Sean Hutton - SQE - Criminal Practice (SQE1) - The University of Law (2021)
Sean Hutton - SQE - Criminal Practice (SQE1) - The University of Law (2021)
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CRIMINAL PRACTICE |
“WO
S38244
The
University
of
CRIMINAL PRACTICE
Sean Hutton
Published by
The University of Law,
2 Bunhill Row
London EC1Y 8HQ
© The University of Law 2021
All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or transmitted,
in any form or by any means, without the prior written permission of the copyright holder, application for which
should be addressed to the publisher.
Contains public sector information licensed under the Open Government Licence v3.0
British Library Cataloguing in Publication Data
A catalogue record for this book is available from the British Library.
ISBN 978 1 914219 139
Preface
This book is part of a series of Study Manuals that have been specially designed
to support the reader to achieve the SQE1 Assessment Specification in relation to
Functioning Legal Knowledge. Each Study Manual aims to provide the reader with
a solid knowledge and understanding of fundamental legal principles and rules,
including how those principles and rules might be applied in practice.
This Study Manual covers the Solicitors Regulation Authority’s syllabus for the SQE1
assessment for Criminal Practice in a concise and tightly focused manner. The
Manual provides a clear statement of relevant legal rules and a well-defined road
map through examinable law and practice, including the Sentencing Act 2020 which
came into force in December 2020. The Manual aims to bring the law and practice
to life through the use of example scenarios based on realistic client-based problems
and allows the reader to test their knowledge and understanding through single
best answer questions that have been modelled on the SRA’s sample assessment
questions.
For those readers who are students at the University of Law, the Study Manual is
used alongside other learning resources and the University’s assessment bank to
best prepare students not only for the SQE1 assessments, but also for a future life in
professional legal practice.
We hope that you find the Study Manual supportive of your preparation for SQE1 and
we wish you every success.
The legal principles and rules contained within this Manual are stated as at 1
October 2020.
Author acknowledgments
| should like to thank Deborah Sharpley, Cheryl Weir and Gary Atkinson for their
help in the preparation of this book and my fellow SQE1 Criminal Practice course
designers, Sue Evans and Matthew Nash, for their comments cind support. Thanks
must also go to David Stott for his editorial support and guidance.
For Pippa, Perran, Briana, Tobias, Amie, Naomi, Tom and Alfie
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Table of Cases XV
Summary
Sample questions
Chapter 3 Charging the Suspect
Learning outcomes
Du Introduction
di2 Release under investigation
3.3 Bail before charge
Bho | Release on bail (or detain in custody) whilst the file
is passed to the CPS
3.4 The decision to charge
3.5 Interviewing after charge
3.6 Bail after charge
3.6.1. When may the police deny bail to a suspect?
3.6.2 Conditional bail
3.6.3 When will the suspect make their first appearance at court?
3.6.4 Breaching police bail (after charge)
5.7 Alternatives to charging
3.7.1. Informal warnings
3.7.2. Penalty notices
3.7.3. Simple cautions
3.7.4 Conditional cautions
3.7.5 Commencing a case other than by charge (CrimPR, Parts 4 and 7)
Summary
viii
Contents
xi
Contents
xii
Contents
xiii
Contents
xiv
Table of Cases
xvi
Table of Statutes
para 3.20
para 3.20A
para 3.21
para 3.4 7,
para 3.4(a)
para 3G
para 4.1
para 4.2
para 6
para 6.1
para 6.4
para 6.5A 65
para 6.6 25
para 6.6(a) 26
para 6.6(b) 26
para 6.6(b)(ii) 25
para 6.6(c) 25
para 6.6(d) 26
para 6.9 31
para 6.10 31
para 6.15 2
para 6D 14, 29, 31, 38
para 6G
para 6ZA
para 8.2
para 8.3
para 8.4
para 8.6
para 8.7
para 9.3
para 9.5
para 9.5A
para 10.1
para 10.2
para 10.3
para 10.11
para 10.12
para 11.1A
para 11.2 26
para 11.4 16, 24, 27, 182
para 11.5 27, 28
para 11.6 28
para 11.7(a) 182
para 11.11 182
para 11.15 67
para 11.17 67,72
para 11.17A 67,72
para 11.18 67
para 11.18(b) 25
para 11C 67
para 11F 67
para 12.2 28
para 12.8 28
XViii
Table of Statutes
para 16.2 54
para 16.3 55
para 16.3 68
para 16.5 55
para 16D 68
Note for Guidance 1E 66
Code D 6/8206
para 1.2 40
para 2.12 fotnFo94
para 3.1 40, 47
para 3.11 45
para 3.12 40-41, 46, 48, 49, 50, 154
para 3.13 41, 48, 49
para 3.14 42, 48
para 3.16 42
para 3.17 46
Annex A, para 2 AS, OU a1o4:
Annex A, para 2A 43
Annex A, para 2C 43
Annex A, para 3 43
Annex A, para 7 43
Annex A, para 10 43
Annex A, para 11 43
Annex B, para 9 43
Annex B, para 10 44
Annex B, para 14 44, 154
Annex B, para 16 44
Annex B, para 23 44
Annex C, para 2 44
Annex C, para 4 44
Annex C, para 6 44
Annex D, para 1 45
Annex E, para 2 42
Annex E, para 4 42, 50
Annex E, para 6 42, 50
Annex E, para 9 42, 43
Code E 6, 24, 34
Code F 6
Code G fps:
para 4.3 7
Coroners and Justice Act 2009
s 114(2) 110
s 115 110
Crime and Disorder Act 1998
s 37(1) 264
s 40(1) 131
s 50A 91, 102, 103, 104
s 50A(3)(a) 102, 104
s 50A(3)(b) 98
s 51 78, 131, 132
s 51(1) 86, 130, 131, 148
s 51(11) 130
s 51B 102
xix
Table of Statutes
s 51¢ 102
s 51D 131
s 66G 69
s 66ZA 69
Criminal Appeal Act 1968
s 1(4) 253
Sez 254, 256, 261
Wf 256
s9 254, 207
s 11(3) 258
SeZ5 256
s 29 255, 256
Criminal Evidence Act 1898
s 1(1) 164, 209
Criminal Justice Act 1967
s9 129-130, 145, 170, 206, 213, 214
s 10 142, 145, 170
Criminal Justice Act 1988
s 36 258
Criminal Justice Act 2003 259
s 22 59
S'25 59
S525 59
s 29(1) 60
s 29(2) 60
ss 58 to 63 258
s75 258
185
82
82
151, 185
196, 200
196
196
196
196
193, 196
196
195, 196
1892190, 191, 192) 195, 396
191
186
s 103(1) 187
s 103(1)(b) 189
s 103(2) 187"
s 103(3) 187, 191, 192, 196
s 103(4)(a) 187
s 103(4)(b) 187
s 104(1) 193
s 105(2) 194
s 106(2) 194
s 107 195, 197
$112 185
s 114 82, 170
Table of Statutes
s 6A 96, 136
s 6B(3) 137
s 6C 129, 145
s 6E 137
s7A 135, 138
s 8 145
s 8(2) 135, 138
Selig 129, 137, 146
s21A 129
Criminal Procedure and Investigations Act 1996
(Defence Disclosure Time Limits) Regulations 2011 (SI 2011/209) 129, 136
Criminal Procedure Rules
r 1.2(1) 139, 143, 144
ro.2 139
r 3.2(2)(a) 141
r 3.2(3) 144
15:5 139, 145
r 3.3(a) 141
Pow 139
r 3.8 144
r 3.8(4) 144
r 3.8(6) 144
cow 139, 143, 145
noe0 144
r 8.2 92
r 8.4 92
r 9.2(6)(a) 100, 103
ri0.2 141
r 14.5(2) 118
r 14.6 56
r 14.18 109, 120
r 14.19 109, 120
reZz02 176, 177
r 20.2(3) 177
r 20.2(4) 177
r 20.5 177
214 197
r 21.4(1) 197
r 21.4(2) 197
r 22.2 145
r 22.4 145
22.5 145
r 24.3(h) 211
r 24.3(g) 211
r 24.10 212°
r 25.16(6) 235
255 212
r 27.4 145
TGS 145
r 29.13 145
M2947 145
r 29.22 145
r 29.26 145
xxii
Table of Statutes
row 145
r 31.4 145
r 33.6 145
r 34.2 145
r 34.3 145
552 145
Robs 145
1.54 145
r 36.2 145
r 36.3 145
r 36.4 145
m565 145
‘eee 211
1 37.6 142, 145
nore 140
Pt 1 139
Pt 2 139
Pt 3 139
Pt 4 60, 139, 144
Pt5 139
Pt 7 60
Pt 8 92
Pt9 99
Pt 14 110
Pt 15 136, 138
Pt 17 128
Pt 20 176, 177
Pt 24 204
Pt 28 144
Pt 31 144
Pts 34 to 43 250
Pt 38 258
Pt 41 258
xxiii
Table of Statutes
XXiV
Table of Statutes
s 43 13, 34, 57
s 43(1) 13
s 43(4) 13
s 44 13; 3432
s 44(1) 1)
s 46(2) 57
s 46A 53, 54
s 47(1A) 53, 54, 56
s 47(3)(b) oz, Oo
s 47(3)(b) 54
s 47(3A) 57
ss 47ZD to 47ZG 53
s 54(1) 7
s 54(2) 7
s 54(3) 7
s 56 9, 10, 11, 34, 64
s 56(1) 10
s 56(2)(a) 11
s 56(2)(b) 11
s 56(3) 11
s 56(4) 11
s 56(5) 11
s 58 9, 10, 14, 25, 34, 64, 181, 182
s 58(1) 9
s 58(4) 9
s 58(5) 10
s 58(6) 10
s 58(7) 10
s 58(8) 10
s 58(8) 25
s 76 S2715 lubes, 162, 206
s 76(1) 174, 178, 179, 184
s 76(2) 179, 183, 200
s 76(2)(a) 184, 201
s 76(2)(b) 180-184, 201
s 76(4) 183, 201
s 76(8) 180
s 76A(1) 181
s 76A(2) 181
s 78 27, 82, 151, 154, 155, 165-167, 182-186, 190, 194-200, 201, 206, 259
s79 210, 259
s 80 221
s 80(3) 221
s 80(5) 221
s 82(1) 177, 184
Police and Justice Act 2006 a
s 37B 53
Policing and Crime Act 2017
ss 52 to 67 52
Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000
s3 98
Table of Statutes
Prosecution of Offences (Custody Time Limits) Regulations 1987 (SI 1987/299) 109
Prosecution of Offences Act 1985
SiZZ 109
Public Order Act 1984
s4 79
s5 79
XXvi
PART 1
ADVISING CLIENTS
ABOUT THE PROCEDURE
AND PROCESSES AT THE
POLICE STATION
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PART Advising clients about
the procedure and
processes al the
police station
SQE1 syllabus
The first four chapters will enable you to achieve the SQE1 Assessment
Specification in relation to Functioning Legal Knowledge concerned with the
following procedures and processes:
Rights of a suspect being detained by the police for questioning:
¢ right to legal advice;
* right to have someone informed of arrest;
¢ reviews and detention time limits under PACE 1984, Code C.
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Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to apply relevant core legal principles
and rules appropriately and effectively, at the level of a competent newly qualified
solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based and ethical problems and situations in the
following areas:
¢ How the decision to detain a suspect is made and the maximum periods a
suspect may be detained for before charge.
¢ The rights of a suspect who has been arrested and detained (or who attends as
a volunteer).
¢ How to advise a client whether or not to answer police questions.
¢ The procedure for interviewing a suspect under PACE 1984.
¢ The role of a legal adviser before and during interview.
« Arange of conduct issues which may arise at the police station.
Criminal Practice
1.1 Introduction
This chapter examines the powers the police may exercise when a suspect has been arrested
and detained at the police station and what rights a suspect has whilst so detained and
what advice a solicitor (or accredited police station representative) would be expected to
give such a client. What occurs at the police station is likely to represent a critical stage of the
investigation and influence the decision whether or not to charge the suspect with any offences.
This may also be of great significance when a case gets to trial, particularly if the defendant's
solicitor attempts to argue that prosecution evidence obtained whilst their client was detained
at the police station is inadmissible because the police behaved improperly or unlawfully.
References to section numbers in Part 1 (Chapters 1 to 4) are, unless otherwise stated, to
the Police and Criminal Evidence (PACE) Act 1984. References to Code C are to the Code of
Practice to PACE for the Detention, Treatment and Questioning of Persons by Police Officers.
References to Code D are to the Code of Practice for the Identification of Persons by Police
Officers. References to Code E are to the Code of Practice on Audio Recording Interviews
with Suspects, and references to Code F are to the Code of Practice on Visual Recording with
Sound of Interviews with Suspects.
This chapter looks at:
e the procedure on arrival at the police station;
¢ the rights of a suspect being detained by the police for questioning;
* advising a client whether to answer police questions;
e the procedure for interviewing a suspect under PACE 1984 and the role of the legal
adviser before and during the interview; and
* how to deal with a range of conduct issues which may arise at the police station.
(a) the suspect's name, address, telephone number, date of birth and occupation;
(b) the offence for which the suspect has been arrested and why the arresting officer
considered it necessary to arrest the suspect (Code G, para 4.3);
(c) the time of the suspect’s arrest and the time of their arrival at the police station;
(d) the reason why the suspect’s ongoing detention at the police station has been authorised
by the custody officer;
(e) the time such detention was authorised;
(f) confirmation that the suspect has been given details of the rights they may exercise whilst
detained at the police station (see below), and whether they have requested legal advice
from a solicitor; and
(g) details of the items of property the suspect has on their person, and details of any
medical condition they suffer from.
The custody record will also have attached to it a detention log. This is a record of all the
significant events that occur whilst the suspect is in police custody. The custody officer must
also inform the suspect about their ongoing rights (see 1.3 below).
appear before the magistrates’ court on a later date or remanded in police custody until they
can be brought before the magistrates’ court.
(a) the right to have someone informed of the suspect's arrest (s 56);
(b) the right for the suspect to consult privately with a solicitor (the suspect must be told that
free, independent legal advice is available; s 58); and
(c) the right to consult the Codes of Practice.
The suspect must also be advised of their right to be informed about the offence and (as the
case may be) any further offences for which they are arrested whilst in custody, and why they
have been arrested and detained.
¢ if they do not ask for legal advice or do not want a solicitor present when they are; or
e if they have asked for legal advice or ... asked for a solicitor to be present when they
are interviewed but change their mind and agree to be interviewed without waiting for a
solicitor.
Criminal Practice
(a) lead to interference with or harm to evidence connected with an indictable offence, or
interference with or physical injury to other persons; or
(b) lead to the alerting of other persons suspected of having committed such an offence but
not yet arrested for it; or
(c) hinder the recovery of any property obtained as a result of such an offence (s 58(8)).
Guidelines which the police must follaw when determining whether to delay a suspect’s access
to legal advice are contained in Annex B to Code C.
© In R v Samuel [1988] 1 WLR 920, the accused was arrested for armed robbery and taken
to a police station where he signed the custody record to the effect that he did not want a
solicitor at that time. Later in the evening of the same day he changed his mind and
requested a solicitor, but this was refused. During the following morning, his mother
arranged for a solicitor to attend the police station to represent him. Access to legal
advice was again refused. Later that evening he was again interviewed and finally
confessed to the robbery. It was submitted that evidence of the final interview should not
be admitted because refusal of access to a solicitor was unjustified throughout. HELD: The
appeal was allowed, and the conviction quashed. In doing so the CA set down some
guidelines on the power to delay this right. Hodgson J said that the superintendent
authorising delay must have a subjective belief that consultation with a legal adviser will
result in one of the above three conditions happening and that this ‘will very probably
happen’. In other words, that the legal adviser will either deliberately do this or do so
inadvertently. It follows that this will therefore be very rare and that further, the belief must
be towards a particular legal adviser. The CA went on to confirm that the right to legal
advice in s 58 of the Act was fundamental. The fear that a solicitor might advise his client
not to answer questions would never be an adequate ground to delay such access.
10
Detaining a Suspect at the Police Station and Police Interviews
offences, see ss 56(2)(a) and (b)). The length of any delay can be for a maximum of 36
hours from the ‘relevant time’ (s 56(3)). Authorisation may be given orally but, if it is, must be
confirmed in writing as soon as is practicable (s 56(4)).
The police officer who authorises the delay may do so only if they have reasonable grounds
for believing that telling the named person of the arrest will:
(a) lead to interference with or harm to evidence connected with an indictable offence, or
interference with or physical injury to other persons;
(b) lead to the alerting of other persons suspected of having committed such an offence but
not yet arrested for it; or
(c) hinder the recovery of any property obtained as a result of such an offence (s 56(5)).
In making this decision the police officer must follow the guidelines set out in Annex B to
Code C.
© Example
Ashley is a member of a notorious criminal gang. Ashley is arrested on suspicion of
having taken part in an armed robbery at a bank, after an image of his face was
captured on the bank’s CCTV system. A number of other people took part in the robbery,
but they have not yet been identified. Several thousand pounds were stolen in the
robbery.
Ashley wants to notify Ben, his brother, that he has been arrested. Ben is known to be a
member of the gang. The police believe that, if notified that Ashley has been arrested,
Ben will alert the other gang members who participated in the robbery and these people
will then take steps to dispose of the money that was stolen. The police will be able to
take advantage of the provisions in s 56 to delay Ben being notified of Ashley’s arrest
for up to 36 hours. Armed robbery is an indictable offence (it is in fact an offence triable
only on indictment), and the police appear to have reasonable grounds for believing that
notifying Ben of Ashley’s arrest will lead to the alerting of other suspects and will hinder
the recovery of property obtained as a result of the offence.
1.3.3 Detention time limits and reviews of detention under PACE 1984, Code C
Prior to charge there are time limits on how long a suspect can be detained at the police
station. There are two different clocks that will apply to such detention.
1.3.3.1 The initial maximum period of detention before charge (the ‘detention clock’)
Section 41 provides that a person ‘shall not be kept in police detention for more than 24 hours
without being charged’. This 24-hour period begins from the ‘relevant time’. The relevant time
is determined as follows:
(a) in the case of a person attending voluntarily at the police station (see 1.3.4 below) who is
then arrested at the police station, the time of their arrest (s 41(2)(c));
(b) in the case of a person who attends a police station to answer ‘street bail’ granted under
s 30A, the time when they arrive at the police station (s 41(2)(ca));
(c) in the case of a suspect who has been arrested away from the police station, the relevant
time is generally the time when the suspect arrives at the first police station to which they
are taken after their arrest (s 41(2)(d)). (Note there are some limited exceptions to this
usual rule.)
1]
Criminal Practice
) Example 1
Sam is attending the police station as a volunteer to answer questions about his
suspected involvement in an assault. Sam arrives at the police station at 11.00 hrs. His
interview begins at 11.15 hrs. During interview, Sam admits to the assault and he is then
arrested at 12.10 hrs. The ‘detention clock’ will start running from 12.10 hrs, the time of
Sam’s arrest. The police will be able to detain Sam for a maximum period of 24 hours
from this time.
© Example 2
Jo is arrested by PC Long on suspicion of theft. There are witnesses to the theft from
whom PC Long wants to take statements before interviewing Jo. The officer therefore
grants Jo street bail, requiring her to attend at the police station at 13.00 hrs the following
day. Jo complies with the terms of her street bail and attends the police station at
13.00 hrs the following day. The ‘detention clock’ will start running from this time. The
police will be able to detain Jo for a maximum period of 24 hours from this time.
o Example 3
Hamid is arrested at home at 15.30 hrs on suspicion of theft. He is taken to the police
station and arrives there at 15.45 hrs. His detention is authorised by the custody officer at
16.00 hrs. The ‘detention clock’ will start running from 15.45 hrs, the time of Hamid’s arrival
at the police station. The police will be able to detain Hamid for a maximum period of
24 hours from this time.
Note: In practice the police will not usually need the full 24-hour period and will either release —
the suspect under investigation (RUI), bail the suspect before charge or charge the suspect
well within this 24-hour period. Very occasionally they may need longer.
12
Detaining a Suspect at the Police Station and Police Interviews
Such an authorisation must be given by an officer of the rank of superintendent or above, and
may only be given if the superintendent has reasonable grounds for believing that:
(a) the detention of the suspect without charge is necessary to secure or preserve evidence
relating to an offence for which the suspect is under arrest, or to obtain such evidence by
questioning them;
(b) the offence is an indictable offence (ie an either-way or an indictable-only offence); and
(c) the investigation is being carried out diligently and expeditiously.
o Example
Damian is arrested on suspicion of the murder of Esme. He arrives at the police station at
09.00 hrs and is questioned about the offence. Damian refuses to answer any questions,
but at 08.00 hrs the following day, during the course of searching Damian's house, the
police find a bloodstained knife that they believe Damian used as the murder weapon. The
investigating officer wants to question Damian about this new piece of evidence and asks
the superintendent to authorise Damian's continued detention to enable him to do this.
The superintendent is likely to authorise the extension of the initial detention period.
Murder is an indictable offence (it is indictable-only) and the investigating officer wants
to question Damian to find out what Damian has to say about the knife which has only
just been found. As long as the superintendent believes that the investigating officer is
carrying out the investigation diligently and expeditiously, the officer’s request will be
granted. If the request is granted, Damian may be detained at the police station until
21.00 hrs that day (a total of 36 hours from the ‘relevant time’).
13
Criminal Practice
© Example
Tom is arrested at 08.00 hrs. He arrives at the police station at 08.15 hrs (the ‘relevant
time’ for the purpose of the ‘detention clock’ - see above). The custody officer authorises
his detention at 08.30 hrs. The first custody review must be carried out no later than
14.30 hrs (ie within six hours of the ‘review clock’ starting). If that review takes place at, for
example, 14.15 hrs, the next review would need to take place no later than 23.15 hrs that
day (ie no more than nine hours after the first review). Further reviews after that would
then need to take place at intervals of no more than nine hours.
s 40 PACE | Within 6 hours from A review by an officer not below the rank of inspector to
detention being determine whether detention is still necessary
authorised
s 40 PACE | Within 9 hours from the A review by an officer not below the rank of inspector to
first detention review determine whether detention is still necessary
s 41 PACE | Within 24 hours The detainee must be charged or released unless an officer
from arrival not below the rank of superintendent authorises continued
detention (s 42)
14
Detaining a Suspect at the Police Station and Police Interviews
15
Criminal Practice
(c) any significant comments made by the client whilst at the police station (for example, an
admission of guilt) (Code C, para 3.4);
(d) any samples, fingerprints or impressions of footwear which may already have been taken
from the client;
(e) any identification procedure which may already have taken place (see 1.6 below); |
(f) any interview which may already have taken place at the police station (if, for example,
the client has decided to obtain legal advice only after already having been interviewed
by the police);
(g) whether the client is under any form of physical or mental disability, or requires the
attendance of an appropriate adult;
(h) any illness which the client may be suffering from, or any indication that the client is in any
way vulnerable or requires medical treatment (or details of any medical treatment which
the client has already received whilst at the police station). Similarly, the solicitor should
find out if the client is suffering from the effects of drink-and/or drugs;
(i) any significant items found as a result of a search either of the client’s person, or of
any premises owned, used or occupied by the client or premises where the client was
arrested (for example, items it is alleged the client has stolen or used in the commission
of the offence); and
(j) if the client has already been at the police station for six hours or more, details of any
detention reviews which have been carried out and the reason why the client’s continued
detention has been authorised (see above).
Code C, para 2.4A allows a legal representative or an appropriate adult to request a copy
of the custody record when a detainee leaves police detention or is taken before a court. In
practice solicitors will usually be provided with a printout of the custody record and detention
log when they first arrive at the police station.
Disclosure
The solicitor first needs to know what the client is alleged to have done which constitutes
a criminal offence. Although the police are not obligated to provide the solicitor with any
evidence of the case against the client (subject to the requirements under para 11.1A of
Code C below), they will normally provide the solicitor with some (if not all) of the details
they have. The investigating officer will summarise orally the contents of the witness
statements which they have obtained, possibly allow the solicitor to view copies of such
statements or supply the solicitor with a typed disclosure statement summarising the
evidence which the police have. The last form of disclosure is the more common method now
used by the police. The solicitor should push the investigating officer to disclose as much
information as possible about the case against their client. The solicitor should try to find out
if the police have any other evidence in addition to statements from witnesses. The police
may, for example, have obtained forensic evidence such as samples or fingerprints, there
may well be CCTV evidence, or there may be an item of documentary or real evidence (such
as a weapon it is alleged the suspect used, or drugs found on the suspect's person). If the
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Detaining a Suspect at the Police Station and Police Interviews
investigating officer refuses to make any disclosure, or discloses only a very limited amount
of information, the solicitor should point out that in those circumstances the solicitor cannot
properly advise the client as to the nature of the case against them. This in turn may affect
the advice the solicitor gives the client about whether or not to answer questions in interview.
An amendment made to para 11.1A of Code C assists the solicitor (and a defendant who is
not represented) in respect of obtaining disclosure from the investigating officer. Paragraph
11.1A includes the following:
Before a person is interviewed, they and, if they are represented, their solicitor must
be given sufficient information to enable them to understand the nature of any such
offence, and why they are suspected of committing it (see paragraphs 3.4(a) and
10.3), in order to allow for the effective exercise of the rights of the defence. However,
whilst the information must always be sufficient for the person to understand the
nature of any offence (see Note 11ZA), this does not require the disclosure of details
at a time which might prejudice the criminal investigation. The decision about what
needs to be disclosed for the purpose of this requirement therefore rests with the
investigating officer who has sufficient knowledge of the case to make that decision.
The officer who discloses the information shall make a record of the information
disclosed and when it was disclosed. This record may be made in the interview
record, in the officer’s pocket book or other form provided for this purpose.
Significant statements
The solicitor also needs to find out if, prior to their arrival at the police station, the client has
made any significant statement (or significant silence) in the presence of a police officer. The
client may, for example, have made an admission on arrest which the police will be required
to put to the client at the start of the interview and ask the client whether they confirm or deny
saying this (see para 11.4 of Code C).
Next steps
The solicitor then needs to find out from the investigating officer what their intentions are. For
example, is the client going to be interviewed straight away, will the police require the client
to take part in an identification procedure, or to provide fingerprints or samples? It may also
be useful to ask the investigating officer their views on bail as this is usually something the
client will be concerned about.
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Criminal Practice
1.4.2 The client's options in interview and identifying the safest option
The usual ground upon which the custody officer will authorise the detention of a suspect at
the police station is to enable the investigating officer to obtain evidence by questioning the
suspect in an audibly recorded interview. One of the main reasons for the police wanting to
interview a suspect is their hope that the suspect will make admissions to the offence they
have been arrested for. Many suspects who are interviewed by the police end up either
making an admission of guilt or contradicting themselves, so that their account of the case
is shown to lack credibility when the audibly recorded interview is either played or read out
to the court at trial. The most important role the solicitor has at the police station is to advise
their client whether or not to answer questions in police interview. A client whom the police
wish to interview has four options:
* to answer all the questions put to them;
* to give a ‘no comment interview’;
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Detaining a Suspect at the Police Station and Police Interviews
* selective silence, where the client answers some questions but not others;
* to give a ‘no comment interview’, but either during the interview or before being charged,
hand a written statement to the police setting out facts the client will rely upon in their
defence at trial.
Each of these options will be examined in turn below. Whilst the final decision as to which
option to take is that of the client, the client is likely to follow the advice received from their
solicitor. It is therefore vital that the solicitor makes an accurate note of the advice given to the
client, and the reasons for giving such advice.
Disadvantages
The disadvantage in answering questions put by the police in interview is that many suspects
will either say something incriminating or make comments which undermine their credibility.
Police officers are particularly adept at ‘tripping up’ suspects in interview, and it is very easy
for a suspect to become flustered, confused or angry, particularly if they are in an emotional
condition. Suspects in such a state may be led into admitting their involvement in the offence,
or into asserting facts which are contradictory or which the police can show to be untrue.
lf the suspect is subsequently charged with the offence and pleads not guilty, a transcript
of the interview record will be read out at court (or the recording of the interview may be
played). A suspect who comes across as being confused or angry, who makes admissions,
or who gives a contradictory or implausible account of events is likely to have their credibility
severely damaged in the eyes of the jury or magistrates.
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Criminal Practice
Even clients who are able to give their solicitor a clear version of events may be vulnerable to
confusion in an interview situation. This is particularly the case with young or immature clients,
clients who have not previously been in trouble with the police or clients whom the solicitor
believes may be emotionally vulnerable.
The solicitor also needs to consider whether the police have provided sufficient disclosure of
the evidence which they have obtained in the course of their investigations in order to enable
the client to answer all the questions which the police put. A common tactic employed by the
police is to hold back from the suspect's solicitor a particular piece of information which is
then put to the suspect in interview, hoping to catch them off-guard. If the solicitor does not
consider that the police have made a full disclosure of their case, it is a hazardous step for the
solicitor then to advise the client to answer questions in the interview. The client is likely to be
caught out when the police raise a matter which was not disclosed to their solicitor.
An additional potential problem with the client answering questions is that the line of
questioning pursued by the police may lead the client to make an attack on the character of
another person. If the client is subsequently prosecuted for the offence, such an attack may
enable the CPS to raise in evidence at trial any previous convictions the client may have
(see 9.7).
Disadvantages
The disadvantage of a client giving a ‘no comment’ interview is that, if the client is
subsequently charged and pleads not guilty, the magistrates or jury may in certain
circumstances draw an adverse inference under ss 34, 36 or 37 of the CJPOA 1994 from the
client's silence in interview. The circumstances in which an adverse inference may be drawn
are examined fully in Chapter 9.4. In summary, however, if the client fails to answer questions
in police interview and then at trial raises a defence, the details of which could reasonably
have been given to the police in interview, the court or jury are entitled to conclude that the
defence is a sham and was fabricated by the defendant after they had left the police station,
when they had the opportunity to ‘get their story straight’.
When is a solicitor likely to advise the client to give a ‘no comment’ interview?
A solicitor may advise a client who admits their guilt to the solicitor to give a ‘no comment’
interview. This will be important if the solicitor considers that the case against the client is
weak and the police do not currently have sufficient evidence to prove the allegation. A client
who answers questions in such a situation may make a damaging admission which will give
the police sufficient evidence to charge. This course of action would not involve the solicitor
being a party to the client lying to or misleading the police, and the police may decide not to
pursue the case if they are unable to obtain any admissions from the client in interview.
The other occasions on which a solicitor may advise their client to give a ‘no comment’
interview are where:
(a) the solicitor considers that the police have not provided adequate disclosure of the
evidence they have obtained against the client (so that the solicitor is unable to properly
20
Detaining a Suspect at the Police Station and Police Interviews
advise the client on the strength of the police case against them). Lack of disclosure
from the police creates a real risk that the client may implicate themself if they answer
questions in interview. This is a particularly important consideration if a co-accused
has also been arrested and interviewed by the police, especially if the police are not
prepared to disclose what they consider the role of the co-accused to have been, or if the
police are not prepared to disclose what the co-accused has said in interview;
(b) linked to (a), the solicitor considers that the police may attempt to ‘ambush’ the client
during the interview by revealing a piece of evidence which they had not disclosed to the
solicitor in advance of the interview (in the hope that, when confronted with this evidence,
the client will say something incriminating or be lost for words);
(c) the client denies involvement in the offence and the police do not currently have sufficient
evidence to charge the client (since if the client agrees to answer questions in interview
they run the risk of giving the police the additional evidence they need to enable them to
charge the client);
(d) the client is physically or mentally unfit to be interviewed (if, for example, the client is
suffering from the effects of drink or drugs), or the solicitor considers that the client would
fail to give a good account of their case in interview because the client is distressed,
emotional or fatigued. This is likely to be the case if the interview is to take place late at
night, the client has been at the police station for a number of hours before the interview
takes place, or the client has been involved in an upsetting incident (often in connection
with the alleged offence);
(e) the client is likely to perform badly in interview due to his:
(i) age
(ii) lack of maturity
(iii) psychological vulnerability or
(iv) previous inexperience of police detention and questioning.
lf the client is particularly young, they may lack the maturity to answer questions
properly or may become aggressive during the interview. Elderly clients may
become easily confused or ‘lost’ during interviews at the police station. If the client
appears particularly agitated or ill at ease, the solicitor may consider that the client
is psychologically vulnerable to the questioning techniques the police may employ
during the interview. Similar considerations will apply if this is the first time the client
has been arrested and they have no previous experience of custody or questioning by
the police. A solicitor may also have suspicions that the client could be suffering from
some form of mental impairment if the client is behaving strangely, or if the client is
unable to give the solicitor coherent instructions;
(f) the facts of the case are so complex, or relate to matters occurring so long ago, that
the client cannot reasonably be expected to provide an immediate response to the
allegations made against them, or that any immediate response they are able to give
will not be accurate. This may be a particular consideration in a fraud case in which
the police want to ask the client about complex financial matters, or in a case involving
allegations of physical or sexual abuse carried out many years previously;
(g) although the client says they did not commit the offence, the client does not have a viable
case or defence. If the solicitor considers that the client has no case that will, at that time,
stand up to police questioning, the safest course of action may be to give a ‘no comment’
interview, since the client will only come across badly in interview if they attempt to
answer questions to which they have no real response; or
(h) where the client has other good personal reasons for remaining silent. A common
situation when a client may have such a reason for remaining silent is if the client would
suffer extreme embarrassment if they were to tell the police what actually happened.
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Criminal Practice
© Example
Peter is arrested on suspicion of burglary in the early hours of the morning. Peter instructs
his solicitor that he did not commit the burglary and has an alibi. The alibi is that, at the
time the burglary is alleged to have occurred, Peter was at the home of Olivia, with whom
he is having an affair. Peter is married and doesn’t want his wife to find out about the
affair. If, when interviewed, Peter tells the police details of his alibi, the police will check
it and it is likely that Peter’s wife will find out about the affair. Peter may have a personal
reason for wanting to remain silent. (In this situation the solicitor would advise Peter that
he would need to balance the risk that his wife might find out about the affair against
the greater likelihood of his being convicted if he fails to put forward a defence to the
allegation made against him.)
If a client decides to give a ‘no comment’ interview on the basis of the legal advice they
have received, the solicitor must explain to the client that this will not necessarily prevent
a court from drawing adverse inferences from this silence at any subsequent trial. If the
solicitor has advised a client to remain silent, they should ensure that they make a full
written note of the reasons for this advice. Such a record may have important evidential
value at trial (see 9.4).
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Detaining a Suspect at the Police Station and Police Interviews
o Example
Jayne is arrested on suspicion of burglary of shop premises and is to be interviewed at
the police station. Before the interview takes place, Jayne's solicitor obtains disclosure of
the case from the investigating officer. The solicitor considers that the police case against
Jayne is weak and that Jayne is unlikely to be charged if she gives a ‘no comment’
interview. In particular, the police do not have any direct evidence placing Jayne at the
shop premises at the time of the burglary. When the solicitor takes instructions from Jayne,
she instructs the solicitor that she did not commit the burglary but was outside the shop
premises when the burglary took place. Jayne’s solicitor advises her that if she discloses
this fact to the police, this will strengthen the case against her and make it more likely
that she will be charged. Jayne accepts her solicitor’s advice and gives a ‘no comment’
interview. However, Jayne’s solicitor also prepares a written statement setting out Jayne’s
defence. The solicitor will not hand this statement in to the police during the interview
(but may explain that the client has provided a prepared written statement setting out
her defence, which at this stage will be kept on the client file). If the police do decide
to charge Jayne, however, the solicitor may then hand in the statemerit before Jayne is
charged. If the statement contains the facts Jayne will later raise in her defence at trial,
this may prevent an adverse inference being drawn as to recent fabrication.
Very occasionally a solicitor will take a written statement from their client but, rather
than hand the statement to the police whilst the client is at the police station, retain
the statement on the client's file. This may occur when the solicitor has doubts as to
the accuracy of the instructions they have received from their client and are reluctant
to disclose this defence to the police because they believe the facts put forward by
the client either will not stand up to scrutiny, or may ‘change’ later in the case. In such
circumstances, the solicitor will retain the statement on file and produce it at a later
stage in the case, if necessary, to try and prevent the court drawing an inference that
the client’s defence was fabricated after they had left the police station. Adopting such a
tactic will not, however, prevent other adverse inferences being drawn by the court at trial.
This could include an inference that the defendant was not sufficiently confident in their
defence to expose it to police scrutiny or investigation, or that they had not thought up all
the details of this defence at the time of the interview.
© Example
Fergus is arrested on suspicion of assault and is to be interviewed at the police station.
Fergus tells his solicitor that it is a case of mistaken identity and that he was elsewhere at
the time of the assault (although he cannot recall exactly where he was). The identification
evidence against Fergus is extremely strong and Fergus’s solicitor doubts that Fergus’s
account will stand up to police scrutiny. The solicitor takes a written statement from Fergus
23
Criminal Practice
who then gives a ‘no comment’ interview. The solicitor does not hand a copy of the
statement to the police but retains the statement on his file.
Scenario 1 - Fergus is subsequently charged with assault. Fergus’s defence at trial is the
same as the account he gave to his solicitor at the police station. Fergus’s solicitor can
produce the statement to the court to prevent the court drawing an inference of recent
fabrication (that Fergus thought up his defence only after he had left the police station).
The court will, however, be able to draw the adverse inference that Fergus was not
sufficiently confident in his defence to expose it to police questioning at the police station.
Scenario 2 - Fergus is subsequently charged with assault. Fergus changes his version of
events and now tells his solicitor that he was present at the time of the assault but claims
to have been acting only in self-defence. The solicitor will not use Fergus’s statement
obtained at the police station because the basis of Fergus’s defence has changed. The
court will be able to draw an inference of recent fabrication. However, by not handing
in Fergus’s statement when Fergus was originally detained at the police station, Fergus’s
solicitor has avoided the far more damaging situation of Fergus saying one thing at the
police station and then saying something totally different when his case comes to trial.
Note: there are also potential ethical issues with continuing to represent a client who
has changed their account. Here the solicitor would have to be satisfied that Fergus’s
new account is the truthful one, otherwise the solicitor would be misleading the court by
allowing Fergus to run a positive defence they believed to be untrue.
Conclusion
Giving the correct advice to a client on whether or not to answer questions in an interview at
the police station is one of the hardest tasks a defence solicitor will face, because there are a
number of considerations that need to be taken into account. Giving the right advice though
can have a significant impact on the outcome of a client's case.
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Detaining a Suspect at the Police Station and Police Interviews
The interview will normally be recorded on two or three tapes/discs or as one digital
recording. If the recording is on tape/disc, the master tape/disc, is sealed in the presence
of the suspect at the end of the interview. This seal will only be broken, and the tape/disc
opened at trial, if there is any dispute about what was said. One of the other tapes/discs
is called a working copy and will be used by the investigating officer to prepare a written
summary or transcript of the interview if the suspect is subsequently charged with an offence.
Some police forces will use a third tape/disc, which will be given to the suspect if they are
subsequently charged so they will also have a record of what was said in the interview and
which they may pass on to their solicitor if they are legally represented.
An interview is defined in para 11.1A of Code C as:
the questioning of a person regarding their involvement or suspected involvement
in a criminal offence or offences which, under paragraph 10.1, must be carried out
under caution.
25
Criminal Practice
reasonable efforts to ascertain the solicitor’s expected time of arrival and to inform
the solicitor that the suspect has stated that they wish to change their mind and the
reason for it;
(ii) the suspect’s reason for the change of mind and the outcome of the efforts to contact
the solicitor are recorded in the custody record;
(iii) the suspect, after being informed of the outcome of the efforts in (i) above, confirms in
writing that they want the interview to proceed without speaking or further speaking to
a solicitor, or without a solicitor being present, and do not wish to wait for a solicitor,
by signing an entry to this effect in the custody record;
(iv) an officer of the rank of inspector or above is satisfied that it is proper for the
interview to proceed in these circumstances and gives authority in writing for the
interview to proceed; and if the authority is not recorded in the custody record,
the officer must ensure that the custody record shows the date and time of the
authority and where it is recorded, and takes or directs the taking-of reasonable
steps to inform the solicitor that the authority has been given and the time when
the interview is expected to commence, and records the outcome of this action in the
custody record;
(v) when the interview starts and the interviewer reminds the suspect of their right to
legal advice, the interviewer shall then ensure that the following is recorded in the
interview record:
(1) confirmation that the detainee has changed their mind about wanting legal
advice or about wanting a solicitor present, and the reasons for it if given;
(2) the fact that authority for the interview to proceed has been given;
(3) that if the solicitor arrives at the station before the interview is completed, the
detainee will be so informed without delay, and a break will be taken to allow
them to speak to the solicitor if they wish, unless para 6.6(a) applies, and that at
any time during the interview, the detainee may again ask for legal advice, and
that if they do, a break will be taken to allow them to speak to the solicitor, unless
para 6.6(a), (b) or (c) applies (Code C, para 6.6(d)).
In the situations at (a) and (b) above, the caution given to the suspect at the start of the
interview will be as follows:
‘You do not have to say anything, but anything you do say may be given in evidence.’
The reason for this wording is that no adverse inferences may be drawn at trial from the
suspect's silence in interview if the suspect had not at the time of the interview been allowed
access to legal advice (see 9.4). The suspect is therefore said to have an absolute right to
remain silent. This will not apply to the situations at (c) and (d) above, because in these cases
the suspect is allowed to speak to the duty solicitor (situation (c)) or a solicitor of their own
choice (situation (d)). The caution in these cases will be the normal caution given at the start
of the interview (see below).
26
Detaining a Suspect at the Police Station and Police Interviews
The normal caution is worded in this way because, although the suspect has a right to
remain silent and cannot be compelled to answer questions in the interview, if the suspect
exercises this right but then at trial raises facts as part of their defence which they could have
mentioned during the interview, the court may draw an ‘adverse inference’ from such silence
under s 34 of the CJPOA 1994 (see 1.4.2 above and 9.4 below).
© Example 1
PC Singh is called to a public house where one of the customers has been assaulted. The
customer did not recognise his assailant but is able to provide PC Singh with an accurate
description of this person. PC Singh leaves the public house and sees Oscar nearby.
Oscar closely matches the description of the assailant given by the customer. PC Singh
asks Oscar where he has just come from. Oscar replies by saying ‘I came from the pub
and | was only acting in self-defence’. This would be a significant statement. Oscar has
not been told by PC Singh that an assault took place at the pub, and the only explanation
for Oscar's reply is that he was at the pub and has some involvement in the incident. This
is therefore a partial admission by Oscar and should be put to him at the start of the
interview.
o Example 2
PC Minnikin is called to a jewellery shop in connection with the suspected theft of a gold
bracelet by Alice. Following PC Minnikin’s arrival at the shop, and in his hearing, the
owner of the shop says to Alice: ‘I saw you pick the bracelet up and put it in your pocket
when you thought | wasn’t looking. Why did you try to steal it?’ Alice doesn’t reply to
this. This is a significant silence. Although Alice has not admitted her guilt, had she not
done what the owner of the shop accused her of doing, it would have been reasonable
to expect her to have denied the shop owner's version of events. The significant silence
should therefore be put to Alice at the start of his interview at the police station.
Should the police officer fail to put to a suspect at the start of the interview a significant
statement or silence made outside the police station, this may result in the contents of that
statement or the nature of that silence being ruled inadmissible at trial under s 78 of PACE
1984 (see Chapter 9).
27
Criminal Practice
28
Detaining a Suspect at the Police Station and Police Interviews
(c) The solicitor will be present in the interview to protect the client's interests, and will
intervene in the interview when necessary if the solicitor considers that the police
questioning is in any way inappropriate, or considers that the client would benefit from
further legal advice in private.
(d) If the client is to remain silent in the interview, they should be advised to use the stock
phrase of ‘no comment’ in answer to all the questions which are put to them. It is easier
for clients to answer questions in this way rather than to remain totally silent.
(e) Aclient who is to remain silent should be advised that the police will often employ certain
tactics to get them to talk. In particular the police may:
(i) try to get the client to talk by asking apparently innocuous questions that have nothing
to do with the offence under investigation;
(ii) try to alienate the client from the solicitor by suggesting that the legal advice they
have received from their solicitor is incorrect; or
(iii) warn the client that certain adverse consequences may arise unless they answer
questions.
The client should be advised to ignore such tactics and to maintain their silence.
(f) If the client is advised to answer questions in the interview, the solicitor should remind
them not to ‘lose their cool’ during the interview, and not to become hostile or abusive
in their comments towards the interviewing officer. If the recording of the interview is
subsequently played out at trial, the client is likely to lose credibility in the eyes of the jury
or magistrates if they act in this way. The client should also be warned against making
personal attacks on others during the interview. An attack on the character of another
person made during the course of an interview may enable the prosecution to adduce
evidence of the suspect's previous convictions at his trial (see 9.7).
29
Criminal Practice
[or]
* to answer questions which you may raise which are relevant to my client's arrest/voluntary
attendance.
It is important that a solicitor makes an opening statement, both to make it clear to the police
that the solicitor knows their role (and if the solicitor does need to intervene, to justify such
intervention in advance) and to give the client confidence in the solicitor’s ability, which in
turn will give the client important psychological support. The Law Society advises that an
opening statement should be made at the start of every interview, irrespective of the client's
‘experience’ at the police station or the seriousness of the charge.
30
Detaining a Suspect at the Police Station and Police Interviews
Paragraph 6D of the Notes for Guidance to Code C provides that para 6.9 will apply only if
the solicitor’s approach or conduct prevents or unreasonably obstructs proper questions being
put to the suspect, or the suspect’s response being recorded. Examples of such unacceptable
conduct would include answering questions on a suspect's behalf or providing written replies
for the suspect to quote. A solicitor should not be removed from the interview simply because
they tell their client not to answer questions, or because they intervene when they consider the
police are asking questions in an inappropriate manner.
lf the officer conducting the interview considers that the conduct of the solicitor is preventing
them from properly putting questions to the suspect, the interviewer must stop the interview
and consult an officer of at least the rank of superintendent (Code C, para 6.10). This officer
must then speak to the solicitor and decide if the interview should continue in the presence
of the solicitor or not. If it is decided that the solicitor should be excluded from the interview,
the suspect must be given the opportunity to consult another solicitor before the interview
continues, and that other solicitor must be given an opportunity to be present at the interview.
31
Criminal Practice
having committed the offence. The solicitor cannot be a party to the client giving information
to the police which the solicitor knows to be false since this would amount to a breach of
the solicitor’s duty not to mislead the court under para 1.4 of the SRA Code of Conduct.
The solicitor could attend such an interview where the client intends to give a ‘no comment’
response to police questions, since this would not involve the giving of false information.
If the client insists on giving false information in interview, the solicitor should decline to act
any further on the client’s behalf. As the solicitor owes an ongoing duty of confidentiality to the
client (SRA Code of Conduct, para 6.3), the police should not be told why the solicitor is no
longer acting on the client’s behalf. It is usual in such a case for a solicitor to say that they are
withdrawing from the case for ‘professional reasons’.
A solicitor representing a client who intends to lie to the police in interview should attempt
to dissuade the client from doing so. From the client's perspective, this would be because it
will usually be easy for the police to disprove such lies and because it may also result in the
client being charged with a more serious offence such as perverting the course of justice. It
may also be appropriate for the solicitor to advise the client that, if they admit their guilt in the
interview, they will receive credit from the court for cooperating with the police when they are
later sentenced.
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Detaining a Suspect at the Police Station and Police Interviews
continue acting for both suspects would be a clear conflict of interest. It would also be
inappropriate to continue to act for only one of them because the solicitor would be in
possession of confidential information from the other, which could not be passed on to the
one whom the solicitor was continuing to represent. Only if the solicitor is able to act for
one client without putting at risk their duty of confidentiality to the other may they continue
to represent that first client (SRA Code of Conduct, para 6.3). This is unlikely to be the
case, because the confidential information received from the other is likely to assist the
case of the client the solicitor is continuing to represent and so confidentiality will be put
at risk (and also because the solicitor is under a duty to disclose all relevant information
to the remaining client - SRA Code of Conduct, para 6.4).
1.6.3 Should a solicitor disclose to one client information they have been given by another
client?
lf a solicitor decides that there is no conflict of interest and they are able to represent both
suspects, they must still not disclose to one client anything they have been told by the other (in
order to comply with their duty of confidentiality to the other client), unless:
(a) the solicitor has obtained the other client’s consent (preferably in writing) to disclose this
information (ie the client waives their right to confidentiality);
(b) both clients are putting forward consistent instructions; and
(c) the solicitor considers it in their clients’ best interests for the information to be disclosed.
Even if the above considerations are satisfied, the solicitor must also have regard to their
overriding duty not to mislead the court. Co-accused who are represented by the same
solicitor may attempt to use that solicitor to pass information between each other so that
they can jointly fabricate a defence and give the police a consistent ‘story’. To guard against
this, the solicitor should ensure that before telling the second client what they have been told
by the first client, they obtain an account of the second client's version of events. If this is
consistent with the account given by the first client, the solicitor will then be able to pass on
the relevant information (provided the first client has authorised this). If, however, the stories
are inconsistent, the solicitor will need to withdraw from the case. As mentioned above, it
would be inappropriate for the solicitor to continue to act for just one of the clients because
they would be in possession of confidential information about the other and yet also under a
duty to disclose it.
33
Criminal Practice
you have reason to believe that serious physical or mental injury will be caused to the
client or another if the information is disclosed; and
the information is contained in a privileged document that has been mistakenly disclosed
to you.
o Example
You represent Jayne who has been arrested on suspicion of fraud. Whilst obtaining
disclosure from the investigating officer, DC Edwards, he says to you: ‘Look, | really respect
you, so I’m going to disclose some very sensitive information to you about the case, but
only if you first promise not to disclose it to anyone’.
In replying to DC Edwards, you should explain that you are required by your professional
code of conduct to disclose all relevant information to your client. You should also try to
persuade the officer to still disclose this information to you even though you are obliged
to let your client know about it (unless you believe that one of the limited exceptions
above applies).
(a) explain to the client why they are no longer able to represent them;
(b) tell the client that they are entitled to free legal advice from another solicitor of their
choice or the duty solicitor;
(c) tell the client that, although they are no longer able to represent them, the solicitor still
owes them an ongoing duty of confidentiality and will not therefore tell the police why
they are unable to act; and
tell the custody officer that they are no longer able to act (for professional reasons),
but not disclose the reason why. If the solicitor told the custody officer why they were no
longer able to act, this would be a breach of the ongoing duty of confidentiality owed to
the former client under para 6.3 of the SRA Code of Conduct.
Summary
In this chapter you have considered what powers the police have to detain and question a
suspect and what rights the suspect has whilst at the police station, including the right to free,
independent legal advice and the role a solicitor plays whilst representing a client at the
police station, particularly when the client is to be interviewed. Notably:
The procedure on arrival at the police station. The role of the custody officer who
decides whether an arrested person should be detained before charge (s 37) and their
responsibility for the suspect who is so detained.
The rights of a suspect being detained by the police for questioning. The right to free,
independent legal advice (s 58); the right not to be held incommunicado (s 56) and how
these two rights can be delayed and also the right to consult the codes of practice.
The period of detention and the requirement for regular reviews. The operation of the
‘detention clock’ (ss 41, 42, 43 and 44) and the ‘review clock’ (s 40).
Advising a client whether to answer police questions. The suspect's solicitor will first
gather as much relevant information as they can before advising their client of the options
open to them in the interview, the advantages and disadvantages of these and which
option they believe to be the safest.
Detaining a Suspect at the Police Station and Police Interviews
Sample questions
Question 1
A man has been arrested on Tuesday at 10.00 hrs on suspicion of common assault (a
summary offence) and taken to the local police station by the arresting officer. He arrives at
10.15 hrs and the custody officer authorises his detention to obtain evidence by questioning
him at 10.30 hrs.
Which of the following best describes the maximum period of time this man can be
detained before charge?
A Hecan be detained up until an inspector conducts a review of his detention which must
be by 16.30 hrs on Tuesday.
B He-can be detained up until an inspector conducts a review of his detention which must
be by 19.30 hrs on Tuesday.
C He can be detained up until 10.00 hrs on Wednesday.
D Hecan be detained up until 10.15 hrs on Wednesday.
E Hecan be detained up until 10.50 hrs on Wednesday.
Answer
Option D is the best answer. The ‘custody clock’ as opposed to the ‘review clock’ starts from
the time the man arrives at the police station, which here is 10.15 hrs on the Tuesday (not
the time of his arrest away from the police station, so option C is wrong, nor from the time
detention is authorised, so option E is also wrong). According to s 41, the maximum period
of detention before charge is 24 hours (note this cannot be extended as common assault is
a summary-only offence) so he can only be detained up until 10.15 hrs on the Wednesday.
Option A correctly sets out the time by which the man’s detention must be initially reviewed
by an inspector, but the question asks for the maximum period of detention, not when the
first review must be conducted. Option B is wrong because this also refers to a review, and
in any event, it gives the wrong time period (9 hours) for the first review to be conducted.
Criminal Practice
Question 2
A woman has been arrested and taken to the police station. When she is given her rights,
she requests legal advice, but she subsequently changes her mind when she learns the
police are ready to interview her and there is a delay in her solicitor attending the police
station. The custody officer authorises the interview to proceed in the absence of the
solicitor and makes an entry to this effect in the custody record. The woman also confirms
her change of mind in writing by signing an entry to this effect in the custody record.
Can the interview lawfully proceed on this basis?
A Yes, because the right to legal advice is an ongoing right, the suspect is entitled to
change her mind at any stage during her detention.
B_ No, because written authority can only be given by an officer not below the rank of
inspector.
C Yes, because the custody officer has authorised this and made-a record of the
authorisation in the custody record.
D No, because written authority can only be given by an officer not below the rank of
superintendent.
E No, because once a suspect has requested legal advice the interview cannot proceed
without the solicitor’s attendance.
Answer
Option B is the best answer. Whilst a suspect can change her mind about wanting legal
advice (so option E is wrong), this must be authorised in writing by an officer not below the
rank of inspector (so options C and D are also wrong). Whilst option A is correct in that the
right to legal advice is an ongoing right, and the suspect is entitled to change her mind at
any stage during her detention, there are some additional safeguards that must be followed
for this to be done correctly. These safeguards are actually very detailed (see the key points
below), but option B is the best answer because this correctly identifies the role played by an
officer not below the rank of inspector, provided:
¢ this officer speaks to the suspect to enquire about the reasons for their change ef mind,
and makes reasonable efforts to contact the solicitor;
* the suspect's reason for the change of mind and the outcome of the efforts to contact the
solicitor are recorded in the custody record;
¢ the suspect confirms in writing that they want the interview to proceed without first
obtaining legal advice by signing an entry to this effect in the custody record; and
¢ the officer of the rank of inspector or above is satisfied that it is proper for the interview to
proceed in these circumstances and gives authority in writing for the interview to proceed.
Question 3
A solicitor is acting for a client at the police station when it becomes apparent that there is
a conflict of interest with an existing client the solicitor is already representing.
Assuming the solicitor will withdraw from acting for the client, what should she now say
to the custody officer?
A_ That she no longer wants to represent the client.
B That she can no longer represent the client because there is a conflict of interest with
an existing client.
36
Detaining a Suspect at the Police Station and Police Interviews
C_ That she can no longer represent the client and the custody officer should speak to the
client to find out why.
D_ That she can no longer represent the client but someone else from her firm will be
attending to represent the client.
E That she is no longer able to represent the client for professional reasons.
Answer
Option E is the best answer because all the solicitor can tell the custody officer is that
she can no longer act (for professional reasons) - she must not disclose the reason why.
Arguably she could just tell the custody officer that she is no longer able to act, but some
practitioners would say it would be discourteous not to explain that it is for professional
reasons. Option A is not the best answer because it is misleading for the solicitor to say
that she no longer wants to represent the client. The reason she can no longer represent
the client is because of her professional obligations to this client and her existing client
rather than because she no longer wants to do this. If the solicitor told the custody officer
why she was no longer able to act (other than for professional reasons) this would be a
breach of the ongoing duty of confidentiality owed to the client under para 6.3 of the SRA
Code of Conduct, so option B is wrong. It would also be wrong to tell the custody officer
to speak to the client about why the solicitor can no longer act, so option C is also wrong.
Option D is wrong because if the solicitor has a conflict with this client and an existing
client, this will also prohibit anyone else in the firm from representing the client.
37
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Identification Procedures
Introduction 40
Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to apply relevant core legal principles
and rules appropriately and effectively, at the level of a competent newly qualified
solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based and ethical problems and situations in the
following areas:
¢ When an identification procedure must be held.
¢ The different types of procedure available.
¢ How such procedures should be conducted and who is responsible for
conducting these.
¢ The role of a legal adviser during such procedures and the advice a client should
be given about participating in an identification procedure.
39
Criminal Practice
2.1 Introduction
In addition to wanting to interview an arrested person about their suspected involvement in a
criminal offence, the other main reason for the police to arrest a suspect is to enable them to
obtain additional evidence which points to that suspect's guilt. One method which the.police
use to obtain such evidence is to see if the victim or witnesses to the offence are able to
visually identify the suspect, where the suspect is claiming they were not involved.
The procedures which the police need to follow when obtaining identification evidence are
contained in Code D. Paragraph 1.2 of Code D provides:
In this code, identification by an eye-witness arises when a witness who has seen
the offender committing the crime and is given an opportunity to identify a person
suspected of involvement in the offence in ‘avidéo identification, identification.parade
or.similar.procedure. These eye-witness identification procedures ... are designed to:
¢ test the witness’ ability to identify the suspect as the person they saw on a previous
occasion
¢ provide safeguards against mistaken identification.
If the police do not know the identity of the suspect, they are allowed to take a witness to
a particular neighbourhood or place to see if that witness is able to identify the person
they saw.
lf the identity of the suspect is known to the police and the suspect has been arrested, the
police may then use a form of identification procedure to see if the witness can identify the
suspect.
The police must keep a record.of.the suspect’s description. as. first.given to them by
a_potential witness (Code.D;para 3.1). Before any form of identification procedure
takes place, a copy of this record should be given to the suspect or their solicitor. This
may prove useful at trial if there are discrepancies between this description and the
actual appearance of the suspect.
40
Identification Procedures
© In RVHarris:[2003] EWCA Crim 174 the victim to a robbery claimed that he knew the
accused on the basis that he had gone to the same school. However, they had not been
in the same class and it had been two years ago when the accused was only 14 at the
time. The accused disputed the identification and also disputed that he was known to the
witness. It was held that this was a case where an identification procedure should have
been held under Code D, para 3.12.
By contrast, in Hw-DPP.{2003) All-ER (D) (Jan) the Court of Appeal held that it would have
served no useful purpose for the police to hold an identification procedure given that it
was accepted that the victim prior to the assault in question had known his aggressor
well for a period of 18 months and the assault had lasted a full seven minutes and so no
useful purpose would have been served in then holding a formal identification procedure.
An identification procedure should also be held if a witness to a crime has purported
to identify the suspect in the street some time after the crime was committed, since
the purpose of an identification procedure is to test the reliability of the eyewitness’
identification.
An eyewitness identification procedure may also be held if the officer in charge of the
investigation considers it would be useful (CodeD, para 3.13).
© Example 1
Liam is arrested on suspicion of assault. A witness, Baljeet, saw the assault. She does
not know Liam but thinks she can identify the person she saw commit the assault. Liam
disputes being the person Baljeet claims to have seen. An identification procedure should
be held to see if Baljeet can pick out Liam as the person she saw committing the assault.
© Example 2
Liam is arrested on suspicion of assault. A witness, Baljeet, saw the assault. She recognised
Liam as the person who committed the assault because she was at school with him some
years previously. Liam disputes being the person Baljeet claims to have seen. He also says
that he only vaguely recalls Baljeet from school but did not know her very well. He also
comments that it is several years since he left school and Baljeet was two years ahead of
him. An identification procedure should be held to see if Baljeet can pick out Liam, since
Liam is disputing the fact that he is known to Baljeet (see R v Harris above).
o Example 3
Liam is arrested on suspicion of assault. A witness, Baljeet, saw the assault. She identifies
Liam as the person who committed the assault. Liam disputes being the person Baljeet
claims to have seen. Baljeet has known Liam for several years as they are both members
of the same gym. Liam does not dispute that he is known to Baljeet. So unlike Example 2,
there would be no useful purpose in holding an identification procedure since Liam is
known to Baljeet who would clearly pick out Liam were a procedure to be held (see H v
DPP above).
o Example 4
An assault takes place outside a pub and is witnessed by Baljeet. The assailant runs
away before he can be apprehended. Baljeet does not know the identity of the person
who carried out the assault but thinks she will be able to identify this person if she sees
him again. PC Smith later takes Baljeet to the area where the assault occurred. Baljeet
sees Liam and recognises him as the person who committed the assault. An identification
procedure should be held to test the reliability of Baljeet’s street identification of Liam if
Liam claims that Baljeet is mistaken.
41
Criminal Practice
42
Identification Procedures
43
Criminal Practice
As with a video procedure, if a suspect has any unusual features (such as a facial scar, tattoo
or distinctive hair style or colour) which it is not possible to replicate on the other participants
in the parade, the police may take steps to conceal those features. For example, a plaster
may be used to hide a facial scar, or a hat may be used to hide distinctive hair colour (Code
D, Annex B, para 10).
Paragraph 14 of Code D, Annex B provides that the police must make appropriate
arrangements to ensure that, before attending the parade, witnesses are not able to:
(a) communicate with each other about the case, or overhear a witness who has already
seen the identification parade;
(b) see any member of the identification parade;
(c) see, or be reminded of, any photograph or description of the suspect, or be given any
other indication as to the suspect's identity; or
(d) see the suspect before or after the identification parade.
The suspect is allowed to choose their own position in the line (and may change positions
between witnesses if more than one witness is to attend the parade), but cannot otherwise
alter the order of people forming the line. Paragraph 16 of Code D, Annex B states:
Witnesses shall be brought in one at a time. Immediately before the witness inspects
the identification parade, they shall be told the person they saw on a specified
earlier occasion may, or may not, be present and if they cannot make a positive
identification, they should say so. The witness must also be told they should not make
any decision about whether the person they saw is on the identification parade until
they have looked at each member twice.
Sometimes a witness will ask to have a parade member speak, move or adopt a particular
posture. If a witness makes such a request, they should first be asked whether they can
identify any person on the parade on the basis of appearance only. A witness who asks a
parade member to speak must be reminded that the participants in the parade have been
chosen on the basis of physical appearance only. Only when the police have done that may
a member of the parade then be asked to comply with the request to hear them speak, move
or adopt a particular posture. (If a suspect is picked out after they have been asked to speak,
whilst this evidence will be admissible at trial, the judge will give a very strong warning to the
jury to treat such evidence with the utmost caution.)
A colour photograph or video recording of the identification parade must always be taken
(Code D, Annex B, para 23) to help guard against any later dispute that the other members
of the parade were not sufficiently similar to the suspect ‘in age, height, general appearance
and position in life’.
As with a video procedure, the police cannot compel a suspect to take part in an identification
parade, but there are practical and evidential implications when this occurs (see 2.5.1 below).
other persons whom the witness sees in addition to the suspect have any particular likeness to
the suspect.
lf a suspect refuses to consent to a group identification and such an identification is held
covertly, the police will be required to take the witness to a place where the suspect is likely
to be at a given time. If, for example, the suspect is in employment, the group identification
could take place outside the suspect’s place of work at the time when the suspect is known to
start or finish work, since it is likely that the suspect would then be in a group of fellow workers
arriving or leaving work at the same time.
other arrangements to test whether a witness can identify the suspect (ie by arranging a
confrontation);
(e) that if the suspect has significantly altered their appearance between being offered an
identification procedure and the time of the procedure, this may be given in evidence at
trial and the identification officer may consider other forms of identification;
(f) whether, before the suspect's identity became known, the witness was shown
photographs, or a computerised or artist’s composite likeness or image by the police; and
(g) that the suspect or their solicitor will be provided with details of the description of the
suspect as first given by any witnesses who are to attend the identification procedure
before the procedure takes place (Code D, para 3.17).
subsequently challenge the admissibility of any later disputed visual identification evidence at
trial (see Chapter 9).
47
Criminal Practice
Summary
In this chapter you have considered when and how the police will be required to conduct an
identification procedure and the importance of Code D of the Codes of Practice to PACE 1984
in relation to identification procedures. Notably:
¢ When an identification procedure must be held. This is dealt with by para 3.12 which
makes such a procedure mandatory where the police have an identification witness and
the suspect disputes being the person the witness claims to have seen, unless it is not
practicable or would serve no useful purpose in proving or disproving whether the suspect
was involved in committing the offence. Paragraph 3.13 also gives the police a discretion
to hold an identification procedure if the officer in charge of the investigation considers it
would be useful.
¢ The different types of identification procedure. These are a video identification; an
identification parade; a group identification; and a confrontation by a witness. Paragraph
3.14 provides that a suspect should initially be offered a video identification unless this is
not practicable.
* The procedure to be followed when carrying out an identification procedure. These
are set out in considerable detail at Annexes A, B, C and D of Code D and for all four
types of procedure an officer not below the rank of inspector and not involved with the
investigation is responsible for conducting the identification procedure and preparing a
formal record of this.
* The legal adviser’s role at an identification procedure. The legal adviser will initially advise
their client whether or not to consent to taking part in such a procedure and will then be
present during the procedure to ensure that it is conducted in accordance with Code D.
Sample questions
Question 1
A man has been arrested on suspicion of burglary. A witness claims to have seen the man
climbing out of a window of the burgled premises at the time of the burglary. The witness
claims she recognised the man because they were at school together. During interview, the
man denies any involvement in the burglary and claims the witness is mistaken. He also
claims the witness could not have recognised him on the basis that he is known to her as
they were not in the same class or year group at school and he left school six years ago.
Identification Procedures
Which of the following statements best describes whether the police will now be
required to hold an identification procedure?
A The holding of an identification procedure will be required because the man claims the
witness is mistaken and disputes that he is known to the witness.
B_ The police may hold an identification procedure if they believe it will help the
investigation into this offence.
C_ The police may hold an identification procedure if the officer in charge of the
investigation considers it would be useful.
D_ An identification procedure would not be necessary because the witness would
inevitably pick out the man.
E_ An identification procedure would serve no useful purpose as it is not disputed that the
man is already known to the witness.
Answer
Option A is the best answer. An identification would be mandatory in this case according
to Code D, para 3.12. There is a witness who has purported to recognise the man and
the man disputes being the person the witness claims to have seen, so an identification
procedure shall be held unless it is not practicable or would serve no useful purpose in
proving or disproving whether the man was involved in committing the offence. The man
disputes that he is known to the witness because they were not in the same year group at
school and also because of the passage of time since they were at school. This scenario
is therefore very similar to R v Harris (2003) where the CA stated that an identification
procedure was required in such circumstances. Options B and C are not the best answers
because although an eyewitness identification procedure may also be held if the officer in
charge of the investigation considers it would be useful (Code D, para 3.13), this would not
apply where the requirement to hold the procedure is already caught by para 3.12. Option
D is wrong because it is not at all inevitable that the witness would pick out the man since
the man has proper grounds to dispute that he is known to her. Option E is not the best
answer because it is disputed that the man is already known to the witness.
Question 2
Two brothers have been arrested on suspicion of affray. The police have a witness to
the incident who believes he would be able to identify the two offenders. Both brothers
deny being involved in the incident and both claim they were elsewhere at the time.
Because the two brothers are roughly of similar appearance, the police hold a video
identification procedure with the images of the two brothers and 10 images of other
people who all resemble the suspects in age, height, general appearance and position
in life. The investigating officer, who is an officer of inspector rank, conducts the video
identification procedure.
Has the video identification procedure been properly conducted?
A Yes, because the correct number of images have been used and an officer not below
the rank of inspector has conducted the procedure.
B No, because two separate procedures should have been used with one of the suspect's
video image and eight other images. used for each procedure.
C Yes, because the other images are of people who all resemble the suspects in age,
height, general appearance and position in life.
49
Criminal Practice
D No, because the investigating officer must not be involved in the conduct of the
identification procedure.
E No, because 12 other images should have been used and the investigating kite must
not be involved in the identification procedure.
Answer
Option E is the best answer. The video identification procedure has not been conducted
lawfully in accordance with Annex A to Code D of PACE 1984 because 12 other images (not
10) should have been used and the investigating officer must not be involved in the conduct
of the procedure, so option A is wrong. Where two suspects of roughly similar appearance
are shown in the same images, they may be shown together with at least 12 other people
(Code D, Annex A, para 2), so although separate procedures would usually be held, option
B is not the best answer. Although option C is correct about the other images all resembling
the suspects in age, height, general appearance and position in life, it fails to explain why
the procedure is still not conducted correctly. Option D is partially correct, because the
investigating officer must not be involved in the conduct of the identification procedure, but
it is not the best answer, because it fails to mention that the wrong number of images (10
rather than 12) have been used.
Question 3
A street robbery takes place and the victim provides a first description of the robber. The
victim does not know who the robber was and so she is shown photographs, in batches of
12, of people who fit this description. The victim makes a positive identification of a man
who is then arrested on suspicion of committing the robbery. The man is interviewed and
denies any involvement, claiming that he was elsewhere at the time of the robbery.
What are the police now required to do?
A The victim has already made a positive identification so the man should now be
charged.
B_ The victim should now be asked to take part in an identification procedure.
The police will be required to hold an identification procedure because the officer in
charge of the investigation will consider it to be useful.
D_ The police should not have shown the victim photographs in batches of 12 so they will
not be able to proceed further against the man.
E The man should now be compelled to take part in an identification procedure.
Answer
Option B is the best answer. The victim has made an identification from viewing the
photographs and should now be asked to take part in an identification procedure (Code
D, Annex E, para 6). Option A is wrong because a positive identification has not yet been
made. Option C is not the best answer because although this may be one of the reasons
for conducting an identification procedure the victim must first be asked to take part in such
a procedure and in the circumstances of this case, para D 3.12 will be the reason why such
a procedure is required. Option D is wrong because the victim must be shown at least 12
photographs at a time (Code D, Annex E, para 4). Option E is wrong because the suspect
cannot be compelled to take part in such a procedure.
50
Charging the Suspect
a
oiee8
lieniir
ereninves Introduction 52
3.2 Release under investigation 52
3.3 Bail before charge 52
3.4 The decision to charge 54
3.5 Interviewing after charge oo
3.6 Bail after charge 55
3.7 Alternatives to charging 57
Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to apply relevant core legal principles
and rules appropriately and effectively, at the level of a competent newly qualified
solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based and ethical problems and situations in the
following areas:
Releasing a suspect under investigation.
Bailing a suspect before charge.
Charging a suspect and the role played by the CPS.
Interviewing and bailing a suspect post-charge.
Alternatives to charging.
Note that, none of the above outcomes are specifically mentioned in the SRA
syllabus, but these cover some fundamental legal principles and rules that a
competent, newly qualified solicitor representing clients in the police station would be
expected to know. Knowledge of these will also help you to better understand topics
that are on the syllabus. As a result, please note there are no sample questions at the
end of this chapter.
51
Criminal Practice
3.1 Introduction
Once the police have exercised their investigative powers whilst the suspect is detained in
the police station (such as interviewing, conducting identification procedures and obtaining
forensic evidence) they will then need to determine what step to take next. The decision on
what to do next will ultimately be made by the custody officer who has four main options:
(a) release the suspect (either without taking any further action or release under
investigation);
(b) release the suspect without charge but on bail whilst the police make further enquiries;
(c) charge the suspect (and either release on bail or keep in custody until the suspect's first
court appearance); or
(d) offer the suspect an alternative to charge.
Each of these options will be examined in turn.
52
Charging the Suspect
(1) the case has been submitted to the CPS for a charging decision (see below); here the
custody officer can release the suspect on bail; or
(2) (a) the custody officer is satisfied that releasing the suspect on bail is necessary and
proportionate in all the circumstances (having regard, in particular, to any conditions
of bail which would be imposed); and
(b) an officer of the rank of inspector or above authorises the release on bail (having
considered any representations made by the suspect or the suspect's solicitor).
Bail before charge will therefore be granted by the custody officer under s 47(3)(b). Where it is
necessary and proportionate to bail the suspect, a maximum period of 28 days (starting from
the day after the day that the suspect was arrested) applies. This initial period of 28 days can
be extended once for up to three months, if authorised by an officer of superintendent rank
or above. A further extension (of three months) can be granted by the court in exceptionally
complex cases (PACE 1984, ss 47ZD-47ZG).
Where a suspect is released on bail, details of the time and date when the suspect needs to
re-attend the police station will be contained in a written bail notice given to the suspect by
the police.
When the suspect answers their bail, the police may:
(a) release them without charge (if, after making further enquiries, the police have insufficient
evidence to charge);
(b) exercise further investigative powers (such as re-interviewing the suspect or conducting an
identification procedure);
(c) release the suspect again on bail if their further enquiries are incomplete (but subject to
the maximum 28-day time period referred to above) or, having completed their enquiries,
they wish to pass their file to the CPS for advice; or
(d) charge the suspect (if, after making further enquiries, the police now have sufficient
evidence to charge).
lf the suspect fails to answer bail at the police station, they may be arrested without warrant (s
46A). Although failing to answer bail at the police station is technically a criminal offence, it is
very rare in practice for the police to charge a suspect with this offence.
The police may impose conditions on bail granted to a suspect whilst the police make further
enquiries into the alleged offence (s 47(1A)). The police may, for example, impose a condition
of residence or a condition preventing a suspect from entering a certain area or contacting
or communicating with named people such as the complainant or prosecution witnesses. The
police may arrest without warrant a suspect who breaches such conditions.
3.3.1 Release on bail (or detain in custody) whilst the file is passed to the CPS
The Police and Justice Act (PJA) 2006 made significant changes to the procedure for deciding
whether and with what offence a suspect should be charged. The Act created a new s 37B,
which provides that in cases other than straightforward ones, it is for the CPS to determine
whether the suspect should be charged and, if so, with what offence.
So when the police believe there is sufficient evidence to charge a suspect (particularly in
contested or more serious cases), they will send the case papers to the CPS for it to determine
whether or not to charge, and if so with what offence(s).
The CPS will apply a two-part test to determine whether or not the suspect should be charged:
(a) there must be sufficient evidence to provide a ‘realistic prospect of conviction’; and
(b) if there is sufficient evidence, the CPS will then need to determine if it is in the ‘public
interest to charge the suspect, or whether the matter should be dealt with other than by
way of charge (see 3.7 below).
53
Criminal Practice
In urgent or very straightforward cases, advice from the CPS can be given from a CPS lawyer
at the police station or by telephone (especially if it is out of hours). In other cases, it can take
several weeks for the CPS to review a file, and the police will therefore need to release the
suspect on bail under s 47(3)(b) whilst this is done. As with releasing the suspect on bail whilst
the police make further enquiries, the suspect will be required to re-attend the police.station
at a future time and date and will be given a notice to this effect. When the suspect answers
their bail, the police may:
(a) charge the suspect (if the CPS found there was sufficient evidence to charge and a
charge was in the public interest);
(b) exercise further investigative powers if the CPS considered that further evidence was
needed (eg re-interviewing the suspect or obtaining more evidence from witnesses);
(c) release the suspect without charge (if the CPS found there was insufficient evidence to
charge); or
(d) deal with the matter other than by way of a charge if the CPS found there was sufficient
evidence to charge the suspect, but a charge was not in the public interest (see 3.7
below).
The police may impose conditions on a suspect who is released on bail pending consultations
with the CPS (s 47(1A)). For example, conditions may be imposed requiring a suspect to reside
at a particular address, not to enter a specified area or not to contact specified persons.
© Example
Karl is arrested on suspicion of inflicting grievous bodily harm following a fight that
took place outside a public house. It is alleged that he has a vendetta against the
complainant, and this is not the first time an incident between the two has taken place
outside this public house. Karl claims he was acting in self-defence. The police refer
the file to the CPS to determine whether and if so, what charge Karl should face. Karl is
released on bail whilst the CPS reviews the file. The police impose conditions on the bail
granted to Karl, requiring him not to contact or communicate with the complainant and
not to go within a 400-metre radius of the public house.
If the suspect fails to answer bail at the police station, or the police reasonably suspect
that the suspect has broken any conditions attached to bail, they may be arrested without
warrant (s 46A). Failing to answer bail at the police station is a criminal offence, although
it is rare in practice for the police to charge a suspect with this offence.
The suspect should also be given a written notice (the ‘charge sheet’) which gives the
particulars of the offence. Paragraph 16.3 of Code C states:
As far as possible the particulars of the charge shall be stated in simple terms, but
they shall also show the precise offence in law with which the detainee is charged.
In certain circumstances, a suspect against whom there is sufficient evidence to bring a
charge may be offered an alternative means of having the matter disposed of. These
alternatives are described at 3.7 below.
(1) Where a person arrested for an offence ... is charged with an offence, the custody officer
shall, subject to section 25 of the Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994, order their
release from police detention, either on bail or without bail, unless:
In summary, where the custody officer has reasonable grounds:
* to doubt the name or address provided is the suspect’s proper name or address or where
such name or address cannot be confirmed;
55
Criminal Practice
* to believe that the person arrested will fail to appear in court to answer bail;
* to believe that the detention of the person arrested is necessary to prevent them from
committing an offence;
* to believe that detention of the person is necessary to enable a sample to be taken;
* to prevent them from causing physical injury to any other person or from causing loss of or
damage to property;
* to prevent them from interfering with the administration of justice or with the investigation
of offences or of a particular offence; and
* to believe that the detention of the person arrested is necessary for their own protection.
o Example 1
Tariq is charged with burglary. He has several previous convictions for failing to attend
court to answer bail. The custody officer may refuse bail as he would have reasonable
grounds for believing that Tariq would fail to appear in court if he were granted bail.
© Example 2
Meghan is charged with theft. She has numerous previous convictions for theft and related
offences, including several offences that were committed whilst she was on bail in the
course of previous proceedings. The custody officer may refuse bail with reasonable
grounds for believing that Meghan may commit further offences whilst on bail.
If the custody officer decides to grant bail to a suspect who has been charged, they must
then decide whether it is necessary to impose conditions on that bail (PACE 1984, s 47(1A)).
Conditions may be imposed only if they are necessary:
(a) to prevent the suspect from failing to surrender to custody;
(b) to prevent the suspect from committing an offence whilst on bail;
(c) to prevent the suspect from interfering with witnesses or otherwise obstructing the course
of justice (whether in relation to themself or another person); or
(d) for the suspect's own protection or, if the suspect is a child or young person (ie 17 or
under), for their own welfare or in their own interests (Bail Act 1976, s 3A(5)).
The custody officer may impose most of the same types of condition which a magistrates’
court could impose on bail granted to a defendant (see Chapter 7), although the custody
officer cannot impose a condition that a suspect reside at a bail hostel, undergo medical
examination or see their legal adviser. The custody officer may, for example, impose
conditions requiring the suspect:
(a) to reside at a particular address;
(b) not to speak to or contact any witnesses;
(c) not to enter a particular area or set of premises; or
(d) to observe a curfew at night between specified hours.
A suspect who wishes to vary conditions imposed on bail which the police have granted may
either:
(a) ask the custody officer who imposed the conditions (or another custody officer at the
same police station) to vary the conditions (Bail Act 1976, s 3A(4)); or
(b) make an application to the magistrates’ court for the conditions to be varied (Magistrates’
Courts Act 1980, s 43(B)(1) and CrimPR, r 14.6).
56
Criminal Practice
58
Charging the Suspect
¢ child cruelty;
* sexual offences against children (including those relating to child prostitution and
pornography);
¢ sex trafficking offences;
¢ indecent and pornographic images of children;
¢ importing, exporting, producing, supplying and possessing with intent to supply to another
Class A drugs.
Further, s 17(4) restricts the use of simple cautions for repeat offending. A defendant must not
usually be given a simple caution if in the two years before the offence was committed the
defendant has been convicted of, or cautioned for, a similar offence.
59
Criminal Practice
(b) the client will almost certainly lose the opportunity of receiving a caution on a subsequent
occasion;
(c) the existence of the caution will be disclosable should the client apply for certain types of
employment (particularly entry to a profession);
(d) if the offence is sexual, the client will also be placed on the sex offenders register; and
(e) the police may retain fingerprints and other identification data taken from the client (a
record of cautions is usually kept for a minimum of five years).
A client should accept a caution only if they accept their guilt and there is sufficient evidence
against them. If there is insufficient evidence, the CPS may choose not to prosecute. A solicitor
should not advise a client to accept a caution as a matter of convenience, simply to dispose
of the case.
Summary
In this chapter you have considered when and how the police will charge a suspect and other
issues related to this. Notably:
¢ Releasing a suspect under investigation. lf further investigation is going to take longer
than 28 days, the police will now generally release a suspect under investigation (RUI).
* Bailing a suspect before charge. This will usually only be possible where the investigation
will be completed within 28 days. It does enable the police to impose conditions on such
a suspect's police bail.
* Charging a suspect and the role played by the CPS. There is an obligation on the police
to consider charging a suspect once they have sufficient evidence to charge. However, in
many cases the police will first have to obtain advice from the CPS on charge. The CPS
will base their advice on a dual evidence and public interest test.
¢ Interviewing and bailing a suspect post-charge. Generally, this is not allowed. Where in
the limited circumstances it is, the defendant has an absolute right to remain silent.
¢ Alternatives to charging. Even where a suspect admits their involvement in an offence,
charging the suspect is not the only way the matter may be dealt with. Alternatives
include an informal warning; a penalty notice; a formal caution; and a conditional
caution.
Charging the Suspect
Police need to
Charged (or Released
exercise
alternative to without
investigative
charge) charge
powers further
61
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Representing Vulnerable
Clients
| 4.1 Introduction 64
4.2. The appropriate adult 65
4.3 Role of the legal representative/solicitor 66
rae Interviewing vulnerable suspects 67
45 Identification procedures 67
ere 4.6 Charging juveniles 68
47 Alternatives to charging juveniles 69
Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to apply relevant core legal principles
and rules appropriately and effectively, at the level of a competent newly qualified
solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based and ethical problems and situations in the
following areas:
¢ The additional matters which must be taken into account when representing a
vulnerable person (including a juvenile) who has been arrested and detained at
the police station.
¢ The role of an appropriate adult at the police station.
¢ The role of a legal adviser when representing a vulnerable client.
¢ Identification procedures involving vulnerable clients.
¢ Charging a juvenile.
¢ The alternatives to charging a juvenile suspect.
¢ The power of the police to refuse to grant bail to a juvenile suspect who has
been charged with a criminal offence.
Criminal Practice
4.1 Introduction
A solicitor will often be called to the police station to represent an individual who falls within
one of several special categories of suspect, all of whom can be described as pene
vulnerable, and to whom specific rules apply. These categories are:
(a) juveniles - suspects who are aged between 10 and 17 inclusive (although para 1.5 of
Code C provides that the police should treat anyone who appears to be under 18 as a
juvenile in the absence of clear evidence to the contrary);
(b) suspects who suffer from a mental health condition or mental disorder, although para 1.4
of Code C provides that if the police suspect that someone suffers from such a condition,
then in the absence of any clear evidence to dispel such suspicion, they should treat
that person as suffering from such a condition (see para 1.13(d) of Code C for a more
detailed analysis of such a vulnerable person);
(c) suspects who are deaf, unable to speak or blind; and
(d) suspects who cannot speak or understand English.
This chapter will concentrate in particular on the specific rules that apply to juveniles, but there
will also be some mention, where applicable, of these other groups of vulnerable suspects.
Paragraph 3.20A of Code C requires that arrangements must be made for ensuring that a girl
under the age of 18, whilst detained in a police station, is under the care of a woman (see
Code C, Notes for Guidance, para 3G, and the Children and Young Persons Act 1933, s 31).
Where the suspect doesn’t speak or understand English or has a hearing or speech
impediment
Where a suspect either doesn’t speak or understand English or has a hearing or speech
impediment, the custody officer must obtain an interpreter or someone able to assist the
suspect with communication (Code C, para 3.12).
Representing Vulnerable Clients
© Example
Fay, aged 14 years, has been arrested and detained at the police station on suspicion of
causing damage to a mobile phone belonging to her father following an argument. Fay
lives with her father. She is estranged from her mother who she has not seen for over a
year, even though she lives nearby. Fay tells the custody officer that she wants her father
Criminal Practice
to attend as her appropriate adult as she does not know any other responsible adult who
would be able to attend. When asked by the custody officer, she objects to her mother
attending.
In these circumstances the custody officer will have to contact a social worker from
the local authority to attend as Fay’s appropriate adult. Despite Fay’s request, her
father cannot act as appropriate adult as he is the ‘victim’ of the offence and Fay
has specifically said she doesn’t want her mother attending. Usually a juvenile cannot
determine who their appropriate adult will be, but because she is ‘estranged’ from her
mother, Fay’s views must be respected. That would mean the only other person who
would appear to be eligible would be a social worker.
67
Criminal Practi
Paragraph 2.12 of Code D provides that where any procedure in Code D requires a person's
consent (for example, if a suspect is asked to consent to taking part in an identification
procedure), the following conditions apply:
(a) if the suspect is a juvenileaged 14 or over, consent must be obtained both from the
juvenile and from the juvenile’s parent or guardian;
(b) if the suspect is a juvenile aged under 14, consent must be obtained from the juvenile’s
parent or guardian (rather than from the juvenile);
(c) If the suspect is suffering from a mental health condition or mental disorder, then the
consent must be given in the presence of the appropriate adult.
46 Charging juveniles =
The focus will now only be on juvenile suspects. Once the police have conducted their
investigations, they will need to decide what the next steps in the case will be. The range
of options open to the police is the same as for adult suspects. However, in relation to the
refusal of bail after charge, in addition to the considerations in s 38{1\a), the custody officer
may also deny the juvenile bail ifthey have reasonable grounds for believing that the juvenile
oughtto be detained in their own interests.
On charge, the written notice (the ‘charge sheet’), which gives the particulars of the offence
with which the suspect has been charged, should be given to the appropriate adult (Code C,
para 16.3).
446.1 Juveniles
refused bail after charge
Ifthe custody officer denies bail after charge to a juvenile, the suspect will normally be
remanded into the care of the local authority rather than at the police station pending their
first appearance before the Youth Court. The only two situations when a juvenile may be kept
in police custody after charge are:
(a) if it is impracticable to move the suspect to local authority accommodation; or
(b) if the juvenile is aged at least 12, there is no secure local authority accommodation
available and keeping them in other local authority accommodation would not be
adequate to protect the public from serious harm from them (s 38(6)).
Note: ‘Secure accommodation’ is accommodation provided for the purpose of restricting
liberty (Children Act 1989, s 25(1)).
if either of these criteria is satisfied and the juvenile is detained at the police station, para 8.8
of Code C provides that the juvenile must be kept separate from adult suspects and must not
be detained in a cell unless it is not practicable to supervise the juvenile other than in a cell.
The suspect will normally be kept in a juvenile detention room.
The guidance notes to Code C provide that, unless one of the conditions in s 38(6) is satisfied,
neither a juvenile’s behaviour nor the nature of the offence provides grounds for the custody -
officer to decide that it is impracticable to arrange the juvenile’s transfer to local authority
care (Code C, Notes for Guidance, para 16D). This paragraph also states that the lack of
secure local authority accommodation does not moke it impracticable to transfer the juvenile _
unless the juvenile is aged 12 or over and the local authority accommodation would not be
adequate to protect the public from serious harm from the juvenile.
en
Yassin, aged 11 years, has been arrested, detained and chorged with attempted
murder. There ts no local authority secure accommodation available. The custody officer
therefore believes that if remanded into the care of the local authority before his first court
appearance, the public would not be properly protected from serious harm from Yassin.
In such Circumstances, the custody officer would sill be required to remand Yassin into
local authority core (and not keep him detained at the police station), becouse Yassin
is not aged 12 years or over and the lack of secure accommodation would not mote z
impracticable
fo transfer Yassin.
4.7 Alternatives
to charging juveniles
The Legal Aid, Sentencing and Punishment of Offenders (LASPO) Act 2012 deals with out-of
court disposal systems available in respect of juveniles under 18 years of age. The decision to
authorise a youth caution or youth conditional caufion (see below) will be dependent on the
severity of the offence. Indictable-only offences will be referred to the CPS; first-time summary
and either-way offences can be decided by the police: second and subsequent offences will
be by a joint decision from the police, following assessment by the Youth Offending Team.
Community resolution
This ts the starting point for out-of-court disposals. It is a non-stotutory disposal for the
resolution of a minor offence or anti-social behaviour incident through informal agreement
between the parties involved. li is primarily aimed at first-time offenders where there hes
been an admission of guilt, and where the victim's views have been token into occount — will
not form part of the offender's criminal record retained by the police.
(a) there is sufficient evidence ogainst the offender to provide a realistic prospect of
conviction;
® @ must be determined that a youth conditional caution should be given to the offender:
Criminal Practice
70
Representing Vulnerable Clients
Summary
In this chapter you have considered the additional safeguards given to vulnerable suspects
and the types of suspect likely to enjoy such additional protection. Notably:
¢ Who may be described as a vulnerable suspect. This includes juveniles (aged 10 to 17);
those suffering from a mental health condition or mental disorder; those who do not
speak or understand English or have a hearing or speech impediment; and those who
are either blind or have a severe visual impairment. In relation to each type of vulnerable
suspect, who needs to be contacted by the custody officer and what they need to be told.
¢ The appropriate adult. Including who can be an appropriate adult and the role this
person is required to take at the police station.
¢ The role of the legal representative/solicitor. In relation to the vulnerable suspect and the
appropriate adult.
¢ Identification procedures involving vulnerable suspects. Including who is required to
provide consent under Code D for a range of identification procedures.
* Charging a juvenile. Including when and how bail may be refused based on the age of
the juvenile.
¢ The alternatives to charging a juvenile suspect. Including the use of community resolution,
youth cautions and youth conditional cautions and the consequences of receiving any
of these.
Sample questions
Question 1
A 16-year-old girl has been arrested and is being interviewed about her suspected
involvement in relation to an allegation of burglary of shop premises. Her mother is present
as the appropriate adult. During the course of the interview, the mother keeps interrupting
the interviewing officer, stopping them from asking proper questions of the girl. The
interviewing officer stops the interview and speaks to the custody sergeant who listens to a
recording of the interview and then reminds the appropriate adult of her role and gives her
an opportunity to respond. The custody sergeant then authorises the removal of the girl’s
mother as appropriate adult and contacts a social worker to continue to act as appropriate
adult for the girl.
Have the police acted correctly when removing the girl’s mother from acting as
appropriate adult?
A Yes, because the mother has prevented the interviewing officer from putting proper
questions to the girl.
B_ Yes, because the girl still has an appropriate adult attending to support, advise and
assist her.
C Yes, the custody sergeant followed the correct procedure before authorising the
removal of the girl's mother.
D No, because the custody sergeant is not of the correct rank of officer to make such an
authorisation.
E No, because the mother’s role is not just to act as an observer, she is entitled to
intervene during the interview.
71
Criminal Practice
Answer
Option D is the best answer. Although the mother has prevented the interviewing officer
from putting proper questions to the suspect (option A) and the suspect still has an
appropriate adult attending to support, advise and assist her (option B) and the custody
sergeant followed the correct procedure before authorising the removal of the suspect's
mother (option C), such a removal can only be authorised by an officer not below the rank
of superintendent, or if such an officer is not available, an officer not below the rank of
inspector, so option D is the best answer. Although option E is correct in that the mother’s
role is not just to act as an observer and she is entitled to intervene during the interview,
she is not entitled to prevent the interviewing officer from putting proper questions to the
suspect (see Code C, para 11.17 and 11.17A).
Question 2
A boy, aged 13 years, has been arrested on suspicion of robbery. He denies any
involvement in the offence and claims that a witness who has recognised him is mistaken.
The police propose to carry out a video identification procedure and the solicitor
representing the boy advises him and his appropriate adult, a local authority social worker,
to agree to take part in the procedure. The boy refuses to give his consent to such a
procedure, but the appropriate adult does give her consent and when the boy's mother is
contacted, she also gives her consent.
Can the police now lawfully carry out an identification procedure?
A Yes, because the relevant consent from the boy’s parent has been given.
B No, because consent must be given by the appropriate adult and the boy.
C Yes, because consent is not required to carry out a video identification procedure.
D Yes, because the boy’s solicitor has advised the boy to consent to the video
identification procedure.
m No, because the parent and the boy must both give their consent.
Answer
Option A is the best answer. Where a juvenile suspect is under 14 years of age, only the
consent of the parent (or guardian) is required (Code D, para 2.12). Option B is therefore
wrong, as the suspect's consent and the appropriate adult’s consent (where this person is
not also the parent or guardian) are not required. Option C is not the best answer because
although consent is not required to carry out a covert video identification procedure, most
video identification procedures are not covert and do require consent. Option D is wrong
because although the solicitor’s advice will be important in practice, it is not a requirement
of Code D. Option E would have been correct had the juvenile suspect been aged 14 years
or over, where both the parent/guardian and the suspect must give their consent.
Question 3
A boy, aged 10 years, has been charged with rape, it being alleged that he raped his
younger sister. There is no local authority secure accommodation available. The boy’s
behaviour whilst detained at the police station has given the custody officer genuine
concern that if released from the police station the boy will interfere with witnesses. The
custody officer also believes that keeping the boy in other local authority accommodation
would not be adequate to protect the public from serious harm from the boy.
72
Representing Vulnerable Clients
Where can the custody officer authorise the boy to be remanded following charge?
A_ The boy can be remanded at the police station, but he should be detained in a juvenile
detention room.
B_ The boy can be remanded at the police station, but he must be kept separate from
adult suspects and must not be detained in a cell unless it is not practicable to
supervise him.
C_ The boy can only be remanded to other local authority accommodation because he is
under the age of 12.
D_ The boy must be released on either unconditional or conditional bail.
E The boy can only be remanded on bail if it is impracticable to move him to local
authority accommodation.
Answer
Option C is the correct answer. The key point to spot here is that the boy is only aged 10 and
therefore under the age of 12. Had the boy been aged 12 or over, then s 38(6) provides that
the lack of secure local authority accommodation does not make it impracticable to transfer a
juvenile to local authority accommodation unless a juvenile is aged 12 or over and the local
authority accommodation would not be adequate to protect the public from serious harm from
the juvenile. So options A and B may have been correct had the boy been older. Option D is
wrong because although the custody officer may remand the boy on either unconditional or
conditional bail, the boy may also be remanded into the care of the local authority (which is
most likely on these facts). Option E is wrong for the same reason.
73
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PART 2
THE PROCEDURES AND
PROCESSES INVOLVED IN
CRIMINAL LITIGATION AND
THE LAW OF EVIDENCE
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First Hearings Before the
Magistrates’ Court
5.1 Introduction 78
SW Classification of offences 78
SQE1 syllabus
This chapter will enable you to achieve the SQE1 Assessment Specification in relation
to Functioning Legal Knowledge concerned with the following procedures and
processes:
¢ classification of offences;
* applying for a representation order;
* procedural overview - what will happen at the hearing;
¢ the role of the defence solicitor at the hearing.
Note that, for SQE1, candidates are not usually required to recall specific case names
or cite statutory or regulatory authorities. These are provided for illustrative purposes
only unless otherwise stated.
Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to apply relevant core legal principles
and rules appropriately and effectively, at the level of a competent newly qualified
solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based and ethical problems and situations in the
following areas:
¢ The matters which will be dealt with at a first hearing in the magistrates’ court
based on the classification of the offence.
¢ The forms of public funding available to a defendant and applying for a
representation order.
¢ What will happen at the first hearing.
¢ The role played by the defendant's solicitor at the first hearing.
77
Criminal Practice
5.1 Introduction
All defendants, no matter the charge, who are aged 18 or over, will make their first court
appearance before the magistrates’ court. If the defendant is charged with an offence triable
only on indictment, the magistrates will immediately send the case to the Crown Court under s
51 of the Crime and Disorder Act (CDA) 1998. Defendants aged 17 and under will usually be
dealt with in the Youth Court (see Chapter 13).
This chapter concentrates on adult defendants who are charged with an either-way offence
or a summary offence. It describes what happens when the defendant makes their initial
appearance at court and the role played by the defence solicitor at this stage in obtaining
funding for the case, finding out details of the prosecution case against their client and
advising the client as to their plea.
Between April and December 2007, the implementation of CJSSS - ‘Criminal Justice: Simple,
Speedy, Summary’ - was rolled out in England and Wales. The idea of CJSSS was to speed up
proceedings before magistrates’ courts and to deal with cases-as quickly as possible:
Some key principles of CJSSS are as follows:
(a) There is a common presumption that a plea will be entered at the first hearing.
(b) For guilty pleas which will be’sentenced in the magistrates’ court it is expected that
sentence should take place on the same day unless a more detailed pre-sentence report
is required.
(c) For not guilty pleas, it is expected that the trial issues should be identified, and a trial
date fixed within six to eight weeks.
(d) The CPS should provide sufficient information at the first hearing to ensure the hearing is
effective.
Note though that where an Act refers to the phrase ‘indictable offence’ without any further
qualification, this is actually referring to the first two above classifications which, in the case of
an adult, either must or may be tried in the Crown Court on indictment.
78
First Hearings Before the Magistrates’ Court
) Example
George is arrested and charged with three allegations of theft from shops. The value
of the goods alleged to have been stolen are £75, £50 and £100 respectively. George
intends to plead guilty to all three allegations. Although each theft relates to a value
under £200, the aggregate value comes to £225 and so George’s case will not be treated
as ‘low-value shoplifting’. This means that these offences will be dealt with as either-way
offences. So, if for example, George has a bad criminal record for similar offending he
could be committed to the Crown Court for sentence. Consequently, George could be
imprisoned for more than six months - R v Daniel Harvey [2020] EWCA Crim 354 (see
Chapters 6 and 11).
79
Criminal Practice
(a) the interests ofjustice test - the defendant must show that it is in the interests of justice ©
that they receive public funding to cover the cost of their legal representation; and
(b) the means test - the defendant must demonstrate that their finances are such that they
are unable to pay for the cost of their legal representation.
In order to apply for legal aid in the magistrates’ court, the defendant must submit an online
application form (Form CRM14 - Application for Legal Aid in Criminal Proceedings). Unless
the defendant automatically satisfies the means test (see below), they must also submit a
financial statement (Form CRM15), together with any supporting evidence.
80
First Hearings Before the Magistrates’ Court
81
Criminal Practice
82
First Hearings Before the Magistrates’ Court
after the sending hearing and will only cover work done in the Crown Court, and only if the
defendant passes the means eligibility test in the Crown Court.
A defendant whose application for legal aid is refused under the interests of justice test may
appeal against this decision either by adding further details to their original Form CRM14 and
resubmitting this, or by requesting an appeal. There is no right of appeal against the refusal
of legal aid as a result of a failure to satisfy the means test (although the defendant may ask
that their application be reviewed on the grounds of hardship - see above).
At the conclusion of the case, the defence solicitor will then claim costs incurred under the
representation order from the LAA.
o Example
Darren has been arrested on suspicion of theft from his employer, it being alleged that
he stole a significant amount whilst in a position of a high degree of trust. At the police
station he receives advice from Stella, the duty solicitor. Darren denies the allegation.
During interview, it becomes apparent the prosecution will seek to rely on a disputed item
of hearsay evidence. Following interview, Darren is RUI. He is also subsequently dismissed
from his employment. After a number of weeks, Darren is eventually prosecuted for the
offence. Darren has been unable to find employment and by the time his case gets to
court he is in receipt of universal credit. Darren maintains his innocence; he intends to
plead not guilty and he instructs Stella to represent him.
Darren’s entitlement to publicly funded advice and representation:
¢ At the police station Darren is entitled to free legal advice from Stella (even though at
that point he was still in paid employment).
¢ At court, he is likely to be eligible for a representation order. Stella will complete an
online application form (CRM14) setting out why it is in the interests of justice that
Darren is granted legal aid. Based on the limited information we have so far, the
factors will be:
° ‘It is likely that | will lose my liberty if any matter in the proceedings is decided
against me.’
° ‘It is likely that | will suffer serious damage to my reputation.’
° ‘A substantial question of law may be involved (whether arising from an act,
judicial authority or other source).’
¢ As Darren is in receipt of universal credit, he will automatically satisfy the means test.
the details of the prosecution case with the defendant, and to advise on the strength of the
prosecution case and the plea the defendant should enter (see Chapter 6).
There will be rare occasions when the defendant is not in a position to enter a plea, for
example, there may be times when funding issues have not been finalised and financial
details remain outstanding, or where the prosecution has not been able to disclose any of
their evidence and so the case needs to be adjourned.
If the case is adjourned, the magistrates will consider whether the defendant should be
granted bail or remanded in custody prior to the next hearing (see Chapter 7).
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First Hearings Before the Magistrates’ Court
For such offences, the defendant's case will therefore always have to be adjourned, so the
magistrates will need to determine whether the defendant should be released on bail or
remanded in custody prior to the next hearing which will take place in the Crown Court.
(a) obtaining funding from the LAA to pay for the work they will do on their client's behalf
(unless the client is paying for their legal costs privately);
(b) obtaining details of the prosecution case from the CPS (for summary and either-way
offences);
(c) taking a statement from the client;
(d) advising the client on the strength of the prosecution evidence and the plea the client
should enter (for summary and either-way offences); and
(e) in the case of an either-way offence where the client is indicating a not guilty plea,
informing the client that their case may be dealt with either by the magistrates’ court or
by the Crown Court, and advising the client about the advantages and disadvantages of
each court; and
(f) making an application for bail, where necessary (see Chapter 7).
Part (a) has already been considered in this chapter. Parts (b) to (e) will be considered in
more detail in Chapter 6.
Summary
In this chapter you have considered what happens when a defendant first appears in the
magistrates’ court. Notably:
How the classification of offence impacts on this procedure. There are three main
classifications. Namely, offences which are only triable on indictment, those that are
triable either-way and those triable only summarily.
The public funding which may be available for a defendant and the relevant criteria for
eligibility to receive such funding. |n the police station, all suspects, regardless of their
means, are eligible for free, independent legal advice. At court, only those defendants
who do not have sufficient means to pay for legal assistance will be eligible for publicly
funded legal representation when it is in the interests ofjustice to do so. This interests
of justice test focuses on a combination of criteria relating to both the case and the
defendant.
What will happen at the first hearing? This will depend on the classification of the
offence and the defendant's plea. Offences which are only triable on indictment will be
immediately sent to the Crown Court. For summary-only offences, the defendant will be
expected to enter a plea and the case will then either be adjourned for a trial to take
place, or where a guilty plea is entered, the defendant will be sentenced for the offence.
For either-way offences, the court will first conduct a plea before venue hearing at which
the defendant will indicate their plea. As with a summary-only offence, if the defendant
indicates a guilty plea, they will then be sentenced. If, however, the offence is too serious
for the magistrates’ court’s sentencing powers, the defendant will be committed to the
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Crown Court for sentence. If the defendant indicates a not guilty plea, allocation will then
be considered (see Chapter 6).
* The defence solicitor’s role at this hearing. The solicitor will obtain publicly funded
representation for their client if this is available and for either-way and summary-only
offences, they will obtain initial details of the prosecution case before then advising their
client on plea. For either-way offences they will also advise clients who are indicating a
not guilty plea which trial venue will be the best for them if they are given a choice. If the
case is not concluded at the first hearing, they may also need to make a bail application
on their client’s behalf.
Sample questions
Question 1
A man is due to appear in the magistrates’ court charged with an offence of assault
occasioning actual bodily harm. It is alleged that he headbutted the victim causing the
victim a fractured nose following a neighbour dispute. The man intends to plead guilty.
The man is currently the subject of a suspended sentence of imprisonment for an offence
of theft. The man is currently unemployed and in receipt of income-based job seekers
allowance. The man is widowed and the sole carer for his three young children.
Will the man be entitled to receive publicly funded legal representation at court?
A Yes, because it will be in the interests of his children that he is represented as he is
their sole carer and he automatically satisfies the means test.
B_ Yes, because it will be in the interests of justice as it is likely that he will lose his liberty
and he automatically satisfies the means test.
C Yes, because he will lose his liberty if he is convicted, subject to him satisfying the
means test by completing a means form.
D No, because it will not be in the interests of the victim that he is represented as he is
pleading guilty, so the man will not need to cross-examine the victim.
E No, because he will not necessarily lose his liberty if he is convicted, although he does
automatically satisfy the means test.
Answer
Option B is the correct answer. The man is ‘likely to lose his liberty because of the
seriousness of the offence itself and also because he is subject to a suspended sentence of
imprisonment which is likely to be activated when he pleads guilty to the present offence.
The man automatically satisfies the means test as he is in receipt of income-based job
seekers allowance (JSA). Option A is not correct because although ‘It is in someone else’s
interests that | am represented’ is capable of being a reason to grant legal aid under the
interests of justice test, this should not be used to argue that legal representation is in the
general interests of the defendant's family. Option C is not correct, because although it is
(highly) likely the man will lose his liberty, it is not certain that he will and moreover, he will
not need to complete a means form as he automatically satisfies the means test as he is
in receipt of JSA. Option D is not the best answer, because although it is correct to say that
it will not be in the interests of the victim that he is represented as he is pleading guilty, so
the man will not need to cross-examine the victim, the interests of justice test is still satisfied
(see option B). Option E is not the best answer, because although he will not necessarily
lose his liberty if he is convicted, it is still ‘ikel/ that he will.
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First Hearings Before the Magistrates’ Court
Question 2
A woman is to appear in the magistrates’ court charged with an offence of criminal
damage by arson. It is alleged that she set fire to her ex-partner’s garden shed following
a breakdown of their relationship. £2,000 worth of damage was caused. The woman will
plead guilty to this offence.
Which of the following best describes what will happen when she appears in court?
A The woman will plead guilty and the magistrates will then sentence her since the value
of the property damaged is under £2,500.
B The woman will be expected to enter her plea and the magistrates will then have to
decide on allocation as this is an either-way offence.
C The woman will plead guilty and the court will then adjourn the case for the
preparation of a pre-sentence report.
D The woman will not be asked to indicate her plea as arson is an offence that can only
be tried on indictment so her case will be immediately sent to the Crown Court.
E The woman will be expected to indicate her plea and she will either be sentenced by
the magistrates’ court or committed to the Crown Court for sentence.
Answer
Option E is the best answer. Criminal damage of property under £2,500 is treated as a
summary-only offence, unless the damage was caused by fire (Magistrates’ Court Act
1980, s 22(1)), in which case it is an either-way offence. For these reasons, options A and
D are wrong. Option B is wrong because although it is an either-way offence, an allocation
hearing will only take place where a defendant indicates a not guilty plea (see Chapter 6).
Option C is not the best answer, because although the court may adjourn the case for a
pre-sentence report, it will not definitely do this and it may even commit the woman to the
Crown Court if in light of all the other circumstances the magistrates’ court decides that its
sentencing powers are inadequate.
Question 3
A man has been charged with robbery. It is alleged that he stole a jacket valued at £75
from his victim and assaulted him at the same time, in order to steal the jacket. The victim
suffered no physical injuries as a result of the robbery. The man intends to plead not guilty
to this allegation.
Where will the man’s trial take place?
A The trial may take place in either the magistrates’ court or the Crown Court depending
on whether or not the magistrates accept jurisdiction to deal with the case.
B_ The trial is likely to take place in the magistrates’ court as the item stolen is valued at
under £200 and because the man suffered no physical injury.
C_ The trial will take place in the Crown Court as this is an offence that is only triable on
indictment.
D_ The trial may take place in either the magistrates’ court or the Crown Court depending
on whether or not the man consents to summary trial or elects trial on indictment.
E_ The trial must take place in the magistrates’ court as the item stolen is valued at under
£200 and because the victim suffered no physical injury.
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Answer
Option C is the correct answer. Robbery is an offence that can only be tried on indictment
regardless of the value of the goods that were stolen or whether or not the victim suffered
any physical harm. Options B and E are therefore wrong. Option A is wrong because the
magistrates will not be required to decide whether or not they accept jurisdiction to deal with
the case and Option D is wrong because the man will not get a choice on where his trial will
take place.
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Plea Before Venue and
Allocation of Business Between
the Magistrates’ Court and
Crown Court
6.1 Introduction 92
SQE1 syllabus
This chapter will enable you to achieve the SQE1 Assessment Specification in relation to
Functioning Legal Knowledge concerned with the following procedures and processes:
* advising the client on trial venue;
* procedure on defendant entering plea;
* procedure ss 19-20 and s 22A Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980;
¢ sending without allocation s 50A Crime and Disorder Act 1998.
Note that, for SQE1, candidates are not usually required to recall specific case names
or cite statutory or regulatory authorities. These are provided for illustrative purposes
only unless otherwise stated.
Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to apply relevant core legal principles
and rules appropriately and effectively, at the level of a competent newly qualified
solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based and ethical problems and situations in the
following areas:
* The obligations on the CPS to provide to the defendant's solicitor the details of
the case against the defendant.
¢ The matters to be taken into account when the defendant's solicitor advises their
client on the plea to be entered.
¢ The matters to be taken into account by the defendant's solicitor when advising
their client whether, if given the choice, to elect trial in the Crown Court or consent
to summary trial.
¢ The procedure which is followed at the plea before venue and allocation hearing.
¢ How either-way offences can be sent to the Crown Court without an allocation
hearing.
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6.1 Introduction
This chapter continues on from Chapter 5 - what happens at a defendant's first court
appearance in the magistrates’ court. The focus of this chapter though is on either-way
offences. It describes the obligation on the CPS to provide initial details of the prosecution
case (IDPC) and advising the client as to their plea and, if given the choice, trial venue. It will
then examine the procedure that takes place to determine whether an either-way offence will
ultimately be dealt with by the magistrates’ court or by the Crown Court. This is sometimes
referred to collectively as the mode of trial procedure.
(a) where the defendant was in police custody for the offence charged immediately before
the first hearing in the magistrates’ court:
(i) a@ summary of the circumstances of the offence; and
(ii) the defendant's criminal record, if any; or
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(c) Whether it is necessary to obtain any further evidence in support of the defendant's case.
For example, in light of the prosecution evidence which has been disclosed, the client
may recall the identity of other witnesses who could give evidence on their behalf.
(d) Where the client has been charged with an either-way offence and is pleading not guilty,
if given the choice, whether they should elect to be tried in the magistrates’ court, or
before a judge and jury in the Crown Court (see below).
The ultimate decision the client will need to take once the CPS has disclosed details of its
case is what plea to enter. This is the client’s decision, not the solicitor’s. As mentioned in
(b) above, as part of the duty to act in the best interests of the client, the solicitor should give
the client their view of the strength of the evidence against them. It is also appropriate for the
solicitor to advise the client that, when it comes to sentencing, the client will receive a reduced
sentence for entering an early guilty plea.
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Plea Before Venue and Allocation of Business Between the Magistrates’ Court and Crown Court
(Although the Crown Court remains the better venue for determining the admissibility of
disputed items of prosecution evidence, most magistrates’ courts do now attempt to determine
issues of admissibility of evidence at pre-trial hearings rather than at the hearing itself. Such
hearings will take place before a different bench of magistrates from the bench who hear the
trial, so there is no risk that the defendant will be prejudiced at trial by the magistrates being
aware of any item of prosecution evidence which has been found to be inadmissible.)
Prosecution costs
lf a defendant is convicted in either the magistrates’ court or the Crown Court, they are likely
to be ordered to make a contribution towards the costs incurred by the CPS in bringing the
case against them. Such costs are likely to be higher in the Crown Court because of the
greater amount of work that goes into preparing a case for trial in the Crown Court (such as
the need to instruct counsel).
Defence costs
lf granted legal aid in the magistrates’ court, a defendant is not required to contribute towards
his defence costs.
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In the Crown Court, all legal aid applications are subject to a financial eligibility test. If a
defendant is eligible for legal aid (ie has a household disposable income under £37,500), a
means test will consider their income and capital assets, and they may be liable for income
contributions towards costs either during the proceedings or at the end of the case.
lf the defendant funds their case privately, proceedings before the magistrates’ court will be
significantly cheaper than in the Crown Court.
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Plea Before Venue and Allocation of Business Between the Magistrates’ Court and Crown Court
© Example
Joe is charged with theft from a store. The evidence against him consists only of
identification evidence from a member of the store’s security staff. Joe admits his guilt
to his solicitor but enters a not guilty plea, believing that the case may be discharged if
the evidence given by the identification witness at court is unconvincing. Joe’s solicitor
is entitled to cross-examine this witness at trial to cast doubt on the evidence he gives.
For example, the witness may have caught only a fleeting glimpse of Joe from a long
distance away and may admit under cross-examination that he cannot be certain of the
identification he has made. If the evidence given by this witness is unconvincing, Joe’s
solicitor will then be able to make a submission of no case to answer at the conclusion
of the prosecution case and ask the magistrates to dismiss the case. If, however, the
magistrates decline to dismiss the case and Joe then insisted on giving evidence in his
own defence, his solicitor would need to withdraw from the case so as not to be a party to
the court being misled. The solicitor would tell the court that they could not continue to act
in the case for ‘professional reasons’ so as not to breach their duty of confidentiality to Joe.
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sentencing the defendant (the magistrates will also need to adjourn the case if they consider
that a ‘Newton hearing’ is necessary - see Chapter 11). If the case is adjourned for sentence,
the defendant will be released on bail or remanded in custody prior to the sentencing
hearing.
If the magistrates decide that their sentencing powers are insufficient, they will commit the
defendant to Crown Court for sentence pursuant to s 3 of the Powers of Criminal Courts
(Sentencing) Act 2000. This section allows the magistrates to commit the defendant to Crown
Court for sentence if they consider that the offence (or, if there is more than one offence, the
combination of the offences) is so serious that the Crown Court should have the power to deal
with the defendant as if they had been convicted at a Crown Court trial.
If the defendant is committed to the Crown Court for sentence, they will be remanded either in
custody, or on bail. In most cases where a defendant pleads guilty at the plea before venue
hearing and is committed to the Crown Court for sentence, the magistrates will not alter the
position as regards bail or custody. Thus, when a defendant who has-been on bail enters
a guilty plea, the magistrates are likely to grant them bail, even if they anticipate that the
defendant will receive a custodial sentence at the Crown Court. If a defendant who has been
in custody enters a guilty plea at the plea before venue hearing, they are likely to remain
in custody prior to the sentencing hearing at the Crown Court (R v Rafferty [1999] 1 Cr App
R 235).
6.5.1 Allocation
A flowchart summarising the plea before venue, allocation and sending procedure is set
out below.
The procedure, which is set out in the amended ss 19 and 20 of the Magistrates’ Courts Act
1980, is as follows:
(a) The prosecution will inform the court of facts and the defendant's previous convictions (if
any) (s 19(2)(a)).
(b) The magistrates shall consider:
(i) any representations made by the prosecution or defence, as to whether summary trial
or trial on indictment would be more suitable (s 19(2)(b)); and
(ii) whether the sentence which they would have power to impose for the offence would
be adequate (s 19(3)(a)); and
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Plea Before Venue and Allocation of Business Between the Magistrates’ Court and Crown Court
(iii) the Allocation Guideline issued by the Sentencing Council. The Allocation Guideline
states that, in general, either-way offences should be tried summarily unless it is
likely that the court's sentencing powers will be insufficient. In addition, it states
that the court should assess the likely sentence in the light of the facts alleged by
the prosecution case, taking into account all aspects of the case, including those
advanced by the defence. The magistrates will do this by considering the Magistrates’
Court Sentencing Guidelines (MCSG) for the relevant offences.
In considering the adequacy of its sentencing powers when dealing with two or more
offences, the court should consider its potential sentencing powers in the light of the
maximum aggregate sentence the magistrates could impose for all the offences taken
together, if the charges could be joined in the same indictment or arise out of the same or
connected circumstances (s 19(4)).
(d) lf the court decides that the offence appears more suitable for trial on indictment, the
defendant is sent forthwith to the Crown Court (Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980, s 21).
(e) lf the court decides that the case is more suitable for summary trial, it must explain to the
defendant that:
(i) the case appears suitable for summary trial;
(ii) they can consent to be tried summarily or choose to be tried on indictment; and
(iii) if they consent to be tried summarily and are convicted, they may be committed to the
Crown Court for sentence (Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980, ss 20(1) and (2)).
(f) At this stage, the defendant may request an indication of sentence, ie an indication of
whether a custodial or non-custodial sentence would be more likely if they were to be
tried summarily and plead guilty. It should be no more specific than that (Magistrates’
Courts Act 1980, ss 20(3)-(7) and 20A; CrimPR, Part 9). Under s 20A(1) of the Magistrates’
Court Act 1980, where the case is dealt with in accordance with s 20(7), no court (whether
a magistrates’ court or not) may impose a custodial sentence for the offence unless such
a sentence was indicated in the indication of sentence referred to in s 20. Further, s 20A(3)
states that, subject to subsection (1), an indication of sentence shall not be binding on any
court (whether a magistrates’ court or not), and no sentence may be challenged or be the
subject of appeal in any court on the ground that it is not consistent with an indication of
sentence.
The court may, but need not, give an indication of sentence. It would appear that the
court cannot give an indication of sentence unless the defendant requests one. If the court
gives an indication of sentence, the court should ask the defendant whether they want to
reconsider the earlier indication of plea that was given.
(h) lf the defendant indicates that they want to plead guilty, they are treated as if they had
been tried summarily and pleaded guilty. In these circumstances, an indication of a non-
custodial sentence will generally prevent a court from imposing a custodial sentence for
the offence.
(i) lf the defendant does not change their plea to guilty, the indication of sentence shall not
be binding on any court, and in these circumstances no sentence may be challenged or
be the subject of appeal in any court because it is not consistent with an indication of
sentence. Equally, an indication of a custodial sentence does not prevent the court from
imposing a non-custodial sentence.
(j) Where the court does not give an indication of sentence, whether requested to do so
or not, or the defendant does not indicate that they want to reconsider the indication of
plea or does not indicate that they would plead guilty, the court must ask the defendant
whether they consent to summary trial or wish to be tried on indictment (Magistrates’
Courts Act 1980, s 20(8) and (9)).
Criminal Practice
(k) If the defendant consents to summary trial, the court shall proceed to summary trial
(Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980, s 20(9)(a)).
(I) Under s 25 of the Magistrates’ Court Act 1980, the prosecution (not the defence) are
allowed to make an application, before summary trial begins and before any other
application or issue in relation to the summary trial is dealt with, for an either-way offence
allocated for summary trial to be sent to the Crown Court for trial. The court may grant
the application only if it is satisfied that the sentence which a magistrates’ court would
have power to impose for the offence would be inadequate. Where there is a successful
application by the prosecution for the offence to be tried on indictment, the case will be
sent forthwith to the Crown Court for trial.
(m) If the defendant does not consent to summary trial, they must be sent forthwith to the
Crown Court for trial (Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980, s 20(9)(b)).
© Example
Caitlin has been charged with an offence of fraud by false representation and granted
unconditional bail by the police. It is alleged that she tried to claim a refund on items
from a shop that she claimed she had purchased when in fact she had not. The relevant
items are valued at £1,500. Caitlin has a previous conviction from two years ago for
benefit fraud. Caitlin intends to plead not guilty and is represented by her solicitor, Tom.
Before her first appearance in the magistrates’ court, Caitlin is granted legal aid and Tom
obtains IDPC from the CPS. Tom obtains Caitlin’s instructions on the prosecution evidence
in advance of her first court appearance. Based on Caitlin’s instructions, Tom advises her
to plead not guilty and to elect trial in the Crown Court, if she is given the choice.
When Caitlin appears in court, the legal adviser first checks with Tom whether he has
received IDPC from the prosecution and Tom confirms he has and that he has also taken
his client’s instructions on this and the case is ready to proceed to plea before venue. The
legal adviser then reads out the charge and asks Caitlin to indicate her plea, explaining
that if she indicates a guilty plea, she will then be treated as having pleaded guilty and
the magistrates may then either sentence her or commit her to the Crown Court to be
sentenced if they consider their own sentencing powers to be inadequate.
Caitlin indicates a not guilty plea. The prosecutor then informs the court about the facts of
the case and also indicates which trial venue she believes to be most suitable. Tom is then
invited to make representations as to which court he believes to be most suitable. In light
of these submissions the magistrates will then decide whether or not to accept jurisdiction
based on whether their sentencing powers would be sufficient to sentence Caitlin if she
were convicted. In deciding this, the court will have regard to the Allocation Guideline
issued by the Sentencing Council and the MCSGs for Fraud by False Representation. (Note
the MCSGs recommend a starting point sentence for this type of fraud as a medium level
community sentence with a sentence range from a fine up to 26 weeks in custody.)
The magistrates therefore decide the case is suitable to be tried in the magistrates’ court.
Caitlin is told this and also told that she can therefore consent to summary trial or elect
trial on indictment in the Crown Court. She is also warned that if she consents to be tried
summarily and is convicted, she may be committed to the Crown Court for sentence.
Caitlin tells the court that she wants to be tried in the Crown Court. The case is then sent
to the Crown Court and Caitlin is granted bail (which is not opposed by the prosecution)
to attend her plea and trial preparation hearing in the Crown Court on a given date.
Note: where the court is dealing with two or more defendants charged with the same
offence, if one of the defendants elects trial in the Crown Court, all of the defendants
will be sent to the Crown Court for their joint trial regardless of the other defendant(s)’s
decision on venue (CrimPR, r 9.2(6)(a)).
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Plea Before Venue and Allocation of Business Between the Magistrates’ Court and Crown Court
Figure 6.1 (Flowchart - Plea before venue, allocation and sending procedure)
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Criminal Practice
a not guilty plea to the Crown Court for trial. In this situation, the magistrates will then have a
choice as to what to do with the offence to which the defendant has pleaded guilty. They may
either sentence the defendant themselves or commit the defendant to the Crown Court for
sentence.
6.6 Sending without allocation - s 50A Crime and Disorder Act 1998
In certain circumstances, either-way offences will be sent straight to the Crown Court in
accordance with s 50A of the CDA 1998. These circumstances are as follows:
(a) Where notice, in serious or complex fraud cases, has been given by the DPP under s 51B
of the 1998 Act. Notice is given to the court that the evidence is sufficient to put a person
on trial for the offence, and the evidence reveals a case of fraud of such seriousness or
complexity that the management of the case should without delaybe taken over by the
Crown Court.
Where a notice, in certain cases involving children, has been served under s 51C of
the CDA 1998. Notice is given to the court that the evidence is sufficient to put a person
on trial for the offence, a child will be called as a witness and that for the purpose of
avoiding any prejudice to the welfare of the child, the case should be taken over and
proceed without delay by the Crown Court. The offences to which this procedure applies
include assault or threat of injury to a person, child cruelty, certain sexual offences,
kidnapping, false imprisonment and child abduction.
Where there is an either-way offence related to an offence triable only on indictment,
Or one covered by a notice under s 51B or s 51C of the CDA 1998, in respect of which
the same defendant is being sent to the Crown Court. Where a defendant is sent to the
Crown Court for trial for an offence triable only on indictment, or for an offence in respect
of which notice has been given under ss 51B or 51C of the CDA 1998, the court must at
the same time send the defendant for trial for any either-way offence which appears
to the court to be related (s 50A(3)(a)). However, where the defendant appears on the
related either-way charge on a subsequent occasion, the court may send them for trial.
Where there is an either-way offence related to an offence triable only on indictment,
or one covered by a notice under s 51B or s 51C of the CDA 1998, in respect of which
another defendant is being sent to the Crown Court (s 50A(3)(a)).
Summary
In this chapter you have considered what will happen where a defendant, who is charged
with an either-way offence, makes their first appearance in the magistrates’ court. Notably:
Prosecution obligation to provide IDPC. This will be sent to the defendant's solicitor
digitally and based on this information the solicitor will take their client’s instructions and
then advise them on plea and venue.
Aavising a defendant on trial venue. Where a client has decided to plead not guilty, the
solicitor will explain the advantages of each venue to their client and which of these they
believe to the best venue for them. Ultimately, the client will need to decide where they
want to be tried (if given the choice).
Procedure on defendant indicating plea. This will depend on the plea indicated by the
defendant and whether the magistrates’ court believes it has sufficient powers of sentence
to deal with the defendant if they indicate a guilty plea or are convicted following a trial.
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Plea Before Venue and Allocation of Business Between the Magistrates’ Court and Crown Court
¢ Procedure ss 19-20 and s 22A Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980. Where the defendant
indicates a not guilty plea, this part of the hearing focuses on the allocation decision,
where the magistrates’ court first decides if they have sufficient sentencing powers to
deal with the case. If the court believes that its powers are inadequate, they will send the
defendant to the Crown Court. If they believe they have sufficient powers, the defendant
will then be given an unfettered choice as to trial venue (unless there is a co-accused who
elects trial on indictment).
¢ Sending without allocation - s 50A Crime and Disorder Act 1998. This is possible in a
limited number of circumstances, including serious/complex fraud cases; some cases
involving children and an either-way offence linked to an offence triable only on
indictment.
Sample questions
Question 1
A defendant has been jointly charged with an offence of affray. At his first court
appearance in the magistrates’ court his solicitor advises him on plea and trial venue
before his case is called on. The defendant intends to indicate a not guilty plea and
decides to consent to summary trial if he is given the choice.
Which of the following best describes whether the defendant's trial will take place in
the magistrates’ court?
A If both defendants consent to summary trial, the trial must take place in the
magistrates’ court.
B_ If the defendant consents to summary trial, the trial is likely to take place in the
magistrates’ court regardless of the other defendant's decision.
C_ If the magistrates decide the offence to be more suitable for summary trial and both
defendants consent to summary, the trial will take place in the magistrates’ court.
D_ If the defendant consents to summary trial, the trial is likely to take place in the
magistrates’ court even if the other defendant elects trial on indictment.
E If the magistrates decide the offence to be more suitable for trial on indictment and
the other defendant also consents to summary trial, the trial will take place in the
magistrates’ court.
Answer
Option C is the best answer. CrimPR, r 9.2(6)(a) provides that where the court is dealing
with two or more defendants charged with the same offence, if one of the defendants
elects trial in the Crown Court, a// of the defendants will be sent to the Crown Court for their
joint trial regardless of the other defendant(s)’s decision on venue. The trial will therefore
only take place in the magistrates’ court if the magistrates decide the offence to be more
suitable for summary trial and both defendants consent to summary trial. Option A is not
the best answer because.it fails to deal first with the magistrates accepting jurisdiction.
Options B and D are wrong because both defendants have to consent to summary trial.
Option E is wrong because if the magistrates decide the offence to be more suitable for
trial on indictment, the case must be sent to the Crown Court for trial and the defendants
will not get a choice.
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Criminal Practice
Question 2
A man has been charged with an offence of rape and sexual assault in relation to the
same complainant. Both are alleged to have occurred within a few days of each other. The
man intends to plead not guilty to both charges and wants to know which court or courts
will deal with these cases.
Which of the following best describes the advice the man should be given?
A Both cases are likely to be tried in the Crown Court as rape is triable only on indictment.
B The rape charge will be dealt with in the Crown Court and the sexual assault charge
may be dealt with in the Crown Court if the magistrates decide their powers of
punishment are inadequate to deal with it.
C_ The rape charge will be dealt with in the Crown Court and the sexual assault charge
will only be dealt with in the Crown Court if the man elects trial-on-indictment.
D Both cases will be tried in the Crown Court as both charges relate to indictable
offences.
E Both cases will be tried in the Crown Court as the sexual assault charge is related to
the rape charge. ;
Answer
Option E is the best answer. The either-way offence (sexual assault) relates to an offence
triable only on indictment (rape) because they are alleged to have taken place over
a similar time period and both relate to the same complainant (CDA 1998, s 50A(3)
(a)). Consequently, the sexual assault charge will be sent to the Crown Court without an
allocation hearing by virtue of s 50A CDA 1998. So, option A is wrong because both cases
will be tried in the Crown Court, as opposed to being likely to be tried there. Options B and
C are wrong because there will be no allocation hearing. Option D is not the best answer
because although both offences are indictable offences, the reason they will be both dealt
with in the Crown Court is because the either-way offence is related to the offence that can
only be tried on indictment.
Question 3
A woman appears in the magistrates’ court charged with an offence of assault occasioning
actual bodily harm and an offence of theft. At the plea before venue hearing she indicates
a not guilty plea to the assault matter and a guilty plea in relation to the theft matter.
The magistrates accept jurisdiction to deal with the assault, but the woman elects trial on
indictment.
Which court will sentence the woman for the offence of theft?
A_ The magistrates’ court will sentence the woman for the offence of theft as they have
already accepted jurisdiction to deal with the assault matter.
B_ The magistrates’ court will have a choice to either sentence the woman for the offence
of theft or to commit her to the Crown Court to be sentenced there.
C The woman will be able to choose which court she is sentenced by.
D The Crown Court will sentence the woman after her trial for the assault matter has
been concluded.
E The Crown Court will sentence the woman before her trial for the assault matter
takes place.
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Plea Before Venue and Allocation of Business Between the Magistrates’ Court and Crown Court
Answer
Option B is the best answer. In this situation, the magistrates have a choice as to what to do
with the offence to which the defendant has pleaded guilty. They may either sentence the
defendant themselves or commit the defendant to the Crown Court for sentence. This will often
depend on whether the two offences are linked or not. If they are not, the magistrates’ court
may be more likely to sentence the offender, whereas if they are linked, the magistrates may
be more likely to send them both up to the Crown Court to be dealt with. Option A is therefore
wrong as accepting jurisdiction to deal with the assault matter will not necessarily have any
bearing on their decision to sentence for the theft. Option C is wrong, because a defendant
will never be able to choose which court sentences her for an either-way offence. This decision
will always be for the magistrates’ court to take. Options D and E are wrong because although
the theft offence could be committed to the Crown Court for sentence, this will not necessarily
be the case.
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Bail
se Introduction 108
7.2. Remands and custody time limits 108
7.3. The right to bail 110
7.4 Conditional bail 115,
SQE1 syllabus
This chapter will enable you to achieve the SQE1 Assessment Specification in relation
to Functioning Legal Knowledge concerned with the following procedures and
processes:
¢ the right to bail and exceptions;
* conditional bail;
* procedure for applying for bail;
¢ further applications for bail;
* appeals against decisions on bail;
* absconding and breaches of bail.
Note that, for SQE1, candidates are not usually required to recall specific case names
or cite statutory or regulatory authorities. These are provided for illustrative purposes
only unless otherwise stated.
Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to apply relevant core legal principles
and rules appropriately and effectively, at the level of a competent newly qualified
solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based and ethical problems and situations in the
following areas:
* Remand periods and custody time limits which apply in the magistrates’ court.
¢ The presumption in favour of bail which applies to most types of defendant and
the exceptions to the right to bail.
¢ The difference between the grounds on which bail may be refused by the court
and the factors to be taken into account in deciding whether those grounds are
satisfied and the conditions which may be attached to a grant of bail.
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Criminal Practice
¢ Making an application for bail and when further applications for bail may be
made to the magistrates’ court if the initial application is unsuccessful.
¢ Appealing to the Crown Court against a bail decision by the magistrates’ court.
* The consequences for a defendant who fails to answer their bail, or who
breaches any conditions attached to their bail.
7.1 Introduction
Many criminal cases are unlikely to be completed on the first occasion on which the
defendant appears before the magistrates’ court. This will only usually happen in the case of
a straightforward summary or either-way offence where the defendant pleads guilty and the
magistrates sentence them immediately (see 6.4 above). In any other type of case there will
need to be one or more adjournments before-the case is concluded.
© Example
Aiden is charged with theft. He is refused bail by the police and appears before
a Saturday morning remand court in custody on 3 April. Aiden’s solicitor makes an
application for bail which is refused. Aiden is remanded in custody by the magistrates
for six days and so appears before the court again on Friday, 9 April. At the hearing
on 9 April the prosecution provides initial details of the prosecution case to the defence
108
Bail
and Aiden indicates a not guilty plea at the plea before venue hearing. The magistrates
accept jurisdiction and Aiden consents to summary trial. Aiden’s solicitor makes another
bail application and the magistrates refuse bail again and remand Aiden in custody for
28 days until 7 May when a case management hearing will take place. The magistrates
are able to do this because Aiden is before the court, he has previously been remanded
in custody and the next stage of proceedings (the case management hearing) can take
place at the next hearing. (In practice, the hearing on 9 April will usually be conducted
by live video link with the prison or remand centre where Aiden is being held, rather than
Aiden being brought to court.)
pe
i he Remands on bail
A defendant who is on bail may be remanded prior to conviction for any period of time,
subject to the defendant's consent.
109
Criminal Practice
(a) murder
(b) attempted murder
(c) manslaughter
(d) rape
(e) attempted rape
(f) a number of other serious sexual offences.
Where a defendant is charged with murder and makes an application for bail, s 115 of
the Coroners and Justice Act 2009 (which has amended the power in s 25 of the Criminal
Justice and Public Order Act 1994) states that only a Crown Court judge may grant bail.
The magistrates’ court must transfer the defendant to the Crown Court (in custody). A Crown
Court judge must then, within 48 hours, make a decision as to whether to grant bail. Section
114(2) of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009 provides that bail may not be granted, in
these circumstances, unless the court is of the opinion that there is no significant risk of the
defendant committing, whilst on bail, an offence likely to cause physical or mental injury to
another.
110
Bail
However, there is a restriction on the exceptions applying in relation to bail in proceedings where:
(a) the defendant has attained the age of 18;
(b) the defendant has not been convicted of an offence in those proceedings; and
(c) it appears to the court that there is no real prospect that the defendant will be sentenced
to a custodial sentence in the proceedings.
In such circumstances, a magistrates’ court will not have power to remand a defendant in
custody before his case is dealt with.
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Criminal Practice
The nature and seriousness of the offence and the probable method of dealing with the
defendant for it (and the strength of the evidence against the defendant)
These two factors are often linked. They are most likely to be relevant to a prosecution
argument that there are substantial grounds for believing that the defendant would fail to
surrender to custody if they were to be granted bail. If the defendant has been charged with
a serious offence that is likely to result in a prison sentence if they are convicted and the
evidence against the defendant is strong, the CPS may argue that the defendant will fail to
surrender to custody (usually referred to as absconding) to avoid such a fate.
o Example
Ben pleads not guilty to a charge of wounding with intent. The prosecution allege that
Ben attacked his victim with a hammer in an unprovoked assault, causing the victim
to suffer head injuries from which he will never fully recover. They also claim there is
compelling CCTV evidence showing that Ben attacked the victim_in this way. This is
a serious offence and, if convicted, Ben will receive a lengthy prison sentence. The
prosecution will argue that Ben should be denied bail as there are substantial grounds
for believing that, if granted bail, Ben will fail to surrender to custody. The factors they
will rely on to support this is that if Ben is convicted, the court will deal with the matter by
way of a lengthy custodial sentence, and Ben will abscond to avoid being sent to prison.
Moreover, the CCTV evidence against Ben is very strong and so he will almost certainly
be convicted.
o Examples
Claire pleads not guilty to a charge of shoplifting. Claire has 10 previous convictions
for the same type of offence within the last three years. Claire’s previous offences were
committed to obtain money to support her heroin addiction (which is ongoing). The CPS
will argue that Claire should be denied bail as there are substantial grounds for believing
that, if granted bail, Claire will commit further offences. The factor it will rely on to support
this is that Claire’s character and antecedents indicate that she commits this type of
offence on a regular basis to support her ongoing drug addiction.
Damien pleads not guilty to a charge of theft. Damien’s list of previous convictions
reveals that he has twice been convicted of other property-related offences which were
committed whilst he was on bail for other matters. The CPS will argue that Damien
should be denied bail as there are substantial grounds for believing that, if released on
bail, Damien will commit further offences. The factor it will rely on to support this is that
Damien’s previous convictions show a history of offending whilst on bail.
Ethan pleads not guilty to a charge of assault occasioning actual bodily harm. Six
months previously, Ethan was convicted of unlawful wounding and received a sentence
of 12 months’ imprisonment, suspended for two years. The evidence against Ethan in
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Bail
respect of the current charge is strong, consisting of good quality identification evidence
and a confession Ethan is alleged to have made when first arrested. The CPS will argue
that Ethan should be denied bail as there are substantial grounds for believing that, if
released on bail, Ethan would fail to surrender to custody. The factor it will rely on to
support this is that Ethan’s antecedents show he is subjectto a suspended sentence of
imprisonment which is likely to be activated if Ethan is convicted of the current offence.
Ethan is also likely to be convicted because of the strength of the evidence against him.
Associations
The reference to the defendant's associations may be relevant to a prosecution argument that,
if released on bail, there are substantial grounds for believing that the defendant will commit
further offences.
For example, if a defendant is known to associate with other criminals, or is alleged to be a
member of a criminal gang, the CPS may use this to suggest there are ‘substantial grounds’ to
believe that they may commit further offences if released on bail.
The CPS may also suggest that a defendant's associations are relevant if a witness is known
to the defendant and there is a fear that the defendant may attempt to interfere with the
witness. This often arises in the case of domestic assaults when the victim is a relative of the
defendant and there is a fear that the defendant may put pressure on the victim to ‘change
their story’.
o Examples
Fariq pleads not guilty to a charge of armed robbery of a bank. The CPS alleges that
Fariq is a member of a criminal gang responsible for several similar armed robberies.
None of the other members of the gang have as yet been identified or arrested by the
police, and none of the proceeds from the bank robberies have been recovered. The CPS
will argue that Fariq should be denied bail as there are substantial grounds for believing
that, if released on bail, Fariq would commit further offences. The factor it will rely on is
that Fariq’s associations include membership of a gang responsible for a series of armed
robberies, the other members of which are still at large.
Gavin pleads not guilty to a charge of sexual assault. The CPS alleges that Gavin sexually
assaulted his 11-year-old daughter (who lives at the same address as Gavin). In her
statement to the police, Gavin's daughter has said that Gavin has threatened to ‘shut her
up’ unless she changes her story. The CPS will argue that Gavin should be denied bail on
the basis that there are substantial grounds for believing that, if granted bail, Gavin will
attempt to interfere with a witness. The factor it will rely on to support this is that Gavin
is closely associated with his alleged victim. Gavin and his victim share the same home,
and the victim has already indicated that he has attempted to persuade her to change
her story.
Community ties
The strength or otherwise of a defendant’s community ties will be relevant to an argument that
there are substantial grounds for believing that the defendant will fail to surrender to custody
if released on bail. If, for example, the defendant is unemployed, has no relatives in the local
area, has lived in the area only for a short time or is of no fixed abode, the CPS may argue
that there is nothing to keep them in the area and nothing to prevent them from absconding.
© Example
Harry pleads not guilty to a charge of possession of Class A drugs. Harry is unemployed
and lives alone in bedsit accommodation. Harry has no family or known friends in the
local area, and most of his relatives are known to live some 200 miles away. Harry moved
113
Criminal Practice
to the area only some three months ago. The CPS will argue that Harry should be denied
bail as there are substantial grounds for believing that, if granted bail, Harry will fail to
surrender to custody. The factor it will rely on to support this is Harry’s lack of community
ties, because Harry appears to have nothing to tie him to the local area.
© Example
Ivan pleads not guilty to a charge of affray. lvan has three previous convictions for failing
to answer bail in relation to other public order offences with which he was charged.
The CPS will argue that lvan should be denied bail as there are substantial grounds for
believing that, if granted bail, Ivan will fail to surrender to custody. The factor it will rely
upon to support this is that lvan’s record in relation to previous grants of bail shows that
he has a history of failing to answer his bail.
114
Bail
(continued)
115
Criminal Practice
(continued)
Reporting to a police | Absconding and The court orders the defendant to report to their
station committing offences | local police station on a regular basis (on specified
on bail day(s) and time) so the police may ensure that the
defendant remains in the local area.
116
Bail
ne
Presumption in favour of bail for all defendants pre-conviction
(Bail Act 1976, s 4)
ul
Are there substantial grounds for believing that, if released on
bail, defendant will:
117
Criminal Practice
118
Bail
SS ER
119
Criminal Practice
© Example
Johan makes his first appearance before the magistrates on 14 May. His advocate makes
a full application for bail, but this is refused, and Johan is remanded in custody for seven
days. When Johan appears before the court again on 21 May, his advocate may make
a further full application for bail using any argument as to fact or law, whether or not this
argument was used in the bail application made on 14 May. If the magistrates refuse bail
on 21 May, Johan’s advocate can make a further application for bail only if she can raise
a new argument that she has not used previously. For example, a potential surety might
have become available, or Johan might have been offered employment.
Note: such further applications will only be possible in the magistrates’ court if the defendant's
case is still in that court. If the defendant has been sent or transferred to the Crown Court, any
further bail applications will have to be made in that court.
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Bail
7.8.1.2 What will happen when the defendant appears before the court?
A defendant who has been charged by the police and bailed to appear before the
magistrates’ court will be in breach of police bail if they fail to attend court at the appointed
date and time. When that defendant is arrested and brought before the court, whether they
are charged with failing to surrender to custody under ss 6(1) or (2) of the Bail Act 1976 (see
below) is a matter for the CPS.
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Criminal Practice
lf, however, the defendant has already made an appearance before the court and been
granted bail by the court, the decision to commence proceedings against them for failing to
surrender will be made by the court rather than the CPS because the defendant will be in
breach of court bail.
(a) If the defendant fails without reasonable cause to surrender to custody, they will be guilty
of the offence of absconding, contrary to s 6(1).
© In R v Scott [2007] All ER (D) 191 (Oct) the Court of Appeal held that a judge had correctly
put a charge of failing to surrender to a defendant who arrived at court half an hour late
for a hearing.
(b) If the defendant did have a reasonable cause for failing to surrender, they will still be
guilty of an offence under s 6(2) unless they surrendered to custody as soon as it was
reasonably practicable for them to do so.
© Example
Kevin is unable to answer his bail because he is injured in a road traffic accident and has
to go to hospital. Kevin will still be guilty of an offence under s 6(2) unless he answers his
bail as soon as reasonably practicable after he has been discharged from hospital.
122
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Bail
A defendant who is arrested will be detained in police custody and must then be brought
before the magistrates’ court within 24 hours. The magistrates’ court will then decide whether
to remand the defendant in custody, or whether to grant bail with or without conditions
pending the next substantive hearing in the case.
The magistrates will adopt a two-stage approach:
(a) The court will first determine if there has been a breach of the bail conditions previously
imposed. In practice the defendant will often admit the breach because there will usually
be compelling evidence available to prove this. However, if the defendant does not
admit to breaching their bail conditions, the magistrates are likely to hear oral evidence
from both the police officer who arrested the defendant and the defendant to determine
whether a breach has occurred.
If the magistrates determine that there has been a breach of bail conditions, they will
decide whether the defendant should be remanded in custody or on bail pending the
next hearing (unless the case can be disposed of at that hearing). So, a defendant who
has breached their bail conditions without good reason is likely to be remanded in
custody, although the magistrates may be persuaded to make a further grant of bail but
with more stringent conditions attached to it.
o Example
The police charge Liam with affray following an incident at a city centre pub and release
him on conditional bail pending his first appearance before the magistrates’ court one
week later. The condition is that Liam does not enter a defined area in the city centre.
The following day Liam attends the birthday party of a friend at another pub. This pub
is within the area Liam is prohibited from entering, although Liam genuinely thought that
it was outside this area. Liam is arrested for breaching his bail condition and is brought
before the magistrates’ court within 24 hours. Liam accepts that he breached his bail
condition but explains that he made an honest mistake. Liam makes an application for
bail and this is opposed by the CPS. The magistrates nevertheless decide to grant bail to
Liam, although this is made subject to more onerous conditions. In addition to keeping out
of the city centre, the magistrates impose an additional condition that Liam is not to enter
any public house.
Summary
In this chapter you have considered what the law says about bail along with some important
practice and procedural requirements, notably:
The right to bail and exceptions. The right to bail (or presumption in favour of bail) is
contained in s 4 of the Bail Act 1976 and the exceptions are set out in Part 1 of Sch 1 to
the Bail Act 1976.
Conditional bail. Bail may be granted unconditionally, or with a range of conditions where
the court believes it necessary under s 3(6) of the Bail Act 1976 to prevent the defendant
from doing a number of things, including failing to surrender, committing offences on bail
or interfering with witnesses.
Procedure for applying for bail at a contested bail hearing. The prosecution will start
by outlining their objections to bail, identifying the relevant ground(s) they are relying
on and applying the relevant factors to support that ground(s). The defence will then try
to counter these objections and will usually suggest a package of realistic conditions in
support of their application for bail.
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Criminal Practice
Further applications for bail. A defendant is entitled to make two full applications for bail
before the magistrates’ court using any argument as to fact or law. If bail is refused, then
the defendant may only make a further bail application if they can raise new legal or
factual arguments as to why bail should be granted.
Appeals against decisions on bail. Both the defence and prosecution can appeal against
bail decisions made in the magistrates’ court. Such appeals are before a Crown Court
judge in chambers.
Absconding and breaches of bail. There are two offences of absconding, namely failing
without reasonable cause to surrender to custody (Bail Act 1976, s 6(1)) and having a
reasonable cause for failing to surrender but then failing to surrender as soon as it was
reasonably practicable to do so (Bail Act 1976, s 6(2)). Breaching a bail condition is not
an offence, but it does provide the police with a power of arrest under s 7 of the Bail Act
1976 and to bring the defendant before the magistrates’ court. The court will then have
to decide whether or not to grant bail or remand the defendant in custody if the case is
further adjourned and not dealt with on that day. -
Sample questions
Question 1
A solicitor is representing a defendant at his first appearance in court. The defendant has
been charged with inflicting grievous bodily harm. It is alleged he punched the victim,
fracturing his jaw. The defendant claims he was acting in self-defence. The defendant
does not know the victim. The defendant has no previous convictions for violence. His last
conviction was 18 months ago when he received a sentence of imprisonment of six months,
suspended for two years, for burglary. The defendant has three previous convictions
for failing to surrender to custody for a range of dishonesty offences. The defendant is
presently of no fixed abode.
Which of the following best explains the ground on which the prosecution is likely to
object to bail being granted to the defendant?
A_ Because there are substantial grounds to believe that the defendant will fail to
surrender to custody.
B Because the defendant may commit an offence whilst on bail given his antecedent
history.
C Because of the nature and seriousness of the offence with which the defendant has
been charged.
D Because there are substantial grounds to believe the defendant will interfere with a key
prosecution witness.
E Because of the defendant's character, antecedents, associations and community ties.
Answer
Option A is the best answer. This is the only ground on these facts for refusal of bail given
that the defendant is presently subject to a suspended sentence of imprisonment which is
likely to be activated if he is convicted. Moreover, he appears to have poor community ties
as we are told he is of no fixed abode and he also has a number of previous convictions
for absconding. All of the other options are either not grounds for refusing bail or do not
apply to these facts. To refuse bail on the ground of committing further offences, there must
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Bail
be ‘substantial grounds to believe’ that he will commit offences whilst on bail. The fact
that he ‘may’ is not sufficient and in any event, there is no evidence that he has committed
offences whilst on bail in the past, so option B is not the best answer. Option C is wrong
because it is not a ground for refusal of bail at all; it is a factor for the court to take into
account when considering the grounds, as is option E. Option Dis not the best answer
because there are no substantial grounds to believe that the client will interfere with a
prosecution witness. We are told that the defendant does not know the victim, nor is there
any suggestion that he has made threats to interfere with this witness or has ever done so
in the past (see Bail Act 1976, Sch 1).
Question 2
A solicitor attends the cells in the magistrates’ court to speak to his client who has been
remanded in custody on his first appearance in court. The defendant's case has been sent
to the Crown Court for a plea and trial preparation hearing (PTPH), and the defendant
wants to know whether he can make a further bail application in the magistrates’ court.
Can the defendant make a further bail application in the magistrates’ court?
A Yes, because he is entitled to make a further bail application relying on the same facts
and arguments as before.
B_ Yes, because he is entitled to make a further bail application but only if he can refer to
‘new argument’.
C_ Yes, because he is entitled to make two full bail applications before the
magistrates’ court.
D_ No, because his case has now been sent to the Crown Court and so his best option is
to appeal against the bail decision to the Crown Court.
E No, because his case has now been transferred to the Crown Court and so he can now
only apply for bail at the PTPH.
Answer
Option D is the best answer. At the first hearing after the hearing at which the magistrates
refused to grant bail, the defendant's solicitor is allowed to make a full application for bail
using any argument as to fact or law, even if they used the same arguments in the first
unsuccessful bail application. However, options A and C would not be available because
we are told that the defendant's case has now been sent to the Crown Court and so the
magistrates’ court will no longer have jurisdiction to hear a further bail application. Option
B is wrong because the requirement for new argument only applies after two full bail
applications have been made (Bail Act 1976, Sch 1, Pt IIA). Although option E is technically
correct, it will be much quicker to make a bail appeal before a judge in chambers in the
Crown Court rather than waiting some time for the PTPH in the Crown Court.
Question 3
A man has been charged with an offence of burglary and bailed to attend the magistrates’
court in two weeks’ time. The police attach a bail condition which requires the man to
report to his local police station on a daily basis between the hours of 5 pm and 7 pm. The
man obtains employment which requires him to work away from home and he forgets to
report to his local police station between the allotted times on two consecutive days.
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Criminal Practice
What will happen to the man as a result of breaching his bail condition?
A The man is likely to be arrested for breaching his bail condition, but he has a
reasonable excuse for breaching it if he can provide evidence of his present
employment status.
B The man is likely to be arrested for breaching his bail condition and bailed to attend
the magistrates’ court to answer for this breach.
C_ The man is likely to be arrested for breaching his bail condition and will be detained in
police custody and must then be brought before the magistrates’ court within 24 hours
although he does not commit an offence by breaching this condition.
D The man will be given a formal warning for breaching his bail condition and any further
breach will result in his arrest and production before the magistrates’ court to answer
the breach.
E The man will be arrested for breaching his bail condition and will be detained in police
custody and must then be brought before the magistrates’ court within 24 hours. He
also commits an offence by breaching this condition.
Answer
Option C is the best answer. Although breaching a bail condition (whether imposed by
the police or the court) does not amount to a criminal offence, it will almost certainly result
in his arrest and he will then be detained in police custody and must be brought before
the magistrates’ court within 24 hours. The magistrates’ court will then decide whether to
remand the man in custody, or whether to grant bail with or without conditions pending his
next substantive hearing.
Option A is wrong because this would not amount to a reasonable excuse. Option B
is wrong because the man would be unlikely to be bailed as a result of breaching this
condition. The police will usually let the magistrates’ court decide what to do in such
circumstances. Option D is wrong because breach of bail is not something that would
trigger the issuing of a formal warning. Option E is wrong because breaching this type of a
bail condition does not amount to a criminal offence.
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Case Management and
Pre-trial Hearings
8.1 Introduction ; 128
8.2 Magistrates’ court case management directions 128
8.3 Plea and trial preparation hearing 130
8.4 Disclosure - prosecution, defence and unused material 134
8.5 Magistrates’ court trial preparation form 15?
8.6 Disclosure flowchart (magistrates’ court and Crown Court) 146
SQE1 syllabus
This chapter will enable you to achieve the SQE1 Assessment Specification in relation
to Functioning Legal Knowledge concerned with the following procedures and
processes:
* magistrates’ court case management directions;
¢ plea and trial preparation hearing (PTPH);
¢ disclosure - prosecution, defence and unused material.
Note that, for SQE1, candidates are not usually required to recall specific case names
or cite statutory or regulatory authorities. These are provided for illustrative purposes
only unless otherwise stated.
Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to understand and apply the following
law, practice and procedure on:
¢ What happens at a case management hearing in the magistrates’ court.
* The procedure by which an offence triable only on indictment or an either-way
offence gets to trial in the Crown Court.
¢ What happens ata preliminary hearing and the plea and trial preparation
hearing (PTPH) in the Crown Court.
¢ The disclosure obligations imposed on the CPS in respect of any unused material
in its possession.
¢ The circumstances in which a defence statement may or must be given.
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Criminal Practice
8.1 Introduction
Prior to the Criminal Procedure Rules (CrimPR) coming into effect, there were no standard,
uniform case management directions that the magistrates’ court or Crown Court would give
in order to ensure that the CPS and the defendant's solicitor were properly prepared for trial.
The CrimPR have introduced this system, with a formal set of case management directions
with which the parties must comply. These directions include an obligation on the prosecution
to disclose their unused material to the defence who in turn may be required to provide the
prosecution with a defence statement.
Wa if necessary. 1se fo
g V vt expe rm used to record
thee directions coiled the agistrates’ Cou =>parai nm. The blank form used
to record the directions is sed inp at 8. 5 balan. You will see that Parts 1 to 4 of the
form require the prosecution and the defence to provide very detailed information about
how they will prepare for and conduct the trial. This is to ensure the trial is effective on the
date that has been fixed for trial. Part 5 of the form contains all the decisions and directions
made by the court.
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Case Management and Pre-trial Hearings
to the court requesting that it issue a witness summons. The court will issue a witness summons
requiring the witness to attend the trial.
Disclosure obligations
lf the defendant's solicitor wishes to call an expert to give evidence at trial, they must serve
a copy of the expert's report on the CPS in advance of trial. An expert witness is unlikely
to require a witness summons, although the defendant's solicitor must check the expert's
availability to attend trial so that the trial can be fixed on a date when the expert is available
to attend court.
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Criminal Practice
This statement (consisting of [1] page signed by me) is true to the best of my knowledge
and belief and | make it knowing that if it is tendered in evidence | shall be liable to
prosecution if | have wilfully stated in it anything which | know to be false or do not
believe to be true.
(c) a copy has been served before the hearing on the other parties in the case; and
(d) none of the other parties has objected within seven days.
The statement may only contain matters which would have been admissible if the witness had
given oral evidence at court.
‘Section 9 witness statements should be used only for evidence which is not in dispute (although
the CPS routinely serves the statements of all prosecution witnesses in the form of as 9
statement). If the party receiving a statement which is served in this form wishes to challenge the
admissibility of anything said in the statement, or to cross-examine the maker of the statement,
it should object in writing within seven days. Although the CPS is the more likely party to rely on
the s 9 procedure, note that either party in criminal proceedings is entitled to use it.
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Case Management and Pre-trial Hearings
© Example
Juan is charged with robbery and assault occasioning actual bodily harm. The CPS
alleges that Juan attacked his victim to steal the victim’s mobile phone and, in the
process, struck the victim in the face, causing the victim to sustain a fractured nose.
Robbery is an offence triable only on indictment and so must be sent to the Crown Court
for trial. Assault occasioning actual bodily harm is an either-way offence. It fulfils the
‘requisite conditions’ because it is related to the offence triable only on indictment.
If Juan had been charged with common assault (a summary-only offence) instead of
assault occasioning actual bodily harm, the ‘requisite conditions’ would still be satisfied.
The common assault charge is related to the offence triable only on indictment, and
common assault is punishable by imprisonment.
o Example
Brett is charged with theft of goods from a motor vehicle and taking a conveyance without
consent. The CPS alleges that Brett took a vehicle without the owner’s consent and stole a
wallet from the vehicle whilst it was in his possession. Brett is sent to the Crown Court for
trial on the theft charge after he enters a not guilty plea at the plea before venue hearing
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Criminal Practice
and elects Crown Court trial. The summary-only offence of taking a conveyance without
consent can also be tried in the Crown Court as it is founded on the same facts as the
either-way offence.
In addition to the above, if the magistrates send a defendant for trial for one or more
either-way offences, they may also send the defendant for trial in relation to any summary-
only offence with which they are also charged if the summary-only offence:
© Example
Natalie is sent for trial to the Crown Court on a charge of assault occasioning actual
bodily harm. She also faces a charge for the summary-only public order offence of using
threatening behaviour. Both charges arise out of the same incident. If Natalie is convicted
of the assault charge at the Crown Court, she can also be sentenced for the public order
offence if she pleads guilty to it. If Natalie is acquitted of the assault charge or pleads not
guilty to the public order offence, however, the Crown Court must remit the public order
offence back to the magistrates’ court for trial.
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Case Management and Pre-trial Hearings
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Criminal Practice
8.4.1
Just as in the magistrates’ court, the CPS is required to serve on the defendant all the
evidence on which it wishes to rely at trial to prove the defendant's guilt.
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Case Management and Pre-trial Hearings
In addition to this evidence, the prosecution will also have a quantity of ‘unused material’,
such as statements from witnesses whom the CPS does not latand ue call to GWve.9evidence at
be disclosed if it ‘might eorreet be coneiterdd capable of undermining the case for the
prosecution ... or of assisting the case for the accused’. Examples of the types of material that
require disclosure include:
(a) records of the first description of a suspect given to the police by a potential eyewitness if
that description differs from that of the defendant;
(b) any information provided by the defendant which indicates an innocent explanation for
the offence;
(c) material casting doubt on the reliability of a witness (eg previous convictions);
(d) material casting doubt on the reliability of a confession; and
(e) any statements from witnesses which appear to support the defendant's account.
o Example
Tony is charged with assaulting Guy. Tony denies the offence and claims that Guy threw
the first punch, and that he was acting only in self-defence. The CPS serves on Tony’s
solicitor several statements from eyewitnesses who state that Tony threw the first punch.
The CPS also has a statement from another witness who says that Guy threw the first
punch. The CPS does not intend to rely on evidence from this witness at trial, but it is
under an obligation to serve a copy of the statement on Tony’s solicitor. The statement
undermines the prosecution case that Tony threw the first punch and assists Tony’s case
that he was acting in self-defence after being attacked.
The case management directions referred to above give time limits as to when the
prosecution must make initial disclosure of any unused material in their possession which
satisfies the test in s 3 of the CPIA 1996. The CPS usually sends to the defendant's solicitor
a schedule of all the non-sensitive unused material in its possession, together with copies
of any items on the schedule which satisfy the test in s 3.
The duty of disclosure on the CPS is ongoing, and so the CPS must apply this test to any
further material it receives after making initial disclosure (CPIA 1996, s 7A). The CPS must
also consider the need to make further disclosure in the light of any information received
from the defence about the nature of the defence case (see below).
If the defendant's solicitor considers that the disclosure made by the CPS is incomplete,
they will request disclosure of any ‘missing’ items when drafting the defence statement
(see below).
Should the CPS refuse to supply to the defendant's solicitor items which the solicitor
has requested, the solicitor may apply to the court to request the specific disclosure of
such items under s 8(2) of the CPIA 1996. Such an application may be made only if the
defendant has provided a defence statement.
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Criminal Practice
(c) material s and methods relied upon by the police (eg covert
(d) material relating to a child witness (such as material generated by a local authority social.
services department).
lf such material satisfies the test for disclosure to the defence i
above), the dic ir
is the decision of the court as to whether disclosure can be avoided on the picurae of public
interest immunity (R v Ward [1993] 1 WLR 619). The CPS must therefore make an application
to the court for a finding that it is not obliged to disclose the relevant material. The relevant
procedural rules which must be followed when a public interest immunity application is made
to the court are set out in Part 15 of the CrimPR and this type of an application will often be
made ex parte (ie without notice to the defence).
It is usual, when drafting a defence statement (see below), to ask the CPS if a schedule
of sensitive materials has been prepared and, if so, whether the CPS has made any
application to the court for an order that it is not obliged to disclose the existence of such
material.
For a case in the magistrates’ court, the defendant's solicitor should consider serving
a defence statement on the CPS only if they think that the CPS will, in the light of the
information disclosed in the statement, be in a position to disclose additional unused
material that may assist the defence case. Such a situation is likely to arise only if the
defence statement contains additional details about the defence of which the CPS was
previously unaware.
In reality, it is extremely rare for a defence statement to be served on the prosecution in the
magistrates’ court. The possible advantage of gaining additional disclosure from the CPS is
heavily outweighed by the disadvantage of giving away too many details of the defence case
to the CPS prior to the trial when there is no obligation to do so.
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Case Management and Pre-trial Hearings
(a) sets out the nature of the defence, including any particular defences on which the
defendant intends to rely (for example, alibi or self-defence);
(b) indicates the matters of fact on which the defendant takes issue with the prosecution and
why they take such issue;
(c) sets out particulars of the matters of fact on which the defendant intends to rely for the
purposes of their defence;
(d) indicates any points of law (including any point as to the admissibility of evidence) that
the defendant wishes to take at trial, and any legal authority on which the defendant
intends to rely for this purpose; and
(e) in the case of an alibi defence, provides the name, address and date of birth of any alibi
witness, or as many of these details as are known to the defendant.
The defence are also under a continuing duty to update the defence statement if the details to
be given under any of the above points should change before trial (if, for example, a witness
comes forward who is able to support an alibi given by the defendant and whose existence
was unknown at the time the initial defence statement was prepared) (CPIA 1996, s 6B(3)).
© Example 1
Amanda is charged with theft. Her case is sent for trial to the Crown Court. She enters
a not guilty plea at the PTPH. Amanda fails to serve a defence statement on the CPS.
At her trial Amanda raises the defence of alibi and claims that the prosecution witness
who identified her as the person who committed the theft is mistaken. As Amanda failed
to serve a defence statement setting out this defence, the trial judge or, with leave, the
prosecution, may comment on this and the jury may draw such inferences as appear
proper (which is likely to be an adverse inference).
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Criminal Practice
o Example 2
Javed is charged with unlawful wounding. His case is sent for trial to the Crown Court.
At the PTPH he enters a not guilty plea. In his defence statement, Javed claims that
he was not present at the time of the alleged incident and raises the defence of alibi.
At his trial, Javed accepts that he was present at the time of the incident and instead
raises the defence of self-defence. As there is a disparity between what was said in his
defence statement and the defence he is now raising at trial, the judge or, with leave,
the prosecution, may comment on this and the jury may draw such inferences as appear
proper (which is likely to be an adverse inference).
o Example
Sergio is jointly charged with Philip with the production of cannabis at premises owned
by Philip. Sergio’s defence is that he knows nothing about the production of cannabis
at the premises and was employed by Philip at the premises solely to clean and
valet cars. The CPS is not aware that this is the basis of Sergio’s defence because he
refused to answer any questions when interviewed at the police station. As part of their
investigations, the police recover from the premises a number of documents, including
receipts for various items of car-cleaning equipment. The CPS does not intend to use
these receipts in evidence and is not under an initial duty to disclose such documents
to Sergio’s solicitor, because the documents neither undermine the prosecution case nor
assist the case for the defence (because there has been no indication as to what the
defence case is).
Sergio’s solicitor subsequently serves a defence statement on the CPS stating that
Sergio knew nothing about the premises being used for the production of cannabis and
confirming that Sergio was employed at the premises solely to valet cars. The CPS is
under a continuing duty of disclosure and so, in the light of the defence statement, it must
now disclose the receipts to Sergio’s solicitor, as the receipts assist Sergio’s defence that
he had an innocent explanation for being at the premises.
8.4.3.1 Can the defence challenge the prosecution failure to provide unused material?
Section 8(2) of the CPIA 1996 enables a defendant who has provided a defence statement
to make application to the court if the CPS has failed to comply with its continuing duty of
disclosure in light of the matters contained in the defence statement. The defendant may ask
the court for an order that the CPS disclose material provided the defendant has reasonable
cause to believe that there is prosecution material which should have been, but has not been,
disclosed. The defendant will only be allowed to make such an application if they have set
out in detail in their defence statement the material which they consider the CPS has in its
possession which it has not subsequently disclosed. The procedure to be followed when such
an application is made is contained in Part 15 of the CrimPR.
A flowchart summarising the disclosure obligations imposed on both the CPS and the
defendant in both the Crown Court and the magistrates’ court is provided at 8.6 below.
138
Case Management and Pre-trial Hearings
Part 1: to be completed by the prosecutor and the defendant (or defendant’s representative)
Offence(s) | |
Ref
*Forms for use with the Rules are at: http//www justice gov uk/courts/procedure-rules/criminal/formspage.
(continued)
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Criminal Practice
4.2 Does the prosecutor intend to serve more evidence? (] Yes [-] No
If yes, give brief details:
4.3 Does the prosecutor intend to serve a diagram, sketch map or photos? [] Yes [] No
If yes, give brief details:
5.2 Does the prosecutor want the court to arrange a discussion of ground rules for questioning? ] Yes []No
If an intermediary is appointed, the court must discuss ground rules with the intermediary and
advocates. A discussion may be helpful in other cases.
5.3 Does the prosecutor want the court to make any other direction? [1 Yes [No
If yes, give details:
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Case Management and Pre-trial Hearings
73 Does the defendant want to plead guilty, but to a different offence? CJ Yes [No
If yes, what offence?
The defendant was present at the scene of the offence alleged L]Yes LJNo LINA
The [alcohol] [drug] testing procedure was carried out correctly Clyes CINo [INIA
If not agreed, explain what is in dispute:
Exhibits and samples were collected and delivered as stated (i.e. continuity) [lYes (JNo CINA
If not agreed, explain what is in dispute:
The defendant was [disqualified from driving] [subject to the alleged court order] at the time of Clyes (No [INA
the offence alleged
The list of the defendant's previous convictions is accurate []Yes [JNo LINA
If not agreed, explain what is in dispute:
8.2 What are the DISPUTED issues of fact or law for trial, in addition to any identified in CrimPR rules 3.2(2)(a), 3.3(a)
paragraph 8.1? Give details. This question is to help the court find out what is in dispute
and give appropriate directions for trial.
Page 3
(continued)
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Criminal Practice
8.3 Will the defendant give a defence statement? Giving a defence statement is voluntary, but if L] Yes [] No
one is given it must include the information collected in paragraphs 8.1 and 8.2 and must i
include particulars of facts relied on by the defence.
8.4 Will the defendant need any tape or DVD player, etc. in the trial courtroom?
The defendant must make sure that any tape / DVD can be played in the courtroom.
8.5 Does the defendant presently expect the case to involve a complex, novel or unusual point of [J Yes [-] No
law and/or fact? This information will help the court officer to list the case effectively.
If so what?
9 Admissions
Can any facts which are not in dispute be recorded in a written admission? L] Yes [] No
Undisputed facts might include any statement accepted in paragraph 8.1.
If yes, a written admission [is set out here] [is attached] [will be served later].
Facts which are admitted are evidence: CrimPR rule 37.6 & Criminal Justice Act 1967, s.10.
If no, explain why:
10.2 Does the defendant want the court to arrange a ground rules discussion? [1] Yes ] No
If an intermediary is appointed, the court must discuss ground rules with the intermediary and
advocates. A discussion may be helpful in other cases.
10.3 Does the defendant want the court to make any other direction? [] Yes [[] No
If yes, give details:
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Case Management and Pre-trial Hearings
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143
Criminal Practice
Defendant’s name:
13 Directions for trial The court must actively manage the case by giving any direction appropriate to the needs of that case as
early as possible: CrimPR rule 3.2(3). Complete or delete the following as appropriate
13.1 The prosecutor must serve any further evidence by: (date)
13.2 The prosecutor must comply with the initial duty of disclosure by: (date)
13.3 A party who wants to use a tape / DVD player, etc. must check before the trial that it can be played in the courtroom.
13.4 The court expects only the witnesses listed as attending in Part 4 to give evidence in person and the evidence of other
witnesses to be read.
13.5 [Witness summons / warrant] [other steps to secure attendance] for witness(es): insert name(s}. . CrimPR Part 28;
rule 3.8(4)
13.6 Interpretation in the language(s) specified in Part 4 is required for: To be arranged by:
(defendant) Court staff CrimPR rule 3.8(6)
(witness) Prosecutor [_] Defendant [_]
AST Special or other measures are directed for: As specified in:
(defendant) Part 4(_] paragraph 13.11 [_]
(witness) Part4(_] paragraph 13.11 [_]
(witness) Part 4 (_] paragraph 13.11 (_]
13.8 The court will discuss ground rules for questioning on: (date)
If an intermediary is appointed forawitness or for the defendant, the court must discuss the ground rules for questioning with the
intermediary and the advocates before the witness or defendant gives evidence. Sufficient time must be allowed for this.
13.9 The defendant in person may not cross-examine witness(es): insert name(s) CrimPR Part 31
and the court directs cross-examination for that purpose by: name representative
13.10 Standard trial preparation time limits apply [except] [with these variations]:
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Case Management and Pre-trial Hearings
Defence statement (Criminal Procedure Rules, r.22.4; Criminal Procedure and Investigations Act 1996, s.6)
Any defence statement must be served within 14 days of the prosecutor complying with the initial duty of disclosure.
Defence witnesses (Criminal Procedure and Investigations Act 1996, s.6C)
Defence witness names, etc. must be notified within 14 days of the prosecutor complying with the initial duty of disclosure.
Application for disclosure (Criminal Procedure Rules, rr.22.2 & 22.5; Criminal Procedure and Investigations Act 1996, s.8)
The defendant must serve any application for an order for prosecution disclosure as soon as reasonably practicable after the
prosecutor complies with the initial duty of disclosure.* Under s.8 of the Criminal Procedure and Investigations Act 1996, no such
application may be made unless a defence statement has been served.
The prosecutor must serve any representations in response within 14 days after that.
Witness statements (Criminal Procedure Rules, r.27.4; Criminal Justice Act 1967, s.9)
The defendant must serve any defence witness statement to be read at trial at least 14 days before the trial.*
Any objection to a witness statement being read at trial must be made within 7 days of service of the statement. This does not
apply to the statements listed in Part 4.
Measures to assist a witness or defendant to give evidence (Criminal Procedure Rules, rr.29.3, 29.13, 29.17, 29.22, 29.26)
Any [further] application for special or other measures must be served within 28 days.
Any representations in response must be served within 14 days after that.
Cross-examination where defendant not represented (Criminal Procedure Rules, rr.31.1, 31.4)
The defendant must serve notice of any representative appointed to cross-examine within 7 days.
The prosecutor must serve any application to prohibit cross-examination by the defendant in person as soon as reasonably
practicable.
Any representations in response must be served within 14 days after that.
Expert evidence (Criminal Procedure Rules, rr.33.4, 33.6)
If either party relies on expert evidence, the directions below apply.
(i) The expert's report must be served within 28 days.”
(ii) | A party who wants that expert to attend the trial must give notice within 7 days after (i).*
(iii) |A party who relies on expert evidence in response must serve it within 14 days after (ii).*
(iv) |There must be a meeting of experts under rule 33.6 within 14 days after (ili).*
(v) The parties must notify the court immediately after (iv) ifthe length of the trial is affected by the outcome of the meeting.*
Hearsay evidence (Criminal Procedure Rules, rr.34.2, 34.3)
The prosecutor must serve any notice to introduce hearsay evidence within 28 days.
The defendant must serve any notice to introduce hearsay evidence as soon as reasonably practicable.
Any application to determine an objection to hearsay evidence must be served within 14 days of service of the notice or evidence.
Bad character evidence (Criminal Procedure Rules, rr.35.2, 35.3, 35.4)
The prosecutor must serve any notice to introduce evidence of the defendant's bad character within 28 days.
Any application to determine an objection to that notice must be served within 14 days after that.
Any application to introduce evidence of a non-defendant’s bad character must be served within 14 days of prosecution disclosure.
Tea
so Any notice of objection to that evidence must be served within 14 days after that.
Previous sexual behaviour evidence (Criminal Procedure Rules, rr.36.2, 36.3, 36.4. 36.5)
The defendant must serve any application for permission to introduce evidence of a complainant's previous sexual behaviour within
28 days of prosecution disclosure.
The prosecutor must serve any representations in response within 14 days after that.
Point of law, including abuse of process etc. (Criminal Procedure Rules, rr.3.3, 3.9)
Any skeleton argument must be served at least 14 days before the trial.”
2 Any skeleton argument in reply must be served within 7 days after that.*
Trial readiness (Criminal Procedure Rules, rr.3.3, 3.9)
The parties must certify readiness for trial at least 14 days before the trial,* confirming which witnesses will give evidence in person
and the trial time estimate.
November 2014
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Criminal Practice
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Prosecution must review disclosure of unused material in light of the
contents of any defence statement/also have a continuing obligation to
review throughout duration of the case
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Case Management and Pre-trial Hearings
Summary
In this chapter you have considered what the law, practice and procedure says about the case
management directions that the magistrates’ court and Crown Court give in order to ensure
that the CPS and the defendant's solicitor are properly prepared for trial. This includes an
obligation on the prosecution to disclose their unused materia! to the defence who may in turn
be required to serve a defence statement on the prosecution and the court. Notably:
*¢ The magistrates’ court case management directions. The court will give case management
directions usually at the same hearing at which the defendant enters their plea of not
guilty. These are standard directions, which can be varied if necessary. They require the
parties to provide very detailed information about how they will prepare for and conduct
the trial.
¢ The Plea and Trial Preparation Hearing (PTPH). For those cases sent to the Crown Court
where a preliminary hearing is not required, the first hearing will be the PTPH. The PTPH
enables the defendant to enter their plea and, if the defendant is pleading not guilty,
to enable the judge to give further case management directions for the CPS and the
defendant's solicitor to comply with prior to trial.
e Disclosure - prosecution, defence and unused material. As well as providing the defence
with all the evidence they intend to rely on at trial, the CPS also has a continuing
obligation to disclose any of its unused material in its possession that ‘might reasonably
be considered capable of undermining the case for the prosecution ... or of assisting the
case for the accused’. This duty of disclosure is subject though to withholding sensitive
information, where the court has granted an application for public interest immunity. The
defence disclosure obligations are much more limited, but there is an obligation in the
Crown Court for the defence to provide a defence statement. Failure to provide such a
statement may lead to the drawing of adverse inferences.
Sample questions
Question 1
A solicitor is representing a defendant at his first appearance in the magistrates’ court.
The defendant has been charged with offences of rape (an offence that can only be tried
on indictment) and sexual assault (an either-way offence). It is alleged that he sexually
assaulted the victim before he then raped her the following week. The defendant intends to
plead not guilty to both allegations.
Will both offences be sent to the Crown Court for trial?
A Yes, because the defendant is pleading not guilty to both allegations.
B_ No, because the sexual assault allegation can only be tried in the magistrates’ court.
C No, because the defendant may elect trial for both allegations in the magistrates’ court
or the Crown Court.
D Yes, because the sexual assault allegation is related to the rape allegation which must
be sent to the Crown Court for trial.
E Yes, because the sexual assault allegation is punishable with imprisonment and is
related to the rape allegation which must be sent to the Crown Court for trial.
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Answer
Option D is the best answer. This is because rape is an offence triable only on indictment and
sexual assault is an either-way offence. Where an adult appears before a magistrates’ court
charged with an offence triable only on indictment, the court must send the defendant to the
Crown Court for trial pursuant to s 51(1) of the CDA 1998 for that offence; and for any either-
way offence (or summary offence) with which they are charged which fulfils the ‘requisite
conditions’. Here the ‘requisite conditions’ are that the either-way offence appears to the court
to be related to the offence triable only on indictment. Given that both allegations relate to
the same victim and they are alleged to have taken place within a week of each other, they
will be regarded as related to each other. Although sexual assault is also an imprisonable
offence, option E is not the best answer because this is only a requirement for a summary-only
offence. Option A is not the best answer, because the defendant will not be asked to indicate
his plea to either of these matters in this case (he would have been asked to indicate his plea
to the allegation of sexual assault if he had not also been charged with rape, an offence
that can only be tried on indictment). Option B is not correct-as.sexual assault is an either-
way offence. Option C is not correct because rape is not an either-way offence and so he will
never be given the choice to elect where his trial takes place.
Question 2
A defendant has been charged with an offence of burglary that took place at office
premises in the city centre. As part of the investigation the police have a witness statement
from a neighbour of the defendant claiming she saw the defendant in his back garden
at the time the burglary took place. However, she tells the police that she is not prepared
to give evidence about this as she does not like her neighbour. The prosecution does not
believe the neighbour is telling the truth and does not intend to call her as a witness at the
defendant's trial in the magistrates’ court.
Which of the following best describes whether the prosecution will be required to
disclose the existence of the neighbour's witness statement to the defence?
A The prosecution will be required to disclose this material as part of the initial details of
the prosecution case.
B_ The prosecution will not be required to disclose this witness statement because the trial
is taking place in the magistrates’ court and not the Crown Court.
C_ The prosecution will be required to disclose this witness statement because it provides
the defendant with an alibi defence.
D_ The prosecution will not be required to disclose this witness statement because it is
sensitive material and subject to public interest immunity as the neighbour does not
want to testify at trial.
E The prosecution will be required to disclose this witness statement because it might
reasonably be considered capable of undermining the case for the prosecution.
Answer
Option E is the best answer. Section 3 CPIA 1996 provides that such unused material must
be disclosed to the defence if it ‘might reasonably be considered capable of undermining
the case for the prosecution’. Arguably this witness statement might also reasonably be
considered capable of assisting the case for the accused, but we are not told what defence
the defendant is raising and, in any event, this is not one of the options available. Option
A is not correct because this witness statement will not be provided as IDPC, as we are told
the prosecution will not be calling this witness to give evidence. The obligation to disclose
unused prosecution material applies to trials in the magistrates’ court and Crown Court, so
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Case Management and Pre-trial Hearings
option B is not correct. Option C is not the best answer, because although this may support
the defendant's defence of alibi, we do not know whether the defendant is raising such a
defence and in any event, this does not set out the test for disclosure in s 3. Option D is not
correct because a witness’s unwillingness to testify does not make it sensitive material that
may be eligible for a public interest immunity application.
Question 3
A man is facing trial in the Crown Court for an offence of wounding. The prosecution has
provided disclosure of their non-sensitive, unused material which might reasonably be
considered capable of undermining their case or of assisting the case for the defendant.
What obligation, if any, is now on the defendant to make disclosure of his defence to
the prosecution?
A The defendant is required to serve a defence statement. This obligation will be
enforced by the court by drawing an adverse inference against the defendant if the
statement is not provided.
B_ The defendant may serve a defence statement but cannot be obliged to do so. Failure
to provide the statement means the prosecution will not be required to review their
initial disclosure and determine if there is any further relevant unused material in its
possession.
C_ The defendant is not required to serve a defence statement on the prosecution as this
would violate the defendant's right to a fair trial and his presumption of innocence.
D_ The prosecution cannot insist on the defendant providing a defence statement, but
the court is likely to make an award of costs against the defendant for failing to
provide one.
E The defendant is not required to serve a defence statement but there are good tactical
reasons for serving one. This includes placing an obligation on the prosecution to then
provide disclosure of their sensitive, unused material.
Answer
Option A is the best answer. Section 5 of the CPIA 1996 sets out the obligation on the
defence to provide a defence statement. This is referred to as ‘compulsory disclosure’ where
a defendant is facing trial in the Crown Court (as opposed to the magistrates’ court where
there is no such obligation). This obligation is enforced in the Crown Court by the court
being able to draw an adverse inference against the defendant if a defence statement is
not provided.
Option B is wrong, although this would be correct if the man’s trial were taking place in
the magistrates’ court. Option C is wrong because the obligation to provide a defence
statement does not violate his right to a fair trial, nor his presumption of innocence. Option
D is correct to the extent that the prosecution cannot insist on the defendant providing a
defence statement, but the court would not make an award of costs against the defendant
for failing to do so. Option E is wrong because the defendant is required to serve this
statement. Moreover, this would not trigger an obligation on the prosecution to then
provide disclosure of their sensitive, unused material. Such material will never be disclosed
if the prosecution makes a successful public immunity interest application to withhold its
disclosure.
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Principles and Procedures to
Admit and Exclude Evidence
9.1 Introduction 152
SQE1 syllabus
This chapter will enable you to achieve the SQE1 Assessment Specification in relation
to Functioning Legal Knowledge concerned with the following procedures and
processes:
¢ burden and standard of proof;
¢ visual identification evidence and Turnbull guidance;
e inferences from silence ss 34, 35, 36, 37, 38 Criminal Justice and Public Order
Act 1994;
¢ hearsay evidence:
° definition
© grounds for admitting hearsay evidence
* confession evidence:
° definition
° admissibility
° challenging admissibility ss 76 and 78 PACE 1984
* character evidence:
© definition of bad character
° the 7 gateways s 101(1) Criminal Justice Act 2003
° procedure for admitting defendant’s bad character
° court's powers to exclude defendant's bad character
¢ exclusion of evidence:
© scope and application of s 78 PACE and the right to a fair trial.
Note that, for SQE1, candidates are not usually required to recall specific case names
or cite statutory or regulatory authorities. These are provided for illustrative purposes
only unless otherwise stated.
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Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to understand and apply the following
law, practice and procedure on:
* The burdens and standards of proof that operate in a criminal case.
¢ What is meant by disputed visual identification evidence and when the
admissibility of such evidence may be excluded.
¢ What the Turnbull guidelines are and when they will be relevant and how they
are applied in court.
e When an ‘adverse inference’ may be drawn against a defendant who exercises
their right to remain silent.
¢ The meaning of hearsay evidence and when it may be admitted at trial.
¢ What is meant by confession evidence and the rules on admissibilityofsuch
evidence.
* The meaning of evidence of bad character and the rules and procedure on the
admissibility of such evidence.
¢ The admissibility of improperly obtained evidence and the right of the accused to
a fair trial.
9.1 Introduction
The law of evidence has a number of purposes, including the laying down of rules,
establishing principles and determining the exercise of discretions in relation to what is
admissible for the purposes of establishing facts in issue at trial. It also regulates the ways in
which such matters can be put before the court and determines how a judge may, or must,
comment on the evidence. It also establishes who should prove disputed issues of fact and
the standard of proof such a party must meet in order to prove these.
There are two basic requirements which need to be satisfied if the jury or the magistrates are
to take a piece of evidence into account in deciding what the facts in issue are:
(a) evidence must be relevant to the facts in issue in the case; and
(b) evidence must be admissible. This means that the rules which comprise the law of
evidence must allow such evidence to be used in a criminal trial.
Evidence that is both relevant and admissible may be either direct evidence of a defendant's
guilt, or circumstantial evidence from which a defendant's guilt may be inferred.
He) Example
John is charged with the wounding of Liam. The CPS alleges that John stabbed Liam with
a knife whilst Liam was drinking in a busy pub. The CPS has an eyewitness who identifies
John as the assailant. The CPS also has a letter sent by John to Liam shortly before
the stabbing, in which John threatened to ‘get even’ with Liam following an argument
between them over some money. The evidence from the eyewitness will be direct
evidence of John’s guilt. The letter will be circumstantial evidence, since it is evidence that
John had a motive for killing Liam.
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Principles and Procedures to Admit and Exclude Evidence
) Example
Arlo is on trial for burglary and raises the defence of alibi, claiming that at the time of
the burglary he was at home with his girlfriend. When presenting its case at court, the
CPS must first satisfy its evidential burden by presenting sufficient evidence to the court to
show that Arlo has a case to answer. Should the CPS fail to do this, Arlo’s advocate will
make a submission of no case to answer and ask the judge to dismiss the case. If the
CPS satisfies its evidential burden, Arlo then bears the evidential burden of placing some
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evidence of his alibi defence before the court. Arlo will satisfy this burden by entering the
witness box and giving details of his alibi. In order to secure a conviction and to satisfy its
legal burden, the CPS will then need to prove beyond a reasonable doubt both that Arlo’s
alibi is untrue, and that Arlo did commit the burglary.
© Example
Guy is charged with robbery. Marie, the victim of the robbery, gives a statement to the
police describing the person who robbed her. She comments that she got only a brief
glimpse of this person’s face, and there are several dissimilarities between the description
she gives and the actual appearance of Guy. Marie is nevertheless able to pick Guy out
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Principles and Procedures to Admit and Exclude Evidence
at an identification parade carried out at the police station. The identification parade
was carried out in breach of Code D because four of the other participants in the parade
dic not resemble Guy and the officers investigating the robbery were present during the
parade. Guy denies taking part in the robbery and claims that Marie is mistaken (which
makes Marie’s evidence disputed visual identification evidence).
At trial, Guy’s advocate will make an application to the court under s 78 PACE 1984, for
the identification evidence given by Marie to be excluded on the basis of the breaches of
Code D which occurred when the identification parade took place. Only if this application
is unsuccessful will Guy’s advocate then need to consider how in cross-examination to
undermine the quality of Marie’s original sighting of the robber, and what representations
should be made to the court in respect of the Turnbull guidelines.
(a) If Joe denies being at the scene of the affray, the Turnbull guidelines will apply.
(b) If Joe admits to being at the scene of the affray but denies that he was involved in the
affray, and suggests that it was somebody else who was also present at the time who
was involved in the affray, the Turnbull guidelines are likely to apply (see R v Thornton
below).
(c) If Joe admits taking part in the incident but claims that he was only acting in self-defence,
the Turnbull guidelines will not apply. In this case Joe will not be disputing the visual
identification evidence given by the witness.
© In R v Thornton (1995) 1 Cr App R 578, there was a public order incident where it was
alleged that the accused was one of the aggressors. Although he admitted to being
present at the scene, he denied that he had been involved in the fighting and claimed
that the witnesses who alleged this were mistaken. The Court of Appeal held that the
Turnbull guidelines applied in this case since, on the facts, there were a number of people
present who were. of a similar description to the accused. However, contrast this decision
with the next case.
In R v McEvoy [1997] Crim LR 887 there had been a similar public order situation, the
only difference being that there was no one else present who could have resembled
the accused in height, clothing and hair colour. For this reason, the Court of Appeal
concluded that this was not a case where the Turnbull guidelines applied.
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If a witness only gives a description to the court of the person who committed the crime, but
there is no direct evidence that it was the defendant (other than the fact that the defendant's
physical appearance matches the description given), the Turnbull guidelines will not apply.
© Example
Iqbal is on trial for burglary. A witness who saw the burglary tells the court that it was
committed by a man who was ‘approximately 6ft tall, with brown, spiky hair and a
moustache’. Iqbal matches this description, but the witness failed to pick Iqbai out at a
video identification at the police station.
The Turnbull guidelines will not apply in this case, because there is no direct visual
identification evidence from the witness identifying Iqbal as the person responsible for the
burglary, simply evidence of description.
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Principles and Procedures to Admit and Exclude Evidence
considering the quality of the identification evidence. This is usually referred to as a ‘Turnbull
warning’.
o Example
Nigel is charged with assault occasioning actual bodily harm. The CPS seeks to rely
on evidence from an eyewitness to the assault who later picked out Nigel at a video
identification procedure at the police station. When giving evidence at court, the witness
states that he saw the assault take place over a period of 40 seconds. He also says that
he had an unobstructed view of the assault from only 5 metres away, and that the assault
occurred in daylight when the weather conditions were bright and clear. The judge
considers that the quality of the initial sighting by the eyewitness is good. When summing
up the case at the end of the trial the judge will give a ‘Turnbull warning’ to the jury, by
warning the jury about relying on identification evidence and will direct them to take
into account the factors listed above when considering the quality of the identification
evidence.
o Example
Jake is charged with unlawful wounding. The CPS has two items of evidence:
(i) Jake’s fingerprints, found on a knife which it is alleged he used as a weapon; and
(ii) evidence from an eyewitness to the wounding who picked Jake out in a video
identification procedure at the police station.
When giving evidence at Jake’s trial, the eyewitness concedes that the incident occurred
at night in an alley where there was no lighting. The eyewitness also says that he only
observed the incident briefly and saw only part of the attacker's face.
At the end of the prosecution case, the judge assesses the identification evidence given
by the eyewitness as being of poor quality. However, this evidence is supported by Jake’s
fingerprints on the knife. When summing up the case, the judge will give a ‘Turnbull
warning’ to the jury, by warning the jury about the dangers of relying on identification
evidence and the special need for caution when such evidence is being considered.
The judge will also point out all the weaknesses in the identification evidence that has
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been given. The judge will tell the jury about the dangers of convicting on the basis of
the identification alone and to look for other supporting evidence. Finally, the judge will
explain to the jury what other evidence is capable of amounting to supporting evidence
(ie the fingerprints on the knife).
© Example
Rebecca is charged with theft. The only evidence called by the CPS is from an eyewitness
who picked Rebecca out at a video identification procedure at the police station. When
cross-examined at court, the witness concedes that she got-only a fleeting glimpse of the
person who committed the theft, and that this was from a long distance away at a time
when it was raining heavily and a lot of other people were present to obstruct her view.
At the end of the prosecution case, Rebecca’s counsel will make a submission of no case
to answer. If the judge assesses the identification evidence which has been given to be
of poor quality and unsupported, the judge will stop the trial and direct the jury to acquit
Rebecca.
9.4 Inferences from silence —- ss 34, 35, 36, 37, 38 Criminal Justice
and Public Order Act 1994
9.4.1 The ‘right to silence’
Anyone who is arrested on suspicion of having committed a criminal offence has a right to
remain silent when interviewed at the police station. However, under the provisions of the
Criminal Justice and Public Order Act (CJPOA) 1994, when a defendant's case comes to trial,
the court may be allowed to draw what are termed ‘adverse inferences’ from this earlier
silence when being questioned under caution about the offence. We will consider when a
court is allowed to draw such inferences, and the potential evidential consequences which
may arise at trial when a solicitor advises a client not to answer questions when interviewed
at the police station.
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Principles and Procedures to Admit and Exclude Evidence
the prosecution may ask the court to draw an adverse inference from a defendant’ sscllence
when interviewed by the police, the prosecution must first have adduced other evidence of the
defendant's guilt. Such evidence must establish that the defendant has a case to answer and
must call for an explanation from the defendant.
Note however that a court is not allowed to draw an adverse inference from a defendant's
silence if that silence occurred at a time when the defendant had not been allowed the
opportunity to consult a solicitor to obtain independent legal advice (s 58 of the Youth Justice
and Criminal Evidence Act 1999). In such circumstances, the defendant is said to have an
absolute right to remain silent and the caution given before interview should reflect this.
Adverse inferences may therefore only be drawn when a defendant has been given the
opportunity to take independent legal advice, even if they decline that opportunity.
(1) Where in any proceedings against a person for an offence, evidence is given that the
accused:
(a) at any time before he was charged with the offence, on being questioned under
caution by a constable trying to discover whether or by whom the offence had
been committed, failed to mention any fact relied on in his defence in those
proceedings; or
(b) on being charged with the offence or officially informed that he might be prosecuted
for it, failed to mention any such fact ...
being a fact, which in the circumstances existing at the time the accused could
reasonably have been expected to mention ... the court or jury ... may draw such
inferences from the failure as appear proper.
© Example
Ethan is arrested on suspicion of theft. Ethan refuses to answer questions put to him by
the police when interviewed at the police station under caution. Ethan is subsequently
charged with the theft. At his trial, Ethan raises the defence of alibi, claiming that he was
at a friend’s house at the time the alleged theft took place. Section 34 allows the court to
draw an adverse inference from Ethan’s failure to mention his alibi defence when being
questioned by the police.
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So, the inferences that may be drawn against a defendant need not necessarily arise out
of ‘no comment’ interviews. The terms of s 34 may be satisfied even where a defendant
has answered every question put to them, if at trial they raise some other fact in their
defence that they did not mention, but could reasonably have been expected to mention,
when interviewed. i
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Principles and Procedures to Admit and Exclude Evidence
later relies on in their defence at court, the court will not be able to draw an adverse
inference under s 34 if, having handed in the statement, the defendant then refuses to answer
questions from the police based on the contents of that written statement.
In the rare situations when a defence solicitor prepares a written statement for their client but
does not hand this in to the police, whilst this will prevent the court at trial from drawing the
inference of recent fabrication, it will not prevent the court from drawing an inference that the
defendant was not sufficiently confident about their defence to expose this to investigation by
the police following the interview.
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Following the Beckles and Howell cases, the jury will now be directed by the trial judge that
adverse inferences should not be drawn under s 34 (and ss 36 and 37) if the jury believe that
the defendant genuinely and reasonably relied on the legal advice to remain silent.
Section 36 allows the court or jury to draw an adverse inference if, when interviewed by the
police, the defendant failed to account for the presence of an object, substance or mark.
Section 36 provides:
(1) Where:
(a) a person is arrested by a constable, and there is:
(i) on his person; or
(ii) in or on his clothing or footwear; or
(iii) otherwise in his possession; or
(iv) in any place in which he is at the time of his arrest,
any object, substance or mark, or there is any mark on any such object; and
(b) that or another constable investigating the case reasonably believes that
the presence of the object, substance or mark may be attributable to
the participation of the person arrested in the commission of an offence
specified by the constable; and
(c) the constable informs the person arrested that he so believes, and requests
him to account for the presence of the object, substance or mark; and
(d) the person fails or refuses to do so,
then ... the court or jury ... may draw such inferences from the failure or
refusal as appear proper.
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Principles and Procedures to Admit and Exclude Evidence
© Example 1
Jon is arrested on suspicion of assaulting Fergus. In an interview at the police station, Jon
is asked to account for the fact that when he was arrested there was blood on his shirt
and his knuckles were grazed. Jon does not reply to this question. Section 36 allows a
court to draw an adverse inference from Jon’s failure to account for his bloodstained shirt
and grazed knuckles.
We] Example 2
Rick is arrested on suspicion of the burglary of commercial premises. Entry to the premises
was gained by the use of a crowbar to open a window. In an interview at the police
station, Rick is asked to account for the fact that when he was arrested, he had in his
possession a crowbar. Rick does not reply to this question. Section 36 allows a court to
draw an adverse inference from Rick’s failure to account for his possession of the crowbar.
Although there is a degree of overlap between ss 34 and 36, note that s 34 will apply only if
a defendant raises a fact at trial, which they failed to mention at the police station, whereas
s 36 will operate irrespective of any defence put forward. It may apply even if no defence is
raised at trial, because the inference arises from the defendant's failure to account for the
object, substance or mark at the time of interview. The inference which is likely to arise in such
a case is that the defendant had no explanation for the presence of the object, substance or
mark, or no explanation that would have stood up to police questioning.
Another important difference from s 34 is that inferences may be drawn under s 36 only if
the police officer requesting the explanation for the object, substance or mark has told the
suspect certain specified matters before requesting the explanation (this is referred to as a
‘special caution’). The suspect must be told:
(a) what the offence under investigation is;
(b) what fact the suspect is being asked to account for;
(c) that the officer believes this fact may be due to the suspect taking part in the commission
of the offence in question;
(d) that a court may draw an adverse inference from failure to comply with the request; and
(e) that a record is being made of the interview and that it may be given in evidence if the
suspect is brought to trial (PACE 1984, Code C, para 10.11).
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(c) the constable informs the person that he so believes, and requests him to
account for that presence; and
(d) the person fails or refuses to do so,
then ... the court or jury ... may draw such inferences from the failure or
refusal as appear proper.
o Example
Lance is arrested on suspicion of the burglary of a jewellery shop. Lance is arrested
by the police whilst standing outside the jewellery shop, only two minutes after the
shop’s burglar alarm went off. When interviewed at the police station, Lance is asked to
account for his presence near the shop at or about the time of the burglary. Lance does
not reply to this question. Section 37 allows the court to draw an adverse inference from
Lance’s failure to account for his presence near the shop at or about the time of the
burglary.
As with s 36, there is some overlap between ss 34 and 37, but whilst s 34 will apply
only if a defendant raises a fact which they failed to mention at the police station,
in their defence at trial, s 37 will operate irrespective of any defence put forward. It
may apply even if no defence is raised at trial, because the inference arises from the
defendant's failure to account for their presence at a particular place at or about the
time of the offence at the time of interview. The inference which is likely to be drawn in
such circumstances is that the defendant has no explanation for their presence at that
particular place at or about the time the offence was committed, or no explanation that
would have stood up to police questioning.
o Example
Sonia is arrested whilst walking late at night along an alley behind a house which has
just been burgled. Sonia is interviewed at the police station and is asked to account for
her presence in the alley at or about the time of the burglary. Sonia refuses to answer this
question.
lf, at her trial, Sonia states that she was walking along the alley because she was taking
a shortcut home, s 34 will apply because Sonia did not mention this fact when interviewed
at the police station. Whether or not at trial Sonia puts forward an explanation for her
presence in the alley, s 37 will apply because Sonia failed to explain the reason for her
presence in the alley when she was interviewed at the police station (assuming she was
given a ‘special caution’).
So as with s 36, inferences may be drawn under s 37 only if a suspect has been given the
‘special caution’.
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Principles and Procedures to Admit and Exclude Evidence
Could the defendant reasonably have been expected to No adverse inferences may
mention this fact at the time he was interviewed? be drawn under s 34
(continued)
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Criminal Practice
Did the police ask the defendant to account No adverse inferences may be
for the presence of the object, substance or drawn under s 36
mark when interviewed?
Did the police give the defendant a special No adverse inferences may be
caution? drawn under s 36
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Principles and Procedures to Admit and Exclude Evidence
Was the defendant arrested at the scene of the offence at or about the time of the offence?
Yes
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The effect of s 35 is that, if the prosecution has raised issues which call for an explanation
from the defendant, should the defendant then fail to give evidence, the court will be entitled
to infer from that failure that the defendant has either no explanation, or no explanation that
will stand up to cross-examination.
o Example
Marcus is charged with common assault. Marcus pleads not guilty on the basis that he
was acting in self-defence. At the end of the prosecution case, Marcus declines to enter
the witness box to give evidence on his own behalf. The court is entitled to infer from
this that Marcus has no defence to the charge, or no defence that will stand up to cross-
examination (in other words, an inference that Marcus is guilty of the offence).
In the combined appeal of R v Cowan; R v Gayle; R v Ricciardy [1995] 4 All ER 939, the
Court of Appeal stated that the court had to take into account the following matters when
considering the application of s 35:
(a) the burden of proof remains on the prosecution throughout;
(b) the defendant is entitled to remain silent;
(c) before drawing an adverse inference from the defendant's silence, the court had to be
satisfied that there was a case to answer on the prosecution evidence;
(d) an adverse inference from the defendant's failure to give evidence cannot on its own
prove guilt; and
(e) no adverse inference could be drawn unless the only sensible explanation for the
defendant's silence was that he had no answer to the case against him, or none that
could have stood up to cross-examination.
As with ss 34, 36 and 37, a defendant will not be convicted of an offence if the only evidence
against him is an adverse inference from his failure to give evidence in his defence at trial
(CJPOA 1994, s 38(3)).
Unlike ss 34, 36 and 37, there is also a limited statutory exception to the drawing of adverse
inferences which can be found at s 35(1)(b). This provides the court with a discretion to direct
that an adverse inference is not drawn where
it appears to the court that the physical or mental condition of the accused makes it
undesirable for him to give evidence.
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© In Rv Friend [1997] Crim LR 817, the accused, a boy aged 14 years at the time of-the trial,
was convicted of murder. It was said that he had an IQ of a 9-year-old. He didn’t give
evidence at his trial and the trial judge invited the jury to draw an adverse inference. On
appeal, it was argued by the defence that the exception should have applied, and no
adverse inference should have been drawn from his refusal to testify. In dismissing the
appeal, the Court of Appeal held that although the trial judge had a discretion under s
35(1)(b) to direct that no adverse inference be drawn, this was not one of those where the
exception applied. The Court of Appeal indicated the type of circumstances that the
statutory exception was aimed at. For example, if giving evidence was likely to trigger an
epileptic seizure, or if the accused was schizophrenic and testifying was likely to cause a
florid state.
However, Friend’s second appeal R v Friend (No2) [2004] EWCA 2661 saw the Court
of Appeal entertain the possibility of widening the availability of this exception. It
did so when it quashed the original conviction in light of new expert evidence which
concluded that Friend suffered from Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) and,
consequently, he was unlikely to have been able to effectively participate in the trial and
might have given inconsistent and conflicting evidence.
9.5.1 Definition
A ‘hearsay statement’ is defined in s 114(1) of the CJA 2003 as ‘a statement, not made in oral
evidence, that is relied on as evidence of a matter in it’.
© Example
George is charged with handling a stolen bike. At George’s trial, the CPS calls Adam
to give evidence. Adam tells the court: ‘George showed me a bike. He told me he had
just been given it by a mate of his who had nicked it from somewhere else.’ This will
be hearsay evidence because the CPS will rely on the out-of-court statement made by
George to Adam to show that he was in possession of a bike which he knew to be stolen.
The statement by George is being relied on as evidence of a matter stated in it.
A ‘statement’ is defined in s 115(2) as ‘any representation of fact or opinion made by a
person by whatever means; and it includes a representation made in a sketch, photofit or
other pictorial form’.
The purpose, or one of the purposes, of the person making the statement must appear
to the court to have been to cause another person to believe that the matter, or to cause
another person to act (or a machine to operate) on the basis that the matter, is as stated
(CIA 2003, s 115(3)).
© Example
R v Knight [2007] All ER (D) 381 (Nov) - the defendant was convicted of various sexual
offences committed against a 14-year-old girl. At trial, the girl’s aunt was allowed to
give evidence of entries she had read in the girl’s diaries that detailed the girl’s sexual
contacts with the defendant. The defendant submitted that such evidence was hearsay
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and should not have been admitted. In refusing the appeal, the Court of Appeal held that
such evidence was not hearsay, because the girl had not intended other people to read
the entries in the diary and it therefore fell outside the scope of s 115.
o Example 1
Jason is on trial for theft. The arresting officer (PC Kalpar) gives evidence that when he
arrested Jason, Jason made the following confession: ‘Okay, fair enough, it was me. | only
did it for drug money.’
This is first-hand hearsay evidence, because PC Kalpar is repeating a statement that
he heard Jason make. Details of the contents of Jason’s statement did not pass through
anyone else before getting to PC Kalpar.
© Example 2
Maryam is a bank clerk. She receives a cash deposit of £5,000 from a customer and
places this in the bank’s safe. She tells Brian, the senior cashier, who in turn tells Emir, the
manager. Emir makes a record of the deposit in a ledger. An armed robbery subsequently
takes place and the £5,000 is stolen. At the robber’s trial, the CPS seeks to use the entry
in the ledger to show how much money was in the safe. The entry in the ledger will be
multiple hearsay. The details of the amount of money placed in the safe have passed
from Maryam to Brian, then from Brian to Emir and then from Emir into the ledger itselt.
The circumstances in which a statement containing multiple hearsay is admissible in
evidence are more limited than when a statement contains only first-hand hearsay (see
below).
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(1) In criminal proceedings a statement not made in oral evidence in the proceedings is
admissible as evidence of any matter stated if:
(a) oral evidence given in the proceedings by the person who made the statement would
be admissible as evidence of that matter [ie the statement must be ‘first-hand hearsay’],
(b) the person who made the statement (the relevant person) is identified to the court's
satisfaction, and
(c) any of the five conditions mentioned in subsection (2) is satisfied.
The conditions referred to in s 116(2)(a)-(e) are that:
(a) the relevant person is dead;
(b) the relevant person is unfit to be a witness because of his bodily or mental condition;
(c) the relevant person is outside the United Kingdom and it is not reasonably practicable to
secure his attendance;
(d) the relevant person cannot be found, although such steps as it is reasonably practicable
to take to find him have been taken;
(e) through fear the relevant person does not give oral evidence in the proceedings, either at
all or in connection with the subject matter of the statement, and the court gives leave for
the statement to be given in evidence.
© Example 1
Zoé witnesses an assault and gives a signed statement to the police describing what she
saw. Before the case comes to trial, Zoé is killed in a road traffic accident. Zoé’s written
statement will be admissible in evidence because she satisfies the condition in s 116(2)(a)
and oral evidence given by her of what she saw when the assault occurred would have
been admissible at trial.
© Example 2
Amie witnesses an armed robbery at the bank where she works and provides a witness
statement describing what happened and identifying the robbers. Before the case comes
to trial, Amie is involved in a serious road traffic accident and is placed on a life support
machine. Amie’s witness statement will be admissible in evidence because she satisfies the
condition in s 116(2(b) and oral evidence given by her of what she saw when the robbery
occurred and her identification of the robbers would have been admissible at trial.
© Example 3
Ben, a serving soldier, witnesses a theft and gives a signed statement to the police
describing what he saw. Before the case comes to trial, Ben is posted abroad. Ben’s
written statement will be admissible in evidence because he satisfies the condition in s
116(2)(c) (assuming it is not reasonably practicable to secure his attendance at trial) and
oral evidence given by him of what he saw when the theft occurred would have been
admissible at trial.
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© Example 4
Tariq lives in a shelter for the homeless. He witnesses a road traffic accident in which
a young child is seriously injured. Tariq gives a witness statement to the police, and the
driver involved in the accident is subsequently charged with dangerous driving. Before
the trial takes place, Tariq leaves the shelter. Despite making extensive enquiries, the
police are unable to locate Tariq’s current whereabouts. Tariq‘s written statement will be
admissible in evidence because the condition in s 116(2)(d) appears to be satisfied and
oral evidence given by Tariq of what he saw when the accident occurred would have
been admissible at trial.
o Example 5
Ava witnesses a murder. She gives a signed statement to the police describing what
she saw. Before the case comes to trial, Ava receives several anonymous letters telling
her that if she gives evidence at court, her baby son will be killed. Ava refuses to attend
court to give oral evidence of what she saw. Ava’s written statement may be admissible
in evidence. She appears to satisfy the condition in s 116(2)(e) and oral evidence given
by her of what she saw when the murder occurred would have been admissible at
trial. However, the trial judge will still need to give leave for her written statement to be
admitted in evidence, having regard to the matters listed in s 116(4).
Section 116(4) requires the court to give leave only if it considers that the statement ought to
be admitted in the interests of justice having regard to the contents, to any risk of unfairness
(in particular how difficult it would be to challenge the statement) and the fact that (in
appropriate cases) a special measures direction could be made.
Remember, s 116 applies only to ‘first-hand’ hearsay. In other words, a statement can be
admissible under this section only if the person who made that statement would have been
allowed to give oral evidence at trial of the matters contained in the statement. In the
examples given above, the statement of each witness who was unable to come to court
to give oral evidence would constitute ‘first-hand’ hearsay because their evidence had not
passed through any other hands and was direct evidence of what they either saw or did.
Below is an example of ‘second-hand’ or multiple hearsay. Such evidence is not admissible
under s 116.
© Example
Fozia witnesses an assault. She tells Jenny what she saw when the assault occurred. Jenny
then gives a signed statement to the police repeating what she had been told by Fozia.
Before the case comes to trial, Jenny is killed in a road traffic accident. Jenny’s statement
will not be admissible under s 116. Although Jenny satisfies the condition in s 116(2)(a)
above, she would not have been allowed to give oral evidence at court as to the contents
of her statement because her statement merely repeated what she had been told by
Fozia and was itself hearsay. Any evidence given by Jenny would be multiple hearsay and
therefore not admissible.
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Business records
Section 117 will commonly be used to ensure the admissibility in evidence of business records.
© Example 1
Omar is charged with armed robbery. The CPS alleges that Omar bought the shotgun
used in the robbery from a local gun shop two weeks prior to the robbery taking place.
The CPS seeks to adduce in evidence a handwritten receipt given to Omar at the time the
shotgun was purchased. The receipt was prepared by Neville, the owner of the gun shop.
The receipt will be first-hand hearsay evidence and will be admissible under s 117. The
receipt is a statement in a document and was prepared by Neville in the course of his
business from information about which he had first-hand knowledge, namely Omar's
purchase of the shotgun.
o Example 2
Paul deposits £500 in a safe at the bank where he works. He tells Youssef, a clerk at the
bank, who records the deposit in a ledger.
The ledger is multiple hearsay, but it will be admissible under s 117. The entry in the
ledger is a statement in a document and was created by Youssef in the course of
business. The person who supplied the information contained in the ledger (Paul) had
personal knowledge of the making of the deposit.
© Example 3
Ahmed deposits £1,000 in a safe at the betting shop where he works. He tells Shona, one
of his colleagues. Shona passes this information on to Gavin, the owner of the shop, who
records the deposit in a ledger.
The entry in the ledger is multiple hearsay, but it will be admissible under s 117. The entry
in the ledger is a statement in a document which was created by Gavin in the course of
business. The person who supplied the information contained in the ledger (Ahmed) had
personal knowledge of the making of the deposit, and the person through whom the
information was passed (Shona) received the information in the course of business.
The three above examples illustrate the usual operation of this exception. However, a further
layer of requirements applies where a business document has been prepared for the purpose
of criminal proceedings.
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(a) any of the five conditions mentioned in s 116(2) is satisfied (see above); or
(b) the relevant person cannot reasonably be expected to have any recollection of the
matters dealt with in the statement (having regard to the length of time since he supplied
the information and all other circumstances).
& Example
A burglary occurs at a shop. Charlie, the owner of the shop, prepares a list of all the
items taken in the burglary in order to claim on his business insurance policy and to
also provide the police with a list of the items stolen. Two years later, the police arrest
Niall and charge him with the burglary. At Niall’s trial, the CPS seeks to use the list to
prove what was taken in the burglary. Charlie is able to attend trial to give evidence but,
given the time which has elapsed since the time of the burglary, he is unable to recall
all the items contained on the list. The list of stolen items compiled by Charlie is first-
hand hearsay and should be admissible in evidence under s 117. The list is a statement
in a document. Charlie created the list in the course of his business and the person who
supplied the information contained in the list (Charlie) had personal knowledge of the
matters dealt with in the list. As the list was compiled for use in contemplated criminal
proceedings, one of the requirements in s 117(5) must be satisfied. These requirements
are satisfied because, although Charlie can attend court to give oral evidence, due to the
time which has elapsed since the list was compiled, he cannot reasonably be expected to
have any recollection of the matters dealt with in the statement.
Confession evidence
Prior to the enactment of the CJA 2003, evidence that the defendant had made a confession
was admissible at common law as an exception to the rule excluding hearsay evidence. This
rule was subsequently codified by s 76(1) of PACE 1984, which provides:
(1) In any proceedings a confession made by an accused person may be given
in evidence against him insofar as it is relevant to any matter in issue in the
proceedings and is not excluded by the court in pursuance of this section.
Section 118(1) preserves the common law rule that a confession made by a defendant will be
admissible in evidence against the defendant, even if the confession is hearsay evidence. This
is such an important exception in practice, we will look at it in more detail later in this chapter.
1 R v Andrews [1987] AC 281 - the House of Lords held that hearsay evidence of a
statement made by a fatally stabbed man soon after he was attacked naming his two
attackers was properly admitted as evidence of the truth of the facts he had asserted
under the res gestae principle. Lord Ackner set out the following criteria (known as the
Ackner criteria‘) for the admission of such evidence:
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(1) The primary question which the judge had to ask himself in such a case was: Can the
possibility of concoction or distortion be disregard?
(2) To answer that question the judge first had to consider the circumstances in which
the particular statement was made in order to satisfy himself that the event was so
unusual or dramatic as to dominate the thoughts of the victim so that his utterance
was an instinctive reaction to that event thus giving no real opportunity for reasoned
reflection.
(3) In order for the statement to be sufficiently spontaneous it had to be so closely
associated with the event which had excited the statement that it could fairly be said
that the mind of the declarant was still controlled by the event.
(4) Quite apart from the time factor there might be special features in a case which
related to the possibility of distortion.
(5) As to the possibility of error in the facts narrated in such a statement: If only the
ordinary fallibility of human recollection was relied upon that went to the weight to be
attached and not to the admissibility of the statement and was therefore a matter for
the jury.
© Example
Jordan is charged with murder. The CPS alleges that Jordan shot his victim with a rifle.
Jordan’s defence is that the rifle went off by accident as he was examining it. The CPS
want to call evidence from a witness who did not see the shooting but did hear the victim
scream, ‘Don’t shoot me Jordan!’ immediately before hearing the gun fire. This would be
hearsay evidence, but is likely to be admissible as part of the res gestae, to help prove
the shooting was not an accident.
(a) how much probative value the statement has (assuming it to be true) in relation to a
matter in issue in the proceedings, or how valuable it is for the understanding of other
evidence in the case;
(b) what other evidence has been, or can be, given on the matter or evidence mentioned in
para (a);
(c) how important the matter or evidence mentioned in para (aq) is in the context of the case
as a whole;
(9) whether oral evidence of the matter stated can be given and, if not, why not;
(i) the extent to which that difficulty would be likely to prejudice the party facing it.
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In assessing these factors, the court will need to have regard to the defendant's right to a fair
trial enshrined in Article 6 of the ECHR (see below).
The Court of Appeal considered the application of s 114(1)(d) and s 114(2) in R v Taylor [2006]
EWCA Crim 260. The court held that to reach a proper conclusion on whether the evidence
should be admitted under s 114(1)(d), the trial judge was required to exercise his judgment
in the light of the factors in s 114(2), give consideration to them and to any other factors he
considered relevant and then to assess their significance and the weight that in his judgment
they carried. There is no need, however, for the judge to reach a specific conclusion in relation
to all the factors.
© Example 1
Maher v DPP [2006] EWHC 1271 (Admin) - the defendant was convicted of various road
tratfic offences after crashing her vehicle into another car (owned by X) and then leaving
the scene without leaving her contact details. The evidence against the defendant came
from a witness who claimed to have seen the accident and left a note attached to X's
car giving the registration number of the defendant's car. X’s partner saw the note and
telephoned the police, who made a record of the registration number on their incident
log. The note was subsequently lost. The issue for the Divisional Court was whether the
entry in the police log could be admitted as hearsay evidence. The Divisional Court said
the entry in the log was admissible under s 114(1)(d). There was nothing to suggest that it
was not in the interests of justice to admit the log, and the evidence was substantial and
reliable.
o Example 2
R v Z [2009] Crim LR 519 - the appellant appealed against his conviction for a number of
sexual offences that were of an historic nature. The relevant prosecution evidence came
from a witness who claimed that she had also been raped by the appellant at around the
same time as the present case. The witness though refused to give evidence on the basis
that she did not want to have to relive that period in her life and that she wanted to put
the whole incident behind her. In other words her refusal to testify did not come within any
of the recognised exceptions contained in s 116. The Court held that although the interests
of justice test under s 114(1)(d) may allow evidence to be adduced which fell outside
s 116, such evidence would only usually apply to hearsay evidence which formed part
of the incident itself. The witness’s apparent untested reluctance to testify did not merit
admission under this provision. To do so would wrongly circumvent the provisions of s 116.
To admit such evidence would have been extremely prejudicial to the appellant and very
difficult for him to properly challenge.
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repeating details of that confession when the officer gives evidence at the defendant's trial.
Similarly, the rules in Part 20 will not apply if the hearsay evidence is admissible under any of
the preserved common law exceptions to the rule excluding hearsay evidence. The significance
of this is that if the hearsay evidence to be adduced at trial does not fall within one or more of
the four sections noted at (a) to (d) above, the party seeking to rely on that evidence will not
need to serve on the other party notice of its intention to rely on such evidence.
A party wishing to adduce hearsay evidence to which Part 20 applies, or to oppose another
party's application to introduce such evidence, must give notice of its intention to do this both
to the court and to the other parties in the case (CrimPR, r 20.2). Notice must be given using
a set of prescribed forms. As part of the standard directions that will be given in both the
magistrates’ court and the Crown Court (see Chapter 6), the court will impose time limits for
the CPS and the defendant to give notice of their intention to adduce hearsay evidence at
trial. The relevant time limits are set out in CrimPR, r 20.2(3) (for the CPS) and CrimPR, r 20.2(4)
(for the defendant).
However, r 20.5 of the CrimPR allows the court to dispense with the requirement to give notice
of hearsay evidence, to allow notice to be given orally rather than in writing, and to shorten or
extend the time limits for giving notice.
9.6.1 Definition
A confession is ‘any statement wholly or partly adverse to the person who made it, whether
made to a person in authority or not and whether made in words or otherwise’ (PACE 1984, s
82(1)).
Anything said by a defendant that constitutes an admission of any element of the offence
with which they are subsequently charged, or that is in any way detrimental to their case, will
satisfy the definition of a confession in s 82(1).
© Example 1
Jade is arrested on suspicion of theft from a supermarket. When interviewed at the police
station, Jade tells the polices ‘Yeah, it was me who nicked the stuff. | wanted to sell it to
get money for drugs.’ Jade’s comments satisfy the definition of a confession in s 82(1)
because she has admitted to carrying out the theft and it is therefore ‘wholly adverse’
to her.
© Example 2
PC Nowak is called to a pub where an assault has taken place. On arriving at the pub,
PC Nowak obtains a description of the person alleged to have committed the assault.
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Shortly after leaving the pub, PC Nowak sees Michael in the street. Michael matches the
description of the person who committed the assault. PC Nowak asks Michael if he has
been at the pub that evening. Michael replies: ‘Yeah, but | only hit him in self-defence.’
Although Michael has not admitted to committing the assault, his comments still satisfy the
definition of a confession in s 82(1) above. This is because, in the event that Michael is
later charged with the assault, the comments he made will be ‘partly adverse’ to his case.
Michael admits to having been at the pub, and also admits to hitting the victim, so this is
at least ‘partly adverse’ to his case.
96:2 Admissibility
As we saw earlier, a confession made by a defendant prior to trial will be admissible in
evidence at trial by virtue of s 76(1) of PACE 1984:
In any proceedings a confession made by an accused person may be given in
evidence against him insofar as it is relevant to any matter in issue in the proceedings
and is not excluded by the court in pursuance of this section:
This means that a confession will be admissible at trial to prove the truth of its contents (ie to
prove the defendant's guilt) and is therefore also an exception to the hearsay rule.
o Example 1
Juan is charged with theft. He admits the theft in an audibly recorded interview at the
police station. A transcript of the interview is subsequently read out at Juan’s trial. The
transcript is hearsay evidence, but it will be admissible in evidence by virtue of s 76(1) to
prove his guilt.
© Example 2
Ayesha is arrested on suspicion of theft. As she is being arrested, Ayesha tells the
arresting officer: ‘Okay | did it. You know | only steal because | have no money.’
At Ayesha’s trial, the arresting officer repeats the comment made by Ayesha at the time of
her arrest. This will be hearsay evidence, but it will be admissible in evidence by virtue of
s 76(1) to prove Ayesha’s guilt.
© Example 3
Steve is charged with theft. He denied the theft when interviewed at the police station,
but later admits to his friend Tianna that he committed the theft. Tianna has provided the
CPS with a statement in which she repeats the confession which Steve has made. If Tianna
repeats this at court when giving oral evidence, this will be hearsay evidence, but it will
be admissible in evidence by virtue of s 76(1) to prove Steve’s guilt.
ye Mixed statements
A confession may sometimes also include a statement which is favourable to the defendant.
These are referred to as ‘mixed statements’. The whole statement will be admissible under s
76(1) as an exception to the rule excluding hearsay evidence.
© Example
Connor is charged with rape. When interviewed at the police station, he says: ‘I did have
sex with her, but only because she consented.’ This is a mixed statement, because Connor
makes a confession (admitting to having sexual intercourse with the complainant) but he
also makes a statement favourable to his defence (saying that it was consensual). The
entire statement will be admissible under s 76(1).
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o Example
Trisha and Matthew are jointly charged with theft. Tricia is to plead guilty and Matthew
will plead not guilty. Tricia enters her guilty plea on her first appearance before the court.
She then gives a statement to the CPS stating that she and Matthew committed the theft
together. As Tricia is no longer being tried with Matthew (because she has pleaded
guilty), she will be able to give evidence as a prosecution witness at Matthew’s trial. If
when giving evidence, Tricia states that she and Martyn committed the theft together, this
confession will be admissible in evidence against Matthew.
The longstanding position at common law has been that a pre-trial confession made by one
defendant which also implicates another defendant is admissible only against the defendant
who makes the confession. This is also supported by s 76(1) which provides that ‘In any
proceedings a confession made by an accused person may be given in evidence against him’
and is silent about its admissibility against anyone else.
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© Example
Jeff is charged with murder. When interviewed at the police station he confessed to
having committed the murder. At his trial, Jeff argues that the confession was obtained
by oppression and should be ruled inadmissible by the trial judge. The CPS must prove
beyond a reasonable doubt that the confession was not obtained by oppression, even if
the judge believes the confession to be true. If the prosecution fails to do this, the judge
must not allow evidence of the confession to be placed before the jury.
Oppression
Section 76(8) of PACE 1984 states that ‘oppression’ includes ‘torture, inhuman or degrading
treatment, and the use or threat of violence (whether or not amounting to torture)’. In Rv
Fulling [1987] 2 WLR 923, the Court of Appeal said that ‘oppression’ consisted of ‘the exercise
of authority or power in a burdensome, harsh or wrongful manner; unjust or cruel treatment of
subjects, inferiors, etc; the imposition of unreasonable or unjust burdens’:
A good example of oppression can be seen in the case of R v Paris (1993) 97 Cr App R
1999 - in an audibly recorded interview at the police station, the defendant was bullied and
hectored into making a confession. The Court of Appeal said that, other than actual physical
violence, it would find it hard to, think of a more hostile and intimidating approach adopted by
interviewing officers.
Unreliability
This tends to be the more common basis upon which the defence will challenge admissibility.
For the court to exclude a confession under s 76(2)(b), something must be said or done which,
in the circumstances that existed at the time, would render unreliable any confession which
the defendant made. In other words, something must have been said or done (usually by the
police) which might have caused the defendant to make a confession for reasons other than
the fact that they had actually committed the offence and wanted to admit guilt. Although
s 76(2)(b) does not require deliberate misconduct on the part of the police, the thing which is
said or done will usually involve a breach of Code C of the Codes of Practice to PACE 1984.
Examples of the types of breach of Code C which may lead to a confession being excluded
on the grounds of unreliability include:
(a) denying a suspect refreshments or appropriate periods of rest between interviews, so that
the suspect is either not in a fit state to answer questions properly, or makes admissions
in interview simply to get out of the police station as soon as possible or to obtain rest or
refreshments (this may be particularly relevant if the suspect is suffering from some form
of illness or ailment, even if the police are not aware of this condition);
(b) offering a suspect an inducement to confess, for example, telling a suspect that if they
confess they will receive a lesser sentence, suggesting to the suspect that they will be
able to leave the police station much more quickly if they admit their guilt, or telling the
suspect that they will only be granted police bail if they make a confession;
(c) misrepresenting the strength of the prosecution case, for example by telling a suspect
that the prosecution case is much stronger than it actually is and that there is no point in
denying guilt;
(d) questioning a suspect in an inappropriate way, for example by repeatedly asking a
suspect the same question, or badgering a suspect until they give the answer the officer
wants to hear;
(e) questioning a suspect who the police should have known was not in a fit state to be
interviewed either because the suspect had consumed drink or drugs, or because the
suspect was suffering from some form of medical condition or ailment. The answers given
by such a suspect in interview may be unreliable;
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(f) threatening a suspect, for example by telling them that they will be kept at the police
station until they make a confession, so that the suspect thinks they have no option other
than to confess if they want to get out of the police station.
© Example 1
InRv-Trussler [1998] Crim-LR 446, the defendant was a drug addict who was kept in
custody for 18 hours. He was interviewed several times without being given any rest and
was denied.access to legal advice. His confession was excluded under s 76(2)(b).
o Example 2
In Rv.Alladice.(1998).87.Cr App. R380, the defendant was denied access to legal advice
and confessed to a robbery. When giving evidence at trial, the defendant stated that he
knew his rights and that he understood the police caution. The defendant's application to
exclude his confession was rejected by the trial judge. Although denying access to legal
advice was a serious breach of Code C, there was nothing to suggest that this might have
rendered any confession he had made unreliable, because he was fully aware of what his
rights were.
© Example
Bilal and Patrick are jointly charged with common assault. Both are pleading not guilty.
When Patrick was interviewed by the police, he confessed to having committed the crime.
Under s 76A(1), Bilal is entitled to raise Patrick’s confession in evidence at trial to show
that it was Patrick rather than he who committed the assault. However, Patrick argues
at trial that the confession he made when interviewed was obtained only as a result of
threats made by the police to keep him in custody indefinitely until he confessed, and
so is unreliable. If Bilal attempts to adduce evidence of Patrick’s confession and Patrick
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challenges the admissibility of this, the court must exclude the evidence of Patrick's
confession under s 76A(2) (even if the court believes the confession to be true) unless
the court is satisfied by Bilal on the balance of probabilities that the confession was not
obtained in circumstances making it unreliable.
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© Example
Rv Canale [1990] 2. All ER 187 = the police alleged that the defendant had made
certain admissions to them. The defendant denied making these admissions. The
interviewing officer to whom these admissions had allegedly been made failed to make
a contemporaneous note of the interviews as required by Code C, and the defendant
was therefore denied the opportunity to comment on the accuracy of the record of these
interviews. The evidence was excluded by the court under s 78 because its admission
would have had such an adverse effect on the fairness of the proceedings.
© Example
Max is charged with murder. As a result of a confession made by him, the police are
able to recover the murder weapon with Max’s fingerprints on it. The trial judge rules
that the confession is inadmissible under s 76(2)(b). The CPS will still be able to adduce
evidence as to the finding of the weapon with Max’s fingerprints on it even though it will
not be able to raise in evidence that this item was discovered as a result of a confession
made by Max. This evidence will still be an important piece of circumstantial evidence
against Max.
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Criminal Practice
Do comments made by the defendant amount to a confession (PACE s 82(1): ‘any statement wholly
or partly adverse to the person who made it’)?
Confession admissible at trial (as an Comments not admissible at trial unless they
exception to the rule excluding hearsay fall within one of the other exceptions to the
evidence) to prove the defendant's guilt rule excluding hearsay evidence
(PACE, s 76(1)) (CJA 2003, s 114(1))
!
| Application successful Application unsuccessful
|
Confession inadmissible at trial
Confession admissible at trial, but credibility
of confession may still be challenged in
cross-examination of prosecution witnesses
or when defendant gives evidence
184
Principles and Procedures to Admit and Exclude Evidence
© Example
Sean is charged with the murder of Frank, his father. The CPS alleges that Sean fabricated
a will in Frank’s name, leaving all Frank’s assets to Sean, and that Sean then murdered
Frank so that he could take these assets. The allegation that Sean fabricated Frank’s will
is an allegation of misconduct on the part of Sean. It will not fall within s 98 of the CJA
2003, however, because it is connected to the subsequent murder of Frank. Evidence of
the fabrication of the will is therefore admissible without needing to consider whether it
satisfies the test for admissibility of bad character evidence set out in the CJA 2003.
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Criminal Practice
Velbon (Gateway (by L the evidence is adduced by the defendant himself or is given in answer to a
question asked by him in cross-examination and intended to elicit it
This gateway allows a defendant to introduce evidence of their own bad character.
A defendant may do this if, for example they only have very minor previous convictions and do
not want the jury or magistrates to think that, because they are not adducing evidence of their
own good character, they may have extensive previous convictions. Another example of when
a defendant may do this is if they pleaded guilty on previous occasions but are pleading not
guilty to the current matter. The defendant may use such convictions to say to the jury that
they accept their guilt when they have committed an offence, but on this occasion they are
pleading not guilty because they genuinely have not committed the offence charged.
In R v Paton [2007] EWCA Crim 1572, the defendant was charged with kidnapping,
false imprisonment and firearms offences after he was alleged to have blindfolded and
interrogated the manageress of a garden centre about the security systems at the centre, and
then locked her in the boot of her car. Various items found in the defendant's car suggested
that the defendant had been the kidnapper. The defendant raised evidence of his own bad
character by claiming that these items had come from a burglary he had committed on an
earlier occasion, and that he was not guilty of the more serious offences charged.
Only the prosecution may adduce evidence of the defendant's bad character under gateway
(c). The gateway is, however, likely to be used only in limited circumstances. Evidence is
important explanatory evidence if:
(a) without it, the magistrates or jury would find it impossible or difficult properly to
understand the case; and
(b) the value of the evidence for understanding the case as a whole is substantial (CJA 2003,
s 102) (‘substantial’ in this context is likely to mean more than merely trivial or marginal).
© Example
In R v Campbell [2005] EWCA Crim 248, the defendant was convicted of the kidnapping and
murder of his 15-year-old niece. The prosecution alleged that the defendant was infatuated
with his niece and that his infatuation was partly sexual. The Court of Appeal held that the
trial judge had correctly allowed the prosecution to adduce bad character evidence that the
defendant had downloaded material from teenage sex sites, because such evidence was
necessary to explain the defendant's motive for committing the offence.
Case law does make it clear that where the evidence is clearly understandable without
evidence of bad character, it should not be admitted (see for example R v Davis (2008)
172 JP 358 and R v Broome [2012] EWCA Crim 2879).
lf the prosecution can establish that the test for admitting evidence of the defendant's bad
character through this gateway is satisfied, the court has no power under the CJA 2003 to
prevent the admission of this evidence. The court does, however, retain the discretionary
power to exclude such evidence under s 78 of PACE 1984 (see later).
9.7.2.4 (Gateway (a)l- it is relevant to an important matter in issue between the defendant and the
prosecution
In practice this is by far the most important gateway relied on by the prosecution. Important
matters in issue between the defendant and prosecution include:
(a) the question whether the defendant has a propensity to commit offences of the kind with
which he is charged (except where his having such propensity makes it no more likely that
he is guilty of the offence); and
186
Principles and Procedures to Admit and Exclude Evidence
(b) the question whether the defendant has a propensity to be untruthful (except where it is
not suggested that the defendant's case is untruthful in any respect) (CJA 2003, s 103(1)).
Only the prosecution may adduce evidence of a defendant’s bad character under
gateway (d).
o Example
Josh is on trial for common assault. Josh has a previous conviction for common assault.
This conviction occurred 15 years ago. Josh’s solicitor will argue that this previous
conviction should not be admitted in evidence at Josh’s trial to show that Josh has a
propensity to commit this type of offence. Given the amount of time that has elapsed
since Josh's previous conviction, he will argue under s 103(3) that it would be unjust for
this conviction to be used in the present case.
Two offences will be of the same description as each other if the statement of the offence in
a written charge or an indictment would, in each case, be in the same terms (CJA 2003,
s 103(4)(a)).
© Example
Peter is charged with assault occasioning actual bodily harm. He pleads not guilty on the
basis that he was acting in reasonable self-defence. He has two previous convictions for
the same offence. These will be offences of the same description because they would be
described in the same way in a written charge or an indictment. The CPS may therefore
attempt to raise these convictions at trial to show that Peter has a propensity to commit
offences of this type.
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Criminal Practice
ie) Example
Esme pleads not guilty to a charge of theft. She has two previous convictions for offences
of burglary and one previous conviction for handling stolen goods. These will be offences
of the same category because they fall within the ‘theft category’ prescribed by the
Secretary of State. The CPS may therefore seek to raise these convictions in evidence to
show that Esme has a propensity to commit offences of this type.
o Example
In R-v.Brimas{[2006}EWCA Crim 408, the Court of Appeal held that previous convictions
for assault and robbery which both involved the use of a knife were admissible in the
defendant's trial for murder where the defendant was alleged to have stabbed his victim.
The convictions demonstrated that the defendant had a propensity to commit violent
offences using a knife.
Guidelines
In Rw Ha , Gilmore & Pickstone [2005] Crim LR 787, the Court of Appeal set out
guidelines for judges or magistrates to consider when the CPS seeks to adduce evidence of a
defendant's previous convictions in order to demonstrate his propensity to commit offences of
the kind with which he is charged. The court stated as follows:
(a) Three questions need to be considered should the CPS seek to adduce evidence
of the defendant's bad character under this part of gateway (d):
(i) Does the defendant's history of offending show a propensity to commit
offences?
(ii) If so, does that propensity make it more likely that the defendant committed
the current offence?
188
Principles and Procedures to Admit and Exclude Evidence
© Example
In Rv Bennabou [2012] EWCA Crim 3088 the Court of Appeal held that a single conviction
for rape ought not to have been adduced as bad character evidence in relation to
counts of sexual assault and assault by penetration. The appellant argued that the rape
conviction was a single offence committed some eight years before the first of the two
offences being tried, and that the circumstances of the earlier offence were markedly
different. It was further submitted that even if the previous conviction would otherwise
be admissible, it should be excluded in the judge’s discretion because its admission
would have such an adverse effect on the fairness of the proceedings that it ought not
to be admitted (CJA 2003, s 101(3)). The Court of Appeal held that the rape conviction,
though technically admissible, should not have been admitted in evidence. It bore some
limited similarities in relation to the current offences, but there were also dissimilarities.
Accordingly, the probative value of the earlier rape in establishing a relevant propensity
was limited. On the other hand, the admission of the evidence must have had a highly
prejudicial effect on the fairness of the trial. The court went on to say that it was not
suggesting, by saying that the rape conviction was technically admissible, that an offence
of rape will always amount to unusual behaviour of the kind referred to in the case of
Hanson. Sometimes it may, but it would be wrong to approach any case on the basis that
a rape would necessarily attract that description.
Propensity to be untruthful
The CPS. may also place before the court evidence of a defendant's previous convictions to
show that the defendant has a propensity to be untruthful and therefore that evidence given
by the defendant at trial may lack credibility. The CPS will be allowed to do this only if it is
suggested that the defendant's case is in any way untruthful (s 103(1)(b)).
inson, Gilmore & Pickstone, the Court of
Appeal held that a defendant's previous
BaHvietons will not be admissible to show that the defendant has a propensity to be untruthful
unless:
(a) the manner in which the previous offence was committed demonstrates that the defendant
has such a propensity (because they had made false representations); or
(b) the defendant pleaded not guilty to the earlier offence but was convicted following a trial
at which the defendant testified and was not believed.
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Criminal Practice
be untruthful will they become admissible under this gateway. The court stressed that the
only types of offence that would demonstrate such a propensity were offences where the
defendant had actively sought to deceive or mislead another person by the making of false
representations. This includes previous convictions for perjury and offences involving an active
deception of another (such as fraud by false representation), but not other offences where
dishonesty forms part of the mental element of the offence but where the defendant has
not actually been untruthful and has not actively deceived anyone. For example, a previous
conviction for theft is unlikely to demonstrate a propensity to be untruthful because, unless
the defendant had actually sought to mislead or had lied to another person as part of the
commission of the theft, although the defendant had acted dishonestly, they had not been
untruthful.
© Example
Duleep is charged with common assault. The CPS alleges that he punched his victim in
the face for no reason. Duleep denies the charge, claiming that-he was initially attacked
by his victim and that he was acting only in self-defence. Duleep’s alleged victim refutes
this. Duleep has previous convictions for perjury and fraud by false representation. These
are offences which the CPS may attempt to raise in evidence to demonstrate that Duleep
has a propensity to be untruthful and therefore show that the victim’s evidence at trial is
more likely to be truthful than Duleep’s.
Offences of any description may also fall within this part of gateway (d) if the defendant
pleaded not guilty, testified but was convicted following a trial at which the court disbelieved
their version of events, since this will demonstrate that the defendant has been found by a
court to have been untruthful on a previous occasion.
o Example
Kate is charged with common assault. She is pleading not guilty and will raise the
defence of alibi at trial. Kate has several previous convictions for various offences.
On each occasion she pleaded not guilty and raised the defence of alibi but was
convicted following a trial in which her alibi was disbelieved. The CPS may attempt
to raise these previous convictions in evidence to show that Kate has a propensity to
be untruthful.
(a) when the nature of a defendant's previous convictions is such that the jury are likely to
convict a defendant on the basis of these convictions alone, rather than examining the
other evidence placed before them, or where the evidence of the previous convictions is
more prejudicial than probative (see R v Bennabou above);
190
Principles and Procedures to Admit and Exclude Evidence
(6) when the CPS seeks to adduce previous convictions to support a case which is otherwise
weak (R v Hanson, Gilmore & Pickstone [2005] Crim LR 787);
(c) when the defendant's previous convictions are ‘spent’. The Rehabilitation of Offenders Act
1974 provides that after a prescribed period of time, certain convictions are spent. This
means that, for most purposes (such as completing an application form for a job), the
convicted person is to be treated as never having been convicted of the spent offence.
The rehabilitation period varies with the sentence, as follows:
Although the Act specifically does not prevent ‘spent’ convictions from being admissible
in evidence in subsequent criminal proceedings, it is likely that the court will consider
exercising its power under s 101(3) in such cases. In particular, s 101(4) provides that when
an application to exclude evidence is made under s 101(3), the court must have regard to the
length of time between the matters to which that evidence relates and the matters which form
the subject of the offence charged.
fine 1 year
191
Criminal Practice
The defendant's solicitor may seek to challenge the admissibility of previous convictions which
the prosecution seeks to admit under gateway (d) in two ways:
(a) Arguing that the previous convictions do not actually demonstrate the relevant propensity
and so do not satisfy gateway (d). For example:
(i) How many convictions does the defendant have? One conviction is unlikely to show a
propensity.
(ii) If the previous convictions are being adduced to show a propensity to commit
offences of the same kind:
- do the factual circumstances of the previous convictions differ from the facts of the
current offence;
- would it be unjust to rely on them given the time which has elapsed since they
occurred
(s 103(3)); or
- does the propensity make it no more likely that the defendant is guilty of the
offence?
(iii) If the previous convictions are being adduced to show a propensity to be untruthful, is
it not suggested that the defendant's case is in any way untruthful?
(b) If the previous convictions do show the relevant propensity, can the court be persuaded
to exercise its power under s 101(3) to exclude the convictions? Arguments that may be
raised include:
(i) Would the convictions be more prejudicial than probative? Is there a danger that the
defendant would be convicted on the basis of their previous convictions alone, due
either to the extent or to the nature of such convictions?
(ii) Are the convictions being used to support a prosecution case that is
otherwise weak?
(iii) Are the previous convictions spent?
192
Principles and Procedures to Admit and Exclude Evidence
© Example
Rv. Edwards and Others [2005] EWCA Crim 3244 = two defendants (M and S) were
(Jointly charged\with wounding with intent to cause GBH. Both defendants entered not
guilty pleas, on the basis that they were not involved in the attack on the victim. Neither
defendant sought to blame the other for the attack. M had previous convictions for
offences of wounding, assault and affray. S made an application under gateway (e) to
adduce evidence of these convictions on the basis that they demonstrated a propensity to
act in a violent manner. The trial judge granted this application, and M was subsequently
convicted. The Court of Appeal upheld the conviction. The court’s reasoning was that each
defendant's defence was that he was not involved in the violence, and if one defendant
has previous convictions for offences of violence, this has a substantial probative value to
the issue between them, namely, which of them was in fact responsible for the offence.
Propensity to be untruthful
Section 104(1) of the CJA 2003 states:
>) (1) Evidence which is relevant to the question whether the defendant has a
propensity to be untruthful is admissible on that basis under section 101(1)(e) only
Jithe nature or conduct of his defence is such as to undermine the co-defendant's
defence.
This part of the gateway is most relevant where the defendants enter into what is called a ‘cut-
throat’ defence. This occurs when there are two (or more) defendants jointly charged with an
offence, and each defendant pleads not guilty and blames the other(s) as having committed
the offence. In such a situation, it will be an advantage for a co-defendant to be able to
adduce evidence of his fellow defendant's previous convictions, in order to undermine the
credibility of that defendant’s evidence and to suggest that their version of events is the more
credible.
The most relevant previous convictions of a defendant which a co-defendant will seek to
adduce in evidence in order to demonstrate that the defendant has a propensity to be
untruthful will be convictions for specific offences which involve the making of a false statement
or representation (for example, perjury or fraud by false representation), or convictions for
any offence where the defendant was convicted at trial after entering a not guilty plea and
testifying but not being believed by the court.
o Example
Murad and Arthur are jointly charged with the burglary of a warehouse. Each pleads
not guilty, alleging that the other was solely responsible for carrying out the burglary.
Murad has several previous convictions for offences of obtaining property by deception.
As Murad’s defence (that Arthur carried out the burglary) will clearly undermine Arthur's
defence, at trial, Arthur will adduce evidence of Murad’s previous convictions to show that
Murad has a propensity to be untruthful, and so undermine the credibility of the evidence
that Murad gives.
If the co-defendant can establish that the test for admitting evidence of the defendant’s
bad character through this gateway is satisfied, the court has no power under the CJA
2003 to prevent the admission of this evidence.
9.7.2.6 ateway (f)+ it is evidence to correct a false impression given by the defendant
Only the prosecution may adduce evidence of a defendant's bad character under gateway (f).
A defendant will give a false impression ‘if he is responsible for the making of an express or
implied assertion which is apt to give the court or jury a false or misleading impression about
the defendant’.
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Criminal Practice
A defendant will be treated as being responsible for making such an assertion if the assertion is:
(a) made by the defendant in the proceedings (for example, when giving evidence in the
witness box, or in a defence statement served on the CPS);
(b) made by the defendant when being questioned under caution by the police before
charge, or on being charged;
(c) made by a witness called by the defendant;
(d) made by any witness in cross-examination in response to a question asked by the
defendant that is intended to elicit it; or
(e) made by any person out of court, and the defendant adduces evidence of it in the
proceedings (CJA 2003, s 105(2)).
© Example
Phillip is on trial for common assault. Phillip has several previous convictions for offences
involving violence. When the allegation of assault was put to Phillip in interview at the
police station, Phillip said: ‘| would never do such a thing. I’m a good Christian and | go
to church every Sunday.’ The CPS will be allowed to correct the false impression given by
Phillip in the police interview by adducing evidence of his previous convictions.
If the prosecution can establish that the test for admitting evidence of the defendant's bad
character through this gateway is satisfied, the court has no power under the CJA 2003 to
prevent the admission of this evidence. The court does, however, retain the discretionary
power to exclude such evidence under s 78 of PACE 1984 (see below).
OILS Gateway (g) - the defendant has made an attack on another person's character
What constitutes an attack on another person's character?
Under this gateway, a defendant's bad character will become admissible if the defendant
makes an attack on any person’s character. The attack does not necessarily need to be on the
character of a witness for the prosecution who is attending court to give evidence (although
commonly it will be). It may be an attack on the character of a person who is dead, or a
person whom the CPS does not intend to call to give evidence. Furthermore, the attack on
the character of the other person does not necessarily need to take place at trial. The attack
may be made when the defendant is being questioned at the police station, or in a defence
statement which is served on the CPS.
Only the prosecution may adduce evidence of a defendant's previous convictions under
gateway (g).
Evidence attacking another person’s character is evidence to the effect that the other
person has:
(a) committed an offence (whether a different offence from the one with which the defendant
is charged or the same one); or
(b) behaved, or is disposed to behave, in a reprehensible way (CJA 2003, s 106(2)).
Although the courts are likely to find that a defendant who makes an emphatic denial of
guilt has not attacked the character of another, it is likely that the courts will give a very wide
interpretation to this gateway.
1 In R v Ball [2005] EWCA Crim 2826, the defendant was charged with rape and raised the
defence of consent. When interviewed at the police station, the defendant denied the
complainant's version of what had taken place, but then went further and made a
disparaging remark about the complainant's sexual promiscuity, referring to her as a
‘slag’. This imputation was held to be sufficient to enable the CPS to raise at trial evidence
of the defendant's previous convictions. The Court of Appeal did say, however, that the
defendant's claim that the complainant had fabricated the allegation of rape would not
have been sufficient in itself to invoke s 101(1)(g).
194
Principles and Procedures to Admit and Exclude Evidence
© Example
R v Williams [2007] EWCA Crim 1951 - the defendant was charged with various sexual
offences. During cross-examination of the police officers in the case, it was alleged by the
defence that the officers had conspired to ‘set the defendant up’. The trial judge ruled that
this amounted to an attack on the character of the officers under gateway (g), and the
prosecution was allowed to adduce evidence of the defendant's previous conviction for
indecent assault. The Court of Appeal upheld the judge's ruling - whilst the defendant
would not have opened up gateway (g) merely by suggesting that the account of the
officers was untrue, to go further and allege a conspiracy was to make a clear attack on
the character of the officers.
© Example
Eddie is charged with assault occasioning actual bodily harm following a fight in a pub
when he is alleged to have pushed a fellow customer (John) to the ground, causing a
gash to John’s cheek. Eddie pleads not guilty and elects trial at the Crown Court. In his
interview at the police station, Eddie said to the police: ‘John’s had it in for me ever since
| moved in. He’s a troublemaker and a bully.’
This is an attack on John’s character which would then allow the prosecution to adduce
evidence of Eddie’s previous convictions at his trial. Eddie has previous convictions for a
number of sexual offences, including sexual assault and gross indecency with children.
Although these convictions would be admissible under gateway (gq), the trial judge may
exercise their power under s 101(3) to prevent the prosecution adducing evidence of
these convictions at trial. It is likely that the prejudicial effect of the jury finding out about
such convictions would outweigh the probative value of such convictions in determining
Eddie's guilt.
195
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Criminal Practice
Figure 9.3
196
Principles and Procedures to Admit and Exclude Evidence
9.8.1 Scope and application of s 78 PACE and the right to a fair trial
Article 6 of the ECHR provides that anyone charged with a criminal offence is entitled to a
‘fair’ hearing. The appellate courts have held, on several occasions, that the discretion given
to a trial judge to exclude evidence under s 78 where the admission of that evidence would
otherwise lead to unfairness, ensures that a defendant will receive a fair trial. Similarly, in
cases such as Khan v United Kingdom [2000] Crim LR 684, the European Court of Human
197
Criminal Practice
Rights has stated repeatedly that the key question to be answered when determining whether
the defendant's rights under Article 6 have been breached is whether the proceedings as a
whole were fair. The width of the discretion given to the trial judge by s 78 should ensure that
proceedings are conducted in a manner which is fair to the defendant.
Court exercises its discretion under Court does not exercise its discretion
s 78 to exclude the evidence under s 78 to exclude the evidence
198
Principles and Procedures to Admit and Exclude Evidence
© In the combined appeal of R v Loosely; AG’s Reference No 3 of 2000 /2001] UKHL 53, the
defendant in the second case had been supplied by undercover officers with cheap
cigarettes who in return asked him to supply them with heroin. The defendant did so, but
only after considerable persuasion and some apparent difficulty. He then put the
undercover officers in touch with his own supplier. The evidence was excluded by the trial
judge on the basis that this amounted to an abuse of process by the police. The House of
Lords agreed. They found that the police had incited the accused to commit the offence
and that the trial judge had been right to stay the proceedings as an abuse of process. In
one of the leading judgments, Lord Nicholls stated that every court has an inherent
(common law) power and duty to prevent an abuse of process. Entrapment was an
instance where such misuse of power could occur and that it was not acceptable for the
state to lure individuals into committing unlawful acts and then prosecute them for doing
so. In such circumstances, the court’s focus should be on the conduct and behaviour of the
police. Lord Nicholls went on to set out guidelines for trial judges when deciding whether
or not to stay proceedings for an abuse of process:
(1) The nature of the investigation - the more intrusive the investigation, the harder the
courts should scrutinise it.
(2) The nature of the offence. Certain offences can only be committed in a covert way
such as drug trafficking and therefore police can only crack them in a covert way.
(3) The nature of the police involvement. For example, how they behaved, how persistent
they were in trying to persuade the defendant to take part in the offence, for example
did they behave like a ‘normal customer’ might and no more.
4) The defendant's criminal record - usually this would not be relevant unless there was
evidence of recent similar involvement.
(5) The level and extent of supervision of the undercover officers.
Summary
In this chapter you have considered what the law, practice and procedure say about the
principles and procedures to admit and exclude evidence. Notably:
The operation of the burden and standard of proof. Firstly, how the evidential burden
operates differently on the prosecution to its operation on the defence. Secondly, how
the persuasive burden (legal burden) usually remains with the prosecution throughout
the trial and what the standard of proof is in relation to this burden, but how it may also
occasionally shift onto the defendant in relation to some specific defences.
Visual identification evidence and Turnbull guidance. What is meant by disputed visual
identification evidence and how the defence may first challenge its admissibility where it
has been obtained in breach of Code D and if this fails (or is not possible to argue) how
the Turnbull guidelines apply to such evidence.
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Criminal Practice
* The drawing of inferences from silence ss 34, 35, 36, 37, 38 Criminal Justice and Public
Order Act 1994, Although the defendant is said to have a right to silence at both the
police station and at court, when and in what circumstances a court may draw (adverse)
inferences from the defendant's exercise of this right.
¢ The admissibility of hearsay evidence. What is meant by hearsay and the four general
exceptions contained in the CJA 2003 as to when such evidence will be admissible.
* The admissibility of confession evidence. Being able to identify when something said
or done by a suspect amounts to a confession and how prima facie such evidence
is admissible as an exception to the hearsay rule. Then very importantly, how the
defence may challenge the admission of such evidence under either s 76(2) and/or s 78
PACE 1984.
¢ The admissibility of the defendant’s bad character. Firstly, the meaning of bad character
and then how such evidence may be admitted under one of 7 gateways available under
s 101(1) of the CJA 2003 and the extent of the court’s powers to exclude such evidence.
¢ Exclusion of improperly or unlawfully obtained evidence under s 78 PACE and the right
to a fair trial. How s 78 provides the court with a discretion to exclude such prosecution
evidence and the relationship between this discretion and the right to a fair trial under
Article 6 of the ECHR.
Sample questions
Question 1
A boy, aged 14, has been charged with robbery. The boy does not suffer from any
recognised medical condition but his mental age has been assessed as that of a 9-year-old
and he is distressed at the prospect of having to testify at trial.
If the boy does not testify, will it be appropriate for an adverse inference to be drawn
from his silence at trial?
A Yes, because an adverse inference will always be drawn if a defendant refuses to
testify at trial.
B_ Yes, because distress about testifying is not in itself a sufficient reason and will not by
itself prevent the drawing of an adverse inference.
C No, because an adverse inference cannot be drawn against a juvenile with a mental
age of a 9-year-old.
D_ No, because it appears that the mental condition of the boy makes it undesirable for
him to give evidence.
E Yes, because the court will require the boy to testify to put forward his defence if he is
to be acquitted.
Answer
Option B is the best answer because distress about testifying will not be sufficient to
engage s 35(1)(b). This exception provides a statutory exception to the drawing of such an
adverse inference where ‘it appears to the court that the physical or mental condition of the
accused makes it undesirable for him to give evidence’.
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Principles and Procedures to Admit and Exclude Evidence
So Option A is wrong because an adverse inference will not always be drawn where an
accused does not testify - option C is wrong because the mental age alone would not be
a sufficient reason (see R v Friend (1997)). Although option D does correctly state the above
statutory exception, on these facts, the boy does not appear to have a medical condition that
would make it undesirable for him to testify (contrast that with R v Friend (No2) (2004) where
evidence then came to light that the defendant also suffered from ADHD, which was found to
be such a medical condition). Option E is wrong because a defendant has a right to remain
silent at trial and cannot be convicted on his silence alone. Moreover, the boy does not
necessarily need to testify in order to be acquitted.
Question 2
A man has been arrested on suspicion of burglary, it being alleged that he stole some
computer equipment from premises he broke into. When interviewed, the man confesses
to the offence and also tells the police where the stolen items can be found. These are
recovered by the police and the man’s fingerprints are found on them. The interview was
however, conducted unlawfully and the defence will argue at trial that the confession ought
to be excluded on the basis that it was obtained in circumstances rendering it unreliable.
Assuming the man’s confession is excluded at trial, which of the following best
describes whether the prosecution will be allowed to adduce evidence of the finding of
the stolen items?
A The finding of the items is still relevant and admissible as the exclusion of the
confession will not affect the admissibility of this evidence.
B_ The finding of these items will still be admissible because the confession was not
excluded as a result of oppression.
C_ Any evidence resulting from an inadmissible confession will not be admitted at trial.
D_ It will always be more prejudicial than probative to allow such evidence to be
admitted.
E The finding of the items will be admissible unless it would have such an adverse effect
on the fairness of the proceedings that the court ought not admit it.
Answer
Option A is the statement that best describes the operation of s 76(4) PACE 1984 about the
admissibility of relevant facts discovered as a result of an inadmissible confession. Not only
is the finding of the stolen items relevant, but more importantly, the man’s fingerprints found
on the stolen items link him to the burglary.
Option B is wrong because s 76(4) operates regardless of whether the confession is
excluded under s 76(2)(a) or (b). Option C is also wrong. Although such evidence coming
from an inadmissible confession may not be admitted, this will by no means always be the
case. Option D is wrong because although evidence will generally be excluded under the
court's common law power (more prejudicial than probative) it will not ‘always’ be the case.
Option E is not the best description because this only sets out the test under s 78 PACE,
which is not the only test to apply when determining the admissibility of evidence.
Question 3
A man has been charged with murder. A key prosecution witness has subsequently died,
and the prosecution want to adduce her witness statement in the absence of the deceased
witness.
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Criminal Practice
What will the prosecution need to establish for the witness statement to be admitted?
A That she had first-hand knowledge of the matters contained in her witness statement
and all reasonable steps have been taken to secure her attendance.
B That she had first- or second-hand knowledge of the matter contained in her witness
statement and she is identified to the court's satisfaction.
C_ That she has died and so it is not reasonably practicable to secure her attendance and
she is identified to the court’s satisfaction.
D_ That she had first-hand knowledge of the matters contained in her witness statement
and is identified to the court's satisfaction.
E That she has died, and she had first-hand knowledge of the matters contained in her
witness statement and is identified to the court’s satisfaction.
Answer
Option E is the correct answer as it identifies the three key requirements needed to adduce
such hearsay evidence. Namely, that the witness had first-hand knowledge of the matters
contained in her witness statement,
-she is identified to the court’s satisfaction and the relevant
prescribed reason under s 116(2) is satisfied. Here (a), that the relevant person is dead.
Option A is wrong because it only refers to one of these requirements and then goes on to
mention part of another prescribed reason under s 116(2)(d). Option B is wrong because
s 116 only allows first-hand hearsay to be admitted. Option C is wrong because although
it does refer to two of the above requirements, it also refers to part of another prescribed
reason under s 116(2)(c). Option D is not the best answer because it fails to mention the
relevant prescribed reason, namely that the witness is dead.
202
Trial Procedure in the
Magistrates’ Court and
Crown Court
10.1 © Introduction 204
10.2 Burden and standard of proof 204
10.3. Stages of a criminal trial, including submission of no case to answer 204
10.4 Modes of address and court room etiquette Bad
10.5 Difference between leading and non-leading questions 217
10.6 Competence and compellability 219
fei 10.7 Special measures 222
10.8 Solicitor’s duty to the court 223
SQE1 syllabus
This chapter will enable you to achieve the SQE1 Assessment Specification in relation
to Functioning Legal Knowledge concerned with the following procedures and
processes:
¢ burden and standard of proof;
¢ stages of a criminal trial, including submission of no case to answer;
¢ modes of address and court room etiquette;
¢ difference between leading and non-leading questions;
* competence and compellability;
* special measures;
¢ — solicitor’s duty to the court.
Note that, for SQE1, candidates are not usually required to recall specific case names
or cite statutory or regulatory authorities. These are provided for illustrative purposes
only unless otherwise stated.
Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to apply relevant core legal principles
and rules appropriately and effectively, at the level of a competent newly qualified
solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based and ethical problems and situations in the
following areas:
* How the burden and standard of proof operates in a criminal trial.
¢ The various stages of a criminal trial, including when and how to make a
submission of no case to answer.
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Criminal Practice
* The modes of address and court room etiquette to follow when conducting a
criminal trial.
* The difference between leading and non-leading questions and when itis most e
e
10.1 Introduction
The process of trials in the magistrates’ court and Crown Court are heavily prescribed. This is
aimed at ensuring a fair trial for the accused which will culminate in the magistrates/district
judge or a jury of peers reaching their verdict. This verdict represents the climax of the trial.
It may then result in the passing of a sentence and possibly an appeal against any resulting
conviction and/or sentence which we shall look at in the following two chapters.
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Trial Procedure in the Magistrates’ Court and Crown Court
(d) The defence witnesses will then be called in turn to give evidence (with the defendant
being called first). Each witness will be examined in chief by the defendant's solicitor and
will then be cross-examined by the prosecuting solicitor. The defendant's solicitor may
then choose to re-examine the witness.
(e) The prosecuting solicitor may make a closing speech where the defendant is represented,
or the defendant has introduced evidence other than his own (whether represented or not).
(f) Closing speech by the defendant's solicitor.
(g) The magistrates retire to consider their verdict.
(h) The magistrates deliver their verdict.
(i) If the defendant is found guilty, the magistrates will then either sentence the defendant
immediately, or adjourn sentence until later if they wish to obtain pre-sentence reports on
the defendant. If acquitted, the defendant will be formally discharged by the magistrates
and told that they are free to go.
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Criminal Practice
© Example
Ryan is charged with theft. In an audibly recorded interview at the police station he
confessed to the theft, and the CPS wishes to adduce evidence of this at Ryan’s trial.
Ryan’‘s solicitor challenges the admissibility of the confession, arguing that it was obtained
in circumstances which make it unreliable. The basis of this argument is that Ryan claims
that he confessed only after being told by the interviewing officer that he was going to be
kept at the police station until he made a confession. At the voir dire, the magistrates are
likely to hear evidence from Ryan and the interviewing officer, and they will also read a
transcript of the interview or have the recording of the interview played out. Submissions
will also be made by the prosecutor and Ryan’s solicitor. At the conclusion of the voir dire,
the magistrates decide that the confession is inadmissible. This means that the prosecutor
cannot use the confession as part of their case against Ryan.
The difficulty faced by the defendant's solicitor when conducting a voir dire in the magistrates’
court is that the magistrates decide matters of both law and fact. This means that even if
the magistrates decide that a piece of prosecution evidence is inadmissible, the magistrates —
will still be aware of the existence of that item of evidence. This situation will not arise in a
Crown Court trial where the judge will conduct a voir dire in the absence of the jury, who will
therefore never hear about any prosecution evidence which the judge rules to be inadmissible.
The absence of a satisfactory procedure for dealing with the question of the admissibility of
disputed prosecution evidence in a magistrates’ court trial is one reason why a defendant
may elect trial in the Crown Court when charged with an either-way matter (see Chapter 6).
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Trial Procedure in the Magistrates’ Court and Crown Court
As an alternative to holding a separate ‘trial within a trial’, the magistrates may sometimes
hear the disputed evidence as part of the trial itself, and then consider the question of the
admissibility of such evidence either when the defendant's solicitor makes a submission of no
case to answer at the conclusion of the prosecution case (see below), or when the defence
makes their closing submissions at the end of the trial.
To overcome problems at trial with magistrates being aware of the existence of an item of
prosecution evidence, even if they have decided that such evidence is inadmissible, many
magistrates’ courts now hold pre-trial hearings to determine the admissibility of disputed
evidence. Pre-trial hearings will be held before a different bench of magistrates to the bench
which ultimately conducts the trial, thus ensuring that the magistrates who actually decide the
case need never be aware of items of evidence which are inadmissible.
© Example 1
Harvinder is charged with the theft of a bicycle. In presenting their case, the prosecutor
fails to produce evidence that the bicycle belonged to another person. Proving that the
item stolen belonged to another person is an essential element in the offence of theft.
Harvinder’s solicitor should therefore make a submission of no case to answer and
request that the magistrates dismiss the case.
© Example 2
Lee is charged with assault occasioning actual bodily harm following an incident outside
a nightclub. The victim of the alleged assault claims that he was the subject of an
unprovoked attack by Lee, whom he did not know before the incident. The defence case
is that Lee only used reasonable force to defend himself. The prosecution case is based
solely on evidence from the complainant. In cross-examination by Lee’s solicitor, this
evidence is shown to be unreliable. The complainant accepts that in fact he threw the first
punch and he also admits that he knew Lee before the incident, because his ex-girlfriend
left him to go out with Lee. He also admits that he exaggerated the extent of his injuries.
At the conclusion of the prosecution case, Lee’s solicitor will make a submission of no
case to answer on the basis that the prosecution evidence is so manifestly unreliable that
the court cannot safely convict on it.
In practice it is usually difficult to make a successful submission of no case to answer, because
not much prosecution evidence is actually required to get past this halfway stage.
This can be seen from the following case.
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Criminal Practice
© In R v Sardar [2016] EWCA Crim 1616 the accused was charged with murdering a US
soldier in Iraq from an improvised explosive device (IED). Sir Brian Leveson applied the
test in Galbraith and in doing so relied on a passage from King CJ’s judgment in
Questions of Law Reserved on Acquittal (No 2 of 1993) (1993) 61 SASR 1. Namely, where
there is direct evidence capable of proving the charge, then there will always be a case
to answer, no matter how weak or tenuous this appears. If the case depends on
circumstantial evidence, there will only be no case to answer where the evidence is not
capable in law of supporting a conviction. So in a case where the prosecution is solely
relying on circumstantial evidence, if all the prosecution evidence was accepted and all
the inferences favourable to the prosecution were drawn from this evidence, if a
reasonable mind could still not reach a conclusion of guilt beyond a reasonable doubt, or
exclude other hypotheses consistent with innocence, then the prosecution will not have
discharged their evidential burden. In this case, the circumstantial evidence was that the
accused was in the region at the time. He was in possession of information about
terrorism and bomb-making equipment and his fingerprints were found.on other, similar
IEDs which had been deployed in the same narrow geographical area during the same
time period. On this evidence, it was held that he was rightly found to have a case
to answer.
If the magistrates accept a submission of no case to answer, the charge against the
defendant will be dismissed. If the magistrates reject the submission of no case to answer, the
defendant may then present their case and call witnesses. The fact that the prosecution has
satisfied their evidential burden does not mean that the prosecution is entitled to a conviction
at that stage. This is because the court will not yet have heard either from the defendant, or
from any witnesses the defendant wishes to call in support of their defence.
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Trial Procedure in the Magistrates’ Court and Crown Court
The effect of s 35 is that, if the prosecution has raised issues which call for an explanation
from the defendant, should the defendant then fail to give evidence, the court will be entitled
to infer from that failure that the defendant has either no explanation, or no explanation that
will stand up to cross-examination.
© Example
Lewis is charged with common assault. Lewis pleads not guilty on the basis that he was
acting in self-defence. At the end of the prosecution case, Lewis declines to enter the
witness box to give evidence on his own behalf. The court is entitled to infer from this that
Lewis has no defence to the charge, or no defence that will stand up to cross-examination
(in other words, an inference that Lewis is guilty of the offence).
Defendant competent to give evidence on his own behalf but not compellable
Advantages: Disadvantages:
* avoid s 35 adverse inferences ¢ could incriminate himself in
* dispute/put in content evidence witness box
of prosecution witnesses * account may not stand up to
* explain his conduct (eg, why he cross-examination
made a confession to the police)
¢ enhance his credibility if gives
same account as gave in police
station interview
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Criminal Practice
210
Trial Procedure in the Magistrates’ Court and Crown Court
(c) The defendant's solicitor should refer back to the opening speech made by the
prosecutor, in which the prosecutor set out what they were going to prove. The
defendant's solicitor should point out each and every area where the prosecution case
has ‘come up short’. The defendant's solicitor should place particular emphasis on the
factual weaknesses or discrepancies in the prosecution case.
(d) The defendant's solicitor may also need to cover evidential issues during the closing
speech. If, for example, the prosecution has relied upon disputed identification evidence,
the defendant's solicitor will need to give a Turnbull warning to the magistrates.
Alternatively, if the prosecution has been allowed to rely on disputed confession evidence,
the defendant's solicitor should seek to undermine the credibility of such evidence. If the
evidence of the defendant's bad character has emerged at trial, the defendant's solicitor
will need to downplay the significance of such evidence.
(e) The closing speech is all about persuasion. In other words, the defendant's solicitor
should ‘show’ the magistrates how to find the defendant not guilty. It is often a sensible
tactic to conclude the closing speech by listing all the weaknesses of the prosecution case
(and the strengths of the defence case), and then invite the magistrates to conclude that
the only possible verdict is one of not guilty.
211
Criminal Practice
-— a
Submission of no case to answer by
defence at close of the prosecution case
=
Defence witnesses give evidence i
Tos.
Closing speech by defence
Verdict announced
Not guilty
Defendant
discharged
sentence report
Sentence
212
Trial Procedure in the Magistrates’ Court and Crown Court
The advocates appearing on behalf of the prosecution and defence will either be solicitors
who have obtained their higher rights of audience qualification or barristers.
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Criminal Practice
confession). It is normal practice for the defence to notify the prosecutor prior to the trial
of any items of prosecution evidence of which they will seek to challenge the admissibility
at trial. Often the issue is dealt with at a hearing prior to the trial date and the judge may
rule on the admissibility then; at times it is dealt with on the day of trial prior to the jury
being ‘empanelled’. Where it is not resolved before the start of the trial, the prosecutor,
having advance notice of the issue, will not mention these items of evidence during their
opening speech.
When the relevant point is reached during the presentation of the prosecution case, the
judge will ask the jury to retire and will then conduct the voir dire. The judge will hear
evidence from witnesses, and then legal submissions from both parties’ advocates about
the item of evidence in dispute. The judge will then make their ruling. If the judge rules
that a particular piece of evidence is inadmissible, the jury will never hear about that
piece of evidence. If the judge rules that the evidence is admissible, the party wishing to
rely on that evidence (usually the prosecution) may then raise it during the trial. It will still
be open to the other party (usually the defence) to attempt to undermine the reliability or
cogency of that evidence either when cross-examining the witness giving the evidence, or
when examining-in-chief their own witnesses.
At the conclusion of the prosecution case, defence counsel may make a submission that
there is no case for the defendant to answer. This submission will be made to the judge in
the absence of the jury. The test which the judge will apply in deciding whether there is a
case to answer is the same ‘Galbraith test’, which we looked at for summary trials.
If the submission of no case to answer is successful, the jury will be asked to return, and
the judge will instruct them to return a verdict of not guilty. If the submission of no case
to answer is unsuccessful, the judge may allow the defendant to change their plea from
not guilty to guilty at this stage. A defendant may wish to do this if, for example, they
have admitted their guilt to their solicitor but put the prosecution to proof of their case.
A defendant may also wish to change their plea to guilty at the end of the prosecution
case if the trial judge has made a ruling on a point of law, or on the admissibility of
a piece of evidence, which deprives the defendant of a defence upon which they had
hoped to rely.
lf the submission of no case to answer is unsuccessful (and the defendant does not seek
to change his plea), or no submission is made, the defence advocate will then present the
defendant's case. If the defence intend calling a witness or witnesses in addition to the
defendant, defence counsel is entitled to make an opening speech to the jury. They are
not entitled to do this if only the defendant is to give evidence. If there is more than one
defendant, each defendant will present their case in turn. The order in which this is done
will follow the order in which the defendants’ names appear on the indictment.
Witnesses for the defence will then be called to give evidence. The defendant will be
called first (assuming they are to give evidence). Should the defendant fail to give
evidence, the judge will direct the jury that they may draw an adverse inference from
such silence under s 35 of the CJPOA 1994 (see Chapter 9). Each defence witness will be
examined in chief by the defence advocate, cross-examined by the prosecutor and then (if
necessary) re-examined by the defence advocate.
At the conclusion of the defence case, both prosecuting and defence advocates will
deliver a closing speech to the jury. The prosecutor will give their closing speech first,
followed by the defence.
Before the jury retire to consider their verdict, the judge will then give their ‘summing up’
to the jury. The summing up has two parts, namely directions on the law and a summary
of the evidence.
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Trial Procedure in the Magistrates’ Court and Crown Court
When the judge directs the jury on the law, they will cover three areas:
(i) the burden and standard of proof;
(ii) the legal requirements of the offence; and
(iii) any other issues of law and evidence that have arisen during the trial (for example, a
Turnbull warning in the case of disputed identification evidence, or a direction as to the
drawing of adverse inferences under ss 34 to 37 of the CJPOA 1994).
A very common ground of appeal raised by defendants following conviction at a trial in the
Crown Court is that the judge has misdirected the jury on a point of law or evidence.
When the judge gives the jury a summary of the evidence, they will provide the following:
(i) a succinct summary of the issues of fact that the jury has to decide;
(ii) an accurate and concise summary of the evidence and arguments raised by both
prosecution and defence; and
(iii) a correct statement of the inferences the jury is entitled to draw from their conclusions
about the facts.
At the end of the summing up, the judge will tell the jury to appoint a foreman and will
instruct them to retire to consider their verdict and to reach a unanimous conclusion.
(k) The jury will then retire to consider their verdict. The deliberations of the jury are private
and must remain completely secret. The jurors are permitted to consider only the evidence
they have heard at trial when deciding their verdict and are not permitted to discuss
the case with anyone other than their fellow jurors. The jury must decide their verdict
unanimously, although a majority verdict of 11:1 or 10:2 will be accepted if, after at least
2 hours and 10 minutes, unanimity is not possible (Juries Act 1974, s 17). If the case was
lengthy or in any way complex, the judge is likely to wait much longer than this minimum
period before telling the jury that they are prepared to accept a majority verdict.
lf any jurors have been discharged during the trial then the majority verdict requirements
reflect this, so where there were only 11 jurors, the majority must be 10:1. If there were
only 10 jurors, it must be 9:1 and where there are only nine jurors then only a unanimous
verdict is acceptable.
(1) If the jury cannot reach a majority verdict within a reasonable time, the judge will
discharge the jury. The prosecution is then likely to request a retrial before a new jury.
(m) If the jury finds the defendant not guilty, the defendant will be discharged by the judge
and told that they are free to go. If the defendant’s case was not funded by way of a
representation order, the judge will usually order that their legal costs be paid from
central funds (ie by the state).
(n) If the jury finds the defendant guilty, the judge will then proceed to sentence the
defendant. The judge will either sentence the defendant immediately, or, if necessary,
adjourn sentence so that pre-sentence reports can be obtained (see Chapter 11). If the
judge adjourns sentence, they will remand the defendant either on bail or in custody.
Although there is a presumption in favour of bail for a defendant who has been convicted
but not yet sentenced, if the sentencing hearing has been adjourned so that pre-sentence
reports may be prepared, a defendant who has been convicted of a serious offence
is very unlikely to be granted bail before sentence. The judge is likely to refuse the
defendant bail on the grounds either that the defendant will fail to surrender to custody,
or that it would be impractical to prepare the report unless the defendant is in custody.
The procedure for sentencing a defendant is described in Chapter 11.
A flowchart summarising the above is set out below.
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Criminal Practice
Summing up by judge
Vv
Not guilty
Defendant
Adjourn for pre- Sentence discharged
sentence report
Sentence
216
Trial Procedure in the Magistrates’ Court and Crown Court
10.5.1 Examination-in-chief
The purpose of examination-in-chief is to allow a witness to ‘tell their story’. The advocate
conducting the examination-in-chief should ask questions which enable the witness to repeat
the version of events which that witness has provided earlier in their witness statement.
The difficulty with conducting an examination-in-chief is that the advocate is not allowed to ask
leading questions. Leading questions are questions which are suggestive of the answer.
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Criminal Practice
te) Example
Ewan is called as a prosecution witness. He is to testify to the fact that at 2 pm on 5 June
he saw Grant steal a tin of baked beans from Sainsbury’s.
The prosecuting solicitor cannot say to Ewan: ‘Did you see Grant steal a tin of haked
beans from Sainsbury’s at 2 pm on 5 June?’ because this is a leading question.
Instead of asking such a leading question, the advocate conducting the examination-in-
chief should use ‘open’ questions to elicit the information from the witness.
o Example
Continuing with the example above, the prosecutor could elicit the information from Ewan
in the following way:
Q Where were you on 5 June at about 2 pm?
A | was in Sainsbury’s.
Q What did you see when you were in Sainsbury’s?
A | saw Grant pick up a tin of baked beans and put them in his jacket pocket.
Q_ What happened next?
A | saw Grant walk out of the shop without paying for the tin of baked beans.
The use of non-leading, open questions enables the witness to place their account before
the court in their own words. Such questions usually start with words such as:
¢ Wiho..7
¢ What...?
¢ When...?
¢ Where...?
e How...?
10.5.2 Cross-examination
Cross-examination of a witness called by the other party has three main purposes:
to enable the party conducting the cross-examination to put their case to the witness;
to undermine the credibility of the evidence which that witness has just given in
examination-in-chief; and
to obtain favourable evidence from the witness that supports your case.
‘Putting your case’ means suggesting to a witness that the version of events which that witness
has just put forward in examination-in-chief is incorrect and suggesting an alternative version
of events. It is always necessary for an advocate to put their client’s version of events to a
witness in cross-examination. For example, in an assault case where the defendant is claiming
they acted only in self-defence, the defendant's solicitor must, when cross-examining the
alleged victim of the assault, put to the victim that they (the victim) attacked the defendant first
and that the defendant was acting only in self-defence. If the defendant's solicitor fails to put
to the witness that the defendant was acting in self-defence, the defendant will then not be
entitled to enter the witness box and say that they were acting in self-defence.
Cross-examination will usually be done by asking a witness ‘closed’ or leading questions. This
is to try and keep better control of what the witness will say and generally can be answered
with a ‘yes‘/‘no’ or provide the witness with the required answer.
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Trial Procedure in the Magistrates’ Court and Crown Court
© Example
Q Mr Barnard, you told the court that you spent the evening of 14 December at a club?
Yes.
You had quite a bit to drink, didn’t you Mr Barnard?
| wouldn't say | had that much.
Well according to your witness statement you had seven pints to drink. Is that correct?
Yes.
That's quite a lot isn’t it Mr Barnard?
45
&Sb
6) | suppose so.
10.5.3 Re-examination
At the end of the cross-examination, the party who called the witness may, if they choose,
briefly re-examine their witness. Such re-examination should only be in relation to matters that
have arisen in cross-examination and as with examination-in-chief, only open, non-leading
questions are allowed.
It would be normal to re-examine a witness to clarify any confusion which may have
arisen following cross-examination and/or to try and repair damage caused by such
cross-examination.
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Criminal Practice
10.6.2.1 Children
Sometimes a child might not have the level of understanding that is required by this test. It is
important to note though that a child’s age is not determinative. The appellate courts have on
a number of occasions emphasised that the only issue is whether the witness is able to give
intelligible testimony. So even very young children may be competent if they have sufficient
intelligence.
© In Rv Barker [2010] EWCA Crim 4 a conviction of rape was upheld based in part on the
evidence of the complainant who had been aged three at the time of the incident and
aged four-and-a-half when she gave evidence at trial. The Court of Appeal took the view
that the child had been a ‘compelling as well as competent witness’, but emphasised that
the test for competency required a judgment from the trial judge that is specific to the
particular witness.
For child witnesses, there is a linked question. Should the child give sworn or unsworn
evidence? The answer to this is very straightforward and provided by s 55. Namely, that
‘the witness may not be sworn ... unless he has attained the age of 14’. }
So where a witness is over 14, they will generally give sworn evidence if ‘he has sufficient
appreciation of the solemnity of the occasion and of the particular responsibility to tell the
truth which is involved in taking the oath’ and this will be presumed to be the case unless
there is evidence to show the contrary.
o Example
Noah is aged seven years and is the victim and key prosecution witness in an allegation
of sexual assault by his grandfather. Noah will be a competent witness on behalf of the
prosecution assuming he is intelligent enough to understand questions put to him and
to give answers which can be understood. Because Noah is under 14 years, he will give
unsworn evidence.
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Trial Procedure in the Magistrates’ Court and Crown Court
2. An order may be made for separate trials but note that in such a case, a co-accused from
the first trial may be called at the second, but not vice versa.
The accused may be formally acquitted, for example if the prosecution offers no evidence.
The accused may plead guilty and may then give evidence for the Crown against a co-
accused; it is usually considered desirable that the accused should be sentenced first
before giving evidence.
o Example
John has been charged with assaulting his daughter Mia, aged 16. This was witnessed
by Belinda, John’s wife and mother of Mia. Since the incident, John and Belinda have
reconciled and Belinda no longer wants to testify against John.
Although Belinda is a competent witness for the prosecution, she cannot be compelled to
testify, because this case does not come within s 80 PACE 1984. Belinda could have been
compelled by the prosecution to testify had Mia been aged under 16 or had Belinda also
been a victim of the assault.
The same rule also applies where same sex couples have taken part in a formal civil
partnership ceremony. They will be treated just the same as if they were spouses.
(iii) Where spouses are co-accused then one is never compellable for the other.
Note that s 80(5) provides that if spouses are no longer married at the date of the trial it is as
if they were never married for the purpose of establishing their compellability.
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© Example
Hassan has been charged with an offence of fraud. At the time of the alleged offence
he was married to Brianna and the prosecution would like to call her to testify against
Hassan, as it is believed she can provide crucial evidence to establish his guilt. Brianna is
not prepared to testify against Hassan, even though they have since separated and are
no longer living together.
In these circumstances the prosecution cannot compel Brianna to testify against Hassan
because they are still married. Moreover, the offence is not one of those limited offences
identified in ss (3) where Briana could have been compelled to testify. Had she and
Hassan divorced before the date of the trial then she could have been compelled and if
she was still reluctant to do so, the prosecution would have been able to serve a witness
summons on her.
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(e) allowing a witness to be examined in chief before the trial and a video recording of that
examination-in-chief to be shown at trial;
(f) allowing a witness to be cross-examined (and re-examined) before the trial and a video
recording of this to be shown at trial;
(g) allowing an approved intermediary (such as an interpreter or speech therapist) to help a
witness communicate when giving evidence at the court; and
(h) allowing a witness to use communication aids, such as sign language or a hearing loop.
Where special measures are employed, s 32 of the 1999 Act obligates the trial judge to warn
the jury that the fact that special measures have been used should not in any way prejudice
them against the defendant or give rise to any suggestion that the defendant has behaved in
any way improperly towards the witness.
Although a defendant is not eligible to take advantage of these special measure provisions,
s 33A of the 1999 Act allows a defendant whose ability to participate effectively as a witness
in court is compromised by reason of their mental disorder, impaired intellectual ability or
social functioning, to give evidence by video link.
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Summary
In this chapter you have considered a range of matters relating to trials that take place in the
magistrates’ court and the Crown Court. Notably:
¢ The burden and standard of proof. How the burden and standard of proof operates at a
criminal trial in both the magistrates’ court and Crown Court.
e The order of events in a criminal trial. An outline of the sequence of events at a summary
trial in the magistrates’ court and comparing and contrasting this with the relevant
procedure at a trial on indictment in the Crown Court.
¢ Trial court advocacy. Some basic advocacy skills including modes of address and
appropriate court room etiquette.
* Competence and compellability. Some rules relating to competence and compellability
of witnesses, especially in relation to child witnesses, the accused and the spouse of the
accused. aa
¢ Special measures. The operation of the special measure provisions for vulnerable
witnesses including children and victims of sexual offences and offences of violence.
e The solicitor’s duty to the court. The duties owed by a solicitor to their client and their
overriding duty owed to the court.
Sample questions
Question 1
A solicitor is representing a defendant at trial in the magistrates’ court on a charge of
assault occasioning actual bodily harm. When testifying, the complainant states that she
was punched by the defendant following an argument but she did not give any evidence
about the nature of her injuries and the prosecution did not adduce any medical evidence
to establish what injuries she suffered. No other prosecution evidence is adduced to
establish the complainant did suffer actual bodily harm although there is independent
evidence to help prove the defendant did punch the complainant.
Will the defence be likely to succeed in a submission of no case to answer at the end of
the prosecution case?
A Yes, because the evidence produced by the prosecution is so manifestly unreliable, that
no reasonable tribunal could safely convict on it.
B_ No, because the prosecution has produced direct and independent evidence that the
complainant was assaulted.
C_ No, because the complainant has testified to say that she was assaulted by the defendant.
D Yes, because the prosecution has failed to put forward evidence to prove an essential
element of the alleged offence.
E No, because there is circumstantial evidence to help prove that an assault took place.
Answer
Option D is the best answer. According to the test in R v Galbraith, a submission of no
case to answer should succeed where either the prosecution has failed to put forward
evidence to prove an essential element of the alleged offence, or the evidence produced
by the prosecution has been so discredited as a result of cross-examination, or is so
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manifestly unreliable, that no reasonable tribunal could safely convict on it. We are told
that the prosecution has adduced evidence that there was an assault and there is nothing
to suggest that this evidence is manifestly unreliable, so option A is wrong. However, the
prosecution does not appear to have adduced any evidence that the complainant suffered
actual bodily harm as a result of this assault. So, option D is the correct explanation as to
why a submission ought to succeed.
Options B and C are therefore wrong because these explanations would only help prove
one element of the offence and not that the victim suffered actual bodily harm from
the assault. Option E is wrong because although circumstantial evidence is capable of
establishing a case to answer, we are not told about any such evidence in this case.
Question 2
Three defendants have been charged with robbery. One defendant, a woman, admits that
she acted as a look-out and intends to plead guilty to being an accomplice to the robbery
when she appears in the Crown Court. This woman is also prepared to give evidence for
the prosecution implicating her co-accused, who are both men and whom she claims were
responsible for carrying out the robbery.
Which of the following best describes whether the woman will be a competent and
compellable witness for the prosecution assuming that she is sentenced before the date
of the trial of the two men?
A The woman is both competent and compellable because she has pleaded guilty and
so she has been severed from her co-accused.
B The woman is both competent and compellable because all persons are competent to
give evidence and competent persons are also compellable.
C The woman is competent to give evidence for the prosecution, but she cannot be
compelled to do so as she is also a co-accused.
D The woman is not competent to give evidence for the prosecution because she is still
an accomplice even if she has pleaded guilty.
E The woman is not competent to give evidence for the prosecution as she has a purpose
of her own to serve in testifying for the prosecution.
Answer
Option Ais the best answer. Although the general rule is that all persons are competent
and compellable, this rule is subject to some important exceptions. One such exception
is in relation to an accused, who is neither a competent nor compellable witness for the
prosecution - see 53(4) YJ&CE Act 1999. However, this is subject to four exceptions, which
are recognised by s 53(5), including where an accused is severed from their co-accused
by pleading guilty. This means they can give evidence for the Crown against a co-accused
(in such circumstances it is usually considered desirable that the accused is sentenced first
before giving evidence). So, option A is correct and option D is wrong.
Option B is not the best answer because this only states the general rule and does not
adequately explain why the woman has become competent and compellable. Option C
is wrong because once the woman becomes competent, she also becomes compellable.
Option E is wrong as the woman is now competent. If she did have a purpose of her own to
serve in testifying against her co-accused, this would not stop her from being a competent
witness, but it may require the judge to give a warning to the jury to treat her evidence with
some caution (this is known as a corroboration warning but is beyond the SQE1 syllabus).
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Question 3
A solicitor represented a new client in the magistrates’ court at a trial for burglary. The
prosecution case was on the basis that the defendant was someone of good character. The
magistrates convicted the defendant. After the trial, the client instructs her solicitor thut she
wants to appeal against her conviction. The client also confides in her solicitor by telling
him that the police got her name wrong when they charged her. Had she been prosecuted
under her correct name the prosecution would have discovered that she had a number of
previous convictions for dishonesty offences including three similar offences for burglary.
The client is adamant that she does not want the court or the prosecution to learn of her
correct name.
What should the solicitor now do in light of this information?
A The solicitor can continue to act for the client, but he must not make any reference to
the client's name or her good character at the appeal hearing.
B_ The solicitor can continue to act for the client as he has an overriding duty to act in the
client’s best interests.
C The solicitor should withdraw from acting for the client, but he cannot tell the court or
the prosecution why.
D_ The solicitor should withdraw from acting for the client because he has breached his
overriding duty to the court.
E The solicitor should withdraw from acting for the client and must inform the court of the
client’s true name otherwise he will be complicit in misleading the court.
Answer
Option C is the best answer. The solicitor can no longer act for the client because to do so
would be knowingly misleading the court now that the solicitor is aware of the client's true
name. However, the solicitor could not tell the court or the prosecution why, because to do so
would be breaching his duty of confidentiality to the client.
Option A is wrong because the solicitor would have to give the client’s name to lodge an
appeal and would also be misleading the court when appealing under a false name.
Especially so in a case like this where the prosecution would have been likely to make a bad
character application had they known of the client’s correct name. Option B is wrong, because
although it is correct to say that the solicitor has a duty to act in the client’s best interests, this
is not his overriding duty. Option D is wrong, because although his overriding duty is to the
court, the solicitor has not yet breached this as he was unaware of the client’s true name at
the time of the trial. However, the solicitor would now breach it if he continued to act for the
client knowing that the court and prosecution will be misled at the appeal. Option E is wrong,
because if the solicitor tells the court why he is withdrawing, he will be breaching his duty of
confidentiality to the client.
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SQE1 syllabus
This chapter will enable you to achieve the SQE1 Assessment Specification in relation
to Functioning Legal Knowledge concerned with the following procedures and
processes:
¢ role of sentencing guidelines;
¢ determining seriousness (aggravating and mitigating facts);
* concurrent and consecutive sentences;
* mitigation;
¢ types of sentence;
¢ Newton hearings.
Note that, for SQE1, candidates are not usually required to recall specific case names
or cite statutory or regulatory authorities. These are provided for illustrative purposes
only unless otherwise stated.
Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to apply relevant core legal principles
and rules appropriately and effectively, at the level of a competent newly qualified
solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based and ethical problems and situations in the
following areas:
¢ How an offender will be sentenced based on the sentencing guidelines issued by
the Sentencing Council.
¢ The use of aggravating and mitigating facts to help determine the seriousness of
an offence.
¢ When a sentencing court will use concurrent and consecutive sentences and what
these mean to the overall custodial sentence to be served.
¢ The use of mitigation in sentencing procedure.
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Introduction
The law on sentencing was overhauled by the Criminal Justice Act 2003 and then underwent
further reform by the Legal Aid, Sentencing and Punishment of Offenders Act 2012. More
recently it was the subject of a consultation paper and draft Sentencing Bill by the Law
Commission who recommended that the law on sentencing be simplified and rewritten.
The Commission described their Bill as a ‘clean sweep’, replacing all procedural law on
sentencing with a new and simplified Sentencing Code. This Code is part of the Sentencing
Act 2020 and came into force at the start of December 2020. It consolidates the existing
sentencing legislation in England and Wales and does not change the substantive law on
sentencing. So for example, it does not alter the maximum penalties for any offence, nor does
it reduce judicial discretion in sentencing or replace existing sentencing guidelines. But it
does now provide a single reference point for sentencing legislation. The Code has re-written
sentencing procedure with modern language and an overriding aim to bring a clear and
logical structure to this area of practice.
Most defendants plead guilty to the offence with which they are charged (or sometimes to a
lesser offence following negotiation with the prosecution). A smaller number of defendants
will be convicted after a trial in either the magistrates’ court or the Crown Court. The resulting
sentence usually represents the final stage in the criminal process (subject to any appeal -
see Chapter 12).
Part 4, Chapter 1 of the Sentencing Code 2020 states that a court sentencing an offender
aged 18 or over must have regard to the following five purposes of sentencing:
1. the punishment of offenders;
2. the reduction of crime (including its reduction by deterrence);
3. the reform and rehabilitation of offenders;
4. the protection of the public; and
5. the making of reparation by offenders to persons affected by their offence.
The court need not have such regard if the sentence is fixed by law (such as murder, which
must attract a sentence of life imprisonment) or offences subject to a statutory minimum (see
later), or if the defendant is classed as a dangerous offender.
Representing clients at a sentencing hearing is therefore a very important and regular feature
of practising as a criminal defence solicitor.
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The SC has the power to prepare sentencing guidelines in relation to any sentencing matter
including guidelines for specific offences. In drawing up the guidelines, the SC must have
regard to current sentencing practice, the need to promote consistency in sentencing, the
impact of sentencing decisions on victims of crime, the need to promote public confidence in
the criminal justice system, the cost of different sentences and their effectiveness in reducing
re-offending and the SC’s monitoring of the application of the guidelines.
Every court has a duty to follow any relevant guidelines unless it is satisfied that it would be
contrary to the interests of justice to do so.
These guidelines can be found on the SC website at: https://sentencingcouncil.org.uk.
11.2.2.1 Culpability
The sentencing guideline, ‘Overarching Principles: Seriousness’, identifies four levels of criminal
culpability for sentencing purposes. In descending order of seriousness, the four levels are
where the offender:
(a) has the intention to cause harm, with the highest culpability being when an offence is
planned. The worse the harm intended, the greater the seriousness;
(b) is reckless as to whether harm is caused. This covers situations when the defendant
appreciates that some harm would be caused but goes ahead, giving no thought to the
consequences even though the extent of the risk would be obvious to most people;
(c) has knowledge of the specific risks entailed by their actions, even though the offender
does not intend to cause the harm that results;
(d) is guilty of negligence.
12a Harm
Harm may be caused either to individuals, or to the community at large. The types of harm
that may be caused include:
(a) physical injury
(b) sexual violation
(c) financial loss
(d) damage to health and
(e) psychological distress.
11.2.2.3 Prevalence
Although courts should pass the same sentence for the same type of offence, in exceptional
circumstances, a court in a particular area may treat an offence more seriously than
elsewhere. This may occur if the particular type of offence is prevalent in the area and the
court has before it evidence that these offences are causing harm to the community at large.
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(e) the fact that the defendant played only a minor role in the offending;
(f) defendants who were motivated by genuine fear; and
(g) defendants who have made attempts to make reparation to their victim.
© R v Hodgin (Lee) [2020] EWCA Crim 1388 - the sole ground of appeal was whether H
should have been afforded full credit of one third for indicating in the magistrates’ court,
when his case was sent to the Crown Court, that it was a ‘likely guilty plea’. Was that an
‘indication of a plea of guilty’ entitling him to full credit of one third? In refusing the
appeal it was held: ‘where at the magistrates’ court it is not procedurally possible for a
defendant to enter a guilty plea, there must be an unequivocal indication of the
defendant's intention to plead guilty. An indication only that he is likely to plead guilty is
not enough’.
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sentenced at the same time, or an offence which the defendant has asked the court to take
into consideration when passing sentence.
ie) Example
Ben is convicted of three separate offences of theft in the same proceedings. When Ben is
being sentenced, the court will not look at each offence separately, but will rather assess
the total extent of Ben’s offending in determining the sentence that Ben will be given. Only
if the totality of Ben’s offending passes the appropriate thresholds (see below) may a
custodial or community sentence be imposed by the court.
Defendants who are being sentenced for a particular offence may ask the court to take other
offences into consideration (TIC) when considering the sentence to be imposed. In addition
to the offence for which they were charged and convicted a defendant may have committed
several similar types of offence for which they have not yet been prosecuted, but for which
they may subsequently face prosecution. It is likely to be in the defendant's interests that all
matters outstanding (or potentially outstanding) against them should be dealt with at the
same time.
The usual practice is for the police to present the defendant with a list of additional offences
for which they are under investigation and may subsequently be charged. The defendant may
ask the court to take some or all of these other offences into consideration when deciding the
sentence they are to receive for the offence(s) for which they are currently before the court.
The offences to be taken into consideration should be of a similar nature to, or less serious
than, the offence(s) for which the defendant has been convicted.
The manner in which the court deals with offences taken into consideration depends on the
context of such offences. Although in theory these additional offences should increase the
severity of the sentence the defendant receives, in practice they might add nothing, or very
little, to the sentence the court would otherwise have imposed.
The advantage to the defendant of having offences taken into consideration is that this ‘wipes
the slate clean’, because they will not subsequently be prosecuted for such offences. The
advantage to the police is that a large number of TICs improves their clear-up rates without
the need to commence a fresh prosecution against the defendant.
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STEP 2 - Shaping the provisional sentence: starting point and category range
Having identified the relevant category as a starting point sentence, the court will then start to
fine-tune the sentence by reference to a list of aggravating and mitigating factors (see above).
These factors are there to provide the context of the offence and the offender and they are
considered together so that a holistic approach is taken. The sentencer is also required to
consider the relevant statutory thresholds for custody (see later).
STEP 3 - Consider any factors which indicate a reduction in sentence, such as assisting the
prosecution
This step allows the court to reduce the sentence where the offender has provided assistance
to the police, usually in relation to other matters (not very common in practice).
Not all these steps will apply to every case, but steps 1, 2, 4 and 8 are the most important in
practice. The following example illustrates how the guidelines would apply in a case where
the defence advocate should be able to persuade the magistrates to impose a sentence
below the starting point sentence suggested in the guidelines.
o Example
Dean has pleaded guilty at his first appearance in the magistrates’ court to an offence of
assault occasioning actual bodily harm. Dean punched his victim once to the face during
a five-a-side football game causing the victim a fractured nose that required surgery. The
prosecution accept that it was not premeditated and was the result of some significant
provocation by the victim. When interviewed by the police, Dean shows genuine remorse
for what happened, and the police enquiries confirm this was an isolated incident. Dean
is aged 24 and has no previous convictions.
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¢ Step 1
Harm - likely to be regarded as greater harm as we are told the fracture required
surgery.
Culpability - likely to be regarded as lower culpability as a greater degree of provocation
and a lack of premeditation without any aggravating features is present.
Category 2 (greater harm and lower culpability)
¢ Step 2
Starting point sentence for Category 2 = 26 weeks custody (with a category range from
low level community order to 51 weeks custody).
¢ No aggravating factors increasing seriousness
¢ Factors reducing seriousness include:
° No previous convictions
° A single blow
° Remorse
° An isolated incident
These will suggest a lesser sentence from the above starting point sentence and Dean’s
advocate will use this to try and persuade the court to impose a community order for this
offence rather than a custodial sentence.
¢ Step 3
Not applicable
¢ Step 4
Dean will be entitled to full credit for his timely guilty plea = a one-third reduction in his
sentence.
¢ Step 5
Not applicable as Dean will not be classified as a dangerous offender.
° Step 6
Not applicable as Dean is only being sentenced for one offence.
¢ Step 7
The court is likely to award compensation to the victim (although the level of provocation
by the victim may reduce the amount of any such award).
¢ Step 8
When passing sentence, the court will give its reasons in open court (these are likely to be
reported in the local press).
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Sentencing
A consecutive sentence means that one custodial sentence will start after the other one has
finished.
o Example
Aisha is convicted in the Crown Court of unlawful wounding and theft. She is sentenced to
three years’ imprisonment for the unlawful wounding offence and one year's imprisonment
for the theft. The judge tells Aisha that the sentences are to run concurrently. This means
that Aisha has effectively received a total sentence of three years’ imprisonment because
the sentence for the theft will run at the same time as the first year of the sentence for the
unlawful wounding.
Had the judge expressed the custodial terms to be consecutive, Aisha’s total sentence
would amount to four years. The one-year sentence for the theft would take effect after
Aisha had served the three-year sentence for the unlawful wounding.
Consecutive sentences will not generally be imposed where matters of fact arise out of the
same incident. So, in the above example, if the wounding and theft occurred at the same
time in relation to the same victim, concurrent sentences would be more likely. A concurrent
sentence may also be imposed even if they do not arise out of the same incident if the
sentencing court applies the totality principle mentioned at Step 6 above.
11.6 Mitigation
The penultimate stage in the sentencing process is for the defendant to have an opportunity
to present mitigation before the sentencing court then considers and imposes its sentence.
This entitlement is recognised in the Criminal Procedure Rules (r 25.16(6)) and in practice is
one of the most frequent and important functions of defence advocates. The plea in mitigation
usually just involves a speech by the defence advocate, but it can also include the calling of
character witnesses on behalf of the defendant or introducing character letters to speak of the
defendant's generally good character.
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objective of the plea in mitigation is to persuade the magistrates to impose a sentence which
is less severe than the ‘starting point’ sentence.
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Sentencing
¢ Remorse
Evidence of true remorse is effective mitigation. A mere apology made by the defendant's
solicitor to the court on behalf of his client is unlikely to have much effect, but the court will
take into account any positive steps which the defendant has made to tackle the problems
which led them to commit the offence. For example, the court is likely to give credit to
a defendant who has committed thefts to fund a drug habit, who has voluntarily sought
treatment for their addiction.
-@ Character
lf the defendant has previous convictions, the court may view these as aggravating
factors. The court is likely to view a defendant's previous convictions as being aggravating
factors if the relevant offences either were committed recently or were the same type of
offence as the offence for which the defendant is to be sentenced. If the defendant has
any such convictions, the solicitor should attempt to distinguish such convictions from the
facts of the current offence and ‘explain’ the circumstances of the defendant's previous
offending. For example, a defendant convicted of theft may have several previous
convictions for thefts which were committed in order to fund a drug habit. If the defendant
is no longer taking drugs and the reason for the defendant having committed the current
offence is different from his motive for committing the previous offences, their solicitor
should explain this to the court.
Just as having previous convictions may be seen as an aggravating factor, a defendant
with no previous convictions (and so of previous good character) is entitled to have
this taken into account. This is particularly important when there is a specific reason or
explanation for a defendant of previous good character having committed an offence.
o Example
Fien is 55 years of age and is of previous good character. She works on the check-out
at her local supermarket and has been charged with stealing £500 in cash from her
employers. The reason for Fien having committed the offence is that her husband has
recently left her, taking all her savings and leaving her with insufficient funds to pay the
rent on her house. Fien’s solicitor can ask the court to take Fien’s previous good character
into account and suggest that there is a specific ‘one-off’ explanation for her committing a
criminal offence.
© In R v Seed; R v Stark [2007] EWCA Crim 254, the Court of Appeal held that the absence
of previous convictions was important mitigation that might make a custodial sentence
inappropriate, even if the custody threshold had been crossed (see 11.7.1).
In such circumstances, the defendant's solicitor may call character witnesses to give evidence
as to the defendant's previous good character.
¢ Family circumstances
lf the court has requested a pre-sentence report from the Probation Service, this will look in
depth at the defendant's personal background and family circumstances. The defendant's
solicitor should also refer to the defendant's personal circumstances in the plea in mitigation,
particularly if the defendant has a regular home and job, and has family who will be
supportive in their attempts to.stay out of trouble in the future. Equally, if the defendant has
had a troubled family background, it would also be appropriate to refer to this in mitigation,
particularly if the defendant is still young. For example, a defendant may have come from
a broken home, or have been physically or sexually abused as a child. Similarly, young
defendants will often have become addicted to drugs or involved in prostitution at an early
age. This will be particularly effective mitigation if the defendant's solicitor is able to say that
the client has made a genuine attempt to overcome such a background.
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ey oS Custodial sentences
Most offences which carry a custodial sentence allow the sentencing court a discretion as to
whether a custodial sentence should be imposed, and the length of any such sentence. There
are a limited number of exceptions where an offence carries either a mandatory sentence or
a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment. For example, a defendant convicted of murder
will receive a mandatory sentence of life imprisonment (Murder (Abolition of Death Penalty)
Act 1965, s 1(1)).
Where the court has discretion whether or not to pass a custodial sentence, it must apply the
test set out in Part 10, Chapter 1 of the Sentencing Code 2020:
The court must not pass a custodial sentence unless it is of the opinion that the
offence, or the combination of the offence and one or more offences associated with
it, was so serious that neither a fine alone nor a community sentence can be justified
for the offence.
This test is known as the custody threshold. Only if this threshold is passed may the court
impose a custodial sentence. If the custody threshold has been passed, this does not
necessarily mean that a custodial sentence should automatically be imposed. In R v Seed;
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R v Stark (2007), the Court of Appeal said that, where the custody threshold had only just been
passed, a guilty plea or very strong personal mitigation might make it appropriate for a non-
custodial sentence to be imposed.
lf the custody threshold is passed and the court decides to impose a custodial sentence, the
court must then consider the length of the custodial sentence. To determine the length of the
sentence, the court must apply Part 10, Chapter 1 of the Sentencing Code 2020. This provides
that a custodial sentence
must be for the shortest term (not exceeding the permitted maximum) that in the
opinion of the court is commensurate with the seriousness of the offence, or the
combination of the offence and one or more other offences associated with it.
The maximum custodial sentence which a magistrates’ court may impose on a defendant is
six months’ imprisonment, although magistrates may impose consecutive sentences up to a
maximum of 12 months in aggregate when dealing with two or more either-way offences.
Judges in the Crown Court have the power to sentence a defendant to a term of imprisonment
up to the maximum permitted for that offence.
In practice though, very few defendants receive the maximum sentence which the offence
carries. In determining the length of the sentence, the judge will have regard to guidelines
issued by the SC and the guidelines considered by the Court of Appeal. The SC has put these
cases together in a document entitled ‘Guideline Judgments Case Compendium’, which may
be accessed from the SC website (see 11.2.1).
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© Example
Berat is convicted of affray before the Crown Court. When sentencing Berat, the judge
decides that the offence is so serious that the only appropriate sentence is custody.
However, when giving the plea of mitigation on behalf of Berat, his advocate tells the
judge that Berat is a single parent looking after a disabled child, and that a custodial
sentence for Berat would mean the child needing to go into a care home. The trial
judge considers that these particular circumstances justify the imposition of a suspended
sentence. The judge therefore imposes a sentence of six months’ imprisonment but
suspends this for 12 months.
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(c) amend the original order by imposing more onerous community requirements on the
defendant; or
(d) amend the original order by extending the operational period, or by extending the
supervision period.
The court must make an order under (a) or (b) above unless it considers that it would be
unjust to do so in view of all the circumstances. So for example, the court may decide it would
be unjust to make an order under (a) or (b) if the defendant is coming to the end of the
supervision period (having complied with the requirements imposed) or if, in the case of a
defendant convicted of a further offence, the new offence is a minor matter or is a completely
different type of offence to the offence originally committed. The court will also take into
account the time which has elapsed since the original offence was committed and any
change in the defendant's circumstances.
lf the court does make an order under (a) or (b), the term of imprisonment for the original
offence will be consecutive to the sentence imposed for any new offence.
The court can also impose a fine of up to £2,500 for breach of a suspended sentence order
where it decides not to give immediate effect to the custodial sentence.
Generally, the court will activate a suspended sentence and order it to run consecutively with
any additional sentence imposed for the new offence.
ae) Example
Connor was sentenced five months ago in the Crown Court to a sentence of three
months’ imprisonment for an offence of theft. This sentence was suspended for a period
of 12 months. Connor has now been convicted of a similar offence of theft and appears
before the magistrates’ court.
Connor is now likely to be committed to the Crown Court for sentence as he has re-offended
during the operational period of a Crown Court suspended sentence. The Crown Court is
likely to activate his suspended sentence for the full period of three months and sentence him
to prison for the new offence and order this to run consecutively. So, if Conor was sentenced
to four months’ imprisonment for the new offence, he will serve a total of seven months’
imprisonment (although he will be automatically released after serving half of this sentence).
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The options from which the court may choose are as follows:
(a) Unpaid work requirement - this requires the defendant to perform unpaid work in the
community for between 40 and 300 hours. This work must be completed within a
12-month period and in practice this is the most common requirement attached to a
generic community order.
Activity requirement - this requires the defendant to take part in specified activities which
may be designed to help the defendant overcome a particular problem (such as finding
work), or which may be activities to make reparation to the victim (such as repairing
damage caused).
Programme requirement - this requires the defendant to take part in one or more courses
to address the defendant's offending behaviour, such as courses in anger management,
sex offending or substance misuse.
Prohibited activity requirement - this requires the defendant to refrain from taking part in
specified activities.
Curfew requirement - this requires the defendant to remain at a particular location
(normally the defendant's place of residence) specified by the court between specified
times. In order to check compliance with such a requirement, the defendant will be
electronically monitored, which is known colloquially as ‘tagging’.
Exclusion requirement - this prohibits the defendant from entering a place or places
(such as a city centre, or a particular type of establishment like a shop or a pub) for a
period not exceeding two years. Again, the defendant will be electronically monitored.
Residence requirement - this requires the defendant to live at a particular place as
specified in the court order.
Mental health treatment requirement - this requires the defendant to agree to treatment
from a mental health practitioner for a specified period of time.
Drug rehabilitation requirement - this requires the defendant to agree to treatment to
reduce or eliminate their dependency on drugs, and to submit to providing samples
to determine whether they have drugs in their body. This will be for a period of time
specified by the court.
Alcohol treatment requirement - this requires the defendant to agree, during a period
of time specified by the court, to treatment to reduce or eliminate their dependency on
alcohol.
Supervision requirement - this requires the defendant to attend appointments with
a member of the Probation Service. The purpose of such meetings is to promote the
defendant's rehabilitation, and the meetings will involve confronting the defendant's
offending behaviour, discussing how the defendant might ‘manage’ their life and
generally monitoring the defendant's progress. A supervision requirement may be
imposed for up to three years.
(!) Attendance centre requirement - this requires the defendant to attend an attendance
centre for a total of between 12 and 36 hours. Such an order can only be imposed on
defendants who are under 25 years of age.
Foreign travel prohibition requirement - this enables a court to impose a prohibition on
foreign travel as a requirement. The effect of this requirement is to prohibit travel to a
country or countries outside the British Isles (the United Kingdom, the Channel Islands and
the Isle of Man).
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Sentencing
© Example
Ahmet is convicted of assault occasioning actual bodily harm by the magistrates’ court.
He receives a generic community order which includes a requirement to complete 250
hours of unpaid work.
Ahmet fails to attend his first unpaid work session. The probation officer supervising
Ahmet’s sentence gives Ahmet a warning. Ahmet then fails to attend his second unpaid
work session and is brought back before the magistrates’ court. The magistrates must,
if they are satisfied that Ahmet had no reasonable excuse for failing to attend the
unpaid work sessions, either amend the generic community order to add more onerous
requirements or revoke the order and re-sentence Ahmet. If the magistrates choose the
latter course, the inevitable sentence will be custodial.
(a) revoke the order (this will be done if the magistrates are imposing a custodial sentence
for the ‘new’ offence, since an offender in prison cannot comply with a community
sentence); or
(b) revoke the order and re-sentence the defendant for the original offence as if they have
just been convicted of it. If this is done, the court must have regard to the extent to which
the defendant has complied with the original order.
o Example
Simon pleads guilty to a charge of burglary of a dwelling. The CPS alleges that Simon
broke into the dwelling by smashing a window, ransacked several rooms in the property,
soiled the carpets and took several items of high value. Simon says that he got into
the property through an open window (causing no damage to the window), denies
ransacking the property or soiling the carpets, and says that he removed only a small
transistor radio. The difference between the prosecution and the defence version of events
is significant and is likely to affect the type of sentence the court will impose. The court
must therefore either hold a Newton hearing, or alternatively accept Simon’s account as
being the correct version of events.
Summary
In this chapter you have considered a range of matters relating to sentencing. Notably:
¢ The role of sentencing guidelines. How these help a sentencing court to exercise their
discretion when sentencing an offender to ensure a consistent and structured approach
when sentencing an offender.
* Aggravating and mitigating facts. How the seriousness of an offence is determined with
the use of both aggravating and mitigating factors which help a sentencing court to
shape a starting point sentence.
¢ The use of concurrent and consecutive sentences. When and why sentences are ordered
to run either concurrently or consecutively and what this means to an offender.
* Mitigation and its impact on sentencing procedure. How a defendant's advocate will
structure and use a plea of mitigation to try and persuade the sentencing court to
impose upon the offender the most lenient sentence which the court could reasonably be
expected to give for that offence.
¢ The types of sentence available to a sentencing court. How and on what basis a custodial
sentence may be imposed. When such a sentence may be suspended. The availability
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Sentencing
and range of community orders where the custodial threshold has either not been met, or
where there is sufficient mitigation to persuade a court to impose a community sentence
rather than a custodial sentence.
* The role and function of a Newton hearing. \f an offender admits guilt but disputes the
prosecution version of events, the sentencing court will usually conduct a ‘trial on the
facts’ to determine the correct version. This will be required when determining the correct
factual version might have a bearing on the type of sentence the court imposes.
Sample questions
Question 1
A man has been charged with an offence of robbery. When interviewed, he denied
his involvement and later instructed his solicitor that he would plead not guilty. At his
first appearance in the magistrates’ court, the man’s solicitor was given access to the
prosecution evidence, which appeared to be compelling. Despite advice from his solicitor,
the man was not prepared to indicate a guilty plea at this stage. The man’s case was
immediately sent to the Crown Court and a date for the plea and trial preparation hearing
(PTPH) was set. At this hearing, the man changed his mind about the plea and entered a
guilty plea at the PTPH. However, he made it clear he did not show any remorse for his
offending behaviour.
What level of discount will the man be entitled to as a result of his guilty plea?
A Somewhere between zero and one-tenth discount on his sentence since he has shown
no remorse for his offending behaviour.
B A one-tenth discount on his sentence since the evidence against him was
overwhelming.
C A one-quarter discount on his sentence since he only indicated his guilty plea after the
first stage of the proceedings.
D A one-third discount on his sentence since he indicated his guilty plea at his first
appearance in the Crown Court.
E The man will not be entitled to any discount on his sentence since he has shown no
remorse for his offending behaviour and the evidence against him was overwhelming.
Answer
Option C is the correct answer. Under the ‘Reduction in Sentence for a Guilty Plea’ Definitive
Guideline, where a guilty plea is indicated after this first stage of the proceedings, the
maximum level of the reduction is only one quarter, and not the full reduction of one third.
For this reason, option C is correct and option D is wrong because the first stage of the
proceedings was when the man appeared in the magistrates’ court and could reasonably
have been expected to indicate a guilty plea at that stage.
Options A, B and E are all wreng because a reduction in discount to one-tenth or even to
zero should only apply where a guilty plea is entered on the first day a trial is meant to
take place (one-tenth discount) or it may be reduced further, even to zero, where the guilty
plea is entered during the course of the trial. Not showing remorse or the strength of the
prosecution case are not factors that will affect the level of discount.
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Criminal Practice
Question 2
A man was sentenced six months ago in the magistrates’ court for an offence of assault
occasioning actual bodily harm. He received a suspended sentence order of three months’
custody. The operational period of the suspended sentence is for 12 months. A requirement
to complete 100 hours of unpaid work was attached to the suspended sentence order
and the man has completed the unpaid work. The man has now pleaded guilty in the
magistrates’ court to an offence of affray.
Which of the following best describes the likely sentence the man will now receive?
A The man will receive a custodial sentence for the present offence of affray and the
suspended sentence of three months will be activated to run fully and concurrently with
this sentence.
B The man will receive a custodial sentence for the present offence of affray and the
suspended sentence of three months will be activated but will be reduced to pie into
account the unpaid work the man has completed.
C The man will receive a custodial sentence for the present offence of affray and the
suspended sentence of three months will be activated to run fully and consecutively
with this sentence.
D The man will receive a custodial sentence for the present offence of affray and the
suspended sentence of three months will be further suspended for another period of
12 months.
E The man will receive a community order for the present offence of affray and the
suspended sentence of three months will be further suspended for another period of
12 months.
Answer
All of these options are possible, but option C is the best answer. The general rule where
a suspended sentence order is imposed and a further offence is committed during the
operational period of the order is for a custodial sentence to be imposed for the present
offence (assuming it is imprisonable, which affray is) and the suspended sentence will be
activated to run fully and consecutively with this sentence. However, the sentencing court
does have some discretion to impose other sentences. For example, if the present offence
is not very serious and/or is very different in nature to the earlier offence, or the earlier
sentence is very near the end of its operational period, the court may not activate the original
sentence and further suspend it, or not activate it to run for the full period, or activate it to run
concurrently with the present sentence as opposed to running consecutively with it.
Question 3
A woman is sentenced in the Crown Court for a number of dishonesty offences. For two
unrelated offences of theft, she is sentenced to six months’ imprisonment for each, which
are ordered to run consecutively. For an offence of fraud, which is linked to the second
offence of theft, she is sentenced to four months’ imprisonment and this is ordered to run
concurrently.
When should the woman be released from prison?
A_ After serving four months in custody.
B_ After serving six months in custody.
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Sentencing
Answer
Option B is the correct answer. The woman has been sentenced to a total period of 12 months
in custody as the two thefts are ordered to run consecutively (whereas the fraud offence will
run concurrently and so does not count toward the overall total). However, a prisoner will
generally be released after serving half their sentence, so here, after serving six months in
custody. Because the woman’s sentence runs to a total of 12 months, she will be released on
licence and will be under the supervision of the Probation Service during the licence period.
This will expire at the end of the 12-month period.
247
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Appeals Procedure
SQE1 syllabus
This chapter will enable you to achieve the SQE1 Assessment Specification in relation
to Functioning Legal Knowledge concerned with the following procedures and
processes:
* appeal from the magistrates’ court to the Crown Court;
* appeal from the magistrates’ court to the High Court by way of case stated;
* judicial review of a magistrates’ court decision;
* appeal from the Crown Court to the Court of Appeal.
Note that, for SQE1, candidates are not usually required to recall specific case names
or cite statutory or regulatory authorities. These are provided for illustrative purposes
only unless otherwise stated.
Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to apply relevant core legal principles
and rules appropriately and effectively, at the level of a competent newly qualified
solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based and ethical problems and situations in the
following areas:
¢ How the defendant may appeal against conviction and sentence from the
magistrates’ court to the Crown Court and the Crown Court's powers when
dealing with such appeals.
¢ Defence and prosecution appeals on a point of law from the magistrates’ court
to the High Court or challenging magistrates’ court decisions by way of judicial
review.
¢ Appeals against conviction and sentence by the defendant from the Crown Court
to the Court of Appeal, including the relevant procedure, grounds of appeal and
the Court of Appeal’s powers.
e The limited extent to which the prosecution can appeal to the Court of Appeal.
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Criminal Practice
12.1 Introduction
This chapter considers the options open to the defendant to appeal against conviction and/
or sentence. It also examines the more limited rights of appeal that may be exercised by
the CPS.
The rules which govern the procedure for the making of an appeal (either by the defendant,
or by the CPS) are contained in Parts 34-43 of the CrimPR.
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Appeals Procedure
If the defendant's case before the magistrates’ court was publicly funded by way of a
representation order, a separate representation order will be required to cover the hearing
of the appeal by the Crown Court. Any advice and assistance given to the defendant in
preparing the notice of appeal will be covered by the original representation order.
If the defendant is appealing against a custodial sentence, the magistrates may grant bail
to the defendant pending the appeal to the Crown Court. There is, however, no presumption
in favour of bail, as s 4 of the Bail Act 1976 does not apply to defendants appealing against
conviction or sentence (see Chapter 7). If the magistrates’ court does not grant bail, the
defendant may apply to the Crown Court for bail pending the hearing of the appeal.
o Example
Karim has been convicted of common assault following a trial in the magistrates’ court.
His case is then adjourned for the preparation of a pre-sentence report for three weeks.
At his adjourned hearing Karim is made the subject of a community order. Karim decides
to appeal against his conviction but does not want to appeal against his sentence.
Karim must file his notice of appeal against conviction within 21 days from the date of
sentence (not from the date of his conviction). If Karim files his notice outside the 21 days,
a Crown Court judge may, at their discretion, extend this time limit.
12.5.1 Procedure
A party wishing to appeal by way of case stated must apply to the magistrates’ court within
21 days of the relevant decision being made by the magistrates’ court. This is normally done
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Criminal Practice
by writing to the clerk to the magistrates’ court. The application must identify the question of
law on which the aggrieved party seeks the view of the High Court. Following receipt of this
letter, the magistrates must then ‘state a case’ for the opinion of the High Court.
To do this, the clerk to the magistrates (in conjunction with the magistrates or district judge
who heard the case) will prepare a draft ‘statement of case’ that will:
(a) specify the decision in issue;
(b) specify the question(s) of law or jurisdiction on which the opinion of the High Court will
be asked;
(c) include a succinct summary of:
(i) the nature and history of the proceedings
(ii) the court’s relevant findings of fact and
(iii) the relevant contentions of the parties
(d) if a question is whether there was sufficient evidence on which the court reasonably could
reach a finding of fact:
(i) specify that finding and
(ii) include a summary of the evidence on which the court reached that finding.
Once an initial draft of the ‘statement of case’ has been prepared, the clerk will send
this out to the CPS and the defendant's solicitor to enable them to suggest any necessary
amendments. Once a final version of the statement of case has been agreed, the clerk will
send this to the party making the appeal. That party must then lodge this with the High Court
and give notice to the other party that this has been done.
o Example
Elise has been acquitted of criminal damage following a trial in the magistrates’
court. During the course of the trial the defence persuaded the magistrates to exclude
a confession made by Elise to the police on the basis that it had been obtained in
circumstances rendering it unreliable. The CPS appeal by way of case stated against the
magistrates‘ exclusion of this confession, on a point of law.
If the High Court agrees with the CPS then they will either remit the case back to the
magistrates’ court with a direction to convict Elise, or remit the case to a different bench
of magistrates to rehear the case, but on that occasion the confession will be admitted in
evidence.
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Appeals Procedure
© Example
Assume that in the above example of Elise, the magistrates refused to exclude the
confession and convicted her of criminal damage. Elise could challenge, by way of case
stated on a point of law, the magistrates’ refusal to exclude her confession. However, even
if this were to succeed, the case would be likely to be remitted back to the magistrates’
court for a retrial and so it may well be much quicker and simpler for Elise just to appeal
against her original conviction to the Crown Court.
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Criminal Practice
(b) Appeal against sentence (CAA 1968, s 9). The defendant may appeal against the
sentence they received if either the Court of Appeal grants leave to appeal, or the judge
who passes sentence has granted a certificate that the case is fit for appeal against
sentence.
© So, for example, in R v Boyle and Ford [2006] EWCA Crim 2101, two.co-defendants were
convicted of murder. There was significant DNA and other forensic evidence against them.
The trial judge misdirected the jury as to the drawing of adverse inferences under s 34 of
the Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994. The Court of Appeal held that the
misdirection did not render the conviction unsafe because there was other compelling
evidence against the defendants.
In a very small number of cases, however, the Court of Appeal may allow an appeal and
quash a conviction even if the court is satisfied that the defendant did commit the offence for
which they were convicted. Such a situation is most likely to occur when there has been an
abuse of process committed by the police or the prosecuting authorities, such as the ‘bugging’
of a privileged conversation between the defendant and his solicitor.
Examples of the most common factors raised by defendants to argue that their convictions are
unsafe are:
(a) a failure by the trial judge to direct the jury correctly as to:
(i) the burden and standard of proof;
(ii) the substantive law concerning the offence(s);
(iii) the fact that it is for the jury rather than the judge to determine what the facts of the
case are (although the judge will remind the jury of the prominent features of the
evidence when summing up, it is the jury’s responsibility to judge the evidence and
decide the relevant facts);
(iv) the fact that the jury should try to return a unanimous verdict (and the judge will notify
them when the time has arisen when the judge may be prepared to accept a majority
verdict);
(v) the jury’s power to convict the defendant of any lesser offence which there was
evidence to support;
(b) the trial judge wrongfully admitted or excluded evidence, for example:
(i) the judge wrongfully admitted evidence of a disputed confession or the defendant's
previous convictions;
(ii) the judge wrongfully excluded hearsay evidence which would have assisted the
defendant's case;
(c) the trial judge failed to administer the correct warnings to the jury, for example:
(i) the judge failed to give a ‘Turnbull’ warning in a case of disputed identification, or a
corroboration warning where the defendant alleges that a witness has a purpose of
his own to serve in giving evidence against the defendant;
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Appeals Procedure
(ii) the judge failed to give a proper direction to the jury as to the drawing of adverse
inferences from the defendant's silence;
(iii) the judge failed to give a proper direction to the jury as to the relevance of any
previous convictions which may have been adduced in evidence;
(d) inappropriate interventions by the trial judge - if, for example, the judge had constantly
interrupted defence counsel during the cross-examination of a prosecution witness;
a failure by the trial judge when summing up the case to the jury to:
(i) deal with the essential points of the defence case;
(ii) identify any inconsistencies in the prosecution case;
(iii) summarise the evidence on which the jury may properly rely in order to convict the
defendant;
(iv) tell the jury, when special measures have been used to enable a prosecution witness
to give evidence, that they should not allow this to prejudice them against the
defendant, nor assume that the use of special measures means the defendant has
behaved improperly;
(f) fresh evidence - even if a trial has been conducted properly, the defendant may argue
his conviction is unsafe if fresh evidence comes to light which casts doubt upon his
guilt. For example, a new witness may come forward to substantiate an alibi which was
disbelieved by the jury, or expert evidence relied on by the prosecution at trial may be
shown to be flawed. Fresh evidence will not in itself render a conviction unsafe. The issue
for the Court of Appeal is whether the fresh evidence is such that, had it been placed
before the jury, the verdict might have been different.
At the end of the trial, defence counsel will normally prepare a written advice on the merits of
an appeal against conviction which should be in accordance with the instructions contained in
the brief.
(a) Within 28 days of the conviction (not sentence), the defendant must serve their appeal
notice, together with the draft grounds of appeal, on the Registrar of Criminal Appeals at
the Court of Appeal. The grounds are a separate document prepared by defence counsel,
setting out the detailed arguments as to why the conviction is unsafe.
(b) On receipt of these documents, the Registrar will obtain a transcript of the evidence that
was given at trial and of the judge’s summing up to the jury. The Registrar will then put
the case papers before a single judge, who will determine whether permission to appeal
ought to be granted. This is a filtering stage, designed to weed out appeals that have no
chance of success. If permission is granted, the single judge will also grant the defendant
public funding for the hearing of the appeal.
In appeals that are completely without merit, the single judge may, when dismissing
the appeal, make a direction as to loss of time under s 29 of the CAA 1968. This means
that any time spent by the defendant in custody awaiting the outcome of the appeal will
not count towards the total time the defendant must serve for their sentence (as would
normally be the case). This provision is designed to deter defendants from pursuing
appeals that are without merit.
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Criminal Practice
© Example
Lucas has been convicted of an offence of robbery. Lucas was originally remanded in
custody for three months before the date of his conviction. It then took a further month for
the full Court of Appeal to refuse Lucas’s appeal. Let us assume that when his case came
before the single judge, it was assessed to be completely without merit and a direction as
to loss of time under s 29 of the CAA 1968 was made by the single judge.
If Lucas decided to go ahead with his appeal and the Court of Appeal agrees with
the single judge, Lucas will have deducted the time he has served in custody from the
date of his conviction to the date the Court of Appeal refused his appeal. So here,
Lucas will not have the later month he served in custody counting against his eventual
sentence, although time spent in custody before his conviction will still count against
his sentence.
If Lucas had accepted the views of the single judge and decided not to pursue his
appeal, he would not lose any time that he has already served on remand.
(c) The hearing of the appeal will then take place before the full Court of Appeal, which will
comprise a three-judge panel. The court will hear oral arguments from the parties, and
may also hear fresh evidence if that evidence:
(i) appears to be credible;
(ii) would have been admissible at the defendant's trial; and
(iii) there is a reasonable explanation for the failure to adduce this evidence at the
defendant's trial (CAA 1968, s 23).
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Appeals Procedure
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Criminal Practice
© Example
Jakov has been sentenced by a judge in the Crown Court to four years’ imprisonment for
an offence of s 18 GBH which was assessed by the judge as being a Category 1 offence
(see Chapter 11). The sentencing range for such an offence is between 9 to 16 years with
a starting point sentence of 12 years. The offence is an offence that can only be tried on
indictment and the CPS are therefore quite likely to make an Attorney-General’s reference
to challenge this sentence on the basis that it is unduly lenient. If the Court of Appeal
agrees, it is likely to increase the sentence.
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Appeals Procedure
(c) kidnapping;
(d) a number of sexual offences under the Sexual Offences Acts of 1956 and 2003, including
rape, attempted rape and assault by penetration;
(e) various offences in relation to Class A drugs, such as unlawful importation and
production; and
(f) arson endangering life or property.
The Court of Appeal will only quash an earlier conviction and order a retrial where the CPS
can satisfy a two-fold test:
© Example
In R v Dunlop [2006] EWCA Crim 1534, the defendant was acquitted of the murder of his
lover in 1991. After his acquittal, and whilst in prison for other matters, he confessed to
another prison inmate that he had committed the murder. He subsequently wrote letters
to other people in which he admitted to the murder. When the reforms made by the
CJA 2003 came into force, the CPS applied to the Court of Appeal for the defendant’s
acquittal on the murder charge to be quashed and for the defendant to be retried for
this offence. The defendant argued that it would not be in the interests of justice for the
court to quash his acquittal and order a retrial, because his later confession to the murder
was made in the belief that he could not and would not be tried again for this crime.
The Court of Appeal refused to accept these arguments, stating that the evidence of the
confession was both new and compelling, and that it was clearly in the interests of justice
for the acquittal to be quashed and a retrial ordered. At his retrial, the defendant entered
a guilty plea to the murder charge.
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Criminal Practice
Summary
In this chapter you have considered a range of matters relating to appeals. Notably:
Appealing against conviction and sentence from the magistrates’ court to the Crown
Court. How the defendant does this and the Crown Court’s powers when dealing with
such appeals.
Appeals on a point of law from the magistrates’ court to the High Court. How both
the defence and prosecution can make such an appeal by way of case stated to the
Divisional Court where either party will argue the magistrates’ court has made an error
of law.
Applying for judicial review of a magistrates’ court decision. How the defence and
prosecution can challenge such decisions made in the magistrates’ court on the basis the
court acted ultra vires or breached the rules of natural justice when dealing with the case.
Appealing against conviction and/or sentence by the defendant from the Crown Court to
the Court of Appeal. How and on what basis the defendant makes such appeals to the
Court of Appeal and the powers available to this appellate court when dealing with such
appeals.
The limited extent to which the prosecution can appeal to the Court of Appeal. How the
prosecution can appeal termination and evidential rulings. The extent to which unduly
lenient sentences can be appealed by the Attorney-General and the limited number of
cases that can be retried where there is new and compelling evidence that has come to
light since the original trial.
Sample questions
Question 1
A woman is convicted following a trial in the magistrates’ court of an offence of low-value
theft from a shop. The woman has extensive previous convictions for similar offending and
is sentenced to four months’ imprisonment. The woman is considering appealing to the
Crown Court against this sentence.
Which of the following best describes the Crown Court’s powers in relation to the
woman's appeal against sentence?
A The Crown Court may confirm or vary this sentence, including increasing the sentence
up to a maximum of six months’ imprisonment.
The Crown Court may confirm, reverse or vary this sentence, including increasing the
sentence up to the statutory maximum for theft.
The Crown Court may confirm, reverse or vary this sentence, but they cannot increase
the sentence that has already been imposed.
The Crown Court may confirm, reverse or vary this sentence, including increasing the
sentence as this is an either-way offence.
The Crown Court may confirm, reverse or vary this sentence, including increasing the
sentence up to a maximum of six months’ imprisonment.
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Answer
Option E is the best answer. The Crown Court has the power to impose any sentence, as long
as it is a sentence which the magistrates’ court had the power to impose. This means that a
defendant appealing against a sentence imposed by the magistrates’ court may have that
sentence increased if the Crown Court takes a more serious view of the offence, but only up to
the maximum available in the magistrates’ court, which for this offence would be six months’
imprisonment (note the woman is not entitled to any discount of sentence for a guilty plea
since we are told she was convicted following a trial, so the maximum sentence available
would remain at six months).
Option A is not the best answer because the Crown Court can also reverse as well as confirm
or vary the sentence, although in this case, reversing such a sentence would be unlikely.
Option B is wrong because the sentence cannot be increased above the six months maximum
the magistrates could impose. Option C is wrong because the Crown Court can also increase
the sentence (unlike the Court of Appeal when hearing an appeal against sentence from the
Crown Court). Option D is wrong because low-value shop theft is not an either-way offence
and in any event, even if it were, this is not the reason why the Crown Court can increase the
sentence.
Question 2
A man is convicted following trial in the Crown Court. During the trial, the judge failed to
adequately direct the jury on the operation of the burden of proof. Following conviction, the
man’s case is adjourned for three weeks for the preparation of a pre-sentence report. At
the adjourned hearing, the man is sentenced to a community order.
Can the man now appeal against his conviction?
A Yes, because he has 28 days to appeal from the date of his sentence and his ground
of appeal will be because of the trial judge’s failure to direct the jury correctly.
B_ Yes, because he has 28 days to appeal from the date of his conviction and he will
argue his conviction is unsafe because of the trial judge's failure to direct the jury
correctly.
C No, because he has failed to appeal within the correct time period and his conviction
will be upheld even if there was an error or mistake made by the trial judge when
directing the jury.
D_ No, because although he has 28 days to appeal from the date of his conviction, this
will be upheld even if there was an error or mistake made by the trial judge when
directing the jury.
E Yes, because he has 28 days to appeal from the date of his sentence and his grounds
of appeal will be that his conviction is unsafe because of the trial judge’s failure to
direct the jury correctly.
Answer
Option B is the best answer. The defendant has 28 days to appeal from the date of his
conviction, rather than the date of his sentence. In this case the man still has seven days in
which to serve his appeal notice, together with the draft grounds of appeal on the Registrar
of Criminal Appeals at the Court of Appeal. Moreover, there is only one ground of appeal
against conviction, namely that the conviction is unsafe (CAA 1968, s 2).
Option A is therefore wrong because the 28-day time period to appeal against conviction
does not run from the date of sentence (unlike the magistrates’ court where it does run from
261
Criminal Practice
the correct
that date). Option C is wrong because the man has not failed to appeal within
be upheld even if there was an error
time period. Moreover, although a conviction may
the jury, this would only happen where
or mistake made by the trial judge when directing
not been made, the correct and only
the Court of Appeal considers that, had the mistake
one of guilty. This explanatio n also applies to, option
reasonable verdict would still have been
the wrong grounds of appeal. As mentioned above,
D. Option E is wrong because it refers to
be
there is only one ground of appeal. The reference in option E is to the factors that could
used to support the one ground.
262
Youth Court Procedure
SQE1 syllabus
This chapter will enable you to achieve the SQE1 Assessment Specification in relation
to Functioning Legal Knowledge concerned with the following procedures and
processes in the Youth Court:
¢ youths charged with grave crimes;
¢ allocation;
¢ youths jointly charged with an adult;
* sentencing;
* appeals jurisdiction from the Youth Court.
Note that, for SQE1, candidates are not usually required to recall specific case names
or cite statutory or regulatory authorities. These are provided for illustrative purposes
only unless otherwise stated.
Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to apply relevant core legal principles
and rules appropriately and effectively, at the level of a competent newly qualified
solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based and ethical problems and situations in the
following areas of Youth Court work:
¢ What the Youth Court is required to do when dealing with youths charged with a
grave crime.
¢ The different approach taken in the Youth Court from an adult magistrates’ court
to the allocation procedure where a youth is charged with an either-way offence.
¢ Which court youths are dealt with where they are jointly charged with an adult.
¢ The powers given to the Youth Court when dealing with the question of bail.
263
Criminal Practice
¢ The range of sentences available in the Youth Court and the approach taken
when sentencing youths, particularly:
° the role of the Sentencing Children and Young People - definitive guidelines
° referral orders
° youth rehabilitation orders
° detention and training orders.
¢ How the appeal jurisdiction operates when appealing a case from the
Youth Court.
13.1 Introduction
In this chapter we will consider the procedures which take place in the Youth Court, and how
these differ from proceedings in the adult magistrates’ court. We will begin by describing the
aims of the youth justice system and which categories of juvenile may be dealt with by the
Youth Court. We will then consider the circumstances in which a juvenile who would ordinarily
appear in the Youth Court may have their case heard before either the magistrates’ court
or the Crown Court. We will also consider the powers of the Youth Court in relation to the
granting of bail, and the chapter concludes by describing the sentencing powers the Youth
Court may exercise and how decisions from the Youth Court may be appealed.
264
Youth Court Procedure
For juveniles aged 16 or 17, the court has a discretion as to whether to make an order
requiring the attendance of the juvenile’s parents or guardian.
Parents or guardians who attend the Youth Court play an active role in the proceedings.
The court will want to hear their views (particularly in relation to sentencing) and may direct
questions to them.
265
Criminal Practice
presumption that children under the age of 10 cannot be guilty of committing a criminal
offence.
Juveniles in the Youth Court are sometimes referred to as either ‘children’ or ‘young people’.
‘Children’ are juveniles aged between 10 and 13 inclusive. ‘Young people’ are juveniles aged
between 14 and 17 inclusive. This distinction is relevant in terms of the sentencing powers of
the court (see below).
Collectively, juveniles in the Youth Court are referred to as youths or ‘juveniles’. There is a
slight difference between the term ‘juveniles’ when applied to juveniles in the Youth Court
and ‘juveniles’ at the police station. A ‘juvenile’ at the police station is a suspect who is, or
appears to be, under 18 years of age. A ‘juvenile’ in the Youth Court is a juvenile who is under
18 years of age.
Some juveniles appearing before the Youth Court are classified by the court and the police
as ‘persistent young offenders’ (PYOs). The Home Office categorises a PYO as a juvenile
who has been sentenced on three separate occasions for one or more recordable offences
(a recordable offence is any offence for which a juvenile may receive a custodial sentence).
A juvenile who is a PYO will have their case expedited so the Youth Court may deal with them
as quickly as possible.
13.4.1 Age
If a juvenile is charged with an offence when aged 17, but turns 18 prior to their first
appearance in the Youth Court, the court does not have jurisdiction to deal with them and the
case must be dealt with in the adult magistrates’ court.
266
Youth Court Procedure
If convicted, the juvenile will be subject to the full range of sentencing powers which the
magistrates’ court may exercise.
If a juvenile makes his first appearance in the Youth Court before their 18th birthday, but
becomes 18 whilst the case is ongoing, the Youth Court may either remit the case to the adult
magistrates’ court or retain the case. If the Youth Court retains the case, it will have the full
range of sentencing powers that the adult magistrates’ court would have were it dealing with
the juvenile.
© Example
Zaina (aged 16) is charged with robbery and appears before the Youth Court. She has a
previous conviction for the same offence. Zaina intends to plead not guilty to the charge.
When they hear the facts of the case, the magistrates consider that, were Zaina to be
convicted before them, their sentencing powers would be insufficient and that, were the
case before the Crown Court, there is a real possibility that the judge would impose a
sentence of long-term detention. The magistrates will send Zaina to the Crown Court
for trial.
267
Criminal Practice
13.5 Bail
Under the Bail Act 1976, the Youth Court has the power to remand a juvenile:
(a) on bail (with or without conditions)
(b) into local authority accommodation or
(c) in the case of 17-year-olds, into custody.
In deciding whether to grant bail, the Youth Court will normally have before it a report from
the YOT providing details of the juvenile’s antecedents and also their record in relation to
previous grants of bail. In addition, the report will inform the court about the juvenile’s home
situation and their attendance record at school, college or work.
268
Youth Court Procedure
There are four sets of conditions that must be met for a remand to youth detention
accommodation to take place. They are:
(i) The juvenile must be aged 12 to 17 years.
(ii) The juvenile must usually have legal representation.
(iii) The offence will usually need to be either a violent or sexual offence or one for which an
adult could be punished with a term of imprisonment of 14 years or more. Alternatively,
the juvenile will need to have a history of absconding whilst remanded to local authority
accommodation or youth detention accommodation; or a recent history of committing
imprisonable offences whilst on bail or remand to local authority accommodation or youth
detention accommodation.
(iv) The court must believe a remand to youth detention accommodation is necessary either
to protect the public from death or serious personal injury (physical or psychological)
occasioned by further offences committed by the juvenile, or to prevent the commission by
the juvenile of further imprisonable offences.
© Example
Jamie is aged 15. He has been charged with an offence of robbery, it being alleged that
he stole a mobile phone from a fellow pupil at school whilst threatening the victim with a
piece of wood. Jamie is not welcome home as he has fallen out with his parents following
this latest incident. Jamie has a history of committing acquisitive crime including several
offences of theft and robbery, some of which were committed whilst on bail. Jamie has
also failed to surrender to custody in the past and for his most recent offence he received
a youth detention and training order for 24 months. The training part of the order has not
yet been completed. When Jamie appears in the Youth Court he is legally represented
and indicates a not guilty plea. The Youth Court believes that its powers of punishment
are inadequate to deal with Jamie and so his case is sent to the Crown Court for
sentence. The CPS object to bail on the basis that there are substantial grounds to believe
that if granted bail Jamie would fail to surrender to custody and commit further offences
whilst on bail.
The Youth Court may remand Jamie into youth detention accommodation as all four of the
above conditions are satisfied.
13.6 Sentencing
Before a juvenile ever comes before a Youth Court, it is likely that they will have been through
the formal system of youth cautions. When the Youth Court sentences a juvenile, it must
balance the seriousness of the offence (and the juvenile’s previous record) with the welfare
requirements of the juvenile. The court must at all times have regard to the principal aim of
preventing offending.
269
Criminal Practice
the report will address the juvenile’s suitability for that type of sentence. The court will place
great emphasis on the contents of the report when deciding the sentence to impose. The
Youth Court may either adjourn the sentencing hearing to enable the YOT to prepare the
pre-sentence report, or may ask the member of the YOT who is present in court to prepare
a ‘stand down’ report so that sentencing can take place without the need for the caseto be
adjourned.
13.6.2 Role of the Sentencing Children and Young People - definitive guidelines
As with adult offenders, a sentencing court is required to apply the relevant sentencing
guidelines provided by the Sentencing Council. However, the approach taken is different to
adults as can be seen from the extract below of the overarching principles of sentencing
children and young people that apply to these guidelines.
Overarching principles
1. When sentencing children or young people a court must have regard to:
° the principal aim of the youth justice system (to prevent offending by children and
young people); and
° the welfare of the child or young person.
2. Whilst the seriousness of the offence will be the starting point, the approach to sentencing
should be individualistic and focused on the child or young person, as opposed to
offence focused. For a child or young person, the sentence should focus on rehabilitation
where possible. A court should also consider the effect the sentence is likely to have on
the child or young person (both positive and negative) as well as any underlying factors
contributing to the offending behaviour.
3. Domestic and international laws dictate that a custodial sentence should always be a
measure of last resort for children and young people and statute provides that a custodial
sentence may only be imposed when the offence is so serious that no other sanction is
appropriate.
4. It is important to avoid ‘criminalising’ children and young people unnecessarily; the
primary purpose of the youth justice system is to encourage children and young people to
take responsibility for their own actions and promote re-integration into society rather than
to punish. Restorative justice disposals may be of particular value for children and young
people as they can encourage them to take responsibility for their actions and understand
the impact their offence may have had on others.
It is important to bear in mind any factors that may diminish the culpability of a child or
young person. Children and young people are not fully developed, and they have not
attained full maturity. As such, this can impact on their decision-making and risk-taking
behaviour. It is important to consider the extent to which the child or young person has
been acting impulsively and whether their conduct has been affected by inexperience,
emotional volatility or negative influences. They may not fully appreciate the effect their
actions can have on other people and may not be capable of fully understanding the
distress and pain they cause to the victims of their crimes. Children and young people
are also likely to be susceptible to peer pressure, and other external influences and
changes taking place during adolescence can lead to experimentation, resulting in
criminal behaviour. When considering a child or young person’s age, their emotional
and developmental age is of at least equal importance to their chronological age
(if not greater).
For these reasons, children and young people are likely to benefit from being given an
opportunity to address their behaviour and may be receptive to changing their conduct.
They should, if possible, be given the opportunity to learn from their mistakes without
270
Youth Court Procedure
271
Criminal Practice
272
Youth Court Procedure
When the court makes such an order, the juvenile will be held in detention in a young
offenders’ institution for one half of the period of the order. They will then be released into
the community under the supervision of the YOT for the second half of the order. The degree
of supervision is decided upon by the YOT (not the court) but is likely to include electronic
monitoring and intensive supervision. ‘
A juvenile offender who breaches the supervision element of their sentence can be further
punished for such a breach.
o Example
Kyle appears before the Youth Court and is convicted of the burglary of domestic
premises. The youth justices impose a detention and training order for a period of
12 months. Kyle will spend the first six months in detention at a young offenders’
institution. He will then spend the second six months in the community under the
supervision of the YOT.
Summary
In this chapter you have considered a range of matters relating to the Youth Court. Notably:
¢ Aims of the youth justice system. How the principal aim of the youth justice system is to
prevent offending by children and young persons.
e The Youth Court’s jurisdiction. The relevance of a child or young person’s age and how
those aged between 10 and 17 (inclusive) will generally be dealt with in the Youth Court.
¢ Differences between an adult court and the Youth Court. Particularly how mode of trial
operates differently in the Youth Court, including the five circumstances where a juvenile
must or may have their case dealt with in an adult court. For those cases where the
juvenile may be dealt with in an adult court, we also considered the approach taken at
the plea before venue and allocation hearing and saw that a juvenile never has a right to
elect trial in the Crown Court.
¢ Bail. How the same right to bail applies to juveniles and how very similar grounds and
factors apply to refuse this right to bail. We also considered the consequences where a
juvenile is refused bail and remanded either in local authority accommodation or in youth
detention accommodation.
¢ Sentencing. The role of the Sentencing Children and Young People - definitive guidelines
and the range of sentences that can be passed on a juvenile, particularly the use of
referral orders, YROs and detention and training orders.
¢ Appeals. How an appeal from the Youth Court follows the same approach as an appeal
from an adult magistrates’ court.
273
Criminal Practice
Sample questions
Question 1
A boy, aged 16, has been jointly charged with a man, aged 18. They have been charaed
with an offence of theft of goods valued at £350 from a shop. The man consents to have his
trial dealt with in the magistrates’ court.
In which court will the boy’s trial take place?
A The trial may take place in the magistrates’ court or the Youth Court. The boy does not
have a right of election to have his trial dealt with in the Crown Court.
B_ The trial may take place in the magistrates’ court although the boy also has a right to
elect trial in the Crown Court since he is charged with an either-way offence.
C_ The trial must take place in the magistrates’ court, although if convicted the boy may be
sentenced in either the magistrates’ court or have his case remitted for sentence to the
Youth Court.
D_ The trial must take place in the magistrates’ court as the boy has no right of election
since he is charged with a summary-only offence.
E The trial may take place in the magistrates’ court or the Youth Court depending on
where the magistrates’ court believe it will be in the interests of justice for the boy’s
case to be dealt with.
Answer
Option C is the correct answer. If the adult is to be tried in the magistrates’ court, the adult
and juvenile must be tried together in the adult magistrates’ court. If the boy is convicted,
the magistrates will normally remit the case to the Youth Court for sentence unless they
propose to deal with the matter by way of a fine or a discharge, in which case, they will
usually sentence the boy themselves.
Option A is wrong. Although it is correct to say the boy does not have a right of election
to have his trial in the Crown Court, the case must, not may, be dealt with in the adult
magistrates’ court. Option B is also wrong for the same reason given for option A, but also
because a juvenile will never have a right of election to have their trial in the Crown Court,
even though the boy has been charged with an either-way offence. Option D is wrong
because although it is correct to say the case must be tried in the magistrates’ court, this
is not a summary-only offence (the value of the goods stolen is not under £200). Option E
is wrong because the magistrates do not have any discretion where the boy’s case can be
tried, although they do have a discretion where he can be sentenced if he is convicted.
Question 2
A girl, aged 11, has been charged with an offence of assault. It is alleged that she
assaulted a teacher at school. When interviewed about the offence, the girl denied the
assault and wrongly claimed the teacher had sexually assaulted her. The girl is to appear
in the Youth Court and having received legal advice, now intends to plead guilty. The girl
received a youth caution for an offence of assault on a fellow pupil two months ago and a
conditional caution for an offence of criminal damage one month ago. The Youth Court will
not take the view that the custody threshold has been met for this offence, nor will they deal
with it by way of an absolute discharge.
274
Youth Court Procedure
Will the girl receive a referral order when she appears in the Youth Court?
A Yes, because she will plead guilty to the offence and she has never previously been
convicted or bound over by a court.
B_ No, because the girl will now be classed as a persistent young offender and so will not
be eligible to receive a referral order.
C Yes, because the court has a discretion to impose such an order where the girl
indicates a guilty plea.
D No, because the offence will be regarded by the Youth Court as being too serious
given the girl’s wrongful allegation against the teacher.
E No, because the girl did not make an early admission of guilt when first interviewed by
the police.
Answer
Option A is the correct answer. A referral order must be made for a juvenile who pleads guilty
to an offence (which carries a possible custodial sentence which assault does) and who has
never previously been convicted or bound over by a court, unless the court is proposing either
to impose a custodial sentence or to make an absolute discharge. Referral orders cannot be
made unless the juvenile pleads guilty to the offence with which they have been charged. In
this case, we are told the girl will plead guilty, she has no previous convictions and the court is
not proposing either to impose a custodial sentence or to make an absolute discharge.
Option B is wrong because the girl will not be classed as a PYO as she does not yet have
any previous convictions recorded against her (only two youth cautions). Option C is wrong
because the Youth Court does not have a discretion - they must impose such an order (subject
to the qualifications mentioned above which do not apply here.) Option D is wrong because
we are told the offence does not meet the custody threshold, so a referral order must be
made, even though the girl’s wrongful allegation against the teacher is an aggravating factor
in the case. Option E is wrong because the eligibility for a referral order is based on a guilty
plea in court, not for an early admission of guilt when first interviewed by the police.
275
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Index
A breach of 57
conditional bail 56-57
absconding see failing to surrender
denial of bail decision 55-56
(absconding)
first appearance at court
accused 220-221
circumstances 57
own defence 221
appeals against decisions on 120-121
spouse of 221-222
appeals by defendant 120-121
as witness
appeals by prosecution 121
for a co-accused 221
breach of 57, 122-123
for the Crown 220-221
before charge 52-54
adverse inference 55, 137-138, 159, 160
conditional bail 115-117
Advocacy Assistance (Court Duty Solicitor)
failing to surrender (absconding) 121
Scheme 80
chargeable offences 122
appeals 250, 260
consequences of 121-122
against conviction and/or sentence
court’s action 121
250-251
further applications for 120
Crown Court, powers of 251
procedure for applying for 118-119
from Crown Court by defendant 253-259
refusal after charging juveniles 68-69
appeal against conviction 254-256
remands 108-110
appeal against sentence 257-258
after conviction 110
prosecution appeals 258-259
before conviction 108-109
to the High Court by way of case stated
Youth Court 268-269
251-253
consequences of refusal of 268-269
advising client 253
bail, right to
hearing 252
exceptions to
procedure 251-252
either-way imprisonable offences
judicial review 253
111-114
from magistrates’ court to Crown Court 250
‘no real prospect of custody’ restriction
appeals against conviction 250
110-111
appeals against sentence 250
non-imprisonable offences 114-115
appropriate adults
offences triable only on indictment
definition of 65-66
111-114
legal representative/solicitor, awareness of
summary-only imprisonable offences 114
role of 66
procedural rules 110
role in interview 66-67
burden and standard of proof 153-154
attendance of witness at trial
evidential burden 153-154
exceptions 129-130
legal burden 153
securing of 128-129
Attorney-General, powers of 258
audibly recorded interviews 24 Cc
case management see magistrates’ court case
management directions
certificate of full argument 118
bail 108, 123-124
character evidence
after charge 55-57
bad character 196
bail denied 57
court’s powers to exclude 195
bail granted 57
procedure for admitting evidence of 197
character evidence (Continued) children
bad character, definition of 185 competence of 220
gateway (a) 185 Sentencing Children and Young People
gateway (b) 186 principles 270-271
gateway (c) 186 sentencing of 270-272
gateway (d) 186-192 unsworn evidence 266
commit an offence, propensity to client
187-188 information gathering from 17-18
exclusions 190-192 alleged offence details 18
guidelines 188-189 client preparation for interview 18
summary of 191-192 client’s instructions 18
untruthful, propensity to be 189-190 next step in 18
gateway (e) 192-193 solicitor’s identity and role of 17
commit offences of same kind, interview at police station see interview, at
propensity to 192-193 police station”
untruthful, propensity to be 193 community resolution 69
gateway (f) 193-194 compellability
gateway (g) 194-195 general rule 219
attack on person’s character 194-195, 196 general rule, exceptions to 220-221
exclusions 195 accused 220-221
charge sheet 55 spouse of accused 221-222
charging juveniles 68-69 competence
alternatives to 69-70 general rule 219
community resolution 69 general rule, exception to 219-220
youth cautions 69, 70 children 220
youth conditional cautions 69-70 defective intellect, people with 220
juveniles refused bail after conditional bail 115-117
charge 68-69 conditional cautions 59-60
refused bail after charge 68-69 conduct issues at police station 31-34
secure accommodation 68-69 client admitting guilt 31-32
charging the suspect 52, 60-61 conflict of interest 32-33
alternatives to 57-60 circumstances of conflict 32-33
commencing a case other than by disclosure
charge 60 of client information by solicitor 33
conditional cautions 59-60 of client’s case to third party 33
informal warnings 58 solicitor’s duty of disclosure to client 33-34
penalty notices 58 withdrawing from acting 34
simple cautions 58-59 confession evidence 174, 177-183
bail after charge 55-57 admissibility 178-179
bail denied 57 confessions and a co-accused 179
bail granted 57 mixed statements 178
breaching of 57 challenging admissibility 179-183
conditional bail 56-57 co-defendant’s reliance on another
denial of bail decision 55-56 defendant's confession 181-182
first appearance at court confessions the defendant accepts
circumstances 57 having made 182
bail before charge 52-54 confessions the defendant denies
charge sheet 55 having made 182-183
decision to charge 54-55 in Crown Court 183
interviewing after charge 55 in magistrates’ court 183
release under investigation 52 oppression 180
NFA (no further action) 52 procedure for 183
RUI (suspect under investigation) 52 unreliability 180-181
Index
279
Index
280
Index
281
Index
language issues 64
Legal Aid Agency (LAA) 80, 265
O
legal burden 153 offences
legal privilege 162 either-way offences 79
legal representation 265 criminal damage 79
Legal Aid Agency 265 low-value shop theft 79
representation orders 265 indictable-only offences 78
local authority accommodation 268 propensity to commit 187-188, 192-193
low-value shop theft 79 offences of same category 187-188
offences of same description 187
M summary offences 79
offenders 236-238
magistrates’ court 95-96 see also first hearings age of the defendant 236
before the magistrates’ court character 237
defence costs 95-96 early guilty plea 236
differences with Youth Court 266-268 family circumstances 237
age 266-267 health of the defendant 236
juveniles trials, determination of mode low risk of re-offending 238
of 267-268 remorse 237
plea before venue and allocation 268 voluntary compensation 236
limited sentencing powers 95 operational period 240
no obligation to serve defence oppression, during interview 28
statement 96
prosecution costs 95 Pp
speed and stress 95
trial preparation form 139-145 PACE 1984, interviewing under 24-31
magistrates’ court case management directions client preparation for interview 28-29
128-130 Codes C and E requirements 24
additional trial preparation 128-130 interviewing before obtaining legal
defence witness obligations 129 advice 25-26
do all witnesses need to attend the suspect's condition 25
trial? 129-130 conduct of interview 28
documentary evidence 130 interview period 28
282
Index
283
Index
284
Index
285
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