none of these
Ans: (b) tyre and the road surface

Question: 509. The co-efficient of rolling resistance for a truck weighing

63 500 N is 0.018. The rolling resistance to truck is
(b) 11.43N
(a) 1.143N
(c) 114.3N
(d) 1143N
Ans: (d) 1143N

Question: 510. A petrol engine of a car develops 125 N-m torque at 2700
r.p.m. The car is driven in second gear having gear ratio of I .75. The
final drive ratio is 4.11. If the overall transmission efficiency is 90%,then
the torque available at the driving wheels is
(a) 8.091 N-m
(b) 8091N-m

125
(c) 809.1N-m
(d) 80.91 N-m
Ans: (c) 809.1N-m

Question: 511. The air resistance to a car at 20 kmph is R. The air

resistance at 40 kmph will be
(a) 4R2
(b) 2 R
(c) 4 R
(d) R
Ans: (c) 4 R

Question: 512. The gradient resistance to a vehicle having a mass of 980

kg moving on an incline of 10° is
(a) 1.6694N
(b) 166.94N
(c)16.694N
(d) 1669.4 N
Ans: (d) 1669.4 N

Question: 513. The power actually developed inside the engine cylinder
is called as
(a) indicated power
(b) frictional power
(c) brake power
(d) none of these
Ans: (a) indicated power

Question: 514. The most commonly used power plant in automobiles is

(a) gas turbine
(b) I.C. engine

126
(c) battery
(d) none of these
Ans: (b) I.C. engine

Question: 515. The petrol engine works on

(a) Otto cycle
(b) Carnot cycle
(c) Diesel cycle
(d)Rankine cycle
Ans: (a) Otto cycle

Question: 516. In a square type engine

(a) geometrical shape is square
(b) diameter and length of piston are same
(c) two cylinders are placed horizontal and twovertical
(d) stroke length and cylinder bore are same
Ans: (d) stroke length and cylinder bore are same

Question: 517. The three basic cylinder arrangements for automotive

engines are
(a) flat, radial, and V
(b) in a row, in line, and opposed
(c) in line, V, and opposed
(d) V, double row, and opposed
Ans: (c) in line, V, and opposed

Question: 518. The petrol engines are also known as

(a) spark ignition (S.I.) engines
(b) compression ignition (C.I.) engines
(c) steam engines
(d) none of these

127
Ans: (a) spark ignition (S.I.) engines

Question: 519. The Diesel engine works on

(a) Otto cycle
(b)Carnot cycle
(c) Diesel cycle
(d) Rankine cycle
Ans: (c) Diesel cycle

Question: 520. The Diesel engines are also known as

(a) spark ignition (S.I.) engines
(b) compression ignition (C.I.) engines
(c) steam engines
(d)none of these
Ans: (b) compression ignition (C.I.) engines

Question: 521. For the same maximum pressure and temperature

(a) Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle
(b) Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle
(c) both Otto cycle and Diesel cycle are equally efficient
(d)none of the above.
Ans: (a) Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle

Question: 522. In a Diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by

(a) an electric spark
(b) the heat of compression
(c) the hot exhaust
(d) none of these
Ans: (b) the heat of compression

128
Question: 523. A basic difference between the spark ignition engine and
the Diesel engine is that the
(a) Diesel engine compresses air alone instead of an air-fuel mixture
(b) air temperature ignites the fuel in the Diesel engine
(c) fuel is sprayed into the combustion chamber in the Diesel engine as
the piston nears
T.D.C. on the compression stroke
(d) all of the above
Ans: (d) all of the above

Question: 524. The combustion process in a Diesel engine is a

(a) constant volume process
(b) constant pressure process
(c) constant temperature process
(d) adiabatic process
Ans: (b) constant pressure process

Question: 525. The compression ratio of a petrol engine is nearly

(a) 4:1
(b) 10:15
(c) 15:1
(d) 20:1
Ans: (b) 10:15

Question: 526. The compression ratio for Diesel engines usually lies in
the range of
(a) 6-10
(b) 10-15
(c) 15-25
(d) 25-40
Ans: (c) 15-25

129
Question: 527. A four-cylinder engine has a capacity of 2.4 litres. The
swept volume of one cylinder is
(a) 400 cm3
(b) 600 cm3
(c) 1200 cm3
(d) 2400 cm-3
Ans: (b) 600 cm3

Question: 528. An engine has a clearance volume of 100 cm3 and a

swept volume of 800 cm3. The compression ratio is
(a) 7:1
(b) 8:1
(c) 9:1
(d) 10:1
Ans: (c) 9:1

Question: 529. If clearance volume of I.C. engines is increased, the

compression ratio will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain constant
(d) be doubled
Ans: (b) decrease

Question: 530. The compression ratio in petrol engine is kept less than
in Diesel engine because
(a) it makes petrol engines lighter
(b) higher or equivalent compression ratio in petrol engines is not
possible due to pre-ignition
(c) less compression ratio gives better performance

130
(d) it is just customary to have less compression ratio in petrol engines
Ans: (b) higher or equivalent compression ratio in petrol engines is not
possible due to pre-ignition

Question: 531. The purpose of a cylinder head gasket is to

(a) prevent the combustion gases from leaking from the joint between
the cylinder block
and the cylinder head
(b) prevent engine oil from going into combustion chamber
(c) removes impurities from cylinder head lubricating oil
(d) none of the above
Ans: (a) prevent the combustion gases from leaking from the joint
between the cylinder block
and the cylinder head

Question: 532. The basic part of the engine, to which the other engine
parts are attached or assembled is the
(a) cylinder head
(b) crankshaft
(c) cylinder block
(d) oil pan
Ans: (c) cylinder block

Question: 533. The materials used for cylinder block are

(a) cast iron and steel
(b) cast iron and aluminum alloy
(c) steel and aluminum alloy
(d) brass and steel
Ans: (b) cast iron and aluminum alloy

131
Question: 534. In aluminum cylinder blocks, the cylinder liners are
made of
(a) aluminum
(b) ceramic
(c) brass
(d) cast iron
Ans: (d) cast iron

Question: 535. The aluminum alloy is used in cylinder blocks because

(a) it is lighter and have good heat dissipation characteristics
(b) material cost is low
(c) it does not require any cylinder liners
(d) the piston is also made of aluminum alloy
Ans: (a) it is lighter and have good heat dissipation characteristics

Question: 536. The material generally used for cylinder sleeves is

(a) aluminum
(b) ceremic
(c) cast iron
(d) fibre reinforced plastic
Ans: (c) cast iron

Question: 537. The characteristic that is enhanced by the use of cylinder

sleeves is
(a) cooling efficiency
(b) resistance to wear
(c) lubrication performance
(d) none of these
Ans: (b) resistance to wear

132
Question: 538. The reconditioning process used to give cylinder bore
surfaces a cross-hatch pattern, is known as
(a) honing
(b) porous plating
(c) boring
(d) shot peening
Ans: (a) honing

Question: 539. The characteristic that is enhanced by the honing of

cylinder sleeves inner surface is
(a) cooling efficiency
(b) resistance to wear
(c) lubrication performance
(d) none of these
Ans: (c) lubrication performance

Question: 540. The main purpose of inspection is—

(A) Electrical equipment
(B) Mechanical build up of chassis or frame
(C) Complaints rectification and repairs
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 541. A Laboratory test bed consists of—

(A) A dynamometer
(B) An adjustable engine stand or cradle
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of these
Ans: C

133
Question: 542. For checking the performance of an automobile which of
the following test is necessary?
(A) Laboratory testing
(B) Test bed
(C) Road testing
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 543. Motor vehicles are tested by—

(A) Laboratory test
(B) Road test
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 544. Which of the following is under performance test?

(A) Preliminary tests
(B) Air resistance
(C) Maximum speed
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 545. The main merit of a multi-cylinder type cylinder sleeve

is
(a) smaller engine dimensions
(b) better cooling efficiency
(c) high rigidity
(d) none of these
Ans: (a) smaller engine dimensions

134
Question: 546. The purpose of a balancer shaft is to
(a) balance the timing in the movement of the two groups of pistons
(b) increase inertia force of the rotating crankshaft
(c) reduce vibrations caused by the crankshaft rotation
(d) adjust the timing of the intake and exhaust valve openings
Ans: (c) reduce vibrations caused by the crankshaft rotation

Question: 547. The function of an oil control orifice is that it

(a) returns cylinder head lubricating oil to the oil pan at high speed
(b) turns oil into fine mist for spray lubrication
(c) regulates the pressure of engine oil supplied by the oil pump for the
lubrication of
cylinder head mechanism and other purposes
(d) removes impurities from cylinder head lubricating oil
Ans: (c) regulates the pressure of engine oil supplied by the oil pump for
the lubrication of cylinder head mechanism and other purposes

Question: 548. The size of engine cylinder is referred in terms of its

(a) diameter and bore
(b) displacement and efficiency
(c) bore and stroke
(d) bore and length
Ans: (c) bore and stroke

Question: 549. The stroke of an engine is the

(a) volume of the cylinder
(b) length of the connecting rod
(c) internal diameter of the cylinder
(d) distance between T.D.C. and B.D.C.
Ans: (d) distance between T.D.C. and B.D.C.

135
Question: 550. The two kinds of piston rings are
(a) compression and oil-control rings
(b) compression and sliding seal rings
(c) oil scrapper and oil-control rings
(d) pressure and sealing rings
Ans: (a) compression and oil-control rings

Question: 551. In an engine, the temperature of the piston will be more

at the
(a) crown of the piston
(b) skirt of the piston
(c) piston walls
(d) piston rings
Ans: (a) crown of the piston

Question: 552. The function of a first compression ring (top ring) is that
it
(a) increases the combustion temperature
(b) creates swirl
(c) maintains a seal and prevents the fuel leakage
(d) maintains a seal and prevents escape of burned gases and loss of
pressure in the
combustion chamber
Ans: (d) maintains a seal and prevents escape of burned gases and loss
of pressure in the combustion chamber

Question: 553. The function of a second ring is that it is a

(a) back up compression ring which will work in place of the top ring
when it is broken
(b) compression ring and aids the top ring in sealing and cooling

136
(c) back up oil control ring which will work in place of the bottom ring
when it is broken
(d) cushion ring which prevents piston slap and knock
Ans: (b) compression ring and aids the top ring in sealing and cooling

Question: 554. The function of oil -control rings is that it

(a) lubricates the cylinder wall by releasing oil from its hole
(b) keeps the cylinder wall lubricated by holding oil in its channel
(c) prevents engine oil from going into the combustion chamber and
returns excess
lubricating oil off the cylinder wall through the return holes in the
piston to the oil pan
(d) maintains a seal and prevents escape of burned gases and oil
leakage
Ans: (c) prevents engine oil from going into the combustion chamber
and returns excess
lubricating oil off the cylinder wall through the return holes in the
piston to the oil pan

Question: 555. The piston compression rings are made of

(a) cast iron
(b) steel
(c) aluminium
(d) bronze
Ans: (a) cast iron

Question: 556. The lower cylindrical portion of the piston which

improves piston cooling performance is
(a) piston crown
(b) connecting rod
(c) piston pin boss

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(d) piston skirt
Ans: (d) piston skirt

Question: 557. The crescent-shaped cavity on the piston head top

surface is called as
(a) piston oil hole
(b) snap ring
(c) valve recess
(d) valve clearance
Ans: (c) valve recess

Question: 558. The connecting rod connects the piston and the
(a) cylinder head
(b) cylinder block
(c) camshaft
(d) crankshaft
Ans: (d) crankshaft

Question: 559. The function of a connecting rod is

(a) to turn the flywheel
(b) to drive the drive plate
(c) to drive the fuel pump
(d) to transmit motion of the piston to the crankshaft
Ans: (d) to transmit motion of the piston to the crankshaft

Question: 560. The connecting rod is attached to the piston by the

(a) cap bolt
(b) piston pin
(c) cap roller bearing
(d) rod cap
Ans: (b) piston pin

138
Question: 561. The connecting rod lower end is connected to the
relevant ………..of crankshaft.
(a) big end
(b) crank arm
(c) journal
(d) small end
Ans: (c) journal

Question: 562. The connecting rods are generally made of ........... shaped
cross-section.
(a) I
(b) C
(c) L
(d) H
Ans: (a) I

Question: 563. What type of bearing is used for main bearings and
connecting rod bearings
(a) Ball bearings
(b) Plain bearings
(c) Needle roller bearing
(d) Taper roller bearing
Ans: (b) Plain bearings

Question: 564. The crankshaft of a typical in-line four cylinder engine

has………….balance weights.
(a) 12
(b) 4
(c) 16
(d) 8

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Ans: (d) 8

Question: 565. The cam shaft in an engine is always mounted

(a) parallel to the crankshaft
(b) perpendicular to the crankshaft
(c) inclined to the crankshaft
(d) none of these
Ans: (a) parallel to the crankshaft

Question: 566. In a four stroke engine for each crankshaft revolution,

the camshaft revolves
(a) one-half turn
(b) one turn
(c) two turns
(d) tour turns
Ans: (a) one-half turn

Question: 567. The timing belt is attached to the camshaft pulley and
(a) timing belt drive pulley
(b) distributor
(d) alternator pulley
(c) radiator fan pulley
Ans: (a) timing belt drive pulley

Question: 568. The motion of the cam is transferred to the valves

through
(a) pistons
(b) camshaft pulley
(b) rocker arms
(d) valve stems
Ans: (b) camshaft pulley

140
Question: 569. Valve overlap is the number of degrees of camshaft
rotation during which
(a) both valves are closed
(b) both valves are open
(d) none of these
(c) both 'a' and 'b'
Ans: (b) both valves are open

Question: 570. The valve overlap in four stroke petrol engines is

approximately
(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 90°
(d) 120°
Ans: (a) 30°

Question: 571. The camshaft of a four stroke Diesel engine running at

1000 rpm will run at
(a) 500 rpm
(b) 1000 rpm
(c) 2000 rpm
(d) 4000 rpm
Ans: (a) 500 rpm

Question: 572. The sequence order of events in a four-stroke engine is

(a) suction - exhaust - power - compression
(b) suction - power - compression - exhaust
(c) suction - compression - power - exhaust
(d) exhaust - compression - power - suction
Ans: (c) suction - compression - power - exhaust

141
Question: 573. In petrol engines, during suction stroke…… is drawn in
the cylinder.
(a) air and fuel
(b) only fuel
(c) only air
(d) none of these
Ans: (a) air and fuel

Question: 574. In Diesel engines, during suction stroke ......... is drawn in

the cylinder.
(a) air and fuel
(b) only fuel
(c) only air
(d) none of these
Ans: (c) only air

Question: 575. During suction stroke, the inside pressure of cylinder is

(a) more than the atmospheric pressure
(b) less than the atmospheric pressure
(c) equal to the atmospheric pressure
(d) none of these
Ans: (b) less than the atmospheric pressure

Question: 576. When the piston is at T.D.C, the volume above the piston
in the combustion chamber is the
(a) clearance volume
(b) cylinder volume
(c) exhaust volume
(d) none of these
Ans: (a) clearance volume

142
Question: 577. The exhaust gas from petrol engine contains
(a) petrol vapours
(b) water vapours
(c) carbon monoxide
(d) all of these
Ans: (d) all of these

Question: 578. The ease with which petrol vapourizes is called its
(a) oxidation
(b) octane number
(c) volatility
(d) cetane number
Ans: (c) volatility

Question: 579. The formula for Iso-octane is

(a) C8H18
(b) C7H17
(c) C6H18
(d) C7H18
Ans: (a) C8H18

Question: 580. A petrol that detonates easily is called

(a) high octane petrol
(b) low octane petrol
(c) unleaded petrol
(d) blended fuel
Ans: (b) low octane petrol

Question: 581. In Diesel engines, the duration between the time of

injection and the time of ignition is called

143
(a) spill cut-off.
(b) delay period
(c) injection period
(d) ignition period
Ans: (b) delay period

Question: 582. The octane rating of petrol commercially available is

(a) 85-95
(b) 95-100
(c) 100-110
(d) 110-125
Ans: (a) 85-95

Question: 583. The octane number of compressed natural gas (CNG) is

(a) 90
(b) 100
(c) 110
(d) 120
Ans:(d) 120

Question: 584. The natural gas is compressed in a CNG cylinder at a

pressure of
(a) 200 bar
(b) 220 bar
(c) 250 bar
(d) 300 bar
Ans: (a) 200 bar

Question: 585. The calorific value of petrol is about

(a) 36.5-38.5MJ/kg
(b) 39.4-42.5 MJ/kg

144
(c) 42.7-43.5 MJ/kg
(d) 45.5-47 MJ/kg
Ans: (c) 42.7-43.5 MJ/kg

Question: 586. The specific gravity of petrol is about

(a) 0.65
(b) 0.75
(c) 0.85
(d) 0.95
Ans: (a) 0.65

Question: 587. The calorific value of Diesel is about

(a) 36.5 MJ/kg
(b) 38.5MJ/kg
(c) 42.5 MJ/kg
(d) 45.5 MJ/kg
Ans: (c) 42.5 MJ/kg

Question: 588. The specific gravity of Diesel is about

(a) 0.65
(b) 0.75
(c) 0.85
(d) 0.95
Ans: (c) 0.85

Question: 589. The boiling point of Diesel fuel is in the range of

(a) 70°Cto100°C
(b) 100° to 120°C
(c) 120° to 180° C
(d) 180° to 360° C
Ans: (d) 180° to 360° C

145
Question: 590. The rating of C.I. engine fuel (Diesel) is given by
(a) octane number
(b) performance number
(c) cetane number
(d) none of these
Ans: (c) cetane number

Question: 591. The cetane number of a Diesel fuel is a measure of

(a) volatility
(b) viscosity
(c) ignition quality
(d) delay period
Ans: (d) delay period

Question: 592. The cetane rating of Diesel fuel is in the order of

(a) 25
(b) 45
(c) 70
(d) 90
Ans: (b) 45

Question: 593. If the air-fuel mixture ignites before the spark takes
place at spark plug, the condition is called
(a) detonation
(b) ignition
(c) pre-ignition
(d) rumble
Ans: (c) pre-ignition

Question: 594. One effect of detonation is

146
(a) delay in ignition
(b) loss of power
(c) overheating of engine
(d) overcooling of engine
Ans: (b) loss of power

Question: 595. The fuel that detonates easily, is

(a) n-heptane
(b) iso-octane
(c) benzene
(d) alcohol
Ans: (a) n-heptane

Question: 596. If the air-fuel mixture in a spark ignition engine is too

rich, then air-fuel ratio is about
(a) 17:1
(b) 15:1
(c) 13:1
(d) 10:1
Ans: (d) 10:1

Question: 597. The firing order for an in-line four cylinder I.C. engine is
(a) 1-2-34
(b) 1-3-4-2
(c) 1 -2-4-3
(d) 1-3-24
Ans: (b) 1-3-4-2

Question: 598. The firing order for an opposed four cylinder I.C. engine
is
(a) 1-2-3-4

147
(b) 1-3-4-2
(c) 1-4-3-2
(d) 1-3-2-4
Ans: (c) 1-4-3-2

Question: 599. The self ignition temperature of Diesel as compared to

petrol is
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) same
(d) depends on fuel quality
Ans: (b) lower

Question: 600. In case of a Diesel car, the pressure at the end of

compression is of the order of
(a) 15 bar
(b) 25 bar
(c) 35 bar
(d) 45 bar
Ans: (d) 45 bar

Question: 601. The Diesel engines as compared to petrol engines require

(a) bigger flywheel
(c) same size of flywheel
(b) smaller flywheel
(d) no flywheel
Ans: (a) bigger flywheel

Question: 602. The auto ignition in a spark ignition engine means

(a) automatic ignition of the charge at the end of compression
(b) ignition induced by the passage of a spark

148
(c) ignition of the charge before the passage of flame front
(d) ignition induced to supplement the process of normal combustion
Ans: (c) ignition of the charge before the passage of flame front

Question: 603. It is necessary to maintain the valve clearances as they

(a) reduce the resistance to sliding that occurs between the cam and
the tappet
(b) allow for lengthening of the valves owing to the heat of combustion
(c) increase the speed at which the valves move up and down
(d) make the crankshaft turn smoothly.
Ans: (b) allow for lengthening of the valves owing to the heat of
combustion

Question: 604. If the valve clearances are excessively large, the

problem that can arise is
(a) overheating of the engine
(b) incomplete valve closure
(c) fouling of spark plug by gasoline
(d) none of these
Ans: (b) incomplete valve closure

Question: 605. The valve tappet clearance is measured by

(a) screw pitch gauge
(b) engineering scale
(c) feeler gauge
(d) vernier caliper
Ans: (c) feeler gauge

Question: 606. Instead of valves, the ports are used in case of

(a) four stroke I.C. engines
(b) two-stroke I.C. engines
(c) V-6engines
(d) none of these
Ans: (b) two-stroke I.C. engines

149
Question: 607. The diagram which shows the correct crank positions
corresponding to the opening and closing of the valves, is known as
(a) indicator diagram
(b) axial force diagram
(c) valve timing diagram
(d) none of these
Ans: (c) valve timing diagram

Question: 608. In a four speed four-stroke Diesel engine, the intake

valve
(a) opens at T.D.C. and closes at B.D.C.
(b) opens at 20° before T.D.C. and closes at 35° after B.D.C.
(c) opens at 10° after T.D.C. and closes at 20° before B.D.C.
(d) none of the above
Ans: (b) opens at 20° before T.D.C. and closes at 35° after B.D.C.

Question: 609. In a four cylinder in-line engine, the number of firing

strokes in one revolution of the crank is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans: (b) 2

Question: 610. A three way catalytic converter

(a) re-circulates exhaust gasses
(b) bums fuel vapor gasses
(c) reduces N2, H2O, and CO2 emission levels
(d) removes CO, HC, and N02 from the exhaust gasses passing through it
Ans: (d) removes CO, HC, and N02 from the exhaust gasses passing
through it

Question: 611. The condition that results in large quantities of CO

emission is
(a) insufficient air during combustion
(b) insufficient fuel during combustion
150
(c) low temperature combustion
(d) high temperature combustion
Ans: (a) insufficient air during combustion

Question: 611. The condition that results in large quantities of HC

emission is
(a) high temperature combustion
(b) incomplete combustion
(c) low temperature combustion
(d) high atmospheric temperature combustion
Ans: (b) incomplete combustion

Question: 612. The information provided by the oxygen (O2) sensor to the
feedback control system is about the
(a) air-fuel ratio
(c) air flow speed
(b) air temperature
(d) exhaust gas volume
Ans: (a) air-fuel ratio

Question: 613. Which of the following is the advantage of hydraulic

brake system?
(A) Wearing parts are lesser
(B) System is self compensating
(C) System provides equal braking effect
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 613. Wheel cylinder consists of …… pistons.

(A) 2 or 1
(B) 3 or 1
(C) 2 or 3
(D) 3 or 4
Ans: A

Question: 614. What is the remedies of cause ‘Lack of brake oil’?

151
(A) Adjust brake shoe
(B) Top up brake oil
(C) Fit new lining
(D) All are correct
Ans: B

Question: 615. What is the remedy of the cause ‘worn out brake linings’?
(A) Adjust brake lining or fit new lining
(B) Bleed the brake system
(C) Adjust the brake shoe
(D) All are correct
Ans: A

Question: 616. What is the cause of noisy brakes fault?

(A) Bent back plate
(B) Dirty lining
(C) Drum distorted
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 617. What is the cause of brake pedal spongy fault?

(A) Air in hydraulic system
(B) Improper brake oil
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 618. The function of positive crankcase ventilation (PCV)

system is that it
(a) mixes fuel with air
(b) promotes combustion by creating a swirling movement in the air-
fuel mixture
(c) returns blow-by gases from the crankcase to the intake system
(d) feeds blow-by gases to the exhaust manifold
Ans: (c) returns blow-by gases from the crankcase to the intake system
152
Question: 619. The advantage of the fuel injection system over the
carburetor system is
(a) improved fuel efficiency
(b) improved emission
(c) improved power output
(d) all of these
Ans: (d) all of these

Question: 620. The device for smoothening out the power impulses from
the engine is called
(a) clutch
(b) differential
(c) flywheel
(d) torque converter
Ans: (c) flywheel

Question: 621. The process of supplying the intake air to the engine
cylinder at a pressure greater than the pressure of the surrounding
atmosphere is known as ·
(a) supercharging
(b) auto-ignition
(c) scavenging
(d) detonation
Ans: (a) supercharging

Question: 622. The process of removing the burnt gases from the engine
cylinder by the fresh charge coming into the engine cylinder from the
crank-case, is known as
(a) cleaning
(b) priming
(c) scavenging
(d) detonation
Ans: (c) scavenging

153
Question: 623. The function of a governor in automobiles is to
(a) limit the power
(b) limit the vehicle speed
(c) maintain constant engine speed
(d) maximize the fuel economy
Ans: (b) limit the vehicle speed

Question: 624. The ignition in a spark ignition engine takes place when
the piston is
(a) exactly at the T.D.C. position on its compression stroke
(b) approaching the T.D.C. position on its compression stroke
(c) leaving the T.D.C. position on its compression stroke
(d) approaching the T.D.C position on its exhaust stroke
Ans: (b) approaching the T.D.C. position on its compression stroke

Question: 625. In a Diesel engine, the function of a fuel injector is to

(a) mix the fuel and air
(b) ignite the air-fuel mixture
(c) provide flame front for ignition
(d) spray atomized fuel in the cylinder
Ans: (d) spray atomized fuel in the cylinder

Question: 626. The two rows of cylinders in a 'V' type engine are
generally arranged at
(a) 45°
(b) 60°
(c) 90°
(d) 130°
Ans: (b) 60°

Question: 627. The anti-knock property of compression ignition engine

fuel can be improved by adding
(a) tetraethyl lead
(b)trimethylpentane
(c) amyl nitrate
(d) hexadecane
154
Ans: (c) amyl nitrate

Question: 628. The best fuels for compression ignition engines are
(a) straight chain paraffins
(b) aromatics
(c) branched chain paraffins
(d) napthalenes
Ans: (d) napthalenes

Question: 629. The function ofa carburettor is to control the amount and
ratio of air-fuel mixture.
(a) True
(b) False
Ans: (a) True

Question: 630. The indicated power ofa four-stroke engine (in watts) is
equal to
(a) P.L.A.N/2
(b)P.L.A.N
(c) 2 x P.L.A.N
(d) P.L.A.N/4
where P = Mean effective pressure in N/m2,
L = Length of stroke in metres,
A = Cross-sectional area of the piston in m2, and
N= Speed of the engine in revolutions per second (r.p.m).
Ans: (a) P.L.A.N/2

Question: 631. Separator is made up of which of the following material?

(A) Wood
(B) Plastic
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans: C

Question: 632. Battery box is made of hard …… with separate

compartments for each cell.
155
(A) Wood
(B) Rubber
(C) Plastic
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 633. In electrolyte the ratio between pure sulphuric acid and
distilled water.
(A) 1: 7
(B) 2: 8
(C) 1: 10
(D) 10: 11
Ans: A

Question: 634. When indicated power (I.P) and frictional power (F.P) are
known, we can calculate
(a) brake power
(b) compression ratio
(c) specific air consumption
(d) mean effective pressure
Ans: (a) brake power

Question: 635. The mechanical efficiency of an I.C. engine is equal to

(a) I.P/B.P.
(b) B.P./I.P.
(c) B.P./F.P
(d) F.P./B.P.
where I.P = Indicated power; B.P. = Brake power; and F.P. = Frictional
power
Ans: (b) B.P./I.P.

Question: 636. Highest useful compression ratio (HUCR) is the highest

compression ratio at which the
(a) engine can run
(b) engine gives maximum output
(c) engine is most efficient
156
(d) fuel can be used in a test engine without knocking
Ans: (d) fuel can be used in a test engine without knocking

Question: 637. The air gap between the central electrode and ground (
or side) electrode of a spark plug is around
(a) 0.2mm
(b) 0.5mm
(c) 1 mm
(d) 1.5mm
Ans: (c) 1 mm

Question: 638. If the spark plug deposit indicates black coating of soot,
it indicates that the engine has been generally operating on
(a) too lean mixture
(b) stoichiometric mixture
(c) most economical mixture
(d) too rich mixture
Ans: (d) too rich mixture

Question: 639. In a petrol engine, the high voltage for spark plug is in
the order of
(a) 1000volts
(b) 2000volts
(c) 11 kilovolts
(d) 22kilovolts
Ans: (d)22kilovolts

Question: 640. Engine misfiring is likely to result from

(a) spark plug gap too small
(b) spark plug gap too wide
(c) vapour lock in the fuel only
(d) incorrect fuel air mixture
Ans: (b) spark plug gap too wide

Question: 641. The forced-fed lubrication system means that the oil is
delivered to the engine by
157
(a) gravity
(b) the pressure created by the oil pump
(c) splashing action of the crankshaft
(d) none of these
Ans: (b) the pressure created by the oil pump

Question: 642. The engine oil is stored in when the engine is not
running.
(a) oil pan
(b) cylinder head
(c) oil pump
(d) separate oil tank
Ans: (a) oi lpan

Question: 643. The lubrication oil flow in an engine is in the order as

(a) oil strainer- oil pump - relief valve - oil filter - cylinder block-
cylinder head - oil pan
(b) oil pump - oil strainer - relief valve - oil filter - cylinder block –
cylinder head_ oil pan
(c) oil strainer - oil ·filter - relief valve - oil pump - cylinder block -
cylinder head- oil pan
(d) oil strainer- oil pump - relief valve - oil filter- cylinder head-
cylinder block - oil pan
Ans: (a) oil strainer- oil pump - relief valve - oil filter - cylinder block-
cylinder head - oil pan

Question: 644. The oil pump is driven by the

(a) camshaft
(b) alternator shaft
(c) crankshaft via drive belt
(d) crankshaft directly
Ans: (d) crankshaft directly

Question: 645. An oil filter bypass valve opens when the

(a) engine is cold
(b) engine overheats
158
(c) oil filter becomes clogged
(d) engine runs at high speed
Ans: (c) oil filter becomes clogged

Question: 646. The component of the oil filter that prevents the passage
of metal particles and sludge is
(a) element
(b) relief valve
(c) check valve
(d) case
Ans: (a) element

Question: 647. The engine oil viscosity is defined by ratings.

(a) automatic transmission fluid (ATF)
(b) society of automotive engineers (SAE).
(c) gross vehicle weight (GVW)
(d) American petroleum institute (API)
Ans: (b) society of automotive engineers (SAE).

Question: 648. The main cause for the change in engine oil viscosity is
(a) humidity
(b) temperature
(c) vibration
(d) contamination
Ans: (b) temperature

Question: 649. Which of the following oil is more viscous?

(a) SAE30
(b) SAE40
(c) SAE 70
(d) SAE80
Ans: (d) SAE80

Question: 650. Which of the following indicates a multi grade oil?

(a) SAE-30
(b) APISF
159
(c) SAE20W-50
(d) API-50
Ans: (c) SAE20W-50

Question: 651. ff the engine coolant leaks into the engine oil, then
engine oil
(a) appears milky
(b) becomes foamy
(c) turns black
(d) none of these
Ans: (a) appears milky

Question: 652. The engine oil level should be checked

(a) immediately after the ignition switch is turned off
(b) while the engine is running
(c) a few minutes after the ignition switch is turned off
(d) while the engine is running at high-idle speed
Ans: (c) a few minutes after the ignition switch is turned off

Question: 653. The crankcase dilution means

(a) dilution of fuel in the crankcase
(b) dilution of oil by water in the crankcase
(c) dilution of lubrication oil by fuel in the crankcase
(d) dilution of mixture passing through crankcase in two-stroke engines
Ans: (c) dilution of lubrication oil by fuel in the crankcase

Question: 654. In a forced feed lubrication system, the device used to

guard against excessive oil pressure, is known as
(a) release chamber
(b) balancer
(c) relief valve
(d) stop valve
Ans: (c) relief valve

Question: 655. The commonly used antifreeze solution in automobiles is

(a) carbon disulphide
160
(b) ethylene glycol
(c) ammonium chloride
(d) freon-12
Ans: (b) ethylene glycol

Question: 656. The function of a radiator fan in the cooling system is

that
(a) it blows air through the radiator when necessary
(b) it is turned by wind force as the vehicle moves forward, and its
rotation drives the
water pump
(c) it cools the-engine by blowing air onto the cylinder block
(d) it draws heat out of the engine compartment
Ans: (a) it blows air through the radiator when necessary

Question: 657. The heat transfer from coolant to air in the radiator of an
automobile engine takes place by
(a) radiation only
(b) convention only
(c) convection and radiation
(d) conduction, convection and radiation
Ans: (c) convection and radiation

Question: 658. The component in the radiator of an automobile that

increases the boiling point of water is
(a) drain plug
(b) water jacket
(c) vacuum valve
(d) pressure cap
Ans: (d) pressure cap

Question: 659. The purpose of a thermostat in an engine cooling system

is to
(a) prevent the coolant from boiling
(b) allow the engine to warm up quickly
(c) indicate the coolant temperature
161
(d) pressurize the system to raise the boiling point
Ans: (b) allow the engine to warm up quickly

Question: 660. The temperature indicating instrument in vehicles

indicates the temperature of
(a) engine piston
(b) engine cylinder
(c) lubricating oil
(d) jacket cooling water
Ans: (d) jacket cooling water

Question: 661. The path taken by intake air is

(a) carburettor (or throttle body)- air cleaner - intake manifold - intake
ports - cylinders
(b) air cleaner - carburettor (or throttle body) -intake ports - intake
manifold - cylinders
(c) air cleaner - intake-manifold- carburettor (or throttle body)- intake
ports= cylinders ·
(d) air cleaner-carburettor (or throttle body)- intake manifold- intake
ports-cylinders
Ans: (d) air cleaner-carburettor (or throttle body)- intake manifold-
intake ports-cylinders

Question: 662. The main purpose of an engine's air cleaner is that it

(a) controls the engine's air intake volume
(b) reduces the engine's air intake noise
(c) prevents rain water from entering the engine
(d) prevents dust and other foreign matter from entering the engine
Ans: (d) prevents dust and other foreign matter from entering the
engine

Question: 663. The main function of intake manifold is that it

(a) promotes the mixture of air and fuel
(b) reduces intake noise
(c) cools the intake air to a suitable temperature
(d) distributes intake air equally to the cylinders
162
Ans: (d) distributes intake air equally to the cylinders

Question: 664. The number of exhaust manifolds in a V-6 engine are

(a) one
(b) two
(c) four
(d) eight
Ans: (b) two

Question: 665. The main function of a resonator is that it

(a) regulates the intake air flow rate
(b) reduces the intake air noise
(c) enhances intake efficiency
(d) regulates the intake air temperature
Ans: (b) reduces the intake air noise

Question: 666. The main function of an exhaust muffler is the

(a) optimization of exhaust efficiency
(b) reduction of exhaust noise
(c) reduction of nitrogen oxide in the exhaust gases
(d) reduction of the· exhaust gas volume
Ans: (b) reduction of exhaust noise

Question: 667. The most effective method of controlling S.I. engine

exhaust emission is by
(a) re-circulating exhaust
(b) using catalytic converter
(c) using some additives in the fuel
(d) none of these
Ans: (b) using catalytic converter

Question: 668. The fuel pump in the programmed fuel injection (PFI)
system is located
(a) between the fuel-filler pipe and fuel tank
(b) in the fuel tank
(c) on the distributor mounting in the engine compartment
163
(d) on the engine compartment bulkhead
Ans: (b) in the fuel tank

Question: 669. The fuel pump of a programmed fuel injection (PFI)

system operate for two seconds when the ignition is turned to the start
position to
(a) enable the pump's fault-diagnosis function to operate
(b) warm up and lubricate the pump
(c) supply a large amount of fuel and thereby create a choke effect
(d) pressurize the fuel system before the engine is started
Ans: (d) pressurize the fuel system before the engine is started

Question: 670. The starting system includes

(a) a battery, a starter, and an ignition switch
(b) a battery, a distributor, and an ignition switch
(c) a battery, a starter, and a distributor
(d) a distributor, a starter, and an ignition switch
Ans: (a) a battery, a starter, and an ignition switch

Question: 671. The starter motor is driven by

(a) chain drive
(b) gear drive
(c) flat belt drive
(d) V-belt drive
Ans: (b) gear drive

Question: 672. The ignition coil is used to

(a) step up current
(b) step down current
(c) step up voltage
(d) step down voltage
Ans: (c) step up voltage

Question: 673. The battery is an electrochemical device, which means

battery
(a) makes chemicals by mechanical means
164
(b) uses chemical action to provide electricity
(c) has curved plates instead of flat plates
(d) does not use an electrolyte
Ans: (b) uses chemical action to provide electricity

Question: 674. The capacity of a battery is usually expressed in terms of

(a) volts
(b) amperes
(c) weight
(d) ampere-hours
Ans: (d) ampere-hours

Question: 675. The main task of a battery in automobiles is to

(a) supply electricity to the alternator
(b) act as. a reservoir or stabilizer of electricity
(c) supply electricity to the vehicle's electrical system at all times while
the engine is running
(d) supply a large amount of power to turn the starter motor when the
engine is being started
Ans: (d) supply a large amount of power to turn the starter motor when
the engine is being started

Question: 676. Charging dynamo intermittently or charging less is due

to—
(A) Loose connection of dynamo terminal
(B) Loose earth connection
(C) Dirty commutator
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 677. Battery is an assembly of cells in series with the positive

terminal of one connected to the negative of the other.
(A) True
(B) False
165
(C) Both
(D) None of these
Ans: A

Question: 678. A type of battery cell that cannot be recharged is

called—
(A) Secondary cell
(B) Primary cell
(C) Both cells
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 679. Specific gravity of battery electrolyte is measured to

determine the battery’s—
(A) Cold cranking amperes
(B) Reverse rating
(C) State of charge
(D) Life expectation
Ans: C

Question: 680. If the specific gravity of the acid in a battery is low, is it

desirable to add some more acid?
(A) Yes
(B) No
(C) Both
(D) Correct
Ans: B

Question: 681. What is the specific gravity for a fully charged battery?
(A) Between 1·23 and 1·28
(B) Between 5·23 and 5·92

166
(C) Between 1·11 and 2·93
(D) None of the above
Ans: A

Question: 682. How is the hydrometer reading taken correctly?

(A) Reading must be taken when electrolyte becomes still.
(B) The eye should be placed at the level of electrolyte to have a correct
reading
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 683. Before the battery is put on charge—

(A) The battery box must be properly cleaned
(B) Vent plug should be removed
(C) Both
(D) None
Ans: C

Question: 684. Which type of water is used in electrolyte?

(A) Ordinary type
(B) Distilled water
(C) Solution of anything
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 685. What type of battery is used in automobiles?

(A) Lead acid battery
(B) Alkaline battery
(C) Both
(D) None

167
Ans: A

Question: 686. Which of the following is the component of lead acid

battery?
(A) Container
(B) Plates
(C) Separator
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 687. The container of a lead-acid battery is made of—

(A) Hard rubber
(B) Plastic
(C) Bituminous
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 688. How many cells are used in a 12 volt car battery?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Ans: (c) 6

Question: 689. The specific gravity of acid in a fully charged battery is

generally
(a) 1.00
(b) 1.28
(c) 1.82
(d) 2.81
Ans: (b) 1.28

Question: 690. The acid used in automobile battery is

168
(a) hydrochloric acid
(b) hydrofluoric acid
(c) nitric acid
(d) sulphuric acid
Ans: (d)sulphuric acid

Question: 691. The instrument used to check specific gravity of acid in a

battery is
(a) hydrometer
(b) hygrometer
(c) anemometer
(d) multimeter
Ans: (a) hydrometer

Question: 692. When the battery is half (50%) charged, the specific
gravity of acid in a battery is usually
(a) 0.74
(b) 1.00
(c) 1.12
(d) 1.19
Ans: (d) 1.19

Question: 693. The negative terminal post on the top of a battery is

(a) smaller than the positive terminal post
(b) larger than the positive terminal post
(c) of the same size as the positive terminal post
(d) none of these
Ans: (a) smaller than the positive terminal post

Question: 694. The positive plates of a lead acid battery has

(a) lead peroxide (PbO2)
(b) spongy lead (Pb)
(c) lead sulphate (Pb SO4)
(d) sulphuric acid (H2SO4)
Ans: (a) lead peroxide (PbO2)

169
Question: 695. The negative plates of a lead acid battery has
(a) lead peroxide (PbO2)
(b) spongy lead (Pb)
(c) lead sulphate (Pb SO4)
(d) sulphuric acid (H2SO4)
Ans: (b) spongy lead (Pb)

Question: 696. The discharged lead-acid battery has on its plates

(a) lead peroxide (PbO2)
(c) lead sulphate (Pb SO4)
(b) spongy lead (Pb)
(d)sulphuric acid (H2SO4)
Ans: (c) lead sulphate (Pb SO4)

Question: 697. With the increase of battery temperature, the specific

gravity of electrolyte
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) none of these
Ans: (b) decreases

Question: 698. A battery can be charged by

(a) adding distilled water
(b) adding sulphuric acid
(c) applying voltage in the reverse direction to that of charging
(d) applying a voltage in the same direction to that of charging
Ans: (c) applying voltage in the reverse direction to that of charging

Question: 699. The main characteristics of a maintenance-free (MF)

battery is that
(a) a maintenance-free battery requires little maintenance during
normal use and it is
sufficient to add water instead of an electrolyte containing sulphuric
acid

170
(b) a maintenance-free battery has a relatively short shelf life when
compared with
standard batteries
(c) since it is sealed the water in a maintenance-free battery is not lost
through
evaporation thus accordingly it is not necessary to top up the cells with
water
(d) recharging of a maintenance-free battery is neither required nor
possible
Ans: (c) since it is sealed, the water in a maintenance-free battery is not
lost through
evaporation thus accordingly it is not necessary to top up the cells with
water

Question: 700. A maintenance free battery

(a) has lead-antimony plate grid
(b) has lead-calcium plate grid
(c) does not contain acid
(d) does not contain water
Ans: (b) has lead-calcium plate grid

Question: 701. The function of an alternator in an automobile is to

(a) supply electric power .
(b) convert mechanical energy into electrical energy
(c) continually recharge the battery
(d) partly convert engine power into electric power
Ans: (c) continually recharge the battery

Question: 702. The most accurate ignition system of a spark ignition

engine is
(a) magneto system
(b) battery system
(c) electronic control unit system
(d) magneto and electronic system
Ans: (c) electronic control unit system

171
Question: 703. A heat treated glass generally used in automobiles
bursts into …….upon cracking.
(a) sharp edged fragments
(b) small particles
(c) Intermediate size particles
(d) all of the above
Ans: (b) small particles

Question: 704. A laminated glass upon cracking

(a) bursts into sharp edged fragments
(b) bursts into granular pieces
(c) sandwiched layer traps the fragments
(d) breaks into the form of crystals
Ans: (c) sandwiched layer traps the fragments

Question: 705. The seat belt tensioners are built in the

(a) front seats
(b) shoulder anchors
(c)seat belt retractors
(d) seat belt buckles
Ans: (c) seat belt retractors

Question: 706. Odometer is an instrument used for measurement of

(a) power
(b) fuel consumption
(c) engine r.p.m.
(d) distance
Ans: (d) distance

Question: 707. Tachometer in a vehicle measures

(a) speed
(b) distance
(c) engine r.p.m.
(d) fuel consumption
Ans: (c) engine r.p.m.
172
Question: 708. The correct flow of power through the drive train is
(a) engine - driveshafts - clutch - mainshaft - countershaft - final
driven gear -wheels
(b) engine - clutch - mainshaft- countershaft=- final driven gear -
driveshafts -wheels
(c) engine_ clutch - countershaft - mainshaft - final driven gear -
driveshafts - wheels
(d) engine - mainshaft - countershaft - clutch - final driven gear -
driveshafts- wheels
Ans: (b) engine - clutch - mainshaft- countershaft=- final driven gear -
driveshafts -wheels

Question: 709. The clutch is located between the transmission and the
(a) engine
(b) rear axle
(c) propeller shaft
(d) differential
Ans: (a) engine

Question: 710. A clutch is usually designed to transmit maximum torque

which is
(a) equal to the maximum engine torque
(b) 80 per cent of the maximum engine torque
(c) 150 per cent of the maximum engine torque
(d) none of these
Ans: (c) 150 per cent of the maximum engine torque

Question: 711. The coefficient of friction for the clutch facing is

approximately
(a) 0.1.
(b) 0.4
(c) 0:8
(d) 1.2
Ans: (b) 0.4

173
Question: 712. Cushioning springs in clutch plate reduces
(a) vehicle speed
(b) torsional vibrations
(c) jerky starts
(d) none of these
Ans: (c) jerky starts

Question: 713. Clutch facings are usually attached to the plate by

(a) steel rivets
(b) brass rivets
(c) aluminium screws
(d) steel screws
Ans: (b) brass rivets

Question: 714. Free pedal play in car clutches is about

(a) 15mm
(b) 25mm
(c) 40mm
(d) 60mm
Ans: (b) 25mm

Question: 715. In a single dry plate clutch, torsional vibrations are

absorbed by
(a) coil springs known as torsional springs
(b) cushion springs
(c) central hub
(d) clutch pedal
Ans: (a) coil springs known as torsional springs

Question: 716. The purpose of transmission in an automobile is

(a) to vary the speed of automobile
(b) to vary the torque at the wheels
(c) to vary the power of automobile
(d) none of these
Ans: (b) to vary the torque at the wheels

174
Question: 717. Two advantages of using helical gears rather than spur
gears in a transmission system are
(a) strength and cost
(b) strength and less end thrust
(c) noise level and strength
(d) noise level and economy
Ans: (c) noise level and strength

Question: 718. The gear shift lever requires two separate motions to
shift gears, and the first movement
(a) moves the synchronizer
(b) selects the synchronizer
(c) meshes the gears
(d) operates the clutch
Ans: (b) selects the synchronizer

Question: 719. When a gear box has four forward speeds and one
reverse speed, it is said to be a
(a) 3-speed gear box
(b) 4-speed gear box
(c) 5-speedgear box
(d) 6-speed gear box
Ans: (b) 4-speed gear box

Question: 720. Which one of the following statement correctly describe

the construction of a bevel-gear type differential?
(a) The drive shafts are splined to the differential carrier.
(b) The left side gear and the differential carrier rotate in constant
unison.
(c) The differential carrier houses differential pinion gears and side
gears, each pinion
gear meshes with a different side gear.
(d) The differential carrier houses differential pinion gears and side
gears
Ans: (d) The differential carrier houses differential pinion gears and side
gears
175
Question: 721. Which one of the following statements correctly
describes the construction of a planetary gear type differential?
(a) The six planetary pinions rotate in constant mesh with the internal
gears.
(b) One drive shaft is splined to the central gear and the other to the
planetary gear.
(c) Each planetary pinion gear meshes with both the central gear and
the internal gear.
(d) The internal gear is fixed to the planetary gear.
Ans: (b) One drive shaft is splined to the central gear and the other to
the planetary gear.

Question: 722. The drive shafts are connected to the differential and
wheel hubs through universal joints because the universal joints
(a) absorb the vibrations transferred from the surface of the road
(b) compensate for variations in the relative positions of the differential
and the wheels which result from bumpy road surfaces or other similar
driving conditions.
(c) absorb any difference in speed between the left and right wheels
when the vehicle is
turning
(d) none of the above
Ans: (b) compensate for variations in the relative positions of the
differential and the wheels which result from bumpy road surfaces or
other similar driving conditions.

Question: 723. The torque converter uses to transfer torque.

(a) air
(b) automatic transmission fluid (ATF)
(c) gears
(d) steel belt
Ans: (b) automatic transmission fluid (ATF)

Question: 724. The maximum torque multiplication ratio in a torque

converter is about
176
(a) 2.5
(b) 10
(c) 25
(d) 40
Ans: (a) 2.5

Question: 725. In order to implement gear changes in the gear unit of an

automatic transmission, a is used.
(a) synchronizer
(b) planetary gear
(c) magnetic clutch
(d) hydraulic multi plate clutch
Ans: (d) hydraulic multi plate clutch

Question: 726. The major purpose of an electronically-controlled

automatic transmission is that this type of transmission
(a) eliminates gear clutches
(b) eliminates the gear shift lever
(c)reduces the number of automatic-transmission components
(d) reduces shift shock and achieves more efficient transmission of
engine torque
Ans: (d) reduces shift shock and achieves more efficient transmission of
engine torque

Question: 727. The differential ensures that each wheel is driven at a

speed which corresponds to the distance it must travel around a comer,
and it consequently prevents against excessive tyre wear.
(a) Agree
(b) Disagree
Ans: (a) Agree

Question: 728. In a four wheel drive (4WD), the number of gear boxes
are
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
177
(d) 4
Ans: (b) 2

Question: 729. The basic purpose of a four wheel drive ( 4WD) system is
that it
(a) delivers improved cornering on dry road surfaces
(b) eliminates the need of snow tyres, tyre chains, etc.
(c) ensures effective transmission of engine torque to all four wheels
even on slippery
road surfaces
(d) ensures that effective braking can be performed, even on slippery
surfaces
Ans: (c) ensures effective transmission of engine torque to all four
wheels even on slippery road surfaces

Question: 730. Two speed reverse gear arrangement is generally

provided in case of
(a) passenger cars
(b) metadors
(c) tractors
(d) trucks
Ans: (c) tractors

Question: 731. Which of the following is not a part of the chassis?

(a) Wheels
(b) Front axle
(c) Steering system
(d) Seats
Ans: (d) Seats

Question: 732. The basic function of the suspension is to

(a) absorb vibration and impact forces from the road surface
(b) ensure that the steering wheel can deliver a suitable amount of
steering force
(c) ensure that wheel alignment is not disturbed during driving
(d) automatically correct the effects of over steering
178
Ans: (a) absorb vibration and impact forces from the road surface

Question: 733. The rigid suspension is beneficial when

(a) it is desired to reduce the unsprung mass
(b) it is desired to have more flexibility in design
(c) it is desired to improve tyre-to-ground contact characteristics
(d) large changes in load make it necessary to have a large suspension
stroke
Ans: (d) large changes in load make it necessary to have a large
suspension stroke

Question: 734. The main feature of MacPherson strut suspension is that

(a) the vertical size of the suspension can be made more compact
(b) non-vertical external forces are supported by the suspension arms
(c) the unsprung mass in lighter
(d) the assembly is slightly more complicated in design
Ans: (b) non-vertical external forces are supported by the suspension
arms

Question: 735. Damper in an automobile is used to

(a) absorb the energy
(b) dissipate the energy
(c) release the energy
(d) increase the energy
Ans: (b) dissipate the energy

Question: 736. Damper is also known as

(a) shock absorber
(b) torsion bar
(c) spring
(d) radius rod
Ans: (a) shock absorber

Question: 737. The damper fluid leakage typically occur from

(a) upper damper mounting
(b) bottom of damper
179
(c) clearance between inner and outer tubes of damper
(d) coil spring mounting
Ans: (c) clearance between inner and outer tubes of damper

Question: 738. The advantage of double-wishbone suspension design is

that a large amount of freedom is available for setting geometry and
precise settings can be made for driving comfort and steerability.
(a) Correct
(b) Incorrect
Ans: (a) Correct

Question: 739. The vehicle ride will be comfortable if

(a) unsprung mass is kept minimum
(b) sprung mass is kept minimum
(c) vehicle mass is kept minimum
(d) all of the above
Ans: (a) unsprung mass is kept minimum

Question: 740. A front stabilizer bar is used to

(a) increase vehicle load-carrying capacity
(b) provide a softer ride
(c) control suspension movement and body roll
(d) all of these
Ans: (c) control suspension movement and body roll

Question: 741. Wheel base of a vehicle is the

(a) distance between the centres of the front and rear wheels
(b) distance between the centres of the front tyres
(c) distance between the centres of the rear tyres
(d) extreme length of the vehicle
Ans: (a) distance between the centres of the front and rear wheels

Question: 742. The order in which effort applied to the steering wheel is
transferred to the front wheel is
(a) steering wheel - steering gearbox - steering shaft - tie rod -
steering knuckle
180
- front wheels
(b) steering wheel - steering shaft - steering gearbox - tie rod -
steering knuckle -
front wheels
(c) steering wheel - steering shaft - steering gearbox-: steering
knuckle - tie rod - front
wheels
(d) steering wheel - tie rod - steering gearbox - steering shaft -
steering knuckle - front
wheels
Ans: (b) steering wheel - steering shaft - steering gearbox - tie rod -
steering knuckle -
front wheels

Question: 743. The component that is responsible for converting the

rotation of the steering wheel into lateral motion is the
(a) steering wheel
(b) steering shaft
(c) steering gearbox
(d) tie rod
Ans: (c) steering gearbox

Question: 744. In a hydraulic power steering system, the power

steering pump is driven by a
(a) belt-driven by camshaft
(b) chain-driven by crankshaft
(c) belt-driven by driveshaft
(d) belt-driven by crankshaft
Ans: (d) belt-driven by crankshaft

Question: 745. A worm gear is used as the pinion for the rack and
pinion type of steering gearbox, because it
(a) improves steering comfort when steering wheel is turned to effect
small changes in
the direction of forward motion

181
(b) allows the steering wheel to be turned by a greater amount when
steering
(c) makes the steering more responsive
(d) reduces the amount of kick-back for large steering angles
Ans: (a) improves steering comfort when steering wheel is turned to
effect small changes in the direction of forward motion

Question: 746. In vehicles with tilt steering, the steering column is

pivoted in
(a) upper bracket
(b) lower bracket
(c) tilt bracket
(d) steering yoke joint
Ans: (b) lower bracket

Question: 747. The component that connects the steering rack to the
knuckles is
(a) tie-rod
(b) sector gear
(c) pivot
(d) spline
Ans: (a) tie-rod

Question: 748. The ball joints are used on the tie-rod ends, because
they
(a) reduce the amount of noise generated
(b) reduce the amount of sliding resistance
(c) can deal with movement of the suspension both vertically and in
other directions
(d) improve the force transmission speed
Ans: (c) can deal with movement of the suspension both vertically and
in other directions

Question: 749. Which of the following parameter can be adjusted by

modifying the tie-rod attachment length?
(a) Camber
182
(b) Caster
(c) Toe
(d) Steering gear ratio
Ans: (c) Toe

Question: 750. A traction control system (TCS) in automobiles controls

the
(a) vibrations on the steering wheel
(b) engine power during acceleration
(c) torque that is transmitted by the tyres to the road surface
(d) stopping distance in case of emergency
Ans: (c) torque that is transmitted by the tyres to the road surface

Question: 751. The braking control type traction control system (TCS)
generally operates in the speed range of
(a) less than 20 kmph
(b) less than 40 kmph
(c) less than 60 kmph
(d) more than 60 kmph
Ans: (b) less than 40 kmph

Question: 752. The basic purpose of tyres is to

(a) grip the road and provide good traction
(b) substitute for springs
(c) act as brake
(d) none of these
Ans: (a) grip the road and provide good traction

Question: 753. Two general types of tyres are

(a) tube type and tubeless
(c) air and pneumatic
(b) solid and tubeless
(d) split-rim and drop centre
Ans: (a) tube type and tubeless

Question: 754. The main function of the tread pattern on tyre is that
183
(a) the tread grooves pass air between the tyre and road surface,
thereby preventing
tyre from overheating
(b) the crests between the tread grooves absorb road noise
(c) in wet conditions, the tread grooves expel water that is drawn
between the tyre and road surface
(d) the tread pattern protects the tyre's inner carcass from small stones
and pieces of glass
Ans: (c) in wet conditions, the tread grooves expel water that is drawn
between the tyre and road surface

Question: 755. Vulcanizing means

(a) heating rubber under pressure
(b) spraying with special paint
(c) melting rubber while stirring it
(d) none of these
Ans: (a) heating rubber under pressure

Question: 756. In bias ply tyres

(a) all plies run parallel to one another
(b) belts of steel mesh are used in the tyres
(c) one ply layer runs diagonally one way and another layer runs
diagonally the other way
(d) all of the above
Ans: (c) one ply layer runs diagonally one way and another layer runs
diagonally the other way

Question: 757. In radial tyres

(a) one ply layer runs diagonally one way and another layer runs
diagonally the other way
(b) all plies run parallel to one another and vertical to tyre bead
(c) inner tubes are always used
(d) none of these
Ans: (b) all plies run parallel to one another and vertical to tyre bead

Question: 758. Bead wires are made of

184
(a) steel
(b) copper
(c) zinc
(d) aluminium
Ans: (a) steel

Question: 759. Which part of the automobile tyre is subjected to

greatest flexing action?
(a) Bead
(b) Sidewall
(c) Shoulder
(d) Tread
Ans: (b) Sidewall

Question: 760. An under-inflated tyre will wear the tread most

(a) near the centre
(b) near the edges
(c) in the lateral direction
(d) in the cross direction
Ans: (b) near the edges

Question: 761. An over-inflated tyre will wear the tread most near the
(a) edges
(b) corners
(c) centre
(d) none of these
Ans: (c) centre

Question: 762. It The basic purpose of tyre rotation on automobiles is to

(a) avoid ply separation
(b) equalize wear
(c) get better ride
(d) none of these
Ans: (b) equalize wear

Question: 763. The tyre rotation is generally done at

185
(a) 1000km
(b) 4000km
(c) 6000km
(d) 10000km
Ans: (d) 10000km

Question: 764. In comparison with a radial tyre, one advantage of a

bias-ply tyre is
(a) longer life
(b) lower rolling resistance
(c) smoother ride at low speeds
(d) none of these
Ans: (c) smoother ride at low speeds

Question: 765. The aspect ratio (expressed in percentage) of the tyre is

defined as the ratio of
(a) section width to section height
(b) section height to section width
(c) wheel diameter to section height
(d) wheel diameter to section width
Ans: (b) section height to section width

Question: 766. If a tyre is designated as 175/65 Rl4 82 S, then the aspect

ratio for the tyre is
(a) 175
(b) 65
(c) 14
(d) 82
Ans: (b) 65

Question: 767. The temperature at which tyre inflation pressure should

be checked is
(a) 20°c
(c) 35°C
(b) 25°c
(d) ambient temperature
186
Ans: (d) ambient temperature

Question: 768. The advantage of a tubeless tyre over tube type tyre is
(a) slow air leakage
(b) better fuel efficiency
(c) less chances of running flat
(d) all of these
Ans: (d) all of these

Question: 769. The tilting of the front wheels away from the vertical,
when viewed from the front of the car, is called ·
(a) camber
(b) caster
(c) toe-in
(d) toe-out
Ans: (a) camber

Question: 770. When the top of the wheel is tilted outward, then it is
called
(a) positive camber
(c) positive caster
(b) negative camber
(d) negative caster
Ans: (a) positive camber

Question: 771.The effect of having excess camber is

(a) excessive steering alignment torque
(b) hard steering
(c) too much traction
(d) uneven tyre wear
Ans: (d) uneven tyre wear

Question: 772. Caster is a

(a) forward tilt of the kingpin
(b) backward tilt of the kingpin
(c) either 'a' or ’b'
187
(d) none of these
Ans: (c) either 'a' or ’b'

Question: 773. The basic purpose of providing caster angle on wheels is

to
(a) prevent uneven tyre wear
(b) maintain directional control
(c) bring the road contact of the tyre under the point of load
(d) compensate for wear in the steering linkage
Ans: (b) maintain directional control

Question: 774. The caster is called positive when the top of the king pin
is inclined to the
(a) rear of the vehicle
(b) front of the vehicle
(c) left of the vehicle
(d) right of the vehicle
Ans: (a) rear of the vehicle

Question: 775. When turning a comer,

(a) the front wheels are toeing out
(b) the front wheels are turning on different angles
(c) the inside front wheels has a greater angle than the outside wheel
(d) all of the above
Ans: (d) all of the above

Question: 776. Incorrect steering axis inclination (S.A.I.) causes

(a) tendency to assume toe-out orientation
(b) generation of a braking effect at tight comers
(c) poor recovery of the steering wheel after making a turm
(d) the vehicle to pull to the side of lesser inclination
Ans: (c) poor recovery of the steering wheel after making a turm

Question: 777. The included angle is the sum of the

(a) camber and castor
(b) castor and S.A.I
188
(c) camber and S.A.I.
(d) camber and toe-in
Ans: (c) camber and S.A.I.

Question: 778. An imbalance wheel during vehicle operation

(a) makes large noise when its heavy point hits the road surface
(b) deflects in the vehicle's longitudinal direction
(c) bounces vertically or deflects from side to side (as seen from front
or rear)
(d) creates a standing wave
Ans: (c) bounces vertically or deflects from side to side (as seen from
front or rear)

Question: 779. The problems caused by the wheel imbalance are

(a) hard steering and hard ride
(b) poor acceleration and hard steering
(c) steering wheel vibrations and uneven tyre wear
(d) poor acceleration and reduced fuel efficiency
Ans: (c) steering wheel vibrations and uneven tyre wear

Question: 780. The correct way to rectify an imbalanced wheel is to

(a) adjust the tyre pressure
(b) rotate the tyres
(c) adjust the damper spring tension
(d) attach appropriate weights to the wheel at appropriate positions
Ans: (d) attach appropriate weights to the wheel at appropriate
positions

Question: 781. The purpose of turning radius gauges is to measure the

(a) contact areas of the tyres
(b) free play of the steering wheel
(c) turning radius of the left and right wheels
(d) difference in the toe angles of the left and right wheels
Ans: (c) turning radius of the left and right wheels

189
Question: 782. The sequence in which the force is transmitted through a
brake system when the brake pedal is depressed is
(a) brake pedal-master cylinder- brake lines -vacuum servo
mechanism -·brake pads
(b) brake pedal -vacuum servo mechanism - master cylinder- brake
lines - brake pads
(c) brake pedal - master cylinder - vacuum servo mechanism - brake
lines - brake pads
(d) brake pedal+ brake lines - vacuum servo mechanism - master
cylinder - brake pads
Ans: (b) brake pedal -vacuum servo mechanism - master cylinder-
brake lines - brake pads

Question: 783. Electrolyte consists of—

(A) Pure sulphuric acid
(B) Distilled water
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans: C

Question: 784. When electrolyte is ready then its specific gravity should
be—
(A) 100
(B) 1000
(C) 10
(D) 10000
Ans: B

Question: 785. The specific gravity is measured by—

(A) Hydrometer
(B) Fathometer
(C) Lactometer
(D) Hydrometer
Ans: D

190
Question: 786. When the negative pole of one battery is connected to
the positive pole of the other battery, the batteries are said to be
connected in—
(A) Parallel
(B) Series
(C) Both
(D) None
Ans: B

Question: 787. If two batteries of 6 volts each are connected in series,

then the total capacity of this set will be—
(A) 12 volts
(B) 6 volts
(C) 1 volts
(D) 18 volts
Ans: A

Question: 788. When the negative pole of one battery is connected to

negative pole of other battery and positive pole to other pole, the
batteries are said to be connected in—
(A) Parallel
(B) Series
(C) Both
(D) None
Ans: A

Question: 789. When the batteries are connected in parallel then the
current shall be—
(A) Triple
(B) Same
(C) Double
(D) One fourth
Ans: C

Question: 790. Dynamo converts—

(A) Mechanical energy into electrical energy
191
(B) Electrical energy into mechanical energy
(C) Chemical energy into heat energy
(D) Heat energy into liquid energy
Ans: A

Question: 791. Which of the following is a component of dynamo?

(A) Armature
(B) Field coils
(C) Brushes
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 792. Dynamo is not producing current when there is—

(A) Loose or broken wire connection
(B) Defective switch
(C) Broken or loose V-belt
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 793. The service brakes employed in cars are generally

operated
(a) mechanically
(b) hydraulically
(c) pneumatically
(d) none of these
Ans: (b) hydraulically

Question: 794. In a ventilated disc brake,

(a) a duct directs air towards the caliper for cooling while the vehicle is
moving
(b) caliper is covered with cooling fins
(c) disc contains many small holes for optimum cooling performance
(d) disc contains radial vanes between its rubbing surfaces for optimum
cooling performance
Ans: (d) disc contains radial vanes between its rubbing surfaces for
optimum cooling performance
192
Question: 795. During braking, the brake shoe is moved outward to
force the lining against the
(a) wheel piston or cylinder
(b) anchor pin
(c) brake drum
(d) wheel rim or axle
Ans: (c) brake drum

Question: 796. The main function of a master cylinder is to

(a) adjust the extent of brake pedal free play
(b) boost the force applied to brake pedal
(c) convert brake pedal force into hydraulic pressure
(d) ensure that all the wheel brakes are supplied with the same amount
of fluid pressure
Ans: (c) convert brake pedal force into hydraulic pressure

Question: 797. The advantage of having a tandem master cylinder

arrangement in automobiles is that it
(a) enhances safety by serving two independent lines in a divided-line
brake circuit
(b) enhances safety by activating the brakes using vacuum pressure in
the event of
brake fluid loss
(c) supplies equal fluid pressure to each line ofa divided-line brake
circuit, thereby preventing
the brakes from dragging on one side
(d) boosts the brake fluid pressure to reduce the force required to
depress the brake pedal
Ans: (a) enhances safety by serving two independent lines in a divided-
line brake circuit

Question: 798. The power source for a brake booster is

(a) exhaust manifold pressure
(b) electricity

193
(c) the pressure difference between the atmospheric pressure and the
vacuum pressure in the intake manifold
(d) hydraulic pump
Ans: (c) the pressure difference between the atmospheric pressure and
the vacuum pressure in the intake manifold

Question: 799. The parking brakes employed in vehicles are operated

(a) mechanically
(b) hydraulically
(c) pneumatically
(d) none of these
Ans: (a) mechanically

Question: 800. The parking brake generally acts on

(a) front wheels
(b) rear wheels
(c) front and rear wheels
(d) propeller shaft
Ans: (b) rear wheels

Question: 801. The minimum parking brake force is generally of gross

vehicle mass (GYM).
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 15%
(d) 20%
Ans: (d) 20%

Question: 802. The function of a proportioning control valve (PCV) in a

brake system is to
(a) ensure that equal pressure is supplied to the front and rear brakes
throughout
every braking operation
(b) reduce the brake fluid pressure when the brakes approach their
lockup point

194
(c) cause less brake fluid pressure to act on the front brakes than on
the rear brakes when the fluid pressure exceeds a predetermined level
(d) cause less brake fluid pressure to act on the rear brakes than on the
front brakes when the fluid pressure exceeds a predetermined level.
Ans: (d) cause less brake fluid pressure to act on the rear brakes than
on the front brakes when the fluid pressure exceeds a predetermined
level.

Question: 803. The condition that causes vapour locking in a brake

system is
(a) overheating of the fluid due to frequent brake application
(b) overcooling of the brakes during nigh speed driving
(c) keeping the vehicle without use for an extended period
(d) an excessively high engine speed on a downhill road
Ans: (a) overheating of the fluid due to frequent brake application

Question: 804. The effect of vapour locking on the brake performance is

that the
(a) brakes function more effectively
(b) brakes fail completely
(c) brake operation is delayed after depression of the brake pedal
(d) vapour locking has no effect on brake performance
Ans: (b) brakes fail completely

Question: 805. The main function of the brake fluid is

(a) lubrication
(b) power transmission
(c) cooling
(d) none of these
Ans: (b) power transmission

Question: 806. The basic characteristics of a brake fluid is

(a) a high boiling point
(b) low viscosity
(c) compatibility with rubber and metal parts
(d) all of these
195
Ans: (d) all of these

Question: 807. The difference between DOT 3 and DOT 4 brake fluids is
(a) DOT 4 fluid has a higher boiling point than DOT 3 fluid
(b) DOT 4 fluid has a lower boiling point than DOT 3 fluid
(c) DOT 3 and DOT 4 fluids have the same boiling point, but DOT 4 fluid
has a longer service life
(d) DOT 4 fluid is more resistant to freezing than DOT 3 fluid
Ans: (a) DOT 4 fluid has a higher boiling point than DOT 3 fluid

Question: 808. When the brake pedal free play is less than the specified
value, then the
(a) brake drags
(b)brake fades
(c) vapour locking occurs in the brake lines
(d) antilock braking system malfunctions
Ans: (a) brake drags

Question: 809. The operation of removing trapped air from the hydraulic
braking system is known as
(a) trapping
(b) tapping
(c) bleeding
(d) cleaning
Ans: (c) bleeding

Question: 810. When the front wheels of a vehicle are locked during
braking, then
(a) stopping distance becomes· extremely long
(b) front tyres skid across the road surface, and the vehicle spins
around
(c) rear tyres skid across the road surface, and the vehicle spins around
(d) driver loses control over the steering, and the vehicle continues
moving in its current direction

196
Ans: (d) driver loses control over the steering, and the vehicle continues
moving in its current direction

Question: 811. The function of antilock brake system (ABS) is that is

(a) reduces the stopping distance
(b) minimizes the brake fade
(c) maintains directional control during braking by preventing the
wheels from locking
(d) prevents nose dives during braking and thereby postpones locking of
the wheels
Ans: (c) maintains directional control during braking by preventing the
wheels from locking

Question: 812. The brake pedal during ABS operation

(a) is pushed upward forcefully
(b) pedal stroke becomes longer
(c) transmits slight kickback to the driver's foot
(d) all of the above
Ans: (c) transmits slight kickback to the driver's foot

Question: 813. The brake warning light warns the driver of

(a) water in the master cylinder
(b) air in the hydraulic system
(c) failure of the primary or secondary circuit of hydraulic system
(d) power-brake failure
Ans: (c) failure of the primary or secondary circuit of hydraulic system

Question: 814. Which of the following symptom is caused as a result of

brake disc run out?
(a) Ineffectiveness of the brakes
(b) Judder during braking
(c) Localized wearing of the brake pads
(d) Rapid wearing of the brake pads
Ans: (b) Judder during braking

Question: 815. The painting of automobiles is done to

197
(a) prevent rust from growing on the body
(b) improve its external appearance
(c) retain the characteristics of steel for long
(d) all of these
Ans: (d) all of these

Question: 816. The purpose of adding pigment to the paint is that it

(a) optimizes the viscosity of paint
(b) makes paint film hard
(c) gives color and filling up effect to the paint
(d) none of the above
Ans: (c) gives color and filling up effect to the paint

Question: 817. Thinner is added to the paint in order to

(a) make pigments and resin mix easily
(b) make paint film hard
(c) optimize its viscosity
(d) none of these
Ans: (c) optimize its viscosity

Question: 818. The main lights are—

(A) Head lights
(B) Parking light
(C) Blinker lights
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 819. The head lamps are of …… watts in a medium priced car.
(A) 40-50
(B) 400-500
(C) 100-200
(D) 1000-2000
Ans: A

Question: 820. The candle power (cp) of parking lights is—

(A) 1
198
(B) 3
(C) 1·5
(D) 2·05
Ans: B

Question: 821. The candle power of stop lights is—

(A) 1·5
(B) 2·5
(C) 3·5
(D) 3
Ans: D

Question: 822. Which of the following light contains 3 cp?

(A) License plate light
(B) Tail lights
(C) Stop light
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 823. Which of the following light contains 1·5 cp?

(A) Instrument lights
(B) Map light
(C) Clock light
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 824. The candle power of glove compartment light is—

(A) 1
(B) 1·5
(C) 3
(D) 6
Ans: A

Question: 825. Which of the following light contain 6 cp?

(A) Map light
(B) Head
199
(C) Dome light
(D) None
Ans: C

Question: 826. The candle power of Head light is—

(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 6
(D) 50000-75000
Ans: D

1 Question: 827. The candle power of Trunk compartment light is—

(A) 1
(B) 1·5
(C) 6
(D) None
Ans: B

Question: 828. What is the maximum intensity of upper beam?

(A) 1 cp
(B) 6 cp
(C) 75000 cp
(D) 3 cp
Ans: C

Question: 829. Brown colour indicates—

(A) Battery circuit interior light
(B) Ignition circuit
(C) Generator circuit
(D) None of these
Ans: A

Question: 830. Blue light indicates—

(A) All ground wired
(B) Head lamp circuit
(C) Flasher unit
200
(D) Generator circuit
Ans: B

Question: 831. For all ground wire we use the colour—

(A) Black
(B) White
(C) Red
(D) Yellow
Ans: A

Question: 832. White colour indicates—

(A) Ignition circuit
(B) All ground wire
(C) Generator circuit
(D) None of these
Ans: A

Question: 833. For generator circuit which of the following colour is

used—
(A) Black
(B) Blue
(C) Brown
(D) Yellow
Ans: D

Question: 834. Brown colour is used to indicate—

(A) Control box
(B) Ammeter
(C) Horn
(D) All of these
Ans: D

Question: 835. For fused auxiliary circuit the colour is used—

(A) Yellow
(B) Green
(C) Blue
201
(D) Brown
Ans: B

Question: 836. For Head lamp circuit fed from terminal on terminal
switch we use—
(A) Yellow
(B) Brown
(C) Blue
(D) None
Ans: C

Question: 837. Green colour is used for—

(A) Stop lamps
(B) Fuse gauge
(C) Direction indicators
(D) All of the above
Ans: D

Question: 838. For automobile wiring which type of wire is used—

(A) P.V.C.
(B) Cotton braided wires
(C) Both the wires
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 839. Which is a type of bulb?

(A) Bayonet type
(B) Prefocus type
(C) Festoon type
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 840. Which is a type of bulb?

(A) Single contact
(B) Double filament
(C) Both
202
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 841. An automobile contains which of the following circuit?

(A) Head light circuit
(B) Starting circuit
(C) Side light circuit
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 842. In automobiles the wires are connected in which of the

following way—
(A) Earth return system
(B) Double pole system
(C) Both the ways
(D) None of the above ways
Ans: C

Question: 843. In earth return system which terminal of the battery is

earthed to the body or chassis which is made of metal—
(A) Negative
(B) Positive
(C) Both
(D) None of these
Ans: A

Question: 844. On copper wires …… is moulded on top of wire—

(A) Rubber
(B) Plastic
(C) Both
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 845. In automobile which of the horn is used—

(A) Bulb horns
(B) Air pressure horns
203
(C) Electric horns
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 846. …… light illuminate back of the car in the night so that the
other vehicle coming behind it are able to see it.
(A) Head
(B) Parking
(C) Tail
(D) Stop
Ans: C

Question: 847. …… are used to indicate the direction in which the vehicle
is to turn.
(A) Direction signal direction
(B) Stop light
(C) Parking light
(D) Interior light
Ans: A

Question: 848. …… are at the rear of the car and becomes on when
brakes are aiming.
(A) Head light
(B) Stop light
(C) Interior light
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 849. The …… must be aimed correctly to the required direction

to get proper light on the road and to prevent the vehicle from
accident—
(A) Stop lights
(B) Head lights
(C) Interior lights
(D) Parking light
Ans: B
204
Question: 850. The unit to measure the brightness of the source light
is—
(A) Candle power
(B) Power
(C) Candle
(D) None
Ans: A

Question: 851. The directional signal lights are operated—

(A) Manually
(B) Automatically
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 852. The current carrying capacity of cable size 44/ 0·012 is—
(A) 22 amp.
(B) 14 amp.
(C) 7 amp.
(D) 10 amp.
Ans: A

Question: 853. The current carrying capacity of cable size 28/ 0·012 is—
(A) 22 amp.
(B) 14 amp.
(C) 7 amp.
(D) 10 amp.
Ans: B

Question: 854. The current carrying capacity of cable size 14/ 0·012 is—
(A) 22 amp.
(B) 14 amp.
(C) 7 amp.
(D) 10 amp.
Ans: C
205
Question: 855. For rewiring the vehicle the cable size of head lamps
is—
(A) 44/ 0·012
(B) 28/ 0·012
(C) 14/ 0·001
(D) None
Ans: B

Question: 856. Which of the following has cable size 14/ 0·012?
(A) Field circuit
(B) Ignition circuit
(C) Accessories
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 857. For rewiring the vehicle the cable size of main battery
feed circuit is—
(A) 44/ 0·012
(B) 28/ 0·012
(C) 28/ 0·112
(D) 14/ 0·012
Ans: A

Question: 858. The frequency of flashing of light per minute in a

direction (side turn) indicator is about
(a) 9
(b) 90
(c) 900
(d) 9000
Ans: (b) 90

Question: 859. Battery is used in which of the phenomenon—

(A) Heater, radios
(B) Roof light, stop light
206
(C) Head lamps, tail light
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 860. Which of the following is the main component of a

battery?
(A) Battery plates
(B) Separators
(C) Electrolyte
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 861. A battery usually has …… cells.

(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans: C

Question: 862. The positive and negative plates are made of which of
following?
(A) Lead
(B) Iron
(C) Steel
(D) None of these
Ans: A

Question: 863. For positive plates …… is pasted.

(A) Lead peroxide
(B) Lead antimony
(C) Both of them
(D) None of these
Ans: A

Question: 864. For negative plates …… is pasted.

(A) Lead peroxide
207
(B) Lead antimony
(C) Both of them
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 865. What is placed between negative and positive plates?

(A) Electrolyte
(B) Battery box
(C) Separators
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 866. Which of the following bulb in a car will have the least
wattage?
(a) Headlight bulb
(b) Stop light bulb
(c) Parking light bulb
(d) Ignition warning bulb
Ans: (d) Ignition warning bulb

Question: 867. In automobiles G. V. W. refers to

(a) gross vehicle width
(b)gross vehicle weight
(c) gross vehicle wheel base
(d) gross vehicle wheel track
Ans: (b)gross vehicle weight

Question: 868. In which of the following conditions, the idle CO

percentage should be measured with the vehicle?
(a) Headlights and other electrical devices are switched off.
(b) Headlights and other electrical devices are switched on.
(c) Headlights and other lights are switched off.
(d) Headlights are switched on.
Ans: (a) Headlights and other electrical devices are switched off.

Question: 869. Battery is used in which of the phenomenon—

208
(A) Heater, radios
(B) Roof light, stop light
(C) Head lamps, tail light
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 870. Which of the following is the main component of a

battery?
(A) Battery plates
(B) Separators
(C) Electrolyte
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 871. A battery usually has …… cells.

(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans: C

Question: 872. The positive and negative plates are made of which of
following?
(A) Lead
(B) Iron
(C) Steel
(D) None of these
Ans: A

Question: 873. For positive plates …… is pasted.

(A) Lead peroxide
(B) Lead antimony
(C) Both of them
(D) None of these
Ans: A

209
Question: 874. For negative plates …… is pasted.
(A) Lead peroxide
(B) Lead antimony
(C) Both of them
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 875. What is placed between negative and positive plates?

(A) Electrolyte
(B) Battery box
(C) Separators
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 876. The most commonly used supplementary restraint

system (SRS) component is
(a) seat belt
(b) brake
(c) airbag
(d) steering
Ans: (c) airbag

Question: 877. The frame consisting of large channels joined by a cross

member at the middle is called—
(A) X-frame
(B) Y-frame
(C) Z-frame
(D) A-frame
Ans: A

Question: 878. What is the factor that tend to increase brake

temperature?
(A) Load on vehicle
(B) Speed of vehicle
(C) Unbalanced braking
(D) All are correct
210
Ans: D

Question: 879. What is the cause of poor braking?

(A) Wet brake lining
(B) Burnt or worn out linings
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 880. Which type of brakes are filled in vehicle?

(A) Service brakes
(B) Auxiliary brakes
(C) Both
(D) None
Ans: C

Question: 881. What is the function of brake lining?

(A) To increase the co-efficient of friction
(B) To prevent wearing away of the metal
(C) Both are correct
(D) None
Ans: C

Question: 882. Aluminium conducts …… heat than cast iron.

(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Equal
(D) None
Ans: A

Question: 883. …… section is the cross-section of the brake shoe?

(A) X
(B) Y
(C) Z
(D) T
Ans: D
211
Question: 884. Removal of air bubbles present in the braking system is
called—
(A) Blooding
(B) Bleeding
(C) Tunning
(D) None
Ans: B

Question: 885. …… mostly used for the braking surface.

(A) Steel
(B) Cast iron
(C) Copper
(D) Aluminium
Ans: B

Question: 886. Bleeder valve is the valve fitted on wheel cylinders for
forcing air out of the braking system—
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of these
Ans: A

Question: 887. Requirements of a good braking system is—

(A) Brake should have less wearing parts
(B) Brakes should work equally good in all weathers
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 888. Which of the following is the mechanical housed in the

drive axle, which drives the outer wheel faster than the inner one while
taking a turn?
(A) Transmission
(B) Propeller shaft
212
(C) Differential
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 889. Which of the following is the function of differential

mechanism?
(A) To keep both the rear wheels at the same speed in straight travel.
(B) To make outer rear wheel to rotate faster than the inner one.
(C) Both of them
(D) None of them
Ans: C

Question: 890. What is attached to the ring gear?

(A) Differential gages
(B) Gear box
(C) Front axle
(D) All are correct
Ans: A

Question: 891. The joint which permit power to be transmitted from one
shaft to another which are not in alignment is known as—
(A) Front axle
(B) Universal joint
(C) Gear box
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 892. The universal joints in use is—

(A) Cross type universal
(B) Ball or trunion universal joint
(C) Constant velocity type universal joint
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 893. A joint which does not allow variation in angular velocity
occurring in each revolution is called as—
213
(A) Constant velocity type universal joint
(B) Ball and trunion universal joint
(C) Cross type universal joint
(D) None of these
Ans: A

Question: 894. What is the shape of universal joint?

(A) X-shaped
(B) Y-shaped
(C) Z-shaped
(D) L-shaped
Ans: B

Question: 895. Which is a cross-shaped member of a cross and yoke

type universal joint?
(A) Trunion
(B) Spider
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 896. The four arms of the spider which connect two yokes of
the universal joint are called—
(A) Trunion
(B) Joint to joint
(C) Socket joint
(D) Flange
Ans: A

Question: 897. Which of the following is a flexible joint consisting of a

ball within a socket, used in suspension system and valve-train rocker
arms?
(A) Cross-type universal joint
(B) Constant velocity type
(C) Ball and socket joint
(D) None of the above
214
Ans: C

Question: 898. The constant velocity joint with two cross and yoke V-
joints mounted back to back with a linking yoke and a centering ball is
called as—
(A) Final drive
(B) Double carbon
(C) Both
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 899. What is a type of propeller shafts?

(A) Open type
(B) Enclosed type
(C) Torque tube
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 900. Which of the following is a type of transmission?

(A) Overdrive
(B) Chrysler semi-automatic
(C) Automatic transmission
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 901. Which is a type of automatic transmission?

(A) Hydromatic drive
(B) Torque converter transmissions
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of the above
Ans: C

Question: 902. A three-speed gear box provides—

(A) I, II, III and top gear
(B) I, II and top gear
(C) I, II, and III gear
215
(D) None of the above
Ans: B

Question: 903. The fluid drive is one name for …… to transmit turning
effort from the engine to the clutch.
(A) Solid coupling
(B) Plasma coupling
(C) Liquid coupling
(D) Gas coupling
Ans: C

Question: 904. Chrysler semi-automatic transmission was introduced in

….. by the chrysler corporation.
(A) 1950
(B) 1841
(C) 1941
(D) 2001
Ans: C

Question: 905. Chrysler semi-automatic transmission is a …… speed

forward and reverse geared semiautomatic transmission.
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) One
Ans: B

Question: 906. The transmission that functions purely automatically

without any attention from the driver is known as—
(A) Automatic transmission
(B) Imaginary transmission
(C) Overdrive
(D) Fluid drive
Ans: A

Question: 907. What is the advantage of automatic transmission?

216
(A) Simple driving control
(B) Reduced fuel consumption
(C) Less fatigue to driver
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 908. The composition of the drive torus, the driven torus and
the torque multiplier is—
(A) Torque converter fluid coupling
(B) Front planetary unit
(C) Rear planetary unit
(D) None of the above
Ans: A

Question: 909. A torque converter is a device to …… the torque while

reducing the speed.
(A) Decrease
(B) Increase
(C) Same
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 910. Which of the following is the advantage of the automatic

transmission?
(A) Longer life
(B) Noiseless gear shifting
(C) No shocks or jerky driving
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 911. The shell mounted on the crankshaft is called—

(A) Runner or driven member
(B) Impeller or driving member
(C) Both are correct
(D) None are correct
Ans: B
217
Question: 912. The shell mounted on driven shaft is called—
(A) Runner or driven member
(B) Impeller or driving member
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of the above
Ans: A

Question: 913. The lag of runner behind the impeller is known as—
(A) Runner in
(B) Runner out
(C) Slip
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 914. The vortex flow is maximum when the slip is—
(A) 5%
(B) 0·5%
(C) 20%
(D) 100%
Ans: D

Question: 915. A torque converter has a—

(A) Slip
(B) Stator
(C) Camber
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 916. Which of the following is the essential devices for

overdrive?
(A) A free wheeling mechanism
(B) A planetary gear set
(C) Both are correct
(D) None are correct
Ans: C
218
Question: 917. Generally an overdrive is fitted to the …… only.
(A) Bottom gear only
(B) Top gear only
(C) Same gear only
(D) None are correct
Ans: B

Question: 918. A torque converter multiplies torque when the stator is

free wheeling—
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 919. Which one of the following element creates reaction in a

torque converter?
(A) Impeller
(B) Turbine
(C) Stator
(D) None of these
Ans: A

Question: 920. What is the advantage of automatic transmission?

(A) Simple driving control
(B) Reduced fuel consumption
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of the above
Ans: C

Question: 921. An over running clutch restricts drive to one direction

only?
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
(C) Both are correct
219
(D) None are correct
Ans: A

Question: 922. Steel wires fitted in circles are called—

(A) Breads
(B) Beads
(C) Drum
(D) Hump
Ans: B

Question: 923. What is the advantage of tubeless tyres?

(A) Slow rate of air loss
(B) Penetration of nails
(C) Does not affect complete deflation
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 924. Which of the following reduce tyre life?

(A) High speed
(B) Running the tyres with under inflation
(C) Both are correct
(D) None
Ans: C

Question: 925. The ratio of section width to section height is known as

the aspect ratio—
(A) False
(B) True
(C) Both
(D) None
Ans: B

Question: 926. What is the function of tyres?

(A) Carry the load of the vehicle
(B) Absorb the small road shocks
(C) Damp down the vibration to some extent
220
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 927. …… gives strength to resist internal pressure to support

load and road shocks.
(A) Cord plies
(B) Bead
(C) Tread
(D) None of these
Ans: A

Question: 928. …… is soft heat resistance rubber.

(A) Cord plies
(B) Cushion
(C) Tread
(D) Well
Ans: B

Question: 929. …… is a bag of rubber in which air is filled through valve.

(A) Tube
(B) Cord plies
(C) Well
(D) Tread
Ans: A

Question: 930. Factors that will prevent equitable distribution of load

between two tyres of dual assembly are—
(A) The relative diameter of twin tyres
(B) The amount of air pressure in each tyre
(C) Loose wheel bearings
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 931. Steel belt radial tyres offer …… less resistance as

compared to conventional tyres hence vehicle using such tyres
consumes less fuel. (A) 5%
221
(B) 28%
(C) 90%
(D) 99%
Ans: B

Question: 932. The radial tyres have …… carrying capacity than

conventional tyres.
(A) Less
(B) Same
(C) More
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 933. The tyre should create …… noise while running on the
road.
(A) Maximum
(B) Minimum
(C) Both
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 934. Disc wheel consists of a …… rim.

(A) Rubber
(B) Steel
(C) Copper
(D) None
Ans: B

Question: 935. To perform a good function the wheel must be—

(A) Strong enough
(B) Able to grip the road surface
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of the above
Ans: C

Question: 936. Which of the following is a type of wheel?

222
(A) Disc wheel
(B) Wire wheel
(C) Split wheel
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 937. Which of the following is a type of tyre?

(A) Tube tyre
(B) Tubeless tyre
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 938. The two top plies of the tyre are referred to as—
(A) Tread
(B) Casing
(C) Breaker
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 939. The tyre …… are made up of layers of cord impregnated

with rubber.
(A) Casing
(B) Breaker
(C) Tread
(D) None of these
Ans: A

Question: 940. The tyre casing are made up of layers of cord

impregnated with— (A) Steel
(B) Rubber
(C) Copper
(D) None of these
Ans: B

223
Question: 941. The shoulder to shoulder width of the tyre represents
the—
(A) Breaker
(B) Side well
(C) Tread
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 942. That part of the rim which provides lateral support to the
tyre is called—
(A) Well
(B) Gutter
(C) Flange
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 943. That part of the rim which provides radial support to the
tyre is called—
(A) Well
(B) Bead seat
(C) Flange
(D) Gutter
Ans: B

Question: 944. The hole or slot in the rim which accommodates the
valve for tyre inflation is called—
(A) Well
(B) Flange
(C) Valve aperture
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 945. The groove in the rim base in which rim parts are
retained is called—
(A) Well
(B) Flange
224
(C) Bead seat
(D) Gutter
Ans: D

Question: 946. If the size of the tyre is 8·20 × 20 × 10 PR. This shows
that the width of tyre from shoulder to shoulder is—
(A) 8·20"
(B) 20"
(C) 10"
(D) 20 × 10"
Ans: A

Question: 947. For wheel and tyre trouble the causes of trouble Wheel
wobble is—
(A) Worn hub bearing of the wheel
(B) Unbalanced wheel
(C) Both are correct
(D) None
Ans: C

Question: 948. For wheel and tyre troubles the cause of wheel bounce
is—
(A) Eccentricity of the wheel and tyre
(B) Incorrect tyre pressure
(C) Unbalanced wheel
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 949. What is the remedy of the cause fault ‘Air in hydraulics
system’? (A) Bleed the system
(B) Adjust brake pedal
(C) Use brake oil
(D) All are correct
Ans: A

Question: 950. The main component of vacuum servo brake is—

225
(A) Exhauster
(B) Vacuum tank
(C) Vacuum booster
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 951. Vacuum tank is connected to the valve of brake booster

through a …… pipe?
(A) Rubber
(B) Steel
(C) Copper
(D) None
Ans: B

Question: 952. The main component of air pressure brakes is—

(A) Brake valve
(B) Unloader valve
(C) Line filter
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 953. The main component of air pressure brake is—

(A) Air compressor
(B) Slack adjuster
(C) Air tank
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 954. What is the cause of the fault ‘insufficient braking’?

(A) Insufficient air in the system
(B) Brake shoes worn out
(C) Brakes require re-adjusting
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 955. What are the features of a good quality clutch?

226
(A) Pick up load without any noise
(B) Have capacity to damp out vibrations
(C) Both are correct
(D) None
Ans: C

Question: 956. …… and spline clutches are preferred in synchronized

mechanism. (A) Cat
(B) Rat
(C) Dog
(D) Mat
Ans: C

Question: 957. Should all clutch springs in a multi spring clutch be of

the same length and strength?
(A) Yes
(B) No
(C) Yes-No
(D) None of these
Ans: A

Question: 958. A good quality clutch should pick up load without any
noise—
(A) False
(B) True
(C) Both
(D) None
Ans: B

Question: 959. A wet clutch is one which runs in oil in which the plates
are linked with cork.
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Both
(D) None
Ans: A
227
Question: 960. Chassis and body are same thing—
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Both
(D) None
Ans: B

Question: 961. Is it correct or not? A frame is that part of a car which

supports the body, engine and power train.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
(C) Both
(D) None
Ans: A

Question: 962. Factor effecting retardation is—

(A) Pressure exerted on braking surface
(B) Weight carried on wheels
(C) Radius of brake drum
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 963. Which of the following is a type of brake?

(A) Mechanical brake
(B) Hydraulic brake
(C) Both are correct
(D) None
Ans: C

Question: 964. Which of the following is a type of brake?

(A) Air pressure brake
(B) Hydraulic disc brake
(C) Vacuum assisted brake
(D) All are correct
Ans: D
228
Question: 965. The shape of single cable brake is—
(A) P-lever housed
(B) S-lever housed
(C) T-lever housed
(D) L-lever housed
Ans: C

Question: 966. The formula F/A = constant (A = Area, F = weight) is

called—
(A) Snell’s law
(B) Pascal’s law
(C) Hydraulic law
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 967. On the principle hydraulic system is based where by

pump hydraulic oil with foot pedal through small cylinder is called—
(A) Master cylinder
(B) Wheel cylinder
(C) Both are correct
(D) None
Ans: A

Question: 968. 4 × 4 drive chassis vehicle consists of …… wheels and all

of them are the driving wheels.
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 6
(D) None
Ans: A

Question: 969. 6 × 2 drive chassis vehicle consists of …… wheels out of

which …… wheels are the driving wheels.
(A) 6, 6
(B) 2, 6
229
(C) 6, 2
(D) All of them
Ans: C

Question: 970. 6 × 4 drive chassis vehicle consists of …… wheels out of

which …… wheels are the driving wheels.
(A) 6, 6
(B) 6, 4
(C) 4, 6
(D) None
Ans: B

Question: 971. Which is the type of frames?

(A) Conventional frame
(B) Integral construction
(C) Half integral chassis
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 972. The clutch is fitted in between the …… and ……box.

(A) Engine, wheel
(B) Engine, gear
(C) Wheel, body
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 973. The lubricant used for clock and watches is—
(A) Hezel-nut oil
(B) Olive oil
(C) Sperm oil
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 974. The oil consumption may be high due to the reason—
(A) Loose bearing
(B) Tapered or out-of round cylinders
230
(C) Worm piston rings
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 975. The oil pressure may be low due to the reason—
(A) Less oil in the oil pan
(B) Loose connection in the oil lines
(C) Too weak relief valve spring
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 976. The type of lubrication system is—

(A) Splash type
(B) Dry sump
(C) Pressure type
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 977. The essential requirement of good lubricating oil is—

(A) High wear resistance properties
(B) High anti-friction characteristics
(C) Maximum resistance to oxidization
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 978. In Gear type oil pump the number of gears are—
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
Ans: B

Question: 979. The valve seats made in the engine is—

(A) Wide seat
(B) Narrow seat
(C) Interference seat
231
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 980. Which of the following is the maintenance of Air-cooled

engine?
(A) Keep fins of cylinder and head always clean of dust and oil
(B) Keep the ducts always properly positioned
(C) Keep the ducts always clean of dust and dirt
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 981. The viscosity is measured by—

(A) Fathometer
(B) Lectometer
(C) Viscosimeter
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 982. The additives in oil is—

(A) Viscosity-index improver
(B) Foam inhibitors
(C) Rust inhibitors
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 983. Grease is the type of lubricants—

(A) Solid
(B) Semi solid
(C) Liquid
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 984. …… are fairly water proof and are useful for water
pumps, chassis and wheel bearings.
(A) Calcium based greases
(B) Sodium based greases
232
(C) Aluminium based greases
(D) None of these
Ans: A

Question: 985. …… are able to withstand moderably high temperatures

and tend to absorb water, which reduces rusting problem.
(A) Calcium based greases
(B) Sodium based greases
(C) Aluminium based greases
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 986. For very heavy pressure and slow speed, the lubricant
is—
(A) Graphite
(B) Soapstone
(C) Both
(D) None
Ans: C

Question: 987. Friction is …… when the material is soft.

(A) Low
(B) High
(C) Same
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 988. Friction is …… when the surfaces are smooth and highly
polished. (A) Low
(B) High
(C) Same
(D) None of these
Ans: A

Question: 989. Friction is …… when pressure is low?

(A) Low
233
(B) High
(C) Same
(D) None of these
Ans: A

Question: 990. The lubricating system is—

(A) Engine lubrication system
(B) Chassis lubrication system
(C) Both
(D) None
Ans: C

Question: 991. What is the function of lubricating oil?

(A) To minimize friction and wear
(B) To cool by carrying away heat
(C) To cushion the parts against vibration and impact
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 992. Lubrication of all moving parts is essential to—

(A) Increase friction
(B) Reduce friction
(C) Increase velocity
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 993. The primary objects of lubrication are—

(A) To reduce friction between the moving parts
(B) To reduce wear of the moving parts
(C) To act as a cooling medium for moving heat
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 994. What is the possible cause for internal leakage?

(A) Defective cylinder head gasket
(B) Cracked cylinder wall
234
(C) Loose cylinder head bolt
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 995. What is the possible cause of water loss?

(A) Boiling
(B) External or internal leakage
(C) Restricted radiator or inoperative thermostat
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 996. What is the possible cause of external leakage?

(A) Loose hose clips
(B) Defective rubber hose
(C) Loose core plugs
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 997. Thermal efficiency is …… due to more loss of heat to the

cylinder walls.
(A) Decreased
(B) Increased
(C) Same
(D) None of these
Ans: A

Question: 998. The type of radiator when the water flows from top to
bottom is—
(A) Down flow type radiator
(B) Cross flow type radiator
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of these
Ans: A

Question: 999. The type of Radiator when water flows horizontally from
an input tank on one side to another is called—
235
(A) Down flow type radiator
(B) Cross flow type radiator
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of these
Ans: B

Question: 1000. Which of the following is much better heat conductor?

(A) Cast iron
(B) Steel
(C) Aluminum
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 1001. Which of the following method is used for engine

cooling?
(A) Liquid cooling
(B) Steam cooling
(C) Air cooling
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 1002. For effective air cooling the surface area of the metal
which comes in contact with air is …… by providing fins over the
cylinder barrels.
(A) Decreased
(B) Increased
(C) Same
(D) None
Ans: B

Question: 1003. What is the disadvantage of a water cooling system?

(A) Increase in weight of the vehicle
(B) Less engine sound
(C) Quick transfer of heat
(D) None of these
236
Ans: A

Question: 1004. The circulation in thermo-syphon cooling system

through convection currents—
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Neither true nor false
(D) None
Ans: A

Question: 1004. Which of the following method is used for engine

cooling?
(A) Air cooling
(B) Water cooling
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Question: 1005. What is the advantage of a water cooled system?

(A) Quick transfer of heat
(B) Less engine sound
(C) Easier method to control temperature
(D) All of the above
Ans: D

Question: 1006. Which of the following is a coupling incorporated

between the engine and the rear road wheel?
(A) Engine
(B) Rear axle
(C) Transmission
(D) None of these
Ans: (C)

Question: 1007. What is the mechanism to steer the front wheels so that
vehicles could be steered to right or left as desired by the driver?
(A) Steering system
237
(B) Brake system
(C) Electrical system
(D) None of these
Ans: (A)

Question: 1008. Vehicle without body is known as—

(A) Wheel
(B) Ring
(C) Axle
(D) Chassis
Ans: (D)

Question: 1009. Which of the following is called power plant?

(A) Axle
(B) Chassis
(C) Wheel
(D) Engine
Ans: (D)

Question: 1010. Which of the following is the name of automobile?

(A) Auto
(B) Motor
(C) Car
(D) All of the above
Ans: (D)

Question: 1011. The first motor car appeared in India in—

(A) 1870
(B) 1898
(C) 1753
(D) 1947
Ans: (B)

Question: 1012. The first successful American car was built by—
(A) Duryea Brothers
(B) Lanchester
238
(C) Both of them
(D) None of these
Ans: (A)

Question: 1013. Which of the following are the Indian manufacturers of

scooters?
(A) Andhra Pradesh Scooters
(B) A.P.I.
(C) Bajaj Auto
(D) All of the above
Ans: (D)

Question: 1014. Which of the following is the Indian manufacturer of

motor cycles?
(A) Royal Enfield
(B) A.P.I.
(C) Bajaj Auto
(D) None of these
Ans: (C)

Question: 1015. Which is the Indian manufacturer of Jeeps?

(A) Ashok leyland
(B) Hindustan motors
(C) Mahindra and Mahindra
(D) None of these
Ans: (C)

Question: 1016. Which is the Indian manufacturer of trucks?

(A) Ashok leyland
(B) Hindustan motors
(C) Premier automobile
(D) All of the above
Ans: (D)

Question: 1017. Which of the following is the Indian manufacturer of

moped?
239
(A) Enfield India
(B) Indian automotives
(C) Moped India
(D) All of the above
Ans: (D)

Question: 1018. Indian manufacturer of Tractors are—

(A) Eicher
(B) Escorts
(C) Gujarat tractors
(D) All of the above
Ans: (D)

Question: 1019. Which of the following are the kinds of Maruti Udyog?
(A) Maruti 800 car
(B) Maruti 800 deluxe car
(C) Maruti 800 flat roof van
(D) All of the above
Ans: (D)

Question: 1020. In 1935 …… made an automobile industry in India.

(A) Sir M. Visvesvaraya
(B) Sir Rajdoot
(C) Sir Charles and Frank
(D) None of these
Ans: (A)

Question: 1021. Full name of LMV is—

(A) Light medium vehicle
(B) Light motor vehicle
(C) Length motor vehicle
(D) Length medium vehicle
Ans: (B)

Question: 1022. HTV means—

(A) Heavy Truck Motor
240
(B) Meany Motor Vehicle
(C) Heavy Transport Vehicle
(D) All of the above
Ans: (C)

Question: 1023. The different parts of vehicles are—

(A) Chassis
(B) Body
(C) Both of them
(D) None
Ans: (C)

Question: 1024. The Motor Vehicle Act as amended upto 1977 has the
following chapters—
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 135
(D) None of these
Ans: A

Question: 1025. The motor vehicle Act, 1977 has the following sections—
(A) 130
(B) 153
(C) 135
(D) 180
Ans: C

Question: 1026. The motor vehicle Act 1977 has …… schedules.

(A) 20
(B) 15
(C) 10
(D) 12
Ans: D

Question: 1027. The first chapter of the act indicates about—

(A) Control of transport vehicle
241
(B) Preliminary
(C) Offences
(D) None of the above
Ans: B

Question: 1028. The control of transport vehicle is explained in the

chapter—
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV
Ans: D

Question: 1029. The offences, penalties and procedures are indicated in

which of the following chapters?
(A) IX
(B) X
(C) VI
(D) V
Ans: A

Question: 1030. The insurance of motor vehicles against third party

risks are indicated in which of the following chapters?
(A) X
(B) VII
(C) VIII
(D) IX
Ans: C

Question: 1031. The chapter IV explains about—

(A) License of driver
(B) Control of transport vehicles
(C) Offences
(D) Miscellaneous
Ans: B

242
Question: 1032. The control of traffic is explained in which of the
following chapter—
(A) V
(B) VI
(C) VIII
(D) X
Ans: B

Question: 1033. The chapter X explains about—

(A) Control of traffic
(B) Preliminary
(C) Miscellaneous
(D) Risks
Ans: C

Question: 1034. The Registration of motor vehicles is indicated in which

of the following chapter—
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV
Ans: C

Question: 1035. The construction, equipment and maintenance of motor

vehicles are explained in which of the following chapter?
(A) V
(B) I
(C) II
(D) III
Ans: A

Question: 1036. The first schedule of the act is about—

(A) Test of competence to driver
(B) Forms
(C) Offence
(D) None of these
243
Ans: B

Question: 1037. The test of competence to drive is indicated in which of

the following schedule?
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fifth
Ans: C

Question: 1038. The twelfth schedule indicate about—

(A) Repeat of certain enactments
(B) Signals
(C) Traffic signs
(D) None of the above
Ans: A

Question: 1039. The registration marks are in which of the following

schedule?
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Sixth
(D) Fifth
Ans: C

Question: 1040. The limits of speed for motor vehicles are in which of
the following schedule?
(A) First
(B) Eight
(C) Sixth
(D) Fifth
Ans: B

Question: 1041. The traffic signs are indicated in which of the following
schedule?
(A) Second
244
(B) Ninth
(C) Sixth
(D) First
Ans: B

Question: 1042. The repeat of certain enactments are in which of the

following schedule?
(A) Twelfth
(B) Fifth
(C) Second
(D) First
Ans: A

Question: 1043. The section 3–21 are in which of the following chapter—
(A) IX
(B) III
(C) I
(D) II
Ans: D

Question: 1044. The chapter X contains the sections—

(A) 22-41
(B) 132A-135
(C) 71-91
(D) 42-68
Ans: B

Question: 1045. The chapter III contains the sections—

(A) 22-41
(B) 132A-135
(C) 71-91
(D) 42-68
Ans: A

Question: 1046. The chapter VI contains the sections—

(A) 22-41
245
(B) 132-135
(C) 71-91
(D) 42-68
Ans: C

Question: 1047. The chapter VIII contains the sections—

(A) 132A-135
(B) 55
(C) 92
(D) 1-2
Ans: C

Question: 1048. The miscellaneous contains the sections—

(A) 132A-135
(B) 71-91
(C) 21A-21J
(D) 3-21
Ans: A

Question: 1049. The diseases and disabilities are indicated in the

schedule—
(A) Second
(B) First
(C) Third
(D) Fourth
Ans: A

Question: 1050. The amount of compensation is Rs. …… in case the

accident results in the death of the victim.
(A) 1000
(B) 15000
(C) 5000
(D) None of these
Ans: B

246
Question: 1051. The amount of compensation is Rs. …… for permanent
disability.
(A) 7500
(B) 15000
(C) 5000
(D) 1000
Ans: A

Question: 1052. Where the compensation is paid from the solatium fund,
the compensation amount is Rs. …… in case of the victim dies.
(A) 1000
(B) 5000
(C) 10000
(D) 20000
Ans: B

Question: 1053. There are Rs. …… compensation for grievous hurt.

(A) 1000
(B) 5000
(C) 10000
(D) 20000
Ans: A

Question: 1054. Which of the following letter shall be used as the

registration mark for Andhra Pradesh?
(A) AP
(B) AA
(C) AT
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 1055. Which of the following letter shall be used as the

registration mark for Delhi?
(A) DL
(B) DH
(C) DE
247
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 1056. Which of the following letter shall be used as the

registration mark for Bihar?
(A) BR
(B) BH
(C) BP
(D) All are correct
Ans: D

Question: 1057. Which letter is for Andaman?

(A) AN
(B) AA
(C) AD
(D) AT
Ans: A

Question: 1058. The letter for Punjab is—

(A) PN
(B) PU
(C) PB
(D) All of these
Ans: D

Question: 1059. In case of transport vehicle which figure is correct?

(A) In black on white ground
(B) In red on a yellow ground
(C) Both are correct
(D) None are correct
Ans: A

Question: 1060. In case of temporary registration which of the following

figure is correct?
(A) In black on white ground
(B) In red on yellow ground
248
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of the above
Ans: B

Question: 1061. The maximum speed per hour in kilometers for the
vehicle in a medium motor vehicle is—
(A) 50
(B) 40
(C) 60
(D) 80
Ans: A

Question: 1062. The max. speed per hour in kilometres for the vehicle
(Motor) used by the fire brigade is—
(A) 90
(B) 60
(C) 40
(D) 50
Ans: D

Question: 1063. If the vehicle is a motor cycle then max. speed is—
(A) 50
(B) 60
(C) 40
(D) No limit
Ans: A

Question: 1064. If the vehicle is a light motor vehicle then max. speed
is—
(A) 50
(B) 60
(C) 40
(D) No limit
Ans: D

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