X Revision Assignment
X Revision Assignment
SUBJECT – ENGLISH
QUESTION BANK
BOOK: FIRST FLIGHT
Chapter 1. A LETTER TO GOD
Q1. What were Lencho’s feelings when the hail stopped?
Q2. Why did the postmaster send a reply to Lencho’s first letter addressed to God.
Q3. What was Leneho’s pride and possession?
Q4. Describe Lencho’s qualities in light of his faith in God. Do you have faith in God like Lencho? Was
Lencho’s reaction towards post office employees’ right?
Q5. Lencho seemed to be an impulsive man who felt suddenly elated at the rainfall and later became sad to see
the destruction which the rain had caused. Did he lack of tolerance? Did he not have the courage to face the
challenges of life? Elucidate it discussing the values one must possess to face any type of situation.
POETRY SECTION
POEM 1 DUST OF SNOW
Q1. Simple moment proves to be very significant and saves rest of the day of poet from being wasted. Explain on
the basis of the poem ‘Dust of Snow”.
Q2. What do the crow and hemlock represent - joy or sorrow? What does the dust of snow that the crow shakes
off a hemlock tree stand for?
POEM 2. FIRE AND ICE
Q1. Today’s world is conflict ridden. People fight over various issues and there is no peace in the world.
Explain/Describe based on your reading of the poem ‘Fire’ and ‘Ice’.
Q2. What does ‘Fire’ and ‘Ice’ stand for and what is the general opinion regarding the world?
Q3. There are many ideas about how the world will ‘end’. Do you think the world will end some day? Have you
ever thought what would happen if the sun got so hot that it ‘burst’, or grew colder and colder?
POEM 5. AMANDA
Q1.‘Living with one’s head in the air’ is what Amanda epitomizes. Justify with examples from the poem.
Q2- How does Amanda tackle the nagging nature of her parents? Explain with examples from the poem. What
values does it portray about Amanda?
Q3- Amanda wants to be Rapunzel but she does not want to let her hair down. Does this show her solidarity or
obstinate nature?
3. िक्ष
ृ ारोपण को अत्यथधक िढािा दे ने हे तु ककसी समािार पत्र के ललए एक विज्ञापन तैयार करे ।
4.आपने एक नया िा र पाकक िनाया है। शहर के लोगो को आकवषकत करने के ललए एक विज्ञापन तैयार करे ।
punrwvi÷Á- 5
pRwQ~nw-pZ
1. आपके म हल्ले क मुख्य स़िक से ि ़ििे िािी स़िक की िाइटें िराब ह चुकी हैं। इस कारण रात में
आिे-िािे िाि ों क परे शािी का सामिा करिा प़िता है। इससे कई दु घमटिाएँ भी ह चुकी हैं। इिका
उल्लेि करते हुए ि क निमामण निभाग, र हतक के मुख्य स़िक निरीक्षक क पि निखिए।
2. आपके इिाके में नबििी की अघ नषत कटौती की िा रही है। परीक्षाएँ निकट ह िे के कारण छाि ों की
पढ़ाई में बाधा उत्पन्न ह रही है। नबििी निभाग के मुख्य अनभर्ोंता क पि नििकर कम से
नबििी काटिे का अिुर ध कीनिए।
3. आपके गाँ ि और उसके आसपास क ई डाकघर िहीों है। डाकघर की कमी का उल्लेि करते हुए अपिे
क्षेि में डाकघर ि ििे के निए निदे शक (डाकघर), मुख्य डाकघर ग ि माकेट िई नदल्ली क पि
निखिए।
4.आपके इिाके में ििापूनतम ठीक ढों ग से िहीों ह ती। पािी बहुत गोंदा आता है। इसकी नशकार्त करते हुए
िि निभाग के अनभर्ोंता क पि निखिए।
5. महँगाई की समस्या पर नचोंता प्रकट करते हुए नकसी दै निक समाचार-पि के सोंपादक क पि निखिए।
आप 125/4ए, िेस्ट सागरपुर नििासी आशीष शुक्ला हैं।
6. आपके शहर में स़िक ों पर आिारा पशु घूमते रहते हैं , निससे र्ातार्ात व्यिस्था में बाधा उत्पन्न ह ती है।
कई बार र्े पशु दु घमटिाओों का कारण बिते हैं। इि पर निर्ोंिण िगािे के उददे श्य से आप नकसी
समाचार-पि के सोंपादक क पि निखिए।
1. परोपकार का पररणाम विषय पर लगभग 120 शब्दों में एक लघु कथा ललखखए
2. जैसा करोगे िैसा भरोगे विषय पर लगभग 100 शब्दो की लघु कथा ललखखए
3. संगतत का फल शीषकक पर लगभग 100-120 शब्दो में एक लघक
ु था ललखखए
4. लोभ दख
ु का कारण शीषकक पर लगभग 100-120 शब्दो की एक लघुकथा ललखखए
punrwvi÷Á- 6
ग्ल बि िानमंग-मिुष्यता के निए ितरा
• ग्ल बि िानमंग क्या है ?
• ग्ल बि िानमंग के कारण
• ग्ल बि िानमंग के प्रभाि
• समस्या का समाधाि।
िर ह ि निराश कर मि क
• आत्मनिश्वास और सफिता
• आशा से सोंघषम में नििर्
• कुछ भी असोंभि िहीों
• महापुरुष ों की सफिता का आधार।
सबक भाए मधुर िाणी
• मधुर िाणी सबक नप्रर्
• मधुर िाणी एक औषनध
• मधुरिाणी का प्रभाि
• मधुर िाणी की प्रासोंनगकता।
म बाइि फ ि : सुिद ि दु िद भी
• निज्ञाि की अद् भुत ि ि
• फ ि ों की बदिती दु निर्ा में
• सोंचार क्षेि में क्राोंनत
• स्ता और सुिभ साधि
• िाभ और हानिर्ाँ।
समर् का महत्त्
अथिा
समर् चूनक िा पुनि पछतािे
• समर् की पहचाि
• समर् पर काम ि करिे पर पछतािा व्यथम
• समर् का सदु पर् ग-सफिता का स पाि
• आिस्य का त्याग।
punrwvi÷Á- 8
1. Coty Bwe~ ny ApnI pFŒwe~ kw twem-tyibl bnwqy smX #Xw-#Xw socw AOr iPr askw pwln #Xo< nhI<
kr pwXw ? Awp BI pFŒwe~ ky ilE twem-tyibl bnwqy hY< AOr askw pwln iks pRkwr krqy hY< ?
2.‘jIvn kI smJ ÛXwvhwirk AnuBv sy AwqI hY’ bVy Bwe~ swhb ky es ivcwr sy Awp khW qk shmq hY<?
3. bVy Bwe~ swhb AOyr Coty Bwe~ ky cirZ do-do ivSy†qwE> ilKo ijNho<ny Awpko pRBwivq ikXw [
4. ‘bVy Bwe~ swhb’ khwnI my< smUcI iS@w pRxwlI pr ÛX<^X ikXw gXw hY [ ápàt kry< AOr es my< suDwr ky
ilE suJwv dy< [
5. pFŒwe~ AOr iS@w ky pRiq bVy Bwe~ AOr Coty Bwe~ ky d÷iàtkox my< #Xw A<qr Qw [ dono< my< qwlmyl iks
pRkwr bYTwXw jw skqw hY [
6. suBw† bwbU ky julUs my< áZI smwj kI #Xw BUimkw QI ?
7.‘fwXrI kw Ek pNnw’ pwT Awpko dyS kI AwjŒwdI ky eiqhws ko pFŒny ky ilE iks pRkwr pRyirq krqw hY?
8. julUs ky lwl bwjŒwr Awny pr logo< kI #Xw dSw hue~ ?
9. pRym iksI Dm~~, jwiq AOr sImw kw pwb<d nhI< hoqw- ‘qqWrw-vwmIro kQw’ ky AwDwr pr ápàt kry< [
10. qqWrw ny Apny kõoD kw Smn krny ky ilE #Xw ikXw ? jb Awp ko kõoD Awqw hY qo asy Sw<q krny ky
ilE Awp #Xw krqy hY< ?
11. qqWrw AOr vwmIro ky cirZ kI ivSy†qwAo< kw vx~n kry< [
12. ‘SYly<dR ny rwjkpUr kI BwvnwAo< ko SÑd idE hY<’-es kQn sy Awp #Xw smJqy hY< ?
13. SYly<dR iPŒØm inmw~qw bnny ky sv~Qw AXo^X Qy, iPr BI ‘qIsrI ksm’ ankI Ad`Buq k÷iq QI [-kYsy ?
ápàt kry< [
14. smudR ky guásy kI #Xw vjh QI ? asny Apnw guásw kYsy inkwlw ?
15. kYsy kh skqy hY< ik lyKk kI mW ky mn my< pSu-pi@Xo< ky pRiq pRym Brw Qw ?
16. lyKk ny ^vwilXr sy b<be~ qk ikn bdlwvo< ko mhsUs ikXw ? pwT ky AwDwr pr ápàt kIijE [
17. bFŒqI hue~ AwbwdI kw pXw~vrx pr #Xw pRBwv pVw hY ?
18. pwT ky AwDwr pr ápàt kIijE ik dUsro< ky du:K sy du:KI hony vwly log km imlqy hY< [
punrwv÷iÁ – 9
1.s<swr my< suKI ÛXi#q kOn hY AOr duKI kOn hY ? kbIr jI swKI my<‘sonw’ AOr‘jwgnw’ iksky pRqIk hY<?
2. Apny ávBwv ko inm~l krny ky ilE kbIr jI ny #Xw apwX suJwXw hY ?
3. kbIr jI ny ApnI swiKXo< my< ikn nYiqk mUØXo< ko pRáquq ikXw hY ?
4. kbIr jI kI Bi#q kI ivSy†qwE> ilKo [
5. kbIr jI ky dohy ky AwDwr pr káqUrI kI apmw ko ápàt kIijE AOr kbIr jI kI Bw†w kI ivSy†qwAo<
kw vx~n kry< [
6. mIrw ny hir ko ankI @mqwAo< kw ámrx krwny ky ilE #Xw-#Xw d÷àtw<q idE hY< ?
7. mIrw ky kwÛX my< inihq Bi#q kI ivSy†qwE> bqweE [
8. mIrw ny ‰Ik÷àx kI su<drqw kw vx~n iks pRkwr ikXw hY AOr Apny pdo< my< ‰Ik÷àx jI ko #Xw-#Xw nwm
idE hY< ?
9. ‰Ik÷àx kI cwkrI krky mIrw ko kOn-kOn sy qIn lwB imly<gy ?
10. kiv ny kYsI m÷ËXu ko sum÷ËXu khw hY AOr #Xo< ?
11. mnuàXqw kivqw my< kiv #Xw s<dyS dynw cwhqw hY ?
12. ‘AiBàt mwg~’ iksy khw gXw hY AOr #Xo< ?
punrwv÷iÁ – 10
1. kQwvwck AOr hirhr kwkw ky bIc #Xw s<b<D hY AOr esky #Xw kwrx hY<?
2. smwj my< irÜqo< kI AhimXq hY ? hirhr kwkw pwT ky AwDwr pr aÁr dIijE [
3. Awm AwdmI kI Dm~ ky pRiq A<D-‰d`Dw ko Dm~ ky Tykydwr iks }p my< Bunwqy hY< ? TwkurvwrI ky mh<q
smwj ky pRiq ApnI ijŒMmydwrI ko inBw rhy Qy [ Eysy logo< sy bcny ky ilE Awp #Xw suJwv dy<gy ?
4. hirhr kwkw ky pRiq anky pirvwr ky ÛXvhwr pr Apny ivcwr iliKE AOr Xh BI bqweE ik bujugo~< ky
pRiq kYsw ÛXvhwr krnw cwihE ?
5. hirhr kwkw kI cupI kw #Xw kwrx Qw ? pirvwr AOr mh<q sy bcny ky ilE aNho<ny #Xw ikXw ? Awp ky
Anuswr hirhr kwkw kw Eysw krnw aicq Qw?
syvw ivKy
ipRMsIpl swihb,
………… skUl ,
………Sihr [
ivSw- ____________________________________[
SRI mqI jI,
bynqI hY ik ------------------------------------------------------
_______________________________________________________________-
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DMnvwd sihq[
Awp jI dw/dIAwigAwkwr,
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imqI------
SUBJECT – MATHEMATICS
1. Prove that √3 is irrational.
2. If it is given that √3 is irrational, what can you say about the number which is 3 more than twice of √3 ?
3. Katya has 49 paintings and 35 medals. She wants to display them in groups throughout her house, each
with the same combination of paintings and medals, with none left over. What is the greatest number of
groups Katya can display?
4.
5. If α and β are zeroes of the polynomial x2 +3x -3, find a polynomial whose zeroes are:
1 1
and 5𝛼+7𝛽
7𝛼+5𝛽
6. Find the values of α and β for which the following pair of linear equations has infinite number of
solutions:
2x + 3y = 7; 2αx + (α + β) y = 28
7. One says, “Give me a hundred, friend! I shall then become twice as rich as you.” The other replies, “If
you give me ten, shall be six times as rich as you.” What is the amount of their (respective) capital?
8. If the roots of quadratic equation (a – b) x2 + (b – c) x + (c – a) = 0 are equal, prove that ‘a’ is arithmetic
mean of ‘b’ and ‘c’.
9. Neeraj and Roshan went to a nearby pizza shop for lunch. The shop had a unique method for the price
allotment of pizza every day. The price of each pizza they prepare on a specific day is equal to 4 more
than twice the total number of pizzas they produced on that day. The total cost of production on that day
was 336 rupees. Frame the quadratic equation according to given situation.
10. State and prove Basic Proportionality Theorem.
11. In the given figure, ∠1 = ∠2 and ∆NSQ ≅ ∆MTR. Prove that ∆PTS ~ ∆ PRQ
12. If centroid of triangle ABC is (2,2 ), where A (2, k), B (k+2, 3) and C(1,2), find the value of k.
13. Determine the ratio in which the line 3x + y - 9 = 0 divides the segment joining the points (1, 3) and (2,7)
14. Prove that tan 45° = 1
15. Prove that: √𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝜃 = tan 𝜃 + cot 𝜃
16. A game consists of tossing a coin 3 times and noting the outcome each time. If getting the same result in
all the tosses is a success, find the probability of losing the game.
NOTE: Along with the questions mentioned above, revise the questions from Worksheets A and B of
all the chapters in the NCERT Mathematics Worksheet Booklet.
SUBJECT – SCIENCE
PHYSICS
CH -LIGHT
Q1) Focal length of a plane mirror is
(a) 0
(b) infinite
(c) 25cm
(d) -25
Correct Answer: Option (b)
Q2) The image shows the path of incident rays to a concave mirror.
Where would the reflected rays meet for the image formation to take place?
(a) behind the mirror
(b) between F and O
(c) between C and F
(d) beyond C
Correct Answer: Option (c)
Q3) An object is placed at a distance of 40cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 20cm.
The image produced is:
(a) virtual and inverted
(b) real and erect
(c) real, inverted and of the opposite size as that of the object
(d) real, inverted and of the same size as that of the object
Correct Answer: Option (d)
Q4) A student conducts an experiment using a convex lens. He places the object at a distance of 60 cm in front of
the lens and observes that the image is formed at a distance of 30 cm behind the lens. What is the power of the
lens?
(a) 0.005 dioptre
(b) 0.05 dioptre
(c) 5 dioptre
(d) 50 dioptre
Correct Answer: Option (c)
Q5) An image of an object produced on a screen which is about 36 cm using a convex lens.
The image produced is about 3 times the size of the object. What is the size of the object?
(a) 12 cm
(b) 33 cm
(c) 39 cm
(d) 108 cm
Correct Answer: Option (a)
Q6) Image formed by a convex spherical mirror is:
(a) virtual
(b) real
(c) enlarged
(d) inverted
Correct Answer: Option (a)
Q7) A student studies that a convex lens always forms a virtual image irrespective of its position. What causes
the convex mirror to always form a virtual image?
(a) because the reflected ray never intersects
(b) because the reflected ray converges at a single point
(c) because the incident ray traces its path back along the principal axis
(d) because the incident ray of a convex mirror gets absorbed in the mirror
Correct Answer: Option (a)
Q8) A 10 mm long awl pin is placed vertically in front pin is formed at 30cm in front of the
mirror. The focal length of this mirror is:
(a) -30cm
(b) -20cm
(c) -40cm
(d) -60cm
Correct Answer: Option (b)
Q9) Rahul conducts an experiment using an object of height 10 cm and a concave lens with focal length 20 cm.
The object is placed at a distance of 25 cm from the lens. Can the image be formed on a screen?
(a) yes, as the image formed will be real
(b) yes, as the image formed will be erect
(c) no, as the image formed will be virtual
(d) no, as the image formed will be inverted
Correct Answer: Option (c)
Q10) Magnification produced by a rear view mirror fitted in vehicles:
(a) is less than one
(b) is more than one
(c) is equal to one
(d) can be more than or less than one depending upon the position of the object in front of it
Correct Answer: Option (a)
Q.2. Assertion (A) : A ray passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror after reflection, is
reflected back along the same path.
Reason (R) : The incident rays fall on the mirror along the normal to the reflecting surface.
Answer(a)
Q.3. Assertion (A) : Light does not travel in the same direction in all the media.
Reason (R) : The speed of light does not change as it enters from one transparent medium to another.
Answer(c)
Q.4. Assertion(A) : The emergent ray is parallel to the direction of the incident ray.
Reason (R) : The extent of bending of the ray of light at the opposite parallel faces (air- glass interface and glass-
air interface) of the rectangular glass slab is equal and opposite.
Answer(a)
Q.5. Assertion(A) : A ray of light travelling from a rarer medium to a denser medium slows down and bends
away from the normal. When it travels from a denser medium to a rarer medium, it speeds up and bends towards
the normal.
Reason (R) : The speed of light is higher in a rarer medium than a denser medium.
Answer(d)
Q.6. Assertion(A): The mirrors used in search lights are concave spherical.
Reason (R) : In concave spherical mirror the image formed is always virtual.
Answer(c)
Q.7. Assertion(A) : Light travels faster in glass than in air.
Reason (R) : Glass is denser than air.
Answer(d)
Q.8. Assertion(A) : For observing traffic at back, the driver mirror is convex mirror.
Reason (R) : A convex mirror has much larger field of view than a plane mirror.
Answer(a)
NUMERICALS
Q1.AB and CD, two spherical mirrors, from parts of a hollow spherical ball with its centre at O as shown in the
diagram. If arc AB = 12 arc CD, what is the ratio of their focal lengths? State which of the two mirrors will
always form virtual image of an object placed in front of it and why?
Q2.The linear magnification produced by a spherical mirror is +3. Analyse this value and state the (i) type of
mirror and (ii) position of the object with respect to the pole of the mirror. Draw a ray diagram to show the
formation of image in this case.
Q3.A spherical mirror produces an image of magnification -1 on a screen placed at a distance of 50 cm from the
mirror.
(a) Write the type of mirror.
(b) Find the distance of the image from the object.
(c) What is the focal length of the mirror?
(d) Draw the ray diagram to show the image formation in this case
Q4.A student wants to project the image of a candle flame on a screen 48 cm in front of a mirror by keeping the
flame at a distance of 12 cm from its pole.
(a) Suggest the type of mirror he should use.
(b) Find the linear magnification of the image produced.
(c) How far is the image from its object?
(d) Draw ray diagram to show the image formation in this case
Q5. An object 60 cm from a lens gives a virtual image 20 cm in front of the lens. What is the focal length and
power of the lens. Is the lens converging or diverging?
Q6.A student took three concave mirrors of different focal lengths and performed the experiment to see the
image formation by placing an object at different distances with these mirrors as shown in the following table.
Now answer the following questions :
(a)List two properties of the image formed in Case I.
(b)In which one of the cases given in the table, the mirror will form real image of same size and why ?
©Name the type of mirror used by dentists. Give reason why do they use such type of mirrors.
or,
Look at the table and identify the situation (object distance and focal length) which resembles the situation in
which concave mirrors are used as shaving mirrors ? Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation in this
case
S. No.
i r e
Q8.The image of an object formed by a lens is of magnification -1. If the distance between the object and its
image is 60 cm, what is the focal length of the lens ? If the object is moved 20 cm towards the lens, where would
the image be formed ? State reason and also draw a ray diagram in support of your answer
The various angles are labeled in the image. Which angle shows the angle of incidence and angle of refraction,
respectively?
(a) A and D
(b) B and E
(c) C and F
(d) D and F
Correct Answer: Option (a)
Q6) The deflection of light by minute particles and molecules of the atmosphere in all directions is called
____________ of light.
(a) dispersion
(b) scattering
(c) interference
(d) tyndall effect
Correct Answer: Option (b)
Q7) Which of the following phenomena contributes significantly to the reddish appearance of the sun at sunrise
or sunset?
(a) Dispersion of light
(b) Scattering of light
(c) Total internal reflection of light
(d) Reflection of light from the earth
Correct Answer: Option (b)
Q8) Why do stars appear to twinkle at night?
(a) because the light of stars travels in different medium
(b) because the distance of star varies when earth rotates
(c) because the star changes its position relative to earth
(d) because the atmosphere reflects the light at different angles
Correct Answer: Option (a)
Q9) When white light enters a prism, it gets split into its constituent colours. This is due to
(a) different refractive index for different wavelength of each colour
(b) each colour has the same velocity in the prism.
(c) prism material has high density.
(d) Scattering of light
Correct Answer: Option (a)
Q10) When white light enters a glass prism from air, the angle of deviation is least for
(a) blue light (b) yellow light (c) violet light (d) red light
Correct Answer: Option (d)
Q11) The image shows the dispersion of the white light in the prism.
(a)
Correct Answer: Option (b)
Assertion-Reason
Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting
the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Q.1. Assertion(A) : White light is dispersed into its seven-colour components by a prism.
Reason (R) : Different colours of light bend through different angles with respect to the incident ray as they pass
through a prism.
Answer(a)
Q.2. Assertion(A) : The phenomenon of scattering of light by the colloidal particles gives rise to Tyndall effect.
Reason (R): The colour of the scattered light depends on the size of the scattering particles.
Answer(b)
Q3Assertion(A) : A rainbow is sometimes seen in the sky in rainy season only when observer’s back is towards
the Sun.
Reason (R) : Internal reflection in the water droplets cause dispersion and the final rays are in backward
direction.
Answer(a)
Q4.Assertion(A): Hypermetropia is the defect of the eye in which only farther objects are seen.
Reason (R) : Hypermetropia is corrected by using converging lens.
Answer(b)
Q.5 Assertion(A) : Danger signals are made of red colour.
Reason (R) : Velocity of red light in air is maximum, so signals are visible even in dark.
Answer(c)
GENERAL QUESTIONS
Q1.A person cannot see the objects distinctly, when placed at a distance less than 50 cm.
(a) Identify the defect of vision.
(b) Give two reasons for this defect.
(c) Calculate the power and nature of the lens he should be using to see clearly the object placed at a distance of
25 cm from his eyes.
Q2.A person needs a lens of power–2.5 dioptres for correcting his vision. Name the defect of vision he is
suffering from. Which lens will be using for the correction? Also, find the focal length of lens
Q3.If your eye glasses have focal length 60 cm what is your near point?
Q4.A certain person has minimum distance of distinct vision of 150 cm. He wishes to read at a distance of 25
cm. What focal length glass should he use? What is the nature of eye defect?
Q5.A 14 -year-old student is not able to see clearly the questions written of the blackboard placed at a distance of
5 m from him. a. Name the defect of vision he is suffering from?Draw the diagram to show this defect. Name the
type of lens used to correct this defect?
ELECTRICITY
Q1. The least resistance obtained by using 2 Ω, 4 Ω, 1 Ω and 100 Ω is
(a) < 100 Ω
(b) < 4 Ω
(c) < 1 Ω
(d) > 2 Ω
Q2. Two devices are connected between two points, say A and B, in parallel. The physical quantity that
will remain the same between the two points is-
(a) Current
(b) Voltage
(c) Resistance
(d)none of these
Assertion Reason based questions-
Directions: In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given and a corresponding statement
of Reason is given just below it. Of the statements, given below, mark the correct answer as:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Q3.Assertion: When the resistances are connected end-to-end consecutively, they are said to be in series.
Reason (R) : In case the total resistance is to be increased, then the individual resistances are connected in series.
Q4.Assertion (A) : The resistivity of a substance does not depend on the nature of the substance and
temperature.
Reason®:The resistivity of the substance is a characteristic property of the material.
General Questions/Numericals:
Q5.A wire has a resistance of 16 Ω. It is melted and drawn into a wire of half its original length. Calculate the
resistance of the new wire. What is the percentage change in its resistance?
Q6. Show how would you join three resistors, each of resistance 9 Ω so that the equivalent resistance of the
combination is (i) 13.5 Ω, (ii) 6 Ω .
Q7. Three resistors of 3 Ω each are connected to a battery of 3 V as shown. Calculate the current drawn from the
battery.
.
Q8.You have four resistors of 8 Ω each. Show how would you connect these resistors to have effective resistance
of 8 Ω?
Q9. Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit consisting of a battery of 3 cells of 2 V each, a combination of three
resistors of 10 Ω, 20 Ω and 30 Ω connected in parallel, a plug key and an ammeter, all connected in series. Use
this circuit to find the value of the following :
(a) Current through each resistor
(b) Total current in the circuit
(c) Total effective resistance of the circuit.
Case based Question:
Ohm’s law, description of the relationship between current, voltage, and resistance. The amount of steady
current through a large number of materials is directly proportional to the potential difference, or voltage, across
the materials. Thus, if the voltage V (in units of volts) between two ends of a wire made from one of these
materials is tripled, the current I (amperes) also triples; and the quotient V/I remains constant. The
quotient V/I for a given piece of material is called its resistance, R, measured in units named ohms. The
resistance of materials for which Ohm’s law is valid does not change over enormous ranges of voltage and
current. Ohm’s law may be expressed mathematically as V/I = R. That the resistance, or the ratio of voltage to
current, for all or part of an electric circuit at a fixed temperature is generally constant had been established by
1827 as a result of the investigations of the German physicist Georg Simon Ohm.
(a) A child has drawn the electric circuit to study Ohm’s law as shown in Figure 12.6. His teacher told that
the circuit diagram needs correction. Study the circuit diagram and redraw it after making all corrections.
(b) Find the resistance between points A and B in the circuit diagram given below:
(c) Draw the nature of V – I graph for a nichrome wire. (V – Potential difference, I – Current)
(d) A metallic wire of 625 mm length offers a 4 Ω resistance. If the resistivity of the metal is
4.8 × 10-7 ohm-metre then calculate the area of cross-section of the wire.
CHEMISTRY
DAY 1 CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS
1. What is a chemical reaction ? Describe one activity each to show that a chemical change has occurred in
which (i) change of colour, and (ii) change in temperature has taken place.
2.Study the experimental set-up shown in the diagram and write chemical equation for the chemical reaction
involved. Name and define the type of reaction. List two other metals which can be used in place of iron to show
the same type of reaction with copper sulphate solution.
3. Define a decomposition reaction. How can we say that (I) electrolysis of water, and (II) blackening of silver
bromide when exposed to sunlight, are decomposition reactions ? Mention the type of energy involved in each
case.
4. Define (a) Corrosion (b) Rancidity
5. Give two examples of redox reaction and mention the reducing and oxidizing agent in it .
5. "pH has great importance in our daily life". Explain by giving two examples.
6. Complete the statement
a) Dry litmus paper does not give any result with carbon dioxide because ……………….
b) Bulb glows when electricity is passed through an aqueous solution of potassium chloride
because……………….
DAY 3 & 4 Chapter 3 Metals and Non- Metals
1. An element forms an oxide A2O3 which is acidic in nature. Identify A as metal or non-metal.
2. A non-metal X exists in two different forms, Y and Z. Y is the hardest natural substance, whereas Z is a good
conductor of electricity. Identify X, Y and Z
3. Why is hydrogen gas not evolved when a metal reacts with dilute nitric acid ? Name the ultimate products
formed in the reaction.
4. If the three metals, X, Y and Z. X react with cold water, Y with hot water and Z with steam. Identify X, Y and
Z and also arrange them in order of increasing reactivity.
5. Give steps of formation of ionic bond in MgO and K2O
6. Write three properties of Ionic compounds.
BIOLOGY
Chapter- Life Processes
Q1. Where does filtration occur in nephron?
Q2. Leaves of a healthy potted plant were coated with Vaseline to block stomata. Will this plant stay healthy for
long? State reason for your answer.
Q3. What are the differences between Aerobic and anaerobic respiration? Name some organisms which follow
Anaerobic mode of respiration.
Q4.Describe the function of following Enzymes:
a) Trypsin
b) Bile
c) Pepsin
d) Lipase
Q5.Where are kidneys located in our body? Show the location of different parts of excretory system in man.
What is the importance of kidneys in our body?
Q6.What is composition of urine? Are glucose and proteins present in it? Why?
Q7. What is translocation? Why it is essential for plants? Where in the plants are the following synthesized?
a) Sugars b) hormones
Q8.a) Name the blood vessel that brings oxygenated blood to Human Heart.
b) Which chamber of human heart receives oxygenated blood?
c) Explain how oxygenated blood from this chamber is sent to all parts of body.
Q9. Explain the role of mouth in digestion of food.
Q10. Why does digestion of food mainly takes place in small intestine?
Q11. What is the role of:
a) Cartilagenous rings in trachea
b) Valves in veins.
c) Lymph
d) Villi in intestine
e) Xylem
f) Capillaries
Q12. Give reason:
a) Ventricles are thick walled and muscular than auricles.
b) Arteries are thick walled and elastic.
c)Stomata are in the epidermis of leaf.
d)In birds and mammals blood flows twice in heart.
Q2. ‘He led a peasant movement in Bardoli, against enhancement of land revenue.’ Identify him.
(i) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(ii) Vallabhbhai Patel
(iii) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(iv) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Q3. Which of the following does the symbol “crown of oak leaves” stand for?
(i) Freedom
(ii) Strength
(iii) Willingness to make peace
(iv) Heroism
Q5. Where was this cotton banner placed?
(i) Church of St. Paul
(ii) Frankfurt Parliament
(iii) Palace of Versailles
(iv) Palace of Tuilleries
Q7. There are two statements given below about the Print Revolution, marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
(i) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(ii) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(iii) A is correct and R is false.
(iv) A is false and R is correct.
Q8. How was Rowlatt Act of 1919 perceived in terms of fundamental rights and civil liberties by Indians?
(a) It was viewed as a regressive legislation in favour of the majority Indians.
(b) It was considered as severely curtailing the right of personal liberty.
(c) It was seen as a necessary measure to prevent communal tensions.
(d) It was regarded as a safeguard for protecting British soldiers.
Q9. The Indian masses willingly participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement, despite the challenges faced
during the Non-Cooperation Movement. Accordingly, which of the following quotes best reflects the outlook of
the masses?
(a) The greatest glory in living lies not in never falling, but in rising every time we fall.
(b) An eye for an eye only ends up making the whole world blind.
(c) Injustice anywhere is a threat to justice everywhere.
(d) Obedience is the key to a peaceful society.
Q10. Given below is the painting ‘Imperial federation-map of the World showing the extent of the British empire
in 1886.’ Observe the painting and answer the question that follows:
Which of the following elements depicted in the painting seem conflicting when presented together?
(a) The british soldiers and british colonies spread in both east and west.
(b) The variety of animals and costumed figures depicting countries and their people.
(c) Britannia, the personification of Britain seated on top of the world and the words federation written at the
top of the image.
(d) The words ‘freedom and ‘fraternity’ written at the top and Atlas depicting human labour, holding the
world upon his shoulders.
Q11.(i) The painting “The Dream of worldwide Democratic and Social Republics” was prepared
by whom?
(a) Giuseppe Mazzini
(b) Frederic Sorrieu
(c) Henry Patullo
(d) Duke Metternich
Q12. Who among the following has painted the image of Germania?
a) Nathaniel Currier
b) Philip Viet
c) Edward Bailey
d) Richard Saltonstall Greenough
14.1 How did Zollverein meet its goal of binding Germans economically.
14.2 How does a country become stronger?
Q15.Examine the significance and key milestones of the Civil Disobedience Movement that took place in India
during the struggle for independence
Q16.Explain the conditions that were viewed as obstacles to the economic exchange and growth by the new
commercial classes during the 19th century in Europe.
Q17. Explain any three ways in which nationalists feelings were kept alive in Poland in the 18th and19th
century.
Q18. How was history re-interpreted in creating a feeling of nationalism in India? Explain with examples.
[Foreign 2012]
Civics:
Power Sharing:
Q1. “Power sharing is the true spirit of democracy.” Justify
Q2. “Both Belgium and Sri Lanka are both democracies but they follow different systems of Power sharing.”
Give three points in support of your answer.
Q5. Explain the consequences of majoritarian policies followed by the Sri Lankan government?
Q6. Discuss the ethnic composition of Sri Lanka and Belgium.
Q7. What is majoritarianism? How was it imposed by the Sri Lankan government?
Federalism:
Q9. Why has federalism succeeded in India? Which policies were adopted by India to ensure this? Explain.
Q10. Describe the three fold distribution of legislative powers between the Union and State governments.
Q11. “Local governments has made a significant impact on Indian democracy. At the same time has face certain
challenges too.” Explain
Geography:
Resources and development:
1. Which region of India is known as the Basalt region?
2. Mention the reason due to which red soils looks red?
3. Why are the lower horizons of the soil occupied by Kankar?
4. How much degraded land is present in India?
5. Who wrote the book ‘Small is Beautiful’?
6. From which Five Year Plan has India made concerted efforts for achieving the goals of resource
planning?
7. Write the two types of renewable resources.
DIRECTION: Mark the option which is most suitable:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Q8. Assertion (A) Alluvial soil is loamy and permeable.
Reason (R) It does not develop cracks in the dry hot season.
Q9. Assertion (A) Human beings interact with nature through technology and create institutions to accelerate
their economic development.
Reason (R) Resources are essential for human development
Forest and Wildlife resources:
Chapter. 3 :- Water Resources
Q.1 Define the terms- Multipurpose projects, Rainwater Harvesting & Palar Pani.
Q.2 What is water scarcity? Mention any four factors responsible for water scarcity.
Q.3 Write a note on the types and intended purposes of Dams.
Q.4 How is overpopulation and large-scale industrialisation and Urbanisation leads to water scarcity? Explain.
Q.5 What are multipurpose River Valley Projects? Mention four advantages and disadvantages of these projects.
Or
Are you in favour of Multipurpose Projects on not? Give reasons in favour of your answer.
Q.6 Why is irrigation necessary in India? How has irrigation change the cropping pattern in India? What is its
impact on the social landscape?
Q.7 What do you understand by Rain Water Harvesting? Mention different methods of rain water harvesting.
Q.8 What is the need of conservation and management of water resources? Mention the steps for the
conservation of water resources.
Q.9 Write a note on Bamboo Drip Irrigation System of Himalayan States.
Economics:
Chapter 1 - Development
Q1.Conflicting goals can also be development goals.Elaborate with examples .
Q2.Apart from income,what are the other goals people look for?
Q3.Why do people look at mix of goals for development ?
Q4.Explain with reasons why state of Punjab with a very high per capita income has a low literacy rate .
Chapter – 2 SECTORS OF ECONOMY
Q1.Explain any three ways to solve the problem of underemployment.
Q2.”The problem of underemployment is not confined only to agriculture “.Support the statements with
example.
Q3.Explain how public sector contributes to the economic development of a nation.
Q4.”Tertiary sector is not playing any significant role in development of Indian economy. ”Do you agree ?Give
reasons to support your answer.
Q5.For each of the sectors that we came across in this chapter why should one focus on employment and GDP ?
Could there be other issues which should be examined ? Discuss.
Q6.State a reason why intermediate goods are not considered in the value of final goods .