ĐIỂM CHỮ KÝ GIÁM KHẢO SỐ PHÁCH

BẰNG SỐ BẰNG CHỮ GK1 GK2 ( Do CTHĐ chấm thi ghi )

SECTION I: LISTENING (5.0 points)

Bài nghe gồm 3 phần mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 20 giây.
Mở đầu mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc, mỗi phần cách nhau 30 giây.
Thí sinh đọc kỹ hướng dẫn trước khi làm bài.

Part 1: You will hear a radio interview about a mystery on Mount Everest. For questions 1 - 6 choose
the best answer (a, b or c). (1.5 points)
1. Mallory and Irvine climbed up Everest in________.
A. 1924 B. 1929 C. 1953
2. We know that Mallory and Irvine________.
A. climbed at least 8,000 metres up Everest
B. reached the summit of Everest
C. were on the way back down when they die
3. Some people think Mallory reached the summit because________.
A. they found photos of the summit on his body
B. his wife's photo was found at the summit
C. his wife's photo was not on his body
4. The discovery of Mallory's goggles tells us________.
A. that it must have been dark when he died
B. what the weather must have been like when he died
C. doesn't tell us enough to solve the mystery
5. Matt Stevens thinks Mallory and Irvine________.
A. definitely reached the summit
B. probably reached the summit
C. probably didn't reach the summit
6. Matt thinks that Mallory probably fell because________.
A. his body had a rope attached to it
B. his body was covered in snow
C. his camera was found with his body

Your answers.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

Part 2: You are going to hear five people talking about the problems related to money. For questions 1-5, choose
which problem A-F each speaker talks about. There is one extra letter you do not need to use. (1.5 points)
Speaker 1: ____________ A. getting into debt
Speaker 2: ____________ B. health problems
Speaker 3: ____________ C. compulsive gambling
Speaker 4: ____________ D. family breakdown
Speaker 5: ____________ E. telling lies
F. crime
Your answers.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

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Part 3: You will hear a professional dancer talking to a group of young people about dancing as
a career. For questions 1-8, complete the sentences. (2.0 points)
To become a (1) ___________dancer, it is best to start lessons when you are very young.
On degree courses, there is often more emphasis on academic learning than (2) ___________skills.
In order to make contacts, dance students should attend (3) ___________.
When dancers go to auditions, they should remember to (4) ___________.
Dancers must be prepared to experience (5) ___________ during their careers and develop other skills.
Some dancers refuse to consider (6) ___________was a way of earning money.
Dancers should try to avoid (7) ___________ which may shorten a career.
Dancers who are unwilling to (8) ___________ are unlikely to do well.

Your answers.
1. 5.
2. 6.
3. 7.
4. 8.

SECTION II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (5.0 points)

Part 1: Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes (1.0 point).
Question 1: _____________, we can take another road.
A. If need be B. When it may C. We might as well D. Come what must
Question 2: Ho Chi Minh ___ a full account of his time at Quang Tay prison in his book Nhat Ky Trong Tu.
A brought about B. took on C. caught out D. wrote up
Question 3: Kim Jisoo has an unbelievable voice. Her singing is absolutely _______.
A. out of this world B. beyond this world C. out of this life D. beyond this life
Question 4: Even if you are rich, you should save some money for a ________ day.
A. windy B. rainy C. foggy D. snow
Question 5: We need to make sure that we are doing things well ______ we can deal with future threats like
cybersecurity or climate change.
A. since B. and C. so that D. because
Question 6: John’s ________ and efficiency at the company led to his promotion to Sales Manager.
A. punctuality B. punctual C. punctuate D. punctually
Question 7: Only because she had to support her family …………… to leave school.
A. that Alice decides B. did Alice decide C. does Alice decide D. Alice decided
Question 8: This math problem ____________ in the last lesson.
A. has been solved B. is solved C. solves D. was solved
Question 9: It was ______ a basketball.
A. less big as B. bit as big as C. roughly as big as D. lesser in size than
Question 10: Some Vietnamese traditional foods and spices like shrimp paste may ____ your breath for days
after a meal.
A. damage B. harm C. reduce D. spoil

Your answers.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

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Part 2: Read the passage below. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes (1.0 point).
Creating the perfect CV

The (0) _______ of online job hunting has increased the importance of GROW
having a good CV. Many employers now search CV databases for potential
candidates, and a great CV which highlights your skills and experience will
boost your chances of getting an interview (1) _______. On average, a CONSIDER
recruiter will spend just eight seconds reviewing each CV, so it's important
to get it right. If you follow a basic structure, you can present the
information in a clear, concise and (2) _______ way. Your CV should look PERSUADE
clean and tidy with no frills or fancy (3) _______, with all the information ATTACH
clearly signposted, and should not exceed two pages. Include your name,
address and contact details, but information about your (4) _______, age NATIONAL
and hobbies is not essential.
Any (5) _______ employer will be interested in your work experience. List PROSPECT
the most recent first, describing your previous jobs in short sentences using
straightforward, positive language which highlights all your key (6) ACHIEVE
_______. Similarly, list brief details of your academic- and professional (7) QUALIFY
_______ along with the grades attained. Include specific skills such as IT
(8) _______ or languages, and state whether you're at a basic, intermediate PACK
or 'advanced level. (9) _______ looking for their first job since leaving full- APPLY
time education are (10) _______ to have much relevant work experience, so LIKE
should put information about their academic record and key skills first.

Your answers. (0) growth

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3: Read the passage carefully. Some of the lines are correct and some have a word which should
not be there. If a line is correct, put a tick () in the space provided. If a line has a word which should
not be there, write it in the space provided. (0) and (00) has been done as an example (1.0 point).

Man is a unique being. He is different from all other creatures because he does not 0.
merely form part of the environment. Man reshapes whose his environment at will to suit his 00. whose
purposes. He does not have a natural habitat and it is able to adapt himself to living in 1. _____
different environments. Among the many ways in which Man has changed his environment 2. _____
are the building of cities and then roads, the developing of land for farming and the 3. _____
reclaiming of land from the sea. While some of the changes are harmless, when some are 4. _____
extremely harmful to the environment.
An example of harmful consequence of Man’s actions is that of pollution. Through the 5. _____
use of scientific knowledge and advanced technology, Man has increased his well-being and 6. _____
life expectancy. In the process, however, he that has also brought about the growing problem 7. _____
of worldwide pollution. One of the a main sources of air pollution is motor vehicles. Gases 8. _____
emitted from the car engines did do contain many chemicals, which are harmful to people, 9. _____
a animals and plants. Industry also contributes significantly to the pollution of the 10. _____
environment. There is no major city in the world today in which we can breathe fresh, clean
air.
It is, therefore, important to us to be environment-conscious and avoid actions which bring
about harmful effects to our environment.

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Part 4: Complete each sentence with the correct form of ONE of the phrasal verbs below. Write your
answer in the corresponding numbered box. Each verb is used only once (1.0 point).
turn up put off come down with look after get over
wear off cut down keep on run into try out

1. In fact, researchers are still _______ to figure _______how learning happens.

2. I'd almost given up hope of finding a house I liked, and then suddenly this one _______.
3. He threw the foul cloth into the bushes and _______the house.
4. The match has been _______until tomorrow because of bad weather.
5. We cannot guarantee that we will be able to _______you _______at the end of your contract.
6. She _______this summer flu everyone's getting and went home before I got in.
7. She's already _______on going out and buying clothes, but she doesn't have enough money
to start paying off her debts.
8. I searched for her last night so that she could _______you.
9. The kids spent hours on the computer at first, but the novelty soon _______.
10. The doctor told Mum it was only a stomach upset, not food poisoning, and she would _______it in a day
or two.

Your answers.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 5: Fill in each gap with one correct word: Use only ONE word for each space. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes (1.0 point).
Mini Televisions
Scott Newman wouldn't be without his pocket- size TV, which he mainly watches in bed. ‘I only watch
programmes which last about (1) _________ hour, as any longer strains my eyes. I use the TV for general entertainment,
though it is also really good for keeping (2) _________ with current affairs. The main problem with the set is that it's not
loud (3) _________, even when you use headphones. The reception is all right (4) _________ long as nothing moves in front
of the aerial.’ Scott admits that he is a bit of a gadget man but doesn't regret buying the set since he uses (5) _________
nearly every day.
Retired engineer Paul Hardcastle (6) _________ owned a pocket TV for a number (7) _________ years. 'I use it
mostly in the bathroom. I wanted to use it outdoors, (8) _________ the trouble is that in bright light you (9) _________ see
the picture. I use rechargeable batteries as ordinary ones would cost such a lot. Paul believes that this sort of TV could be
improved (10) _________ the screen was slightly bigger and it didn't use up batteries so quickly: he can only get half an
hour's viewing before the batteries run out.

Your answers.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

SECTION III: READING (5.0 points)

Part 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.2 points).
The texting pigeons
Not everybody recognizes the benefits of new developments in communications technology. Indeed,
some people fear that text messaging may actually be having a negative (1) _______ on young people's
communication and language skills, especially when we hear that primary school children may be at (2)
_______of becoming addicted to the habit. So widespread has texting become, however, that even pigeons
have started doing it. (3) _______, in this case, it's difficult to view the results as anything but positive.
Twenty of the birds are about to (4) _______ to the skies with the task of measuring air pollution,
each (5) _______ with sensor equipment and a mobile phone. The (6) _______ made by the sensors will be
automatically (7) _______ into text messages and beamed to the Internet - where they will (8) _______ on a
dedicated 'pigeon blog'.

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 The birds will also each have a GPS receiver and a camera to capture aerial photos, and researchers
are building a tiny pigeon kif containing all these (9) _______. Each bird will carry these in a miniature
backpack, (10) _______, that is, from the camera, which will hang around its neck.
The data the pigeons text will be displayed in the (11) _______ of an interactive map, which will
(12) _______ local residents with up-to-the-minute information on their local air quality.

1. A. result B. outcome C. effect D. conclusion

2. A. danger B. threat C. risk D. peril
3. A. Therefore B. What's more C. Whereas D. That is
4. A. make B. launch C. reach D. take
5. A. armed B. loaded C. granted D. stocked
6. A. studies B. readings C. reviews D. inquiries
7. A. adapted B. converted C. revised D. applied
8. A. attend B. present C. issue D. appear
9. A. gadgets B. utensils C. appliances D. implements
10. A. instead B. except C. apart D. besides
11. A. shape B. way C. form D. size
12. A. offer B. produce C. donate D. provide

Your answers.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.

Part 2: You are going to read an article about a music festival. For questions 1-8. choose the answer
(A. B. C or D) which you think fits best according to the text. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes (2.4 points).

The Glastonbury Festival

Entering the already crowded festival site. I was a little uneasy. I’d heard discouraging tales of
muddy fields, shocking toilet facilities and not being able to find your tent among so many others exactly the
same as yours. I had, of course, tried to prepare for every eventuality. In my rucksack was a brightly
coloured flag to raise above my tent so I could find it easily, bright green wellington boots and - just in case
the sun did come out- some suncream. As it turned out, all of them proved to be very useful.
The three-day Glastonbury Festival of contemporary Performing Arts, held on Worthy Farm in
Somerset every June, is the largest open-air music festival in the world. The festival grew from humble
beginning in l970 into the massive event it is today. The main organiser of the festival is the farm's owner,
Michae1 Eavis, who started it all up because he likes music, and he still makes the final choice of which big-
name bands will appear. Over 100,000 tickets were sold this year, which is a lot of organisation for one
farmer. (In fact, he does hire a music promotion organisation to help him sort out all the complications of
running such a huge festival, so he isn't quite all on his own.)
But it's not just music at the festival. As I wandered about the site, looking for somewhere to pitch
my tent, I realised that this was, indeed, a festival of performing arts. There were theatre tents, dance
performances, jugglers and mime artists all over the site. You certainly wouldn’t starve in this place, either.
I’d never seen so many food stalls in my life. Whether you prefer Thai, Indian and African, to mention just a
few, or even good old English staples such as jacket potatoes, there was something for everyone.
After a pleasant evening of meeting people from every imaginable walk of life and dancing the night
away at the dance village, I awoke to the sounds of thunder and lightning. The downpour only lasted a
couple of hours, but it was still one of the worst rainstorms of the past 100 years, I was one of the lucky
ones. Although my tent leaked a bit and my clothing was damper than I would have liked, at least I was on
high ground. Some poor souls who had camped further down the hill had to try to retrieve whatever
belongings they could from tents submerged under four feet of water. The organizer did an efficient job of
mopping up most of the water fairly quickly, but there was no escaping the mud. Festival-goers didn’t let
that dampen their spirits in the least, though, and thanks to my green wellies, nor did I.
The famous Pyramid Stage had its usual line-up of great bands and there were plenty of big names
playing on the Other Stage, too. In fact, there are so many stages, with so many different types of music and
things going on, that it can be really difficult getting to see and do everything you want to. I found myself
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running from one venue to the next, trying to catch at least part of my favourite acts, and still missed a few
altogether.
Then it was all over, and I had to pack up my mud-caked belongings and head back to the real world
again. It had been a pleasant surprise to discover that 100,000 people crammed into muddy fields in basic
conditions (the stories I'd been told about the' toilets were true) can still manage to have the time of their
lives. Tickets aren’t cheap, but since over £1million in proceeds the festival, goes to charity, it would be
childish to complain, I left clutching the handcrafted souvenirs bought from various stalls, and warm, happy
feeling that I'm sure is shared by anyone who has experienced the magic of the Glastonbury Festival.

1. When the writer arrived at the festival, she_____

A. was afraid she might not enjoy it. B. had to walk across muddy fields.
C. was wearing we wellington boots. D. was shocked by the toilets.
2. The organization of the festival_____
A. is managed by Michael Eavis alone. B. is difficult due to the size of the project.
C. takes just a few days in the summer. D. is completely controlled by a music company.
3. What impression did the writer get walking round the festival?
A. There was too much food on sale. B. It was a very theatrical festival.
C. It was easy to get lost on the site. D. There was lots to see and do.
4. The writer uses the phrase ‘from every imaginable walk of life' (underlined) to show_____
A. the lively way people at the festival behaved. B. what activities people were doing at the festival.
C. there were a wide variety of people at the festival. D. how many people she had met at the dance village.
5. The flooding didn't affect the writer as much as some people because_____
A. her tent didn’t let any water in. B. she had set up her tent on a hill.
C. she didn't mind wearing damp clothes. D. the organisers were good at their job.
6. What complaint did the writer have about the performances at the festival?
A. She didn't manage to see some performances. B. She became tired from running around the site.
C. There was too much music on at the festival. D. It wasn't possible to see a full performance.
7. What feature of the festival had the writer not expected?
A. Tickets for the festival were very expensive. B. There were over 100,000 people there.
C. Festival profits are donated to charity. D. It was enjoyable despite the lack of comfort.
8. What was the writer's attitude to the festival by the end of it?
A. She realised the discouraging stories she'd heard were untrue.
B. She felt that attending the festival had been a special experience.
C. She thought she had spent too much on tickets and souvenirs.
D. She was sad that she would have to go back to a normal life again.

Your answers.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.

Part 3: In the passage below, seven paragraphs have been removed. For questions 1 -7, read the passage
and choose from the paragraphs A-H the one which fits each gap. There is ONE extra paragraph which
you do not need to use. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered box provided (1.4 points).

Playing the Game

It's a cut-throat business but there are massive rewards on offer in the software industry - and age is no
barrier to success, explains Rupert Jones.
The frequent claim that Britain has an unrivalled reputation when it comes to producing games is no idle
boast; the UK has by far the biggest development community in Europe and is also home to most of the
global publishing giants. In fact, the UK leisure software market is now said to be the fastest-growing sector
of the UK entertainment media.

1.

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"It's now very much a commercial exercise," says Roger Bennett, Director General of industry trade body,
the Entertainment and Leisure Software Publishers Association (ELSPA). "Whereas people can make a film
with a camcorder, you can't make a game now unless you have a huge amount of equipment and the skills to
use it." And lots of money, too. A top-flight game can cost up to £5m to develop.

2.

This is borne out by Nick Wheelwright at Codemasters. He says it looks for "outstanding academic people".
Those the company takes on will normally have a degree in a relevant discipline, so for an artist that might
be fine art or illustration and animation, while for a programmer it could be computer science or maths.

3.

When it comes to publishing, distribution and marketing, the skills required tend to be more commercial.
"It's an industry that people do want to get into. Whenever we advertise a vacancy we get lots of interest,"
says Rob Murphy, finance director at south-London-based SCi Entertainment.

4.

Games testers are a crucial component of the industry, and this is an area where a university qualification
may not be necessary - five GCSEs and good PC knowledge may be enough. These are the people who play
games all day, testing them for playability and making sure there are no bugs.

5.

Rachel Wood swapped her paintbrush for a computer and the latest graphics and animation software seven
years ago. She is now a senior lead artist at Codemasters, overseeing a team of artists working on two new
games. "Everyone has input into how the game looks, especially in the early stages. My job is to direct that,
initially, and make sure everyone is working in the same direction," says Rachel.

6.

When Rachel joined Codemasters she had little understanding of how computers worked, but she had had an
interest in maths and physics before choosing to take the fine art route. Working in this field does involve "a
certain degree of technological understanding" but Rachel stresses that traditional artistic talent and
creativity are very important.

7.

Getting a job as a games tester can be a good route in. Many games-mad teenagers have got in this way and
then worked their way up the ladder. Students may be able to get a foot in the door by doing gap year or
summer job work experience, perhaps working on the company website. A passion for games isn’t
obligatory but, obviously, it helps.

A. Perhaps inevitably, the development side in particular has become much more professional in the way it
operates, with a far greater emphasis on academic excellence when it comes to hiring staff. "The people
being employed now are highly educated and highly qualified. The biggest studios will only recruit people
of high academic excellence," says Mr. Bennett.

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 B. Now 29, she studied fine art at Plymouth University and later spent time doing oil painting commissions
but she was not content. "Working as a fine artist is fairly isolated. This offered a chance to learn new
technologies and to be working in a team." Once she arrived, she was hooked, though she had to learn some
new skills.

C. Based near Leamington Spa, Codemasters employs more than 400 people, and the average age of the
staff is just 23-24. It has, among others, people with physics degrees who measure things like the speed,
momentum and crash impact in racing games, computer science graduates who are responsible for testing
the games to check for bugs, people with law degrees involved with celebrity contracts and licences, and
automotive engineering graduates who design the structure of virtual racing cars.

D. For wannabe graphics artists, some degree of technological understanding is clearly an advantage. If
you’re not up on the latest software, however, don't be put off. There’s still space for people with traditional
artistic talent and creativity. You can pick up the tech side as you go.

E. "Quite often you will have to play the game for many months. You have to be dedicated and pretty
systematic," says Mr. Murphy. Codemasters says there may be as many as 30 people testing the same game
for the final three months. “A tester might be paid around £18,000 compared with an experienced producer,
who can earn £40,000-plus”, says Mr. Murphy.

F. To stand a chance of serious long-term success in this cut-throat market, games consoles need great
games, and lots of them. It's on sales of games at up to £45 a throw that the real profits are made. ‘Club
Football’ and ‘LMA Manager’ are two such titles. "We've been going out to the clubs and photographing the
players. I've been to a couple of the shoots," smiles Rachel.

G. But the past few years have brought big changes to the way companies work. The cottage industry days,
when a teenage techie could create a game in his bedroom that went on to become a blockbuster, are long
gone.

H. SCi is one of the UK's longest-established games publishers, whose recent hits include ‘The Italian Job’,
based on the Michael Caine heist movie. Mr. Murphy adds that it helps to have some experience under your
belt. "There are a lot of things people can do to get experience; for example, becoming a tester for a while.
We have had students on their gap year in to help on our website." Most people will have degrees but a lot
comes down to the individual and their enthusiasm for games.

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

SECTION IV: WRITING (5.0 points)

PART 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it (1.5 points).
1.I’ve never been given such a nice present before.
→ It’s the ___________________________________________________________________________.
2. It wasn’t necessary for you to buy so many roses as you did.
→ You needn’t ______________________________________________________________________.
3. Do you intend to go to her party tomorrow?
→ Are you __________________________________________________________________________?
4. Can't you find an easier exercise than this?
→ Is_______________________________________________________________________________?
5. He stayed at home because he couldn't afford a holiday.
→ If he_____________________________________________________________________________.

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PART 2: Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to complete a new
sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT
change the form of the given word (1.5 points).
1. He always had everything he wanted as a child. (short of)
→ Never _________________________________________________________ he wanted as a child.
2. She damaged the car badly when she backed into the tree. (did)
→ She ______________________________________________ the car when she backed into the tree.
3. If the referee hadn’t intervened promptly, a fight would have developed on the pitch. (intervention)
→ But for _______________________________________, a fight would have developed on the pitch.
4. The chairman resigned because of his sudden illness. (resulted)
→ The ______________________________________________________________his sudden illness.
5. My boss doesn’t allow us to eat at our desks. (line)
→ My boss draws_________________________________________________________ at our desks.

PART 3: Write an essay (about 250 words) on the following topic (2.0 points).
Having a nice family is more essential than having friends. In the lack of friendship, the family may
always make up for it.
To what degree do you agree or disagree with this statement?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.
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The end.

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