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 COPYRIGHT RESERVED BY THE PUBLISHERS
All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced in any form without the prior
permission of the Oswal Publishers.

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the content. In case of any discrepancies in the matter, we request readers to excuse the unintentional lapse
and not hold us liable for the same. Suggestions are always welcome.

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 PREFACE
In accordance with the latest syllabus prescribed by the
Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi

Gurukul by Oswal Most Likely CBSE Question Bank series is up-to-date with the
latest syllabus given by the Central Board of Secondary Education.
This material has been developed by eminent subject experts to provide the
students a comprehensive, yet concise, learning support tool. It has been prepared
incorporating all the essential components like core concepts and competency-
based questions keeping in mind the latest CBSE curriculum and question paper
design.
To implement Competency Focussed Education (as per CBSE guidelines)
variety of contexts, questions and activities which trigger and enhance students’
creative and critical thinking capacity have been included in this material.
The series is an attempt to instil confidence in students and to equip them
with all the tools and techniques to attempt their paper.
Questions from compartment paper, foreign paper and latest board paper
have also been incorporated in the chapters.
The language used is simple, to the point and questions cover all the important
topics as per the weightage given to them by the board.
We hope that this book will be a valuable asset for the students. All suggestions
towards improving the series are welcome and can be incorporated in the future
editions.

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 SYLLABUS
COURSE STRUCTURE CLASS XII

Time : 3 Hours Marks : 70

S. No. Unit No. of Periods Marks

1 Solutions 10 7
2 Electrochemistry 12 9
3 Chemical Kinetics 10 7
4 d-and f-Block Elements 12 7
5 Coordination Compounds 12 7
6 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 10 6
7 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 10 6
8 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 10 8
9 Amines 10 6
10 Biomolecules 12 7
Total 160 70

Unit II : Solutions 10 Periods

Types of solutions, expression of concentration of solutions of solids in liquids, solubility of gases in liquids,
solid solutions, Raoult’s law, colligative properties - relative lowering of vapour pressure, elevation of boiling
point, depression of freezing point, osmotic pressure, determination of molecular masses using colligative
properties, abnormal molecular mass, Van’t Hoff factor.

Unit III : Electrochemistry  12 Periods

Redox reactions, EMF of a cell, standard electrode potential, Nernst equation and its application to chemical
cells, Relation between Gibbs energy change and EMF of a cell, conductance in electrolytic solutions, specific
and molar conductivity, variations of conductivity with concentration, Kohlrausch’s Law, electrolysis and
law of electrolysis (elementary idea), dry cell-electrolytic cells and Galvanic cells, lead accumulator, fuel cells,
corrosion.

Unit IV : Chemical Kinetics  10 Periods

Rate of a reaction (Average and instantaneous), factors affecting rate of reaction: concentration, temperature,
catalyst; order and molecularity of a reaction, rate law and specific rate constant, integrated rate equations and
half-life (only for zero and first order reactions), concept of collision theory (elementary idea, no mathematical
treatment), activation energy, Arrhenius equation.

Unit VIII : d and f Block Elements  12 Periods

General introduction, electronic configuration, occurrence and characteristics of transition metals, general
trends in properties of the first-row transition metals – metallic character, ionization enthalpy, oxidation states,
ionic radii, colour, catalytic property, magnetic properties, interstitial compounds, alloy formation, preparation
and properties of K2Cr2O7 and KMnO4.
Lanthanoids –
Electronic configuration, oxidation states, chemical reactivity and lanthanoid contraction and its consequences.
Actinoids - Electronic configuration, oxidation states and comparison with lanthanoids.

Unit IX : Coordination Compounds  12 Periods

Coordination compounds - Introduction, ligands, coordination number, colour, magnetic properties and
shapes, IUPAC nomenclature of mononuclear coordination compounds. Bonding, Werner’s theory, VBT,
and CFT; structure and stereoisomerism, the importance of coordination compounds (in qualitative analysis,
extraction of metals and biological system).

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Unit X : Haloalkanes and Haloarenes  10 Periods
Haloalkanes : Nomenclature, nature of C–X bond, physical and chemical properties, optical rotation mechanism
of substitution reactions.
Haloarenes : Nature of C–X bond, substitution reactions (Directive influence of halogen in monosubstituted
compounds only).
Uses and environmental effects of - dichloromethane, trichloromethane, tetrachloromethane, iodoform, freons,
DDT.

Unit XI : Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers  10 Periods

Alcohols: Nomenclature, methods of preparation, physical and chemical properties (of primary alcohols
only), identification of primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols, mechanism of dehydration, uses with special
reference to methanol and ethanol.
Phenols: Nomenclature, methods of preparation, physical and chemical properties, acidic nature of phenol,
electrophilic substitution reactions, uses of phenols.
Ethers: Nomenclature, methods of preparation, physical and chemical properties, uses.

Unit XII : Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids  10 Periods

Aldehydes and Ketones: Nomenclature, nature of carbonyl group, methods of preparation, physical and
chemical properties, mechanism of nucleophilic addition, reactivity of alpha hydrogen in aldehydes, uses.
Carboxylic Acids: Nomenclature, acidic nature, methods of preparation, physical and chemical properties;
uses.

Unit XIII : Amines  10 Periods

Amines: Nomenclature, classification, structure, methods of preparation, physical and chemical properties,
uses, identification of primary, secondary and tertiary amines.
Diazonium salts: Preparation, chemical reactions and importance in synthetic organic chemistry.

Unit XIV : Biomolecules  12 Periods

Carbohydrates - Classification (aldoses and ketoses), monosaccharides (glucose and fructose), D-L configuration
oligosaccharides (sucrose, lactose, maltose), polysaccharides (starch, cellulose, glycogen); Importance of
carbohydrates.
Proteins - Elementary idea of - amino acids, peptide bond, polypeptides, proteins, structure of proteins -
primary, secondary, tertiary structure and quaternary structures (qualitative idea only), denaturation of
proteins; enzymes. Hormones - Elementary idea excluding structure.
Vitamins - Classification and functions.
Nucleic Acids : DNA and RNA.

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 QUESTION PAPER DESIGN
CLASS XII
(Code No. 043)
Maximum Marks : 70 Duration : 3 Hours
S. No. Domains Total Marks %
1 Remembering and Understanding : 28 40
Exhibit memory of previously learned material by recalling facts, terms, basic
concepts and answers. Demonstrate understanding of facts and ideas by organizing,
comparing, translating, interpreting, giving descriptions and stating main ideas.
2 Applying : 21 30
Solve problems to new situations by applying acquired knowledge, facts,
techniques and rules in a different way.
3 Analyzing, Evaluating and Creating : 21 30
Examine and break information into parts by identifying motives or causes. Make
inferences and find evidence to support generalizations. Present and defend
opinions by making judgments about information, the validity of ideas or quality
of work based on a set of criteria.
Compile information together in a different way by combining elements in a new
pattern or proposing alternative solutions.

1. No chapter wise weightage .Care to be taken to cover all the chapters.

2. Suitable internal variations may be made for generating various templates Choice(s):
• There will be no overall choice in the question paper.
• However, 33% internal choice will be given in all the sections.

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 CONTENTS
Summary 9 – 48

1. Solutions 49 – 92

2. Electrochemistry 93 – 127

3. Chemical Kinetics 128 – 165

4. d-and f-Block Elements 166 – 189

5. Coordination Compounds 190 – 221

6. Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 222 – 261

7. Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 262 – 301

8. Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 302 – 355

9. Amines 356 – 391

10. Biomolecules 392 – 413

Sample Question Paper  414 – 419

2024 Board Papers  420 – 427

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 dsUnzh; ek/;fed f'k{kk cksMZ
(f'k{kk ea=ky;] Hkkjr ljdkj osG v/khu ,d Lok;Ùk laxBu)
CENTRAL BOARD OF SECONDARY EDUCATION
(An Autonomous Organisation under the Ministry of Education, Govt. of India)

F.1001/CBSE-Acad/Curriculum/2024 March 22, 2024

Cir No: Acad-29/2024

All Heads of Institutions affiliated to CBSE

Subject: Secondary and Senior School Curriculum for the session 2024-25 and new
textbooks to be published by NCERT for classes III and VI.

1. CBSE provides the annual curriculum for classes IX to XII containing academic content,
syllabus for examinations with learning outcomes, pedagogical practices, and assessment
guidelines.

2. It is imperative for schools to ensure adherence to the curriculum directives outlined in the
initial pages of the curriculum document. Subjects should be taught in accordance with the
prescribed curriculum, incorporating methodologies such as Multilingualism, Art-Integrated
Education, Experiential Learning, and Pedagogical Plans, wherever feasible.

3. With the adoption of the National Curriculum Framework for School Education - 2023 by
CBSE, schools are advised to align their practices with the recommendations delineated in
NCF-SE-2023. This includes adherence to guidelines concerning content, pedagogical
strategies, assessment methodologies, and other pertinent areas as communicated by the
Board from time to time.

4. The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) has informed CBSE
through a letter dated 18.03.2024 that new syllabi and textbooks for Grades 3 and 6 are
currently under development and will soon be released. Consequently, Schools are advised
to follow these new syllabi and textbooks for classes 3 and 6 in place of textbooks published
by NCERT till the year 2023. Additionally, a bridge course for class 6, and concise guidelines
for class 3 are being developed by NCERT for facilitating a seamless transition for students to
new pedagogical practices and areas of study aligned with NCF-SE 2023. These resources
will be disseminated to all the schools online once they are received from NCERT. The Board
will also organize capacity building programs for School Heads and Teachers to orient them
with the new teaching learning perspectives as envisioned in NEP-2020.

5. There will be no change in the Curriculum and textbooks for other classes for the academic
year 2024-25 commencing from 1st April 2024.

6. Schools are requested to share the Curriculum 2024-25 available on Boards website
www.cbseacademic.nic.in with all students and teachers. CBSE Curriculum for classes IX-XII
2024-25 can be accessed at the link-Secondary & Senior Secondary School Curriculum
https://cbseacademic.nic.in/curriculum_2025.html .

Dr. Joseph Emmanuel

Director (Academics)

-2-'kuy ,fj;k] ubZ fnYyh&110002

^f'k{kk lnu* ]17 jkÅt+ ,osU;w ]baLVhV~
‘Shiksha Sadan’, 17, Rouse Avenue, Institutional Area, New Delhi - 110002

फ़ ोन /Telephone: 011-23212603,23233227 व े ब स ाइ ट /Website :h�p://www.cbseacademic.nic.in ई -म े ल /e-mail: mailto:[email protected].

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 Solutions
CHAP T ER :1

Solutions
Solutions are homogeneous mixtures of two or more than two components. Homogeneous mixture
have its composition and properties uniform throughout the mixture.
Solvent Solute

In a solution, the component which is present in Another component of solution which is

larger quantity is known as solvent and it present in smaller quantity is known as solute.
determines the physical state of a solution.
Types of Solution
Type of Solution Solute Solvent Common Examples
Gaseous Solutions Gas Gas Mixture of oxygen and nitrogen gases
Liquid Gas Chloroform mixed with nitrogen gas
Solid Gas Camphor in nitrogen gas

Liquid Solutions Gas Liquid Oxygen dissolved in water

Liquid Liquid Ethanol dissolved in water
Solid Liquid Glucose dissolved in water

Solid Solutions Gas Solid Solution of hydrogen in palladium

Liquid Solid Amalgam of mercury with sodium
Solid Solid Copper dissolved in gold

Solid Solutions
Substitutional Solid Solution e.g. Brass Interstitial Solid Solution e.g. Steel (Smaller
(Components have almost similar size). component occupies the interstitial voids).

EXPRESSING CONCENTRATION OF SOLUTIONS OF SOLIDS IN LIQUIDS

• Mass percentage (w/w):
Mass of the component in the solution × 100
Mass % of a component = ——————————————————
Total mass of the solution
• Volume percentage (V/V):
Volume of the component in the solution × 100
Volume % of a component = ———————————————————
Total volume of the solution
• Parts per million (ppm): It is used to express the concentration when a solute is present in trace
quantities.
Number of parts of the component in the solution
Parts per million = ————————————————————————— × 106
Total number of parts of all components of the solution

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• Mole fraction (X):
Number of moles of the component
Mole fraction of a component = ————————————————————
Total number of moles of all the components
It has no unit

• Molarity (M):
Moles of solute
Molarity = ————————————
Volume of solution in litre
Unit is mol/L or mol L-1. Molarity is temperature dependent.

• Molality (m):
Moles of solute
Molality (m) = ——————————
Mass of solvent in kg
Unit is mol/kg or mol kg-1. It does not change with temperatures as it is mass to mass ratio. Thus, it is
temperature independent.

SOLUBILITY OF A GAS IN A LIQUID

Henry’s Law
The law states that at a constant temperature, the solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to
the partial pressure of the gas present above the surface of liquid or solution.

If we use the mole fraction of a gas in the solution as a measure of its solubility, then it can be said that the
mole fraction of gas in the solution is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas over the solution.

The most commonly used form of Henery’s law states that “the partial pressure of the gas in vapour phase
(p) is proportional to the mole fraction of the gas (x) in the solution” and is expressed as :
p = KH X
Where p is partial pressure of gas
• KH is the Henry’s law constant and function of the nature of the gas.
• X is mole fraction of the gas in solution.
• Significance of KH: Higher the value of KH at a given pressure, lower is the solubility of the gas in the liquid.
• KH values increase with increase of temperature indicating that the solubility of gases decrease with
decrease of temperature.
• It is due to this reason that aquatic species are more comfortable in cold water rather than in warm water.

Limitations of Henry’s Law

• This law is only applicable when the molecules of the system are in a state of equilibrium.
• This law does not hold true when gases are placed under extremely high pressure.
• This law is not applicable when the gas particles and the solution participate in chemical reactions with each
other.

VAPOUR PRESSURE
It is defined as the pressure exerted (in a system featuring thermodynamics equilibrium) by vapour of gas
with its condensed phases (solid or liquid) in a closed system at a given temperature.
• Vapour pressure of liquid depends upon the nature of liquid and temperature.

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 RAOULT’S LAW
• For the solution containing non-volatile solute, the vapour pressure of the solution is directly proportional to
the mole fraction of solvent at a particular temperature.
PA ∝ XA
PA = P0A . XA P0A
+ PB

Vapour Pressure
• For the solution consisting of volatile liquids, the partial vapour pressure P
= A
P Total
of each component is directly proportional to its own mole P0B PA
fraction in the solution at particular temperature.
PA = P0A . XA PB = PB0 . XB PB

And total vapour pressure is equal to sum of partial pressure, Ptotal = PA + PB

XA = 0 Mole Fraction XA = 1
XB = 1 XB = 0

TYPES OF SOLUTIONS
Ideal Solution
The solution which obeys Raoult’s law under all conditions of temperature and concentration and during the
preparation of which there is no change in enthalpy and volume on mixing the component.
Conditions :
PA = P A . XA
0
PB = P0B . XB
∆Hmix(enthalpy of mixing) = 0 (it means that no heat is absorbed or released)
∆Vmix (Volume of mixing) = 0 (it means that the volume of the solution is equal to the sum of the volume of
components). This is only possible if A-B interaction is same as A-A and B-B interaction nearly.
E.g. Benzene and Toluene, Chlorobenzene and Bromobenzene
Very dilute solution exhibit ideal behavior to greater extent.
Non-Ideal Solution
When a solution does not obey Raoult’s law for all concentration and temperature ranges.
May show positive or negative deviation from Raoult’s law.
(a) PA ≠ P0A . XA (b) PB ≠ P0B . XB (c) ∆Hmix ≠ 0 (d) ∆Vmix ≠ 0
For non-ideal solution the A-B interaction is different from A-A and B-B interactions
(i) For solution showing positive deviation
PA > PA0 . XA , PB > PB0 . XB
∆Hmix = Positive, ∆Vmix = Positive (A-B interaction is weaker than A-A and B-B)
E.g. alcohol and water, aectone and benzene.
(ii) For the solution showing negative deviation
PA < PA . XA , PB < PB . XB , ∆Hmix= negative, ∆Vmix= negative(A-B interaction is stronger than A-A and B-B
0 0

interactions). E.g.: Chloroform and acetone, HCl and water

AZEOTROPES
The mixture of liquids at particular composition that has a constant boiling point and behaves like a single
liquid and cannot be separated by simple distillation. Azeotropes are of two types :
• Minimum boiling Azeotrope (mixture which shows positive deviations) example: alcohol and water.
• Maximum boiling Azeotrope (which shows negative deviations) example: acetone and chloroform.

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 Biomolecules CH AP T ER :10

CARBOHYDRATES
Carbohydrates are defined as optically active polyhydroxy aldehydes or polyhydroxy ketones or the
compounds which can be hydrolysed to them.

Classification of Carbohydrates

Monosaccharides Oligosaccharides Polysaccharides

• Simplest carbohydrates • Carbohydrates which give 2 • Carbohydrates which on
• Cannot be hydrolysed into to 10 monosaccharide units hydrolysis give large number
simpler compounds on hydrolysis of monosaccharide units.
• E.g., Glucose, mannose • E.g, Sucrose, Lactose, Maltose • E.g. Cellulose, starch

PREPARATION OF GLUCOSE
H+
From Sucrose : C12H22O11 + H2O C6H12O6 + C6H12O6
Sucrose Glucose Fructose

H+
From Starch : (C6H10O5)n + nH2O nC H O
393K: 2.3 atm 6 12 6
Starch or cellulose Glucose

CYCLIC STRUCTURE OF GLUCOSE AND FRUCTOSE

O
H–C– OH H–C–H
1
HO –C–H
H–C–OH H–C–OH
2
H–C–OH
HO–C–H O HO–C–H
3
HO–C–H O
H–C–OH H–C–OH
4
H–C–OH
H–C H–C–O–H
5 H–C
CH2OH CH2OH
6 CH2OH
α-D-(+)-Glucopyranose D-(+)-Glucose β-D-(+)-Glucopyranose
1 CH2OH
1
1
HO–C2–CH2OH HOH2C–C2–OH
C–O
2
HO–C2–H O HO–C3–H O
HO– C–H
3
H–C –OH
4
H–C4–OH
H–4C4–OH
H–C3 H–C3
H–5C–O–H
C6H2OH C6H2OH
6
CH2OH
β-D-(-)-Fructo Furanose D-(-)-Fructose α-D-(-)-Fructo Furanose

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 DISACCHARIDES
A disaccharide (also called a double sugar or biose) is the sugar formed when two monosaccharides are
joined by glycosidic linkage. The linkage between two monosaccharide units through oxygen atom is
called glycosidic linkage.

Examples of Disaccharides
Sucrose (glucose and fructose) Lactose (galactose and glucose) Maltose (glucose and glucose)
CH2OH CH2OH H OH CH2OH CH2OH
CH2OH
O O O O O
H H H HO H H H H OH
H H O OH H H H
OH H H HO OH H H OH H OH H
HO O CH2OH H H H OH HO O H
O
H OH OH H H OH CH2OH H OH H OH

POLYSACCHARIDES
Polysaccharides contain a large number of monosaccharide units which are joined together by glycosidic
linkages. These are the most common carbohydrates found in nature which mainly act as the food storage.

Examples of Polysaccharides
Starch : Made up of water-soluble content amylose and water insoluble content amylopectin.
6
CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH
O 5
O O
H H H H H H
H H H
4 1 4 1 4 1
-O OH H O OH H O OH H O-
3 2
H OH H OH H OH

α-Link α-Link

Amylose

CH2OH CH2OH
O O
H H H H
H H
4 1 4 1
-O OH H O OH H
α-Link

H OH H OH
O Branch at C2
6
CH2OH CH2 CH2OH
O 5
O O
H H H H H H
H H H
4 1 4 1 4 1
-O OH H O OH H O OH H O-

H OH H OH H OH

α-Link α-Link

Amylopectin

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 Cellulose : It is the most important Glycogen : It is also known as animal starch
constituent of cell wall in plants. and is stored in animal body as glycogen.
CH2OH CH2OH
β1→ 4 Glycosidic Bond
O O
CH2OH
6 CH2OH
6 OH OH
H 5 O H 5 O ...O O ...O O
H H
O 4 1
O 4 1 O HO CH2 CH2OH HO CH2
OH H OH H
3 2 H 3 2 H O O O
H OH H OH
OH OH OH
β-D-Glucose β-D-Glucose n ...O O O O...
OH OH 7-11 OH

Cellulose Glycogen

PROTEINS
They are the complex organic substances which are the bases of protoplasm and are found all living
organism. They are polymers of amino acids.
Amino Acids: These are amino substituted carboxylic acids. α-amino acids are the building R–CH–COOH
blocks of peptides and proteins. NH2
Zwitter ion structure: O O
+
H2N–CH–C–O:H → H3N–CH–C–O:
R R
Zwitter ion
In acidic solution amino acids exists as cations and migrate towards cathode in an electric field whereas in
basic solution they exists as anions and migrate towards anode. At the intermediate pH, however, they exists
as zwitter ion (a dipolar ion) and do not migrate towards either electrode. The pH is known as isoelectric
point of ∝-amino acid.

Classification of Proteins
Based on their molecular shape, proteins are classified as:
Fibrous Proteins Globular Proteins
These proteins have fibre-like structure and are These proteins are formed when the chains of
formed when the polypeptide chains run parallel and polypeptides coil around to give a spherical shape.
are held together by hydrogen and disulphide bonds. These are usually soluble in water. Insulin and
Such proteins are generally insoluble in water. Some albumins are the common examples of globular
common examples are keratin (present in hair, wool, proteins.
silk) and myosin (present in muscles), etc.

CLASSIFICATION OF AMINO ACIDS BASED ON THEIR SYNTHESIS

IN OUR BODY
All proteins are polymers of ∝-amino acids. Proteins are the most abundant biomolecules of the living system.
They are required for growth and maintenance of body. The amino acids are the compounds containing at
least one amino (–NH2) and one carboxyl (–COOH) functional group. Based on the synthesis in our body,
amino acids are classified as: Essential and Non-essential Amino acids.

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 Chapter
Solutions 1
Word of Advice

Topics Found difficult By Students

 Calculation of molality and lowering of vapour pressure.
 Relation between elevation of boiling point and number of moles of solute in solution.
 Numerical problem based on elevation of boiling point, depression in freezing point.
 Van’t Hoff factor and degree of dissociation.
 Numerical problems of freezing point, van’t Hoff factor, degree of dissociation.
 Depression in freezing point and the freezing point of solution.
 Abnormal molecular weights and degree of dissociation.
 Numerical problems of relative molecular mass and mole, Van’t Hoff factor and its relation with
molecular weight, calculation of degree of dissociation
 Van’t Hoff factor and molecular weight
1. Most of the students calculated the molecular weight only but they forgot to calculate the Van’t Hoff
factor and did not state that acetic acid associates or dimerises in solution based on the value of Van’t
Hoff factor.
2. Majority of the students did not use ‘i’ to calculate osmotic pressure. Most of them wrote Van’t Hoff factor
= 2 instead of ‘3’ in spite of complete dissociation of solute being mentioned in the question.
3. A few students got confused and calculated molarity instead of molality.
4. Most of the students correctly calculated the value of elevation in boiling point i.e., ΔTb but in some cases,
to obtain the boiling point of solution, instead of adding the value of ΔTb to the boiling of solvent (373 K)
students subtracted the value of ΔTb and wrote the incorrect answer.
5. By using Raoult’s Law, the value of the lowering of vapour pressure of Po-P1 or ΔP can be calculated but
some of the students did not used the correct formula to calculate the value of the lowering of vapour
pressure of water.
6. Most of the students calculated the correct value of van’t Hoff factor ‘i’ but because of the wrong
substitution of values while calculating the degree of association (a), they got incorrect answers due to
which they lose half of their marks.
7. Most of the students used the correct formula for the calculation of molecular mass of non-volatile solute
by using osmotic pressure method but they did not substituted the correct values in the formula. Also,
most of the students did not converted the value of osmotic pressure from mm to atm and the volume of
water from mL to L correctly and instead of taking the value of ‘R’ as 0.0821 they took it as 8.314.
8. Most of the students calculated the value of van’t Hoff factor correctly but a few students failed to calculate
the value of experimental molecular weight of NaCl.
9. Most of the students were not able to calculate the number of particles formed after ionisation of BaCl2
due to which they did the wrong substitution for the value of ‘n’ in the formula.
BaCl2 ———→ Ba2+ + 2Cl–, n = 3
Hence, the degree of dissociation of BaCl2 was not calculated correctly.
10. Most of the students calculated the correct value of van’t Hoff factor (i) and freezing point depression
(DTf) but some of the students added the value of ΔTf to 273 instead of subtracting this value from 273.
11. Most of the students calculated the value of van’t Hoff factor (i) correctly but some students failed to
calculate the value of degree of dissociation (α) for KCl.
12. Most of the students calculated the molecular weight of sucrose correctly but they wrote the incorrect
unit of molecular weight.

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50 | CBSE Question Bank Chemistry – XII
13. Most of the students did not gave the correct step-wise calculation for the calculation of molecular mass
of urea.
14. Most of the students did the calculation of elevation of boiling point (ΔTb) correctly but a few students
subtracted this value from boiling point of water instead of adding ΔTb to the boiling point of water to
obtain the correct boiling point of solution.
15. Most of the students wrote that i < 1 instead of i = 0.5 or ½. Experimental molecular weight = 2 × normal
molecular weight was also not mentioned by a few candidates.
16. Some of the students wrote that ideal solutions obey ‘Henry’s’ law instead of ‘Raoult’s’ law they wrote
correct answer that ideal solutions ‘do not’ form azeotropic mixtures.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. The molal freezing point constant of water is 1.86 4. For a dissociated solute in solution the value of
K kg mol–1. Therefore, the freezing point of 0·1M van’t Hoff factor is:
NaCl solution in water is expected to be: (a) Zero (c) Greater than one
(a) – 1.86°C (c) – 0.186°C (b) One (d) Less than one
(b) – 0.372°C (d) + 0.372°C Ans. (c) Greater than one
Ans. (b) – 0.372°C
Explanation :
Explanation : The Van’t Hoff factor (i) expresses how many
DTf = Kf × m × i ions and particles are formed (on an average) in
i = 2 (for NaCl → Na++ Cl−) a solution from one formula unit of solute. When
M = 0.1 molal solute particles dissociate in solution, i is greater
than 1 and when solute particles associate in
Kf = 1.86°C/molal
solution, i is less than 1.
where i is van’t Hoff constant/factor
5. A beaker contains a solution of substance ‘A’.
DTf = 2 × 1.86 ×0.1 = 0.372°C Precipitation of substance ‘A’ takes place when
Therefore, as DTf = Ti – Tf small amount of ‘A’ is added to the solution. The
now freezing point = 0 − 0.372°C = −0.372°C. solution is_________.  [NCERT Exemplar]
2. Of the following terms used for denoting (a) saturated (c) unsaturated
concentration of a solution, the one which does
(b) supersaturated (d) concentrated
not gets affected by temperature is:
Ans. (b) supersaturated
(a) Molarity (c) Normality
(b) Molality (d) Formality Explanation :
Ans. (b) Molality A supersaturated solution is one in which on adding
Explanation : small amount of solute at given temperature and
pressure the solute molecules does not dissolve
Molality is not affected by temperature as volume and precipitates.
is not involved in molality which changes with 6. The solubility of a gas varies directly with
temperature. Molality = Moles of solute/Weight of
pressure of the gas, is based upon:
solvent (kg).
3. The term homogenous mixtures signify that: (a) Raoult’s law
(a) Both composition and properties are uniform (b) Henry’s law
throughout the mixture. (c) Nernst’s distribution law
(b)  Its properties are uniform throughout the (d) None of the above
mixture. Ans. (d) None of the above
(c)  Its composition is uniform throughout the
mixture. Explanation :
(d)  Neither composition nor properties are Henry’s law states that : “the solubility of a gas
uniform throughout the mixture. in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial
Ans. (a) Both composition and properties are uniform pressure of the gas above the liquid.”
throughout the mixture. 7. The relative lowering of vapour pressure of a
solvent by the addition of a solute is:
Explanation :
(a) Proportional to the molarity of the solution
In homogeneous mixtures composition and (b) Proportional to the molality of the solution
properties both are uniform throughout the (c) Equal to the mole fraction of the solute
mixture. (d) Equal to the mole fraction of the solvent

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 Solutions | 51
Ans. (c) Equal to the mole fraction of the solute Explanation :
Explanation : Followings are the colligative properties :
Relative lowering of vapour pressure : The vapour 1. Relative Lowering of Vapour Pressure
pressure of a liquid is the pressure of the vapour 2. Elevation of Boiling Point
which is in equilibrium with that liquid. The 3. Depression of Freezing Point
vapour pressure of a solvent is lowered when 4. Osmotic Pressure
a non-volatile solute is dissolved in it to form a 11. Which of the following statements is false?
solution. The reduction of vapour pressure of [NCERT Exemplar]
solvent is given as (a) Two different solutions of sucrose of same
p' = X.p0 molality prepared in different solvents will
p' is vapour pressure of the solution. have the same depression in freezing point.
p0 is the vapour pressure of pure solvent (b) The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by
x is the mole fraction of solute the equation P = CRT (where C is the molarity
Relative lowering of vapour pressure is p'/p0 = X of the solution).
8. Which solution is isotonic to the blood?
(c)  Decreasing order of osmotic pressure for
(a) 0·75% by weight of NaCl approximately
0.01 M aqueous solutions of barium chloride,
(b) 0·99% by weight of NaCl approximately potassium chloride, acetic acid and sucrose is
(c) 0·90% by weight of NaCl approximately BaCl2 > KCl > CH3COOH > sucrose.
(d) None of the above (d)  According to Raoult’s law, the vapour pressure
Ans. (c) 0·90% by weight of NaCl approximately exerted by a volatile component of a solution
Explanation : is directly proportional to its mole fraction in
the solution.
The intracellular fluid of erythrocytes is a solution
of salts, glucose, protein and haemoglobin. A 0.9% Ans. (a) Two different solutions of sucrose of same
NaCl solution is said to be isotonic: when blood molality prepared in different solvents will
cells reside in such a medium, the intracellular have the same depression in freezing point.
and extracellular fluids are in osmotic equilibrium Explanation :
across the cell membrane, and there is no net influx
Depression in freezing point depends on the
or efflux of water. concentration (molarity) of solution and also on
9. The osmotic pressure of equimolar solution of solvent taken.
NaCl, BaCl and glucose will be in the order of: 12. Determination of correct molecular mass from
2
(a) NaCl > BaCl2 > Glucose Raoult’s law is applicable to:
(b) BaCl2 > NaCl > Glucose (a) An electrolyte in solution
(c) Glucose > NaCl > BaCl2 (b) A non-electrolyte in dilute solution
(d) NaCl > Glucose > BaCl2 (c) A non-electrolyte in conc. solution
Ans. (b) BaCl2 > NaCl > Glucose (d) An electrolyte in a liquid solvent
Ans. (b) A non-electrolyte in dilute solution
Explanation :
Osmotic pressure is a colligative property, and Explanation :
more the number of particles more the osmotic As Raoult’s law is applicable for a dilute
pressure. solution having non-electrolyte solute. Thus, the
p = iCRT determination of correct molecular mass from
Hence, the order is BaCl2 > NaCl > Glucose since Raoult’s law is applicable to a non-electrolyte in a
the concentration is same but i for BaCl2 is 3, NaCl dilute solution.
is 2 and glucose is 1. 13. The number of moles of solute present in 1000
10. Which of the following is not a colligative gm of the solvent is known as:
property? (a) Molarity (c) Normality
(a) Depression of freezing point (b) Molality (d) Mole fraction
(b) Elevation in boiling point Ans. (b) Molality
(c) Osmotic pressure Explanation :
(d) Modification of refractive index
The number of moles of solute present in 1000 gm
Ans. (d) Modification of refractive index (or 1 kg) of solvent is known as molality.

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52 | CBSE Question Bank Chemistry – XII
14. Which of the following 0·1 M aqueous solution (a) Water will flow from urea solution to glucose.
will have the lowest freezing point? (b) Urea will flow towards glucose solution.
(a) Potassium sulphate (c) Glucose will flow towards urea solution.
(b) Sodium chloride (d) There will be no net movement across the
(c) Urea membrane
(d) Glucose Ans. (d) There will be no net movement across the
membrane
Ans. (a) Potassium sulphate
Explanation :
Explanation :
As both the solutions are isotonic hence there is no
Urea and glucose do not dissociate in solution.
net movement of the solvent occurs through the
Sodium chloride gives two ions and potassium
semipermeable membrane between two solutions.
sulphate gives three ions per formula unit.
Therefore, the effective number of particles is 19. 12g of urea is dissolved in 1 litre of water and
maximum in potassium sulphate, and it shows the 68·4g of sucrose is dissolved in 1 litre of water. The
maximum depression in freezing point. lowering of vapour pressure in the first case is:
15. Colligative properties of the solution depends (a) Equal to second
on: (b) Greater than second
(a) Nature of solute (c) Less than second
(b) Nature of solvent (d) Double that of second
(c) Number of particles present in the solution Ans. (a) Equal to second
(d) Number of moles of solvent only Explanation :
Ans. (d) Number of moles of solvent only 12
Moles of Urea = = 0.2
Explanation : 60
Colligative properties: Those physical properties 68.4
Moles of Sucrose = = 0.2
of a solution which depend upon the number of 342
particles in a given volume of the solution or the Both are non-electrolyte hence lowering of vapour
mole fraction of the solute are called colligative pressure will be same.
properties. 20. Consider the Fig. and mark the correct option.
16. Solution that obeys Raoult’s law:
[NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Normal (c) Ideal Piston (A) Piston (B)
(b) Molar (d) Saturated
8 PM
Ans. (c) Ideal
Explanation :
A solution that obeys Raoult’s law is known as Concentrated
sodium
ideal solution. Since Raoult’s law only works for Fresh water
chloride
(A)
ideal solutions. An ideal solution is defined as one solution in
which obeys Raoult’s law for all concentration. water (B)

17. A liquid pair of benzene-toluene shows:

(a) Positive deviation from Raoult’s law (a) water will move from side (A) to side (B) if
(b) Negative deviation from Raoult’s law a pressure lower than osmotic pressure is
applied on piston (B).
(c) Practically no deviation from Raoult’s law
(b) water will move from side (B) to side (A) if
(d) Irregular deviation from Raoult’s law
a pressure greater than osmotic pressure is
Ans. (c) Practically no deviation from Raoult’s law applied on piston (B).
Explanation : (c)  water will move from side (B) to side (A) if a
A liquid pair of benzene-toluene shows practically pressure equal to osmotic pressure is applied
no deviation from Raoult’s law as they form on piston (B).
ideal solution. Raoult’s law is a law of physical (d) water will move from side (A) to side (B) if
chemistry, with implications in thermodynamics. pressure equal to osmotic pressure is applied
18. If 0.1 M solution of glucose and 0.1 M solution of on piston (A).
urea are placed on two sides of the semipermeable Ans. (b) water will move from side (B) to side (A) if
membrane to equal heights, then it will be correct a pressure greater than osmotic pressure is
to say that, applied on piston (B).

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 Chapter
d-and f-Block Elements 4
Word of Advice

Topics Found difficult By Students

 Transition elements and their properties.
 Reasoning questions of d block elements.
 The ionic size of La3+ and Lu3+.
 Chemical equations of inorganic compounds, extraction of copper, chemical equations of K2Cr2O7 and
KMnO4.
 General electronic configuration of inner transition elements
1. Some of the students were vague in their answers and did not explained the answer scientifically. They did
not mention that transition metal ions have vacant or partially filled d-orbitals due to which these compounds
exhibit paramagnetic behaviour.
2. Most of the students went wrong in explaining the increase in density of elements from titanium to copper by
using the word Lanthanoid contraction.
3. Most of the students were unable to give the correct explanation. They did not explained the behaviour of
K2Cr2O7 in presence of dilute and concentrated acidic medium.
4. Most of the students did not gave the correct explanation. Instead of attributing this nature of transition
elements to very similar atomic sizes of these elements to each other, they wrote vacant d-orbital.
5. Most of the students did not explain the concept of paired, unpaired electrons and d-d transitions but wrote
only the electronic configuration of Zn2+ and Cu2+ ions.
6. Most of the students did not gave the correct explanation. Instead of writing vacant d-orbital or presence of
active centre, they wrote unpaired electron or small size.
7. Most of the candidates could not explain the reason for the stability of Mn2+ towards oxidation to + 3 state.
8. Some of the students wrote that the formation of coloured ions by transition elements is due to ‘vacant d
orbital’ or ‘partially filled d orbital’ instead of ‘d-d transitions.’
9. Most of the students were not able to give the reason for Zr and Hf exhibiting similar properties.
10. Most of the students gave unbalanced partially balanced incorrect equations. They also wrote incorrect formulae
of products such as Mn(SO4)2 instead of MnSO4, Cr(SO4)3 instead of Cr2(SO4)3 and Fe2SO4 instead of Fe(SO4)3.
11. A few students wrote unbalanced chemical equations when lead sulphide is heated with hydrogen peroxide.
12. Most of the students did not write the correct electronic configuration of inner-transition elements and they
were not able to explain the term lanthanide contraction clearly.
13. When SO2 gas is passed through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution, the colour of the solution changes to ‘green’ but
some of the students wrote ‘red’.
14. Most of the students were not able to give clear explanations that which trivalent ion has maximum size in the
Lanthanoid series.
15. Most of the students were not able to give the correct explanations for the paramagnetic character of Cu2+ and
diamagnetic character of Cu+ as they did not write the correct electronic configuration of Cu2+ and Cu+.

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174 | CBSE Question Bank Chemistry – XII
Explanation : (c) Atomic radii of Zr and Hf are same because of
lanthanoid contraction.

General electronic configuration of lanthanoids is
(n – 2) f (1 – 14) (n – 1) d 0 – 1 2 1
ns therefore (n – 1) d and (d) In lanthanoid series the ionic radius of Lu3+ is
2
ns valence electrons show + 3 O.S. smallest.
52. Which element among the lanthanoids has the Ans. (a) La(OH)3 is less basic than Lu(OH)3.
smallest atomic radius? Explanation :
(a) Cerium (c) Europium La3+ → Lu3+ ionic radius decreases due to
(b) Lutetium (d) Gadolinium lanthanoid contraction therefore ionic character
Ans. (b) Lutetium of La(OH)3 to Lu(OH)3 decreases and covalent
character increases (Fajan rule), hence Lu (OH)3 is
Explanation : less ionic and provides less OH–, becomes less basic.
Due to lanthanoid contraction, the atomic radius Hence, La(OH)3 is more basic than Lu(OH)3.
decreases with the increase in atomic number. 55. Which of the following is the correct order
Therefore lutetium will have smallest atomic of arrangement of the first five lanthanides
radius among lanthanoids. according to atomic number?
53. The lanthanoid contraction is responsible for the (a) La, Ce, Pr, Nd, Pm
fact that: (b) La, Pr, Ce, Pm, Nd
(a) Zr and Y have about the same radius.
(c) La, Pr, Ce, Nd, Pm
(b) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state.
(d) La, Ce, Pr, Pm, Nd
(c) Zr and Hf have about the same radius.
(d) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state. Ans. (a) La, Ce, Pr, Nd, Pm
Ans. (c) Zr and Hf have about the same radius. Explanation :
Explanation : The first five elements of Lanthanides are:
Zr and Hf have about the same radius because of Lanthanum (La) – 57
the lanthanoid contraction. The steady decrease Cerium (Ce) – 58
in the size of the atoms and ions of the rare earth Praseodymium (Pr) – 59
elements is known as the lanthanoid contraction. Neodymium (Nd) – 60
Promethium (Pm) – 61
The atomic size or the ionic radii of the tripositive
56. Which property of actinoids cannot be explained?
lanthanide ions steadily decrease from La to
(a) Radioactive (c) Magnetic
Lu because of the electrons entering the inner
(b) Oxidation (d) Acidic
(n – 2) f orbitals and the increasing nuclear charge.
Ans. (c) Magnetic
This particular gradual decrease in the size with
an increasing atomic number is referred to as Explanation :
lanthanide contraction. Their magnetic properties cannot be explained
54. Which of the following statements is not correct? easily, as they are more complex. The 5f bands
(a) La(OH)3 is less basic than Lu(OH)3. formed due to 5f – 5f wave function overlap or to
hybridise with s, p or d electrons. As a result of
(b) La is actually an element of transition series the band formation, a wide variety of magnetic
rather than lanthanoids. phenomena may occur.

Assertion and Reasoning Based Questions

Directions: In the following questions, a statement of Reason (R): Because oxygen and fluorine are
assertion is followed by a statement of reason. Mark the highly electronegative elements, small in size and
correct choice as: strongest oxidising agents.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the Ans. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
correct explanation of assertion. is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not
the correct explanation of assertion. Explanation :
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false. A transition metal exhibits higher oxidation states
(d) Assertion is false, but reason is true. in oxides and fluorides because oxygen and fluorine
57. Assertion (A): A transition metal exhibits highest are highly electronegative elements, small in size and
oxidation state in oxides and fluorides. strongest oxidising agents. For example; Osmium
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 d-and f-Block Elements | 175
shows an oxidation state of +6 in OsF6 and vanadium filled in d- and f-orbitals. The screening effect of
shows an oxidation state of +5 in V2O5. f-orbital is lower than that of d-orbital. So nuclear
58. Assertion (A): Transition metals and many of their charge experienced by valence electrons in second
compounds show paramagnetic behaviour. and third transition series is more than that of the
first transition series. Therefore, force of attraction
Reason (R): Paramagnetism arises due to the
between nucleus and electrons is more. +2 and +3
presence of unpaired electrons with each electron
oxidation states are more common for elements in
having a magnetic moment associated with its
the first transition series, while higher oxidation
spin angular momentum and orbital angular
states are more common for the heavier elements.
momentum.
Ans. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason 61. Assertion (A): Generally, transition elements and
is the correct explanation of assertion. their salts are coloured due to the presence of
unpaired electrons in metal ions.
Explanation :
Reason (R): KMnO4 and Ce(SO4)2 are coloured.
Transition metals and many of their compounds Ans. (d) Assertion is false, but reason is true.
show paramagnetic behaviour which arises due
Explanation :
to the presence of unpaired electrons with each
electron having a magnetic moment associated KMnO4 is coloured due to the charge transfer and
with its spin angular momentum and orbital not because of the presence of unpaired electons.
angular momentum. However, in the first transition Similarly, oxidation state of Ce in Ce(SO4)2 is +4
series, the orbital angular momentum is quenched. with 4f° electronic configuration. It is also coloured
Therefore, the resulting para-magnetism is only (yellow) due to charge transfer and not due to
because of the unpaired electron. f – f transition.
59. Assertion (A): Transition metals and their many 62. Assertion (A): Transition metals have low melting
compounds act as good catalyst. points. [Board Question]
Reason (R): It is due to variable magnetic property. Reason (R): The involvement of greater number of
Ans. (c) Assertion is true, but reason is false. (n – 1)d and ns electrons in the interatomic metallic
bonding.
Explanation :
Ans. (d) Assertion is false, but reason is true.
Transition metals and their many compounds Explanation :
act as good catalyst because they have variable
valencies and show multiple oxidation states Transition metals have high melting points because
and transition metals sometime form unstable of the involvement of greater number of (n − 1)d and
intermediate complex which provide a new path ns electrons in the interatomic metallic bonding.
with lower activation energy for the reaction. Also, 63. Assertion (A): Transition metals have high melting
transition elements provide a suitable surface for point. [Board Question]
the reaction to take place. Reason (R): Transition metals have completely
60. Assertion (A): The enthalpies of atomisation of the filled d-orbitals.
elements in the first transition series are lower than Ans. (c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
those of the corresponding elements in the second Explanation :
and third transition series.
Reason (R): +2 and +3 oxidation states are more Transition metals have high melting points
because of the involvement of greater number of
common for elements in the first transition series,
(n – 1)d and ns electrons in the interatomic metallic
while higher oxidation states are more common
bonding.
for the heavier elements.
Ans. (b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason 64. Assertion (A): The lowest oxide of transition metal
is not the correct explanation of assertion. is basic, the highest is amphoteric/acidic.
Reason (R): The lower oxide of transition metal
Explanation : is basic because the metal atom has low oxidation
The enthalpies of atomisation of the elements in state whereas higher once are acidic due to high
the first transition series are lower than those of the oxidation state.
corresponding elements in the second and third [Hint: Oxides in lower oxidation states are ionic hence
transition series. This is because in first transition basic.]
series, electrons are filled only in d orbitals but in Ans. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
second and third transition series, electrons are is the correct explanation of assertion.

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176 | CBSE Question Bank Chemistry – XII
Explanation : (aq) than Cu+. In case of iodine, Cu+2 oxidises I– to
The lower oxide of transition metal is basic because I2. Thus, Copper(II) iodide is not known.
the metal atom has low oxidation state whereas 67. Assertion (A): The highest oxidation state is
higher once are acidic due to high oxidation state. exhibited in oxo-anions of a metal.
For example: MnO is basic whereas Mn2O7 is Reason (R): This is again due to the combination
acidic. Oxides in lower oxidation states are ionic of the metal with oxygen, which is highly
hence basic oxides whereas in higher oxidation electronegative and oxidising agent.
state are covalent hence acidic. Ans. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
65. Assertion (A): Cu cannot liberate hydrogen from is the correct explanation of assertion.
acids.
Explanation :
Reason (R): Because it has positive electrode
potential. Oxo metal anions have highest oxidation state,
Ans. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason example Cr in Cr2O72– has an oxidation state of
is the correct explanation of assertion. +6 whereas Mn in MnO4– has an oxidation state of
+7. This is because of the combination of the metal
Explanation : with oxygen, which is highly electronegative and
Copper (Cu) does not liberate hydrogen from strong oxidising agent.
acids because it has positive electrode potential 68. Assertion (A): The highest oxidation state of
only metals having negative electrode potential osmium is +8.
can liberate hydrogen gas.
Reason (R): Osmium is a 5d-block element.
66. Assertion (A): Cu II iodide is not known.
Ans. (b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason
Reason (R): Cu2+ oxidises I– to iodine. is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Ans. (a) 
Both assertion and reason are true and reason
Explanation :
is the correct explanation of assertion.
Osmium is a 5d-block element and the highest
Explanation :
oxidation state of osmium (Os) is + 8. This is
Cu2+ (aq) is more stable than Cu+ (aq) due to the
because of its ability to expand their octet by using
much more negative hydration enthalpy of Cu2+ its all 8 electrons (2 from 6s and 6 from 5d).

Case Based Questions

69. Read the passage given below and answer the and actinium. The latter metals are therefore
following questions: typically grouped with the f-block, rather than
The d-block metals are central within the periodic the d-block elements. Definitions aside, there is no
table and are at the core of numerous branches of question that the d-block elements at the centre of
inorganic chemistry, including material chemistry, the periodic table play a central role in the field of
applied biological and analytical sciences, and inorganic chemistry.
catalysis. The term ‘transition metal’ is still much In these questions, (Q. No. i-v), a statement of
used but this strictly excludes the group 10 assertion followed by a statement of reason
metals (Zn, Cd, and Hg) since IUPAC defines a is given. Choose the correct answer out of the
transition metal as an “element whose atom has following choices.
an incomplete d sub-shell, or which can give rise (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
to cations with an incomplete d sub-shell”. The is the correct explanation of assertion.
traditional picture of the d-block is often triads
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason
or three rows of metallic elements. The fourth
is not the correct explanation of assertion.
row (Ac, Rf–Cn) is often ignored by those of us
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
who teach inorganic chemistry courses, largely
because of the paucity of data and chemistry of (d) Assertion is false, but reason is true.
the elements from rutherfordium (Rf, Z = 104) (i) A
 ssertion (A): The atomic radii of second and third
onwards. And, of course, categorization of group row transition elements are almost same.
3 (Sc, Y, La and Ac) is ambiguous because of the Reason (R): The elements of second and third row
insertion of the f-block elements after lanthanum transition elements resemble much.

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 Chapter
Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 7
Word of Advice

Topics Found difficult By Students

 Out of 2-chloroethanol and ethanol which is more acidic
 Conversion of ethanol to ethanal.
 Isomers of alcohols
1. Most of the students wrote the correct product i.e., p-hydroxyazobenzene for the given chemical equation
but they did not mentioned the formation of the by-product, i.e., HCl when phenol is treated with ice cold
alkaline solution of benzene diazonium chloride.
2. Majority of the students wrote the correct balanced chemical equation for the reaction of diethyl ether
with phosphorous pentachloride but some of the students missed writing the by-product POCl3.
3. A few students did not mentioned the formation of by-product when ethyl alcohol is treated with thionyl
chloride .
4. Some of the students mentioned the name of the test only to distinguish between ethanol and dimethyl
ether. They did not write the complete observation. Most of the students used correct test i.e., Lucas test to
distinguish between propan-1-ol and propan-2-ol but some of them did not gave the correct observation
like the heating time and appearance of turbidity.
5. For Williamson’s synthesis, some of the students wrote the reactant sodium alkoxide as C2H5OH instead
of C2H5ONa. During this synthesis, ether is obtained as the main product but the by-product NaBr was
not mentioned by few students.
6. Most of the students were not able to write the Reimer-Tiemann reaction correctly, either the main
product was incorrect or in some cases by-product was missing
7. Most of the students did not write ZnO as a by-product during the preparation of benzene from phenol.
8. Most of the students did not write the complete reaction including the by-product for the preparation of
iodoform from ethanol. In some answer scripts, a few students wrote incorrect formula for iodoform.
9. Most of the students wrote the formula for salicylaldehyde as 4-hydroxybenzaldehyde instead of
2-hydroxybenzaldehyde which is formed during the preparation of salicylaldehyde from phenol.
10. Majority of the students did not write the by-product Mg(OH)Br and H2O for hydrolysis for the formation
of Propan-2-ol from Grignard reagent.
11. Most of the students did not write that phenol reacts with concentrated HNO3 in the presence of
concentrated H2SO4 to form picric acid. Also, a few students did not write that water molecule are
released as the by-product during the reaction.
12. Some of the students wrote the incorrect reactants used in the preparation of ethyl chloride from diethyl
ether. They wrote Cl2 instead of PCl5 or SOCl2.
13. Most of the students directly converted phenol to anisole instead of writing that phenol first reacts with
NaOH to form sodium phenoxide which further reacts with CH3Br to form anisole.
14. Some of the students did not read the question correctly and they wrote the chemical equation for Friedel
Crafts acylation instead of Friedel-Crafts alkylation. Also, some of the students who gave the correct
chemical equation did not mention the name of the catalyst used in the reaction.
15. Most of the students gave correct observations for the distinction between ethyl alcohol and secondary
propyl alcohol using Lucas test or Victor Meyer’s test but there were few students who wrote the iodoform
test which cannot be used for the distinction between ethyl alcohol and secodary propyl alcohol.
16. Some of the students mentioned that dimethyl ether will not react with PCl5.
17. Some of the students wrote the positive test for ethyl alcohol but did not write anything about dimethyl
ether.
18. Most of the students were able to write the structure of at least two ethers. However, a number of students
were not able to write the structure of branched chain ether.

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 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers | 271
Ans. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason (iv) Assertion: Anisole undergoes bromination
is the correct explanation of assertion. with bromine in absence of iron (III) bromide.
(ii) Assertion: Dehydration of secondary and
 Reason: Iron (III) bromide is used to catalyse
tertiary alcohols to give corresponding ethers
halogenation reaction of phenylalkyl ethers.
is not a productive reaction.
 Reason: Elimination does not compete with Ans. (b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason
ether formation reaction. is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Ans. (c) Assertion is true, but reason is false. (v) 
Assertion: Ethyl phenyl ether on reaction with
(iii) Assertion: Alkyl aryl ethers are cleaved at HBr forms phenol and ethyl bromide.
the alkyl-oxygen bond when reacted with
 Reason: Cleavage of C–O bond takes place
hydrogen halides.
on ethyl-oxygen bond due to the more stable
Reason: Aryl oxygen bond are more stable.
Ans. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason phenyl-oxygen bond.
is the correct explanation of assertion. Ans. (c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.

Definitions

48. What is rectified spirit?

Ans. Ethyl alcohol at 95% concentration is called rectified spirit.

IUPAC Nomenclature

49. Write the IUPAC names of the following (ii) C2H5 — O — CH — C2H5
compounds : [Board Question] CH3
CH3
Ans. (i) 2-Methylpropan-1-ol
(i) CH3 — C — CH2 — CH2 — OH (ii) 2 methoxy3methylbutane
CH3 52. Write IUPAC name of the following compounds:
(ii) CH3 — CH = CH — CH — CH2 — CH3 (i) CH3 — CH — CH — CH — CH — CH3

OH CH2 OH C2H5 OH
NO2

(iii) CH2 — CH2 — OH

Ans. (i) 3, 3-Dimethylbutan-1-ol. (ii)

(ii) Hex-4-en-2ol OCH3
(iii) 2-Phenyl ethanol.
Ans. (i) 3-Ethyl-5-methylhexane-2, 4-diol
50. Write the IUPAC name of : [Board Question]
(ii) 1-Methoxy-3-nitrocyclohexane.
OC2H5
53. Write IUPAC names of the following compounds :
(i) CH3 — C — OH CH3
CH3 (i) CH3 — CH — CH — C — CH3
(ii) C2H5 — O — CH — C2H5
CH3 OH CH3
CH3 (ii) H3C — CH — CH2 — CH — CH — CH2 — CH3
Ans. (i) 2-Ethoxy-propan-2-ol OH OH C2H 5
(ii) 2-Ethoxybutane.
(iii) CH3 — CH — CH — CH3
51. Write the IUPAC name of the following
compounds: [Board Question] OH OH
(i) CH3 — CH — CH2 — OH (iv) HO — CH2 — CH — CH2 —OH

CH3 OH

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272 | CBSE Question Bank Chemistry – XII
CH3 (v) H 3C CH3
OH
(v)

CH3 OC2H5

(vi)
(vi)

OC2H5
OH
Ans. (i) 1-Ethoxy-2-methylpropane
CH3
(ii) 2-Chloro-1-methoxyethane
(iii) 4-Nitroanisole
(vii)
(iv) 1-Methoxypropane
OH (v) 4-Ethoxy-1-dimethyl cyclohexane
CH3 (vi) Ethoxybenzene.
CH3 55. Name the following compounds according to
OH IUPAC system:
CH2OH
(viii)
CH3 (i) CH3 — CH2 — CH — OH — CH — CH3

(ix) CH3 — O — CH2 — CH —CH3 CH2Cl CH3

CH3 CH2OH

(x) C6H5 — O — C2H5 (ii) CH3 — CH — CH2 — CH — C — CH3

(xi) C6H5 — I — C7H15 (n –) CH3 OH
(xii) CH3 — CH2 — O — CH — CH2 — CH3 OH
CH3

Ans. (i) 2, 2, 4-Trimethylpentan-3-ol (iii)

(ii) 5-Ethylheptan-2, 4-diol Br
(iii) Butane-2, 3-diol (iv) H2C = CH — CH — CH2 — CH2 — CH3
(iv) Propane-1, 2, 3-triol OH
(v) 2-Methylphenol (v) CH3 — C = C — CH2OH
(vi) 4-Methylphenol
CH3 Br
(vii) 2, 5-Dimethylphenol
Ans. (i) 3-Chloromethyl-2-isopropylpentan-1-ol
(viii) 2, 6-Dimethylphenol
(ii) 2, 5-Dimetylhexane-1, 3-diol
(ix) 1-methoxy-2 methyl propane (iii) 3-Bromocyclohexanol
(x) Ethoxybenzene (iv) Hex-1-en-3-ol
(xi) 1-phenoxyheptane (v) 1-Bromo-3-methylbut-2-en-1-ol
(xii) 2-Ethoxybutane. 56. Write the IUPAC name of the following :
54. Give IUPAC names of the following ethers:
 [Board Question]
(i) C2H5OCH2 — CH — CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3 — C — CH — CH3
(ii) CH3OCH2CH2Cl C2H5 OH
(iii) O2N — C6H4 — OCH3(p) Ans. The IUPAC name would be 3, 3-Dimethyl-pentan-
(iv) CH3CH2CH2OCH3 2-ol.

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 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers | 273
57. Write the IUPAC name of the following compound:
 [Board Question]
H3C — C = C — CH2 — OH

CH3 Br
4 3 2 1
Ans. H3C — C = C — CH2 — OH

CH3 Br
2-bromo-3-methyl-but-2-en-1-ol
58. Write the IUPAC name of the following compound.
 [Board Question]
CH = CH — CH2 — H

CH = CH — CH2 — H
1-Phenylprop-1-en-3-ol
Ans.

59. Write structures of the compounds whose IUPAC names are as follows: [Board Question]
(i) 2-Methylbutan-2-ol
(ii) 1-Phenylpropan-2-ol
(iii) 3, 5-Dimethylhexane-1, 3, 5-triol
(iv) 2, 3-Diethylphenol
(v) 1-Ethoxypropane
(vi) 2-Ethoxy-3-methylpentane
(vii) Cyclohexylmethanol
(viii) 3-Cyclohexylpentan-3-ol
(ix) Cyclopent-3-en-1-ol
(x) 3-Chloromethylpentan-1-ol.
OH
1 2 3 4
Ans. (i) CH3 — C = CH2 — CH3

CH3
OH
1 3
2
(ii) CH2 — CH — CH3

OH
or C6H5 — CH2 = CH — CH3

OH OH
1 2 3 4 6
5
(iii) OH — CH2 — CH2 — C — CH2 — C — CH3

CH3 CH3
OH
1
C 2H 5
2
(iv)
3
C2H 5
1 2 3
(v) CH3 — CH2 — O — CH2 — CH2 — CH3

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 Sample Question Paper
Chemistry [Theory (043)]
Time : 3 Hr.  Max. Marks : 70

General Instructions :
1. There are 33 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
2. Section A consists of 16 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
3. Section B consists of 5 short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
4. Section C consists of 7 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
5. Section D consists of 2 case-based questions carrying 4 marks each.
6. Section E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
7. All questions are compulsory.
8. Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed.

Section - A
The following questions are multiple -choice questions with one correct answer. Each question carries
1 mark. There is no internal choice in this section.
1. Which of the following solutions will have the highest conductivity at 298 K?
(a) 0.01 M HCl solution (c) 0.01 M CH3COOH solution
(b) 0.1 M HCl solution (d) 0.1 M CH3COOH solution
O
dil NaOH ||
2. A + B → CH = CH—C

Identify A and B:
(a) A = 1-phenylethanal, B = Acetophenone
(b) A = Benzophenone, B = Formaldehyde
(c) A = Benzaldehyde, B = Acetophenone
(d) A = Benzophenone, B = Acetophenone
3. The vitamins which can be stored in our body are:
(a) Vitamin A, B, D and E (c) Vitamin A, B, C and D
(b) Vitamin A, C, D and K (d) Vitamin A, D, E and K
4. What is IUPAC name of the ketone A, which undergoes iodo form reaction to give CH3CH = C(CH3)
COONa and yellow precipitate of CHI3 ?
(a) 3-Methylpent-3-en-2-one (c) 2, 3-Dimethylethanone
(b) 3-Methylbut-2-en-one (d) 3-Methylpent-4-one
5. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) In haloarenes, the electron pairs on halogen atom are in conjugation with π-electrons of the ring.
(b) The carbon-magnesium bond is covalent and non-polar in nature .
(c) During SN1 reaction, the carbocation formed in the slow step being sp2 hybridised is planar.
(d) Out of CH2 = CH—Cl and C6H5CH2Cl, C6H5CH2Cl is more reactive towards SN1 reaction
6. Match the properties with the elements of 3d series:
(i) lowest enthalpy of atomisation (p) Sc
(ii) shows maximum number of oxidation states (q) Mn

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 Sample Question Paper | 415
(iii) transition metal that does not form coloured compounds (r) Zn
(s) Ti
(a) (i) (r), (ii) (q), (iii) (p) (c) (i) (p), (ii) (q), (iii) (r)
(b) (i) (r), (ii) (s), (iii) (p) (d) (i) (s), (ii) (r), (iii) (p)
7. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) Molecularity of reaction can be zero or a fraction.
(b) Molecularity has no meaning for complex reactions.
(c) Molecularity of a reaction is an experimental quantity
(d) Reactions with the molecularity three are very rare but are fast.
8. In which of the following solvents, the C4H8NH 3X– is soluble:
(a) ether (c) water
(b) acetone (d) bromine water
9. Which of the following observation is shown by 2-phenyl ethanol with Lucas reagent?
(a) Turbidity will be observed within five minutes
(b) No turbidity will be observed
(c) Turbidity will be observed immediately
(d) Turbidity will be observed at room temperature but will disappear after five minutes.
10. If the initial concentration of substance A is 1.5 M and after 120 seconds the concentration of substance A
is 0.75 M, the rate constant for the reaction if it follows zero-order kinetics is:
(a) 0.00625 mol L–1s–1 (c) 0.00578 mol L–1s–1
(b) 0.00625 s–1 (d) 0.00578 s–1
11. Anisole undergoes bromination with bromine in ethanoic acid even in the absence of iron(III) bromide
catalyst:
(a) Due to the activation of benzene ring by the methoxy group.
(b) Due to the deactivation of benzene ring by the methoxy group.
(c) Due to the increase in electron density at ortho and para positions
(d) Due to the formation of stable carbocation .
12. The trend of which property is represented by the following graph?
19
18
17
Radius/nm

16
15
14
13
12
Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn
(a) ionization enthalpy (c) enthalpy of atomization
(b) atomic radii (d) melting point
For Visually Challenged Learners:
12. Which of the following is not considered a transition element?
(a) Scandium (c) Vanadium
(b) Silver (d) Zinc
13. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Alcohols react both as nucleophiles and electrophiles.
Reason (R): The bond between C–O is broken when alcohols react as nucleophiles. Select the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

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416 | CBSE Question Bank Chemistry – XII
14. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Strong oxidising agents oxidise toluene and its derivatives to benzoic acids.
Reason (R): It is possible to stop the oxidation of toluene at the aldehyde stage with suitable reagents.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
15. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
Assertion: Enzymes are very specific for a particular reaction and for a particular substrate.
Reason: Enzymes are biocatalysts.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
16. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
Assertion (A): During electrolysis of aqueous copper sulphate solution using copper electrodes hydrogen
gas is released at the cathode.
Reason (R): The electrode potential of Cu2+/Cu is greater than that of H+/H2
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Section - B
This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in one question. The following questions are
very short answer type and carry 2 marks each.
17. (a) Radioactive decay follows first order kinetics. The initial amount of two radioactive elements X
and Y is 1 gm each. What will be the ratio of X and Y after two days if their half-lives are 12 hours
and 16 hours respectively?
(b) The hypothetical reaction P + Q → R is half order w.r.t. ‘P’ and zero order w.r.t. ‘Q’. What is the
unit of rate constant for this reaction?
18. A 5% solution of Na2SO4.10H2O (MW = 322) is isotonic with 2% solution of non-electrolytic, non-volatile
substance X. Find out the molecular weight of X.
19. (a) Arrange the isomeric dichlorobenzene in the increasing order of their boiling point and melting
points.
(b) Explain why the electrophilic substitution reactions in haloarenes occur slowly and require more
drastic conditions as compared to those in benzene.
20. (a) Out of p-tolualdehyde and p-nitrobenzaldehyde, which one is more reactive towards nucleophilic
addition reactions, why?
(b) Write the structure of the product formed when acetone reacts with 2, 4 DNP reagent .
OR
Convert the following:
(a) Benzene to m-nitrobenzaldehyde
(b) Bromobenzene to benzoic acid
21. (a) DNA fingerprinting is used to determine paternity of an individual. Which property of DNA helps
in the procedure?
(b) What structural change will occur when a native protein is subjected to change in pH?

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 2024 Board Paper
Chemistry
Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum marks : 70

General Instructions :
Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :
(i) This question paper contains 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question paper is divided into Five sections: Section A, B, C, D and E.
(iii) Section A : question number 1 to 16 are multiple choice type questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
(iv) Section B : question number 17 to 21 are very short answer type questions. Each question carries 2
marks.
(v) Section C : question number 22 to 28 are short answer type questions. Each question carries 3 marks.
(vi) Section D : question number 29 and 30 are case-based questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
(vii) Section E : question number 31 to 33 are long answer type questions. Each question carries 5 marks.
(viii) There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided
in few questions in all the Sections except Section A.
(ix) Kindly note that there is a separate question paper for Visually Impaired candidates.
(x) Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

SECTION – A 4. Rosenmund reduction is used for the

Question No. 1 to 16 are Multiple Choice type preparation of Aldehydes. The catalyst used in
questions carrying 1 mark each. this reaction is : [1]
1. The molar ionic conductivities of Ca2+ and Cl– (a) Pd – BaSO4
2 –1
are 119.0 and 76.3 S cm mol respectively. The (b) Anhydrous AlCl3
value of limiting molar conductivity of CaCl2 (c) Iron(III) oxide
will be : [1]
(d) HgSO4
2
(a) 195.3 S cm mol –1
5. Which alkyl halide from the given options will
(b) 43.3 S cm2 mol–1 undergo SN1 reaction faster? [1]
(c) 314.3 S cm2 mol–1 (a) (CH ) C—Br 3 3
(d) 271.6 S cm2 mo1–1 (b) (CH3)2CH—Br
2. Consider the following reaction:
(c) CH3—CH2—Br
H H
\ \  (d) (CH3)3C—CH2—Br
C = O + C = O + Conc. KOH A+B
6. From the elements of 3d series given below,
\

H H
which element shows the maximum number
Identify A and B from the given options: [1] of oxidation states? [1]
(a) A — Methanol, B — Potassium formate (a) Scandium
(b) A — Ethanol, B — Potassium formate (b) Manganese
(c) A — Methanal, B — Ethanol (c) Chromium
(d) A — Methanol, B — Potassium acetate (d) Titanium
3. Which of the following acids represents 7. The correct mathematical expression of
Vitamin C? [1] Arrhenius equation is [1]

(a) Saccharic acid (c) Ascorbic acid (a) k = –AeEa/RT (c) k = Ae–Ea/RT
(b) Gluconic acid (d) Benzoic acid (b) k = eEa/RT (d) k = –Ae– Ea/RT

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 2024 Board Paper | 421
8. Identify the tertiary amine from the following: 12. The general electronic configuration of d-block
[1] elements is: [1]
CH3 l–10
(a) (n – 1) d ns 1–2
|
(a) CH3—N—CH3 (b) (n – 1) dl0 ns1–2
(c) (n – 1) d10ns2–3
(b) CH3—CH—CH3
| (d) (n – 1) d0ns1–2
NH2 13. Assertion (A) : p-nitrophenol is less acidic than
phenol.
(c) CH3 — NH — CH2 — CH3
Reason (R) : Nitro group is electron withdrawing
(d) (C2H5)2CHNH2

and helps in the stabilisation of p-nitrophenoxide
9. Nucleophilic addition of Grignard reagent to ion.[1]
ketones followed by hydrolysis with dilute
14. Assertion (A) : Benzoic acid does not undergo
acids forms: [1]
Friedel-Crafts reaction.
(a) Alkene
Reason (R) : Carboxyl group is deactivating and
(b) Primary alcohol the catalyst aluminium chloride gets bonded to
(c) Tertiary alcohol the carboxyl group.[1]
(d) Secondary alcohol 15. Assertion (A) : Fructose is a reducing sugar.
10. In a given graph of zero order reaction, the Reason (R) : Fructose does 'not reduce Fehling
slope and intercept are: [1] solution and Tollen's reagent. [1]
16. Assertion (A): For a Daniell cell, Zn/Zn2+(1M)
II Cu2+ (1M)/Cu with E°cell = 1.1 V, if the external
Concentration of R

opposing potential is more than 1.1 V, the

electrons flow from Cu to Zn.
Reason (R) : Cell acts like a galvanic cell. [1]

SECTION – B
O Time 17. Define the following terms:
(a) Slope = k, Intercept = [R]0 (a) Order of a reaction
(b) Slope = –k, Intercept = [R]0 (b) Activation energy [2 × 1]
(c) Slope = k/2.303, Intercept = ln[R]0 18. 18 g of a non-volatile solute is dissolved in
(d) Slope = –k/2.303, Intercept = ln A 200 g of H2O freezes at 272.07 K. Calculate the
11. Match the reagents required for the given molecular mass of solute (Kf for water = 1.86 K
reactions:  [1] kg mo1–1)  [2]
19. (a) Which compound in the given pair would
I. Oxidation of (p) NaBH4
undergo SN2 reaction at a faster rate and
primary alcohols
why?
to aldehydes
II. Butan-2-one to (q) 85% phosphoric CH3 — CH2 — I and CH3 — CH2 — Br
Butan-2-ol acid at 440 K (b) Arrange the following compounds in the
III. Bromination of (r) PCC increasing order of their boiling points:
Phenol to 2, 4, 
Butane, 1-Bromobutane, 1-Iodobutane,
6-tribromophenol 1-Chlorobutane  [2 × 1]
IV. Dehydration of (s) Bromine water 20. 
(a) 
Write the stepwise mechanism of
propan-2-ol to nucleophilic addition reactions in the
propene carbonyl compounds.  [2]
(a) I – (r), II – (p), III – (s), IV – (q) OR
(b) I – (q), II – (r), III – (p), IV – (s) (b) How will you convert the following:

(c) I – (s), II – (q), III – (p), IV – (r) (i) Toluene to benzoic acid.
(d) I – (p), II – (s), III – (r), IV – (q) (ii) Ethanol to 3-hydroxybutanal [2 × 1]

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422 | CBSE Question Bank Chemistry – XII
21. (a) What happens when glucose reacts with of haloarenes towards nucleophilic
bromine water ? Write chemical equation. substitution reactions. Give reason to
(b) Two bases are mentioned below, identify explain the above statement.
which is present in DNA and which one is (c) 
What happens when ethyl chloride
present in RNA: is treated with alcoholic potassium
(i) Thymine, (ii) Uracil.  [2 × 1] hydroxide?  [3 × 1]
SECTION–C 28. Show that the time required for 99.9%
completion in a first order reaction is 10 times
22. (a) Draw the geometrical isomers of the given
of half-life (t1/2) of the reaction [log 2 = 0.3010,
complex:
log 10 = 1]. [3]
[Pt(en)2Cl2]2+
 rite the electronic configuration for d4
(b) W SECTION–D
ion if D0 < P on the basis of crystal field
The following questions are case-based
theory. questions. Read the case carefully and answer
(c) 
What is meant by a unidentate ligand? the questions that follow.
Give an example.  [3 × 1] 29. The nature of bonding, structure of the
coordination compound can be explained to
23. Calculate emf of the following cell at 25 °C:
some extent by valence bond theory. The central
Sn/Sn2+(0.001M)||H+(0.01M)|H2(g)(1bar)| Pt(s) metal atom/ion makes available a number of
Given: E°(Sn2+/Sn)= –0.14 V, E°H+/H2= 0.00 V vacant orbitals equal to its coordination number.
(log 10 = 1) [3] The appropriate atomic orbitals (s, p and d) of
24. Write chemical equations for the following the metal hybridise to give a set of equivalent
orbitals of definite geometry such as square
reactions : (Do any three) [3 × 1]
planar, tetrahedral, octahedral and so on. A
(a) Hydroboration-oxidation reaction strong covalent bond is formed only when the
(b) Williamson synthesis orbitals overlap to the maximum extent. The
(c) Friedel-Crafts alkylation of anisole d-orbitals involved in the hybridisation may
(d) Reimer-Tiemann reaction be either inner d-orbitals i.e. (n–1)d or outer
d-orbitals i.e. nd. The complexes formed are
25. (a) Give chemical tests to distinguish between
called inner orbital complex (low spin complex)
the following pairs of compounds:
and outer orbital complex (high spin cornplex)
(i) Phenol and Benzoic acid respectively. Further, the complexes can be
(ii) Propanal and Propanone paramagnetic or diamagnetic in nature. The
(b) Which one of the given compounds is a drawbacks of this theory are that this involves
stronger acid and why? number of assumptions and also does not
CH2FCH2CH2COOH or CH3CHFCH2COOH explain the colour of the complex.
Answer the following questions:
[2 × 1]
(a) Predict whether [CoF6]3– is diamagnetic or
26. Explain the following terms:
paramagnetic and why?
(a) Essential amino acids
[Atomic number : Co = 27] [1]
(b) Peptide bond
(b) What is the coordination number of Co in
(c) Denaturation [3 × 1] [Co(en)2 Cl2]+ ?[1]
27. (a) 
Write the IUPAC name of the given (c) (i) 
Write the IUPAC name of the given
compound: complex: [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]2+
Cl
(ii) Explain [Co(NH3)6]3+ is an inner orbital
or outer orbital complex. [2 × 1]
OR
Br
(c) 
Using valence bond theory, deduce the
(b) 
The presence of —NO2 group at ortho- shape and hybridisation of [Ni(NH3)6]2+
or para-position increases the reactivity [Atomic number of Ni = 28] [2]

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