DEPARTMENT OF MATHEMATICS

ANNA UNIVERSITY :: CHENNAI - 600 025

B.E. (Mechanical Engineering) - Regulations 2023
FIRST SEMESTER (S - BATCH)
MA23C01 MATRICES AND CALCULUS
Solution for Tutorial on INTEGRAL CALCULUS
Course Instructor: Dr.M.VENKATESAN
x dx x
1 −1 x dx
Z ³ ´ Z
1. Differentiating = tan under the integral sign, find the value of ¢2 .
x2 + a2 a a
¡
0 0 x2 + a2

Solution
Given that

x dx 1 −1 x
Z ³ ´
= tan .
0 x2 + a2 a a

Differentiating with respect to a, we have

d x dx ∂ 1 −1 x
Z ½ ³ ´¾
= tan .
da 0 x2 + a2 ∂ a a a

As the limits of the integration are independent of a, we have

x ∂ dx 1 −1 x
³ ´ 1 1 ³ x´
Z ½ ¾
= − tan + × − 2
∂ a x2 + a2
³ x ´2
0 a2 a a a
1+
Z x a
dx 1 −1
³x´ 1 1 ³ x´
−¡ ¢2 (2 a ) = − tan + ³ x ´2 × − 2
0 x2 + a2 a2 a a a
1+
Z x a
dx 1 −1
³x´ x
∴ ¢2 = 3 tan + 2¡ 2 ¢.
2a a 2 a x + a2
¡
0 x2 + a2

Z 1 1
Z 1
2. By successive differentiation of xm dx = , evaluate x m (ln x)n d x.
0 m+1 0

Solution
Given that
Z 1 1
xm dx = .
0 m+1

Differentiating with respect to m, we have

d
Z 1 d
½
1
¾
m
x dx = .
dm 0 dm m + 1

As the limits of the integration are independent of m, we have

1 ∂ n 1
Z o
xm dx = −
0 ∂m ( m + 1)2

Page 1 of 25 Dr.M.VENKATESAN, Prof. of Maths (Emeritus)

Created on: November 25, 2024 Anna University, Chennai - 25
 Z 1 1
x m ln x d x = − .
0 ( m + 1)2

Again differentiating with respect to m, we have

1 ∂ n d 1
Z o ½ ¾
m
x ln x d x = −
0 ∂m dm ( m + 1)2
(−1)2 (2!)
Z 1
1 · (−2)
x m (ln x)2 d x = − = .
0 ( m + 1)3 ( m + 1)3

Proceeding the differentiation of the integral with respect to m for further n − 2 times, we get

1 (−1)n n!
Z
x m (ln x)n d x = , where n is a positive integer and m > −1.
0 ( m + 1)n+1

Z π
3. Evaluate the integral ln(1 + a cos x) d x using the method of differentiation under the sign
0
of integration.

Solution Z
π
Let F (a) = ln(1 + a cos x) d x. Differentiating F (a) with respect to a, we have
0

d
Z π
′
F ( a) = ln(1 + a cos x) d x.
da 0

As the limits of the integration are independent of a, we have

d n
Z π o Z π
cos x
′
F ( a) = ln(1 + a cos x) d x = dx
0 da 1 + a cos x
Z π Z π 0
1 a cos x 1 1 + a cos x − 1 1 π dx
Z ½ ¾
= dx = dx = dx −
a 0 1 + a cos x a 0 1 + a cos x a 0 1 + a cos x
Z π Z π
π 1 dx π 1 dx
= − = − I, where I = .
a a 0 1 + a cos x a a 0 1 + a cos x

³x´ ³ x ´ dx
Let us make use of the substitution that t = tan . So, we have d t = sec2 × . Therefore,
2 ³x´ 2 2
2
2d t 2d t 1 − tan 2
we have d x = ³x´ = . Also, we have cos x = 2 ´ = 1 − t . When x = 0, we
1 + t2
³ x 1 + t2
1 + tan2 1 + tan2
2 2
have t = 0 and when x = π, we have t = ∞. Therefore, using in I , we have

2d t
Z π dx
Z ∞ Z ∞
dx
Z ∞
dt
I= =
1 + t2 =2 ¢ =2
2 2
¡ ¢ ¡
1 + a cos x 2 2
0 0 1− t 0 1+ t +a 1− t 0 (1 + a) + (1 − a) t
1+a 2
Z ∞1 + t
2 dx
= ¶2
1−a 0 µr
1+a
+ x2
1−a

Page 2 of 25 Dr.M.VENKATESAN, Prof. of Maths (Emeritus)

Created on: November 25, 2024 Anna University, Chennai - 25
 ¯∞  
¯
¯
2 1   x ¯
= tan−1  r
   ¯
¯
1−a 1+a 
r
 1 + a ¯
¯
1−a 1−a
¯
0
2 ¡ −1 −1
¢
=p tan (∞) − tan (0)
1 − a2
2 hπ i
=p −0
1 − a2 2
π
=p .
1 − a2

Therefore, we have

1 π 1 π π π 1
· ¸
′
F ( a) = − I = − × p = 1− p .
a a a a 1 − a2 a 1 − a2

Integrating with respect to a, we have

( p #) "
1 + 1 − a2 n h p i o h p i
F (a) = π ln a + ln + C = π ln a + ln 1 + 1 − a2 − ln a + C = π ln 1 + 1 − a2 + C
a

Replacing a by 1 in the original integral, we have

π π Z πh Z π ³
2 x x ´i x´
Z Z ³ ´ ³
F (1) = ln(1 + cos x) d x = ln 2 cos dx = ln 2 + 2 ln cos d x = π ln 2 + 2 ln cos d x.
0 0 2 0 2 0 2
³ x´
Z
x π
Now let us evaluate ln cos d x. Using t = , we have d x = 2d t. When x = 0, we get t = 0
0 2 2
π
and when x = π, we get t = . Therefore, we have
2
Z π x´
³ Z π/2 Z π/2
ln cos dx = ln(cos t)(2d t) = 2 ln(cos t) d t = 2 J.
0 2 0 0

Z a Z a
Using the property f ( x) d x = f (a − x) d x, we get
0 0

Z π/2 Z π/2 h ³π ´i Z π/2

J= ln(cos t) d t = ln cos − t d t = ln(sin t) d t.
0 0 2 0

Therefore, we have
Z π/2 Z π/2 Z π/2 Z π/2 µ
sin(2 t)
¶
2J = ln(cos t) d t + ln(sin t) d t = ln(cos t sin t) d t = ln dt
0 0 0 0 2
Z π/2 Z π/2 π
Z π/2
= − ln 2 dt + ln (sin(2 t)) d t = − ln 2 + ln (sin(2 t)) d t
0 0 2 0

Using 2 t = u in the integral on RHS, we have

π
Z π du
2 J = − ln 2 + ln (sin( u))
2 0 2

Page 3 of 25 Dr.M.VENKATESAN, Prof. of Maths (Emeritus)

Created on: November 25, 2024 Anna University, Chennai - 25
 π 1
Z π/2
= − ln 2 + × 2 ln (sin( u)) d u (∵ sin(π − u) = sin u)
2 2 0
π
= − ln 2 + J
2
π
∴ J = − ln 2.
2

Hence, we have
Z π ³ x´ ³ π ´
ln cos d x = 2 J = 2 × − ln 2 = −π ln 2.
0 2 2

Using the value of the above integral in the equation for F (1), we have
Z π ³ x´
F (1) = π ln 2 + 2 ln cos d x = π ln 2 + 2 (−π ln 2) = −π ln 2.
0 2

The value of F (a) is

h p i
F (a) = π ln 1 + 1 − a2 + C ⇒ F (1) = C = −π ln 2.

Therefore, we have

1 1p
h p i · ¸
F (a) = π ln 1 + 1 − a2 − π ln 2 = π ln + 2
1−a .
2 2

Z π dx π
Z π dx
4. Given that =p , evaluate .
0 a − cos x a2 − 1 0 (a − cos x)2
Solution
Given that
Z π dx π
=p .
0 a − cos x a2 − 1

Differentiating with respect to a, we have

d
Z π dx d
½
π
¾
= p .
da 0 a − cos x da a2 − 1

As the limits of the integration are independent of a, we have

Z π ∂ dx
½ ¾
¢−3/2
= −π a2 − 1
¡
(2a)
0 ∂a a − cos x
Z π
dx 2πa
− 2
= −¡ ¢3/2
0 (a − cos x) a2 − 1
Z π
dx 2π a
∴ 2
= ¢3/2 .
0 (a − cos x)
¡
a2 − 1

Z π ln(1 + a cos x)
5. Prove that d x = π sin−1 (a).
0 cos x

Page 4 of 25 Dr.M.VENKATESAN, Prof. of Maths (Emeritus)

Created on: November 25, 2024 Anna University, Chennai - 25
 Solution Z
π ln(1 + a cos x)
Let F (a) = . Differentiating F (a) with respect to a, we have
0 cos x

d
Z π ln(1 + a cos x)
′
F ( a) = .
da 0 cos x

As the limits of the integration are independent of a, we have

Z π ∂ ln(1 + a cos x)
½ ¾ Z π 1 1
Z π dx
′
F ( a) = dx = × × cos x d x = .
0 ∂a cos x 0 cos x 1 + a cos x 0 1 + a cos x
Z π dx π
′
From problem (3), we have the value of the integral F (a) = =p . Integrat-
0 1 + a cos x 1 − a2
ing with respect to a, we have

F (a) = π sin−1 (a) + C.

Substituting a = 0 in the original, we have

Z π 1 + 0 · cos x
F (0) = d x = π sin−1 (0) + C ⇒ C = 0.
0 cos x

Therefore, we have
Z π ln(1 + a cos x)
F ( a) d x = π sin−1 (a).
0 cos x

∞
− x sin (ax)
∞ sin x π
Z Z
−1
6. Prove that e d x = tan a. Hence, show that dx = .
0 x 0 x 2
Solution
Let us define the given integral using an additional parameter b such that
Z ∞ sin (ax)
I (a, b) = e−bx d x.
0 x

Differentiating with respect to b, we have

d I (a, b) d ∞ −bx sin (ax)

Z
= e dx
db db 0 x
∂
Z ∞
− bx sin (ax)
· ¸
= e dx
0 ∂b x
Z ∞
sin (ax)
= (− x) e−bx dx
0 x
Z ∞
=− e−bx sin (ax) d x
0
Z ∞ µ −bx ¶
e
= sin (ax) d
0 b
µ −bx ¶¯∞ Z ∞ µ −bx ¶
e ¯ e
= sin (ax) ¯ − a cos (ax) dx
b ¯
0 0 b

Page 5 of 25 Dr.M.VENKATESAN, Prof. of Maths (Emeritus)

Created on: November 25, 2024 Anna University, Chennai - 25
 a ∞ e−bx
Z ¶ µ
= cos (ax) d
b 0 b
" µ −bx ¶¯∞ Z ¶ #
a e ∞ e−bx
µ
¯
= cos (ax) ¯ − (−a) sin (ax) dx
b b ¯ 0 0 b
a a2 d I (a, b)
− × =−
b2 b2 db
a2 d I (a, b) a
µ ¶
1+ 2 =− 2
b db b
d I (a, b) a b2
=− 2 × 2
db b a + b2
a
=− 2 .
a + b2

Integrating with respect to b, we have

b
µ ¶
−1
I (a, b) = − tan + C.
a

Replacing a by 0 in the given integral, we have

∞
− bx sin(0 × x) b π π
Z µ ¶
−1
I (0, b) = e d x = 0 = − tan +C =− +C ⇒ C= .
0 x 0 2 2

Therefore, we have

∞
− bx sin(ax) b π ³a´
Z µ ¶
−1
I (a, b) = e d x = − tan + = tan−1 .
0 x a 2 b

Substituting b = 1, we have
Z ∞ sin(ax)
I (a, 1) = e− x d x = tan−1 a.
0 x

If a = 1 and b = 0, we have

∞ sin( x) −1 a π
Z ³ ´
I (1, 0) = d x = tan = tan−1 (∞) = .
0 x 0 2

Z a2 ³x´ 1 ¡
tan−1 d x = 2a tan−1 (a) − ln 1 + a2 .
¢
7. Prove that
0 a 2
Solution
Differentiating with respect to a and using Leibniz rule of differentiation under integral sign,
we have

a2 ³x´ ³ x ´ ¯¯
³ ´ ¯¯ Z a2
∂ ³
d d ¡ 2¢ −1 x ¯ d −1 x
Z ³ ´´
−1 −1
tan d x = tan a − tan ¯ (0) + tan dx
da 0 a x= a2 d a a ¯ a ¯ x=0 da 0 ∂a a
Z a2
1 ³ x´
= 2a tan−1 (a) + − 2 dx
0 x2 a
1+ 2
a
Z a2
x
= 2a tan−1 (a) − dx
0 x + a2
2

Page 6 of 25 Dr.M.VENKATESAN, Prof. of Maths (Emeritus)

Created on: November 25, 2024 Anna University, Chennai - 25
 ¯ 2
1 ¡ 2
−1
¢ ¯a
2 ¯
= 2a tan (a) − ln x + a ¯
2 0
1
= 2a tan−1 (a) − ln a4 + a2 − ln a2
£ £ ¤ ¡ ¢¤
2
1£ £ ¡
= 2a tan−1 (a) − ln a2 1 + a2 − ln a2
¢¤ ¡ ¢¤
2
1
= 2a tan−1 (a) − ln a2 + ln 1 + a2 − ln a2
£ ¡ ¢ ¡ ¢ ¡ ¢¤
2
1 ¡
= 2a tan−1 (a) − ln 1 + a2 .
¢
2

π/2 ln 1 + y sin2 x
Z ¡ ¢
hp i
8. Prove that dx = π 1+ y−1 .
0 sin2 x
Solution Z
π/2 ln 1 + y sin2 x
¡ ¢
Let I ( y) = d x. Differentiating the given integral with respect to y, we have
0 sin2 x
Z π/2 ¡ 2 Z π/2 2 Z π/2
¢ ¡ ¢
d ln 1 + y sin x ∂ ln 1 + y sin x 1 1
′
I ( y) = dx = dx = × × sin2 x d x
dy 0 2
sin x 0 ∂y 2
sin x 0 sin x 1 + y sin2 x
2
Z π/2
dx
= .
0 1 + y sin2 x

x 1 x 1³ x´ 1 ¡ 2d t
Let t = tan . So dt = sec2 = 1 + tan2 1 + t2 . Therefore, we have d x =
¢
= .
2 2 2 2 2 2 1 + t2
x
2 tan
Further, we have sin x = 2 = 2 t . When x = 0, we have t = 0 and when x = π , we
x 1 + t2 2
1 + tan2
2
have t = 1. Hence, the above integral is written as

2d t
π/2 2 1 + t2 d t 2 1 + t2 d t
¡ ¢ ¡ ¢
Z
dx
Z 1 Z 1 Z 1
I ′ ( y) = =
1 + t2
¶ = =
1 + y sin2 x 2t 2
¢2 4 2 2
0 1 + t + 2 t + 4 yt
µ ¡
0 0 0 1 + t2 + 4 yt2
1+ y
1 + t2
2 1 + t2 d t
¡ ¢
Z 1
= .
0 t4 + (2 + 4 y) t2 + 1

Dividing the integrand by t2 , we have

Z1 µ
1
¶
1 + 2 dt
2 1 + t2 d t
¡ ¢
Z 1
′ t
I ( y) = =2 .
0 t4 + (2 + 4 y) t2 + 1 1
t2 + (2 + 4 y) +
0 t2

1 1
µ ¶
Let u = t − . So, we have d u = 1 + 2 d t. When t = 0, we have u = −∞ and when t = 1, we
t t

Page 7 of 25 Dr.M.VENKATESAN, Prof. of Maths (Emeritus)

Created on: November 25, 2024 Anna University, Chennai - 25
 have u = 0. Therefore, we have

Z1 µ
1
¶
1 + 2 dt
t
I ′ ( y) = 2
1
t2 + (2 + 4 y) +
0 t2
Z 0 du
=2 2
−∞ u + (2 + 4 y) + 2
Z0 du
=2
u2 + 4(1 + y)
−∞
à !¯0
1 −1 u ¯
=2 p tan
¯
p ¯
2 1+ y 2 1 + y ¯−∞
π
= p .
2 1+ y

Integrating with respect to y, we have

p
I ( y) = π 1 + y + C.

Replacing y by 0 in the integral, we have

π/2 ln 1 + 0 × sin2 x
Z ¡ ¢
I (0) = dx = π + C ⇒ C = −π.
0 sin2 x

Therefore, we have

π/2 ln 1 + y sin2 x
Z ¡ ¢
p hp i
I ( y) = dx = π 1 + y − π = π 1+ y−1 .
0 sin2 x

9. Using the concept of differentiation under integral sign, show that

∞ tan−1 (ax) π
Z
¡ ¢ d x = ln(1 + a), a ≥ 0.
x 1+ x 2 2
0

Solution Z
∞ tan−1 (ax)
Let I (a) = ¡ ¢ d x. Differentiating with respect to a, we have
0 x 1 + x2

d ∞ tan−1 (ax)
Z
′
I ( a) = ¡ ¢ dx
d a 0 x 1 + x2
∂ tan−1 (ax)
Z ∞
= ¢ dx
0 ∂a x 1 + x
¡
2
Z ∞
1 x
= ¢× dx
1 + a2 x2
¡
2
0 x 1+ x
Z ∞
1
= ¡ ¢¡ ¢ dx
0 1 + x 1 + a2 x2
2
Z ∞·
A B
¸
= + dx
0 1 + x2 1 + a2 x2

Page 8 of 25 Dr.M.VENKATESAN, Prof. of Maths (Emeritus)

Created on: November 25, 2024 Anna University, Chennai - 25
 ∞·a2 1 1 1
Z ¸
= × − × dx
0 a2 − 1 1 + a2 x2 a2 − 1 1 + x2
Z ∞·
1 1 1
¸
2
= 2 a × − dx
a −1 0 1 + a2 x2 1 + x2
¸¯∞
1 1
·
2 −1 −1
¯
= 2 a × tan (ax) − tan x ¯¯
a −1 a 0
1 © £
a tan−1 (∞) − tan−1 (0) − tan−1 (∞) − tan−1 (0)
¤ £ ¤ª
= 2
a −1
1 π
= 2 × (a − 1)
a −1 2
π 1
= .
2 a+1

Integrating with respect to a, we have

π
I ( a) = ln(a + 1) + C.
2

In the given integral, substituting a = 0, we have

∞ tan−1 (0 × x) π
Z
I (0) = ¡ ¢ d x = 0 = ln(0 + 1) + C ⇒ C = 0.
0 x 1 + x2 2

Therefore, we have

∞ tan−1 (ax) π
Z
I ( a) = ¡
2
¢ d x = ln(a + 1).
0 x 1+ x 2

Z 1 dx
10. Express the integral p in terms of gamma functions.
0 1 − x4
Solution
1
Let x2 = sin θ . i.e. x = sin1/2 θ . So, we have d x = sin−1/2 θ cos θ dθ . When x = 0, we have θ = 0
2
π
and when x = 1, we have θ = .
2
Z 1 dx
Z π/2 1 sin−1/2 θ cos θ dθ
p = · p
0 1 − x4 0 2 1 − sin2 θ
1 π/2 sin−1/2 θ cos θ dθ
Z
=
2 0 cos θ
Z π/2
1
= sin−1/2 θ dθ .
2 0

Using the result

Z π/2 1 m+1 n+1
µ ¶
m n
sin θ cos θ dθ = β , ,
0 2 2 2

Page 9 of 25 Dr.M.VENKATESAN, Prof. of Maths (Emeritus)

Created on: November 25, 2024 Anna University, Chennai - 25
 we have write

1 1 1
µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶
1
 
Z π/2 − + 1 Γ Γ p Γ
π
Z 1
dx 1 1 1 0+1 1 1 1 1 4
µ ¶
2 2 4
sin−1/2 θ dθ = × β  = β ,
 
p = , = ¶ = µ ¶.
1 1 3
µ
0 1 − x4 2 0 2 2 2 2 4 4 2 4 4
 
Γ + Γ
4 2 4

∞ x4 Γ(5)
Z
11. Show that x
dx = .
0 4 [ln(4)]5
Solution
The given integral is written as

∞ x4 ∞ x4 ∞
Z Z Z
dx = dx = x4 e− x ln(4) d x.
0 4x 0 e x ln(4) 0

t
Let us make use of the substitution t = x ln(4) or x = . So, we have d t = ln(4) d x or
ln(4)
dt
dx = . When x = 0, we get t = 0 and when x = ∞, we have t = ∞. Therefore, we have
ln(4)
¶4
∞ x4 ∞ ∞µ t dt 1 ∞ Γ(5)
Z Z Z Z
4 − x ln(4) −t
dx = x e dx = e = x5−1 e− t d t = .
0 4x 0 0 ln(4) ln(4) (ln(4))5 0 (ln(4))5

Z π/2 p
12. Evaluate cot θ dθ .
0

Solution

1 1
 
Z π/2 p Z π/2
1  − +1 +1 1 µ1 3¶
cot θ dθ = sin−1/2 1/2
θ cos θ dθ = β 
 2 , 2 = β , .
0 0 2 2 2  2 4 4

π
Using the result, β(1 − n, n) = β( n, 1 − n) = Γ(1 − n)Γ( n) = , we get
sin ( nπ)
Z π/2 p 1 1 3
µ ¶
1 3 1
µ ¶ µ ¶
1 π 1 π π
cot θ dθ = β , = Γ Γ = µ ¶= =p .
0 2 4 4 2 4 4 2 1 2 1 2
sin π p
4 2

Z π/2 p Z π/2 dθ
13. Show that sin θ dθ × p = π.
0 0 sin θ
Solution
The given integral is written as
Z π/2 p Z π/2 dθ
Z π/2 Z π/2
1/2
sin θ dθ × p = sin θ dθ × sin−1/2 θ dθ
0 0 sin θ 0 0

Page 10 of 25 Dr.M.VENKATESAN, Prof. of Maths (Emeritus)

Created on: November 25, 2024 Anna University, Chennai - 25
 1 1
   
1  2 +1 0+1 − +1 0+1
× 1β 2
= β , , 
2  2 2  2  2 2 

1 3 1 1 1
µ ¶ µ ¶
= β , ·β ,
4 4 2 4 2
3 1 1 1
µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶
Γ Γ Γ Γ
1 4 2 4 2
= ¶ × µ
3 1 1 1
µ ¶
4
Γ + Γ +
4 2 4 2
3 1 1 1
µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶
Γ Γ Γ Γ
1 4 2 4 2
= µ ¶ ×
5 3
µ ¶
4
Γ Γ
4 4
1
µ ¶
Γ
π 4
=
41 1
µ ¶
Γ
4 4
= π.

Z 1 x dx 1 2 1
µ ¶
14. Prove that p = β , .
0 1 − x5 5 5 2
Solution
The given integral is written as
Z 1 x dx
Z 1 ¢−1/2
x 1 − x5
¡
p = d x.
0 1 − x5 0

1
Making use of the substitution that x5 = t, we have x = t1/5 and therefore, we have d x = t−4/5 d t.
5
When x = 0, we get t = 0 and when x = 1, we get t = 1. Hence, the integral is written as
Z 1 Z 1 1 −4/5 1
Z 1
5 −1/2 1/5 −1/2
t−3/5 (1 − t)−1/2 d t
¡ ¢
x 1− x dx = t (1 − t) t dt =
0 0 5 5 0
1 1 −3/5+1−1 1 1 2/5−1
Z Z
1/2−1
= t (1 − t) dt = t (1 − t)1/2−1 d t
5 0 5 0
1 2 1
µ ¶
= β , .
5 5 2

Z 1 dx 1
µ
1 1
¶
15. Prove that p = p β , .
0 1 + x4 4 2 4 2
Solution
Let x2 = tan θ . So, we have 2 xd x = sec2 θ dθ . That is

sec2 θ dθ 1
dx = p = cos−3/2 θ sin−1/2 θ dθ .
2 tan θ 2

π
When x = 0, we have θ = 0 and when x = 1, we have θ = . Hence, the given integral is written
4

Page 11 of 25 Dr.M.VENKATESAN, Prof. of Maths (Emeritus)

Created on: November 25, 2024 Anna University, Chennai - 25
 as
Z 1 dx
Z π/4 1 1 1
Z π/4 1
Z π/4 dθ
p = cos−3/2 θ sin−1/2 θ dθ = cos −1/2
θ sin −1/2
θ dθ = p p .
1 + tan2 θ 2 2 sin(2θ )
p
0 1 + x4 0 0 2 0

t dt π
Put 2θ = t. That is θ = . So, we have dθ = . When θ = 0, we get t = 0 and when θ = , we
2 2 4
π
get t = . Hence, the integral is written as
2

1
 
1 dx π/4 dθ π/2 − +1 0+1
1 1 −1/2 d t 1 1  1 1 1
Z Z µ ¶ Z
=p =p sin t = p × β 2 , = p β , .
p p  
0 1 + x4 2 0 sin(2θ ) 2 0 2 2 2 2 2 2  4 2 4 2

p
∞ ∞ π
Z Z
− x2 2 − x2
16. Prove that xe dx · x e dx = .
0 0 8
SolutionZ ∞
2
Z ∞ 2 p 1
Let I = xe− x d x and J = x2 e− x d x. Let x2 = t. So we have x = t and d x = p d t.
0 0 2 t
Therefore, we have
¸¯∞
∞ ∞p 1 1 ∞ 1 e− t ¯¯ 1
Z Z Z ·
− x2 −t −t
I= xe dx = te p dt = e dt = = .
0 0 2 t 2 0 2 −1 0 ¯ 2

µ ¶ p
∞ ∞ 1 1 ∞ 1 ∞ 1 3 1 1 1 π
Z Z Z Z µ ¶
2 − x2 −t 1/2 − t 3/2−1 − t
J= x e dx = te p dt = t e dt = t e dt = Γ = × Γ = .
0 0 2 t 2 0 2 0 2 2 2 2 2 4

Therefore, we have
p p
∞ ∞ 1 π π
Z Z
− x2 2 − x2
xe dx · x e dx = I × J = × = .
0 0 2 4 8

1 x2 d x 1 dx π
Z Z
17. p · p = .
0 1 − x4 0 1 − x4 4
SolutionZ 1 2 Z 1
x dx dx
Let I = p and J = p . Let x2 = sin θ . So 2 xd x = cos θ dθ . So, we have
0 1− x 4 0 1− x 4
cos θ 1 −1/2
dx = p dθ = cos θ sin θ dθ . When x = 0, we have θ = 0 and when x = 1, we have
2 sin θ 2
π
θ = . Substituting in I and J , we have
2
Z 1 x2 d x 1
Z π/2 1 sin θ
Z π/2
I= p = cos θ sin−1/2 θ dθ = sin1/2 θ dθ
2 2 2
p
1 − x4
µ ¶θ
0 0 0
µ 1¶− sin
3 1 3 1
µ ¶ µ ¶
Γ Γ Γ Γ
1 1 3 1 1 4 1 4
µ ¶
2 2
= × β , = ¶ = µ ¶ .
3 1 5
µ
2 2 4 2 4 4
Γ + Γ
4 2 4

Page 12 of 25 Dr.M.VENKATESAN, Prof. of Maths (Emeritus)

Created on: November 25, 2024 Anna University, Chennai - 25
 Similarly,
Z 1 dx 1
Z π/2 1 1
Z π/2
J= p = cos θ sin−1/2 θ dθ = sin−1/2 θ dθ
2 2 2
p
1 − x4
µ ¶θ
0 0 0
µ 1¶− sin
1 1 1 1
µ ¶ µ ¶
Γ Γ Γ Γ
1 1 1 1 1 4 1 4
µ ¶
2 2
= × β , = ¶ = µ ¶ .
1 1 3
µ
2 2 4 2 4 4
Γ + Γ
4 2 4

Therefore, we have

3 1 1 1 ¡p ¢2 1
µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶
Z 1 2 Γ Γ Γ π Γ Γ
π
Z 1
x dx dx 1 4 2 1 4 2 1 4
p · p =I×J= µ ¶ × = µ ¶ = .
5 3 16 1 1
µ ¶
0 1 − x4 0 1 − x4 4 4 4
Γ Γ Γ
4 4 4 4

1 x2 d x 1 dx π
Z Z
18. p · p = p .
0 1 − x4 0 1+ x 4 4 2
Solution
3 1
µ ¶ µ ¶
Z 1 2 Γ Γ
x dx 1 4 2
From Problem (17), we have p = and from Problem (15), we have
5
µ ¶
0 1− x 4 4
Γ
4µ ¶ µ ¶
1 1 1 1
µ ¶ µ ¶
Z 1 Γ Γ Γ Γ
dx 1 1 1 1 1
µ ¶
4 2 4 2
p = p β , = p ¶ = p µ ¶ .Therefore, we have
4 2 Γ 1+1 4 2 Γ 3
µ
0 1 + x4 4 2 4 2
4 2 4

3 1 1 1
µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶
Z 1 2 Γ Γ Γ p Γ
π π
Z 1
x dx dx 1 4 1 1 1 1 p
µ ¶
2 4 2
p · p = µ ¶ × p = µ ¶× p Γ π= p .
1 + x4 4 Γ 5 4 2 Γ 3 41 1
µ ¶
0 1 − x4 0 Γ 4 2 4 4 2
4 4 4 4

∞ ∞ π
Z Z
− x8 4
19. xe dx · x2 e − x d x = p .
0 0 16 2
SolutionZ ∞ Z ∞
− x8 4
Let I = xe d x and J = x2 e− x d x. To evaluate I , let us make use of the substitution
0 0
8 1/8 1
that t = x . That is x = t . So, we have d x = t−7/8 d t. Hence, we have
8
∞ ∞ ∞ ∞
1/8 − t 1 −7/8 1 1 1 1
Z Z Z Z µ ¶
− x8 −3/4 − t 1/4−1 − t
I= xe dx = t e t dt = t e dt = t e dt = Γ .
0 0 8 8 0 8 0 8 4

1
Similarly, define t = x4 . So, we have x = t1/4 . Therefore d x = t−3/4 d t. Hence, we have
4
∞ ∞³ ∞ ∞
− t 1 −3/4 1 1 1 3
Z Z ´2 Z Z µ ¶
2 − x4 1/4 −1/4 − t 3/4−1 − t
J= x e dx = t e t dt = t e dt = t e dt = Γ .
0 0 4 4 0 4 0 4 4

Page 13 of 25 Dr.M.VENKATESAN, Prof. of Maths (Emeritus)

Created on: November 25, 2024 Anna University, Chennai - 25
 Therefore, we have
p
∞ ∞ 1 1 1 3 1 1 3 1 π π 2 π
Z Z µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶
− x8 2 − x4
xe dx · x e dx = I × J = Γ × Γ = Γ ×Γ = π = = p .
0 0 8 4 4 4 32 4 4 32 sin 32 16 2
4

∞ x2 d x π
Z
20. ¡ ¢2 = p .
0 1 + x4 8 2

Solution
Let x2 = tan θ . So, we have 2 xd x = sec2 θ dθ . That is

sec2 θ dθ 1
dx = p = cos−3/2 θ sin−1/2 θ dθ .
2 tan θ 2

π
When x = 0, we have θ = 0 and when x → ∞, we have θ = . Hence, the integral is written as
2
Z ∞ x2 d x
Z π/2 tan θ 1
¢2 = 22
cos−3/2 θ sin−1/2 θ dθ
2
1 + tan θ
¡
1 + x4
¡ ¢
0 0

1 π/2
Z
= sin θ (cos θ )−1 cos4 θ cos−3/2 θ sin−1/2 θ dθ
2 0
1 π/2
Z
= sin1/2 θ cos3/2 θ dθ
2 0
3 5 3 1 1
µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶
Γ Γ Γ Γ
1 1 3 5 1 4 1 4 4 4 1 1 3 1 p π
µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶
4
= × β , = ¶ = = Γ Γ = π 2= p .
3 5 Γ(2)
µ
2 2 4 4 4 4 16 4 4 16 8 2
Γ +
4 4

Aliter
1
Let t = x4 . So, we have x = t1/4 and d x = t−3/4 d t. When x = 0, we have t = 0 and when x → ∞,
4
we have t → ∞. Therefore, the given integral is written as

¢2
x2 d x t1/4 1 ∞ t−3/4+1/2 1 ∞ t3/4−1 t3/4−1
¡
Z ∞ Z ∞ 1 −3/4
Z Z
1 ∞
Z
¢2 = 2
t d t = d t = d t = dt
0 (1 + t) 4 4 0 (1 + t)2 4 0 (1 + t)2 4 0 (1 + t)3/4+5/4
¡
0 1 + x4
3 5 3 1 1
µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶
Γ Γ Γ Γ
1 3 5 1 4 1 4 4 4 1 1 3
µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶
4
= β , = ¶ = = Γ Γ
3 5 Γ (2)
µ
4 4 4 4 4 16 4 4
Γ +
4 4
p
1 π π 2 π
= × ³π´ = = p .
16 sin 16 8 2
4

∞ x m−1 1 x m−1 + x n−1

Z Z
21. Prove that β( m, n) = d x. Hence, deduce that β( m, n) = d x.
0 (1 + x)m+n 0 (1 + x)m+n

Page 14 of 25 Dr.M.VENKATESAN, Prof. of Maths (Emeritus)

Created on: November 25, 2024 Anna University, Chennai - 25
 Solution
Rewriting the given integral, we have

1 x m−1 ∞ x m−1
Z Z
β( m, n) = dx + d x.
0 (1 + x)m+n 1 (1 + x)m+n

1 1
In the second integral, let us substitute x = . So, we have d x = − 2 d y. When x = 1, we have
y y
y = 1 and when x → ∞, we have y = 0. Therefore, we have
µ ¶m−1
1
x m−1
∞ Z 0
1
µ ¶
y
Z
dx = − 2 dy
(1 + x)m+n 1 m+ n y
µ ¶
1 1
1+
y
Z 1 n−1
y
= m+ n
d y.
0 (1 + y)

Substituting, this result by replacing y by x, we get

x m−11 x n−1
Z Z 1
β( m, n) = m+ n
d x + m+ n
dx
0 (1 + x) 0 (1 + x)
Z ∞ m−1
x + x n−1
= d x.
0 (1 + x)m+n

p p
1 π πΓ( n) 1 1
µ ¶ µ ¶
22. Prove that Γ( n)Γ n + = 2n−1 Γ(2 n) and β( n, n) = ¶ = 2n−1 β n, . Hence,
1
µ
2 2 2n−1 2 2
2 Γ n+
2
1 3 p
µ ¶ µ ¶
deduce that Γ Γ = π 2.
4 4
Solution p
1 π
µ ¶
Proof of the result Γ( n)Γ n + = 2n−1 Γ(2 n).
2 2
From the definition of the beta function, we have

Γ( m)Γ( n) 1
Z
β( m, n) = = u m−1 (1 − u)n−1 d u.
Γ( m + n) 0

Now, let m = n, then

Γ( n)Γ( n) 1
Z
= u n−1 (1 − u)n−1 d u
Γ(2 n) 0

1+ x dx
Let u = , so d u = . Further, when u = 0, we get x = −1 and when u = 1, we get x = 1.
2 2
Therefore,

Γ( n)Γ( n) 1 + x n−1
1 1 + x n−1 d x
Z ¶µ µ ¶
= 1−
Γ(2 n) −1 2 2 2
Z 1µ ¶n−1 µ ¶n−1
1 1+ x 1− x
= dx
2 −1 2 2

Page 15 of 25 Dr.M.VENKATESAN, Prof. of Maths (Emeritus)

Created on: November 25, 2024 Anna University, Chennai - 25
 1
Z 1 ¢n−1
1 − x2
¡
= dx
21+2(n−1) −1
· Z 1¡ ¢n−1
¸
1−2n
=2 2 1 − x2 dx .
0

Now, substituting u = x2 in the beta integral, we get the beta function identity
Z 1¡ ¢m−1 ¡ ¢n−1
β( m, n) = x2 1 − x2 2x dx
0
Z 1 ¢n−1
x2m−1 1 − x2
¡
=2 d x.
0

Therefore, we have

1
µ ¶
Γ Γ( n)
Γ( n)Γ( n)
· Z 1
1
¸ µ ¶
1−2n
¢n−1 2
1 − x2 1−2n
β ,n = 2 1−2n
¡
=2 2 dx = 2 ¶.
Γ(2 n) 1
µ
0 2
Γ n+
2

1 p 1
µ ¶ µ ¶
Using Γ = π and solving for Γ( n)Γ n + , we get
2 2
p
1 π
µ¶
Γ( n)Γ n + = 2n−1 Γ(2 n).
2 2

p
πΓ( n)
Proof of the result β( n, n) = ¶.
1
µ
2n−1
2 Γ n+
2
From the relation between beta and gamma functions, we have

Γ( n)Γ( n) Γ( n)Γ( n)
β( n, n) = = .
Γ( n + n) Γ(2 n)

From the duplication formula, we have

1
µ ¶
2 2n−1
Γ( n)Γ n +
2
Γ(2 n) = p .
π

Therefore, substituting for Γ(2 n), we have

p
Γ( n)Γ( n) Γ( n)Γ( n) πΓ( n)
β( n, n) = = ¶ = ¶.
Γ(2 n) 1 1
µ µ
2n−1
22n−1
Γ( n)Γ n + 2 Γ n+
2 2
p
π

p
πΓ( n) 1 1
µ ¶
Proof of the result β( n, n) = ¶ = 2n−1 β n, .
1
µ
2n−1 2 2
2 Γ n+
2

Page 16 of 25 Dr.M.VENKATESAN, Prof. of Maths (Emeritus)

Created on: November 25, 2024 Anna University, Chennai - 25
 From the previous result, we have

1
µ ¶
p Γ Γ( n)
πΓ( n) 1 1 1
µ ¶
2
β( n, n) = ¶ = 2n−1 µ ¶ = 2n−1 β n, .
1 1
µ
2n−1 2 2 2
2 Γ n+ Γ n+
2 2

1
Substituting for n = in the duplication formula, we have
4

1
¶ µ
2 Γ( n)Γ n + 2n−1
2
Γ(2 n) = p
π
1 1 1
µ ¶ µ ¶
µ ¶ 2 2(1/4)−1
Γ Γ +
1 4 4 2
Γ = p
2 π
1 3 p
µ ¶ µ ¶
⇒ Γ Γ = π 2.
4 4

p
∞ π
Z ∞
1 n+1
Z µ ¶
n − h2 x2 − h2 x2
23. Show that x e dx = n +1
Γ . Deduce that e dx = . Hence, show
0 2h 2 0 2h
that
1 π
Z ∞ Z ∞ r
¡ 2¢ ¡ 2¢
cos x d x = sin x d x = .
0 0 2 2
Solution p
2 2 t dt
Let h x = t. So, we have x = and d x = p . By this substitution, the limits shall remain
h 2h t
as it is. Therefore, we have

Z ∞ 2 2
Z ∞ µ t1/2 ¶ n dt
x n e−h x
dx = e− t p
0 0 h 2h t
Z ∞
1
= t(n−1)/2 e− t d t
2 h n+1 0
Z ∞
1
= n +1
t(n−1)/2+1−1 e− t d t
2h
Z0 ∞
1
= t(n+1)/2−1 e− t d t
2 h n+1 0
1 1
µ ¶
= Γ n+ .
2 h n+1 2

1+ i
Let h = p and n = 0. Then, we have
2
Z ∞ 1
µ
1
¶
n − h2 x2
x e dx = Γ n+
0 2 h n+1 2
Z ∞
1 1
µ ¶
2
− ix
e dx = µ Γ 0+
1 + i 0+1 2
¶
0
2 p
2
1 p
= p (1 − i ) π
2 2

Page 17 of 25 Dr.M.VENKATESAN, Prof. of Maths (Emeritus)

Created on: November 25, 2024 Anna University, Chennai - 25
 Z ∞£ 1 p
cos x2 d x − i sin x2 d x = p (1 − i ) π.
¡ ¢ ¡ ¢ ¤
0 2 2

Equating the real and imaginary parts, we have

∞ ∞ π
r
1
Z Z
2 2
¡ ¢ ¡ ¢
cos x dx = sin x dx = .
0 0 2 2

x m−1 d x
∞ ∞ x m−1 d x π
Z Z
24. Evaluate n p
in terms of Gamma function and deduce that n
= ³ mπ ´ .
0 (1 + x ) 0 1+ x n sin
n
π
Z ∞
dx
Hence, show that 4
= p .
0 1+ x 2 2
Solution
1 1 − t 1/n 1 1 − t 1/n−1 d t
µ ¶ µ ¶
Let t = . Solving for x, we have x = . So d x = − . When x = 0,
1 + xn t n t t2
we have t = 1 and when x → ∞, we have t = 0. Therefore, we have
"µ ¶1/n #m−1 " #
∞ x m−1 d x 0 1− t 1 1 − t 1/n−1 d t
Z Z µ ¶
= tp −
0 (1 + x n ) p 1 t n t t2
m−1 1 m−1 1
1
Z 1 p− − +1−2 + −1
= t n n (1 − t) n n dt
n 0
m m
1 1 p− −1 −1
Z
= t n (1 − t) n d t
n 0
1 ³ m m´
= β p− , .
n n n

Let p = 1. Therefore, we have

∞ x m−1 d x 1 ³ m m´
Z
= β 1 − ,
0 1 + xn n n n
³ m´ ³m´
1
Γ 1− Γ
= ³ nm mn´
n Γ 1− +
n n
1 ³ m´ ³m´
= Γ 1− Γ
n n µn
1 π π
¶
= ∵ Γ(n)Γ(1 − n) = .
n sin mπ sin( nπ)
³ ´
n

When m = 1 and n = 4, we have

∞ dx 1 π
Z
=
1 + x4 4 sin π
³ ´
0
4
π
=
1
4p
2
π
= p .
2 2

Page 18 of 25 Dr.M.VENKATESAN, Prof. of Maths (Emeritus)

Created on: November 25, 2024 Anna University, Chennai - 25
 Z b
25. Show that ( b − x)m−1 ( x − a)n−1 d x = ( b − a)m+n−1 β( m, n). Hence, find the exact value of
s a
Z 5
5− x
d x.
3 x−3
Solution
x−a
Let u = . So, we have x = a + u( b − a) and d x = ( b − a)d u. When x = a, we have u = 0 and
b−a
when x = b, we have u = 1. Therefore, we have
Z b Z 1
m−1 n−1
( b − x) ( x − a) dx = [ b − a − ( b − a) u]m−1 [( b − a) u]n−1 ( b − a)d u
a 0
Z 1
m+ n−1
= ( b − a) u n−1 (1 − u)m−1 d u
0
m+ n−1
= ( b − a) β( m, n).

3 1
Let a = 3, b = 5, m = and n = . Then, we have
2 2
s
Z 5 Z 5 5− x
µ
3 1
¶
3/2−1 1/2−1 3/2+1/2−1
(5 − x) ( x − 3) dx = d x = (5 − 3) β ,
3 3 x−3 2 2
3 1
µ ¶ µ ¶
Γ Γ
2 2
=2 µ
3 1
¶
Γ +
2 2
1 1
µ ¶ µ ¶
Γ Γ
1 2 2
=2
2 Γ(2)
= π.

Z 2
26. Evaluate x m−1 (2 − x)n−1 d x, m > 0, n > 0.
0
SolutionZ 2
Let I = x m−1 (2 − x)n−1 d x. Let x = 2 t. So d x = 2d t. When x = 0, we have t = 0 and when
0
x = 2, we have t = 1. Therefore, the integral is written as
Z 2 Z 1 Z 1
m−1 n−1 m−1 n−1 m+ n−1
I= x (2 − x) dx = (2 t) (2 − 2 t) (2d t) = 2 t m−1 (1 − t)n−1 d t = 2m+n−1 β( m, n).
0 0 0

p ³n´
πΓ
1−n
µ ¶
27. Prove that Γ( n)Γ = ³2nπ ´ .
2 21−n cos
2
Solution
We know that

π
Γ( m)Γ(1 − m) = (1)
sin( mπ)
¶ p
1 πΓ(2 m)
µ
and Γ( m)Γ m + = (Duplication Formula) (2)
2 22m−1

Page 19 of 25 Dr.M.VENKATESAN, Prof. of Maths (Emeritus)

Created on: November 25, 2024 Anna University, Chennai - 25
 n+1
Now putting m = in (1), we get
2

n+1 n+1 π
µ ¶ µ ¶
Γ Γ 1− =
( n + 1)π
µ ¶
2 2
sin
2
1+n 1−n π
µ ¶ µ ¶
Γ Γ = ³ nπ ´ . (3)
2 2 cos
2
n
Again putting m = in equation (2), we get
2
³ n ´ µ n 1 ¶ pπΓ( n)
Γ Γ + = (4)
2 2 2 2n−1
³ n ´ µ n + 1 ¶ pπΓ( n)
⇒ Γ Γ = (5)
2 2 2n−1
n+1
µ ¶
Γ p
2 π
or = ³ n´. (6)
Γ( n) 2n−1 Γ
2

Dividing (3) by (6), we get

p n−1 ³ n ´
µ
1−n
¶ π2 Γ
Γ( n)Γ = ³ nπ ´2
2 cos
2
p ³n´
πΓ
1−n
µ ¶
or Γ( n)Γ = ³2nπ ´ .
2 21−n cos
2

1 1
¶ µ
µ ¶
28. For n > 0, prove that Γ + n Γ − n = (−1)n π.
2 2
Solution
We have already proved the following results.
p
1 (2 n)! π
µ¶
Γ + n = 2n (7)
2 2 n!
p
1 (−1)n 22n−1 ( n − 1)! π
µ ¶
and Γ −n = . (8)
2 (2 n − 1)!

Multiplying the equations (7) and (8), we get

p p
1 1 (2 n)! π (−1)n 22n−1 ( n − 1)! π
µ ¶ µ ¶
Γ + n Γ − n = 2n ·
2 2 2 n! (2 n − 1)!
= (−1)n π.

∞ x m−1 an
Z
29. Show that d x = β( m, n).
0 (a + bx)m+n bm

Page 20 of 25 Dr.M.VENKATESAN, Prof. of Maths (Emeritus)

Created on: November 25, 2024 Anna University, Chennai - 25
 Solution
The given integral is written as

∞ x m−1 1 ∞ x m−1
Z Z
m+ n d x = m+ n d x.
(a + bx) a b m+ n
µ ¶
0 0
1+ x
a

at a
Let x = . So, we have d x = d t. When x = 0, we have t = 0 and when x → ∞, we have t → ∞.
b b
Therefore, the integral is written as

∞ x m−1 1 x m−1
∞
Z Z
m+ n d x = m+ n dx
(a + bx) a b m+ n
µ ¶
0 0
1+ x
a
µ ¶m−1
at
Z ∞ ³a ´
1 b
= m+ n m+ n b
dt
a 0 (1 + t)
1 ³ a ´m ∞ t m−1
Z
= m+ n m+ n
dt
a b 0 (1 + t)
1
= n m β( m, n).
a b

∞ x10 − x18
Z
30. Show that d x = 0.
0 (1 + x)30
Solution
∞ t m−1
Z
We know that β( m, n) = d t. Therefore, we have
0 (1 + t)m+n

∞ x10 ∞ x11−1
Z Z
dx = d x = β(11, 19)
0 (1 + x)30 0 (1 + x)11+19

and

∞ x18 ∞ x19−1
Z Z
dx = d x = β(19, 11).
0 (1 + x)30 0 (1 + x)19+11

Therefore, we have

∞ x10 ∞ x18 ∞ x10 − x18

Z Z Z
dx − dx = d x = β(11, 19) − β(19, 11) = 0 (∵ β( m, n) = β( n, m)).
0 (1 + x)30 0 (1 + x)30 0 (1 + x)30

 
Z π/2 hp p
Γ 3 + µ π¶ .
p 1 1 
i µ ¶ µ ¶
tan θ + sec θ dθ = Γ

31. Prove that
0 2 4  4 3 
Γ
4
Solution
We have already obtained the value of the integral
Z π/2 p 1 1 3
µ ¶
tan θ dθ = β , .
0 2 4 4

Page 21 of 25 Dr.M.VENKATESAN, Prof. of Maths (Emeritus)

Created on: November 25, 2024 Anna University, Chennai - 25
 The value of the integral

1
 
Z π/2 p π/2
Z
1  0+1 2− + 1  1 1 1
µ ¶
−1/2
sec θ dθ = cos θ dθ = β 
 ,  = β , .
0 0 2 2 2  2 2 4

Hence, we have the value of the integral

Z π/2 hp p i 1 1 3
µ ¶
1 1 1
µ ¶
tan θ + sec θ dθ = β , + β ,
0 2 4 4 2 2 4
1
 µ ¶ µ ¶
3 1 1
µ ¶ µ ¶
Γ Γ Γ Γ
1 4 4 2 4 
=  ¶ + µ ¶ 
1 3 1 1 
µ
2 
Γ + Γ +
4 4 2 4
 
p
1 1  Γ 3 + µ π ¶  .
µ ¶ µ ¶
= Γ

2 4  4 3 
Γ
4

1
µ ¶
32. Prove that β α, = 22α−1 β (α, α).
2
Solution
From the definition of the beta function, we have

Γ( m)Γ( n) 1
Z
β( m, n) = = u m−1 (1 − u)n−1 d u.
Γ( m + n) 0

Now, let m = n = α, then

Z 1
β (α, α) = uα−1 (1 − u)α−1 d u
0

1+ x dx
Let u = , so d u = . Further, when u = 0, we get x = −1 and when u = 1, we get x = 1.
2 2
Therefore,

1 + x α−1
1 1 + x α−1 d x
Z µ¶ µ ¶
β (α, α) = 1−
−1 2 2 2
Z 1µ ¶α−1 µ ¶α−1
1 1+ x 1− x
= dx
2 −1 2 2
Z 1
1 ¢α−1
1 − x2
¡
= 1+2(α−1) dx
2 −1
· Z 1 ¸
1−2α 2 α−1
¡ ¢
=2 2 1− x dx . (9)
0

Now, substituting u = x2 in the beta integral, we get the beta function identity
Z 1¡ ¢m−1 ¡ ¢n−1
β( m, n) = x2 1 − x2 2x dx
0

Page 22 of 25 Dr.M.VENKATESAN, Prof. of Maths (Emeritus)

Created on: November 25, 2024 Anna University, Chennai - 25
 Z 1 ¢n−1
x2m−1 1 − x2
¡
=2 dx
0
Z 1
1
µ ¶
¢n−1
β ,α = 2 1 − x2
¡
∴ d x. (10)
2 0

Using the result of equation (10) in (9), we have

· Z 1¡ ¸
1
µ ¶
1−2α 2 α−1 1−2α
β (α, α) = 2 β ,α
¢
1− x2 dx = 2
0 2
1
µ ¶
Or β , α = 22α−1 β (α, α) .
2

β( m + 1, n) β( m, n + 1) β( m, n)
33. Prove that (i) nβ( m + 1, n) = mβ( m, n + 1), (ii) = = and
m n m+n
(iii) β( m + 1, n) + β( m, n + 1) = β( m, n).

Solution
Γ( m + 1)Γ( n) mΓ( m) nΓ( n) mΓ( m)Γ( n + 1)
(i) nβ( m + 1, n) = n = =m = mβ( m, n + 1).
Γ( m + n + 1) Γ( m + n + 1) Γ( m + n + 1)

β( m + 1, n) 1 Γ( m + 1)Γ( n) 1 mΓ( m)Γ( n) β( m, n)

(ii) = × = × = .
m m Γ( m + n + 1) m ( m + n)Γ( m + n) m+n

1 Γ( m)Γ( n + 1) 1
β( m, n + 1) Γ( m) nΓ( n) β( m, n)
× = = × = .
n n Γ( m + n + 1) n ( m + n)Γ( m + n) m+n
From the above results, we have

β( m + 1, n) β( m, n + 1) β( m, n)
= = .
m n m+n

Γ( m + 1)Γ( n) Γ( m)Γ( n + 1) mΓ( m)Γ( n) Γ( m) nΓ( n)

(iii) β( m + 1, n) + β( m, n + 1) = + = +
Γ( m + n + 1) Γ( m + n + 1) ( m + n)Γ( m + n) ( m + n)Γ( m + n)
( m + n)Γ( m)Γ( n) Γ( m)Γ( n)
= =
( m + n)Γ( m + n) Γ( m + n)

= β( m, n).

1 p
µ ¶
¶ Γ n+ π
1 1
µ
2
34. Prove that β n + , n + = 2n .
2 2 2 Γ( n + 1)
Solution
From the relation of Gamma and beta functions, we have

1 1 1 1
¶ µ µ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶
¶ Γ n+ Γ n+ Γ n+ Γ n+
1 1
µ
2 2 2 2
β n+ ,n+ = = . (11)
2 2 Γ(2 n + 1) (2 n)Γ(2 n)

From duplication formula, we have

1
µ ¶
2 2n−1
Γ( n)Γ n +
2
Γ(2 n) = p . (12)
π

Page 23 of 25 Dr.M.VENKATESAN, Prof. of Maths (Emeritus)

Created on: November 25, 2024 Anna University, Chennai - 25
 Substituting the value of Γ(2 n) in (12) in (11), we have

1 1 1 1 1 p
µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶
Γ n+ Γ n+ Γ n+ Γ n+ Γ n+ π
1 1
µ ¶
2 2 2 2 2
β n+ ,n+ = = ¶ = 2n .
(2 n)Γ(2 n) 1 2 Γ( n + 1)
µ
2 2
22n−1
Γ( n)Γ n +
2
(2 n) × p
π

p
Γ ( n) π
35. Prove that β ( n, n) = ¶.
1
µ
22n−1 Γ n +
2
Solution
From the relation of Gamma and beta functions, we have

Γ( n)Γ( n)
β ( n, n) = (13)
Γ(2 n)

Substituting the value of Γ(2 n) in (12) in (13), we have

p
Γ( n)Γ( n) Γ( n)Γ( n) Γ ( n) π
β ( n, n) = = ¶ = ¶.
Γ(2 n) 1 1
µ µ
2 2n−1
Γ( n)Γ n + 22n −1 Γ n+
2 2
p
π

p
1 Γ(2 n + 1) π
µ ¶
36. Prove that Γ n + = 2n .
2 2 Γ ( n + 1)
Solution
From duplication formula, we have

1
µ ¶
2 2n−1
Γ( n)Γ n + ¶ p
1 πΓ(2 n)
µ
2
Γ(2 n) = p ⇒Γ n+ = 2n−1 .
π 2 2 Γ( n)

Multiplying and dividing by 2 n, we have

¶ p p p
1 πΓ(2 n) 2 n π(2 n)Γ(2 n) Γ(2 n + 1) π
µ
Γ n + = 2n−1 × = = .
2 2 Γ( n) 2 n 22n−1 × 2 × nΓ( n) 22n Γ ( n + 1)

Z a
37. Show that (a + x)m−1 (a − x)n−1 d x = (2a)m+n−1 β( m, n).
−a

Solution
Let us make use of the substitution a + x = 2at. So, we have x = 2at − a and d x = 2ad t. When
x = −a, we have t = 0 and when x = a, we have t = 1. Therefore, we have
Z a Z 1
m−1 n−1
( a + x) ( a − x) dx = (2at)m−1 (a − 2at + a)n−1 (2ad t)
−a 0
Z 1
= (2at)m−1 (2a − 2at)n−1 (2ad t)
0

Page 24 of 25 Dr.M.VENKATESAN, Prof. of Maths (Emeritus)

Created on: November 25, 2024 Anna University, Chennai - 25
 Z 1
m−1+ n−1+1
= (2a) t m−1 (1 − t)n−1 d t
0

= (2a)m+n−1 β( m, n).

Z π/2 dx π ³ pπ ´
38. Prove that = sec .
0 tan p x 2 2
Solution
The given integral is written as
Z π/2 dx
Z π/2
= sin− p ( x) cos p x d x
0 tan p x 0
1− p 1+ p
¶ µ µ¶
Γ Γ
1 −p + 1 p + 1 1 1 1− p 1+ p
µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶
2 2
= β , = ¶ = Γ Γ .
1− p 1+ p
µ
2 2 2 2 2 2 2
Γ +
2 2

π p+1
We know that Γ( m)Γ(1 − m) = . Replacing m by , we have
sin( nπ) 2

p+1 p+1 π
µ ¶ µ ¶
Γ Γ 1− =
p+1
¶µ
2 2
sin π
2
1+ p 1− p π ³ pπ ´
µ ¶ µ ¶
Γ Γ = ³ pπ ´ = π cosec .
2 2 sin 2
2

Using the above result, we get the value of the given integral
Z π/2 dx 1 1− p
µ ¶ µ
1+ p
¶
1 ³ pπ ´ π ³ pπ ´
= Γ Γ = × π cosec = cosec .
0 tan p x 2 2 2 2 2 2 2

−End −

Page 25 of 25 Dr.M.VENKATESAN, Prof. of Maths (Emeritus)

Created on: November 25, 2024 Anna University, Chennai - 25