Structure of atom 48

8. Magnitude of K.E. in an orbit is equal to [BCECE 2005]

(a) Half of the potential energy
(b) Twice of the potential energy
(c) One fourth of the potential energy
(d) None of these
9. The density of neutrons is of the order [NCERT 1980]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
10. The discovery of neutron becomes very late because [CPMT 1987; AIIMS 1998]
(a) Neutrons are present in nucleus
(b) Neutrons are highly unstable particles
(c) Neutrons are chargeless
(d) Neutrons do not move
11. The fundamental particles present in the nucleus of an atom are [CPMT 1983, 84]
(a) Alpha particles and electrons
(b) Neutrons and protons
(c) Neutrons and electrons
(d) Electrons, neutrons and protons
12. The order of density in nucleus is [NCERT 1981, CPMT 1981, 2003]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
13. Cathode rays are [JIPMER 1991; NCERT 1976]
(a) Protons (b) Electrons
(c) Neutrons (d) -particles
14. Number of neutron in is [BCECE 2005]
(a) 6 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) 9
15. Heaviest particle is [DPMT 1983; MP PET 1999]
(a) Meson (b) Neutron
(c) Proton (d) Electron
Sol 15 (b) Mass of neutron is greater than that of proton, meson and electron.
Mass of neutron = mass of proton + mass of electron
16. Penetration power of proton is [BHU 1985; CPMT 1982, 88]
(a) More than electron (b) Less than electron
(c) More than neutron (d) None
17. An elementary particle is [CPMT 1973]
(a) An element present in a compound
(b) An atom present in an element
(c) A sub-atomic particle
(d) A fragment of an atom
18. The nucleus of helium contains[CPMT 1972; DPMT 1982]
(a) Four protons
(b) Four neutrons
(c) Two neutrons and two protons
(d) Four protons and two electrons
19. Which is correct statement about proton [CPMT 1979; MP PMT 1985; NCERT 1985; MP PET 1999]
(a) Proton is nucleus of deuterium
(b) Proton is ionized hydrogen molecule
(c) Proton is ionized hydrogen atom
(d) Proton is -particle
Sol 19 (c) Proton is the nucleus of atom ( atom devoid of its electron).
20. Cathode rays are made up of [AMU 1983]
(a) Positively charged particles
(b) Negatively charged particles
(c) Neutral particles
(d) None of these
21. Anode rays were discovered by [DPMT 1985]
 49 Structure of atom
(a) Goldstein (b) J. Stoney
(c) Rutherford (d) J.J. Thomson
22. The radius of an atom is of the order of[AMU 1982; IIT 1985; MP PMT 1995]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Sol 22 (d)
23. Neutron possesses [CPMT 1982]
(a) Positive charge (b) Negative charge
(c) No charge (d) All are correct
24. Neutron is a fundamental particle carrying [CPMT 1990]
(a) A charge of +1 unit and a mass of 1 unit
(b) No charge and a mass of 1 unit
(c) No charge and no mass
(d) A charg of –1 and a mass of 1 unit
25. Cathode rays have [CPMT 1982]
(a) Mass only (b) Charge only
(c) No mass and charge (d) Mass and charge both
26. The size of nucleus is measured in[EAMCET 1988; CPMT 1994]
(a) amu (b) Angstrom
(c) Fermi (d) cm
27. Which phrase would be incorrect to use[AMU (Engg.) 1999]
(a) A molecular of a compound
(b) A molecule of an element
(c) An atom of an element
(d) None of these
28. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched[MP PET 2002]
(a) Rutherford-Proton
(b) J.J. Thomsom-Electron
(c) J.H. Chadwick-Neutron
(d) Bohr-Isotope
Sol 28 (d)
29. Proton was discovered by [AFMC 2004]
(a) Chadwick (b) Thomson
(c) Goldstein (d) Bohr
30. The minimum real charge on any particle which can exist is [RPMT 2000]
(a) (b)
(c) (d) Zero
31. The nature of anode rays depends upon [MP PET 2004]
(a) Nature of electrode (b) Nature of residual gas
(c) Nature of discharge tube (d) All the above
Sol 31 (d)
32. One would expect proton to have very large[Pb. CET 2004]
(a) Ionization potential (b) Radius
(c) Charge (d) Hydration energy
33. The mass of a mol of proton and electron is
(a) (b) and
(c) (d)
34. The average distance of an electron in an atom from its nucleus is of the order of [MP PET 1996]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Sol 34 (c)
35. The mass of 1 mole of electrons is [Pb. CET 2004]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
36. The ratio of specific charge of a proton and an -particle is[MP PET 1999]
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
 Structure of atom 50
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 1
Sol 36 (a)
37. Ratio of masses of proton and electron is [BHU 1998]
(a) Infinite (b)
(c) 1.8 (d) None of these
38. Splitting of signals is caused by [Pb. PMT 2000]
(a) Proton (b) Neutron
(c) Positron (d) Electron
39. The proton and neutron are collectively called as [MP PET 2001]
(a) Deutron (b) Positron
(c) Meson (d) Nucleon
Sol 39 (d)
40. Which of the following has the same mass as that of an electron [AFMC 2002]
(a) Photon (b) Neutron
(c) Positron (d) Proton
41. What is the ratio of mass of an electron to the mass of a proton[UPSEAT 2004]
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1
(c) 1 : 1837 (d) 1 : 3

Atomic number, Mass number, Atomic species

1. The number of electrons in an atom of an element is equal to its [BHU 1979]

(a) Atomic weight (b) Atomic number
(c) Equivalent weight (d) Electron affinity
2. The nucleus of the element having atomic number 25 and atomic weight 55 will contain [CPMT 1986; MP
PMT 1987]
(a) 25 protons and 30 neutrons
(b) 25 neutrons and 30 protons
(c) 55 protons
(d) 55 neutrons
Sol 2 (a)
3. If W is atomic weight and N is the atomic number of an element, then [CPMT 1971, 80, 89]
(a) Number of
(b) Number of
(c) Number of
(d) Number of
4. The total number of neutrons in dipositive zinc ions with mass number 70 is [IIT 1979; Bihar MEE 1997]
(a) 34 (b) 40
(c) 36 (d) 38
5. Which of the following are isoelectronic with one another [NCERT 1983; EAMCET 1989]
(a) and (b) and
(c) and (d) and
6. The number of electrons in one molecule of are [IIT 1979; MP PMT 1994; RPMT 1999]
(a) 22 (b) 44
(c) 66 (d) 88
Sol 6 (a)
7. Chlorine atom differs from chloride ion in the number of[NCERT 1972; MP PMT 1995]
(a) Proton (b) Neutron
(c) Electrons (d) Protons and electrons
Sol 6 (c)
8. has same electrons as or the ion that is isoelectronic with is[CPMT 1984; IIT 1982; EAMCET 1990;
CBSE PMT 1997]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
 51 Structure of atom
9. The mass of an atom is constituted mainly by[DPMT 1984, 91; AFMC 1990]
(a) Neutron and neutrino (b) Neutron and electron
(c) Neutron and proton (d) Proton and electron
10. The atomic number of an element represents[CPMT 1983; CBSE PMT 1990; NCERT 1973; AMU 1984]
(a) Number of neutrons in the nucleus
(b) Number of protons in the nucleus
(c) Atomic weight of element
(d) Valency of element
11. An atom has 26 electrons and its atomic weight is 56. The number of neutrons in the nucleus of the atom will
be[CPMT 1980]
(a) 26 (b) 30
(c) 36 (d) 56
12. The most probable radius (in pm) for finding the electron in is [AIIMS 2005]
(a) 0.0 (b) 52.9
(c) 26.5 (d) 105.8
13. The number of unpaired electrons in the ion is [MP PET 1989; KCET 2000]
(a) 0 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 3
Sol 6 (b)
14. A sodium cation has different number of electrons from
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
15. An atom which has lost one electron would be[CPMT 1986]
(a) Negatively charged
(b) Positively charged
(c) Electrically neutral
(d) Carry double positive charge
16. Number of electrons in the outermost orbit of the element of atomic number 15 is [CPMT 1988, 93]
(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 5 (d) 7
17. The atomic weight of an element is double its atomic number. If there are four electrons in orbital, the
element is [AMU 1983]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
18. An atom has the electronic configuration of , . Its atomic weight is 80. Its
atomic number and the number of neutrons in its nucleus shall be[MP PMT 1987]
(a) 35 and 45 (b) 45 and 35
(c) 40 and 40 (d) 30 and 50
Sol 18 (a)
19. Which of the following particles has more electrons than neutrons
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
20. Compared with an atom of atomic weight 12 and atomic number 6, the atom of atomic weight 13 and atomic
number 6 [NCERT 1971]
(a) Contains more neutrons (b) Contains more electrons
(c) Contains more protons (d) Is a different element
21. In the nucleus of there are[CPMT 1990; EAMCET 1991]
(a) 40 protons and 20 electrons
(b) 20 protons and 40 electrons
(c) 20 protons and 20 neutrons
(d) 20 protons and 40 neutrons
22. ion is isoelectronic with [CPMT 1990]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
23. has atomic no. 20 and atomic weight 40. Which of the following statements is not correct about atom
 Structure of atom 52
[MP PET 1993]
(a) The number of electrons is same as the number of neutrons
(b) The number of nucleons is double of the number of electrons
(c) The number of protons is half of the number of neutrons
(d) The number of nucleons is double of the atomic number
Sol 23 (c)
24. Pick out the isoelectronic structures from the following
[IIT 1993]
(a) I and II (b) I and IV
(c) I and III (d) II, III and IV
25. Number of electrons in is [AMU 1988]
(a) 22 (b) 24
(c) 20 (d) 28
26. The atomic number of an element having the valency shell electronic configuration is [MP PMT
1991]
(a) 35 (b) 36
(c) 37 (d) 38
Sol 26 (b)
27. The present atomic weight scale is based on[EAMCET 1988; MP PMT 2002]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Sol 27 (a)
28. Isoelectronic species are [EAMCET 1989]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
29. If the atomic weight of an element is 23 times that of the lightest element and it has 11 protons, then it
contains[EAMCET 1986; AFMC 1989]
(a) 11 protons, 23 neutrons, 11 electrons
(b) 11 protons, 11 neutrons, 11 electrons
(c) 11 protons, 12 neutrons, 11 electrons
(d) 11 protons, 11 neutrons, 23 electrons
30. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is isoelectronic with [CBSE PMT 1990]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
31. The ratio between the neutrons in and with respect to atomic masses 12 and 28 is [EAMCET
1990]
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 2
(c) 3 : 7 (d) 7 : 3
32. The atomic number of an element is always equal to [MP PMT 1994]
(a) Atomic weight divided by 2
(b) Number of neutrons in the nucleus
(c) Weight of the nucleus
(d) Electrical charge of the nucleus
Sol 32 (d)
33. Which of the following is isoelectronic with carbon atom [MP PMT 1994; UPSEAT 2000]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Sol 33 (d)
34. is isostructural with [IIT 1986; MP PMT 1986, 94, 95]
(a) (b)
(c) (d) All the above
Sol 34 (c)
 53 Structure of atom
35. The hydride ions are isoelectronic with [AFMC 1995; Bihar MEE 1997]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
36. The number of electrons in the nucleus of is [AFMC 1995]
(a) 6 (b) 12
(c) 0 (d) 3
37. An element has electronic configuration 2, 8, 18, 1. If its atomic weight is 63, then how many neutrons will be
present in its nucleus
(a) 30 (b) 32
(c) 34 (d) 33
38. The nucleus of the element contains
(a) 45 protons and 21 neutrons
(b) 21 protons and 24 neutrons
(c) 21 protons and 45 neutrons
(d) 24 protons and 21 neutrons
39. Neutrons are found in atoms of all elements except in [MP PMT 1997]
(a) Chlorine (b) Oxygen
(c) Argon (d) Hydrogen
Sol 39 (d)
40. The mass number of an anion, , is 14. If there are ten electrons in the anion, the number of neutrons in the
nucleus of atom, of the element will be[MP PMT 1999]
(a) 10 (b) 14
(c) 7 (d) 5
Sol 40 (c)
41. Which of the following are isoelectronic species [CPMT 1999]
(a) I, II, III (b) II, III, IV
(c) I, II, IV (d) I and II
42. The charge on the atom containing 17 protons, 18 neutrons and 18 electrons is [AIIMS 1996]
(a) (b)
(c) (d) Zero
43. Number of unpaired electrons in inert gas is [CPMT 1996]
(a) Zero(b) 8
(c) 4 (d) 18
44. In neutral atom, which particles are equivalent[RPMT 1997]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
45. Nuclei tend to have more neutrons than protons at high mass numbers because [Roorkee Qualifying 1998]
(a) Neutrons are neutral particles
(b) Neutrons have more mass than protons
(c) More neutrons minimize the coulomb repulsion
(d) Neutrons decrease the binding energy
46. Which one of the following is not isoelectronic with [CBSE PMT 1994]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
47. The number of electrons in is[CPMT 1997; AFMC 1999]
(a) 19 (b) 20
(c) 18 (d) 40
48. The number of electrons and neutrons of an element is 18 and 20 respectively. Its mass number is
[CPMT 1997; Pb. PMT 1999; MP PMT 1999]
(a) 17 (b) 37
(c) 2 (d) 38
Sol 48 (a)
49. Number of protons, neutrons and electrons in the element is [AFMC 1997]
 Structure of atom 54
(a) 89, 231, 89 (b) 89, 89, 242
(c) 89, 142, 89 (d) 89, 71, 89
50. is isoelectronic with [EAMCET 1998]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
51. An isostere is [UPSEAT 1999]
(a) and (b) and
(c) (d) and
52. Nitrogen atom has an atomic number of 7 and oxygen has an atomic number 8. The total number of electrons
in a nitrate ion will be [Pb. PMT 2000]
(a) 8 (b) 16
(c) 32 (d) 64
53. If molecular mass and atomic mass of sulphur are 256 and 32 respectively, its atomicity is [RPET 2000]
(a) 2 (b) 8
(c) 4 (d) 16
54. The nitride ion in lithium nitride is composed of [KCET 2000]
(a) 7 protons + 10 electrons
(b) 10 protons + 10 electrons
(c) 7 protons + 7 protons
(d) 10 protons + 7 electrons
55. The atomic number of an element is 17. The number of orbitals containing electron pairs in its valence shell
is[CPMT 2001]
(a) Eight (b) Six
(c) Three (d) Two
56. The atomic number of an element is 35 and mass number is 81. The number of electrons in the outer most
shell is [UPSEAT 2001]
(a) 7 (b) 6
(c) 5 (d) 3
57. Which of the following is not isoelectronic [MP PET 2002]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Sol 57 (d)
58. The charge of an electron is The value of free charge on ion will be [AFMC 2002; KCET
(Engg.) 2002]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
59. Iso-electronic species is [RPMT 2002]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
60. An element have atomic weight 40 and it’s electronic configuration is Then its atomic
number and number of neutrons will be [RPMT 2002]
(a) 18 and 22 (b) 22 and 18
(c) 26 and 20 (d) 40 and 18
61. The nucleus of tritium contains [MP PMT 2002]
(a) 1 proton + 1 neutron (b) 1 proton + 3 neutron
(c) 1 proton + 0 neutron (d) 1 proton + 2 neutron
Sol 61 (d)
62. Which one of the following groupings represents a collection of isoelectronic species [AIEEE 2003]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
63. Which of the following are isoelectronic and isostructural [IIT Screening 2003]
(a) (b)
 55 Structure of atom
(c) (d)
64. The number of electrons in ion is [MP PMT 2003]
(a) 19 (b) 20
(c) 18 (d) 35
Sol 64 (c)
65. The number of neutron in tritium is [CPMT 2003]
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 0
66. Tritium is the isotope of [CPMT 2003]
(a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen
(c) Carbon (d) Sulpher
67. The atomic number of an element is 35. What is the total number of electrons present in all the p-orbitals of the
ground state atom of that element [EAMCET (Engg.) 2003]
(a) 6 (b) 11
(c) 17 (d) 23
68. The nucleus of an element contain 9 protons. Its valency would be [MP PET 2004]
(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 5
Sol 68 (a)
69. The compound in which cation is isoelectronic with anion is [UPSEAT 2004]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
70. Which among the following species have the same number of electrons in its outermost as well as penultimate shell
[DCE 2004]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
71. Six protons are found in the nucleus of [CPMT 1977, 80, 81; NCERT 1975, 78]
(a) Boron (b) Lithium
(c) Carbon (d) Helium
72. The nitrogen atom has 7 protons and 7 electrons, the nitride ion will have [NCERT
1977]
(a) 7 protons and 10 electrons
(b) 4 protons and 7 electrons
(c) 4 protons and 10 electrons
(d) 10 protons and 7 electrons
73. Number of neutrons in heavy hydrogen atom is [MP PMT 1986]
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3
Sol 73 (b)
74. Which of the following is always a whole number [CPMT 1976, 81, 86]
(a) Atomic weight (b) Atomic radii
(c) Equivalent weight (d) Atomic number

Atomic models and Planck's quantum theory

1. Rutherford's experiment on scattering of particles showed for the first time that the atom has [IIT 1981;
NCERT 1981; CMC Vellore 1991; CPMT 1984; Kurukshetra CEE 1998]
(a) Electrons (b) Protons
(c) Nucleus (d) Neutrons
2. Rutherford's scattering experiment is related to the size of the [IIT 1983; MADT Bihar 1995; BHU 1995]
(a) Nucleus (b) Atom
(c) Electron (d) Neutron
3. Rutherford's alpha particle scattering experiment eventually led to the conclusion that [IIT 1986; RPMT
2002]
(a) Mass and energy are related
(b) Electrons occupy space around the nucleus
(c) Neutrons are buried deep in the nucleus
 Structure of atom 56
(d) The point of impact with matter can be precisely determined
4. Bohr's model can explain [IIT 1985]
(a) The spectrum of hydrogen atom only
(b) Spectrum of atom or ion containing one electron only
(c) The spectrum of hydrogen molecule
(d) The solar spectrum
5. When atoms are bombarded with alpha particles, only a few in million suffer deflection, others pass out
undeflected. This is because [MNR 1979; NCERT 1980; AFMC 1995]
(a) The force of repulsion on the moving alpha particle is small
(b) The force of attraction on the alpha particle to the oppositely charged electrons is very small
(c) There is only one nucleus and large number of electrons
(d) The nucleus occupies much smaller volume compared to the volume of the atom
6. Positronium consists of an electron and a positron (a particle which has the same mass as an electron, but
opposite charge) orbiting round their common centre of mass. Calculate the value of the Rydberg constant for
this system.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
7. When -particles are sent through a thin metal foil, most of them go straight through the foil because (one or
more are correct) [IIT 1984]
(a) Alpha particles are much heavier than electrons
(b) Alpha particles are positively charged
(c) Most part of the atom is empty space
(d) Alpha particles move with high velocity
8. When an electron jumps from to shell [CPMT 1983]
(a) Energy is absorbed
(b) Energy is released
(c) Energy is sometimes absorbed and sometimes released
(d) Energy is neither absorbed nor released
9. When beryllium is bombarded with -particles, extremely penetrating radiations which cannot be deflected by
electrical or magnetic field are given out. These are [CPMT 1983]
(a) A beam of protons (b) -rays
(c) A beam of neutrons (d) X-rays
10. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of Planck's quantum theory of radiation [AIIMS 1991]
(a) The energy is not absorbed or emitted in whole number or multiple of quantum
(b) Radiation is associated with energy
(c) Radiation energy is not emitted or absorbed conti- nuously but in the form of small packets called quanta
(d) This magnitude of energy associated with a quantum is proportional to the frequency
11. The spectrum of is expected to be similar to [AIIMS 1980, 91; DPMT 1983; MP PMT 2002]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
12. Energy of orbit [DPMT 1984, 91]
(a) Increases as we move away from nucleus
(b) Decreases as we move away from nucleus
(c) Remains same as we move away from nucleus
(d) None of these
13. Bohr model of an atom could not account for
(a) Emission spectrum
(b) Absorption spectrum
(c) Line spectrum of hydrogen
(d) Fine spectrum
14. Existence of positively charged nucleus was established by [CBSE PMT 1991]
(a) Positive ray analysis
(b) -ray scattering experiments
(c) X-ray analysis
(d) Discharge tube experiments
15. Electron occupies the available orbital singly before pairing in any one orbital occurs, it is [CBSE PMT 1991]
(a) Pauli's exclusion principle
 57 Structure of atom
(b) Hund's Rule
(c) Heisenberg's principle
(b) Prout's hypothesis
16. The wavelength of a spectral line for an electronic transition is inversely related to [IIT 1988]
(a) The number of electrons undergoing the transition
(b) The nuclear charge of the atom
(c) The difference in the energy of the energy levels involved in the transition
(d) The velocity of the electron undergoing the transition
17. When an electron drops from a higher energy level to a low energy level, then [AMU 1985]
(a) Energy is emitted
(b) Energy is absorbed
(c) Atomic number increases
(d) Atomic number decreases
18. Davisson and Germer's experiment showed that [MADT Bihar 1983]
(a) -particles are electrons
(b) Electrons come from nucleus
(c) Electrons show wave nature
(d) None of the above
19. When an electron jumps from lower to higher orbit, its energy [MADT Bihar 1982]
(a) Increases (b) Decreases
(c) Remains the same (d) None of these
20. Experimental evidence for the existence of the atomic nucleus comes from [CBSE PMT
1989]
(a) Millikan's oil drop experiment
(b) Atomic emission spectroscopy
(c) The magnetic bending of cathode rays
(d) Alpha scattering by a thin metal foil
21. Which of the following statements does not form part of Bohr's model of the hydrogen atom [CBSE PMT
1989]
(a) Energy of the electrons in the orbit is quantized
(b) The electron in the orbit nearest the nucleus has the lowest energy
(c) Electrons revolve in different orbits around the nucleus
(d) The position and velocity of the electrons in the orbit cannot be determined simultaneously
22. When -particles are sent through a tin metal foil, most of them go straight through the foil as [EAMCET
1983]
(a) -particles are much heavier than electrons
(b) -particles are positively charged
(c) Most part of the atom is empty space
(d) -particles move with high velocity
23. The energy of second Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom is –328 kJ mol–1, hence the energy of fourth Bohr orbit would
be [CBSE PMT 2005]
(a) – 41 kJ mol–1 (b) –1312 kJ mol–1
–1
(c) –164 kJ mol (d) – 82 kJ mol–1
24. When an electron revolves in a stationary orbit then [MP PET 1994]
(a) It absorbs energy
(b) It gains kinetic energy
(c) It emits radiation
(d) Its energy remains constant
Sol 24 (d)
25. A moving particle may have wave motion, if
(a) Its mass is very high
(b) Its velocity is negligible
(c) Its mass is negligible
(d) Its mass is very high and velocity is negligible
26. The postulate of Bohr theory that electrons jump from one orbit to the other, rather than flow is according to
(a) The quantisation concept
(b) The wave nature of electron
(c) The probability expression for electron
 Structure of atom 58
(d) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
27. The frequency of an electromagnetic radiation is . What is its wavelength in metres
(Velocity of light )
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
28. What is the packet of energy called [AFMC 2005]
(a) Electron (b) Photon
(c) Positron (d) Proton
29. The energy of an electron in orbit of hydrogen atom is [MP PET 1999]

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

30. If wavelength of photon is J-sec, then momentum of photon is [MP PET 1999]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
31. The expression for Bohr's radius of an atom is [MP PMT 1999]

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

32. The energy of an electron revolving in Bohr's orbit of an atom is given by the expression [MP PMT
1999]

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

Sol 32 (c)
33. Who modified Bohr's theory by introducing elliptical orbits for electron path [CBSE PMT 1999; AFMC
2003]
(a) Hund (b) Thomson
(c) Rutherford (d) Sommerfield
34. Bohr's radius can have [DPMT 1996]
(a) Discrete values (b) values
(c) values (d) Fractional values
35. The first use of quantum theory to explain the structure of atom was made by [IIT 1997; CPMT 2001; J&K
CET 2005]
(a) Heisenberg (b) Bohr
(c) Planck (d) Einstein
36. An electronic transition from 1s orbital of an atom causes [JIPMER 1997]
(a) Absorption of energy
(b) Release of energy
(c) Both release or absorption of energy
(d) Unpredictable
37. In an element going away from nucleus, the energy of particle [RPMT 1997]
(a) Decreases (b) Not changing
(c) Increases (d) None of these
38. The -particle scattering experiment of Rutherford concluded that [Orissa JEE 1997]
(a) The nucleus is made up of protons and neutrons
(b) The number of electrons is exactly equal to number of protons in atom
(c) The positive charge of the atom is concentrated in a very small space
 59 Structure of atom
(d) Electrons occupy discrete energy levels
39. Wavelength associated with electron motion [BHU 1998]
(a) Increases with increase in speed of electron
(b) Remains same irrespective of speed of electron
(c) Decreases with increase in speed of
(d) Is zero
40. The element used by Rutherford in his famous scattering experiment was [KCET 1998]
(a) Gold (b) Tin
(c) Silver (d) Lead
41. If electron falls from to , then emitted energy is [AFMC 1997; MP PET 2003]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
42. The radius of the nucleus is related to the mass number by [EAMCET 1998]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
43. The specific charge of proton is then for an -particle it will be [MH CET
1999]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
44. In hydrogen spectrum the different lines of Lyman series are present is [UPSEAT 1999]
(a) UV field (b) IR field
(c) Visible field (d) Far IR field
45. Which one of the following is considered as the main postulate of Bohr’s model of atom [AMU 2000]
(a) Protons are present in the nucleus
(b) Electrons are revolving around the nucleus
(c) Centrifugal force produced due to the revolving electrons balances the force of attraction between the
electron and the protons
(d) Angular momentum of electron is an integral multiple of
46. The electronic energy levels of the hydrogen atom in the Bohr’s theory are called [AMU 2000]
(a) Rydberg levels (b) Orbits
(c) Ground states (d) Orbitals
47. The energy of a photon is calculated by [Pb. PMT 2000]
(a) (b)

(c) (d)
48. Visible range of hydrogen spectrum will contain the following series [RPET 2000]
(a) Pfund (b) Lyman
(c) Balmer (d) Brackett
49. Radius of the first Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen atom is [RPET 2000]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
50. In Balmer series of hydrogen atom spectrum which electronic transition causes third line [MP PMT 2000]
(a) Fifth Bohr orbit to second one
(b) Fifth Bohr orbit to first one
(c) Fourth Bohr orbit to second one
(d) Fourth Bohr orbit to first one
Sol 50 (a)
51. Energy of electron of hydrogen atom in second Bohr orbit is [MP PMT 2000]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Sol 51 (a)
52. If change in energy and then wavelength of the
light is [CBSE PMT 2000]
 Structure of atom 60
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
53. The radius of first Bohr’s orbit for hydrogen is 0.53 Å. The radius of third Bohr’s orbit would be [MP PMT
2001]
(a) 0.79 Å (b) 1.59 Å
(c) 3.18 Å (d) 4.77 Å
Sol 53 (d)
54. Rutherford’s -particle scattering experiment proved that atom has [MP PMT 2001]
(a) Electrons (b) Neutron
(c) Nucleus (d) Orbitals
Sol 54 (c)
55. Wavelength of spectral line emitted is inversely proportional to [CPMT 2001]
(a) Radius (b) Energy
(c) Velocity (d) Quantum number
56. The energy of a radiation of wavelength 8000 Å is and energy of a radiation of wavelength 16000 Å is .
What is the relation between these two [Kerala CET 2005]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(e)
57. The formation of energy bonds in solids are in accordance with [DCE 2001]
(a) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
(b) Bohr’s theory
(c) Ohm’s law
(d) Rutherford’s atomic model
58. The frequency of yellow light having wavelength 600 nm is [MP PET 2002]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
59. The value of the energy for the first excited state of hydrogen atom will be [MP PET 2002]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Sol 59 (b)
60. Bohr model of atom is contradicted by [MP PMT 2002]
(a) Pauli’s exclusion principle
(b) Planck quantum theory
(c) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
(d) All of these
Sol 60 (d)
61. Which of the following is not true in Rutherford’s nuclear model of atom [Orissa JEE 2002]
(a) Protons and neutrons are present inside nucleus
(b) Volume of nucleus is very small as compared to volume of atom
(c) The number of protons and neutrons are always equal
(d) The number of electrons and protons are always equal
62. The emission spectrum of hydrogen is found to satisfy the expression for the energy change. (in joules)

such that where = 1, 2, 3….. and = 2, 3, 4……. The spectral lines

correspond to Paschen series to [UPSEAT 2002]

(a) and
(b) and
(c) and
(d) and
(e) and
63. The ratio between kinetic energy and the total energy of the electrons of hydrogen atom according to Bohr’s
model is [Pb. PMT 2002]
 61 Structure of atom
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 1
(c) 1 : – 1 (d) 1 : 2
64. Energy of the electron in Hydrogen atom is given by [AMU (Engg.) 2002]

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

65. Ratio of radii of second and first Bohr orbits of H atom [BHU 2003]
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 3 (d) 5
66. The frequency corresponding to transition to in hydrogen atom is [MP PET 2003]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Sol 66 (b)
67. The mass of a photon with a wavelength equal to is [Pb. PMT 2004]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
68. Splitting of spectral lines under the influence of magnetic field is called [MP PET 2004]
(a) Zeeman effect (b) Stark effect
(c) Photoelectric effect (d) None of these
69. The radius of electron in the first excited state of hydrogen atom is [MP PMT 2004]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Sol 69 (b)
70. The ratio of area covered by second orbital to the first orbital is [AFMC 2004]
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 16
(c) 8 : 1 (d) 16 : 1
71. Time taken for an electron to complete one revolution in the Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is [Kerala PMT 2004]

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

72. The radius of which of the following orbit is same as that of the first Bohr's orbit of hydrogen atom [IIT
Screening 2004]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
73. The frequency of radiation emitted when the electron falls from to in a hydrogen atom will be (Given
ionization energy of H and ) [CBSE PMT 2004]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
74. The wavelength of the radiation emitted, when in a hydrogen atom electron falls from infinity to stationary state
1, would be (Rydberg constant ) [AIEEE 2004]
(a) 406 nm (b) 192 nm
(c) 91 nm (d)
75. In Bohr’s model, atomic radius of the first orbit is , the radius of the 3rd orbit, is [MP PET 1997; Pb. CET
2001]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Sol 75 (d)
76. According to Bohr’s principle, the relation between principle quantum number and radius of orbit is [BHU
2004]
 Structure of atom 62
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

77. The ionisation potential of a hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV. What will be the energy of the atom corresponding to
[Pb. CET 2000]
(a) –3.4 eV (b) –6.8 eV
(c) –1.7 eV (d) – 2.7 eV
78. The energy of electron in hydrogen atom in its grounds state is –13.6 eV. The energy of the level corresponding
to the quantum number equal to 5 is [Pb. CET 2002]
(a) –0.54 eV (b) – 0.85 eV
(c) – 0.64 eV (d) – 0.40 eV
79. The positive charge of an atom is [AFMC 2002]
(a) Spread all over the atom
(b) Distributed around the nucleus
(c) Concentrated at the nucleus
(d) All of these
80. A metal surface is exposed to solar radiations [DPMT 2005]
(a) The emitted electrons have energy less than a maximum value of energy depending upon frequency of
incident radiations
(b) The emitted electrons have energy less than maximum value of energy depending upon intensity of incident
radiation
(c) The emitted electrons have zero energy
(d) The emitted electrons have energy equal to energy of photos of incident light
81. Which of the following transitions have minimum wavelength [DPMT 2005]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)

Dual nature of electron

1. De broglie equation describes the relationship of wavelength associated with the motion of an electron and its[MP PMT
1986]
(a) Mass (b) Energy
(c) Momentum (d) Charge
Sol 1 (c)
2. The wave nature of an electron was first given by [CMC Vellore 1991; Pb. PMT 1998; CPMT 2004]
(a) De-Broglie (b) Heisenberg
(c) Mosley (d) Sommerfield
3. Among the following for which one mathematical expression stands
(a) De Broglie equation (b) Einstein equation
(c) Uncertainty equation (d) Bohr equation
4. Which one of the following explains light both as a stream of particles and as wave motion [AIIMS 1983; IIT
1992; UPSEAT 2003]
(a) Diffraction (b)
(c) Interference (d) Photoelectric effect
5. In which one of the following pairs of experimental observations and phenomenon does the experimental observation
correctly account for phenomenon [AIIMS 1983]
Experimental observation Phenomenon
(a) -ray spectra Charge on the nucleus
(b) -particle scattering Quantized electron orbit
(c) Emission spectra The quantization of energy
(d) The photoelectric effect The nuclear atom
6. Which of the following expressions gives the de-Broglie relationship [MP PMT 1996, 2004; MP PET/PMT
1998]
(a) (b)
 63 Structure of atom

(c) (d)
Sol 6 (b)
7. de-Broglie equation is [MP PMT 1999; CET Pune 1998]
(a) (b)

(c) (d)
Sol 7 (d)
8. The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle with mass and velocity is [CBSE PMT 1999;
EAMCET 1997; AFMC 1999; AIIMS 2000]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
9. Minimum de-Broglie wavelength is associated with[RPMT 1999]
(a) Electron (b) Proton
(c) molecule (d) molecule
10. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a material particle is [JIPMER 2000]
(a) Directly proportional to its energy
(b) Directly proportional to momentum
(c) Inversely proportional to its energy
(d) Inversely proportional to momentum
11. An electron has kinetic energy . de-Broglie wavelength will be nearly
[MP PET 2000]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Sol 11 (c)
12. What will be de-Broglie wavelength of an electron moving with a velocity of [MP PET 2000]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Sol 12 (c)
13. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a particle of mass moving with a velocity of , is
[AIIMS 2001]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
14. What is the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the hydrogen electron in its third orbit [AMU (Engg.) 2002]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
15. If the velocity of hydrogen molecule is , then its de-Broglie wavelength is [MP PMT
2003]
(a) 2 Å (b) 4 Å
(c) 8 Å (d) 100 Å
Sol 15 (b)
16. A 200g golf ball is moving with a speed of 5 m per hour. The associated wave length is
[MP PET 2003]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Sol 16 (c)
17. A cricket ball of is moving with a velocity of . The wavelength associated with its motion is
[DCE 2004]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
18. Dual nature of particles was proposed by [DCE 2004]
 Structure of atom 64
(a) Heisenberg (b) Lowry
(c) de-Broglie (d) Schrodinger
19. Calculate de-Broglie wavelength of an electron travelling at 1% of the speed of light [DPMT 2004]
(a) (b)
(c) (d) None of these
20. Which is the correct relationship between wavelength and momentum of particles [Pb. PMT 2000]
(a) (b)

(c) (d)
21. The de-Broglie equation applies [MP PMT 2004]
(a) To electrons only
(b) To neutrons only
(c) To protons only
(d) All the material object in motion
Sol 21 (d)

Uncertainty principle and Schrodinger wave equation

1. The uncertainty principle was enunciated by [NCERT 1975; Bihar MEE 1997]
(a) Einstein (b) Heisenberg
(c) Rutherford (d) Pauli
2. According to heisenberg uncertainty principle [AMU 1990; BCECE 2005]
(a) (b)

(c) (d)
3. “The position and velocity of a small particle like electron cannot be simultaneously determined.” This
statement is [NCERT 1979; BHU 1981, 87]
(a) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
(b) Principle of de Broglie's wave nature of electron
(c) Pauli's exclusion principle
(d) Aufbau's principle
4. In Heisenberg's uncertainty equation ; stands for
(a) Uncertainty in energy
(b) Uncertainty in velocity
(c) Uncertainty in momentum
(d) Uncertainty in mass
5. Which one is not the correct relation in the following
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

6. The maximum probability of finding an electron in the orbital is [MP PET 1996]
(a) Along the x-axis
(b) Along the y-axis
(c) At an angle of from the and y-axes
(d) At an angle of from the and y-axes
Sol 6 (c)
7. Simultaneous determination of exact position and momentum of an electron is [BHU 1979]
(a) Possible
(b) Impossible
 65 Structure of atom
(c) Sometimes possible sometimes impossible
(d) None of the above
8. If uncertainty in the position of an electron is zero, the uncertainty in its momentum would be [CPMT 1988]
(a) Zero(b)

(c) (d) Infinite

9. The possibility of finding an electron in an orbital was conceived by [MP PMT 1994]
(a) Rutherford (b) Bohr
(c) Heisenberg (d) Schrodinger
Sol 9 (d)
10. Uncertainty principle gave the concept of
(a) Probability
(b) An orbital
(c) Physical meaning of the
(d) All the above
11. The uncertainty principle and the concept of wave nature of matter was proposed by ...... and ...... respectively
[MP PET 1997]
(a) Heisenberg, de Broglie (b) de-Broglie, Heisenberg
(c) Heisenberg, Planck (d) Planck, Heisenberg
Sol 11 (a)
12. The uncertainty in momentum of an electron is . The uncertainty in its position will be (
) [AFMC 1998; CBSE PMT 1999; JIPMER 2002]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
13. The uncertainty in the position of a moving bullet of mass 10 gm is . Calculate the uncertainty in its
velocity [DCE 1999]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)

14. The equation shows [MP PET 2000]

(a) de-Broglie relation
(b) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
(c) Aufbau principle
(d) Hund’s rule
Sol 14 (b)
15. Which quantum number is not related with Schrodinger equation [RPMT 2002]
(a) Principal (b) Azimuthal
(c) Magnetic (d) Spin
16. Uncertainty in position of a 0.25 g particle is . Uncertainty of velocity is
[AIEEE 2002]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
17. The uncertainty in momentum of an electron is . The uncertainity in its position will be
[Pb. CET 2000]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
18. According to Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle, the product of uncertainties in position and velocities for an
electron of mass is [BHU 2004]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
 Structure of atom 66
19. For an electron if the uncertainty in velocity is , the uncertainty in its position is given by [DPMT 2005]

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
20. Orbital is [DPMT 2005]
(a) Circular path around the nucleus in which the electron revolves
(b) Space around the nucleus where the probability of finding the electron is maximum
(c) Amplitude of electrons wave
(d) None of these

Quantum number, Electronic configuration

and Shape of orbitals

1. Be's 4th electron will have four quantum numbers [MNR 1985]

(a) 1 0 0 +1/2
(b) 1 1 +1 +1/2
(c) 2 0 0 – 1/2
(d) 2 1 0 +1/2
2. The quantum number which specifies the location of an electron as well as energy is [DPMT 1983]
(a) Principal quantum number
(b) Azimuthal quantum number
(c) Spin quantum number
(d) Magnetic quantum number
3. The shape of an orbital is given by the quantum number [NCERT 1984; MP PMT 1996]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Sol 3 (b)
4. In a given atom no two electrons can have the same values for all the four quantum numbers. This is called
[BHU 1979; AMU 1983; EAMCET 1980, 83; MADT Bihar 1980; CPMT 1986, 90, 92; NCERT 1978, 84; RPMT
1997; CBSE PMT 1991; MP PET 1986, 99]
(a) Hund's rule
(b) Aufbau's principle
(c) Uncertainty principle
(d) Pauli's exclusion principle
5. Nitrogen has the electronic configuration and not which is
determined by [DPMT 1982, 83, 89; MP PMT/PET 1988; EAMCET 1988]
(a) Aufbau's principle (b) Pauli's exclusion principle
(c) Hund's rule (d) Uncertainty principle
Sol 5 (c)
6. Which one of the following configuration represents a noble gas [CPMT 1983, 89, 93; NCERT 1973;
MP PMT 1989; DPMT 1984]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
7. The electronic configuration of silver atom in ground state is [CPMT 1984, 93]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
8. Principal, azimuthal and magnetic quantum numbers are respectively related to [CPMT 1988; AIIMS 1999]
(a) Size, shape and orientation
(b) Shape, size and orientation
(c) Size, orientation and shape
(d) None of the above
9. Correct set of four quantum numbers for valence electron of rubidium (Z = 37) is [IIT 1984; JIPMER 1999;
UPSEAT 2003]
 67 Structure of atom

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
10. The correct ground state electronic configuration of chromium atom is [IIT 1989, 94; MP PMT 1993;
EAMCET 1997; ISM Dhanbad 1994; AFMC 1997; Bihar MEE 1996; MP PET 1995, 97; CPMT 1999; Kerala
PMT 2003]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Sol 10 (a)
11. 2p orbitals have [NCERT 1981; MP PMT 1993, 97]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Sol 11 (c)
12. Electronic configuration of is [CPMT 1985]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)

13. The quantum numbers for the outermost electron of an element are given below as
. The atoms is [EAMCET 1978]
(a) Lithium (b) Beryllium
(c) Hydrogen (d) Boron
14. Principal quantum number of an atom represents [EAMCET 1979; IIT 1983; MNR
1990;UPSEAT 2000, 02]
(a) Size of the orbital
(b) Spin angular momentum
(c) Orbital angular momentum
(d) Space orientation of the orbital
15. An element has the electronic configuration . Its valency electrons are [NCERT
1973]
(a) 6 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
16. The magnetic quantum number specifies [MNR 1986; BHU 1982; CPMT 1989, 94; MP PET 1999;
AFMC 1999; AMU (Engg.) 1999]
(a) Size of orbitals (b) Shape of orbitals
(c) Orientation of orbitals (d) Nuclear stability
Sol16 (c)
17. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers represent an impossible arrangement [IIT 1986; MP PET
1995]
n l m

(a) 3 2 –2 (+)

(b) 4 0 0 (–)

(c) 3 2 –3 (+)

(d) 5 3 0 (–)
Sol 17 (c)
18. If , then the value of which is incorrect [CPMT 1994]
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3
19. Which orbital is dumb-bell shaped [MP PMT 1986; MP PET/PMT 1998]
 Structure of atom 68
(a) -orbital (b) -orbital
(c) -orbital (d) -orbital
Sol 19 (b)
20. The total number of unpaired electrons in - orbitals of atoms of element of atomic number 29 is [CPMT 1983]
(a) 10 (b) 1
(c) 0 (d) 5
21. The shape of orbital is [CPMT 1983; NCERT 1979]
(a) Spherical (b) Ellipsoidal
(c) Dumb-bell (d) Pyramidal
22. The magnetic quantum number for an electron when the value of principal quantum number is 2 can have
[CPMT 1984]
(a) 3 values (b) 2 values
(c) 9 values (d) 6 values
23. Which one is the correct outer configuration of chromium [AIIMS 1980, 91; BHU 1995]
(a)    

(b)  
     
(c)
    
(d)

24. The following has zero valency [DPMT 1991]

(a) Sodium (b) Beryllium
(c) Aluminium (d) Krypton
25. The number of electrons in the valence shell of calcium is [IIT 1975]
(a) 6 (b) 8
(c) 2 (d) 4
26. The valence electron in the carbon atom are [MNR 1982]
(a) 0 (b) 2
(c) 4 (d) 6
27. For the dumb-bell shaped orbital, the value of is [CPMT 1987, 2003]
(a) 3 (b) 1
(c) 0 (d) 2
28. Chromium has the electronic configuration rather than because
(a) and have the same energy
(b) has a higher energy than
(c) is more stable than
(d) half-filled is more stable than
29. The electronic configuration of calcium ion is [CMC Vellore 1991]
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
30. The structure of external most shell of inert gases is [JIPMER 1991]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
31. The two electrons in K sub-shell will differ in [MNR 1988; UPSEAT 1999, 2000; Kerala PMT 2003]
(a) Principal quantum number
(b) Azimuthal quantum number
(c) Magnetic quantum number
 69 Structure of atom
(d) Spin quantum number
32. A completely filled -orbital [MNR 1987]
(a) Spherically symmetrical
(b) Has octahedral symmetry
(c) Has tetrahedral symmetry
(d) Depends on the atom
33. If magnetic quantum number of a given atom represented by –3, then what will be its principal quantum number
[BHU 2005]
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
34. The total number of orbitals in an energy level designated by principal quantum number is equal to
[AIIMS 1997; J&K CET 2005]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
35. The number of orbitals in the fourth principal quantum number will be
(a) 4 (b) 8
(c) 12 (d) 16
36. Which set of quantum numbers are not possible from the following
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
37. The four quantum number for the valence shell electron or last electron of sodium (Z = 11) is [MP PMT
1999]
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
Sol 37 (b)
38. The explanation for the presence of three unpaired electrons in the nitrogen atom can be given by [NCERT
1979; RPMT 1999; DCE 1999, 2002; CPMT 2001; MP PMT 2002; Pb. PMT / CET 2002]
(a) Pauli's exclusion principle
(b) Hund's rule
(c) Aufbau's principle
(d) Uncertainty principle
Sol 38 (b)
39. The maximum energy is present in any electron at
(a) Nucleus
(b) Ground state
(c) First excited state
(d) Infinite distance from the nucleus
40. The electron density between and orbital is
(a) High(b) Low
(c) Zero (d) None of these
41. For orbital, the magnetic quantum number has value
(a) 2 (b) 4
 Structure of atom 70
(c) – 1 (d) 0
42. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the shell is
(a) 2 (b) 8
(c) 18 (d) 32
43. For a given value of quantum number , the number of allowed values of is given by
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
44. The number of radial nodes of 3s and 2p orbitals are respectively. [IIT-JEE 2005]
(a) 2, 0 (b) 0, 2
(c) 1, 2 (d) 2, 1
45. Which of the sub-shell is circular
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
46. Which electronic configuration for oxygen is correct according to Hund's rule of multiplicity
(a) (b)
(c) (d) None of these
47. If value of azimuthal quantum number is 2, then total possible values of magnetic quantum number will be
(a) 7 (b) 5
(c) 3 (d) 2
48. The type of orbitals present in is
(a) (b) and
(c) and (d) and
49. The shape of orbital will be
(a) Circular (b) Dumb-bell
(c) Double dumb-bell (d) Trigonal
50. In any atom which sub-shell will have the highest energy in the following
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
51. Which electronic configuration is not observing the ( ) rule
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
52. The four quantum numbers of the outermost orbital of (atomic no. =19) are [MP PET 1993, 94]

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
Sol 52 (b)
53. The angular momentum of an electron depends on [BHU 1978; NCERT 1981]
(a) Principal quantum number
(b) Azimuthal quantum number
(c) Magnetic quantum number
(d) All of these
54. The electronic configuration of copper is [DPMT 1983; BHU 1980; AFMC 1981; CBSE PMT
1991; MP PMT 1995]
(a)
 71 Structure of atom
(b)
(c)
(d)
Sol 54 (b)
55. The number of orbitals in sub-shell is [NCERT 1973; MP PMT 1996]
(a) 6 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
Sol 55 (c)
56. The number of orbitals in sub-shell is [MNR 1981]
(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 5 (d) 7
57. A sub-shell can take how many electrons [NCERT 1973, 78]
(a) 3 (b) 10
(c) 5 (d) 6
58. Pauli's exclusion principle states that [MNR 1983; AMU 1984]
(a) Two electrons in the same atom can have the same energy
(b) Two electrons in the same atom cannot have the same spin
(c) The electrons tend to occupy different orbitals as far as possible
(d) Electrons tend to occupy lower energy orbitals preferentially
(e) None of the above
59. For electrons, the azimuthal quantum number is [MNR 1983; CPMT 1984]
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3
60. For -orbital, the magnetic quantum number has value
(a) 2 (b) 4, – 4
(c) – 1, 0, +1 (d) 0
61. For energy level, the number of possible orbitals (all kinds) are [BHU 1981; CPMT 1985; MP PMT
1995]
(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 9
Sol 61 (d)
62. Which of the following ions is not having the configuration of neon
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
63. Elements upto atomic number 103 have been synthesized and studied. If a newly discovered element is found
to have an atomic number 106, its electronic configuration will be [AIIMS 1980]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
64. Ions which have the same electronic configuration are those of
(a) Lithium and sodium (b) Sodium and potassium
(c) Potassium and calcium (d) Oxygen and chlorine
65. When the azimuthal quantum number has a value of , the shape of the orbital is [MP PET 1995]
(a) Rectangular (b) Spherical
(c) Dumbbell (d) Unsymmetrical
Sol 65 (b)
66. The magnetic quantum number for valency electrons of sodium is [CPMT 1988; MH CET 1999]
(a) 3 (b) 2
(c) 1 (d) 0
67. The electronic configuration of an element with atomic number 7 i.e. nitrogen atom is [CPMT 1982, 84, 87]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
68. In a multi-electron atom, which of the following orbitals described by the three quantum members will have the
same energy in the absence of magnetic and electric fields [AIEEE 2005]
(1) (2)
 Structure of atom 72
(3) (4)
(5)
(a) (1) and (2) (b) (2) and (3)
(c) (3) and (4) (d) (4) and (5)
69. Which of the following represents the electronic configuration of an element with atomic number 17 [AMU 1982]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
70. The shape of -orbital is [NCERT 1978I]
(a) Pyramidal (b) Spherical
(c) Tetrahedral (d) Dumb-bell shaped
71. When orbital is complete, the new electron will enter the [EAMCET 1980; MP PMT 1995]
(a) -orbital (b) -orbital
(c) -orbital (d) -orbital
Sol 71 (a)
72. In a potassium atom, electronic energy levels are in the following order [EAMCET 1979; DPMT 1991]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
73. (atomic number = 26) atom has the electronic arrangement [NCERT 1974; MNR 1980]
(a) 2, 8, 8, 8 (b) 2, 8, 16
(c) 2, 8,14, 2 (d) 2, 8, 12, 4
74. will have the following electronic configuration [MP PMT 1985]
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Sol 74 (c)
75. Which one is the electronic configuration of [MADT Bihar 1982; AIIMS 1989]
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) None of these
76. How many electrons can be fit into the orbitals that comprise the quantum shell [MP PMT 1986, 87;
Orissa JEE 1997]
(a) 2 (b) 8
(c) 18 (d) 32
Sol 76 (c)
77. Which element is represented by the following electronic configuration [MP PMT 1987]

(a) Nitrogen (b) Oxygen

(c) Fluorine (d) Neon
Sol 77 (c)
78. If the value of azimuthal quantum number is 3, the possible values of magnetic quantum number would be
[MP PMT 1987; RPMT 1999; AFMC 2002; KCET 2002]
(a) 0, 1, 2, 3 (b) 0, – 1, – 2, – 3
(c) 0, 1, 2, 3 (d) 1, 2, 3
Sol 78 (c)
79. Krypton has the electronic configuration . The electron will go into which
one of the following sub-levels [CBSE PMT 1989; CPMT 1989; EAMCET 1991]
 73 Structure of atom
(a) (b)
(c) (d)

80. If an electron has spin quantum number of and a magnetic quantum number of , it cannot be presented
in an [CBSE PMT 1989; UPSEAT 2001]
(a) -orbital (b) -orbital
(c) -orbital (d) -orbital
81. The azimuthal quantum number is related to [BHU 1987, 95]
(a) Size (b) Shape
(c) Orientation (d) Spin
82. The total number of electrons that can be accommodated in all the orbitals having principal quantum number 2
and azimuthal quantum number 1 is [CPMT 1971, 89, 91]
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 8
83. Electronic configuration of is [CPMT 1975]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
84. There is no difference between a and a orbital regarding [BHU 1981]
(a) Shape (b) Size
(c) Energy (d) Value of
85. The electronic configuration of chromium is [MP PMT 1993; MP PET 1995; BHU 2001; BCECE 2005]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Sol 85 (b)
86. The shape of -orbital is [MP PMT 1993]
(a) Elliptical (b) Spherical
(c) Dumb-bell (d) Complex geometrical
Sol 86 (c)
87. The electronic configuration (outermost) of ion (atomic number of ) in its ground state is [MP
PET 1993]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Sol 87 (a)
88. The principal quantum number represents [CPMT 1991]
(a) Shape of an orbital
(b) Distance of electron from nucleus
(c) Number of electrons in an orbit
(d) Number of orbitals in an orbit
89. When the azimuthal quantum number has a value of , the shape of the orbital is [MP PET 1993]
(a) Unsymmetrical (b) Spherically symmetrical
(c) Dumb-bell (d) Complicated
Sol 89 (c)
90. How many electrons can be accommodated in a sub-shell for which [CBSE PMT 1990]
(a) 8 (b) 6
(c) 18 (d) 32
91. For azimuthal quantum number , the maximum number of electrons will be [CBSE PMT
1991; EAMCET 1991; RPMT 2002; CBSE PMT 2002]
(a) 2 (b) 6
(c) 0 (d) 14
92. An ion has 18 electrons in the outermost shell, it is [CBSE PMT 1990]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
93. The order of filling of electrons in the orbitals of an atom will be [CBSE PMT 1991]
(a) (b)
 Structure of atom 74
(c) (d)
94. The quantum number which may be designated by and instead of number is [BHU 1980]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
95. Which of the following represents the correct sets of the four quantum numbers of a electron [MNR 1992;
UPSEAT 2001; J&K CET 2005]
(a) (b) 4, 2, 1, 0

(c) (d)

96. Which of the following statements is not correct for an electron that has the quantum numbers and
[MNR 1993]
(a) The electron may have the quantum number

(b) The electron may have the quantum number

(c) The electron may have the quantum number
(d) The electron may have the quantum number
97. The set of quantum numbers not applicable for an electron in an atom is [MNR 1994]
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
98. Correct configuration of [26] is [CPMT 1994; BHU 1995; KCET 1992]
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
99. Azimuthal quantum number for last electron of atom is [BHU 1995]
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 0
100. A orbital has [IIT 1995]
(a) Two spherical nodes
(b) Two non-spherical nodes
(c) One spherical and one non-spherical nodes
(d) One spherical and two non-spherical nodes
101. All electrons on the sub-shell must be characterized by the quantum number(s) [MP PET 1996]

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
Sol 101 (b)
102. The electronic configuration of the element of atomic number 27 is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
103. When the value of the principal quantum number is 3, the permitted values of the azimuthal quantum
numbers and the magnetic quantum numbers , are
 75 Structure of atom

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

104. The number of possible spatial orientations of an electron in an atom is given by its
(a) Spin quantum number
(b) Spin angular momentum
(c) Magnetic quantum number
(d) Orbital angular momentum
105. Which of the following sets of orbitals may degenerate
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
106. The set of quantum numbers belongs to the element
(a) (b) (c) (d)
107. An electron has principal quantum number 3. The number of its (i) sub-shells and (ii) orbitals would be
respectively [MP PET 1997]
(a) 3 and 5 (b) 3 and 7
(c) 3 and 9 (d) 2 and 5
Sol 107 (c)
108. What is the electronic configuration of of least position [MP PET/PMT 1998; MP PET 2001]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Sol 108 (d)
109. The correct electronic configuration of atom is [MP PMT 1999]
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Sol 109 (a)
110. Which of the following configuration is correct for iron [CBSE PMT 1999]
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
111. Which of the following set of quantum numbers belong to highest energy [CPMT 1999]
(a)

(b)

(c)
 Structure of atom 76

(d)
112. Which quantum number will determine the shape of the subshell [CPMT 1999; Pb. PMT 1998]
(a) Principal quantum number
(b) Azimuthal quantum number
(c) Magnetic quantum number
(d) Spin quantum number
113. For the energy level, how many orbitals of all kinds are possible [Bihar CEE 1995]
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
114. Which one is in the ground state [DPMT 1996]


(a)   


(b)   


(c)   


(d)   


115. When the principal quantum number , the possible values of azimuthal quantum number ( ) is
[Bihar MEE 1996; KCET 2000]
(a) 0, 1, 2, 3 (b) 0, 1, 2
(c) – 2, – 1, 0, 1, 2 (d) 1, 2, 3
(e) 0, 1
116. Which statement is not correct for , [CPMT 1996]

(a) (b)

(c) (d) All are correct

117. shows configuration of [CPMT 1996]
(a) in ground state(b) in excited state
(c) in excited state(d) None of these
118. Five valence electrons of are labelled as
AB X Y Z
3s 3p
If the spin quantum of and is , the group of electrons with three of the quantum number same are
[JIPMER 1997]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
119. Electronic configuration of is [BHU 1997]
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
120. If , then total possible number of subshells would be [RPMT 1997]
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 2 (d) 5
 77 Structure of atom

121. An electron having the quantum numbers , would be in the orbital [Orissa JEE
1997]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
122. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is not allowed [Orissa JEE 1997]
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
123. For which of the following sets of four quantum numbers, an electron will have the highest energy [CBSE PMT
1994]

(a) 3 2 1 +1/2
(b) 4 2 1 +1/2
(c) 4 1 0 –1/2
(d) 5 0 0 –1/2
124. The electronic configuration of gadolinium (atomic no. 64) is [CBSE PMT 1997]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
125. An has magnetic quantum number as , what is its principal quantum number [BHU 1998]
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
126. The number of quantum numbers required to describe an electron in an atom completely is [CET Pune
1998]
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
127. The electronic configuration [AFMC 1997; Pb. PMT 1999; CBSE PMT 2001; AIIMS 2001]
(a) Oxygen (b) Nitrogen
(c) Hydrogen (d) Fluorine
128. Which one of the following set of quantum numbers is not possible for electron [EAMCET 1998]

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
129. Which of the following orbital is not possible [RPMT 1999]
(a) 3 f (b) 4 f
(c) 5 f (d) 6 f
130. Which set of quantum numbers for an electron of an atom is not possible [RPMT; DCE 1999]
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
131. Electronic configuration of ferric ion is [RPET 2000]
 Structure of atom 78
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
132. What is the maximum number of electrons which can be accommodated in an atom in which the highest
principal quantum number value is 4 [MP PMT 2000]
(a) 10 (b) 18
(c) 32 (d) 54
Sol 132 (c)
133. Which of the following electronic configurations is not possible [CPMT 2000]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
134. The electronic configuration of an element is . This represents its [IIT
Screening 2000]
(a) Excited state (b) Ground state
(c) Cationic form (d) Anionic form
135. Which of the following set of quantum numbers is possible [AIIMS 2001]
(a) and

(b) and

(c) and

(d) and
136. Which of the following set of quantum number is not valid [AIIMS 2001]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
137. Which one pair of atoms or ions will have same configuration [JIPMER 2001]
(a) and (b) and
(c) and (d) and K
138. Which of the following sets of quantum number is not possible [MP PET 2001]
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
Sol 138 (c)
139. Which of the following set of quantum numbers is correct for the 19th electron of chromium [DCE
2001]
n l m s
(a) 3 0 0 1/2
(b) 3 2 –2 1/2
(c) 4 0 0 1/2
(d) 4 1 –1 1/2

140. When the value of azimuthal quantum number is 3, magnetic quantum number can have values [DPMT 2001]
(a) + 1, 0, – 1
(b) + 2, + 1, 0, – 1, – 2
(c) – 3, – 2, – 1, – 0, + 1, + 2, + 3
 79 Structure of atom
(d) + 1, – 1
141. The quantum numbers represent [AFMC 2002]
(a) 1s orbital (b) 2s orbital
(c) 2p orbital (d) 3d orbital
142. The magnetic quantum number of valence electron of sodium (Na) is [RPMT 2002]
(a) 3 (b) 2
(c) 1 (d) 0
143. Azimuthal quantum number defines [AIIMS 2002]
(a) e/m ratio of electron
(b) Spin of electron
(c) Angular momentum of electron
(d) Magnetic momentum of electron
144. Quantum numbers of an atom can be defined on the basis of [AIIMS 2002]
(a) Hund’s rule
(b) Aufbau’s principle
(c) Pauli’s exclusion principle
(d) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
145. Which of the following has maximum energy [AIIMS 2002]
3s 3p 3d
(a)

(b)3s 3p 3d

(c) 3p 3d
3s

(d)
3s 3p 3d

146. The total magnetic quantum numbers for d-orbital is given by [Orissa JEE 2002]
(a) 2 (b) 0,  1,  2
(c) 0, 1, 2 (d) 5
147. The outer electronic structure is possessed by [Pb. PMT 2002; Pb. CET 2001]
(a) Cl (b) O
(c) Ar (d) Br
148. Which of the following set of quantum number is not possible [Pb. PMT 2002]
n l
(a) 3 2 1 + 1/2
(b) 3 2 1 – 1/2
(c) 3 2 1 0
(d) 5 2 –1 + 1/2
149. The configuration shows [Pb. PMT 2002]
(a) Excited state of
(b) Excited state of neon
(c) Excited state of fluorine
(d) Ground state of fluorine atom
150. The quantum number ‘m’ of a free gaseous atom is associated with [AIIMS 2003]
(a) The effective volume of the orbital
(b) The shape of the orbital
(c) The spatial orientation of the orbital
(d) The energy of the orbital in the absence of a magnetic field
151. Correct statement is [BHU 2003]
(a)
(b)
 Structure of atom 80
(c)
(d)
152. Number of orbitats in h sub-shell is [BHU 2003]
(a) 11 (b) 15
(c) 17 (d) 19
153. Electronic configuration represents [CPMT 2003]
(a) Ground state (b) Excited state
(c) Anionic state(d) All of these
154. Which of the following sets is possible for quantum numbers [RPET 2003]
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

155. For principle quantum number the total number of orbitals having [AIIMS 2004]
(a) 3 (b) 7
(c) 5 (d) 9
156. The number of electrons having spin quantum number are [KCET 2004]
(a) 6 (b) 0
(c) 2 (d) 3
157. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is correct for an electron in orbital [AIEEE 2004]

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

158. Consider the ground state of . The numbers of electrons with the azimuthal quantum numbers,
and 2 are, respectively [AIEEE 2004]
(a) 16 and 4 (b) 12 and 5
(c) 12 and 4 (d) 16 and 5
159. The four quantum numbers of the valence electron of potassium are [DPMT 2004]
(a) 4, 1, 0 and (b) 4, 0, 1 and

(c) 4, 0, 0 and (d) 4, 1, 1 and

160. Which of the following electronic configuration is not possible according to Hund’s rule [Kerala PMT
2004]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(e)
161. The ground state term symbol for an electronic state is governed by [UPSEAT 2004]
(a) Heisenberg’s principle
(b) Hund’s rule
(c) Aufbau principle
(d) Pauli exclusion principle
162. The electronic configuration of element with atomic number 24 is [Pb. CET 2004]
 81 Structure of atom
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
163. The maximum number of electrons in -orbital with is [Pb. CET 2003]
(a) 6 (b) 2
(c) 14 (d) 10
164. Number of two electron can have the same values of …… quantum numbers [UPSEAT 2004]
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
165. The number of orbitals present in the shell with is [UPSEAT 2004]
(a) 16 (b) 8
(c) 18 (d) 32
166. Which of the following electronic configuration is not possible [MHCET 2003]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
167. orbital can accommodate [MNR 1990; IIT 1983; MADT Bihar 1995; BCECE 2005]
(a) 4 electrons
(b) 6 electrons
(c) 2 electrons with parallel spins
(d) 2 electrons with opposite spins
168. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in sub shell is [CPMT 1983,
84; MP PET/PMT 1988; BITS 1988]
(a) 2 (b) 8
(c) 32 (d) 14
Sol 168 (d)
169. The number of electrons which can be accommodated in an orbital is [DPMT 1981; AFMC 1988]
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
170. The number of electrons in the atom which has 20 protons in the nucleus [CPMT 1981, 93; CBSE PMT
1989]
(a) 20 (b) 10
(c) 30 (d) 40
171. The maximum number of electrons accommodated in orbitals are [MP PET 1996]
(a) 5 (b) 10
(c) 14 (d) 18
Sol 171 (c)
172. The maximum number of electrons in an atom with and is [MP PET/PMT 1998]
(a) 2 (b) 6
(c) 12 (d) 10
Sol 172 (d)
173. The configuration shows [AIIMS 1997]
(a) Ground state of fluorine atom
(b) Excited state of fluorine atom
(c) Excited state of neon atom
(d) Excited state of ion
174. For sodium atom the number of electrons with will be [RPMT 1999]
(a) 2 (b) 7
(c) 9 (d) 8
175. The number of electrons that can be accommodated in orbital is [Kurukshetra CEE 2002]
(a) 10 (b) 1
(c) 4 (d) 2
176. Number of unpaired electrons in is [CPMT 1982; MP PMT 1987; BHU 1987; CBSE PMT 1990;
CET Pune 1998; AIIMS 2000]
 Structure of atom 82
(a) 2 (b) 0
(c) 3 (d) 1
Sol 176 (c)
177. Total number of unpaired electrons in an atom of atomic number 29 is [CPMT 1984, 93]
(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 2
178. The number of unpaired electrons in is [NCERT 1984; CPMT 1991; MP PMT 1996, 2002]
(a) 4 (b) 2
(c) 0 (d) 1
Sol 178 (b)
179. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a subshell is
(a) 2 (b) 10
(c) 6 (d) 14
180. The maximum number of electrons which each sub-shell can occupy is [Pb. CET 1989]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
181. Number of unpaired electrons in the ground state of beryllium atom is
(a) 2 (b) 1
(c) 0 (d) All the above
182. How many unpaired electrons are present in cation (atomic number = 28) [IIT 1981; MNR 1984; MP
PMT 1995; Kerala PMT 2003]
(a) 0 (b) 2
(c) 4 (d) 6
Sol 182 (b)
183. The number of unpaired electrons in an molecule is [MNR 1983]
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3
184. The number of unpaired electrons in a chromic ion (atomic number = 24) is [MNR 1986; CPMT 1992]
(a) 6 (b) 4
(c) 3 (d) 1
185. electronic configuration exhibits by
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
186. Which of the following metal ions will have maximum number of unpaired electrons [CPMT 1996]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
187. Which of the metal ion will have highest number of unpaired electrons
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
188. The maximum number of unpaired electron can be present in orbitals are
(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 5 (d) 7
189. The molecule having one unpaired electron is
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
190. A filled or half-filled set of or -orbitals is spherically symmetric. Point out the species which has spherical
symmetry [NCERT 1983]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
191. The atom of the element having atomic number 14 should have [AMU 1984]
(a) One unpaired electron (b) Two unpaired electrons
(c) Three unpaired electrons (d) Four unpaired electrons
 83 Structure of atom
192. An atom has 2 electrons in shell, 8 electrons in shell and 6 electrons in shell. The number of -
electrons present in that element is [CPMT 1989]
(a) 6 (b) 5
(c) 7 (d) 10
193. The number of unpaired electrons in carbon atom in excited state is [MNR 1987]
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
194. Maximum number of electrons present in shell is [EAMCET 1984]
(a) 18 (b) 32
(c) 2 (d) 8
195. The number of electrons in (atomic number of ) is not equal to that of the [MNR 1993]
(a) -electrons in (At. No.= 10)
(b) -electrons in (At. No.= 12)
(c) -electrons in
(d) -electrons in (At. No. of = 17)
196. A transition metal has a configuration in its oxidation state. Its atomic number is [EAMCET
1990]
(a) 25 (b) 26
(c) 22 (d) 19
197. The total number of electrons present in all the -orbitals of bromine are [MP PET 1994]
(a) Five (b) Eighteen
(c) Seventeen (d) Thirty five
Sol 197 (c)
198. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons [IIT 1996]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
199. Which of the following has more unpaired -electrons [CBSE PMT 1999]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
200. Maximum electrons in a -orbital are [CPMT 1999]
(a) 2 (b) 10
(c) 6 (d) 14
201. The number of unpaired electrons in are [KCET 2000]
(a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 3 (d) 4
202. How many unpaired electrons are present in cobalt [Co] metal [RPMT 2002]
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 7
203. The number of unpaired electrons in nitrogen is [Pb. CET 2002]
(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) None of these
204. Which of the following has the least energy
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
205. Pauli's exclusion principle states that [CPMT 1983, 84]
(a) Nucleus of an atom contains no negative charge
(b) Electrons move in circular orbits around the nucleus
(c) Electrons occupy orbitals of lowest energy
(d) All the four quantum numbers of two electrons in an atom cannot be equal
206. For the energy levels in an atom, which one of the following statements is correct [AIIMS 1983]
(a) There are seven principal electron energy levels
(b) The second principal energy level can have four sub-energy levels and contains a maximum of eight electrons
(c) The energy level can have maximum of 32 electrons
(d) The sub-energy level is at a higher energy than the sub-energy level
 Structure of atom 84
207. The statements [AIIMS 1982]
(i) In filling a group of orbitals of equal energy, it is energetically preferable to assign electrons to empty orbitals
rather than pair them into a particular orbital.
(ii) When two electrons are placed in two different orbitals, energy is lower if the spins are parallel.
are valid for
(a) Aufbau principle
(b) Hund's rule
(c) Pauli's exclusion principle
(d) Uncertainty principle
208. According to Aufbau's principle, which of the three and will be filled with electrons first
[MADT Bihar 1984]
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) and will be filled simultaneously
209. The energy of an electron of orbital is [AMU 1984]
(a) Greater than that of orbital
(b) Less than that of orbital
(c) Equal to that of orbital
(d) Same as that of orbital
210. Which of the following principles/rules limits the maximum number of electrons in an orbital to two [CBSE PMT
1989]
(a) Aufbau principle
(b) Pauli's exclusion principle
(c) Hund's rule of maximum multiplicity
(d) Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
211. The electrons would go to lower energy levels first and then to higher energy levels according to which of the
following [BHU 1990; MP PMT 1993]
(a) Aufbau principle
(b) Pauli's exclusion principle
(c) Hund's rule of maximum multiplicity
(d) Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
Sol 211 (a)
212. Energy of atomic orbitals in a particular shell is in the order [AFMC 1990]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
213. Aufbau principle is not satisfied by [MP PMT 1997]
(a) and (b) and
(c) and (d) and
Sol 213 (b)
214. Which of the following explains the sequence of filling the electrons in different shells [AIIMS 1998; BHU
1999]
(a) Hund's rule (b) Octet rule
(c) Aufbau principle (d) All of these
215. Aufbau principle is obeyed in which of the following electronic configurations [AFMC 1999]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
216. Following Hund’s rule which element contains six unpaired electron [RPET 2000]
(a) Fe (b) Co
(c) Ni (d) Cr
217. Electron enters the sub-shell for which value is minimum. This is enunciated as
[RPMT 2000]
(a) Hund’s rule
(b) Aufbau principle
(c) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
 85 Structure of atom
(d) Pauli’s exclusion principle
218. The atomic orbitals are progressively filled in order of increasing energy. This principle is called as [MP PET
2001]
(a) Hund’s rule (b) Aufbau principle
(c) Exclusion principle (d) de-Broglie rule
Sol 218 (b)
219. The correct order of increasing energy of atomic orbitals is [MP PET 2002]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Sol 219 (b)
220. The orbital with maximum energy is [CPMT 2002]
(a) 3d (b) 5p
(c) 4s (d) 6d
221. p-orbitals of an atom in presence of magnetic field are [Pb. PMT 2002]
(a) Two fold degenerate (b) Non degenerate
(c) Three fold degenerate (d) None of these
222. Orbital angular momentum for a d-electron is [MP PET 2003]

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

Sol 222 (b)

223. Number of nodal centres for 2s orbital [RPET 2003]
(a) 1 (b) 0
(c) 4 (d) 3
224. The orbital angular momentum of an electron in -orbital is [MP PET 2004]

(a) (b)

(c) (d) Zero

Sol 224 (d)
225. The maximum number of electrons present in an orbit , is [Pb. PMT 2004]
(a) 6 (b) 8
(c) 10 (d) 14
226. Number of unpaired electrons in is [DPMT 2005]
(a) 3 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 4
227. Which of the following sequence is correct as per Aufbau principle [DPMT 2005]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
228. Electronic configuration of deuterium atom is
[J&K CET 2005]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)

1. Which of the following atoms and ions are isoelectronic i.e. have the same number of electrons with the neon
atom [NCERT 1978]
(a) (b) Oxygen atom
(c) (d)
 Structure of atom 86
2. Atoms consists of protons, neutrons and electrons. If the mass of neutrons and electrons were made half and
two times respectively to their actual masses, then the atomic mass of [NCERT 1982]
(a) Will remain approximately the same
(b) Will become approximately two times
(c) Will remain approximately half
(d) Will be reduced by 25%
3. The increasing order (lowest first) for the values of (charge/mass) for [IIT 1984]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
4. The electronic configuration of a dipositive metal is 2, 8, 14 and its atomic weight is 56 a.m.u. The number
of neutrons in its nuclei would be [MNR 1984, 89; Kerala PMT 1999]
(a) 30 (b) 32
(c) 34 (d) 42
5. The ratio of the energy of a photon of wavelength radiation to that of radiation is[IIT 1986;
DCE 2000; JIPMER 2000]
(a) 1/4 (b) 4
(c) 1/2 (d) 2
6. Discovery of the nucleus of an atom was due to the experiment carried out by [CPMT 1983; MP PET 1983]
(a) Bohr (b) Mosley
(c) Rutherford (d) Thomson
Sol 6 (c)
7. In a Bohr's model of atom when an electron jumps from to , how much energy will be emitted or
absorbed [CBSE PMT 1996]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
8. The nucleus of an atom can be assumed to be spherical. The radius of the nucleus of mass number is given
by Radius of atom is one . If the mass number is 64, then the fraction of the atomic
volume that is occupied by the nucleus is [NCERT 1983]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
9. The energy of an electron in the first Bohr orbit of atom is . The possible energy value(s) of the
excited state(s) for electrons in Bohr orbits to hydrogen is(are)
[IIT 1998; Orissa JEE 2005]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
10. The energy of the electron in the first orbit of is . The energy of the electron in the first
orbit of hydrogen would be [Roorkee Qualifying 1998]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
11. The total number of valence electrons in of ion is ( is the Avogadro's number) [CBSE PMT
1994]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
12. The Bohr orbit radius for the hydrogen atom is approximately . The radius for the first excited
state orbit is [CBSE PMT 1998; BHU 1999]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
13. The frequency of a wave of light is The wave number associated with this light is [Pb. PMT
1999]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
 87 Structure of atom
14. The series limit for Balmer series of H-spectra is
[AMU (Engg.) 1999]
(a) 3800 (b) 4200
(c) 3646 (d) 4000
15. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is The energy required to excite the electron in a
hydrogen atom from the ground state to the first excited state is (Avogadro’s constant = 6.022 × 1023) [BHU
1999]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
16. The energy required to dislodge electron from excited isolated H-atom, is [DCE 2000]
(a) (b)
(c) and (d)
17. The number of nodal planes in a is [IIT Screening 2000]
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Zero
18. The third line in Balmer series corresponds to an electronic transition between which Bohr’s orbits in
hydrogen[MP PMT 2001]
(a) 5  3 (b) 5  2
(c) 4  3 (d) 4  2
Sol 18 (b)
19. Which of the following has maximum number of unpaired electron (atomic number of Fe 26) [MP PMT 2001]
(a) Fe (b) Fe (II)
(c) Fe (III) (d) Fe (IV)
Sol 19 (c)
20. The frequency of one of the lines in Paschen series of hydrogen atom is The quantum
number which produces this transition is [DPMT 2001]
(a) 6 (b) 5
(c) 4 (d) 3
21. Which of the following electron transition in a hydrogen atom will require the largest amount of energy
[UPSEAT 1999, 2000, 01]
(a) From to (b) From to
(c) From to (d) From to
22. In Bohr series of lines of hydrogen spectrum, the third line from the red end corresponds to which one of the
following inter-orbit jumps of the electron for Bohr orbits in an atom of hydrogen [AIEEE 2003]
(a) 3  2 (b) 5  2
(c) 4  1 (d) 2  5
23. The value of Planck’s constant is The velocity of light is . Which value is closest
to the wavelength in nanometres of a quantum of light with frequency of [CBSE PMT
2003]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
24. As electron moves away from the nucleus, its potential energy [UPSEAT 2003]
(a) Increases (b) Decreases
(c) Remains constant (d) None of these

Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below :
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If the assertion and reason both are false.
 Structure of atom 88
(e) If assertion is false but reason is true.

1. Assertion : The position of an electron can be determined exactly with the help of an electron microscope.
Reason : The product of uncertainty in the measurement of its momentum and the uncertainty in the
measurement of the position cannot be less than a finite limit. [NDA 1999]
2. Assertion : A spectral line will be seen for a transition.
Reason : Energy is released in the form of wave of light when the electron drops from orbital.
[AIIMS 1996]
3. Assertion : The cation energy of an electron is largely determined by its principal quantum number.
Reason : The principal quantum number is a measure of the most probable distance of finding the electron
around the nucleus.
[AIIMS 1996]
4. Assertion : Nuclide is less stable than
Reason : Nuclides having odd number of protons and neutrons are generally unstable [IIT 1998]
5. Assertion : The atoms of different elements having same mass number but different atomic number are known
as isobars
Reason : The sum of protons and neutrons, in the isobars is always different [AIIMS 2000]
6. Assertion : Two electrons in an atom can have the same values of four quantum numbers.
Reason : Two electrons in an atom can be present in the same shell, sub-shell and orbital and have the same
spin [AIIMS 2001]
7. Assertion : The value of n for a line in Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum having the highest wave length is 4
and 6.
Reason : For Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum, the value and 3, 4, 5.[AIIMS 1992]
8. Assertion : Absorption spectrum conists of some bright lines separated by dark spaces.
Reason : Emission spectrum consists of dark lines. [AIIMS 2002]
9. Assertion : A resonance hybrid is always more stable than any of its canonical structures.
Reason : This stability is due to delocalization of electrons. [AIIMS 1999]
10. Assertion : Cathode rays do not travel in straight lines.
Reason : Cathode rays penetrate through thick sheets [AIIMS 1996]
11. Assertion : Electrons revolving around the nucleus do not fall into the nucleus because of centrifugal force.
Reason : Revolving electrons are planetary electrons. [AIIMS 1994]
12. Assertion : Threshold frequency is a characteristic for a metal.
Reason : Threshold frequency is a maximum frequency required for the ejection of electron from the metal
surface.
13. Assertion : The radius of the first orbit of hydrogen atom is 0.529Å.
Reason : Radius for each circular orbit 0.529Å , where 1,2,3 and atomic number.
14. Assertion : orbital is spherically symmetrical.
Reason : orbital is the only -orbital which is spherical in shape.
15. Assertion : Spin quantum number can have the value +1/2 or –1/2.
Reason : (+) sign here signifies the wave function.
16. Assertion : Total number of orbitals associated with principal quantum number is 6.
Reason : Number of orbitals in a shell equals to .
17. Assertion : Energy of the orbitals increases as

Reason : Energy of the electron depends completely on principal quantum number.

18. Assertion : Splitting of the spectral lines in the presence of magnetic field is known as stark effect.
Reason : Line spectrum is simplest for hydrogen atom.
19. Assertion : Thomson’s atomic model is known as ‘raisin pudding’ model.
Reason : The atom is visualized as a pudding of positive charge with electrons (raisins) embedded in it.
20. Assertion : Atomic orbital in an atom is designated by and .
Reason : These are helpful in designating electron present in an orbital.
21. Assertion : The transition of electrons in atom will emit greater energy than .
Reason : and are closer to nucleus tan .
 89 Structure of atom
22. Assertion : Cathode rays are a stream of -particles.
Reason : They are generated under high pressure and high voltage.
23. Assertion : In case of isoelectronic ions the ionic size increases with the increase in atomic number.
Reason : The greater the attraction of nucleus, greater is the ionic radius.

Discovery and Properties of anode, cathode rays neutron and Nuclear structure

1 d 2 a 3 c 4 c 5 b
6 a 7 b 8 a 9 d 10 c
11 b 12 d 13 b 14 a 15 b
16 b 17 c 18 c 19 c 20 b
21 a 22 d 23 c 24 b 25 d
26 c 27 b 28 d 29 c 30 a
31 b 32 d 33 b 34 c 35 c
36 a 37 b 38 a 39 d 40 c
41 c

Atomic number, Mass number, Atomic species

1 b 2 a 3 b 4 b 5 a
6 a 7 c 8 b 9 c 10 b
11 b 12 c 13 b 14 c 15 c
16 c 17 c 18 a 19 c 20 a
21 c 22 b 23 c 24 d 25 b
26 b 27 a 28 a 29 c 30 b
31 c 32 d 33 d 34 c 35 c
36 c 37 c 38 b 39 d 40 c
41 b 42 c 43 a 44 c 45 b
46 c 47 d 48 a 49 c 50 c
51 a 52 c 53 b 54 a 55 c
56 a 57 d 58 c 59 a 60 a
61 d 62 b 63 a 64 c 65 b
66 a 67 c 68 a 69 d 70 d
71 c 72 a 73 b 74 d

Atomic models and Planck's quantum theory

1 c 2 a 3 b 4 b 5 d
6 b 7 c 8 b 9 c 10 a
11 b 12 a 13 d 14 b 15 b
16 c 17 a 18 c 19 a 20 d
21 d 22 c 23 d 24 d 25 c
26 a 27 c 28 b 29 c 30 a
31 b 32 c 33 d 34 b 35 b
36 a 37 c 38 c 39 c 40 a
41 c 42 d 43 d 44 a 45 d
46 b 47 a 48 c 49 d 50 a
51 a 52 c 53 d 54 c 55 b
56 b 57 b 58 a 59 b 60 c
61 c 62 b 63 c 64 c 65 b
66 b 67 c 68 a 69 b 70 d
71 a 72 d 73 a 74 c 75 d
76 b 77 a 78 a 79 c 80 a
81 a

Dual nature of electron

1 c 2 a 3 a 4 b 5 c
 Structure of atom 90
6 b 7 d 8 a 9 d 10 d
11 c 12 c 13 b 14 b 15 b
16 c 17 c 18 c 19 b 20 a
21 d

Uncertainty principle and Schrodinger wave equation

1 b 2 b 3 a 4 c 5 c
6 c 7 b 8 d 9 d 10 a
11 a 12 c 13 a 14 b 15 d
16 b 17 a 18 c 19 c 20 b

Quantum number, Electronic configuration

and Shape of orbitals

1 c 2 a 3 b 4 d 5 c
6 c 7 c 8 a 9 a 10 a
11 c 12 c 13 a 14 a 15 d
16 c 17 c 18 d 19 b 20 c
21 c 22 a 23 c 24 d 25 c
26 c 27 b 28 d 29 e 30 b
31 d 32 a 33 c 34 d 35 d
36 c 37 b 38 b 39 d 40 c
41 d 42 c 43 c 44 a 45 a
46 a 47 b 48 c 49 c 50 b
51 c 52 b 53 b 54 b 55 c
56 c 57 b 58 e 59 c 60 c
61 d 62 d 63 d 64 c 65 b
66 d 67 c 68 d 69 c 70 b
71 a 72 c 73 c 74 c 75 a
76 c 77 c 78 c 79 d 80 d
81 b 82 c 83 a 84 a 85 b
86 c 87 a 88 b 89 c 90 b
91 d 92 a 93 b 94 b 95 d
96 d 97 a 98 a 99 d 100 c
101 b 102 d 103 a 104 c 105 d
106 a 107 c 108 d 109 a 110 d
111 d 112 b 113 c 114 b 115 b
116 a 117 c 118 b 119 a 120 a
121 d 122 b 123 b 124 b 125 d
126 d 127 b 128 c 129 a 130 b
131 a 132 c 133 d 134 b 135 a
136 a 137 c 138 c 139 c 140 c
141 c 142 d 143 c 144 c 145 b
146 d 147 a 148 c 149 b 150 c
151 d 152 a 153 a 154 d 155 b
156 d 157 a 158 b 159 c 160 d
161 c 162 d 163 b 164 c 165 a
166 d 167 d 168 d 169 b 170 a
171 c 172 d 173 c 174 b 175 d
176 c 177 a 178 b 179 b 180 c
181 c 182 b 183 c 184 c 185 a
186 d 187 c 188 c 189 a 190 c
191 b 192 a 193 d 194 b 195 d
196 a 197 c 198 d 199 b 200 b
201 a 202 b 203 b 204 c 205 d
206 b 207 b 208 c 209 d 210 b
211 a 212 a 213 b 214 c 215 a
216 d 217 b 218 b 219 b 220 d
221 b 222 b 223 a 224 d 225 d
226 a 227 b 228 a

Critical Thinking Questions

1 a 2 d 3 d 4 a 5 d
 91 Structure of atom
6 c 7 b 8 d 9 a 10 c
11 a 12 d 13 d 14 c 15 b
16 d 17 a 18 b 19 c 20 b
21 a 22 a 23 d 24 a

Assertion & Reason

1 d 2 d 3 a 4 a 5 c
6 d 7 e 8 d 9 a 10 e
11 b 12 c 13 a 14 d 15 c
16 d 17 c 18 e 19 a 20 e
21 b 22 d 23 d

Discovery and Properties of anode, cathode rays neutron and Nuclear structure

9. (d) The density of neutrons is of the order

10. (c) This is because chargeless particles do not undergo any deflection in electric or magnetic field.
11. (b) Neutron and proton found in nucleus.
13. (b) Cathode rays are made up of negatively charged particles (electrons) which are deflected by both the
electric and magnetic fields.
16. (b) Proton is 1837 (approx 1800) times heavier than an electron. Penetration power

18. (c) Nucleus of helium is mean 2 neutrons and 2 protons.

20. (b) Cathode rays are made up of negatively charged particles (electrons, )
26. (c) Size of nucleus is measured in Fermi (1 Fermi .
27. (b) A molecule of an element is a incorrect statement. The correct statement is “an element of a molecule”.