IIT/NEET – ACADEMY

SENIOR NEET RPT - 5

Date : 27.10.2024 (NEET MODEL) Time : 3hrs
STD : XII CODE- A Max. Marks : 720

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

It is mandatory to use BALL POINT PEN to dark appropriate circle in the

answer sheet.

Marks should be dark and should completely fill the circle.

The question paper consists of three parts (Physics, Chemistry , Botany &

Zoology). Each part contains 45 questions.

Part – A (Physics) : Contains 45 Questions. Each question has four

choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT.

Part – B (Chemistry) : Contains 45 Questions. Each question has four

choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT

Part – C (Botany&Zoology) : Contains 90 Questions. Each question has four

choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT

Marking Scheme : For each question in every part you will be awarded

4 Marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct and zero mark

if no bubbles are darkened, minus (–1) will be awarded for incorrect answer.

******** WISH YOU ALL THE BEST ********

SUBJECT SYLLABUS PAPER SETTER

MOVING CHARGES, MAGNETISM AND MATTER, EMI, EM
PHYSICS Mr.AYYAPPA
WAVES
Mr.V.SRINIVAS
SOLUTIONS AND COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES, d & f BLOCK,
CHEMISTRY Mr.VENKATESWARULU
ALDEHYDES, KETONES, CARBOXYLIC ACIDS,
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS,
BOTANY PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE & VARIATION, MICROBES IN Mr.MURALLI
HUMAN WELFARE
HUMAN REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH, ORGANISM & Mr.SURENDER
ZOOLOGY
POPULATION, ECOLOGY, BIODIVERSITY RAJKUMAR
RPT – 5 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-27.10.2024
PHYSICS
1. A ring of radius R, made of an insulating material, carries a charge Q uniformly
distributed on it. If the ring rotates about the axis passing through its centre
and normal to plane of the ring with constant angular speed  , then the
magnitude of the magnetic moment of the ring is
1 1
1) Q R 2 2) Q R 2 3) Q 2 R 4) Q 2 R
2 2
2. Two short magnets each of moment 10 A  m2 are placed in end-on position so
that their centres are 0.1m apart. The force between them is
1) 0.4N 2) 0.5N 3) 0.6N 4) 0.8N
3. What will be the resultant magnetic field at origin due to four infinite length of
current carrying wires if each wire produces magnetic field B at origin?

1) 4B 2) 2 B 3) 2 2B 4) Zero
4. A short bar magnet of magnetic moment 0.4 J T is placed in a uniform
-1

magnetic field of 0.16 T. The magnet is stable equilibrium when the potential
energy is
1) -0.64 J 2) zero 3) -0.082 J 4) -0.064 J
5. Two parallel wires are carrying electric currents of equal magnitude and in the
same direction. They exert
1) An attractive force on each other 2) A repulsive force on each other
3) No force on each other 4) A rotational torque on each other

6. Light wave is travelling along y-direction. If the corresponding E vector at any

time is along the x-axis, the direction of B vector at that time is along

1) y-axis 2) x-axis 3) +z-axis 4) –z axis

7. The north and south poles of two identical magnets approach a coil containing a
condenser, with equal speeds from opposite sides. Then

1) Plate 1 will be negative and plate 2 positive

2) Plate 1 will be positive and plate 2 negative
3) Both the plates will be positive
4) Both the plates will be negative

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RPT – 5 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-27.10.2024
8. A coil of resistance 400  is placed in a magnetic field. If the magnetic flux 
(Wb) linked with the coil varies with time t(s) as  = 50t2 + 4, the current in the
coil at t = 2 s is
1) 1 A 2) 0.5 A 3) 0.1 A 4) 2 A
9. An electron is travelling horizontally towards east. A magnetic field in vertically
downward direction exerts a force on the electron along
1) East 2) West 3) North 4) South
10. A magnetic needle suspended parallel to a magnetic field requires 3J of work
0
to turn it through 60 . The torque needed to maintain the needle in this position
will be
3
1) 2 3 J 2) 3 J 3) 3 J 4) J
2
11. A straight wire of length L is bent into a semicircle. It is moved in a uniform
magnetic field with speed v with diameter perpendicular to the field. The
induced emf between the ends of the wire is

2BvL
1) BLv 2) 2BLv 3) 2πBLv 4)

12. An infinitely long, straight conductor AB is fixed and a current is passed
through it. Another movable straight wire CD of finite length and carrying
current is held perpendicular to it and released. Neglect weight of the wire,

1) The rod CD will move upwards parallel to itself

2) The rod CD will move downward parallel to itself
3) The rod CD will move upward and turn clockwise at the same time
4) The rod CD will move upward and turn anti-clockwise at the same time
13. A long straight wire of resistance R, radius a and length l carries a constant
current I. The poynting vector for the wire will be
IR IR 2 I 2R I 2R
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 al al al 2 al
14. Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage
sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V. The
resistance of the galvanometer is
1) 40  2) 25  3) 250 4) 500
15. Considering magnetic field along the axis of a circular loop of radius R, at what
distance from the centre of the loop is the field one eighth of its value at the
centre?
1) 4R 2) 3R 3) 3R 4) 6R
16. The sun delivers 104 W / m 2 of electromagnetic flux to the earth’s surface. The
total power that is incident on a roof of dimensions 10  10  m 2 will be
1) 10 4 W 2) 105 W 3) 106 W 4) 107 W

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RPT – 5 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-27.10.2024
17. An arbitrary shaped closed coil is made of a wire of length L and a current I
ampere is flowing in it. If the plane of the coil is perpendicular to magnetic field

B , the force on the coil is
1
1) Zero 2) IBL 3) 2 IBL IBL 4)
2
18. Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating
electromagnetic wave?
1) A charge moving at constant velocity 2) A stationary charge
3) A chargeless particle 4) An accelerating charge
19. A conductor AB of length l carrying current i1 is placed perpendicular to a long
straight conductor carrying a current i2 as shown. Force on AB will be

3  0 i1i2 l  0 i1i2  ii 2  0 i1i2

1) 2) log e 3 3) 0 1 2 log e 2 4) log e 5
2 2 2 3
20. The energy of X-rays photon is 3.3  1016 J . Its frequency is
1) 2  1019 Hz 2) 5  1018 Hz 3) 5  1017 Hz 4) 5  1016 Hz
21. An electron moves on a straight line path xy as shown. The abcd is a coil
adjacent to the path of electron. What will be the direction of current, if any,
induced in the coil?

1) No current induced 2) abcd 3) adcd

4) The current will reverse its direction as the electron goes past the coil
22. If a particle of charge 10-12 C moving along the x-direction with a velocity 105
m/s experiences a force of 10-10 Newton in y-direction due to magnetic field,
then the minimum magnetic field is
1) 6.25  103 T in z-direction 2) 10 15 T in z-direction
3) 6.25  10 3 T in z-direction 4) 103 T in z-direction
23. If the magnetic dipole moment of an atom of diamagnetic material, paramagnetic
material and ferromagnetic material is denoted by d ,  p ,  f , respectively, then
1)  d  0 and  f  0 2)  p  0 and  f  0
3)  d  0 and  p  0 4)  d  0 and  p  0
24. Three long straight wires A, B and C are carrying current as shown figure. Then
the resultant force on B is directed

1) Towards A 2) Towards C
3) Perpendicular to the plane of paper and outward
4) Perpendicular to the plane of paper and inward

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RPT – 5 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-27.10.2024
25. Instantaneous displacement current of 1.0 A in the space between the parallel
plates of 1  F capacitor can be established by rate of change of potential
difference is
1) 106 V / s 2) 106 V / s 3) 108 V / s 4) 108 V / s
26. The variation of magnetic susceptibility (x) with temperature for a diamagnetic
substance is best represented by

1) 2)

3) 4)

27. An electron moves with a constant speed v along a circle of radius r. Its
magnetic moment will be (e is the electron’s charge)
1
1) evr 2) evr 3)  r 2 ev 4) 2 rev
2
28. A proton and a deuteron, both having the same kinetic energy, enter
perpendicularly into a uniform magnetic field B. For motion of proton and
deuteron on circular path of radius Rp and Rd , respectively, the correct option is

1) Rd  2Rp 2) Rd  R p / 2 3) Rd  Rp 4) Rd  2 R p
29. A radiation of energy E falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface. The
momentum transferred to the surface is (C = velocity of light)
E 2E 2E E
1) 2) 3) 2 4) 2
C C C C
30. Two magnets are held together in a vibration magnetometer and are allowed to
oscillate in the earth’s magnetic field with like poles together. For this case 12
oscillations per minute are made but for unlike poles together only 4 oscillations
per minute are executed. The ratio of their magnetic moments is
1) 3:1 2) 1:3 3) 3:5 4) 5:4
31. The current in a coil decreases from 1A to 0.2A in 10s. Calculate the coefficient
of self-inductance, if induced emf is 0.4 volt
1) 5 H 2) 3 H 3) 4 H 4) 2 H
32. Two short magnets of magnetic moment 3 Am and 4 Am2 are placed along two
2

lines drawn at right angle to each other on the sheet of paper as shown in the
figure. What is the magnetic field at the point of intersection of their axis?

1) 800×10-5 T 2) 215×10-5 T 3) 0.215×10-5 T 4) 0.8×10-5 T

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RPT – 5 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-27.10.2024
33. A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field with velocity vector at an
angle of 450 with the magnetic field. The pitch of the helical path followed by the
particle is p. The radius of the helix will be
p p 2p
1) 2) 2p 3) 4)
2 2 
34. Two long straight horizontal parallel wires one above the other are separated by
a distance ‘2a’. If the wires carry equal currents in opposite directions, the
magnitude of the magnetic induction in the plane of the wires at a distance ‘a’
above the upper wire is
i i i i i i
1) 0 2) 0  0 3) 0  0 4) 0
2 a 2 a 4 a 2 a 4 a 3 a
35. Statement – I: The magnetic field at the ends of a very long current carrying
solenoid is half of that at the centre.
Statement – II: If the solenoid is sufficiently long, the field within it is uniform
1) both statements are true and statement II is the correct explanation of
statement I
2) both statements are true but statement II is not the correct explanation of
statement I
3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
4) Both statements are false
36. The magnetic moment produced in a substance of 1 g is 6  107 A m 2 . If its
density is 5 g / cm3 , then the intensity of magnetisation in A/m will be
1) 8.3  106 2) 3.0 3) 1.2  107 4) 3  106
37. A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field with velocity v0 perpendicular
3
to it. The length of magnetic field is x  R, where R is the radius of the
2
circular path of the particle in the field. The magnitude of change in velocity of
the particle when it comes out of the field is

3v0
1) 2v0 2) v0 / 2 3) 4) v0
2
38. One conducting U tube can slide inside another as shown in figure, maintaining
electrical contacts between the tubes. The magnetic field B is perpendicular to
the plane of the figure. If each tube moves towards the other at a constant sped
v, then the emf induced in the circuit in terms of B, l and v, where l is the width
of each tube, will be

1) Zero 2) 2Blv 3) Blv 4) –Blv

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RPT – 5 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-27.10.2024

39. The magnetic field at O due to current in the infinite wire forming a loop as
shown in figure is

0 2 I 0 2 I
1)  cos 1  cos 2  2)  tan 1  tan  2 
4 d 4 d
0 I 0 I
3)  sin 1  sin 2  4)  cos 1  sin  2 
4 d 4 d
40. If  0 and  0 represent the permittivity and permeability of vacuum and  and
 represent the permittivity and the permeability of medium, the refractive
index of the medium is given by
 0 0   0  0
1) 2) 3) 4)
  0 0 0  0 
41. A wire of length L metre carrying a current of I ampere is bent in the form of a
circle. Its magnitude of magnetic moment will be
IL IL2 I 2 L2 I 2L
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 4 4 4
42. Pure inductance of each inductor 3.0 H is connected as shown below. The
equivalent inductance of the circuit between A & B is

1) 1 H 2) 2 H 3) 3 H 4) 9 H
43. An electromagnetic wave going through vaccum is described by
E  E0 sin  kx   t  ; B  B0 sin  kx   t  . Which of the following equations is true?
1) E0 k  B0 2) E0  B0 k 3) E0 B0   k 4) None of these
44. The magnetic field at the centre of coil of n turns, bent in the form of a square of
side 2l , carrying current i, is
20 ni 20 ni 20 ni 20 ni
1) 2) 3) 4)
l 2 l 4 l 8 l
45. A cylindrical wire of radius R is carrying current i uniformly distributed over its
cross-section. If a circular loop of radius r is taken as amperian loop, then the
variation value of  B. dl over this loop with radius r of loop will be best
represented by

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RPT – 5 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-27.10.2024
CHEMISTRY
46. Density of a 2.05 M solution of acetic acid in water is 1.02 g/mL. The molality of
the solution is (MW of acetic acid = 60g/mol)
-1 -1 -1 -1
1) 2.28molkg 2) 0.44molkg 3) 1.14molkg 4) 3.28molkg
47. Which of the following compounds will form yellow precipitate when treated with
alkaline Iodine solution
O
1) CH3  CH 2  CHO 2) CH3  O  CH3 3) || 4) ph  CHO
CH 3  C  CH 3
48. Considering 80% dissociation of electrolyte, the freezing point of 1 molal
aqueous BaCl2 solution is _______ 0C.
1) 1.86 2) 5.58 3) 4.84 4) 3.72
49. Correct order of boiling points of the following compounds:
1) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CH3  CH3 CH 2 CH 2 CHO  CH3CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 OH  C2 H5 OC2 H5
2) CH3CH 2 CH 2 CH3  C2 H5OC2 H5  CH3CH 2 CH 2CHO  CH3CH 2CH2 CH 2 OH
3) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 OH  CH3 CH 2 CH 2 CHO  C2 H5 OC2 H5  CH3CH 2 CH 2 CH3
4) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CHO  CH3CH 2 CH 2 CH3  C2 H5 OC2 H5  CH3CH 2 CH 2 CH3
50. Air contains O2 and N2 in the ratio 1 : 4 molar ratio. If Henry law constant for
O2 and N2 are 3.3  10 7 torr and 6.6  10 7 torr respectively, then the ratio of mole
fractions of O2 to N2 dissolved in given water at 1 bar total pressure is ______
1) 1:1 2) 2:1 3) 1:2 4) 1:3
51. Match the following:
Column – I (convertion) Column – II (reagent required)
(A) Hexanol to Hexanal (I) O3 / H 2 O  Zn dust
(B) But – 2 – ene to Ethanal (II) C5 H 5 NH  CrO3Cl   PCC 
(C) Ethanenitrile to Ethanal (III) Hg 2  / H 2 SO4 . H 2O
(D) Propyne to Acetone (IV) DIBAL – H, H2O/H+

1) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III 2) A – I, B – II, C – IV, D – III

3) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV 4) A – I, B – IV, C – III, D – II
52. The vapour pressure is least for
1) Pure water 2) 0.1m aqueous urea
3) 0.2m aqueous urea 4) 0.3m aqueous urea
1) C6 H 5 MgBr / ether
53. CH 3  CH 2  CN A A Is
2) H 2 O
1) 1–phenyl ethanone 2) 1–phenyl propanone
3) Propanone 4) Ethyl benzene
54. 15cm3 of liquid ‘x’ and 20cm3 of liquid ‘y’ are mixed at 20 0 C and the volume of
3
solution was measured to be 35.1cm then correct relation is
1) Hmix  0, solution shows +ve deviation
2) Hmix  0, solution shows +ve deviation
3) Hmix  0, solution shows –ve deviation
4) Hmix  0, solution shows –ve deviation
55. Which of the following forms Hydrogen-bond with water
A) butanol B) Propanone C) Methanal D) hexanal
1) A, B, C Only 2) B, D Only 3) B, C Only 4) All

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RPT – 5 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-27.10.2024
56. At a given temperature
A) Vapour pressure of a solution containing non-volatile solute is proportional to
mole fraction of solvent
B) Lowering of vapour pressure of solution containing non-volatile solute is
proportional to mole fraction of solute
C) Relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to mole fraction of solute
The correct statements are
1) A only 2) A, B only 3) A, B and C only 4) B, C only
 i  kCN

NaBH 4
HCl
57. CH 3CH  CHCHO  y z then z is
ZnCL2  ii   H  

1) CH 3CH  CHCH 2 COOH 2) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 COOH

3) CH 3  CH  CH  COOH 4) CH 3CHClCH 2 COOH
58. Which one of the following does not correctly represent the correct order of the
property indicated against it?
1) Ti < V < Cr < Mn: increasing number of oxidations states
2) Ti2+ <V2+ <Cr2+ <Mn2+ : increasing magnetic moment
3) Ti < V < Cr < Mn: increasing melting points
4) Ti < V < Mn < Cr: increasing 2nd ionization enthalpy
59. Hydrogenation of benzoyl Chloride in the presence of Pd and BaSO4 gives
1) Benzyl alcohol 2) Benzaldehyde 3) Benzoic acid 4) phenol
60. O 2 is bubbled through water at 293K, assuming that O 2 exerts a partial
1
pressure of 1 bar. Then the solubility of O 2 in gm.L is _______
(Henry’s law constant = 34 k bar)
1) 0.025 2) 0.052 3) 0.154 4) 0.268
61. IUPAC Name of Acrolein is
1) Prop – 2 – enal 2) but – 3 – enal 3) prop – 2 – enol 4) but – 3 – enol
62. 6g of a unknown non volatile solute is dissolved in 90g of water, such that the
lowering in vapour pressure is 2%. The molecular weight of the solute
is_____g/mol.
1) 65 2) 92 3) 60 4) 80
63. In which of the following reaction, Carbon-Carbon bond formation takes place?
A) Gattermann – Koch B) Stephen reaction
C) Etard reaction D) Aldol condensation
1) A, C Only 2) A, B, D Only 3) A, D Only 4) C, D Only
64. 2 mole of liquid A  PA0  240mm Hg  and 3 mole of liquid B  PB0  320mm Hg  are
mixed. Then the mole fraction of liquid A in vapour phase is _____
1) 0.33 2) 0.66 3) 0.42 4) 0.58
65. Match the following:
Column – I (Vitamin) Column – II (Deficiency diseases)
(A) Vitamin B1 (I) Convulsions
(B) Vitamin B2 (II) Pernicious anemia
(C) Vitamin B12 (III) Beri beri
(D) Vitamin B6 (IV) Cheilosis

1) A – IV, B – III, C – I, D – II 2) A – I, B – IV, C – III, D – II

3) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I 4) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
66. The molal elevation constant of water is 0.51 K.molal-1. The boiling point of 0.1
molal aqueous NaCl solution is nearly:
1) 100.050C 2) 100.10C 3) 100.20C 4) 101.00C
67. Which of the following is correct base pairing through hydrogen bond in double
helical structure of DNA
1) A=G, C  T 2) A=T, G  C 3) A  T , G=C 4) A-G, G  C

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RPT – 5 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-27.10.2024
68. The Van’t Hoff factor for 0.1 M Ba  NO3 2 solution is 2.74. The degree of
dissociation is
1) 91.3% 2) 87% 3) 100% 4) 74%
69. Which of the following statements about proteins is not true?
1) Amino acid residues join together to make a protein molecule
2) Proteins are polymers with general molecular formula  C6 H10 O5 n
3) Eggs are rich in protein
4) Globular proteins are P H and temperatures sensitive
70. Electron configuration of a transition element is  Ar  4s 2 3d 6 . A sudden increase is
observed between
1) IP1 & IP2 2) IP2 & IP3 3) IP3 & IP4 4) IP4 & IP5
71. Glycogen is a branched chain polymer of a   D  glucose units in which chain
is formed by C1  C 4 glycosidic linkage whereas branching occurs by the
formation of C1  C6 glycosidic linkage. Structure of glycogen is similar to _____
1) Amylose 2) Amylopectin 3) Cellulose 4) Glucose
72. Dipositive Manganese ion is more stable due to
1) 3d 4 configuration 2) 3d 2 configuration
3) 3d 5 configuration 4) 3d 3 configuration
73. The incorrect statement about lactose is
1) Its monosaccharides are   D  galactose and   D  glucose
2) It is a non-reducing sugar
3) The glycosidic linkage is present between anomeric carbon of
  D  galactose and C  4 of   D  glucose
4) It is a milk sugar
74. Which of the following pairs of ions are colourless?
+3 +2 +3 +2 +2 +3 +2 +3
1) Ti ,Cu 2) Sc , Zn 3) Co , Fe 4) Ni ,V
75. Lysine, H 2 N   CH 2   CH  COOH is
4
I

NH 2
I)   amino acid II) basic amino acid
III) amino acid synthesized in body IV)   amino acid
Select the option with correct properties about Lysine.
1) I and II Only 2) II and III Only 3) III and IV Only 4) IV and I Only
76. Transition elements form alloys easily because they have
1) Same number of shells 2) Same electronic configuration
3) Nearly same atomic size 4) Same atomic weight
77. Which of the following is correct statement?
1) Starch is polymer of   D  glucose
2) Amylose is a component of cellulose
3) Proteins are composed of only essential amino acids
4) In cyclic structure of fructose, there are five carbons and one keto group
78. Which of the following is wrong?
1) Equivalent weight of KMnO4 in neutral medium is MW/3
2) 1 mole of KMnO4 can oxidize 2.5 mole of Na2SO3 in acidic medium
3) The Mn-O bond length is higher in MnO4 than that in MnO42 .
4) CrO42 is stable in basic medium while Cr2O72  is stable in acidic medium.
Cl2 alc . KOH
79. CH 3 CH 2 COOH  A B What is B?
red P

1) CH3 CH2 CHO 2) ClCH 2 C H 2 COOH 3) CH3CH2 COCl 4) CH 2 = CHCO OH

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RPT – 5 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-27.10.2024
80. Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide?
1) V2O5 , Cr2 O3 2) Mn 2O7 , CrO3 3) CrO, MnO 4) V2O3 , V2O4
81. An organic compound reacts (i) with metallic sodium to liberate hydrogen gas
and (ii) with aq. Na 2 CO3 solution to liberate C O 2 gas the compound is
1) an ether 2) an ester 3) an alcohol 4) a carboxylic acid
2
82. Four moles of KMnO4 react with excess of S2O3 containing solution to produce
________ moles of SO42 ions in basic medium.
1) 3 2) 1.5 3) 6 4) 2.0
83. Correct order of Acidic nature of the following is

I) II) III) IV)

1) I > II > III > IV 2) IV > II > I > III 3) II > I > III > IV 4) I > III > II > IV
84. Assertion (A): Elements of 4d and 5d series have nearly same atomic radii
except Y and La.
Reason (R): Lanthanide contraction is observed in the elements from atomic
number 58 to 71.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false 4) Both A and R are false
85. Carboxylic acids can be best converts into aldehydes by which of the following
methods
1) Conversion into amide followed by treatment with NaBH 4
+
2) Conversion into anhydride followed by treatment with Mg and H3 O
3) Conversion into ester followed by treatment with DIBAL-H.
4) Conversion into ester followed by treatment with LiAlH 4
86. Which of the following is wrong regarding lanthanoids?
1) Sm has higher melting point than others
2) Eu has higher atomic radius than others
3) Gd has lower negative EM0 3 / M value than others
4) Lu  OH 3 is lesser basic than La  OH 3
87. Which of the following is not true about acetophenone?
1) Reacts with 2, 4-dinitrophenyl hydrazine to form 2,4-dinitrophenyl hydrazine
2) Reacts with Tollen’s reagent to form silver mirror
3) Reacts with I2/NaOH to form Iodoform
4) On oxidation with hot alkaline KM nO 4 followed by hydrolysis gives benzoic
acid
88. Statement – I : Actinoid contraction is more from element to element when
compared with lanthanoid contraction.
Statement – II : 5f orbitals are not much buried towards nucleus when
compared to 4f orbitals.
1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
3) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false.
4) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true.
89. Which of the following is/are aldol condensation product(s) between acetone and
propanal?
1)  CH 3  2 C  CHCOCH 3 2) CH 3CH 2 CH  C  CH 3  CHO
3) CH 3CH 2 CH  CHCOCH3 4) All the above

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90. In the dichromate ion
1) 4 Cr-O bonds are equivalent 2) 6 Cr-O bonds are equivalent
3) All Cr-O bonds are equivalent 4) All Cr-O bonds are non-equivalent.

BIOLOGY
91. Choose the correct option with regard to statement A and B.
A: Microbes are present everywhere on earth.
B: They cannot live in thermal vents where temperature is as high as 100°C.
1) Statement A is correct and B is incorrect
2) Statements A and B are correct
3) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct
4) Statements A and B are incorrect
92. Choose the correct option with regard to statement A and B.
A: Lactic Acid Bacteria (LAB) are responsible for converting milk into curd.
B: LAB creates acidic medium necessary to coagulate and fully digest the milk
proteins.
1) Statements A and B are correct 2) Statements A and B are incorrect.
3) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
4) Statement B is correct and A is incorrect
93. Which group of micro-organism is useful as a biocontrol agent?
1) Cynobacteria, Bacculovirus, Trichoderma
2) Trichoderma, Bacculovirus, Bacillus thuringiensis
3) Rhizobium, Cynobacteria, Trichoderma
4) Cynobacteria, Rhizobium, Bacculovirus
94. In which tank flocs are sedimented and formed respectively?
1) Settling tank, Aeration tank 2) Aeration tank, Effluent tank
3) Aeration tank, Settling tank 4) Effluent tank, Anaerobic tank
95. ‘Gal ghotu’ is a common name for which disease?
1) Whooping cough 2) Diphtheria 3) Plague 4) Leprosy
96. Which is correct sequence for purification process of STPs ?
1) Sedimentation → Effluent → Flocs → Activated Sludge → Biogas
2) Flocs → Primary Sludge → Effluent → Activated Sludge → Biogas
3) Primary Sludge → Effluent → Activated Sludge → Flocs → Biogas
4) Effluent → Flocs → Primary Sludge → Inactivated sludge→ Biogas
97. The gas produced as end-product during growth and metabolism of microbes
depends on
1) Nature of microbe and substrate 2) Nature of digester tank and microbe
3) Nature of microbe only 4) Oxygen levels in the digester tank
98. Statement I: In paddy field, cyanobacteria serves as an important biofertilizer.
Statement II : Cyanobacteria can fix atmospheric nitrogen.
1) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false
2) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true
3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
99. Assertion: Lipases are used in detergent formulation.
Reason: Lipases help in removing oily stains from laundry.
1) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

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100. Match the following list of microbes and their importance:
(A) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (I) Production of immunosuppressive agents
(B) Monascus purpureus (II) Ripening of Swiss cheese
(C) Trichoderma polysporum (III) Commercial production of ethanol
(D) Propionibacterium sharmanii (IV) Blood-cholesterol lowering Agents
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
1) IV III II I 2) IV II I III
3) III I IV III 4) III IV I II
101. Assertion (A) : The phenotype only dependent on the function of the unmodified
allele.
Reason (R) : Unmodified allele is generally the recessive allele.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation
of the Assertion
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not correct explanation
of the Assertion
3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
4) Assertion is false and Reason is true
102. Match the following list of bacteria and their commercially important products.
Bacterium Product
(A) Aspergillus niger (I) Lactic acid
(B) Acetobacter aceti (II) Butyric acid
(C) Clostridium butylicum (III) Acetic acid
(D) Lactobacillus (IV) Citric acid
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
1) II III IV I 2) II IV III I
3) IV III II I 4) IV I III II
103. How many of the following structures have reserve food materials?
I) Tapetum II) Nucellus III) Cotyledons IV) Endosperm
V) Perisperm
1) I & II only 2) II & IV only
3) I, II, III & IV only 4) I, II, III, IV & V
104. Match the items in ‘Column-A’ and ‘Column-B’ and choose the correct answer.
Bacterium Product
(A) Lady bird (I) Methanobacterium
(B) Mycorrhiza (II) Trichoderma
(C) Biological control (III) Aphids
(D) Biogas (IV) Glomus
. The correct answer is
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
1) II IV III I 2) III IV II I
3) IV I II III 4) III II I IV
105. Refer to the given figures (A–D) showing traits of pea plant studied by Mendel.
Among these, choose the dominant trait.

1) B 2) A 3) D 4) C

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106. Choose the correct statement(s) from the following.
I) During Mendel’s investigation, statistical analysis and mathematical logic were applied
to solve problems in Biology.
II) Mendel investigated characters in the garden pea plant that were manifested as two
opposing traits.
III) Mendel conducted artificial pollination experiments using several true-breeding pea
lines.
IV) Mendel selected eight true-breeding pea plant varieties as pairs.
1) I and II 2) III and IV 3) I, II and III 4) All of these
107. When Mendel crossed true-breeding tall and dwarf plants, in F1-generation all tall
plants were obtained. On self-crossing in the F2 generation, he obtained
1) 1/4th dwarf and 3/4th tall plants 2) 3/4th dwarf and 1/4th tall plants
3) 2/4th dwarf and 2/4th tall plants 4) All dwarf plants
108. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the codes
given below.
Column – I Column - II
(A) Genes (I) Slightly different forms of the same gene
(B) Alleles (II) Genetic composition of an organism
(C) Genotype (III) Physical appearance of an organism
(D) Phenotype (IV) Unit of inheritance
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

.

1) IV I II III 2) I IV III II
3) III II IV I 4) II III I IV
109. The given figure is the diagrammatic representation of a monohybrid cross. In the
figure, some plants are mentioned as A and B. What will be the genotype of these
plants?

1) A – tt, B – Tt 2) A – Tt, B – tt 3) A – TT, B – TT 4) A – Tt, B – Tt

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110. Choose the incorrect statement about Mendel’s monohybrid cross.
1) The recessive parental trait is expressed without any blending in F2 generation.
2) The alleles of parental pair segregate from each other and both alleles are transmitted
into one gamete.
3) The segregation of alleles is a random process.
4) There is a 50% chance of a gamete containing either allele.
111. On crossing two tall plants, in F1-generation few dwarf offspring were obtained.
What would be the genotype of the both the parent?
1) TT and Tt 2) Tt and Tt 3) TT and TT 4) TT and tt
112. Choose the incorrect statement about law of dominance.
1) It is used to explain the expression of only one of the parental characters in a
monohybrid cross in F1-generation.
2) It does not explain the expression of both parental characters in F2-generation.
3) It also explains the proportion of 3: 1 obtained in F2-generation.
4) It states that characters are controlled by discrete units called factors.
113. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the codes
given below.
Column – I Column - II
(A) First law of inheritance (I) Law of segregation
(B) Second law of inheritance (II) 3: 1
(C) Monohybrid cross (III) Law of dominance
(D) Test cross (IV) 1: 1
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

.

1) III I II IV 2) I III IV II
3) II III I IV 4) IV II III I
114. In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red flower was crossed with a white flower and in
F1 generation, pink flowers were obtained. When pink flowers were selfed, the F2
generation showed white, red and pink flowers. Choose the incorrect statement
from the following.
1) The experiment does not follow the principle of dominance.
2) Pink colour in F1 is due to incomplete dominance.
3) Ratio of F2 is ¼ (Red): 2/4 (Pink): ¼ (white).
4) Two plants are homozygous pink
115. The genotypes of a husband and wife are IAIB and IAi. Among the blood types of
their children, how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?
1) 3 genotypes: 4 phenotypes 2) 4 genotypes: 3 phenotypes
3) 4 genotypes: 4 phenotypes 4) 3 genotypes: 3 phenotypes
116. How many of the following are correct w.r.t to Punnet square.
I. It is graphical representation to calculate the probability of all possible
genotypes of offspring in a genetic cross.
II. It was developed by a British geneticist Reginald C. Punnet.
III. The possible gametes are written on 2 sides, usually the top row and left
columns.
IV. All possible combinations are represented in boxes below in the squares,
which generates a square output form.
1) I & II only correct 2) II & III only correct
3) I, II, III & IV 4) II, III & IV only
117. The numbers of phenotypes and genotypes in F2 generation of a Mendelian
dihybrid cross are
1) phenotypes 4: genotypes 16 2) phenotypes 4: genotypes 8
3) phenotypes 9: genotypes 4 4) phenotypes 4: genotypes 9

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RPT – 5 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-27.10.2024
118. Mendel’s work remained unrecognized for many years. Find out the true reason
for the same.
(I) Mendel’s concept of genes was not accepted by his contemporaries as an
explanation for the continuous variation seen in nature.
(II) The approach of using mathematics was new and unacceptable by other
biologists.
(III) He could not provide any physical proof for the existence of factors.
(IV) Communication was not easy in those days and his work could not be widely
published.
1) I and II 2) II and III 3) III and IV 4) All of these
119. Among the following, who noted that the behaviour of chromosomes was parallel
to the behavior of genes?
1) Walter Sutton 2) Theodore Boveri
3) Von Tschermak 4) Both (1) and (2)
120. Match the following
Column – I Column – II
A. Vegetative cell P. Sporopollenin
B. Generative cell Q. Spindle-shaped cell
C. Exine R. Large sized and has abundant food reserve
D. Intine S. Cellulose and pectin
1) A:P, B:Q, C:R, D:S 2) A:S, B:R, C:Q, D:P
3) A:R, B:Q, C:P, D:S 4) A:Q, B:P, C:S, D:R
121. Which one of the following is incorrect?
(A) Parthenium or carrot grasses causes pollen allergy.
(B) In some cereals pollen grains lose viability within 30 minutes of their release.
(C) All pollen’s cause severe allergies and bronchial afflictions.
(D) Sporopollenin is the most resistant organic matter known.
1) All are correct 2) A 3) B 4) C
122. What are A and B in this figure?

1) A: Chasmogamous flower, 2) A: Cleistogamous flower,

B: Cleistogamous flower B: Chasmogamous flower
3) A: Chasmogamous flower, 3) A: Cleistogamous flower,
B: Chasmogamous flower B: Self-pollinated flower
123. How many pollen mother cells & meiotic devisions are required to produce 1200
pollengrains.
1) 300 & 300 2) 300 & 1200 3) 300 & 600 4) 1200 & 300
124. The map distance between genes A and B is 3 units, between B and C is 10 units
and between C and A is 7 units. The order of the genes in a linkage map
constructed on the above data would perhaps be
1) A,B,C 2) A,C,B 3) B,C,A 4) B,A,C

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125. What is the ploidy level of nucellus, MMC, functional megaspore and female
gametophyte respectively?
1) 2n, n, 2n, 2n 2) 2n, n, 2n, n
3) 2n, 2n, n, n 4) n, 2n, n, n
126. Find out the incorrect statement?
1) Morgan carried out several dihybrid crosses in drosophila to study the genes
that were sex linked.
2) Sturtevant used the frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the
same chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes are mapped their
position on chromosome.
3) Drosophila melanogaster can be grown on simple synthetic medium in the
laboratory.
4) Hugo devries united the knowledge of chromosomal segregation with
Mendelian principles and called it the chromosomal theory of inheritance.
127. Assertion (A) : Free-nuclear endosperm is the most common type of endosperm.
Reason (R) : In most of the following plants PEN undergoes successive nuclear
divisions to give rise to free nuclei.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation
of the Assertion
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not correct explanation
of the Assertion
3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
4) Assertion is false and Reason is true
128. Identify A to G in this figure.

1) A: Plumule, B: Endosperm, C: Pericarp, D: Radicle, E: Coleorhiza, F:

Scutellum, G: Coleoptile
2) A: Coleorhiza, B: Radicle, C: Endosperm, D: Pericarp, E: Plumule, F: Coleoptile,
G: Scutellum
3) A: Pericarp, B: Scutellum, C: Endosperm, D: Coleoptile, E: Plumule, F:
Coleorhiza, G: Radicle
4) A: Pericarp, B: Endosperm, C: Scutellum, D: Coleoptile, E: Plumule, F:
Radicle,G: Coleorhiza
129. Which of the following is incorrect for aquatic plants?
A) Vallisneria and Hydrilla are fresh water plants pollinated by wind.
B) Zostera is a marine grass uses water as its pollinating agent.
C) Water hyacinth and water lily are pollinated by insects or wind.
D) Most of the aquatic plant flowers emerges out of water and are pollinated by
wind or insects.
1) Only B 2) Only A 3) Only A, B and C 4) All are incorrect

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130. Which of the following is correct in reference to animal pollinated plants?
1) Butterflies, flies, beetles, wasps, ants, moths and bats are common pollinating
agents.
2) Rodents, lizards and primates are also pollinators in some species.
3) Animal pollinated plants are specifically adapted for particular species.
4) All the above
131. Statement I : Many fruits have evolved mechanisms for dispersal of seeds.
Statement II : Orchid fruit contain thousands of tiny seeds.
1) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false
2) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true
3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
132. Which of the following is correct for the relationship existence between moth and
yucca plant?
1) Moth and the plant cannot complete their life cycle without each other.
2) Moth deposits egg in the locule of the ovary and the flower and in turn flower
gets pollinated by the moth.
3) Larva of the moth comes out of the eggs as the seeds start developing.
4) All the above
133. Select the false statement from the following.
1) Persistent nucellus is known as endosperm.
2) Integuments of ovule harden as though protective seed coat.
3) Micropyle remains as a small pore in seed coat and facilitates the entry of
oxygen and water into seed during germination.
4) Both 2 and 3
134. Select the false statement.
1) Hard seed coat provides protection to young embryo.
2) Generally seed is the product of sexual reproduction, so they generate new
genetic combination leading to variation.
3) Seeds have better adaptive strategies for dispersal to new habitat and help the
species to colonize in other areas.
4) Pollination and fertilization in angiosperm depend on water.
135. Statement I : Cyanobacteria are autotrophic microbes widely distributed in
aquatic environments only.
Statement II: Bio-fertilizers are organisms that reduces the nutrient quality of
the soil.
1) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false
2) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true
3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
136. Which of the following techniques involve In vivo fertilisation
I) GIFT II) IUI
III) ICSI IV) Test-tube baby programme
1) I and II 2) III and IV 3) I and III 4) I, III and IV
137. A lady is diagnosed to have both her oviducts are completely blocked. Which
ART Technique can help her to conceive a child
1) AI 2) ZIFT 3) GIFT 4) IUT
138. The diaphragm, cervical caps and vaults are
1) Disposable, Contraceptive devices 2) Reusable Contraceptives
3) Non-medicated IUDs 4) Cu-releasing IUDs
139. Which of the following assisted reproductive technique is used to introduce
donor semen into Uterus?
1) IUT 2) IUI 3) GIFT 4) ICSI

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140. Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by
amniocentesis
1) Klinefelter’s Syndrome 2) Jaundice
3) Sex of foetus 4) Down’s Syndrome
141. What is true for IUDs
I) They are self inserted
II) They are inserted by Expert Nurses
III) They may be non-medicated IUDs, copper releasing IUDs and hormone
releasing IUDs
IV) They are the one of the most widely accepted contraceptives in India
V) They are inter-uterine devices
1) I, II and III 2) I, II, III and IV 3) II, III and IV 4) III, IV and V
142. Intensely lactating mother do not conceive generally due to the
1) Suppression of fertilisation 2) Hyper secretion of gonadotropins
3) Suppression of gonadotropins 4) Suppression of gametic transport
143. Which one is highly effective method of birth control
1) Rhythm method 2) Sterilisation techniques
3) Use of physical barrier 4) Termination of unwanted pregnancy
144. Periodic abstinence is avoiding sex during
1) Follicular phase 2) Ovulatory phase
3) luteal phase 4) Secretory phase
145. Which of the following contraceptive methods involve a role of hormone
I) Pills II) Emergency Contraceptives
III) Barrier methods IV) Cu-T V) Implants
1) I, II and III 2) II, III, IV and V 3) I, II and V 4) III, IV and V
146. Which of the following is incorrect regarding vasectomy
1) No Sperm occurs in seminal fluid 2) Sperms are not produced
3) Vas deferens is cut and tied 4) reversibility is very poor
147. Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within
1) 72 hours of menstruation 2) 72 hours of ovulation
3) 72 hours of implantation 4) 72 hours of coitus
148. When birth rate equals to death rate
1) A population grows rapidly
2) The size of a population remains constant
3) A population grows negatively 4) A population is in danger of Extinction
149. The number of living individuals up to the age of 2 years is 800. In the same age
group 200 individuals die. Find out the death rate
1) 200 2) 800 3) 0.4 4) 0.25
150. Which of the following type of interactions occurs in predation and parasitism
1) (+, +) 2) (0, +) 3) (+, -) 4) (-, -)
151. In an age pyramid, the number of individuals of reproductive age is lesser than
Pre-reproductive but higher than post reproductive ones. The population is
1) Growing 2) Declining 3) Stable 4) Always Negative
152. In Some Shallow South American lakes visiting Flamingoes and resident fishes
compete for their common food. Their common Food is
1) Insects 2) Sponges 3) Phytoplankton 4) Zooplankton
153. Biomass is more meaningful than number, when we measure population density
of
1) A Banyan tree 2) Lions in a forest
3) Parthenium Grass 4) Fish in a pond

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154. Statement– I: A population at any given time is composed of individuals of
same ages always
Statement– II: The size of the population tells us a lot about its status in the
habitat
1) Statement I is Correct and Statement II is Incorrect
2) Statement I is Incorrect and Statement II is Correct
3) Both Statements are Correct
4) Both Statements are Incorrect
155.`Assertion (A): The size of a population for any Species is not a static parameter
Reason (R): It keeps changing with time, depending on food availability,
predation pressure and adverse weather.
1) A is correct and R not correct 2) Both A and R are not correct
3) Both A and R are correct and R is correct Explanation of A
4) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct Explanation of A
156. Find out the correct ‘r’ value of human population in India (1981) and Norway
rat respectively
1) 0.015, 0.0205 2) 0.12, 0.015 3) 0.0205, 0.015 4) 0.015, 0.12
157. Read the following statements:
I) Parasite that feed on the External Surface of the host organism
II) Lice on humans and ticks on dog
III) Many Marine fish are infested with copepods
IV) Cuscuta growing on hedge plant
V) parasite that lives inside the host body at different sites to derive benefit
VI) Liver fluke living inside the animal body
Choose the correct option:
Endoparasite Ectoparasite
1) I, II, III - IV, V, VI
2) V, VI - I, II, III, IV
3) I, II, VI - III, IV, V
4) III, IV, V - I, II, VI
158. Statement – I: Catabolism is a process in which the detritus is degraded into
simpler substances by microbes (with their Enzymes)
Statement – II: Decomposition is slow if the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin
1) Statement I is Correct and Statement II is Incorrect
2) Statement I is Incorrect and Statement II is Correct
3) Both Statements are Correct
4) Both Statements are Incorrect
159. Which one of the following animals may occupy more than one trophic levels in
the same Ecosystem at the same time
1) Cow 2) Goat 3) Lion 4) Sparrow
160. If an Ecosystem is composed of Four trophic levels, then how much energy will
be transfer from third trophic level to Fourth trophic level
1) 30% 2) 20% 3) 10% 4) 0.1%
161. There is no difference between
1) First trophic level and producer 2) Secondary Carnivore and herbivore
3) Primary Consumer and producer 4) Secondary Consumer and herbivore
162. I) Catabolism II) Fragmentation III) Leaching IV) Mineralisation
V) Humification
Which of the above steps in decomposition operate simultaneously on the
detritus
1) I, II and IV 2) II, III and V 3) I, II and III 4) III, IV and V

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163. Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time is
known as
1) Standing State 2) Standing Crop
3) DFC (Detritus Food Chain) 4) Food Web
164. Read the following statements and choose the correct option
A) Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels known as
stratification
B) A constant input of solar Energy is the basic requirement for any Ecosystem
to function and sustain
1) A and B are correct 2) A is correct B is incorrect
3) B is correct A is incorrect 4) A and B are incorrect
165. Energy Flow in an Ecosystem is
1) Unidirectional 2) Bidirectional 3) Multidirectional 4) Both 2 and 3
166. Identify the possible link ‘A’ in the following food chain

1) Rabbit 2) Frog 3) Wolf 4) Cow

167. The biomass available for consumption by the Cow and Goat is
1) Net primary productivity 2) Secondary productivity
3) Standing Crop 4) Gross primary productivity
168. In a pyramid of biomass (inverted) representing an Ecosystem (Sea), the
Biomass of primary consumers are
1) less than producers 2) more than producers
3) Equals to producers 4) less (or) equals to producers
169. Match the columns:
Column A Column – B
(Extincted animals) (Country)
A) Steller’s Sea cow I) Africa
B) Thylacine II) Russia
C) Quagga III) Mauritius
D) Dodo IV) Australia
1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III 4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
170. The Extinction of Steller’s Sea cow was due to
1) Increased Number of predatory birds
2) Over Exploitation by humans
3) Non-availability of the food
4) Climatic conditions
171. Which of the following Statement is correct for our country
1) India has only 1.4% of the World’s land area
2) India share of the global species diversity is an impressive 1.8%
3) India is one of the 12 mega diversity countries in the world
4) If we accept May’s global Estimates, only 32% of the total species have been
recorded so far in India
172. Presently amongst the animal groups given below, which one face least threat of
Extinction group in the World
1) Reptiles 2) Birds 3) Mammals 4) Amphibian
173. Which of the following group of Invertebrates Exhibit more species diversity
1) Insects 2) Molluscs 3) Crustaceans 4) Sponges
174. Which one of the following method is under In-Situ conservation
1) Gene bank 2) Biosphere reserves
3) Cryopreservation 4) In vitro culture

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

RPT – 5 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-27.10.2024
175. Match the Columns:
Column – I Column – II
(Sacred grooves) (Location)
A) Chanda I) Madhya Pradesh
B) Aravalli Hills II) Rajasthan
C) Western ghat regions III) Karnataka and Maharashtra
D) Khasi and Jaintia IV) Meghalaya
1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III 4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
176. Choose the incorrect statement about biodiversity hot spots
1) These are the regions with very high levels of species richness and high
degree of Endemism
2) These are also regions of Accelerated habitat loss
3) These are covers less than 0.2% of the Earth’s land area
4) These hot spots could reduce the ongoing mass Extinctions by almost 30
percent
177. Read the following Statements
A) India has a greater Ecosystem diversity than Norway
B) According to the IUCN (2004), the total number of plant and animal species
described so far is slightly more than 15 millions
1) Both A and B are correct 2) Only B is incorrect
3) Both A and B are incorrect 4) Only B is correct
178. In a comparative analogy between the airplane and Ecosystem (the rivet popper
hypothesis) used by Stanford Ecologist Paul Ehrlich, Find out the correct
matching:
Column – I Column – II
A) Rivet I) Ecosystem
B) Airplane II) Species
C) Popping a rivet III) Key species
D) Rivets on the wings IV) Proper functioning of Ecosystem
E) Flight safety V) A species to become Extinct
1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV, E-V 2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-V, E-III
3) A-II, B-I, C-V, D-IV, E-III 4) A-II, B-I, C-V, D-III, E-IV
179. Read the following statements, Choose incorrect about the limitations of
ecological pyramids
1) It does not take into account the same species belongs to two or more trophic
levels
2) It assumes a simple food chain, something that almost never exists in
Nature3) It accommodate a food web
4) Moreover Saprophytes are not given any place in Ecological pyramids even
through they play a vital role in the Ecosystem
180. Choose the incorrect statement
1) The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is approximately
170 billion tons (Wet weight) of organic matter.
2) Decomposition is largely an oxygen-requiring process
3) of the incident solar radiation less than 50 per cent of it is PAR
4) No energy that is trapped into an organism remains in it for ever

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY