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Fly with Qatar Airways Qatar Airways Pilot Interview consist of (1) introduction to Qatar airways (2) 50 atpl questions (3) panel
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Qatar Airways ATPL Questions

How does a Pressure Altimeter works?
Answer: Air pressure is highest at Earth\'s surface and gradually falls, in a systematic way, the higher up you go. Measuring the air pressure is therefore (in theory, at least) a
simple and effective way of measuring altitude.
The altimeters onboard most planes are actually aneroid barometers (pressure-measuring instruments) that have been calibrated (marked with a scale) so they show height
inside of pressure. Like normal aneroid barometers, they consist of a hollow, sealed box that expands (as the pressure falls) or contracts (as the pressure rises). As the box
changes size, by very tiny amounts, an intricate system of levers and gears magnifies its movements and makes a pointer rotate on a dial marked with height
measurements. Hey presto, tiny changes in air pressure become accurate measurements of altitude.

Give definition of QNH, QFE?

Answer: QNH is the barometric Above Mean Sea Level (AMSL) pressure in Hectopascals. On this setting, the aircraft altimeter reads altitude.
QFE is corrected for altitude pressure at the airfield, on this setting the altimeter in the aircraft reads Feet AGL (Above ground level). (Usually above the highest fixed point
on the runway)

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How does weather affect altimeter settings?

If you fly from an area of higher pressure to an area of lower pressre without resetting your altimeter, you may fly at a lower altitude tha you had intended.

Altimeter instrument errors?

Answer: Position Error: In some installations, position error can be of considerable magnitude.

Scale Error: Commonly referred to as instrument error, scale error is caused by the aneroids not assuming the precise size designed for a particular pressure
difference. This error is irregular throughout the range of the instrument (it might be -30 feet at 1,000 feet and +50 feet at 10,000 feet). The tolerances for this
error became larger as the measured altitude is increased.

Mechanical Error: Mechanical error is caused by misalignment or slippage in the gears and linkage connecting the aneroids to the display, or in the shaft of the barosetting
knob.

Density Error.- ICAO Standard Atmosphere conditions seldom prevail, and the resulting density error is only partially offset by the diligent application of correct altimeter
settings (station or standard pressure). It can generally be disregarded for Air Traffic Control purposes, since all pressure altimeters in close proximity react in the same way,
and vertical separation is maintained.

Hysteresis: This error is a lag in the altitude indications caused by the elastic properties of the materials used in the aneroids. It occurs when an aircraft initiates a large, rapid
altitude change or an abrupt level-off from a rapid climb or descent. It takes a period of time for the aneroids to catch up with the new pressure environment; hence, a lag in
indications. This error has been significantly reduced in modern altimeters and is considered negligible at normal rates of descent for jet aircraft.

Static variation in pitot tube causes an error and is called?

Answer: Instrument error, Barometic error, pressure position error.

How to calculate True Altitude at an airport?

Answer: If you set the altimeter to local pressure corrected to sea level, indicated altitude is approximately true altitude.

Airport QNH is 1008hPa, you land with 1013hPa set in altimeter, what altitude will your altimeter indicate?
Answer: (airport ALT will be given for that question; take 27 or 30ft/hPa for calculation, easy…)

What is ISA temp. at FL100?

ANSWER: -5c (Alt x -2 +15 = ISA temp)

During climb out when would you switch the altimeter setting to standard?
Answer: Transition Altitude

What happens to your Indicated Airspeed if the pitot tube is blocked at the start of a descent?
Answer: Indicated Airspeed will decrease.

What happens to your Indicated Airspeed if the static went is blocked at the start of a climb?
Answer: When you are operating above the altitude where the static port became clogged, the airspeed will read lower than it should.

What happens to your Indicated Airspeed (IAS) if you descent at a constant True Air Speed (TAS)?
Ans: Increase

What happens to your TAS if you climb at a constant Indicated Airspeed?

Ans: Tas will Increase

What happens to your Mach Number (MN) if you climb at a constant calibrated airspeed or Indicated Airspeed?
Ans: Mach Number will Increase

What happens to your indicated airspeed and TAS if you fly at a constant IAS into a warmer area?
Ans: TAS Incr, IAS constant

What happens to MN or IAS when climbing through an isothermal layer at constant true airspeed?
Ans: MN remains Constant, IAS decrease

What happens to Local Speed of Sound (LSS) or TAS if one increases or the other decreases?

You descend with constant Mach no,. Which speed limit will be exceeded? (VMO,MMO,VNE or VS)

VNE is the speed which?

ANSWER:Should never be exceeded

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What effect has an increase in temp.and altitude (airport) to VMCG?

ANSWER: VMCG decrease because engine thrust decrease

Reduced thrust should not be used when?

ANSWER:Windshear is reported or to be expected

If you lose 10kts GS during approach, what will happen to your VS?
ANSWER: Decrease by 50ft

When do you use Anti-Ice?

Answer: Visible moisture and temperature close to or below freezing point

Rime ICE accumulation on airframe? (accumulates slow or fast? Spreads out slow or fast?)

In what type of cloud can icing virtually ruled out?

ANSWER: CIRRUS

Which cloud type is most easily detected by the weather radar?

ANSWER: Cumulus

What is the Temperature at Troposphere (Poles, equator)?

Ans: Poles -45, Equator -75 Celsius.

With ISA Standards what is the Temp at 10000 Feet?

Ans: -5 Degrees Celsius

Altocumulus castellanus are indication of?

Ans: mid-atmospheric instability

Where is Hail most encountered?

Ans: CB clouds

Which cloud type is classified as a MEDIUM LEVEL cloud?

ANSWER: Altostratus (alto medium)

Shortest hold over time weather condition?

ANSWER:Freezing rain

What type of cloud can be expected with virga?

Answer: Nimbostratus and altucomlus cloud.

Decode a TAF and what will the wind be at you ETA?

Nots: Study over TAF and METAR codes

A TAF will be given with ETA for LSZH (Zurich) and asks for the lowest cloub base for ETA at LSZH.
What does the meaning PROB30 means?
ANSWER: Probability 30%

How is windshear detected?

Answer: It's detected by identifying a difference in wind (direction and / or speed) and/or temperature between two places or identifying certain wether phenomenon , like
cumulonimbus clouds, that give rise to posible windshear conditions from weather reports. Modern aircraft have windshear warning systems, which usually are incoporated
into the ground proximity warning system (GPWS).

Windshear is a movement of air in which direction and duration?

ANSWER: Short duration/horizontal movement of air

What effect does windshear have during an approach for landing?

Answer: If the headwind component increases,then the aircraft will experience a transient increase in performance. This will lead to an overshoot tendency.
If the headwind component decreases, then the aircraft will experience a transient decrease in performance. This will lead to undershoot the aiming point.

What is the recovery technique for windshear?

Answer: For mild or even moderate windshear that causes a manageable flight path deviation, i.e., less than a single dot deviation on the approach, then it is acceptable to
use normal power (for speed) and pitch (for the descent profile) corrections to regain the desired flight path.

Takeoff in windshear?

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Sequence of speeds on take off?

Answer: V1, Vr, Vmcg, V2

What are ICAO holding speeds?

• Up to 6,000 ft MSL: 200 KIAS
• From 6,001 to 14,000 ft MSL: 230 KIAS
• 14,001 ft MSL and above: 265 KIAS

The ICAO Maximum holding speeds:

• Up to 14000 ft: 230kts
• 14000 ft to 20000 ft: 240kts
• 20000 ft to 34000 ft: 265kts
• Above 34000 ft: M0.83

Holding pattern entries?

Answer: Parallel Procedure, Teardrop Procedure, Direcet procedure.

Are standard holding with left or right turns?

Ans: Right

What is squawk code for hijacking?

Ans: 7500

Failure on IFR flight while in VMC, what is your action?

ANSWER:Squak 7600 and continue according flight plan.

What is squawk code for threat in an airplane?

Ans: 7700

What is the code for com.failure?

Ans:7600

Bomb on board the airplane and what do you do?

Notes: Aparently good answer is landing gear and flaps down. Level off at altitude and cabin is at the moment.

Emergency Descent First Action?

If engine fails in cruise flight which procedure you use?

Ans: Driftdown

If you loose the RWY while circling what actions do you take?
Ans: Missed Approach procedure.

Lost visual during circling on downwind leg, what is your action?

Ans: Missed Approach procedures

How long to evacuate an airplane with more than 44 sits?

Answer: Certification purposes, aircraft needs to be evacuated in less than 90 sec through half of the available exits.

Actioins At V1 with an Engine Failure?

• Maintain or set the thrust levers to the maximum takeoff thrust (TOGA)
• Rotate normally at VR
• Follow the Flight Director pitch orders, or set the required pitch attitude if FD is not available (as recommended in the applicable FCOM).

ASDA is?
Answer: ACCELERATE-STOP DISTANCE AVAILABLE

TODA is?
Answer: TODA Take of distance available

VMCG is?
Answer: VMCG is the minimum contol speed on the ground for a multiengine aircraft at a constant power setting and configuration, at and above which it is possible to
maintain directional contol of the aircraft around the normal/vertical axis by use of the rudder to manintain runway heading after failure of an off-center engine.
Answer:

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VMCA is?
Answer: VMCA: minimum control speed (air). The minimum speed at which control of a twin-engine aircraft can be maintained after failure of one engine.

ISA is?
Answer: ISA - Agreed International Standard Atmosphere (1013.2 millibars at 15\'C) to permit accurate comparison of aircraft performance figures.

Definition of STOPWAY?
Ans: The length of an unprepared surface at the end of the runway in the directionof the takeoff that is capable of supporting an aircraft if the aircraft has to
be stoped during a takeoff run.

Definition of Clearway?
Ans: The length of an obstacle free area at the end of the runway in the direction of the takeoff, with a minimum dimension of 75m either side of the
extended runway centerline that is under the control of the licensed authority.

What is ETOPS?
Answer: • Extended-range Twin-engine Operational Performance Standards
• (ICAO) Standard and Recommended Practice (SARP) permitting twin-engined commercial air transporters to fly routes that, at some points, are farther than a distance of
60 minutes\' flying time from an emergency or diversion airport.

• It refers to single-engine flight times between diversion airfields╉regardless as to whether such fields are separated by water or land.

What are the various ETOPS Categories?

Answer: The Extended Range Operations are covered under categories viz. 75 minutes, 120 minutes and 180-minutes diversion time
90mins, 120 mins, 138 mins, 180 mins, 240 mins.

What is Lapse Rate?

Answer: The lapse rate is defined as the rate of decrease with height for an atmospheric variable. The variable involved is temperature unless specified otherwise

What is Climb Gradient?

Answer: The rate, expressed as a percentage, of the change in geometric height divided by the horizontal distance traveled in a given time.

The wake turbulence of a heavy weight aircraft will last for approximately how long? (1min, 3min,5 min or 30 sec?)
Answer: 5 minutes

What is your rate of descent on a 3degree ILS when your GS reads 100kt?
ANSWER: 500ft/min (of course …GSx5)

Mode C Transmits which information to ATC?

Ans:ALT, FL, 1013hpa, information.

Which altitude information shown to an ATC controller indicates that the aircraft
is flying at its cleared/assigned altitude?
ANSWER:+- 300 ft

ILS CAT 1 Minimums, RVR, MDA?

Answer: CAT 1 Approach Minimums are 200ft DH and 2400RVR
CAT 1 Approach Minimums without touchdown zone and centerline lights is 200ft DH and 1800RVR

The segments on a Tekeoff?

Answer: First Segment: The Climb from 35 feet point until the landing gears are fully retracted. Conditions in this segment are:
- landing gear extended
- flaps in T/O position
- Speed = V2
- Climb gradient for 2 engine A/C = Positive
- Climb gradient for 4 engine A/C = 0.5%
- Takeoff power

Second Segment: Climb from gear retraction point until a height of 400 feet is reached. conditions in this segment are:
- gears retracted
- flaps in T/O position
- speed = V2
- Climb gradient 2 engine a/c 2.4%, and 4 engine a/c 3.0%
- takeoff power

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Third Segment: Its the horizontal distance covered after the second segment until the flap retraction speed is reached, to raise the flaps plus the distance required to
accelerate the aircraft to the flaps up climb speed. It consists of two parts:

First part of 3rd segment: Distance covered before flap retraction, accelerating to flap retraction speed. The conditions are:
- gears retracted
- flaps in t/o position
- speed increasing from v2 to flap retraction speed
- Climb gradient 2 engine a/c 1.2%, 4 engine a/c 1.7%
- takeoff power

Second part of 3rd segment: Distance covered after flap retraction, accelerating to final t/o climb speed. the conditions are:
- gears retracted
- flaps retracted
- speed, accelerating from flaps retraction to final t/o climb speed
- Climb gradient 2 engine a/c 1.2%, 4 engine a/c 1.7%
- maximum continous power

Fourth Segment: the Climb from 400 feet till 1500 feet is reached, after the end of third segment operating with max continous power. The conditions are:
- gears retracted
- flaps retracted
- speed = final t/o climb speed
- max continous power
- Climb gradient 2 engine a/c 1.2%, 4 engine a/c 1.7%

1st Segments stops at?

Answer: Landing gear is fully retracted with flaps in the takeoff setting

What is 3rd segment of a Climb?

Answer: Third segment is the distance required to go from the end of the second segment climb at V2 to the final climb speed with the flaps retracted. It\'s flown level while
accelerating.

How many % to be considered a Contaminated Runway?

Answer: A runway where more than 25% of the required field length within the width being used is covered by standing water or slush more than 0.125 in (3.2 mm) deep, or
that has an accumulation of snow or ice.

Definition of wet Runway?

Answer: A runway is considered “wet” when there is sufficient moisture on the surface to appear reflective, but. without significant areas of standing water. A runway
surface that appears darkened by residual moisture (damp runway) shall not be considered wet or contaminated except as outlined below

Notams, and how are they distributed?

Answer: Three categories. These are NOTAM (D) or distant, NOTAMâ•?(L) or local, and Flight Data Center (FDC) NOTAMs.
• CLASS I NOTAMS (ICAO): NOTAMs distributed by means of telecommunication.
• CLASS II NOTAMS (ICAO) OR PUBLISHED NOTAMS: NOTAMs distributed by means other than telecommunications. In the United States these NOTAMs are
published in the Notices To Airmen Publication (NTAP) which is issued every 28 days.

What is a Dutch Roll?

Answer: A Dutch Roll is a combination of rolling and yawing (coupled lateral/directional) oscillations that normally occurs when the dihedral effects of an aircraft are more
powerful than the directional stability.ers. Please refer to this page for more information

Describe  the  spiral  stability  of  the  A320  in  Normal  Law?  

What happens if you move C.G from fw to aft position?

Answer: It will be tail heavy, and the horizontal tailplane will have a short mement arm that will result in the aircraft is longitudinally unstable beause it is too tail heavy for the
horizontal tailplane. Light stick forces for pitch is requried. A decreased wing angle of attack which results in lower induced drag. It will also increase aircraft range.

Effect of Forward C.G.?

Answer: Longitudinal stability is increased because the aircraft is nose heavy. The aircraft's pitch control is reduced because it experiences high stick forces due to the
aircraft's long tailplane mement arm. Increased wing angle of attack, wich will reduce in higher induced drag. Will reduce aircraft performence and range. The stalling speed
will increase.

Effect of fwd and aft C.G on performance stability and fuel?

fwd C.G. = High Angle of Atack , incresed induced drag which will decrease performance and range. Longitudinal stability is increased because aircaft is nose heavy.
aft C.G.= Low Angle of attack on the wing, which reduces induced drag. Fuel sufficent and increase aircraft range. The aircraft is longitudinal unstable.

Lift Formula is?

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Answer: L = (1/2) d v2 s CL

Which device increase the stalling AoA?

Ans: Slats

How is gliding distance affected by the weight of the aircraft?

Answer: Not affected by weight

What is the effect of speed brakes and ailerons simultaneous input?

During flare aircraft will float, why?

Answer: Using to high AoA, height of A/C is 1/2 wingspan (and some other answers duing the test)

If you are climbing at 270/.80 and then you increase your speed to 290/.80 are you going to reach the .80M earlier or later?

If in a turn and try to maintain the same speed and altitude, what do you have to do?
Ans: Increase Power

MCRIT?
Answer: It's aircrafts Mach speed at which the airflow over a wing becomes sonic - crtical mach number. The aircrafts Mach speed is lower than the airflow speed over a
wing.

Why use Swept back wing?

Efficent for high speed aircrafts.

The boundary layer is a layer in which…?

Roll is the movement of an aircraft along the?

ANSW: Longitudinal axis

Spoilers deployed have the following effect:

ANSWER: The Cl max decreases and Drag coefficient increases

What does DER/MORA stands for?

Answer: MORA = Minimum off route altitude. The MORA will guarantee you 1000 feet of obstacle clearance if below 6000 feet and 2000 feet of clearance above 7000 feet.
DER = Departure end of Runway

What is the CAT I minimum?

ANSWER:RVR 550m DH200

What is the minimum obstruction clearance for IFR flights in mountainous regions?
ANSWER: Within 8km of the estimated position of the aircraft 2000ft above the highest obstacle

What is the definition of the speed Vr?

ANSWER: At Vr the pilot should start to rotate the airplane

What is case if the GPWS alerts with “DON’T SINK,DON’T SINK”?

What happens to the stall speed Vs if weight of aircraft decrease?Answer: Decreases

MTOM and MLM, what type of limitations are these?

Alert messages (lights) that require crew attention but not immediate action are what color?
Answer: Amber

TCAS is based upon the oparetion of?

ANSWER: a/c transponder

The fix distance markings on a RWY are at what distance? 300 Meter

Red pyrotechnic or red flare from aircraft to tower means?

What is loop or pigtail in an impulse line?

Answer: 1- Pigtail is used only in steam line which helps to convert steam vapour phase in to liquid water phase.

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2-Avoid high tmperature directly contact in instrument like pressure gauges, pressure transmitters.

3- Finally it reduces hight pressure into low pressure and avoid vibration in impule lines.

Pigtail is also called syphon. It is used to reduce temperature of fluid like steam before enter in to the pressure gauges or pressure transmittter for measurement.

What is maintenance planning?

How does control valves work?

What is a Barrette?
Answer: Is three or more grounlights closel spaced together to appear as a set of a bar of lights.

When does the Hold over time starts? At the beginning of: First step? Second step?Or at the end of First step or second step?

Low visibility operation? We don't know the exact wording of this question

What is a CLASS B Fire?

FIRST indication of hyperventilation?

Ans: Overbreathing, excessively breathing

What does the Blood transport?

Ans: hemoglobin

What are the consequences of fatigue and sleeplessness?

Answer: Redeuced performance

NEW FEEDBACK RECEIVED ON 28/05/2011

1. The actual Take-Off Mass is equivalent to:

Answer: Dry Operating Mass plus take-off fuel and the traffic load

2. If a pitot source is blocked in an ASI, and the drain hole is blocked, but the static source is open, what will happen?
ASI behaves like an altimeter

3. The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near the source is known as:
position pressure error

4. 90 knots is equal to how many km/hr

Answer: Answer: 140 Km/hr

5. The temperature at FL 110 is -5oC. What will the temperature be at FL 50 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied?
Answer: +7

6... What is the lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC?
LSZH 260900Z 261019 20018G30KT 9999 RA SCT050
BKN080 TEMPO 1215 23012KT 6000 DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010=
Answer: 6km

7.. Relative humidity depends on:

moisture content and temperature of the air

8..During initiation of a turn with speedbrakes extended, the roll spoiler function induces a spoiler deflection:
on the downgoing wing only

9..Which of the following statements is correct?

A stop way means an area beyond the take off runway, able to support the aeroplane during an aborted take off

10..What are the minimum and maximum values of V1?

VMCG, VR

11...Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)?
Straight flight cannot be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has failed

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12...A DME is located at MSL. An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:
6 NM

13..Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of:

turbulence at and below the cloud level

14..The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that:

freezing rain occurs at a higher altitude.

15.. What is the Vs at stick shaker? a)1.30Vs b)1.12Vs c)1.30Vs d)above Vs

NEW FEEDBACK RECEIVED ON 28/05/2011

What s the definition of virga?

Answer: Precipitation that falls from a cloud but evaporates before reaching the ground.

Local qnh is 1023, when you pass and set qne , your altitude will what?
Increase,decrease,stable,...

What s the meaning of lenticulus clouds?

Answer: Mountain waves

Inbound course for holding is 053 with STD turn. So your app heading is 233, so
what s the procedure?

When does the optimum altititude increase?

Answer: Tailwind headwind weight pressure

The mach number depends on what?

Answer: Humidity, pressure, temp,wind

Mod c 2000 meaning?

Answer: Flying over areas without transponder requirement

What is the ISA standard?

Answer: 15 C and 1013 hp

At fl100 temp is 15c. What's the ground temp?

Answer: 35C

What s min isa oat .ICAO? WE DON'T KNOW THE EXACT WORDING OF THIS QUESTION

When does the second segment begins?

Which one delivers hail.

Answer: Cb

Which one gives the likely shortest holding time?

Answer: Freezing rain

You ve been intercepted, the frq for comm is.... 1215. 243

A traffic coming from right. Which light do u see?

Answer: Fixed red

Rapid decompression ,first action.

Answer: Oxygen

Speed 120 gs approach angle 3,what s the fpm?

Answer: 600fpm

High pressure altitude effect what? Landing d increases, decreases,etc

Vmca assures what after engine failure?

Answer: Straigt flight

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Induced drag is produced by?

Answer: Lift

Gpws is a system operates within which altitudes?

Noise min climb thrust change altitude? WE DON'T KNOW THE EXACT WORDING

App climb gradient definition?

The nav lights must be capable of being seen within how many degrees?
Answer: 140 degrees

A question about ssr radar?

NEW FEEDBACK RECEIVED ON 11/06/2011

What is GPS?

Calculate pressure altitude?

Convert from Celsius to Farenheit? know the formula F = 9 / 5 C + 32 C = 5 / 9 (F - 32)

What is temperature inversion?

Wet Runway? Notes: Study the Contaminated and Wet runway conditions more in depth.

Why use swept back wings?

What does the take over button on the airbus on the side stick do?

Clim Gradient?

On take off and high speed you realize your tires are deflated. What do you do and how does it affect the braking performance?

What is definition of safe take off distance?

What is MNPS?

Limitation for alternate limits?

How many degrees of pitch would you fly with an engine failed right after take off?

What would you see on the PFD?

IFR and RVSM Flight levels?

Ans: 0-179 Magnetic Track, Degrees odd numbers, 180-359 Even numbers
Vertical Separation is only 1000 ft up to FL290 and 2000 ft above FL290 in non-RVSM airspace and only 1000 ft in RVSM airspace i all levels.

Why are Flight Level intervals increased to 2000 ft in non RVSM airspace?
Ans: Because of altimeter errors (lower air density). Reduced vertical RVSM to 1000ft separation above FL290 is granted to aircraft with advanced and more accurate
altimeters, usually crowded routes (Trans Atlantic Routes)

Three or more groundlights closely spaced together to appear as a set of a bar of lights? Dont know the exact wording

MN Calculation?

Minimum Temperature in Standard Atmoshpere?

Answer: 56 degrees celsius.

Qatar Airways Panel Interview (HR and Chief Pilot)

Tell us about yourself?
Tell us about your family?

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Does your wife approve your job in Qatar?

Why Qatar Airways?
What do you know about Qatar Airways?
Tell us about current fleet types?
Number of airplanes?
Name some of the destinations Qatar flies to?
Milestones of the company?
Qatar Airways CEO Name?
What do you expect from Qatar Airways?
What can you bring to the company?
How long time do you need to notify your company?
Do you currently have a bond with your company?
Why should we hire you instead of other applicants?
Why do you wan to leave your current job?
Tell us 10 good/bad things about you?
What makes a good/bad Captain/First Officer? Why
Have you flown with a demanding Captain? Give an Example
Give us an example you gave positive feedback to the crew and why?
Give us an example when you had made a decision initially and then at the advice of somebody else you changed that decision?
Give us an example where you had to adapt to somebody's work rules?
Give us an example where you disagreed with a decision?
Give us an example where politely but forcefully had to tell somebody to do something?
Any time a Captain or First Officer didn't agree with you?
Have you had someone to misinterpreting you? Give an Example

On take off and while on high speed you realize your tires are deflated. What do you do? and how does it affect the breaking performance?
If you have a bomb in the airplane what do you do?
Do you have a bomb immediate action in your company?
What is the definition of safe take off distance?
What are the five major elements in a emergency descent?
What is MNPS Alt Limits?
How many degrees of Pitch would you fly with an engine failure right after take off? What would you see on the PFD?
What is you company procedures for .......examples will be given....and what do you think about it?

HR questions Updated on 30-05-2011

- Introduce yourself briefly.
- What will change in your life when you will join?
- In which aircraft do you see yourself? Why?

Then they will ask you many situations questions. Important is to say what YOU did in this situation. Do not say we did this and that but I did .....

- Give an example when you had to go outside of SOPs. What did you do? Why? Do you think it was the good choice?

- Have you ever flown with a captain who was not following SOPs? What did you do? Why?

-State your company for a given emergency situation? What do you think about it? What would you change?

-Have you ever face an emergency or abnormal situation in flight? What did you do? Why?

- What cause you stress? How do you cope with it? Give an example when you were under stress? What did you do? Why

- What makes you angry? Give an example when you were angry. What did you do?

- In Qatar Airways there are many different cultures and religion. How will you cope with that?

It is important to give example in each situation. While you are speaking they will ask you secondary questions about the situation.

- Give your negative points? Give examples?

- What your colleagues would say about you?
- It is possible that you will not be on the fleet that you requested. Is that a problem for you?
- Ask your questions to the recruiters?

If you are Type Rated on one of Qatar Airways fleet, Question will be asked on:
Briefly explain the Electrical System?
The Hydraulic System?

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QATAR AIRWAYS PILOT INTERVIEW - Latest Pilot Jobs provides the latest aviation vacancies around the world. 21/06/11 16:48

Procedures for missed approach 2 engine?

Procedures for missed approach single engine?
Evasion maneuver for ground approximate?
Evasion maneuver for windshear? Limitations
What does the take over button on the side stick do on Airbus?

Qatar Airways Sim Assessment

The sim assessment varies from day to day, so we will post one of the sim assessment that recently occurred.
The sim ride will most likely be an airbus 330, or sometimes A320. Depart LHR RWY 27R, (or it could be RWY  34  DOHA ). Stright out departure, sometimes
the instructor will let you do some general handling, such as steep turn, climb, descent so you get a feel of the airplane. But most of the time they will
immediate vector you for an ILS to land. You will be lined up for take off again, and this time you might get an engine failure before V1. Then you get a fire
on the A/C, ask for memory items. Request mayday, Do the after T/O checklist, ask for rest of checklist. Let the pilot not flying Inform Cabin Crew and
packs, quickly back request short vectors and fire guys to be ready when you land. Do a briefing about evacuation etc. Be aware for GS interception, since
you might approach at a lower alt for the ILS. The sim usually takes around 30-45 Minutes.

(UPDATED ) SIMULATOR Assessment from April, 2011 SIMULATOR

(A330) was only 30minutes for me ! Take off to 3000ft than climbing and descending turns to get familiarized. Thereafter “intercept radial 180” with use of
raw data and ND (London VOR). Thereafter “intercept radial 150”. This was very strange because I am not familiarized with Airbus indications concerning
VOR! Boeing is much easier (VOR Rose mode, just fly into the needle…) and the instructor didn’t explain anything although he claimed during briefing. No
TO/FROM indication was there…All applicants made turns into wrong direction – but thereafter intercepted successful. NO MALFUNCTIONS And NO
ABNORMALS.
Finally radar vectors for downwind HDG 090 for ILS 27R. Landing and
session over. I really don’t know my impression was that the instructor was not interested in our briefings and CRM. There may be other instructors who care
about CRM and Abnormals like a friend of mine did (APU Fire). The 330 is nice to fly and actually you get used to immediately.
Only VOR indication is different and was
strange to all BOEING guys that day. But all in all fair and they don’t put you under pressure. It takes 2-3 weeks until you get an answer! Nobody knows
why! This is a very long time, my opinion is that they are planning for you because most of people who pass interview were hired after sim.

(Updated on 30/05/2011) Simulator Assessment!

Sim A330 or rarely B777
You will take off from LHR RWY27 then left and right turn. Intercept radial LHR 212 inbound (don't turn the wrong way). Then intercept R 270 outbound. Then visual
approach and landing on RNW27. The different attitude and power settings will be send to you.
Then you take off again from LHR RWY27 turn downwind and you will have an emergency situation (APU fire, cargo fire,...) But no engine fire. You will have to come back
to land on RWY27. It will be an ILS raw data.

Everything has to be flown without any automation. No A/T, No A/P, No F/D.

They will phone you the result 2-3 days after the sim.

If you recently had an interview with Qatar Airways we would like to hear your feedback regarding our questions! You can e-mail us at
[email protected]

JETEX Flight Planning flight planning, overflight,jet-a landing permits, ground handling www.jetex.com
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Air Search The Changing World of Air Search. What travel managers need to know. www.gbta.org/webinars

Fly with Qatar Airways Qatar Airways flies to over 100 destinations worldwide. Book today! qatarairways.com/global
Airline Emirates Airline Our Best Fares for Your Holidays: Hurry, Check Our Special Offers! eDreams.com/Flight_Offers

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