Jacqueline Kempton - SQE - Legal Services (SQE1) - The University of Law (2021)
Jacqueline Kempton - SQE - Legal Services (SQE1) - The University of Law (2021)
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LEGAL SERVICES
Jacqueline Kempton
Published by
The University of Law,
2 Bunhill Row
London EC1Y 8HQ
© The University of Law 2021
All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or transmitted,
in any form or by any means, without the prior written permission of the copyright holder, application for which
should be addressed to the publisher.
Contains public sector information licensed under the Open Government Licence v3.0
British Library Cataloguing in Publication Data
A catalogue record for this book is available from the British Library.
ISBN 978 1 914219 06 1
Preface
This book is part of a series of Study Manuals that have been specially designed
to support the reader to achieve the SQE1 Assessment Specification in relation to
Functioning Legal Knowledge. Each Study Manual aims to provide the reader with
a solid knowledge and understanding of fundamental legal principles and rules,
including how those principles and rules might be applied in practice.
This Study Manual covers the Solicitors Regulation Authority's syllabus for the SQE1
assessment for Legal Services in a concise and tightly focused manner. The Manual
provides a clear statement of relevant legal rules and a well-defined road map
through examinable law and practice. The Manual aims to bring the law and practice
to life through the use of example scenarios based on realistic client-based problems
and allows the reader to test their knowledge and understanding through single
best answer questions that have been modelled on the SRA’s sample assessment
questions.
For those readers who are students at the University of Law, the Study Manual is
used alongside other learning resources and the University’s assessment bank to
best prepare students not only for the SQE1 assessments, but also for a future life in
professional legal practice.
We hope that you find the Study Manual supportive of your preparation for SQE1 and
we wish you every success.
The legal principles and rules contained within this Manual are stated as at
1 October 2020.
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Contents
Preface Vv
Table of Cases xiii
Summary 7
Sample questions 8
SQE1 syllabus : 11
Learning outcomes 11
Za Introduction 12
2 Risk-based regulation 13
Contents
Summary Zi
Sample questions 22
Chapter 3 Equality Act 2010 25
SQE1 syllabus 25
Learning outcomes sles
Se Introduction 26
oy Overview of the Act 26
3 The protected characteristics ZF
3.4 Prohibited conduct 28
3.4.1 Direct discrimination 28
3.4.2 — Indirect discrimination 29
3.4.3 Disability discrimination 30
3.4.4 Victimisation 30
3.4.5 Harassment 30
viii
Contents
4.1 Introduction 42
4.2 Source materials 43
4.3 Financial services regulatory structure 43
4.3.1. The Financial Conduct Authority (FCA) 43
4.3.2 The Prudential Regulation Authority (PRA) 44
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Summary 35
Sample questions 58
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D7, Training 70
5.10 Record keeping 70
Deli Criminal Finances Act 2017 71
Summary 71
Sample questions yi
Chapter 6 Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 75
SQE1 syllabus ifs
Learning outcomes 76
6.1 Introduction 76
6.2 Overview of offences 76
6.3 Section 328 Arranging hy
6.3.1. ‘Know or suspect’ i
6.3.2 Criminal property 78
6.3.3 Litigation proceedings 78
6.3.4 Authorised disclosure defence 78
Contents
7.7.1. Solicitor and client costs and costs between the parties 93
7.7.2 Variable fees 73
7.7.3 Legal expenses insurance 98
7.7.4 Third party funding 77
xi
Contents
aS eer
Summary 100
Summary 110
Sample questions 110
Index 113
xii
Table of Cases
Cc Chapelgate Credit Opportunity Master Fund Ltd v Money and others [2020]
EWCA Civ 246 100
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reg 30 66
reg 31 67
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reg 35(5) 70
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XVii
Table of Legislation, Codes and Rules
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s 57 92
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SRA Assessment of Character and Suitability Rules ae
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para 2.1(a) 65
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para 5.1 50
para 7.1 Zz
SRA Code of Conduct for Solicitors, RELs and RFLs
para 1.1 37
para 1.2 21,94
para 3.2 42, 59
para 3.4 91
para 4.1 50
para 5.6 21
para 6.3 85
para 7.1 36
para 7.6 19
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para 8.7 90
SRA Financial Services (Conduct of Business) Rules 435,51,,95; 08-07
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SRA Financial Services (Scope) Rules 45, 50-51, Sa,oenor
SRA Indemnity Insurance Rules 20°23
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SRA Principles
Principle 1 85
Principle 2 36, 39
Principle 4 85
Principle 5 91
Principle 6 37, 39, 40
Principle 7 21, 42, 52, 91
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xviii
Providers of Legal Services
| Introduction
SQE1 syllabus
This chapter will enable you to achieve the SQE1 Assessment Specification in relation
to Functioning Legal Knowledge concerned with Legal Services:
* The regulatory role of the Solicitors Regulation Authority.
¢ Reserved legal activities.
¢ Other regulated providers of legal service.
Note that for SQE1, candidates are not usually required to recall specific case
names or cite statutory or regulatory authorities. Cases are provided for illustrative
purposes only.
Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to apply relevant core legal principles
and rules appropriately and effectively, at the level of a competent newly qualified
solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based and ethical problems and situations in the
following areas:
e The legal services market.
¢ Regulation under the Legal Services Act 2007.
e Reserved legal activities.
e Approved regulators.
e Legal service providers.
Legal Services
1.1 Introduction
The legal services market has gone through successive periods of significant change in recent
years. Legal work was once almost exclusively conducted by solicitors and barristers. They
continue to occupy the largest part of the sector in England and Wales and their numbers
have increased in response to a growing demand for legal services. That demand is a
product of a number of factors, including globalisation of the economy, the incorporation
of EU law, increasing affluence and the internet age. However, these factors, together with
a political desire to increase competition, have also brought others into the market. Now
clients are able to look to an increasing range of providers delivering legal services in both
traditional and innovative of ways.
This chapter looks at:
* overview of legal services
¢ regulated legal activities
¢ the Legal Services Board
* regulated providers
e regulation outside the Legal Services Act 2007
* unregulated providers
Irrespective of any regulatory requirements, the provision of legal services falls within
the framework of the general law. Providers may therefore be subject to overriding legal
obligations affecting the way in which they work, for example under the Equality Act 2010 (see
Chapter 3) and anti-money laundering legislation (see Chapter 5)
eea et
Definition
There are six types of legal work set out in s 12 Legal Services Act 2007 and defined as
‘reserved legal activities’:
1.3.2 Authorisation
Under s 13 Legal Services Act 2007 reserved legal activities can only be carried out by those
who are authorised or exempt.
A person must be authorised to carry out a particular reserved legal activity by a relevant
approved regulator (s 18 Legal Services Act 2007). The Act lists approved regulators for
specific reserved legal activities (see 1.5). An authorised person is subject to the regulatory
requirements of its own regulator in respect of all the legal services it provides, including
those which fall outside the definition of reserved legal activity.
The Law Society is the approved regulator for solicitors named in the Legal Services Act 2007,
but the regulatory function is carried out in practice by the Solicitors Regulation Authority
(SRA). The SRA deals with authorisation for all the reserved legal activities except notarial
activities.
Section 19 Legal Services Act 2007 lists the circumstances in which a person is exempt in
relation to each of the reserved legal activities. For example, in relation to rights of audience
a person will be exempt if a court grants that person a right of audience in a particular case
(eg a McKenzie friend); in relation to probate activities an exemption allows an employee to
act under the supervision of an authorised person. There is also an exemption for some non-
commercial organisations such as charities and independent trade unions.
It is a criminal offence for a person to carry on a ‘reserved legal activity’ if that person is
neither authorised nor exempt (s 14 Legal Services Act 2007). The offence is punishable by
up to two years’ imprisonment. Additionally, in the context of rights of audience and conduct
of litigation, carrying out a reserved legal activity whilst not entitled to do so places the
individual in contempt of court.
1.5.1 Solicitors
As a group, solicitors are the largest providers of legal services. The work of solicitors and the
regulatory role of the SRA are considered in detail in Chapter 2.
Legal Services
1.5.2 Barristers
The primary role of barristers is as advocates in the criminal and civil courts. They also
provide expert legal advice and draft documentation. Traditionally members of the public
could not instruct a barrister directly; instead the barrister had to be instructed by a solicitor
on the client's behalf. This prohibition has now been relaxed so that barristers may now be
instructed directly in some civil cases.
Most barristers are self-employed and work in sets of chambers sharing premises and
administrative facilities. Some barristers are employed by such bodies as the Civil Service, the
Crown Prosecution Service, law firms and companies.
The approved regulator for barristers is the Bar Standards Board. It can authorise barristers to
provide all types of reserved legal activity, except notarial activities.
1.5.8 Notaries
For historical reasons notaries are appointed by the Archbishop of Canterbury. Notaries
authenticate and certify signatures and documents, often where there is a foreign element.
They commonly deal with powers of attorney, bills of exchange and documents dealing with
foreign property and international finance. The approved regulator for notaries is the Master
of the Faculties. It can authorise notaries to carry out all reserved legal activities except
exercising rights of audience and conducting litigation. The Master of Faculties is the only
regulator that can authorise notarial activities.
Providers of Legal Services
Summary
¢ The Legal Services Board oversees and coordinates the regulation of legal services
according to the regulatory objectives set out in the Legal Services Act 2007.
¢ Reserved legal activities are:
° the exercise of a right of audience
° the conduct of litigation
© reserved instrument activities
° probate activities
Legal Services
° notarial activities
© the administration of estates
* Reserved legal activities can only be carried out by those authorised by an approved
regulator.
¢ The approved regulators are:
° Solicitors Regulation Authority
° Bar Standards Board
° CILEx Regulation
° Council for Licensed Conveyancers
° Intellectual Property Regulation Board
© Costs Lawyers Standards Board
© Master of Faculties
Sample questions
Question 1
Three friends decide to set up a firm offering conveyancing services to members of the
public. None of the friends are solicitors.
Which of the following best describes the position regarding the regulatory
requirements which will apply to the proposed firm?
A The firm must be authorised by the SRA.
B_ There is no need for the firm to be authorised.
C_ The firm must be authorised by the Legal Services Board.
D_ The firm must be authorised by an approved regulator.
E Authorisation for the firm is dealt with outside the Legal Services Act 2007.
Answer
Option D is correct. As the firm will be offering conveyancing services it will be carrying out
reserved instrument activities - one of the reserved legal activities. The firm must therefore be
authorised (option B is wrong) within the regulatory framework set down by the Legal Services
Act 2007 (option E therefore is wrong). Authorisation can be given by any of the approved
regulators (here probably the Council of Licensed Conveyancers) and is not restricted to the
SRA (option A therefore is not the best answer). Option C is wrong as the Legal Services
Board is responsible for the oversight of regulation; it does not authorise firms itself.
Providers of Legal Services
Question 2
A solicitor is authorised to provide legal services by the SRA.
Which of the following best describes the effect of authorisation?
A The solicitor can provide all reserved legal activities.
B_ The solicitor will be subject to regulation by the SRA in respect of all the legal services
they provide.
-C_ The solicitor is only subject to regulation by the Legal Services Board in respect of the
reserved legal activities they carry out.
D_ The solicitor is absolved from the need to comply with any further regulatory
requirements.
E The solicitor is only subject to regulation by the SRA in respect of the reserved legal
activities they carry out.
Answer
Option B is correct. An authorised provider is subject to regulation by their own regulator
(here the SRA) in respect of all the legal services they provide, not just those falling within
the definition of reserved legal activities. The SRA cannot authorise an individual to carry out
notarial activities, and so the solicitor cannot carry out all types of reserved legal activity.
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SQE1 syllabus
This chapter will enable you to achieve the SQE1 Assessment Specification in relation
to Functioning Legal Knowledge concerned with Legal Services:
¢ The regulatory role of the Solicitors Regulation Authority.
¢ Principles and risk-based regulation.
¢ Professional indemnity insurance.
Note that for SQE1, candidates are not usually required to recall specific case
names or cite statutory or regulatory authorities. Cases are provided for illustrative
purposes only.
Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to apply relevant core legal principles
and rules appropriately and effectively, at the level of a competent newly qualified
solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based and ethical problems and situations in the
following areas:
¢ The role of the SRA.
e The need for authorisation.
¢ Professional indemnity insurance provision.
1]
Legal Services
on) Introduction
The SRA regulates solicitors, the firms in which they work (and the non-lawyers they employ)
and registered European and foreign lawyers. This chapter focuses on the SRA’s role as
an approved regulator under the Legal Services Act 2007 (see Peps 1) in authorising
individuals and firms to provide legal services.
This chapter looks at:
¢ the Solicitors Regulation Authority
e risk-based regulation
¢ firm-based authorisation
¢ quthorisation of individuals
¢ solicitors outside authorised firms
¢ professional indemnity insurance
12
The Regulatory Role of the Solicitors Regulation Authority
Legal Services Act 2007 and, as such, is empowered to authorise solicitors and firms to carry
out ‘reserved legal activities’ (see 1.3).
As an approved regulator the SRA operates under the oversight of the Legal Services Board.
In exercising any of its functions the LSB has a duty to promote the regulatory objectives (see
also 1.4) set out in s 1 Legal Services Act 2007:
* protecting and promoting the public interest;
* supporting the constitutional principle of the rule of law;
_ © — improving access to justice;
* protecting and promoting the interests of consumers;
* promoting competition in the provision of services in the legal sector;
* encouraging an independent, strong, diverse, and effective legal profession;
* increasing public understanding of citizens’ legal rights and duties;
promoting and maintaining adherence to the professional principles of independence
and integrity; proper standards of work; observing the best interests of the client and the
duty to the court; and maintaining client confidentiality.
These objectives are passed onto the SRA as an approved regulator. In discharging its
regulatory functions, the SRA must, as far as is reasonably practicable, act in a way which is
compatible with those objectives.
Although the legislation sets regulatory objectives, it does not stipulate the purpose of legal
services regulation. In a policy statement in 2015, the SRA said:
In the SRA’s view, the purpose of its regulation is to:
* protect consumers of legal services; and
* support the operation of the rule of law and the proper administration of justice.
Those dual purposes reflect the fact that poor quality legal services have an impact on both
the individual and the justice system as a whole.
13
Legal Services
The SRA identifies risk involved in any given situation based on the range of information
it holds, receives or can gather about those it regulates. It looks at problems which have
actually arisen or factors which pose potential problems for the future. The SRA will then
assess the risk involved and target its resources appropriately. For example, the SRA may
identify a risk because a firm is the subject of a number of complaints, assess the risk as high
because the firm is large and therefore a large number of people could be affected and then
conclude that it needs to devote resources to work with the firm to ensure that its procedures
are improved.
Risk identification covers multiple levels: individual solicitors, firms and profession-wide. So,
risk will be assessed when the SRA is deciding what, if any, limitations need to be placed
on an individual's practising certificate, whether a firm should be closed down and whether
changes need to be made to the Codes of Conduct. The SRA can use a variety of measures
to proportionately address the issues or reduce the risk, eg set standards, impose fines, issue
warning notices or raise consumer awareness.
The SRA aims to be proactive and address issues before they become problems. Each year
the SRA publishes its Risk Outlook in which it sets out its view of the most significant risks
affecting the profession.
The SRA also expects firms to engage in their own risk management. Paragraph 2.5 of the
SRA Code of Conduct for Firms requires a firm to identify, monitor and manage all material
risks to its business.
14
The Regulatory Role of the Solicitors Regulation Authority
Sole practitioners are authorised under the same authorisation rules as other types of firm.
Accordingly, their organisation is authorised by the SRA as a ‘recognised sole practice’ rather
than recognising the individual as a sole practitioner.
(a) Partnerships
Most solicitors’ firms operate as partnerships. The firm is owned and run by the partners, who
then employ other solicitors and administration staff to work for them. As the partners own the
firm, they are entitled to share the profits generated by the firm between them.
Some large firms have two types of partners - ‘equity’ partners and ‘salaried’ partners.
A salaried partner is the first step on the partnership ladder. A salaried partner may not be
entitled to share in the profits of the firm, but they will receive a salary from the firm in excess of
that paid to other non-partner fee earners. After a number of years, a salaried partner may be
promoted to an equity partner, whereupon they will be entitled to share in the profits of the firm.
(c) Companies
A solicitors’ practice may be incorporated as a company registered under the Companies Act
2006. The company will have directors and shareholders like any other company.
15
Legal Services
16
The Regulatory Role of the Solicitors Regulation Authority
2.5.1 Admission
Admission simply means that an individual is accepted into the profession and their name
is placed on the list, or roll, of solicitors kept by the SRA. An individual will be admitted to
the roll of solicitors if they have attained the required qualifications, undertaken the required
training (neither are considered further here) and the SRA is satisfied as to their character and
suitability to be a solicitor.
The SRA Assessment of Character and Suitability Rules set out the factors which the SRA will
take into account in deciding whether an individual is suitable for admission. The Rules apply
to all individuals applying for admission to the roll of solicitors (including those applying to the
SRA for an early assessment of their character and suitability). The Rules also apply to those
applying to become an authorised role holder in a firm (eg a Compliance Officer for Legal
Practice (COLP)) and former solicitors seeking restoration to the roll.
According to Part 1 of the Rules, when considering an individual's character and suitability
under the Rules, the SRA will take into account the overriding need to protect the public and
the public interest and maintain public trust and confidence in the solicitors’ profession and in
legal services provided by ‘authorised persons’. In doing so, it will take into account the nature
of the applicant's role and their individual circumstances on a case-by-case basis.
Part 2 of the Rules sets out the conduct and other behaviour that the SRA will consider when
assessing an individual's character and suitability, which fall into two main heads: criminal
conduct and other conduct or behaviour. There is a non-exhaustive list in Part 3 of the Rules
which sets out the types of aggravating and mitigating factors that the SRA will take into
account under either of these heads.
lf an applicant has been involved in criminal conduct, the action taken by the SRA will depend
upon the type of conduct involved. These are dealt with in the following categories:
e Most serious
A finding in this category is likely to result in the application being refused. These include
where an applicant has been convicted by a court of a criminal offence resulting in a
custodial or suspended sentence, involving dishonesty, perjury, fraud and/or bribery, of
a violent or sexual nature, associated with obstructing the course of justice, associated
with terrorism or which demonstrated behaviour showing signs of discrimination towards
others. Also included are cases where a caution has been accepted from the police for
17
Legal Services
A finding in this category may result in the application being refused. These include where
a caution has been accepted for, or the individual has been convicted of, a criminal
offence not falling within the ‘most serious’ category and where an individual is subject to
a conditional discharge or bind over by a court.
The Rules set out a non-exhaustive list of examples of the other types of conduct and
behaviour that the SRA will take into account. These include where:
* the applicant has behaved in a way which is dishonest, violent, threatening or harassing
or where there is evidence of discrimination towards others;
* the applicant has committed and/or has been adjudged by an education establishment
to have committed a deliberate assessment offence, which amounts to plagiarism or
cheating, in order to gain an advantage for himself or others;
¢ there is evidence that the applicant has deliberately sought to avoid responsibility for his
debts, dishonestly managed his finances, been declared bankrupt or cannot satisfactorily
manage his finances;
¢ the applicant has been made the subject of serious disciplinary or regulatory findings or
sanctions.
On making an application for admission, an individual must disclose all matters, wherever they
have taken place (including overseas), which are relevant to the assessment of character and
suitability and provide any further information requested by the SRA by the date specified. Failing
to disclose any material information relating to the application will be taken into account by the
SRA when making its determination. It is important to note that there is an ongoing obligation on
those covered by the Rules to tell the SRA promptly about anything that raises a question about
their character and suitability, or any change to information previously disclosed to the SRA.
18
The Regulatory Role of the Solicitors Regulation Authority
on the roll if the solicitor is subject to any criminal charge, conviction or caution, or if a
relevant insolvency event occurs in relation to them (for example, bankruptcy) (Paragraph 7.6
of the SRA Code of Conduct for Solicitors, RELs and RFLs,)
The SRA has a certain level of discretion regarding the issue of practising certificates. If
the SRA considers it to be in the public interest to do so, it must refuse an application for a
practising certificate or, at any time, it may impose conditions on an existing certificate as it
thinks fit. The SRA may impose such conditions if it is satisfied that the solicitor:
(a) is unsuitable to undertake certain activities or engage in certain business or practising
arrangements;
(b) is putting, or is likely to put, at risk the interest of clients, third parties or the public;
(c) will not comply with, or requires monitoring of compliance with, the SRA’s regulatory
arrangements; or
(d) should take specified steps conducive to the regulatory objectives.
The conditions imposed may specify certain requirements to be met or steps to be taken,
restrict the carrying on of certain activities, the holding of certain roles or prohibit the taking of
specified steps without the SRA’s approval.
A decision by the SRA to refuse an application for a practising certificate or to impose
conditions on one can be made the subject of an application for a review by the SRA or
appealed to the High Court.
A freelance solicitor is one who works on their own. Ordinarily such a solicitor would have to
be authorised as a recognised sole practice (see 2.4.1.1). In some circumstances, however,
such authorisation is not required. Under the SRA Authorisation of Individuals Regulations, a
freelance solicitor is not required to be authorised as a recognised sole practice if:
(a) their practice consists entirely of carrying on activities which are not ‘reserved legal activities’
(for example, family, employment or personal injury work and general legal advice);
(b) any reserved legal activities are provided through an authorised body; or
(c) certain requirements are met. For example, the solicitor must have practised as a solicitor for
a minimum of three years since admission, be self-employed and practise in their own name,
take out indemnity insurance in respect of all the services they provide, does not employ
anyone in connection with those services and only holds limited categories of client money.
Even when authorisation is not required, a freelance solicitor must notify the SRA of their
intention to practise in that capacity. The SRA will place the solicitor’s details on a public
register.
An in-house solicitor is employed by, say, a company or a local authority to provide that
employer with legal advice etc. An in-house solicitor is able to deliver reserved legal activities
to their employer, but not to the general public.
19
Legal Services
When providing services to the public these solicitors will be covered by the wider insurance
arrangements that organisation has in place. The SRA does not specify a specific level of
cover but does require that the solicitor is covered by professional indemnity insurance that is
‘adequate and appropriate’ for the work they are carrying out (see 2.7).
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The Regulatory Role of the Solicitors Regulation Authority
The Rules set out the minimum terms and conditions for the insurance policy. These include a
minimum figure for the sum insured. For recognised and licensed bodies (see 2.4.1) the sum
insured for any one claim (exclusive of defence costs) must be at least £3 million and at least
£2 million in all other cases. The firm must not exclude or attempt to exclude liability below
this minimum level of cover.
A firm must have qualifying insurance in place at all times. This means that the insurance
cover must be continuous. The Rules require a firm to put a new policy in place as the current
policy comes to an end. If for some reason a firm cannot effect qualifying insurance at
the end of the policy period, the minimum terms and conditions will extend the cover for a
maximum of 90 days. The firm must inform the SRA that it has entered this extended policy
period. The firm can use this time to try to find insurance cover. After 30 days, if no cover can
be found, the firm must notify the SRA and cannot take on new work. If, at the end of 90 days,
insurance cover still cannot be secured the firm must cease practising.
The SRA can require a firm to produce evidence so that the SRA can be satisfied that the firm
is complying with the Rules.
* SRA authorised firms (Rule 3.1 SRA Indemnity Insurance Rules). The Rules include minimum
requirements for insurance cover (see above). However, the additional need for insurance
cover to be adequate and appropriate may require a firm to go beyond that minimum.
The minimum may not be adequate and appropriate in all cases and so a firm may need
to take out ‘top-up’ cover.
¢ Freelance solicitors (see 2.6.1) providing reserved legal services to the public (SRA
Authorisation of Individuals Regulations).
¢ Solicitors in non-commercial organisations (see 2.6.3) providing reserved legal services to
the public (Paragraph 5.6 of the SRA Code of Conduct for Solicitors, RELs and RFLs). Here
the non-commercial body will arrange the policy, so the duty placed on the solicitor is to
ensure that it does so.
What constitutes adequate and appropriate insurance will vary. It is for each firm or solicitor
to determine what is needed based on their individual circumstances. This will require a firm
to make an assessment based on such factors as the number and type of clients, its history
of claims and an estimate of the level of claims that could be made. The assessment must be
kept under review because the needs may vary as the firm develops.
An important point to note is that for freelance solicitors and solicitors in a non-commercial
body, the obligation to have adequate and appropriate insurance only arises if they provide
reserved legal services to the public. However, the need for insurance to be adequate and
appropriate applies to all the services that the solicitor provides.
SRA authorised firms cannot exclude or limit their liability to clients below the minimum level
under the SRA’s minimum terms and conditions (see above). This restriction does not apply
to freelance solicitors or solicitors working for non-commercial bodies. There is no restriction
on authorised firms capping their liability above the minimum level. If a cap is set, regard
must be had to a solicitor’s professional conduct obligations. For example, a solicitor must
act in the client’s best interests (SRA Principle 7) and must not abuse their position by
taking unfair advantage of clients (Paragraph 1.2 SRA Code of Conduct for Solicitors, RELs
and RFLs).
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Solicitors must be open with their clients about their professional indemnity insurance
provision. There are some specific requirements. For example, under the Provision of Services
Regulations 2009 (SI 2009/2999) it is necessary to make available to clients information about
the firm’s compulsory layer of professional indemnity insurance, including details of the insurer
and the territorial coverage of its insurance. Under the SRA Transparency Rules freelance
solicitors providing reserved legal services to the public must inform their clients that they are
not required to meet the SRA’s minimum terms and conditions.
However, solicitors are under wider duties to provide clients with information. The firm’s indemnity
insurance position may be a factor influencing a client's decision with regard to the provision of
legal services. For example, a client may be unwilling to instruct a firm in respect of a £10 million
claim if the amount of cover under the firm’s policy is only £5 million. Solicitors are under a duty
to give clients information in a way they can understand and ensure they are in a position to
make informed decisions about the services they need, how their matter will be handled and the
options available to them (Paragraph 8.6 SRA Code of Conduct for Solicitors, RELs and RFLs. This
is also applicable to firms under Paragraph 7.1 SRA Code of Conduct for Firms).
Summary
* The SRA is the approved regulator for solicitors, the firms in which they work (and their
non-lawyer employees), Registered European Lawyers and Registered Foreign Lawyers.
¢ The SRA adopts a risk-based approach to regulation.
¢ A firm must be authorised by the SRA to carry out reserved legal activities.
¢ The SRA can authorise recognised sole practices, recognised bodies and licensed bodies.
¢ The suitability of an individual to be admitted as a solicitor is governed by the SRA
Assessment of Character and Suitability Rules.
¢ Solicitors holding a practising certificate are authorised to carry out reserved legal
activities.
¢ All firms authorised by the SRA must take out and maintain professional indemnity
insurance.
¢ Indemnity insurance cover must meet minimum requirements and be adequate and
appropriate.
¢ Firms must be open with clients about their professional indemnity insurance provision.
Sample questions
Question 1
Having completed all the necessary training requirements a man wishes to apply for
admission to the roll of solicitors.
At the end of their final year at university the man was drinking with some fellow students in
a local bar. A fight broke out in which the barman was punched in the face and sustained
a black eye. The fight was broken up by the other bar staff. The bar owner put the fight
22
The Regulatory Role of the Solicitors Regulation Authority
down to student ‘high spirits’ and decided not to call the police; instead they reported
the incident to the university authorities. The university carried out an investigation. At first
the man denied being in the bar, but CCTV footage showed that it was the man who had
punched the barman. The man was formally disciplined by the university. The incident was
completely out of character. The man has not been involved in anything similar before
or since.
Should the man tell the SRA about the disciplinary proceedings?
A No, because the man was not convicted of a criminal offence.
B_ No, because the incident took place too long ago to be of relevance in assessing the
man’s character and suitability.
C No, because the fact that it was an isolated incident demonstrates that the man is of
good character.
D Yes, because there is a risk that the university will inform the SRA.
E Yes, because the incident is relevant to the assessment of the man’s character and
suitability.
Answer
Option E is the best answer. The incident and the disciplinary proceedings are relevant in
assessing an application irrespective of when they took place (so Option B is not correct).
Option A is not correct because the SRA looks at all types of behaviour, not just criminal
or recent behaviour. Rule 4.1 sets out examples of ‘other conduct and behaviour’ including
violence, dishonesty and being subject to disciplinary proceedings by a regulatory body.
The man’s behaviour was violent (punching the barman) and dishonest (lying to the university
authorities) and they were disciplined by the university. The fact that the incident has not been
repeated will be taken into account by the SRA, but it is not a justification for withholding
the information (so, Option C is not correct). Option D is not the best answer because,
whilst there is a risk that the university will inform the SRA, this should not be the reason for
disclosure - the man is under an obligation to be open and honest.
Question 2
A solicitor decides to set up in business as a sole practitioner carrying out niche private
client work for high net worth individuals. The solicitor anticipates that they will regularly be
dealing with estates in excess of £20 million. The solicitor will be authorised by the SRA as
a recognised sole practice.
Which of the following best describes how the requirements in respect of professional
indemnity insurance applies to the solicitor?
A The solicitor can limit their liability at below £2 million.
B The cover must be for at least £3 million.
C_ The cover will need to be in excess of the minimum terms and conditions set under the
SRA Indemnity Insurance Rules.
D Having taken out professional indemnity insurance the solicitor will be absolved from
liability for negligence.
E The solicitor is not required to meet the minimum terms and conditions set under the
SRA Indemnity Insurance Rules.
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Answer
Option C is correct. As a recognised sole practice the cover required under the minimum
terms and conditions is £2 million. The ability to limit liability below this sum only applies to
freelance solicitors. The solicitor is required to take out ‘adequate and appropriate insurance’.
Given the size of the estates that the solicitor will be dealing with, the cover will need to be
in excess of the minimum. Indemnity insurance does not absolve a solicitor from liability for
negligence.
Question 3
Having completed all the necessary training requirements, a prospective solicitor has
been offered a position as an assistant solicitor in the Family Department of a large firm
of solicitors authorised by the SRA. In order to take up the offer, the prospective solicitor
will be applying for admission to the roll of solicitors. There is no reason to think that the
application will be refused.
Is it necessary for the prospective solicitor to obtain a practising certificate in order to
take up the position?
A Yes, because having a practising certificate is a mandatory prerequisite for being
admitted to the roll of solicitors.
B Yes, because otherwise in taking up the position the prospective solicitor will be
committing a criminal offence.
C_ Yes, because the firm is authorised by the SRA.
D No, because given the nature of the job the prospective solicitor will not be carrying
out reserved legal activities.
E No, because the prospective solicitor will not be a partner in the firm.
Answer
Option B is the best answer. The job is that of a solicitor. Section 1 Solicitors Act 1974, inter
alia, requires anyone acting as a solicitor to have a practising certificate. Practising as a
solicitor without satisfying the requirements of s 1 is a criminal offence. The requirement is not
dependent on the firm being SRA authorised (option C is wrong). The requirement applies
irrespective of whether the solicitor will be carrying out reserved legal activities (option D
is wrong). The requirement applies to employed solicitors as well as partners (option E is
wrong). Finally, option A is wrong as it is possible to be on the roll without having a practising
certificate.
24
Equality Act 2010
hat
cSrkive
'
s! Introduction 26
3.2. Overview of the Act 26
3.3 The protected characteristics Li,
3.4. Prohibited conduct 28
3.5 Duty to make adjustments 31
me Solicitors as service providers 31
3.7. Solicitors as employers 33
3.8 Barristers ro
3.9 Positive action 35
3.10 Overlap with professional conduct 36
SQE1 syllabus
This chapter will enable you to achieve the SQE1 Assessment Specification in relation
to Functioning Legal Knowledge concerned with Legal Services:
¢ The regulatory role of the Solicitors Regulation Authority.
¢ Overriding legal obligations.
¢ The Equality Act 2010.
Note that for SQE1, candidates are not usually required to recall specific case
names or cite statutory or regulatory authorities. Cases are provided for illustrative
purposes only.
Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to apply relevant core legal principles
and rules appropriately and effectively, at the level of a competent newly qualified
solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based and ethical problems and situations in the
following areas:
¢ The main anti-discrimination provisions of the Equality Act 2010.
¢ The application of the Equality Act 2010 to solicitors.
e The connection between the Equality Act 2010 and professional conduct.
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3.1 Introduction
The Equality Act 2010 (‘the Act’) is concerned both with protecting the rights of the individual
and ensuring fair treatment and equality of opportunity for all. The Act is part of the general
law applicable to all. However, solicitors have particular duties under the legislation in their
capacities as employers and as providers of legal services.
The duties placed on solicitors under the Act are separate from, but obviously closely linked
to, their responsibilities with regard to equality, diversity and inclusion under the SRA Principles
and the SRA Codes of Conduct (see Ethics and Professional Conduct).
This chapter looks at:
* overview of the Act
e the protected characteristics
¢ prohibited conduct
¢ duty to make adjustments
¢ solicitors as service providers
e solicitors as employers
* barristers
¢ positive action
¢ overlap with professional conduct
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Equality Act 2010
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This is supplemented by Schedule 1 which, for example, adds definitions of ‘long term’ and
specifies that certain conditions, such as HIV, are a disability.
The definition is quite narrow and arguably does not reflect the common understanding of the
term ‘disabled’. The phrase ‘substantial and long-term adverse effect’ sets a high threshold. It
is not unknown for discrimination cases based on disability to fail because the victim cannot
bring themselves within s 6.
Gender reassignment
This relates to people who are proposing to undergo, are undergoing or have undergone
treatment for the purpose of reassigning the person’s sex (s 7). The definition does not require
the individual to be under medical supervision in order to be protected under the Act.
Marriage/civil partnerships
This relates to discrimination against people on the basis that they are married or in a civil
partnership (s 8). It only covers those who are legally married or in a civil partnership. It does
not cover any wider marital status and so it does not protect, for example, cohabitants, single
people, divorcees, fiancées etc.
Pregnancy and maternity
Pregnancy/maternity is one of the protected characteristics listed in s 4. However, this
protected characteristic is treated quite differently under the Act. Pregnancy/maternity
is excluded from some elements of the Act and subject to specific protection when this
characteristic is particularly relevant.
e Comparator
The treatment experienced must be different from that of another real or hypothetical
person (the comparator). To establish less favourable treatment the victim must compare
the treatment they received to the treatment of another person who does not belong to or
is not associated with the claimant's protected characteristic.
This comparison can be to the treatment of another actual person or, if there is no
actual comparator available, to the treatment of a hypothetical comparator. The relevant
circumstances of the claimant and the comparator should be the same or not materially
different.
¢ Less favourable
The treatment must be less favourable than that afforded to the comparator. Less
favourable treatment is a broad concept. Any disadvantage will be sufficient. There is no
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Equality Act 2010
need to have suffered tangible or material loss. The test for less favourable treatment is
objective, so there is no requirement to show that the perpetrator intended to treat the
victim less favourably. Motive may, however, be relevant to the issue of remedies. If the
perpetrator has behaved in a malicious or oppressive manner, then aggravated damages
can be awarded.
¢ Protected characteristic
The reason for the less favourable treatment must be a protected characteristic. The
protected characteristic must be the cause of the treatment; it need not be the sole
or main reason for the treatment, but it must have been an influence. Section 13 is
wide enough to cover the situation where the victim is assumed to have a protected
characteristic even though that is not in fact the case. For example, if an individual is
treated less favourably because they are assumed to belong to a particular racial group
based on their name this will amount to discrimination even though the assumption is
incorrect.
There is no general defence of justification of direct discrimination save in relation to age.
Where the protected characteristic is age there is no discrimination if the treatment was a
proportionate way of achieving a legitimate aim (s 13(2) Equality Act 2010).
More detailed provisions apply in respect of discrimination on the grounds of pregnancy
or maternity (ss 17 and 18 Equality Act 2010).
Direct discrimination is overt or obvious and (save in the context of age) cannot be defended
or justified. In contrast, indirect discrimination can be said to be much more subtle. Indirect
discrimination occurs where conditions are imposed which apply to everyone, but which have
the effect of prejudicing members of a particular group.
The basic definition of indirect discrimination is in s 19 Equality Act 2010:
(1) A person (A) discriminates against another (B) if A applies to B a provision, criterion or
practice which is discriminatory in relation to a relevant protected characteristic of B’s.
(2) For the purposes of subsection (1), a provision, criterion or practice is discriminatory in
relation to a relevant protected characteristic of B’s if:
(a) A applies, or would apply, it to persons with whom B does not share the
characteristic,
(b) it puts, or would put, persons with whom B shares the characteristic at a particular
disadvantage when compared with persons with whom B does not share it,
(c) it puts, or would put, B at that disadvantage, and
(d) A cannot show it to be a proportionate means of achieving a legitimate aim.
In essence, therefore, indirect discrimination occurs when a policy or practice is put in place
which is of universal application, but which has an adverse impact on those who share a
protected characteristic. .
There is the possibility of justifying the action on the basis that it is a proportionate means
of achieving a legitimate aim. This requires a balancing exercise between the degree of
discrimination caused and the object or aim to be achieved.
An example of indirect discrimination is an employer requiring an employee to work full time.
This requirement could disadvantage women as a group, since women in society as a whole
bear a greater part of domestic and childcare responsibilities than men and are more likely
to want (or need) to work part time. Unless the employer can objectively justify the need for
a full-time worker to do the job, the requirement could be indirectly discriminatory against a
woman with childcare responsibilities.
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The provisions in the Act relating to indirect discrimination do not apply to pregnancy/
maternity. Discrimination based on pregnancy/maternity will fall under direct discrimination.
3.4.4 Victimisation
The basic definition of victimisation is in s 27 Equality Act 2010:
A person (A) victimises another person (B) if A subjects B to a detriment because
(a) B does a protected act, or
(b) A believes that B has done, or may do, a protected act.
A protected act is any of the following:
* bringing proceedings under the Act;
* giving evidence or information in proceedings brought under the Act;
* doing anything which is related to the provisions of the Act;
¢ making an allegation that another person has done something in breach of
the Act.
The victim does not need to have a protected characteristic in order to receive protection from
victimisation under the Act.
The term ‘detriment’ is not defined under the Act, but it would encompass any act which has
the effect of putting the individual at a disadvantage or of making their position worse.
o Example
Maya is a legal secretary employed by a firm of solicitors. Maya is bringing a claim
against the firm under the Equality Act 2010. Maya’s claim is that she was passed over
by the firm for promotion on account of her race. Karen is also a legal secretary working
for the same firm. Karen agrees to give evidence on Maya’s behalf. As a consequence, in
the firm’s next round of pay reviews Karen is singled out and is not given any increase in
her salary. Here the firm’s actions would amount to victimisation. Karen would be able to
bring her own claim against the firm under the Act.
3.4.5 Harassment
Under s 26 Equality Act 2010 harassment occurs when an individual is subjected to a specific
form of unwanted conduct which has the effect of violating the individual’s dignity, or creating
an intimidating, hostile, degrading, humiliating or offensive environment for the individual.
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Equality Act 2010
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32
Equality Act 2010
Under Part 5 Equality Act 2010 the anti-discriminatory provisions of the Act are made
applicable to the workplace. In basic terms, employees are protected from discriminatory
behaviour at the hands of their employers. Employees in this context includes partners
or those seeking partnership and members or prospective members of Limited Liability
Partnerships.
The provisions of the Act apply to employers in their treatment of their employees or
prospective and, in some cases, former employees. A firm of solicitors (or individual partners)
will usually employ staff. Those who work for a firm of solicitors are therefore protected under
the Act.
Under ss 39 and 40 an employer must not:
¢ discriminate against or victimise a prospective employee:
© in the arrangements made for deciding to whom to offer employment
° as to the terms on which employment is offered, or
° by not offering employment.
* harass a person who has applied to it for employment
¢ discriminate against or victimise an employee:
° as to the terms of employment
° in the way it affords access to opportunities for promotion, transfer or training, or for
receiving any other benefit, facility or service
° by dismissing the employee, or
° by subjecting the employee to any detriment.
e harass an employee.
Detriment is established if a reasonable employee would or might take the view that they had
been disadvantaged in the circumstances in which they had to work. There is therefore no
need for the claimant to prove some physical or financial consequences.
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34
Equality Act 2010
must take specified steps for the purpose of obviating or reducing the adverse effect on the
employee of any matter to which the proceedings relate.
3.8 Barristers
Under s 47 Equality Act 2010 special provisions apply to barristers.
Barristers are protected from discrimination by members of chambers or clerks of chambers
_in which they are tenants or pupils. Those who have applied for tenancy or pupillage are also
protected.
Barristers are also protected from discriminatory treatment at the hands of the solicitors
instructing them. Section 47(6) provides that:
A person must not, in relation to instructing a barrister:
(a) discriminate against a barrister by subjecting the barrister to a detriment;
(b) harass the barrister;
(c) victimise the barrister.
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Positive action can take a variety of forms. It could include, for example, a firm tailoring some
of its services to meet the requirements of a particular group or providing specific training to
some of its employees.
A similar provision is contained in s 159 Equality Act 2010, but it is restricted to the areas of
recruitment and promotion. Section 159 applies where an employer reasonably thinks that
persons with a particular protected characteristic are disadvantaged or disproportionately
under-represented. In the context of recruitment and promotion, the employer can treat a
person with the protected characteristic more favourably than others who do not share that
protected characteristic. However, this is only permitted where the person with the relevant
characteristic is ‘as qualified as’ the others. Qualification in this context is not restricted to
having passed particular examinations, but instead relates to the overall suitability of the
individual for the job or promotion. In practice, it is said that an employer can make use of s
159 in a ‘tie-breaker’ situation.
© Example
A firm has a vacancy for a position as an assistant solicitor. The firm receives 20
applications and decides to draw up a shortlist of five applicants for interview. The first
four applicants are selected. For the fifth place there are two applicants of equal merit,
one of whom belongs to a particular ethnic group, the other applicant is not. The firm
has identified that individuals from this ethnic group are under-represented amongst its
qualified staff. To address this the firm gives the fifth shortlist place to the applicant from
the ethnic group.
The firm's action is lawful under s 159. The other applicant would not have any redress
under the Act.
Sections 158 and 159 are not intended to allow ‘positive discrimination’, which is the practice
of giving an advantage to groups which are often treated unfairly because of a protected
characteristic. For example, if in the above example the firm decided to shortlist all applicants
from the ethnic group irrespective of their suitability for the job, such action would be unlawful.
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Equality Act 2010
Code of Conduct for Solicitors, RELs and RFLs and the SRA Code of Conduct for Firms. Both
Codes start with the statement in Paragraph 1.1:
You do not unfairly discriminate by allowing your personal views to affect your
professional relationships and the way in which you provide your services.
In part, Paragraph 1.1 reflects the prohibitions under the Act, but it also extends beyond the
Act. In Paragraph 1.1 the term ‘discrimination’ is not restricted to the meaning given to it under
the Act. So discriminatory behaviour which is not unlawful under the Act (for example because
it is not based on a protected characteristic or because it is based on a disability which does
‘not fall within the narrow definition in s 6) may nevertheless breach Paragraph 1.1 and result
in disciplinary action.
SRA Principle 6 requires a solicitor to act in a way that encourages equality, diversity and
inclusion. This clearly goes far beyond a direction not to discriminate. It places a positive
requirement on the solicitor to ensure that their actions encourage equality, diversity and
inclusion. These are wide and distinct concepts. In very simple terms:
Equality - treating people fairly
Diversity - encouraging and valuing people with a broad range of different
backgrounds, knowledge, skills, and experiences
Inclusion - acceptance and encouraging everyone to participate and contribute
Solicitors come into contact with a variety of people during their working day: clients, judiciary,
work colleagues, counsel, expert witnesses etc. Treating those people fairly, with dignity and
respect, is part and parcel of upholding the reputation of the profession. The Principle also
extends to a solicitor’s conduct outside practice. For example, a solicitor who, in a personal
capacity, expresses racist views on social media is likely to fall foul of Principle 6.
The importance the SRA places on Principle 6 is evident from its Guidance on Equality,
Diversity and Inclusion:
We expect you to take the necessary steps to run your business or carry out your role
in a way that encourages equality of opportunity and respect for diversity. We expect
you to be inclusive in your approach to everything you do.
Firms should put policies and procedures in place to further equality, diversity and inclusion.
Indeed, a failure to have such policies may in itself be a breach of Principle 6. Equality,
diversity and inclusion should be embedded in the culture of the firm and the attitudes of the
people that work within it.
The principles of equality, diversity and inclusion do not only direct how a solicitor should
interact with others; they also drive the development of the profession as a whole. The
SRA considers the development of a diverse profession to be a hugely important aspect
of its role. Indeed, one of the regulatory objectives set out in the Legal Services Act 2007 is
‘encouraging an independent, strong, diverse and effective legal profession’. The SRA expects
individual firms to play their part by, for example, monitoring, reporting and publishing data
on the diversity of its workforce (Paragraph 1.5 of the SRA Code of Conduct for Firms) and, if
necessary, putting measures in place to improve diversity.
Summary
¢ The following characteristics are protected under the Act:
° race
° religion and belief
° sex
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° sexual orientation
° age
° disability
° gender reassignment
° marriage/civil partnership
© pregnancy and maternity.
¢ The Act outlaws certain forms of discrimination including:
° direct discrimination
° indirect discrimination
° disability discrimination
° victimisation
° harassment.
¢ There is a duty to make reasonable adjustments for disabled people.
¢ Discrimination is outlawed in certain circumstances including in the provision of services
and the workplace.
¢ The Act overlaps with a solicitor’s professional conduct responsibilities.
Sample questions
Question 1
A secretary working in a firm of solicitors is subjected to a number of unwanted sexual
advances by a solicitor working in the same firm. The firm has never provided training for
its employees on the Equality Act 2010. The secretary makes a complaint to the firm’s senior
partner. The senior partner says that the firm was completely unaware of the solicitor’s
behaviour. The senior partner promises to speak to the solicitor in question and insist that
the behaviour stops. Despite this the solicitor continues to make sexual advances to the
secretary. In view of the solicitor’s behaviour the secretary is now contemplating making a
claim to the Employment Tribunal.
Which of the following best describes the likely outcome of such a claim?
A The solicitor’s behaviour will not be considered unlawful because it amounts to normal
workplace banter.
B The solicitor and the firm will be liable for harassment.
C_ The firm is not liable for the solicitor’s behaviour because it did not know about the
behaviour.
Answer
Option B is correct. The solicitor’s behaviour amounts to harassment under the Act (option
A is wrong). The solicitor’s behaviour occurred in the course of their employment and so the
firm will also be vicariously liable even though the firm did not know about the behaviour;
accordingly, option C is wrong. It is highly unlikely that the firm will be able to show that it
took reasonable steps to prevent the behaviour because it had not provided training and its
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Equality Act 2010
response to the complaint was inadequate. If the firm is found liable, the individual employee
cannot escape liability (option D is wrong). Finally, option E is wrong, as even though the
secretary has not suffered a financial loss, they may be awarded damages for injury to
feelings.
Question 2
A solicitor’s brother is going through an acrimonious divorce. The whole family is finding the
divorce proceedings very upsetting. One evening, having drunk a considerable amount of
alcohol, the solicitor goes onto social media and makes various sexist remarks about his
brother's wife. The solicitor’s firm is not acting in the divorce.
Which of the following best describes the repercussions of the solicitor’s actions under
the Equality Act 2010?
A The solicitor’s actions amount to direct discrimination.
B_ The solicitor’s actions amount to victimisation.
C_ The solicitor’s actions are not unlawful under the Equality Act 2010 and do not breach
the rules of professional conduct.
D_ The solicitor’s actions are not unlawful under the Equality Act 2010 but they are likely to
breach the rules of professional conduct.
E The solicitor’s actions amount to indirect discrimination.
Answer
Option D is correct. The Equality Act 2010 only makes discrimination unlawful in certain
contexts (eg in the provision of legal services and in the workplace). As the comments were
made outside those contexts they do not amount to unlawful discrimination under the Act. The
SRA Principles apply to a solicitor’s private life. Making sexist comments is likely to place the
solicitor in breach of Principle 2 and Principle 6.
Question 3
A client instructs a large commercial firm of solicitors in connection with a medical
negligence claim. At the first meeting the solicitor conducting the case hands the client a
standard leaflet explaining the firm’s complaints procedure. The client looks at the leaflet
for the first time later that day. The client, who has learning difficulties, contacts the firm and
asks to have the leaflet provided in ‘Easy Read’ format. The firm has not previously given
any consideration to the provision of information in an ‘Easy Read’ format. The client is told
that the firm does not produce its leaflets in ‘Easy Read’ format.
Which of the following best describes how the firm's duty to make reasonable
adjustments under the Equality Act 2010 applies in this situation?
A The firm has acted unlawfully in not providing the client with the leaflet in ‘Easy Read’
format at the initial interview.
B Now that the firm is aware of the client's disability, it must provide the client with the
leaflet in ‘Easy Read’ format without delay.
C Now that the firm is aware of the client's disability, it should provide the leaflet in ‘Easy
Read’ format at the client’s expense.
D It is not reasonable to expect the firm to provide the leaflet in ‘Easy Read’ format.
E The firm has not breached its duty under the Equality Act 2010 but is likely to be in
breach of its professional conduct obligations.
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Answer
Option A is correct. The duty to make reasonable adjustments in the context of the provision
of services is anticipatory. The firm should have anticipated the need for clients with some
disabilities to have the leaflet in ‘Easy Read’ format and to have had the leaflet produced
accordingly. The client's need for adjustments should have been established by the solicitor
at the first interview and the client given the leaflet in the correct format. Given the situation
that has arisen, the firm should provide a leaflet in the correct format without delay, but option
B is not the best answer because the firm’s duty had already arisen; it is not dependent on
knowledge of the client's disability. Option C is wrong as the cost of making adjustments
cannot be passed on to the disabled person. Given the size of the firm, the importance
of providing clients with information about complaints (Paragraph 8.3 of the SRA Code for
Solicitors, RELs and RFLs requires written information to be provided at the outset) and the
fact that the firm has chosen to present that information in leaflet form, it would not be
unreasonable to expect the firm to also produce the leaflet in ‘Easy Read’ format (accordingly,
option D is wrong). Finally, option E is not the best answer here. While the firm is likely to be
in breach of its professional conduct obligations (eg SRA Principle 6 and Paragraph 8.6 of the
SRA Code of Conduct for Solicitors, RELs and RFLs), it is also in breach of the requirements
under the Equality Act 2010.
40
4 Financial Services
4.1 Introduction 42
4.2 Source materials 43
hi 4.5 Financial services regulatory structure 43
4.4 The general framework 44
-— The need for authority 44
4.6 Regulated activity 45
4.7 Exemption for professional firms - s 327 exemption 50
4.8 SRA Financial Services (Conduct of Business) Rules 52
4.9 Consumer credit activity 52
FS4.10 Insurance distribution ef
4.11. Financial Promotions Order (FPO) 2005 54
SQE1 syllabus
This chapter will enable you to achieve the SQE1 Assessment Specification in relation
to Functioning Legal Knowledge concerned with Legal Services:
¢ The regulatory role of the Solicitors Regulation Authority.
¢ Overriding legal obligations.
e The financial services regulatory framework, including authorisation and how it
applies to solicitors’ firms.
e Recognition of relevant financial services issues, including the identification of
specified investments, specified activities and relevant exemptions.
¢ Application of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 and related
secondary legislation to the work of a solicitor.
¢ Appropriate sources of information on financial services.
Note that for SQE1, candidates are not usually required to recall specific case
names or cite statutory or regulatory authorities. Cases are provided for illustrative
purposes only.
Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to apply relevant core legal principles
and rules appropriately and effectively, at the level of a competent newly qualified
solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based and ethical problems and situations in the
following areas:
e The structure of financial services regulation.
¢ The regulation of solicitors in carrying out financial services work.
Al
Legal Services
4.1 Introduction
The financial service industry comprises firms and individuals that advise on, sell and arrange
financial products and services. For most people it is an alien world and yet almost every
individual will be forced to engage with it at some point, for example when taking out an
insurance policy or becoming a member of a pension scheme. At these moments the customer
or consumer will be highly dependent on the expertise of others in making the right financial
decisions. For the customer or consumer the stakes are high: the wrong financial product or
the wrong decision could spell financial ruin. It is therefore not surprising that the provision of
financial services is highly controlled and regulated with the basic aim of ensuring that such
services are provided properly by those appropriately qualified to do so.
Financial services work is not mainstream for most solicitors. However, a solicitor may engage
in such work from time to time, for example:
(a) in conveyancing, if a client needs help in finding a mortgage and a supporting package,
which could include a life insurance policy;
(b) in probate, when the executors sell off the deceased's assets;
(c) in litigation, if helping a successful client to invest damages just won;
(d) in company work, in making arrangements for a client to buy or sell shares in a company,
and also in arranging corporate finance;
(e) in family work, if arrangements have to be made on a divorce in respect of endowment
life policies and/or a family business;
(f) in tax planning or portfolio management, for a private client including trustees.
Before undertaking any financial services work a solicitor should first consider their
professional conduct obligations. Under SRA Principle 7, a solicitor must act in the client's best
interests. A solicitor cannot act in the client’s best interests unless the solicitor is competent
to act in the area concerned. Additionally, Paragraph 3.2 of the SRA Code of Conduct for
Solicitors, RELs and RFLs provides that the service provided by a solicitor must be competent.
Therefore, a solicitor should not undertake financial services work unless the solicitor has
sufficient expertise in that field.
Even if possessing sufficient expertise, a solicitor will be subject to the same legislation that
applies throughout the financial sector and so will also have to consider what that legislation
permits them to do. Many activities in connection with investments are subject to regulation
under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (FSMA 2000) and, for example, to give
advice on these, or even to make arrangements for clients to acquire or dispose of them, may
require the solicitor to be authorised to carry out that activity. To do this without authority could
involve the commission of a criminal offence. Therefore, when handling a matter in which
investments are involved, even if only peripherally, a solicitor needs to take great care before
advising and assisting such clients.
This chapter looks at:
¢ source materials
e financial services regulatory structure
¢ the retention and storage of accounting records
e the general framework
e the need for authority
¢ regulated activity
* exemption for professional firms
¢ SRA Financial Services (Conduct of Business) Rules
42
Financial Services
* financial promotions
range of financial transactions. The FCA undertaking this role was against a background of
widespread concerns about the operation of LIBOR amongst regulators and users of LIBOR,
including attempts to manipulate it. LIBOR is now a ‘specified benchmark’ for the purposes
of two regulated activities in the RAO 2001, namely providing information in relation to, and
administering, a specified benchmark. The manipulation of a specified benchmark is also a
criminal offence under the Financial Services Act 2012.
45
Legal Services
‘accepting deposits’, which is mainly carried out by banks and building societies. The
main specified investment activities set out in 4.6.4 do not apply to deposits. Sums
received by solicitors acting in the course of their business are exempt under RAO 2001;
(i) credit agreements (an agreement whereby a solicitor allows a client time to pay is
exempt provided that the number of repayments does not exceed 12, the payment term
does not exceed 12 months and the credit is provided without interest or other charges).
Investments that will not be relevant include:
4.6.4.2 Arranging
Solicitors will have many clients whose transactions involve investments (eg endowment
policies in conveyancing, unit trusts and shares in probate). The solicitor will very often
be involved as the contact between the client and the life company, or the client and the
stockbroker. It is in this context that the solicitor may be ‘arranging’.
4.6.4.3 Managing
Managing requires active participation beyond the mere holding of investments and applies
only to ‘discretionary management’ (ie involving the exercise of discretion). This investment
activity will be most common in firms that undertake probate and trust work, where the
solicitor is acting as trustee or personal representative (PR).
4.6.4.4 Safeguarding
This involves safeguarding and administering investments belonging to a client. This is also
particularly relevant for firms which undertake probate and trust work.
4.6.4.5 Advising
This involves giving advice to a person in their capacity as an investor on the merits of buying,
selling, subscribing for, or underwriting an investment. Advice must be about a specific
investment; generic advice is outside the scope of FSMA 2000. Therefore a solicitor can, if
46
Financial Services
they have the knowledge, advise a client on the respective merits of investing in shares rather
than making a deposit with a bank, but if the solicitor advises the client to buy shares in a
particular company, say Tesco, this will be a regulated activity.
o Example
Hiran, a solicitor, has recently managed to secure a large settlement for his client,
Bethany, in respect of a recent litigation matter. Bethany tells Hiran that she wishes to
invest the settlement money in buying shares in a local company, and asks Hiran which
company she should invest in.
Referring to the four-stage test, Bethany is seeking Hiran’s advice in his capacity as a
solicitor, so Hiran is ‘in business’. Shares are a specified investment, and Hiran has been
asked to advise on the purchase of these shares - advising is a specified investment
activity. Therefore if Hiran gives this advice he will breach the ‘general prohibition’ under
s 19 FSMA 2000, which is a criminal offence, unless Hiran can take advantage of an
exclusion or exemption (see below).
4.6.5 Exclusions
There are various exclusions set out in RAO 2001. The effect of an exclusion is that an act
which would otherwise be a regulated activity is no longer regarded as such. If an exclusion
applies to a particular activity a solicitor is carrying out, the solicitor does not need to be
authorised for that particular transaction. Those exclusions likely to be relevant to solicitors
include:
(a) introducing;
(b) using an Authorised Third Party;
(c) acting for an execution-only client;
(d) acting as trustee or personal representative;
(e) the ‘professional/necessary’ exclusion;
(f) the ‘takeover’ exclusion.
Each exclusion is only applicable to certain of the specified activities.
4.6.5.1 Introducing
This exclusion only applies to the activity of arranging. For the exclusion to apply the solicitor
must simply introduce the client to an authorised person and then have no further role in
this aspect of the client’s matter. If the solicitor retains any ongoing role, such as acting as a
means of communication between the client and the authorised person, then the exclusion
cannot be relied upon.
This exclusion will not apply if the transaction relates to an insurance contract.
47
Legal Services
Although this exclusion does not apply to advising, the practical result of using an ATP is that
a solicitor will not be engaged in the activity of advising. The advice is being provided by the
ATP, not by the solicitor.
4.6.5.6 Activities carried on in connection with the sale of a body corporate - the takeover exclusion
(or body corporate exclusion)
This exclusion applies to arranging, advising and dealing as agent.
48
Financial Services
The exclusion will apply to a transaction to acquire or dispose of shares in a body corporate
(other than an OEIC), or for a transaction entered into for the purposes of such an acquisition
or disposal, if:
(a) the shares consist of or include 50% or more of the voting shares in the body
_ corporate; and
(b) the acquisition or disposal is between parties each of whom is a body corporate, a
partnership, a single individual or a group of connected individuals.
It is possible to add the number of shares being acquired by a person to those already held
by him in order to determine whether the 50% limit has been achieved. A ‘group of connected
individuals’ is a single group of people, each of whom is or will be a director or manager of
the company being sold, or a close relative of any such director or manager, or person acting
as trustee for any of the above persons.
Even if the above criteria are not met, eg the number of shares acquired is less than 50%,
but the object of the transaction may nevertheless reasonably be regarded as being the
acquisition of day-to-day control of the affairs of the body corporate, the exclusion still applies.
This is an extremely valuable exclusion for the corporate department where a client is seeking
to take over, or sell its interest in, a company, whether public or private.
This exclusion does not apply to advising on, arranging, or dealing as an agent in respect of
buying or selling contracts of insurance.
Arranging e Introducing
e ATP
¢ Execution-only
e Professional/necessary
e Acting as trustee/PR
e Takeover
Advising ¢ Professional/necessary
¢ Acting as trustee/PR
¢ Takeover
Safeguarding ° Professional/necessary
¢ Acting as trustee/PR
49
Legal Services
@ Example
Natalie is a solicitor. Natalie is approached by Byron, who owns 100% of the share capital
in Merron Ltd. Byron wishes to sell 75% of these shares to his son.
Referring to the four tests, Byron is seeking Natalie’s advice and assistance in her capacity
as a solicitor, so Natalie is ‘in business’. Shares are a specified investment, and in dealing
with the matter Natalie will be carrying out specified investment activities (eg advising
and arranging). Therefore, Natalie will need to rely on an exclusion or exemption to avoid
breaching s 19 FSMA 2000 and committing a criminal offence.
Here the transaction concerns the transfer of more than 50% of Merron Ltd, and so she
can rely on the takeover exclusion. Therefore Natalie may complete this work without
breaching the general prohibition.
‘Incidental’
There are two ‘incidental’ tests: a specific test and a general test.
The ‘specific’ test relates to the particular client concerned. Under the SRA Financial Services
(Scope) Rules, the relevant regulated activity must arise out of, or be complementary to,
50
Financial Services
the provision of a particular professional service to a particular client. The firm could not,
therefore, carry out a regulated activity in isolation for a client; the relevant regulated activity
must ‘arise out of’ or be ‘complementary to’ some other service being provided by it. This
other service must not be a regulated activity but must be a ‘professional’, ie legal, service
(eg in corporate work, giving legal advice, drafting documents or dealing with a regulatory
matter; or in probate work, winding up the estate or giving tax advice). It follows that the
professional service being provided to the client should be the primary service, and the
regulated activity should be ‘incidental’ or ‘subordinate’ to the provision of the professional
service. Note also that both the professional service and the regulated activity must be
supplied to the same person. Therefore, in a probate matter, where the probate client is the
executor, advice to a beneficiary under the will would not satisfy this test.
To satisfy the ‘general’ test of being incidental, the activities carried out by the firm which
would otherwise be regulated cannot be a mgjor part of the firm’s activities. For example, a
firm will be ineligible if its income from investment business is half or more of its total income.
Further factors are:
(a) the scale of regulated activity in proportion to other professional services provided;
(6) whether and to what extent the exempt regulated activities are held out as separate
services; and
(c) the impression given of how the firm provides those activities, for example through
advertising its services.
51
Legal Services
52
Financial Services
credit-related regulated financial services activities) are set out in Part 2 and Part 3A RAO
2001. Accordingly, solicitors carrying out such activities will need to be authorised by the FCA
to carry out this business, or ensure that the activities fall within the s 327 exemption (see 4.7).
Representing a client in a litigation matter which has arisen from a consumer credit or hire
agreement is not a credit-related activity for these purposes.
A solicitor could be carrying out a credit-related activity by virtue of the way in which the
solicitor accepts the payment of their fees, including allowing a client time to pay. However,
such an arrangement will be regarded as an exempt agreement under RAO 2001 if all of the
following conditions apply:
(a) the number of repayments does not exceed 12;
(6) the payment term does not exceed 12 months; and
(c) the credit is provided without interest or other charges.
In most other cases, such arrangements are likely to be covered by the s 327 exemption (in
which case Part 4 of the COB Rules will apply).
© Example
Franklin, a solicitor, is acting for Sanjay on purchasing a commercial property. Sanjay
needs to obtain defective title insurance. Franklin is to arrange this for Sanjay.
Using the four tests, Franklin is providing this service to Sanjay in his capacity as a solicitor
and so he is ‘in business’. Contracts of insurance are a specified investment and arranging
is a specified investment activity. Therefore Franklin needs to rely on an exclusion or
exemption to avoid breaching s 19 FSMA 2000 and committing a criminal offence.
However, none of the exclusions will apply here. Therefore, in order to arrange the
insurance, Franklin must use the s 327 exemption. Here, arranging the insurance is
53
Legal Services
incidental to Franklin dealing with the property transaction. If Franklin’s firm can comply
with the other conditions outlined above (eg the COB and Scope Rules) then Franklin will
be able to arrange the defective title insurance without breaching the general prohibition.
4.11.2 Exemptions
There are some exemptions set out in the FPO 2005. Many of these are in terms similar to the
exclusions for regulated activities. These include:
(a) trustees and PRs (FPO 2005, arts 53/54);
(b) takeover of body corporate (FPO 2005, art 62).
54
Financial Services
Summary
Regulated activity
In order to determine if an activity is regulated there are four tests:
¢ Are you in business?
e Is there a specified investment?
55
Legal Services
Specified investments
These include:
* shares (but not shares in the share capital of an open-ended investment company or
building society incorporated in the UK);
¢ debentures;
° gilts;
e¢ unit trusts and OEICs;
¢ contract of insurance;
* regulated mortgages;
e¢ home reversion/home purchase plans;
¢ deposits.
Investments that will not be relevant include:
¢ interests in land;
¢ National Savings products.
Exclusions
These include:
¢ introducing;
Alp:
¢ —execution-only;
e trustee/PR;
¢ professional/necessary;
e takeover.
56
Financial Services
¢ best execution;
e records of transactions;
¢ records of commissions;
e letters to execution-only clients;
e insurance distribution activities;
* credit-related regulated financial services activities.
Financial promotions
There are four questions:
e Are you in business?
¢ Do you make an invitation or inducement?
* is there a specified investment?
e ls there a specified investment activity?
There are two special exemptions for professional firms:
e real-time promotions;
* non-real-time promotions.
Other exemptions include:
* one-off promotions;
e jntroducers;
e trustees, PRs;
e takeover of body corporate.
57
Legal Services
Sample questions
Question 1
A solicitor acts for a client who is a director of a private limited company. The client also
owns 60% of the share capital in the company. The client intends to retire and plans to sell
the entire shareholding to a fellow director of the company. The client asks the solicitor to
advise on the sale and to prepare and negotiate all the necessary documentation. The
solicitor’s firm is not authorised by the Financial Conduct Authority to carry out regulated
activities under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.
Which of the following best explains why the solicitor is likely to be able to advise and
act as the client requests?
A Because shares in private companies are not specified investments.
B Because the solicitor would not be carrying out a specified investment activity.
C_ Because the solicitor can rely on the exemption for professional firms.
D Because the solicitor would be giving generic advice.
E Because the solicitor can rely on the ‘takeover’ exclusion.
Answer
Option E is correct. The client is seeking advice and assistance from the solicitor who is ‘in
business’. Shares in a private company are a specified investment (option A is wrong), and in
acting as the client requests the solicitor will be carrying out the specified investment activities
of advising and arranging (option B is wrong). The solicitor will need to rely on an exclusion or
exemption to avoid breaching s 19 FSMA 2000.
The takeover exclusion applies to a transaction to acquire or dispose of shares in a body
corporate if the shares include 50% or more of the voting shares and is between parties each
of whom is a body corporate, a partnership, a single individual or a group of connected
individuals. Here the client wishes to sell his 60% shareholding in the company to a fellow
director, so the takeover exclusion requirements are satisfied.
Advising on the sale of shares would not be considered generic advice (option D is wrong).
Option C is wrong because the exemption for professional firms is of no relevance as the
solicitor will not be carrying out a regulated activity (and the requirements of s 327 would not
be met).
Question 2
A solicitor has just finished acting for a client in a personal injury case. The client has
decided to buy a flat using the damages that the client has received in the case. The
client has identified a number of possible flats to buy. The solicitor knows nothing about
the property market; nevertheless the client asks the solicitor to advise on which flat
would provide the best investment. The solicitor’s firm is not authorised by the Financial
Conduct Authority to carry out regulated activities under the Financial Services and Markets
Act 2000.
What would be the position if the solicitor gave the advice as requested?
58
Financial Services
“Answer
Option B is correct. Land is not a specified investment and so in giving the advice the solicitor
will not be committing an offence under FSMA 2000. However, the solicitor is not competent to
give the advice. Therefore, the solicitor is in breach of Paragraph 3.2 of the Code of Conduct
for Solicitors and disciplinary proceedings may be brought against them. Giving advice when
not competent to do so would not constitute acting with integrity nor acting in the client's best
interests.
Question 3
A solicitor has been acting for a client in a litigation matter. The case recently concluded
with the client being awarded £3 million in damages. The client asks the solicitor for advice
on investing this money in debentures and bonds. The solicitor lacks sufficient expertise to
advise the client and so the solicitor refers the client to an independent financial adviser.
After the client has seen the adviser, the client asks the solicitor to arrange the purchase
of the investments that the adviser has recommended. The adviser pays the solicitor £50
commission, which, without reference to the client, the solicitor decides to retain.
Did the solicitor’s actions amount to a regulated activity under the Financial Services
and Markets Act 2000?
A _ No, because the exemption for professional firms prevents the solicitor’s actions from
being a regulated activity.
B No, because the client has taken advice from an authorised third person.
C_ No, because the transaction did not involve a specified investment.
D Yes, because the solicitor lacked competence.
E Yes, because the solicitor received a pecuniary reward.
Answer
Option E is correct. Debentures and bonds are specified investments (option C is wrong) and
the solicitor has engaged in the specified activity of arranging. Ordinarily the solicitor would
be able to rely on the ATP exclusion, but this is not available where the solicitor receives
commission and fails to account to the client; accordingly option B is wrong. Option A is
wrong as the s 327 exemption does not (in contrast to an exclusion) result in the act ceasing
to be a regulated activity. Instead s 327 enables a regulated activity to be carried on without
authorisation (in any event the financial services were not incidental on the facts). Finally,
option D is wrong as ‘competence’ does not influence whether the act amounts to a regulated
activity (but is a professional conduct issue).
59
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Money Laundering
Le | Introduction 62
9.2 The relevance of money laundering for solicitors 62
- 9.5 The purpose of the Regulations 64
9.4 The application of the Regulations 64
& 55. Risk assessment 65
5.6 Policies, controls and procedures 65
5:7 Internal controls 66
5.8 Client due diligence 66
89 Training 70
5.10 Record keeping 70
5.11. Criminal Finances Act 2017 i
SQE1 syllabus
This chapter will enable you to achieve the SQE1 Assessment Specification in relation
to Functioning Legal Knowledge concerned with Legal Services:
e The regulatory role of the Solicitors Regulation Authority.
¢ Overriding legal obligations.
e Purpose and scope of money laundering legislation including the international
context.
¢ Due diligence requirements.
Note that for SQE1, candidates are not usually required to recall specific case
names or cite statutory or regulatory authorities. Cases are provided for illustrative
purposes only.
Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to apply relevant core legal principles
and rules appropriately and effectively, at the level of a competent newly qualified
solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based and ethical problems and situations in the
following areas:
¢ The nature of money laundering.
¢ Solicitors’ obligations under anti-money laundering legislation.
¢ Due diligence.
61
Legal Services
5.1 Introduction
Money laundering is the process by which criminals seek to alter or ‘launder’ their proceeds of
crime so that it appears that these funds come from a legitimate source.
For example, a criminal may be in possession of stolen money and instructs a number of
intermediaries each to invest a relatively small proportion of the money. The investments
can later be sold, and the criminal then appears to be in possession of the proceeds of a
legitimate transaction. Such transactions can become highly complex, making it very difficult
for investigators to follow the ‘audit trail’ and track the funds.
By the very nature of their work solicitors constantly deal with transactions and handle money
on behalf of their clients. Consequently solicitors are particular targets for criminals in their
efforts to launder their proceeds of crime or give their criminal activities the appearance of
legitimacy.
This chapter looks at:
¢ the relevance of money laundering for solicitors
e the purpose of the Regulations
e the application of the Regulations
e risk assessment
¢ policies, controls and procedures
¢ internal controls
* client due diligence
* training
* record keeping
¢ Criminal Finance Act 2017
62
Money Laundering
integration: the money is integrated back into the financial system and the criminal is now
In possession of ‘laundered’ money.
A solicitor can become involved at any stage. However, there are some areas of solicitors’
work that are thought to present a particular risk:
Passing money through a firm’s client account is an obvious way of ‘swapping’ illicit
money for clean money.
© Example
Mark is a solicitor specialising in commercial work. Mark is instructed by Henry in the
purchase of a business. The day after the initial interview, Henry telephones to say that he
has been called away because his mother is seriously ill and so he has placed £750,000
in the firm’s client account to ensure that, if necessary, the purchase can go ahead in his
absence.
Three weeks later Henry telephones Mark and says that he has decided not to go ahead
with the purchase. Henry says that it will help his cash flow if, rather than returning the
£750,000 to him direct, it is transferred to a company that Henry owns abroad. Mark
makes the transfer.
Henry could be a criminal and the £750,000 represents the proceeds of his crimes. If
that is the case, Mark has enabled the illicit money to be swapped for legitimate money
apparently originating from a firm of solicitors and then being transferred out of the
jurisdiction.
o Example
Nicola instructs Jasmin, a solicitor, to act for her in the purchase of a house. The purchase
price of the house is £500,000. Nicola says that she does not need a mortgage to buy the
house as she has just received an inheritance. Nicola transfers £500,000 into the firm’s
client account to complete the purchase.
Inexplicably the seller drops the price to £400,000 and the purchase completes. Nicola
instructs that the surplus of funds which the firm is holding for her should be paid to
a business associate in settlement of a debt. Jasmin pays the surplus to the business
associate.
It may be that the £500,000 represents the proceeds of crime and the seller is complicit in
the criminal activity. If this is the case Jasmin has enabled Nicola to acquire a legitimate
asset for later sale and allowed the surplus to be ‘cleansed’ by passing through the firm’s
client account and transferred to a third party.
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Legal Services
oO Example
Frank is a solicitor specialising in commercial litigation. Frank is instructed by Rosen Ltd to
issue a claim against a foreign company. Frank duly issues the claim. However the foreign
company does not defend the claim and judgement is entered in default.
The foreign company immediately pays the sum due to Frank’s firm. Frank pays the money
onto Rosen Ltd.
Rosen Ltd and the foreign company may have been complicit in engaging in sham
litigation for the purpose of transferring illicit funds from abroad into the UK. Frank has
assisted in that process.
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66
Money Laundering
(c) the identity is verified as soon as practicable after contact is first established.
However, if the solicitor is unable to complete the client due diligence in time, the solicitor
cannot:
(a) carry out a transaction with or for the client through a bank account; or
(b) establish a business relationship or carry out a transaction otherwise than through a bank
account,
and in such circumstances the solicitor must also terminate any existing business relationship
and consider making a disclosure to the NCA (reg 31).
The steps which a solicitor must take in order to verify the identity of the client varies
according to the type of client involved and the risk of money laundering.
Beneficial owners
A solicitor must identify any ‘beneficial owner’ where the beneficial owner is not the client. The
definition of a beneficial owner varies depending on the nature of the client.
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Legal Services
© Example
A Co Ltd instructs a firm of solicitors. The solicitors will have to obtain documentary
confirmation of the name, number, registered address and the other information set out
in reg 28. This can be obtained by carrying out a company search at Companies House.
However, the solicitors also need to identify any ‘beneficial owner’ of the company.
If Mr Smith owns 50% of the shares, Mr Jones owns 30% of the shares and Mr McConnell
owns the remaining 20%, Smith and Jones will be the beneficial owners.
It may be that, instead of being owned by individuals, the client company is owned by a
parent company. The legal sector guidance states that a risk-based decision should be taken
as to whether to make further enquiries. However, it is common for law firms to seek to identify
the beneficial owners of any parent company up to and including the ultimate parent entity.
In the case of a partnership (other than a limited liability partnership), reg 5(3) defines a
beneficial owner as any individual who:
(a) ultimately is entitled to or controls (whether the entitlement or control is direct or indirect)
more than a 25% share of the capital or profits of the partnership, or more than 25% of
the voting rights in the partnership; or
(b) otherwise exercises control over the management of the partnership (ie the ability to
manage the use of funds or transactions outside of the normal management structure and
control mechanisms).
In the case of a trust, beneficial owner means each of the following (reg 6(1)):
(a) the settlor;
(b) the trustees;
(c) the beneficiaries;
(d) where the individuals (or some of the individuals) benefiting from the trust have not been
determined, the class of persons in whose main interest the trust is set up, or operates;
(e) any individual who has control over the trust, ie one who has power (whether exercisable
alone, jointly with another person or with the consent of another person) under the
trust instrument or by law, for example, to add or remove a person as beneficiary, or to
appoint or remove trustees.
As a trust does not have legal personality, the trust itself will not be the client, and so where
a solicitor advises any individual client in relation to a trust, the solicitor will be required to
understand who the other beneficial owners of the trust are, as defined above.
Whilst generally the beneficiaries of a trust will be individuals, they may at times be a
company. If this is the case, it is necessary to apply reg 6(4) to determine the beneficial
owners of the company in question.
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(a) Heads of State, heads of government, ministers and deputy or assistant ministers;
(b) members of parliament;
(c) members of supreme courts, of constitutional courts or of other high-level judicial bodies
whose decisions are not generally subject to further appeal, except in exceptional
circumstances;
(d) members of courts of auditors or of the boards of central banks;
(e) ambassadors, chargés d'affaires and high-ranking officers in the armed forces;
(f) members of the administrative, management or supervisory bodies of State-owned
enterprises.
Family members include a spouse, civil partner, children, their spouses or civil partners
and parents. Known close associates include those with whom there are close business
relationships.
Where the solicitor is dealing with the PEP (and this includes where a PEP, family member
or close associate is a beneficial owner of a client), additional obligations are placed on
the solicitor, namely having approval of senior management (for example, the managing
partner) to act for the client, taking adequate measures to establish the source of wealth and
source of funds involved in the business relationship or proposed transactions, and conducting
enhanced ongoing monitoring of the business relationship (reg 35(5)).
5.9 Training
Firms are obliged to provide (and maintain a record of) training to their employees in respect
of money laundering (reg 24). Employees should be made aware of the law relating to money
laundering, terrorist financing and to the requirements of data protection relating to them. The
Regulations also specify that employees should be given regular training on how to recognise
(and then deal with) transactions that potentially involve money laundering or terrorist
financing.
The Regulations do not specify how the training should take place. However, the legal sector
guidance suggests that appropriate methods of delivery may include face-to-face learning or
e-learning. The guidance also recommends the use of a staff manual on money laundering
issues.
Where no such training is given, this may provide the employee with a defence to some of the
offences under the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 (see Chapter 6).
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Summary
¢ Money laundering is the process whereby the proceeds of crime are changed so that they
appear to come from a legitimate source.
¢ The Government has introduced legislation to disrupt this process.
¢ Solicitors who undertake relevant business must comply with the Money Laundering,
Terrorist Financing and Transfer of Funds (Information on the Payer) Regulations 2017 (SI
2017/692).
¢ Under the 2017 Regulations, firms must appoint a money laundering compliance officer
and a nominated officer, who will receive internal reports concerning money laundering
and must consider whether to report the matter to the NCA.
Sample question
Question 1
A solicitor is instructed by a client in a family case. The client tells the solicitor that their
marriage has broken down, but their spouse will not defend the divorce and has already
agreed to the matrimonial home and all other family assets being transferred to the client.
The client instructs the solicitor to commence divorce proceedings and deal with the transfer
of the assets in accordance with the agreement.
The client is known to the solicitor because they are both members of a local gym. The
solicitor knows that the client has told others at the gym that their spouse is under criminal
investigation for tax fraud.
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Which of the following best explains the steps that the solicitor should take with regard
to due diligence?
A The solicitor should carry out enhanced due diligence because there is a high risk of
money laundering.
B_ The solicitor should carry out standard due diligence because the client has not
personally been involved in any criminal activity.
C_ The solicitor should carry out standard due diligence because the client is a private
individual.
D_ The solicitor should carry out simplified due diligence because family work presents a
low risk of money laundering.
E The solicitor does not need to carry out any due diligence because the client is already
known to the solicitor.
Answer
Option A is correct. Due diligence is required irrespective of the fact that the solicitor has
some personal knowledge of the client (option E therefore is wrong). Simplified due diligence
is based on an assessment of the individual facts of the case, not on the type of work involved
(option D is wrong). Options B and C do not represent the best answers because while
normally standard due diligence would be appropriate, here the facts suggest a high risk of
money laundering and so enhanced due diligence is required. The criminal investigation is
relevant (even though the client is not the subject) and the willingness of the spouse to transfer
all the assets to the client is unusual. The risk here is that the divorce is a sham and that the
spouse is seeking to distance themselves from assets purchased with the proceeds of crime by
transferring those assets to the complicit client.
Question 2
A solicitor is instructed by a client in the purchase of a property. At the first meeting, in
accordance with the firm’s client due diligence policy, the solicitor asks to see the client's
passport. The client explains that they have just had to send the passport off for renewal
and does not expect their new passport to arrive for several weeks. The client produces a
bank statement showing the client’s name and address and promises to bring in a photo
card driving licence tomorrow.
The following day, the client says that they cannot find their driving licence. Instead the
client produces a letter from the client's neighbour stating that they have known the
client for two years and confirming the client’s full name. The client then says that, as a
demonstration of goodwill, the client will provide the solicitor with the full purchase price of
the property in cash later that day.
Which of the following best explains what the solicitor should do?
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A Proceed and complete the purchase because the bank statement contains the client's
name and address.
B Refuse to act because the solicitor does not have sufficient verification of the client's
identity.
C Agree to undertake the initial steps in the purchase pending receipt of the new
passport because there is little risk of money laundering.
D Proceed and complete the purchase because the letter is independent verification of
the client's identity.
E Agree to undertake the initial steps in the purchase pending speaking to the neighbour
direct.
Answer
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Proceeds of Crime Act 2002
6.1 Introduction 76
6.2 Overview of offences 76
6.5 Section 328 Arranging iT
6.4 Section 329 Acquisition, use or possession 81
6.5 Section 327 Concealing etc 81
6.6 Section 330 Failure to disclose 81
6.7. Section 331 Failure to disclose (nominated officers) 83
6.8 Section 333A Tipping off 83
6.9 Prejudicing an investigation 84
6.10 Confidentiality 85
6.11. The role of the SRA 85
6.12 Warning signs 85
SQE1 syllabus
This chapter will enable you to achieve the SQE1 Assessment Specification in relation
to Functioning Legal Knowledge concerned with Legal Services:
The regulatory role of the Solicitors Regulation Authority.
Overriding legal obligations.
Purpose and scope of money laundering legislation including the international
context.
Circumstances encountered in the course of practice where suspicion of money
laundering should be reported in accordance with the legislation.
The appropriate person or body to whom suspicions should be reported, the
approximate time for such reports to be made and the appropriate procedure to
be followed.
Direct involvement and non-direct involvement offences, and defences to those
offences, under Proceeds of Crime Act 2002.
The offences under the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 set out in this chapter may be
referred to in the SQE1 assessment. Otherwise, references to cases and statutory or
regulatory authorities in this chapter are provided for illustrative purposes only.
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Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to apply relevant core legal principles
and rules appropriately and effectively, at the level of a competent newly qualified
solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based and ethical problems and situations in the
following areas:
¢ The reporting of money laundering suspicions.
¢ The key offences under the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002.
* The defences to the key offences under the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002.
6.1 Introduction
The Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 is, like the Money Laundering Regulations (see Chapter 5),
part of the UK’s response to international efforts against money laundering.
The Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 is wide ranging and encompasses a variety of criminal
behaviour. Of particular interest to the legal profession is that in addition to criminalising
acts of money laundering itself, it creates a number of offences applicable to legitimate
businesses, including solicitors, who fail to respond appropriately when faced with the money
laundering activities of others.
Solicitors are often targeted by criminals seeking to launder their proceeds of crime or give
their criminal activities the appearance of legitimacy (see Chapter 5). However, solicitors
are at risk of committing criminal offences themselves if they are not vigilant as to the threat
of money laundering and/or fail to report suspected money laundering to the appropriate
authorities.
This chapter looks at:
* overview of offences
¢ s 328 Arranging
¢ s 329 Acquisition, use or possession
¢ s 327 Concealing etc
¢ s 330 Failure to disclose
¢ s 331 Failure to disclose (nominated officers)
¢ s 333A Tipping off
¢ s 342 Prejudicing and investigation
¢ Confidentiality
¢ Role of the SRA
¢ Warning signs
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associates, they will also extend to the work carried out by solicitors where the effect of that
work is to facilitate money laundering.
Under POCA 2002 it is an offence to:
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person appointed by the firm as the nominated officer to whom the disclosure should be
made. The nominated officer is often referred to as the Money Laundering Reporting Officer
(MLRO), although technically the two roles are distinct and may be fulfilled by different
individuals within the firm.
It is the nominated officer's responsibility to report concerns about money laundering to the
National Crime Agency (NCA). In the UK money laundering comes within the remit of the
financial intelligence unit of the NCA. The NCA deals with law enforcement in the context of
organised crime within the UK and works with foreign law enforcement agencies in respect of
global organised crime.
A report made to the NCA by the nominated officer is called a suspicious activity report (SAR).
The NCA operates an online procedure for making suspicious activity reports. It is
preferable for a report to be made online as this enables the report to be made at any
time and actioned quickly. It is, however, possible to make a report by post using the NCA’s
standard forms.
The nominated officer is not under any obligation to make a SAR when concerns are raised
by another person in the firm. It is for the nominated officer to exercise their own judgement in
deciding whether the matter should be passed on to the NCA. Although the nominated officer
risks committing a criminal offence if they fail to make a report where there were reasonable
grounds to suspect money laundering (see 6.7).
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(c) the disclosure is made as soon as is practicable after the solicitor first knows or suspects
that the property constitutes or represents a person’s benefit from criminal conduct, and
the disclosure is made on the solicitor’s own initiative.
o Example
A solicitor is conducting a conveyancing transaction on behalf of a client. Until the client
exchanges contracts to sell the property, the solicitor has no knowledge or suspicion that
the house was bought with the proceeds of crime. Accordingly, there is no breach of s
328, as the solicitor does not possess the requisite knowledge or suspicion. After contracts
have been exchanged, the solicitor correctly begins to suspect that the house was bought
with the proceeds of crime. Accordingly, the solicitor is now concerned in an arrangement
which facilitates the acquisition, retention, use or control of criminal property and therefore
is in breach of s 328.
In order to seek the protection of making an authorised disclosure, the solicitor must
disclose their suspicions to the firm’s nominated officer on the solicitor’s own initiative and
must do so as soon as is practicable after the first suspicions arise.
There is a defence to s 328 where the individual knew that the ‘criminal conduct’ occurred
abroad and the conduct in question was lawful in the country where it took place. The
Secretary of State has the power to override this provision.
6.3.6 Penalties
o Example
Ayesha is a solicitor acting for a client on a corporate transaction. The client is buying
Xan Ltd. During the course of due diligence Ayesha discovers that a number of Xan Ltd’s
lucrative contracts were obtained by paying bribes.
What should Ayesha do?
Ayesha needs to consider whether anything of a criminal nature has occurred. Obtaining
property using bribes is a criminal offence. These contracts will have generated cash
which will be owned by Xan Ltd. Therefore, when Ayesha’s client buys the company,
the client will be acquiring the proceeds of crime. Simply by completing the transaction
Ayesha will be concerned in an arrangement which facilitates the acquisition, retention,
use or control of criminal property, which is an offence under s 328 POCA 2002. Ayesha
needs to report the matter to the firm’s nominated officer. The nominated officer will then
need to seek the consent of the NCA for the transaction to proceed.
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The information obtained by the solicitor must be of some use to the authorities. Accordingly,
the solicitor must be able to identify, or believe the information may assist in identifying:
(a) the money launderer; or
(b) the location of the laundered property.
If the solicitor is genuinely unable to provide this information, the solicitor will not
breach s 330.
The solicitor cannot blindly assume that the information will be of no use to the authorities.
When considering whether the solicitor has breached s 330, the court will consider whether
it would have been reasonable to expect the solicitor to believe that the information would
assist in identifying the offender or locating the laundered property.
6.6.4 Disclosure
A failure to make the required disclosure is part of the offence. To meet the requirements
of s 330 the disclosure must be made to the firm’s nominated officer or the NCA as soon
as practically possible. The disclosure must comprise the reasons behind the solicitor’s
knowledge or suspicions of money laundering and, as far as is possible, the identity of the
money launderer and the whereabouts of the laundered property. If the disclosure is made,
the solicitor will not commit the s 330 offence.
A solicitor will not commit this offence where the solicitor intended to make a disclosure but
has a reasonable excuse for not doing so. There is no guidance on what would constitute a
reasonable excuse; however, the courts are likely to take a stringent view.
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will be protected from disclosure if they fall within ‘advice privilege’ or ‘litigation privilege’.
Advice privilege applies to communications between a solicitor, acting in that capacity,
and a client, if they are both confidential and for the purpose of seeking legal advice from
a legal professional or providing it to a client. Litigation privilege protects confidential
communications made after litigation has started, or is reasonably in prospect, between a
solicitor and client or solicitor and third party for the sole or dominant purpose of litigation.
However, legal professional privilege cannot be relied upon where the communication takes
place with the purpose of carrying out an offence.
POCA 2002 mirrors the common law position, in that a solicitor is not obliged under s 330
_to disclose any information that comes to the solicitor as a professional legal adviser in
privileged circumstances, eg in connection with giving or seeking legal advice, or in relation to
legal proceedings, whether contemplated or actual. However, this exemption does not apply
where the information is communicated with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose (eg
money laundering).
A solicitor will not come within this defence if the information came to them in other
circumstances, for example through transactional or conveyancing work.
A solicitor will not breach s 330 for failing to disclose where the solicitor believes that the
money laundering is taking place outside of the UK, and money laundering is not unlawful in
that country. The Secretary of State has the power to override this defence, but at the time of
writing has not taken any steps to do so.
6.6.8 Penalties
A person convicted of an offence under s 330 may receive a maximum sentence of five years’
imprisonment.
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© Example
Wilkie instructs his solicitor to sell his house. The solicitor suspects that the house was
purchased with the proceeds of tax evasion and so makes an authorised disclosure to the
firm’s nominated officer. The transaction cannot proceed at least until the solicitor obtains
the consent of the firm’s nominated officer or the NCA (see 6.3.4.2). Wilkie demands
to know why his house sale is not making progress. A junior member of staff receives
Wilkie’s call and, having checked the file, informs Wilkie that the delay is due to an
authorised disclosure having been made. In these circumstances the member of staff may
breach s 333A unless they can rely on one of the defences (see 6.8.2).
6.8.2 Defences
It is a defence under s 333A if the person who made the disclosure did not know or suspect
that the disclosure would prejudice an investigation into money laundering (s 333D(3) and (4)).
The ambit of this defence is unclear. It may cover the situation where, for example, a solicitor
informs a client about an investigation believing that the client will fully cooperate with the
authorities.
It is a defence under s 333A if the disclosure is made by an adviser to their client for the
purposes of dissuading the client from engaging in the alleged money laundering (333D(2)),
although this exception should be treated with caution.
6.8.3 Penalties
Both tipping off offences carry a maximum penalty of an unlimited fine, and/or a maximum
prison sentence of two years.
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6.10 Confidentiality
Itwill be evident from the above that POCA 2002 often requires a solicitor to provide
information about their clients in order avoid committing an offence. However, as a matter of
professional conduct a solicitor owes a client the duty of confidentiality.
Under a duty under Paragraph 6.3 SRA Code of Conduct for Solicitors, RELs and RFLs a
solicitor is required to keep confidential the affairs of clients (including former clients) unless
disclosure is required or permitted by law or the client consents. When making a disclosure
under s 338, the legislation expressly provides that such a disclosure will not breach this
duty and so is required/permitted by law. Nevertheless a solicitor should be mindful of the
importance of the duty of confidentiality, and seek advice when uncertain as to whether to
report confidential information.
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Summary
The key offences under the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 are:
e Entering into, or becoming concerned in, an arrangement which a person knows or
suspects facilitates the retention, use or control of the proceeds of crime (s 328).
¢ Acquiring, using or possessing the proceeds of crime (s 329).
¢ Concealing, disguising, converting or transferring the proceeds of crime, or removing the
proceeds of crime from the jurisdiction of England and Wales (s 327).
¢ Failing to disclose information about money laundering to the appropriate authorities
(s 330).
¢ Failure on the part of a firm’s nominated officer to disclose information about money
laundering to the appropriate authorities (s 331).
¢ ‘Tipping off’ an individual that an investigation into money laundering is underway
(s 333A).
¢ Prejudicing an investigation into money laundering (s 342).
Sample questions
Question 1
A solicitor is instructed on the purchase of company shares. The solicitor discovers that a
colleague in the firm has been instructed by the same client in respect of an investigation
by the French tax authorities into certain of the client's business activities in France which
are alleged to amount to tax fraud. The solicitor makes an authorised disclosure to the
firm's nominated officer. The nominated officer does not go on to make a suspicious activity
report to the National Crime Agency. Forty-eight hours later, having heard nothing from the
nominated officer, the solicitor buys the shares on the client's behalf.
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Is the solicitor likely to have committed the offence of ‘arranging’ under s 328 Proceeds
of Crime Act 2002?
A Yes, because a suspicious activity report has not been made to the National Crime
Agency.
B Yes, because the solicitor did not have appropriate consent to proceed with the
purchase of the shares.
C No, because the solicitor made an authorised disclosure to the firm’s nominated officer.
D No, because the client has not yet been convicted of any criminal offence.
E No, because any criminal conduct took place outside the UK.
Answer
Option B is the best answer. An authorised disclosure was required to prevent falling foul
of s 528 despite the fact that the alleged criminal activity took place outside the UK (fraud
is a criminal offence in France) and despite the lack of a conviction (suspicion is all that is
required). However, the making of an authorised disclosure is not a sufficient defence in itself.
Having made the disclosure the solicitor will still have committed the offence by proceeding
with the purchase without consent. The duty to make a suspicious activity report lies with the
nominated officer and a failure to make the report has no relevance to the solicitor’s liability
under s 328.
Question 2
A junior solicitor, who works for a firm in Newcastle, is instructed on the purchase of a
residential property by a client who lives in Southampton. The client provides the solicitor
with the purchase price of the property in cash. The client then pulls out of the purchase
and asks the solicitor to return the purchase money to the client by cheque.
Which of the following best describes how the solicitor should respond?
A Inform their head of department about the client's request.
B_ Do nothing.
C_ Tell the firm’s nominated officer that there is a suspicion of money laundering.
D Make a full file note of the client's request.
E Send the cheque.
Answer
Option C is correct. There are reasonable grounds for suspecting that the client is engaged
in money laundering (geographical distance between solicitor and client and the use of
cash). The solicitor will commit the failure to disclose offence under s 330 if they do not make
a relevant disclosure. The solicitor should therefore inform the firm's nominated officer giving
details of their suspicions. Option B is wrong as doing nothing is not an option in this case.
Neither option A nor D is the best answer because, while making a file note and informing
the head of department are good ideas they will not save the solicitor from committing the
offence. Finally, option E is wrong. By sending the cheque the solicitor is likely to commit other
offences (eg arranging under s 328).
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Question 3
A partner in a firm is acting for a client in the purchase of a business. The firm receives a
telephone call from the client's wife. The partner, who is in a meeting, asks a junior solicitor
to take the call. In doing so the partner says that the client has given permission for any
information about the purchase to be discussed with his wife. .
The solicitor takes the call. The client’s wife asks for an update on the progress of the
purchase. On checking the file, the solicitor tells the client's wife that the client provided
the money for the purchase in cash and the partner has concerns that the client may have
obtained some of the money as a result of tax fraud and that consequently the purchase is
on hold whilst the firm considers making a suspicious activity report to the National Crime
Agency.
Which of the following best explains whether the solicitor has committed a ‘tipping off
offence under s 333A Proceeds of Crime Act 2002?
A_ An offence has not been committed because the disclosure was authorised by the
partner.
B An offence has not been committed because the solicitor did not intend to prejudice an
investigation.
C_ An offence has not been committed because the disclosure was not made to the client.
D_ An offence has been committed because there is strong evidence that the client has
been engaged in money laundering.
E An offence has been committed because the disclosure is likely to prejudice any
investigation into money laundering.
Answer
Option E is correct. A key element of the offence is that the disclosure is likely to prejudice
an investigation. Making the disclosure to the client’s wife is highly likely to prejudice the
investigation. However, the solicitor does not need to have intended this outcome (option B
therefore is wrong). A tipping off offence under s 333A(3) does not depend on the strength of
evidence of money laundering (option D is wrong); even the contemplation of an investigation
is sufficient. Tipping off offences can be committed where a disclosure is made to any person,
meaning that option C is wrong. Finally, option A is wrong as there is no scope for the tipping
off to be authorised, and in any event the partner authorised the conversation taking place,
not its content.
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Funding Options
La
71 Introduction 90
7.2 The retainer 90
7.3 Professional conduct 90
r 7.4 Private funding 91
7.5 Fixed fees 91
7.6 Business agreements 92
7.7 Funding civil litigation 93
SQE1 syllabus
This chapter will enable you to achieve the SQE1 Assessment Specification in relation
to Functioning Legal Knowledge concerned with Legal Services:
¢ Funding options for legal services.
¢ Private funding.
¢ Conditional fee arrangements.
¢ Damages-based agreements.
e Fixed fees.
¢ Third party funding.
¢ Legal expenses insurance.
Note that for SQE1, candidates are not usually required to recall specific case
names or cite statutory or regulatory authorities. Cases are provided for illustrative
purposes only.
Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to apply relevant core legal principles
and rules appropriately and effectively, at the level of a competent newly qualified
solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based and ethical problems and situations in the
following areas:
¢ Professional conduct considerations in relation to funding.
¢ Types of funding.
¢ Availability of funding options.
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| Introduction
For any client one of the most important aspects of legal services is the question of how they
will be paid for. The costs involved in the case and how to finance them will be at the forefront
of the client’s mind and the issue must be addressed at the earliest opportunity.
For some clients the question will be, ‘can | afford to pay?’; for others the question will be,
‘can | afford not to?’. When, perhaps, liberty, reputation or a child’s future is at stake, the
importance of the matter to the client may outweigh the monetary cost. In past years those
who needed access to justice, but could not afford to pay for a solicitor, could turn to public
funding to have their costs paid (see Chapter 8). However, whilst this still remains an option
for some, the ambit of public funding is now severely restricted.
In recent years pragmatism has required law firms to open up to a variety of methods of
paying for legal services. A solicitor must understand the funding options available in order
to be able to play their part in agreeing upon the method which both addresses the client's
requirements and meets the business needs of the firm.
This chapter looks at:
e the retainer
¢ professional conduct
* private funding
e fixed fees
¢ business agreements
¢ funding civil litigation
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Funding Options
In addition, the SRA Transparency Rules (see Ethics and Professional Conduct) require that,
in relation to certain types of legal services, particular costs information must be provided.
That information includes the circumstances in which clients may have to make any payments
themselves for the services provided by the solicitor, including from any damages received.
The rules of professional conduct are not solely concerned with costs information; they also
extend to the level of charges. A solicitor must act in the best interests of the client (SRA
Principle 7) and act with integrity (SRA Principle 5). Overcharging for work done would breach
both these Principles. Similarly, overcharging may breach Paragraph 1.2 of the SRA Code
_of Conduct for Solicitors, RELs and RFLs which provides that a solicitor must not abuse their
position by taking unfair advantage of the client.
Ultimately, of course, the client has the right to challenge a solicitor’s bill. In most cases this
may involve asking the court to assess the costs. The court will reduce the bill if the amount
charged is unreasonable. This is an obvious restraint on the amount that a solicitor can
charge. Where a costs officer (when assessing a solicitor’s bill in a non-contentious matter)
reduces the amount of the costs by more than 50%, they must inform the Solicitors Regulation
Authority. (See Ethics and Professional Conduct.)
A range of funding options are discussed below. Under the SRA Code of Conduct for
Solicitors, RELs and RFLs there is no obligation to offer alternative funding options or to agree
to act for a client under any of them. However, a solicitor should make the client aware of the
funding options and, if necessary, direct the client to take separate advice on their availability.
For example, a solicitor may not carry out legal aid work (see Chapter 8), but if the solicitor
thinks that the client may be eligible the solicitor must advise the client accordingly and, if
necessary, direct the client elsewhere.
Paragraph 3.4 of the SRA Code of Conduct for Solicitors, RELs and RFLs requires a solicitor
to consider and take into account the client's attributes, needs and circumstances. This
requirement will apply when selecting and agreeing the appropriate funding option for the
client's case.
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Fixed fees are common in some types of work, such as conveyancing transactions. However,
particularly given the restrictions on the availability of legal aid in civil cases (see Chapter 8),
it is not unusual nowadays for a client to conduct the case themselves, only instructing a
solicitor to carry out a specific step in the proceedings, such as drafting a document or
attending a hearing, often on a fixed fee basis.
It is vital that the solicitor obtains all the relevant information in order to set a fixed fee at a
reasonable but remunerative level. A fixed fee cannot be altered at a later date (unless the
client agrees) if the work turns out to be more expensive than the solicitor first expected.
Inventors Friend Ltd v Leathes Prior (a firm) [2011] EWHC 711
A firm of solicitors agreed a fixed fee to briefly review and comment on the terms of a
document. The fee was agreed before the solicitor involved had seen the actual document.
The client later sued the firm for negligence.
Cranston J commented: ‘When solicitors undertake work at a specific fee, they are generally
speaking obliged to complete it exercising the ordinary standard of care, even if it has
become unremunerative.’
(a) be in writing;
(b) be signed by the client;
(c) contain all the terms of the agreement (including whether disbursements and VAT are
included in the agreed remuneration).
Where the relevant provisions have been complied with, the client will be unable to apply to
have the bill assessed by the court. However, the court may set the agreement aside if the
amount charged by the solicitor is unfair or unreasonable.
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In order to be enforceable, the agreement must comply with certain requirements, including:
(a) the agreement must state it is a contentious business agreement;
(b) the agreement must be in writing;
(c) the agreement must be signed by the client; and
(d) the agreement must contain all the terms.
Where the contentious business agreement is enforceable, the client will be unable to apply
to court for an assessment of costs (except where the agreement provides that the solicitor
is to be remunerated by reference to an hourly rate). However, the court may set aside the
agreement if it is unfair or unreasonable.
7.7.1 Solicitor and client costs and costs between the parties
In litigation the distinction must be drawn between solicitor and client costs (ie the fees that
the client has agreed to pay to their own solicitor) and costs that may be awarded between
the parties at the end of the case. A solicitor must explain this distinction to the client at the
outset of the case.
If the client loses the case, the client will usually have to pay their own solicitor’s costs and, in
addition, their opponent's costs. The general rule is that the unsuccessful party will be ordered
to pay the costs of the successful party. The amount to be paid will be agreed or assessed by
the court.
If the client wins the case, the client will still be responsible for their own solicitor’s costs.
Usually the opponent will be ordered to pay costs. Again, this will be an agreed amount
or a sum assessed by the court. If the costs recovered are, as is usual, less than the costs
paid, the client will have to bear the loss. Similarly, the client may recover no costs at all (for
example, because the opponent is bankrupt) in which case the client will have to pay their
own solicitor’s costs in full.
1 Variable fees
A solicitor is permitted, in certain circumstances, to charge a fee which varies according to the
outcome of the matter.
For many years, fees dependant on the outcome of the case were outlawed because it
was feared that they would compromise the solicitor’s impartiality and create a conflict
between solicitor and client. However, eventually this view was relaxed and now such fees
are permitted in limited situations. Two types of fees arrangements are permitted, namely
conditional fee agreements and damages-based agreements.
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The ‘specified circumstances’ are whether or not the client succeeds with a claim or,
alternatively, successfully defends a claim.
Although often referred to as a ‘no win, no fee’ agreement, the essence of a CFA is that the
client pays a different amount for the legal services received depending on the outcome of
the case. Under a CFA the solicitor receives no payment, or less than normal payment, if the
case is lost, but receives normal, or higher than normal, payment if the client is successful.
The usual justification for CFAs is that they provide access to justice for those for whom it
would otherwise be denied. However, there is no requirement that the client must be unable
to fund the case by other means.
lf a claim is successful, the solicitor will receive an enhanced fee to reflect that success. The
higher fee payable (the success fee) must be expressed as a percentage increase of the
fee that would be payable if there was no CFA. Normally the fee payable is based on the
solicitor’s usual hourly charging rates. For example, if a solicitor would normally charge £200
an hour, a 10% success fee would mean an additional £20 per hour. The fee is not based on
the solicitor receiving any proportion of money recovered by the client.
From the solicitor’s point of view it is essential that the CFA complies with all formal
requirements. If the CFA is judged to be invalid, the solicitor will not be able to recover any
fees under it. A CFA is enforceable only if it meets the requirements of ss 58 and 58A Courts
and Legal Services Act 1990. These provide that a CFA:
(a) may be entered into in relation to any civil litigation matter, except family proceedings;
(b) must be in writing; and
(c) must state the percentage by which the amount of the fee that would be payable if it
were not a CFA is to be increased.
The success fee cannot exceed 100% of the solicitor’s normal charges. In personal injury cases
there is an additional cap of 25% of the general damages recovered.
If the client wins the case and the opponent is ordered to pay the client’s costs, these cannot
include the success fee. That will be payable by the client.
Under the wording of the legislation it is possible for disbursements to be included as part of
the agreement. However, most firms exclude disbursements simply because they do not want
to run the risk of being left out of pocket. Therefore if the client loses the case, whilst they will
not usually have to pay their own solicitor’s fees, they will be liable for disbursements, such as
counsel's fees or the costs of an expert witness. In addition the client will also be ordered to
pay the opponent's costs, including disbursements. The client may not be in a position to pay
these disbursements and/or may be concerned by the fact that they will not know until the end
of the litigation whether they are liable to their opponent for costs and, if so, for how much.
o Example
Imran is a solicitor. Imran is approached by Selina in relation to a contract dispute. Imran
agrees to take on the case under a conditional fee agreement. Imran’s usual charging
rate is £200 per hour. Imran proposes a ‘no win, no fee’ conditional fee agreement with a
success fee of 40%. This means that Imran‘s hourly charge out rate will be £280 per hour if
Selina wins her claim. Selina agrees.
Scenario 1
The judge finds in Selina’s favour and she is awarded damages of £20,000. Imran’‘s bill
totals £3,000 but the success fee increases this to £4,200. The ‘usual’ fees of £3,000 and
any disbursements would be recoverable from Selina’s opponent but Selina is responsible
for any shortfall and also the success fee of £1,200, which would be paid from her
damages.
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Scenario 2
Selina loses the case and she is ordered to pay her opponent's costs and disbursements.
In addition, Selina must pay her own solicitor’s disbursements but she is not liable for the
bill of £3,000 (nor the success fee).
Faced with the prospect of having to pay their own disbursements and their opponent's costs,
a client may benefit from purchasing after-the-event insurance (ATE) (see 7.7.3.2). This type of
legal expenses insurance policy provides cover for the other side’s costs and the client’s own
disbursements in the event of losing the case.
~ Whilst ATE insurance will cover the client's disbursements in the event that the client loses,
in practice the client will be paying for those disbursements on an ongoing basis during the
course of the litigation. To assist in these circumstances some banks and many ATE insurers
offer loans to fund disbursements. Counsel may be willing to enter into a CFA with the solicitor
(or sometimes with the client) in respect of their fees. However, such an arrangement cannot
be entered into with an expert witness, because an expert’s evidence must be impartial and
therefore should not be capable of being influenced by the outcome of the case.
In entering into a CFA, a solicitor takes a financial risk. A solicitor should always conduct a risk
assessment before entering into a CFA taking account of such factors as:
(a) the chances of the client succeeding on liability;
(b) the likely amount of the damages;
(c) the length of time it will take for the case to reach trial;
(d) the number of hours the solicitor is likely to have to spend on the case.
The risk assessment should also inform the success fee. It should not be set arbitrarily or
automatically set at the highest level. The solicitor should advise the client on how the risk
assessment is reflected in the success fee or, at the very least, be able to demonstrate that
they gave very clear advice on how the success fee was arrived at.
© Herbert v HH Law Ltd [2019] EWCA Civ 527
In this case it was held that a client could not be said to have given informed consent to a
100% success fee applied as standard without any account being taken of the individual risks
in the client's case.
Sir Terence Etherton MR commented ‘in the context of a conditional fee agreement, the
amount of a success fee is traditionally related to litigation risk, as reasonably perceived
by the solicitor or counsel at the time the agreement was made. Across the broad range of
litigation, it would be unusual for it not to be.’
CFAs have become increasingly popular, partly filling the void created by the removal of legal
aid for most civil cases. A CFA provides the client with the security of knowing that they will
not receive a large bill from their solicitor at the end of the case. For the solicitor there is the
opportunity to receive higher fees, but there is also the risk of receiving nothing at all if the
case is lost.
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(i) the recipient is to make a payment to the person providing the services if the recipient
obtains a specified financial benefit in connection with the matter in relation to which the
services are provided, and
(ii) the amount of that payment is to be determined by reference to the amount of the
financial benefit obtained.
Therefore under a DBA if the client receives a financial benefit' (usually in the form of damages
paid by the opponent) the solicitor’s fee is an agreed percentage of the compensation
received. For example, if the client recovers £100,000 and the DBA is set at 10% then the client
pays the solicitor a fee of £10,000. This is known as a ‘contingency fee’ because the payment
is contingent upon success. If the client loses the case, the solicitor does not receive a fee.
There is some uncertainty as to whether it is open to a defendant to enter into a DBA. Given
the link between the fee and damages recovered, it would seem that such agreements
are only available to claimants, or can perhaps.extend to defendants with a substantial
counterclaim.
Under a DBA, if the client wins the case the solicitor receives the agreed percentage of the
damages recovered. The amount paid by the client will be net of any costs payable by the
opponent. So, any costs to be paid by the opponent will be set off against the contingency
fee and the client will only have to pay the balance. If the client loses the case, the effect
mirrors that of a CFA, in that the client will not be responsible for their own solicitor’s fees,
but may still be liable for the disbursements as well as, usually, having to pay the opponent's
costs. Therefore, as with a CFA, it may also be appropriate to combine a DBA with ATE
insurance cover (see 7.7.2.1 and 7.7.3.2).
o Example
A firm of solicitors is instructed by Alpha Ltd in a contract dispute. The firm enters into a DBA
with Alpha Ltd which is set at 20%. At trial, Alpha Ltd wins their claim and recover damages
of £100,000 from the defendant, together with £15,000 towards Alpha Ltd's costs.
Under the DBA, Alpha Ltd will owe the firm £20,000 by way of a contingency fee to cover
their legal fees. However, £15,000 will be covered by their opponent, leaving a shortfall of
£5000 for which the client remains responsible. This will be deducted from the damages
so that Alpha Ltd will actually receive £95,000 in total.
A DBA is subject to a cap on the level of the solicitor’s fee. The DBA must not provide for
a payment above an amount which, including VAT, is equal to 50% of the sums ultimately
recovered by the client. The cap is inclusive of counsel's fees, but not other disbursements for
which the client will remain liable. The cap does not apply to appeal proceedings.
A lower cap is set in personal injury cases, namely 25% of general damages received for pain,
suffering, and loss of amenity and damages for pecuniary loss (other than future pecuniary
loss). The cap for employment cases is 35%. Again the cap does not apply to appeals.
To be enforceable a DBA must meet the requirements of s 58AA(4) Courts and Legal Services
Act 1990 and the Damages-Based Agreements Regulations 2013 (S| 2013/609). In essence
this means that the agreement must be in writing and specify the proceedings to which the
agreement relates, the circumstances in which the fee is payable and the reason for setting
the fee at the level agreed. If the DBA is adjudged unenforceable, the client will not have to
pay the solicitor anything.
There is some uncertainty as to the precise requirements of the legislation which has led to a
reluctance amongst some solicitors to enter into DBAs rather than risk the DBA being adjudged
unenforceable and losing out on their fees. Some clarification was provided in the following case:
Lexlaw Ltd v Zuberi [2020] EWHC 1855 (Ch)
In this case the client was bringing a claim against two banks for the mis-selling of financial
products. The firm agreed to act for the client under a DBA which provided that the firm would
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be paid 10% of the damages received. The DBA also provided that in the event of the client
terminating the agreement before the conclusion of the case, the client would pay for the work
done to date.
The firm worked on the case for some considerable time. Then over a short period of time,
in rapid succession, the banks indicated that they would be making an improved offer of
settlement, the client terminated the retainer with the firm and the case was settled on the
basis that the client would receive damages of £1 million.
The firm then sought their fee of £125,000, but the client refused to pay anything. The client
_ argued that the clause requiring payment in the event of early termination of the agreement
breached s 58AA Courts and Legal Services Act 1990 and that, as a consequence, the DBA
was void and unenforceable.
The court held that s 58AA could not be interpreted as preventing a firm being paid in
the event of early termination of the agreement by the client. HHJ Parfitt said that if legal
representatives were not to be entitled to be fairly remunerated for the work done the
consequence would be:
that those representatives would be reluctant to enter into damages-based
agreements and that would be contrary to the purpose of making such agreements
lawful so as to facilitate access to justice. This would have the knock-on consequence
of creating less choice ... for clients wanting to bring general civil litigation claims ...
again contrary to the purpose of the expansion of damages-based agreements into
general civil litigation.
As a means of funding DBAs have not proved to be particularly popular. From the solicitor’s
perspective DBAs are often not commercially attractive simply because the level of damages
awarded in civil litigation means that often the fees received do not even cover basic costs. In
addition, entering into a DBA represents a considerable risk. The nature of a DBA is such that
it is only a viable option where the solicitor is confident not only that the client will succeed,
but also that the opponent will pay both the damages and costs from which the solicitor’s fees
will be taken.
From the client’s perspective a DBA may provide access to justice at relatively little risk.
However, the client may still feel aggrieved when the solicitor ‘takes’ a significant slice of the
damages in fees having apparently done little work (for example, if the case is settled early
in the proceedings). In some cases this may result in the client seeking to avoid paying the full
amount by raising objections with the court based on proportionality.
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FUNDING
A solicitor who recommends or arranges ATE for a client will be carrying out insurance
distribution activities. The solicitor must take account of the restrictions imposed by the
Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (see Chapter 4).
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consumer cases. Commercial funders take their fee from the money recovered at the end of
the case and so third party funding is not usually available to defendants. However, some
commercial funders are willing to provide funding for defendants who have a substantial
counterclaim.
A commercial funder will only take on a case where there is a good chance of success. Most
funders interpret this as meaning that the chance of success must be at least 60%. The size of
the likely award is also important in that it must be sufficient to cover the funder’'s fee. As a
matter of policy and commercial pragmatism funders do not take on cases where the litigant
would be left with less than 50% of the amount recovered after deduction of the funder’s fee.
The funder will also be influenced by such factors as the strength or any counterclaim, the
likely timescale of the litigation and the ability of the opponent to pay.
Third party funding is aimed at covering the client's own costs and disbursements. However,
exactly what is covered will depend on the terms of the funding agreement. It is common,
for example, for the funder to only cover part of the solicitor’s fees with the remainder being
covered by the client or via a CFA (see 7.7.2.1) or DBA (see 7.7.2.2).
If the case is successful the funder will receive their fee from the amount recovered by the
client. How the fee is calculated depends on the terms of the funding. agreement. Various
methods of calculation are employed, for example, the fee may be a percentage of the
amount recovered or a multiple of the amount spent on legal fees.
One issue which can arise in relation to third party funding is liability for the opponent's costs
in the event that the client loses the case. The Arkin case (above) placed a limit or cap on the
liability of the commercial funder. However, in Chapelgate Credit Opportunity Master Fund
Ltd v Money and others [2020] EWCA Civ 246 it was held that costs are in the discretion of the
court with the result that the funder was ordered to pay all the opponent's costs from the date
of the funding agreement. Commercial funders will factor in this potential liability to their fees
and/or their willingness to offer funding in the first place.
Any solicitor acting for a client under third party funding must have regard to their
professional conduct responsibilities. Minimising the influence which the funder has over
the conduct of the case will reduce the risk of a conflict of interest arising (see Ethics and
Professional Conduct). Similarly the solicitor must be wary of breaching client confidentiality
(see Ethics and Professional Conduct) when asked to provide the funder with information
and/or documentation relating to the case.
Summary
The main funding options are:
e Private funding - the client pays for the work done based on the solicitor’s hourly
charging rate.
e Fixed fees - the client pays a set amount for work done.
¢ Conditional fee arrangements - if client wins the solicitor receives an enhanced fee
calculated as a percentage of the solicitor’s usual charging rate. If the client loses the
solicitor receives a lower fee or no fee.
¢ Damages-based agreement - if the client wins the solicitor receives a percentage of the
damages received. If the client loses the solicitor receives no fee.
¢ Before-the-event insurance - the solicitor’s fees are covered by an existing policy (eg a
household insurance policy).
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After-the-event insurance - a policy usually taken out to cover the client’s own
disbursements and liability for the opponent's costs in the event of the client losing.
* Third party funding - a third party (usually a commercial funder) agrees to fund the
litigation.
Sample questions
Question 1
A solicitor agrees to act for a client on a ‘no win, no fee’ conditional fee agreement with a
success fee of 25%.
Which of the following describes the costs position?
A If the client wins, the solicitor’s fee will be calculated at 25% of the damages received.
B_ If the client wins, the opponent will pay the success fee.
C If the client wins, the client will pay nothing in respect of their own costs.
D_ If the client loses, the client will have to pay disbursements.
E If the client loses, the solicitor’s fee will be calculated at their usual charging rate.
Answer
Option D is correct. This is a ‘no win, no fee’ CFA, so if the client loses they will not have to
pay anything in fees, but will still be liable for disbursements (and the opponent's costs).
In a CFA the success fee is calculated as a percentage of the usual charging rate, not a
percentage of the damages received. If the client wins they will have to pay the success fee
as it cannot be recovered from the opponent.
Question 2
A junior solicitor is approached by a wealthy individual in relation to a personal injury
claim. The solicitor’s assessment of the case is that there is a good chance of obtaining
substantial damages. The solicitor tells the prospective client that the firm has a strict policy
of not acting on the basis of contingency fees. Nevertheless, the prospective client requests
that the case be dealt with under a damages-based agreement (DBA).
Which of the following best explains whether the solicitor should agree or refuse to act
under a DBA?
A Refuse, because that is the firm’s policy.
B Refuse, because the client can afford to pay privately for the solicitor’s costs.
C Agree, because the client has the right to decide how their legal costs are funded.
D Agree, because to do so is in the client's best interests.
E Agree, because the risk to the firm is low.
Answer
Option A is correct. It is for the client to decide how their costs are funded, but that does not
impose an obligation on the part of a firm to act for a client on a particular basis. Therefore
a firm may refuse to act under a DBA as a matter of policy. A junior solicitor should adhere to
the firm’s policy even if the risk to the firm in an individual case is low. If it is in the client's best
interests to have a DBA the client should be referred to another firm.
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Question 3
A solicitor agrees to carry out a conveyancing transaction for a client at a fixed fee of £500
plus VAT and disbursements. A month into the transaction, it becomes clear that the solicitor
will have to undertake much more work than was originally envisaged.
Which of the following best describes what the solicitor can do?
A Tell the client that the solicitor can no longer act for the client.
Start charging the client on the basis of the solicitor’s hourly charging rate.
Ask the client to agree to an increase in the solicitor’s fees.
Write to the client providing the best possible information on the revised overall costs.
Carry out no further work on the transaction pending the client agreeing to an increase
@mio
oO
in fees.
Answer
Option C is correct. A fixed fee cannot be changed at a later date if it transpires that the case
is more expensive than originally thought (save with the client's agreement). Although it is not
a step to be undertaken lightly, all that the solicitor can do is to ask the client to agree to an
increase. If the client refuses, the solicitor must complete the work for the fee agreed.
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SQE1 syllabus
This chapter will enable you to achieve the SQE1 Assessment Specification in relation
to Functioning Legal Knowiedge concerned with Legal Services:
¢ Funding options for legal services.
* — Eligibility for civil legal aid.
¢ — Eligibility for criminal legal aid.
Note that for SQE1, candidates are not usually required to recall specific case
names or cite statutory or regulatory authorities. Cases are provided for illustrative
purposes only.
Learning outcomes
By the end of this chapter you will be able to apply relevant core legal principles
and rules appropriately and effectively, at the level of a competent newly qualified
solicitor in practice, to realistic client-based and ethical problems and situations in the
following areas:
¢ Civil and criminal legal aid.
¢ The scope of legal aid.
e Individual client eligibility.
¢ Means tests.
¢ Merits tests.
e The statutory charge.
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8.1 Introduction
Legal aid is the means by which those who are eligible can have some or all of their legal
fees paid from public funds. Legal aid in both civil and criminal cases is primarily governed by
the Legal Aid, Sentencing and Punishment of Offenders Act 2012, although much of the detail
appears in a range of statutory instruments. The legal aid scheme is administered by the
Legal Aid Agency, an executive agency of the Ministry of Justice.
This chapter looks at:
e the solicitor and the Legal Aid Agency
¢ civil legal aid
* criminal legal aid
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The legislation sets out a number of merits tests to be applied depending on the form of civil
services required and the nature of the case. Although the details vary, the tests all involve an
assessment of the client’s prospects of success and the application of a cost-benefit criteria.
Legal Help and Help at Court are subject to the ‘sufficient benefit test’. Legal aid will only be
available is there is a sufficient benefit to the client, having regard to the circumstances of the
case, including the client's personal circumstances, to justify the work being carried out.
Legal Representation is dependant of the client's prospects of success. Broadly, Legal
Representation will not be granted if those prospects are assessed at less than 50%. In
addition the client must satisfy a general merits test or a specific merits test depending on the
type of case. For example, if the case involves a monetary claim the merits test will involve
a balancing of the damages that are likely to be received against the likely costs involved
in the case. In a non-monetary case the test is whether the benefits to be gained justify the
likely cost such that a reasonable privately paying client would be prepared to proceed (the
‘reasonable privately paying client test’).
Legal representation will also be refused if the Legal Aid Agency takes the view that other
funding is available to the client (for example legal expense insurance) or if the case is
suitable for a Conditional Fee Arrangement (see 7.7.2).
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A client in receipt of one of a number of welfare benefits (income support, income-based job
seeker's allowance, income-related employment and support allowance, guarantee credit
element of pension credit or universal credit) automatically qualifies for legal aid on the basis
of income, but their capital must still be assessed.
For other clients the income test first considers the client's gross income. If the client's gross
monthly income exceeds £2,657 the client does not qualify for legal aid (the figure is slightly
higher if the client has five or more children). If the client’s gross monthly income is £2,567 or less
the assessment goes on to make certain deductions (to reflect the client's family circumstances
and their basic living expenses) to arrive at a figure for the client's disposable income. The client
will only qualify for legal aid if their monthly disposable income is less than £733.
Even where the client's capital and income is below these limits, the means assessment may
reveal that the client can afford to pay something towards their legal costs. For licensed work
(for example, legal representation) if the client's monthly disposable income is above £315 or
their capital above £3,000 legal aid will be offered to the client on the basis that they make a
contribution towards their legal fees. If the contribution is from income it will take the form of
monthly payments.
© Example
Nilu applies for legal aid in the form of Legal Representation. Nilu has capital of £4,000
and her gross income is £1,500 (Nilu’s monthly disposable income is £300).
Nilu’s capital is less than £8,000. Nilu’s gross income is below the £2,567 monthly limit and
her disposable income is below the £733 limit. Therefore, provided that she satisfies the
merits test, Nilu is eligible for legal aid on the basis of both capital and income. However,
as Nilu’s capital exceeds £3,000 legal aid will be offered to her on the basis that she
makes a capital contribution to her legal fees.
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Additionally, there is a catch-all provision under which it is open to the client to demonstrate
that there is ‘some other reason’ making it in the interests of justice for them to receive
legal aid.
Each of these factors must be considered and weighed. One or more may be applicable to a
varying extent depending on the particular facts of the client’s case. Broadly, the more serious
the consequences for the client or the more complex the proceedings, the more likely it is that
the client will be able to satisfy the test.
The test is automatically met if the client is under 18 years of age and in the case of crown
court trials.
The interests of justice test is considered in more detail in Criminal Practice.
The full means test is more sophisticated as it takes account of the client's family
circumstances and involves the deduction of some essential expenses from the client's income,
such as mortgage repayments or rent, to produce a figure for the client's disposable income.
For cases before the magistrates’ court the purpose of the means test is to determine whether
the client is eligible for legal aid or not: to be entitled to legal aid the client must have an
annual disposable income of £3,398 or less. For crown court trials, if a client has a disposable
income between £3,389 and £37,500, the means test may determine that the client can afford
to make some contribution towards their legal fees, whether from income or capital, and legal
aid will be offered to the client on that basis.
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Summary
* The legal aid scheme enables those who qualify to have their legal fees paid from
public funds.
¢ Only firms with a relevant contract with the Legal Aid Agency can carry out legal
aid work.
¢ The solicitor has an ongoing relationship with the Legal Aid Agency throughout the client's
case and owes certain duties to the Legal Aid Agency.
¢ The main forms of civil services are Legal Help, Help at Court and Legal Representation.
¢ Civil legal aid is only available for a limited range of cases.
¢ To qualify for civil legal aid the client must satisfy tests as to their own means and the
merits of the case.
¢ The statutory charge operates so that the client may have to repay their legal fees from
money or property received or preserved in the proceedings.
* Criminal legal aid is available for advice at the police station, under the duty solicitor
scheme and by application for a representation order.
¢ To qualify for a representation order the client must satisfy the interests of justice test and
the means test.
Sample questions
Question 1
A solicitor is instructed by a client in a claim for damages. The client is in receipt of income
support and has capital of £1,000. The solicitor is confident that the case has a good
chance of success and satisfies the merits test. The client submits an application for legal
aid in the form of Legal Representation.
Which of the following describes the costs position if the application is successful?
A The client will be asked to make a monthly contribution towards their legal fees.
The client is entitled to free legal representation.
The client may have to repay some of their legal fees.
The solicitor can choose to charge for the work done at any hourly rate.
w The solicitor can insist that the client pay money on account of costs.
moO
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Answer
Option C is correct. If the client is awarded damages in the case, the effect of the statutory
charge is that the client may have to repay some of their legal fees. Therefore the
representation is not free (option B therefore is wrong). The client's means are not such as
would require them to make a contribution towards their legal fees (option A is wrong). The
solicitor will be remunerated at set levels (option D is wrong). Finally, option E is wrong as
the solicitor must look to the Legal Aid Agency for payment of their fees and so the solicitor
cannot ask the client to pay money on account.
Question 2
A solicitor is instructed by a client who is the defendant in possession proceedings. If the
claimant succeeds in the case the client will be evicted and become homeless. However,
the solicitor is confident that the client has a good defence and would win the case. The
client has no capital and is in receipt of universal credit.
Is the client likely to be eligible for legal aid in respect of the proceedings?
A_ No, because civil legal aid is only available to claimants.
B_ No, because the case falls outside the scope of legal aid.
C No, because a reasonable privately paying client would not be prepared to proceed
with the case.
D_ Yes, because a client in receipt of universal credit automatically qualifies for legal aid.
E Yes, because the client satisfies both the means and the merits test.
Answer
Option E is correct. Legal aid is available to both claimants and defendants; accordingly,
option A is wrong. A case in which the client is faced with homelessness is within the scope of
legal aid; option B is wrong. The ‘reasonable privately paying client’ test would be satisfied
given the threat of homelessness and the client has a good chance of success; option C
therefore is wrong. Option D is wrong, as a client in receipt of universal credit does not
automatically qualify for legal aid - they must still satisfy the merits test and the capital element
of the means test. On these facts the client satisfies both the merits test (as above) and means
tests (the client is in receipt of universal credit and has capital of less than £8,000).
Question 3
A solicitor is instructed by a client who is the defendant in criminal proceedings. The client
is charged with stealing from their employer. The case will be dealt with by way of a crown
court trial. The client has no capital and is not in receipt of any welfare benefits.
Which of the following best describes the position with regard to the client's eligibility
for legal aid in respect of the trial?
A Legal aid will not be granted if the risk of the client receiving a custodial sentence
is low.
B Legal aid will only be granted if a reasonable privately paying client would proceed
with the case.
C Legal aid will be granted if the client's annual adjusted income is £10,000.
D Legal aid will be granted because the client has no capital.
E Legal aid is unlikely to be granted unless a conviction for stealing from an employer
would result in serious damage to the client's reputation.
111
Legal Services
Answer
Option C is correct. To be eligible for criminal legal aid the client must satisfy both the
interests of justice test and the means test. In a crown court trial the interests of justice test
is automatically satisfied, so option E is wrong. The client has no capital, but their income is
relevant for the means test (option D is wrong). An adjusted income figure below the limit
of £12,475 satisfies the means test and therefore legal aid will be granted. The reasonable
privately paying client test is relevant for civil legal aid (option B is therefore wrong).
112
Index
A Cc
acquisition, use or possession, 81 chartered accountants, 7
adequate and appropriate insurance, 21 chartered legal executives, 6
advice privilege, 83 CILEx Regulation, 6
after-the-event insurance, 98-9 civil legal aid, 105
age, and discrimination, 27 forms of civil services, 105
alternative business structures, 15 help at court, 105
arranging, 46, 77 legal help, 105
authorised disclosure defence, 78 Legal Representation, 105, 106
disclosure after prohibited act, 80 means test, 106-7
disclosure during prohibited act, 79-80 merits test, 106
disclosure prior to act taking place, 79 scope of legal aid, 106
making as disclosure, 78-9 statutory charge, 107
reasonable excuse for client account, and money laundering, 63
non-disclosure, 80 client due diligence, 66
criminal property, 78 enhanced due diligence, 69-70
‘know or suspect,’ 77-8 ongoing monitoring, 70
litigation proceedings, 78 requirement for, 66-7
overseas defence, 80 simplified due diligence, 69
penalties, 80 standard due diligence, 67-9
authorisation, 16 client information, 22
of individuals, 17 commercial unregulated organisation,
admission, 17-18 solicitors in, 20
practising certificates, 18-19 companies, 15
licensed bodies, 16 company and trusts, and money laundering, 63
authorised disclosure defence, 78 comparator, direct discrimination, 28
disclosure after the prohibited act, 80 compensation, 34
disclosure during the prohibited concealing offence, 81
act, 79-80 conciliation, 34
disclosure prior to the act taking place, 79 conditional fee agreement (CFA), 93-5, 97, 99
making as disclosure, 78-9 confidentiality, 85
reasonable excuse for non-disclosure, 80 consumer credit activities, 52-3
authorised firms, Indemnity Insurance Rules, 21 contentious business arrangements, 92-3
authorised third persons, 47-8 contracts of insurance, 53
authority, of financial services, 44 costs lawyers, 6
Council for Licensed Conveyancers, 6
criminal conduct, 17-18
Criminal Finances Act 2017, 71
Bar Standards Board, 6, 7 criminal legal aid, 108
barristers, 6, 35 advice at police station, 108
before-the-event insurance, 98 application for legal aid, 108
beneficial owner, 67-8 , interests of justice test, 108-9
business arrangements, funding options, 9 means test, 109
contentious, 92-3 representation order, 110
non-contentious, 92 duty solicitor scheme, 108
business test, 45 criminal property, 78
Index
D protected characteristics, 27
age,27
damages, and claims, 33 disability, 27-8
damages-based agreement (DBA), 95-7, 99 gender reassignment, 28
direct discrimination, 28 marriage/civil partnerships, 28
comparator, 28 pregnancy and maternity, 28
less favourable treatment, 28-9 race, 27
protected characteristics, 29 religion and belief, 27
disability discrimination, 27-8, 30 sex, 27
disclosure sexual orientation, 27
of disclosure, 84 solicitors as employers
failure to, 81, 83 claims, 34-5
disclosure, 82 making adjustments, 34
information, 82 occupational requirements, 34
legal professional privilege unlawful acts, 33
defence, 82-3 vicarious liability, 34
objective test, 82 solicitors as service providers
overseas defence, 83 claims, 33
penalties, 83 making adjustments, 32
raining defence, 82 unlawful behaviour, 31-2
regulated sector, 82 vicarious liability, 32
of investigation, 84 Equality and Human Rights Commission
see authorised disclosure defence (EHRC), 26
discrimination see Equality Act 2010 exclusions, financial services, 47
diversity, 37 authorised third persons, 47-8
duty to make adjustments, 31 execution-only client, 48
auxiliary aid provision, 31 introducing, 47
physical features, 31 ‘professional/necessary’ exclusion, 48
provision, criterion or practice, 31 takeover exclusion, 48-9
solicitors trustees or personal representatives, 48
as employers, 34 execution-only client, 48
as service providers, 32 exemption for professional firms, financial
services, 50
E ‘incidental,’ 50-1
no other regulated activities, 51
Employment Tribunal, 34-5
not prohibited, 51
enhanced due diligence, 69-70
‘pecuniary or other advantage,’ 50
equality, 37
permitted regulated activities only, 51
Equality Act 2010, 26
barristers, 35
F
discrimination under, 26
duty to make adjustments, 31 Financial Action Task Force, 64
physical features, 31 Financial Conduct Authority, 7, 20, 43
provision, criterion or practice, 31 financial promotion prohibition, 45
provision of auxiliary aid, 31 Financial Promotions Order 2005
overlap with professional conduct, 36 exemption for exempt professional
positive action, 35 firms, 54
prohibited conduct non-real time promotions, 55
direct discrimination, 28-9 real-time promotions, 55
disability discrimination, 30 exemptions, 54
harassment, 30-1 introducers, 55
indirect discrimination, 29-30 one-off promotions, 55
victimisation, 30 prohibition, 54
114
Index
115
Index
116
Index
117
Index
118
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The University of Law SQE1 manuals provide clarity, Titles in this series:
authority and value. The manuals succinctly set out the * Business Law and Practice
principles and rules in each area of law and practice that * Constitutional and Administrative
form part of the SRA’s Solicitors Qualifying Examination. Law and EU Law
Each title is complemented by various worked examples * Contract
and sample assessment questions to aid the reader's * Criminal Law
understanding of examinable topics. * Criminal Practice
¢ Dispute Resolution
Published and updated regularly, these user-friendly ¢ Ethics and Professional Conduct
guides are designed to help the reader successfully
¢ Land Law
prepare for the SQE1 exams.
¢ Legal Services
Legal Services provides a comprehensive review of the * Legal System of England and
sector and a thorough examination of the regulatory and wae
statutory controls placed on those delivering legal services | * Property Practice
to the public. * Solicitors Accounts —
¢ Tort
Jacqueline Kempton practised as a solicitor in London ¢ Trusts
and Kent. She is now an Associate Professor at The °- Wills aind the Admuiniserceian
University of Law in London. | of Estates
ON TELS 14°219061
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