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AIATS Medical - RM - Open Mock Test-3 - Code-E&F - Solution - 23.04.2023

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AIATS Medical - RM - Open Mock Test-3 - Code-E&F - Solution - 23.04.2023

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Alll India Aakash T All India Aakash Test Series for NEET - 2023 OPEN MOCK TEST - 3 (Code-E) Test Date : 25/04/2023 ANSWERS 1. (4) 41. (2) 81. (2) 121. (3) 161. (2) 2 @) 42. (4) 82. (1) 4122. (2) 162. (3) 3 3) 43. (3) 83. (1) 123. (3) 163. (4) 4. (3) 44, (2) 84, (1) 124. (3) 164, (3) 5. @) 45. (1) 85. (3) 4125. (2) 165. (3) 6 (1) 46. (1) 86. (1) 126. (3) 166. (2) 7 a) 47, (2) 87. (3) 127. (4) 167. (2) 8% @) 48, (2) 88. (2) 128. (4) 168. (4) 9 (4) 49. (1) 89. (1) 129. (1) 169. (3) 10. (1) 50, (4) 90, (1) 130. (4) 170. (2) 11. @) 51. (3) st. (1) 131. (3) 171. (3) 12. (1) 52. (4) 92, (4) 132. (1) 172. (3) 13. (1) 53. (4) 93. (1) 433. (2) 173. (1) 14, (1) 54, (3) 94. (2) 134. (1) 174. (2) 15. (2) 55, (3) 95. (2) 135. (3) 175. (3) 16. (2) 56. (3) 96. (1) 136. (2) 176. (3) 17. (3) 57. (2) 97. (2) 137. (2) 177. (3) 18. (1) 58. (3) 98. (2) 438. (2) 178. (1) 19. (3) 59. (3) 99. (2) 139. (3) 179. (3) 20. (1) 60. (4) 100. (2) 140. (4) 180. (4) 21. 2) 61. (3) 4101. (3) 141. (1) 181. (2) 22. (3) 62. (4) 102. (3) 142. (3) 182. (2) 23. (4) 63. (4) 103. (4) 143. (2) 183. (3) 24. (1) 64. (2) 404. (1) 144. (3) 184. (4) 25. (4) 65. (4) 108. (3) 145. (2) 185. (1) 26. (3) 66. (4) 4108. (4) 148. (1) 186. (3) 27. 2) 67. (4) 4107. (3) 147. (2) 187. (2) 28. (1) 68. (3) 108. (3) 148. (3) 188. (3) 29. (2) 69. (4) 409. (1) 149. (2) 189. (1) 30. (3) 70. (2) 110. (3) 150. (4) 190. (2) 31. (3) 71, (1) 111, (2) 151. (3) 191. (3) 32. 2) 72. (3) 112. (4) 152. (4) 192. (3) 33. (3) 73. (4) 113. (1) 153. (4) 193. (4) 34. (3) 74, (1) 114. (3) 154. (2) 194, (1) 38. (2) 75. (3) 115. (2) 156. (1) 195. (3) 38. (4) 76. (4) 116. (1) 156. (1) 196. (3) 37. 3) 7. (3) 417. (1) 4187. (2) 197. (4) 38. (2) 78. (3) 118. (3) 158. (2) 198. (3) 39. (1) 79, (1) 119. (4) 159. (4) 199, (2) 40. (4) 80. (2) 4120. (2) 160. (3) 200. (4) Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 Open Mock Test-3 (Code fon [PHYSICS] SECTION-A Answer (4) Hint & Sol: For super elastic collision coefficient of restitution is greater than 1 ‘Answer (4) F ln S= Hint & Sol: S = Units of surface tension are Nim, J/m? and kg/s?. Answer (3) Hint: F= 6 anv ‘Sol. [y rv] = [MLT~] tne] = IMLT [LTP MET] ‘Answer (3) Hint: Time = Distance ‘Speed Sol.: Let L be the length of escalator, Speed of man wir. escalator Y= © Speed of escalator Vp = a Speed of man w.rt. ground vey+ at-bat Vo hee _(4x5) _ (20? \4+5) Lo) Answer (3) Hint: At t= 0 inductor act as infinite resistance sol: 52 j i 5a Ly 10V 10 545 Answer (1) 10. Hint & Sol: Newton’s third law of motion states that to every action there is equal and opposite reaction and action and reaction pair act on different bodies. Answer (1) Hint: a =~ (g sind + ug cos0) Sol: a =~ (g sin30° + jug c0s30°) =-(6+5) 10 mis? veutat 0= 30-10 t=3s Answer (3) Hint, W=F°S Sol: T=m(g +a) s ut + tae? 2 Work done by tension = Ts cos0 W = m(q+a){ut+ tat? | Answer (4) Hint: Ideal p-n junction diode produces zero resistance when forward biased whereas it produces infinite resistance when reverse biased. Sol 10.2 {__,,_| 80V 80 “10 i=8A ‘Answer (1) Hint: For elastic collision Mev Uy Up e =1 Soli: us + vi = ue + ve Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 Coens " 12. 13. 14, 16. (Cod Co 10+6=4+v ve= 12 mis ‘Answer (3) AX mp Xp + My + MX ‘my +g +My +14 Yoow =U MaVa* Maya + Maye My +My + ms + M4 (a (a (-a {-a) m(s}tm(g}+2n[ 2 2m 2) mem ams 2m Hint: xcom Sol. Xcom = 6m 6 (a) -a m(5)+m(3)-2m(5)+ 2m Yoom = =0 Answer (1) Hint: Time of fight 7 = 245in® . 2x{ in 20 g vsinza 9 Sol. Answer (1) 2 Hint: / = ™ (6m)(30? 2 Sol. _ 9m? a Answer (1) Hint: At equilibrium yo =0 Sol. rd magl sina5° ‘Answer (2) 16. 17. 18. CU Hint: =?xp Sol: % (-5,0) r= 5 cosas" Som Be |=, xm 5 ted 2 = SVE kg mts Answer (2) fe Hint: g = 4 RG) 9-3 1RG) oR 1,4 2 G2 ppp 2 1 1 Answer (3) Sol: Hint; v ==8" r Sum of infinite terms of G.P “A or Gm_G(m!2) terse? Answer (1) FL. Y= Hint: ¥ = =e op -Aw AML L F=KAx (2) Sol: ¥ (0, 5) Gmi4 4a (1) Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 Open Mock Test-3 (Code fon ‘Comparing equation (1) and equation (2) =A T 19. Answer (3) Hint & Sol.: Level of water will remain same because when ice mes itwill convert to that much | 22 Answer (3) volume of water that was displaced by it while Hint: @ floating. 20. Answer (1) CAT Sol: Q= W+ AU Work done by gas in polytropic process is RAT Hint: T = - a Sol AU= nOvAT a= near = SRAT . nGyar Hence, enc, +78 23. Answer (4) Hints x4 YA A yA XB > XB +8 sol: x22 54100 64 _, 164 por |2 =2 Vis" >is +68 a my 24. Answer (1) Hint: At steady stale capacitor act as infinite 21. Answer (2) resistance Hint: Beat frequency = |f -f| Sol: Sol. Beat frequency = |f\—6] f= Fh= a{lax] (2) whe benty fax isasia ' 0 Potential difference across 5 pF is 7x 1=7V 1 Potential energy = CV? 5x7? = 122.5 ud Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 Coens 25. Answer (4) Rt Hint: R= 2 Sol.: A= n(3R¥— mR? = Bake =P! ol TOA” Bak? 26. Answer (3) Sol: |F|=|qvxB| =|a(voi)* (Boi + V389/)] |F |= V3qBv 27. Answer (2) Hint: Power factor -§ Sol.: At resonance Z= R Power factor = 1 28. Answer (1) Hint: 1 — & 2P__ [2(0.4)x9x10° PT Yarere VY 3xt0® = Ey = V24 Vim 28. Answer (2) Hint: shit = ¢( 1-7 Sol. Bom Som B+(B-x)= 124 x 16-1 Co 30. 31 32, 33, 34, ma 4 e 3 ‘Answer (3) Hin & Sol: Most of ight tacted between two frat onder tinima 2x550%10°° 4x 10908 Answer (3) Hin Sol: The material's semiconductor Anower(2) Hint: For maxima ax = For a Ima Ax = (2n 1) (en Sol.: Maximum possible path difference between waves is nearly 2.5%, there will be 5 maximas on screen for Ax= +h, Ax=# 24 and Ax=0 Also there will be 4 minimas on screen for ‘Answer (3) Hint: TV Sol.: Taking log on both sides In T+ (7-1) In V= Constant constant Answer (3) he _he Hint: 22 - P2 , gy, x fo _ Zhe he, Rdg Sol. ev fe ev...) ha = Zig 8 (2) By equation (1) and (2) Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 Se ET ) sal 2he_ he {te re) —_ ea | mA ; sib 35. Anower(2) avl ER=60 Hint & Sol.: TT ev x— i A 38. Answer (2) q Hint: ge = 20 (1-coso) Zak¥ Sol: =Xx+Y 2=Z,=X+¥ Itis a NOR gate OR Truth table x |y |z o fo [a o [1 [o 1 [o |o 1 4 1 [1 |[o fe oy 9 B Truth table suggests itis a NOR Gate. Pip (1 90880") 1-9) SECTION-B. 4 36. Answer (4) “Te Hint: LC= 1 MSD - 1 VSD a2 8 Sol: n VSD = (n= 1) MSD 39. Answor (1) avso= "uso Hint: = Noo Le=4MSD -1VsD Mean tte = 1 (n-1) A tc=msp - {2—*)wsp Sol: N= Noe 28 At t= 1c -MSD_ 58 on 2 nn 508 in N=Nyeo2> ° N 52s 37. Answer (3) N Hint: Break down voltage is 6 V. 40. Anewer (4) Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 Coens 41. 42. 43. 44 46. (Cod Co Hint: AE = hy 13.6 2? Sol. Answer (2) Hint: ET -V=0 Sol. Tr 27 2sms|CA 37 -¥=-37(25)+TV=0 = V=7.5 mis upwards Answer (4) 12400 2-206 ev 600 12400 x Hint & Sol: E= Answer (3) Hint: 8=i+e—A Sol.: 65° + 45° + A= 180" A=T0" Ssite-A 5° + 45" — 70" = 20" Answer (2) Answer (1) Hint: At equilibrium F= ie, 22-0 2, and if gu 3 ~ Negative then itis unstable 46. 47. 48, 49, CUI een ed 2 and 4-4 — positive then itis stable equilibrium ae Which is positive Atx= itis stable equilibrium Answer (1) Hint: R waa Ry _ Roal® Sol: ; Ro RA my _(25y" Rte) RS R, 2 ‘Answer (2) Hint & Sol.: Area = Length * Breadth 6.3 x 24 = 1327.2 me Rounding off to two significant digits = 13 » 10? m? ‘Answer (2) Hint: At highest point vertical component of velocity is zero. © 20050 Sol. vu= 8 cos60" = 4 m/s ‘Answer (1) m Hint: m m and point of contact is instantaneous centre of rotation. Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 All India Aakash Test Series for NEE1 50. 51 62. 53, 54, Tr Sol. 1 way Ke = Lmg + Am{ Bro Am vo} 2m gm( Bro} am 8 mig 70 + ais -sm Answer (4 Hint: 4 - at 2 mv? « + mug + 2g [CHEM SECTION-A Answer (3) Hint: 1 mol gas at STP = 2.4L Sol.: CHs + 202 > CO2 + 2H:0 ‘s 2mol Oe forms 1 mol CO2 = 22.4 L CO2 at STP 14.8 L COzat SIP 4 mol Oe forms 2 mol C ‘Answer (4) Hint: For same n + ¢, orbital having greater value of n has greater energy. Sol. Orbital | n+e 3d 34225 5s 5+0=5 af 443=7 6p e+t=7 Energy order : 6p > 4f> 5s > 3d ‘Answer (4) Hint: Itis difficult to remove electron from 2s orbital than 2p orbital Sol.: AH order : LiBO 2H(g) both AH and AS. are positive. ‘Answer (3) Hint: Due to common ion effect, degree of is an endothermic dissociation of | weak electrolyte becomes negligible. Pb(OH), = Pb?" +20H Sol: (i) - - o4 (eq) Ss 28404 8<<0.1 528401204 Ko = [Pb*]OH-P 1.2% 10-8 = (8) (0.17 3=1.2*10-°M Answer (3) Hint: Extent of reaction for exothermic equilibrium decreases with increase in temperature, Sol.: ~- On increasing the pressure, equilibrium shifts towards the side having lesser number of gaseous moles. Extent of reaction for Ag) + Bx{g) = AB2(9) will be maximum at low temperature and high pressure. Answer (4) Hint: Algebraic sum of oxidation number of each clement in ion is equal to the charge on the lon. Sol. Species | Oxidation number of underlined atom HeSiO, [4 (1) +x+4(-2) HaeCh lor KMnOs | (+1) + (x) +4 (-2)=0 x=47 61 62, 63, 65. 66. CU ‘Answer (3) Hint & Sol.: Magnesium and calcium bicarbonate decompose on heating into hydroxide and carbonate respectively and get precipitate out therefore, considered as cause of temporary hardness, ‘Answer (4) Hint & Sol.: Corresponding hydrate halides of Be and Mg on heating suffer hydrolysis. ‘Answer (4) Hint: Shape of sp* hybridised molecule is tetrahedral. Sol.: Bridge hydrogen atoms are above and below the plane, fnwer 2) Hint & Sol: cl ano, i No, IUPAC name : 1 hie 2, 4dhitrobenzene Answer (4) Hint: He = cH E22» Oo a sot: a0 -c4-22+(G ® ‘Answer (4) Hint: Lessor is stability of alkene, more will be the heat of hydrogenation AK AK Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 67. 68. 69. 70. ” 72. 73, Maximum heat of hydrogenation is of Z Answer (4) Hint: In Feo30, total positive charge on Fe®* and Fe ions must be equal to the negative charge on 0% ion, Sol.: Let xis the number of Fe? ions in 93 cations. xx 24 (93—x)x3= 2 100 9, 79 Fraction of Fe ions in the crystal ~ 7° ~ 0.85 i 93 ‘Answer (3) Hint: AGrix < 0 and ASm > 0 for every solution Sol.: For ideal solution both AHmie and AVmx are zero. Answer (4) Hint: = 1-a+na Sol.: Ky[Fe(CN)g] > 4K* +[Fe(CN).]* i=1-04+5%04 26 ‘Answer (2) Hint: 3 mol electrons liberate 1 mol Al Sol.: m=zQ ar Za Q=tF. ‘Answer (1) Hint & Sol: Lessors the reduction potential more is the reducing power therefore, minimum reduction potential among the given metal is of potassium. ‘Answer (3) Al, 2.303, log for first order eR 2308 2p] 2.303 “17 919) Hint: t Sol t 60s. ‘Answer (4) Hint: For zero order, t= Open Mock Test-3 (Code 74, 75. 76. 77. 78. 79, fon Answer (1) Hint: Pepsin converts proteins into amino acids. Sol: Enzyme _| Enzymatic reaction + [invertase | Sucrose - Glucose + Fructose + | Pepsin Proteins -> Amino acids + [Zymase | Glucose -» Ethyl alcohol + Coz + [Diastase — | starch > Maltose Answer (3) Hint: Mond’s process is a vapour phase refining process. Sol.: Mond’s process: Nis 4co— 222-38 ico), Ni(CO), S247 Nico ‘Answer (4) Hint: C,0%° is a bidentate ligand Sol: Halide ions are weak field ligands and generally form outer orbital complex €,03 fs strong fed ligand and form inner orbital complex in [Co(Cz04)5- Answer (3) Hint: If Ao < P then pairing does not take place before fling e5 orbitals Sol.: For octahedral complex having Ao

No(g) + 2H20(!) + NaCl(aq) Sol + (NHy)_.6rs07 He ony + 4H, Cr,05 + Ba(Naje —*-» Ba + 3Ne + (INHe):SOx+2NaOH — 2NH3 + 2H20 + NazSOx Answer (1) Hint & Sol. Element cr [Mn [Fe [co 041 [157] 077 [1.97 a+(¥) Poros 80. at 82. 83, 84, 86. Co Answer (2) : Hairs Hint: R-COCI274 5R-CHO Sol. Oe Ones ® © Answer (2) Hint: Aryl halides and vinyl halides have double bond characters in C—X bonds, so C - X bond breaking is dificult. Sol: ZC! wil give fastest Sx2 among the given molecules as the transition state formed is stabilised by x bond. Answer (1) Hint: Reducing sugar gives positive Tollen's test Sol.: The reducing groups of glucose and fructose are involved in glycosidic bond formation therefore, sucrose is a non-reducing sugar. Answer (1) Hint: The polymer formed by more than one type of monomeric unit are copolymer. ss, C Answer (3) Hint: But-2-ene shows geometric isomerism. Sol.: Possible alkenes formed by the dehydrohalogenation of |, are 86, 87, 88, 89, 90, SECTION-B Answer (1) Hint: Dual nature of matter Is negligible in macroscopic bodies, Sol: The effect of Heisenberg uncertainty principle is significant for motion of microscopic objects, ‘Answer (3) Hint: Species containing unpaired electrons are paramagnetic while with no unpaired electrons are diamagnetic. soli Species | Bond order | Magnetic nature on 12 Paramagnetic |S Paramagneti et Diamagnetio ale Paramagnete wf Diamante oe 25 Paramagnetic Answer (2) Hint: AG = AH TAS Sol: At cqlbum AG = 0 4 | 40000 _ 290% 38” 200 Answer (1) Hint: On adding two reactions at equilibrium their equilibrium constants get multiplied to give now equilibrium constant. Sol: ‘A, +28, —=20B, Ky + AB, +Cp—==AC, +B, Ky A, +B, +C,——=AB, +AC, K=KiKy Answer (1) Hint & Sol.: MgSO« and BeSO. are readily soluble inwater due to high hydration enthalpies. Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 91. Answer (1) Hint: Borax is NaaBOr 10420 Sol. Nag8,0 10402 4Na,B,0,—*-» NBO, ~ 8,05 elaborate. artyaide 92. Answer (4) Hint: Percentage of Br 80 Wager = 100 188 © Worganic compound Sol.: Percentage of Br- 89. 9.188 499 - 40% 93. Answer (1) Hint: Triclinic crystal system is the most unsymmetrical crystal system. Sol. Crystal Parameters system + | Trigonal + | Trictinie + | Tetragonal + [ Monoclinic 94. Answer (2) Hint: A; NH4OH = Aj,NH,CI+ Aj,NaOH—A",NaCl ‘Sol. A;NHyOH = y+z-x 95. Answer (2) Hint: HF forms hydrogen bonding, Sol. Hydrogen HF JHC! | HBr | HI halides Boiling pointik 96. Answer (1) = ‘oO 293 | 189 ‘COOH COOH COOH _cxOM, CooH | 206 | 238 Kivnid, H,50, © 8 Open Mock Test-3 (Code 97, 98. 99, 100. fon Answer (2) Hint & Sol: Maximum sweetness value as compared to cane sugar is of Alitame, Answer (2) Hint: 0° and 120° dihedral angles belong to eclipsed form of ethane. 4 So, <4 4 4 4 staggered sou a0) Most stable conformer of ethane is staggered having 60° dihedral angle. ‘Answer (2) Hint: Aniline undergoes diazotization on reaction with NaNOe + HCl at 0 - 5°C. Soli No, Ni NGI snc! Nano, —— |) tera=rer A B F © Her, ‘Answer (2) Hint: R Mgx—22° RD “eo mng” © Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 101 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. Co CU [BOTANY] ‘SECTION-A ‘Answer (3) Hint: Enclosed within the integuments is a mass of cells called the nucellus, Sol.: Cells of the nucellus have abundant reserve food materials. Answer (3) Hint: This disorder is caused by mutation in the gene that codes for the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase. Sol.: Pleiotropic gene is single gene that can exhibit multiple phenotypic expressions. An ‘example of this is phenylketonuria, which occurs in humans. Answer (4) Hint: Female heterogamety is seen in birds. Sol.: In birds, the females have one Z and one W chromosome, whereas males have a pair of Z- chromosomes besides the autosomes, Answer (1) Hint: The residual, persistent nucellus is called perisperm, Sol.: In some seeds such as black pepper and beet, remnants of nucellus are persistent, Albuminous seeds retain a part of endosperm as it is not completely used up during embryo) development (e.g. wheat, maize, barley, castor, sunflower). Answer (3) Hint: A nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose sugar through a N-glycosidic linkage to form a nucleoside, Sol.: Two nucleotides are linked through 3-5 phosphodiester linkage to form a dinucleotide. Answer (4) Hint: Sporopollenin is one of the most resistant organic material Sol: Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures and strong acids and alkali. Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils due to sporopollenin. Intine in pollen grain is a thin layer made up of cellulose and pectin. Answer (3) Hint: The i gene of lac operon codes for the repressor. Sol.: The lac operon consists of one regulatory gene and three structural genes. 108. 109. 110. or 112 113. 114. ‘Answer (3) Hint: UTRs are required for efficient translation process. Sol: The UTRs are present at both 5'-end (before start codon) and at 3-end (after stop codon). ‘Answer (1) Hint: The strand that has the polarity 5'-»3" acts as a template strand in transcription. Sol: The DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyses the polymerisation only in one direction. that is, 53 ‘Answer (3) Hint: it can be transmitted from parents to the ‘offspring when both the partners are carrier for the gene (or heterozygous). Sol: Sickie-cell anaemia is an autosome-linked recessive disease. The mutated gene Hb* causes one change in amino acid sequence of f-chain of haemoglobin, It replaces glutamic acid present at 5" position by valine. ‘Answer (2) Hint: Primary productivity can be divided into ‘gross primary productivity and net primary productivity. Sol.: Secondary productivity is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers. ‘Answer (4) Hint: In amensalism, one species is harmed whereas the other is unaffected Sol: The interaction where one species is benefited and the other is neither benefited nor harmed is called commensalism ‘Answer (1) Hint: When energy flows from a particular trophic level to the next higher trophic level, some energy is always lost as heat at each step Sol.: Pyramid of energy is always upright and can never be inverted. ‘Answer (3) Hint: Primary succession is a process that starts in an area where no living organisms existed Sol: The correct sequence of stages of primary succession in aquatic ecosystem is Phytoplankton > Submerged plant stage — Submerged free floating stage -> Reed swamp stage > Marsh meadow stage -> Scrub stage —> Forest Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 118. Answer (2) Hint: A population has certain attributes that an individual organism does not possess. Sol.: An individual may have birth and death, but population has birth rates (natality), death rates, (mortality) and sex ratio. Answer (1) Hint: Any species growing exponentially under unlimited resource conditions can reach enormous population densities in a short time, Sol.: When we plot population density in relation to time, graph results in a J-shaped curve in exponential growth of a population. Answer (1) Hint: Acetobacter aceti (a bacterium) is used in production of acetic acid. Sol.: Aspergillus niger (a fungus) is used in production of citric acid Answer (3) Hint: Crop varieties bred by hybridisation and selection for insect pest resistance are as follows: Sol. 116. 417. 118. Crop Variety Insect Pest Brassica PusaGaurav Aphids Flatbean Pusasem2 Jassids, Aphids and fruit bores: Okra usa sawani Shoot and _ fruit PusaA4 borers 119. Answer (4) Hint: Global species diversity of fishes is more, than species of birds. Sol. Mammals Birds Fishes Reptiles ‘Amphibians 120. Answer (2) Hint: Threatened animals and plants are taken out from their natural habitat and placed in special setting where they can be protected and given special care and is called ex-situ conservation. Open Mock Test-3 (Code 121 122 123. 124. 125. 126. 127 128. fon Sol.: Zoological parks, botanical gardens and wildlife safari parks are ex-situ conservation strategies. Answer (3) Hint: Volvox and Chara are green algae. Sol: The common forms of phaeophyceae are Ectocarpus, Dictyota, Laminaria, Sargassum and Fucus. Answer (2) Hint: They are the smallest living cells known and. can survive without oxygen. Sol: Mycoplasma are organisms that lack cell wall Answer (3) Hint: China rose and mustard are examples of alternate phyllotaxy. Sol: Calotropis and guava are examples of opposite phyllotaxy. Whorled phyllotaxy is found in Alstonia, Answer (3) Hint: Dianthus and Primrose are examples of free central placentation. Sol: Mustard and Argemone are examples of parietal placentation ‘Answer (2) Hint: This pressure is responsible for pushing up water to small heights in the stem. Sol.: This positive pressure in roots is called root pressure. ‘Answer (3) Hint: This element is also required for uptake and utilisation of Ca Sol: Boron is required for membrane functioning, pollen germination, cell differentiation and carbohydrate translocation. ‘Answer (4) Hint: Condensation and colling of chromatin fibres bogin during leptotene stage. Sol.: The correct sequence of phases of prophase | is as folows: Leptotene ~> Zygolene — Pachylene -> Diplotene = Diakinesis. ‘Answer (4) Hint: Chromosomes get aligned along metaphase plate or equatorial plate before the spliting of centromere, Sol: Chromosomes metaphase. move to equator in Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 Poros 129, 130. 131. 132 133. 134, 135, 136. 137. 138, Co ‘Answer (1) Hint: Colletotrichum is a member of fungi group also called imperfect fungi Sol: Mucor, Rhizopus and Albugo are the members of Phycomycetes. ‘Answer (4) Hint: These also provide index to the plant species, found in a particular area, Sol.: Flora contains the actual account of habitat and distribution of plants of a given area, Monographs contain information on any one taxon, Answer (3) Sol.: The sub-metacentric chromosome has centromere slightly away from the middle of the chromosome resulting into one shorter arm and fone longer arm, Answer (1) Hint: The endoplasmic reticulum which has granular surface is found in association with nucleus, Sol.: RER is continuous with the outer membrane of the nucleus. Answer (2) Hint: The autumn wood is darker and has higher’ density. Sol.: The spring wood is lighter in colour and has lower density. Itis also called early wood. ‘Answer (1) Hint: Monocot stem has a large number of scattered vascular bundles. Sol.: The ‘ring’ arrangement of vascular bundles is a characteristic of dicot stem ‘Answer (3) Hint: This organism is responsible for causing red tide of sea, Sol.: Gonyaulax is an example of dinoflagellates, SECTION-B ‘Answer (2) Hint: Main plant body in bryophytes produces gametes. Sol.: The main plant body of the bryophyte is haploid and itis called gametophyte. ‘Answer (2) Hint: Psiiotum is an example of class Psilopsida in Pteridophytes. Sol.: Equisetum and Selaginella are examples of ‘Sphenopsida and Lycopsida respectively. ‘Answer (2) Hint: The excited electron does not pass on to NADP* but is cycled back to PS | complex through 139. 140. 141 142 143. 144, All India Aakash Test Series for NEE 023 the electron transport chain in the cyclic flow of electrons. Sol.: The stroma lamellae membrane lacks PS II as well as NADP reductase enzyme. Answer (3) Hint: Cs plants have a greater productivity of biomass. Sol: Cs plants lack a process called photorespiration because of the mechanism that increases the concentration of COz at the enzyme site. Answer (4) Hint: In the most crucial step of Calvin cycle, CO2 is utilised, Sol.: Carboxylation is the most crucial step of the. Calvin cycle where COz is utilised for the carboxylation of RuBP. Answer (1) Hint: Auxins are widely used as herbicides Sol.: 2, 4 - D (2, 4 - dichlorophenoxyacetic) is a synthetic auxin’ and is widely used to kill dicotyledonous weeds. Itis used to prepare weed free lawns by gardeners. ‘Answer (3) Hint: This is a substrate level phosphorylation. Sol: During the conversion of succinyl CoA to ‘succinic acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised. ‘Answer (2) Hint: Thalassemia, phenylketonuria and sickle cell anaemia are the examples of autosome-inked disorders. Sol: Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disorder which shows transmission from Unaffected carrier female to some of the male progeny. It shows criss-cross inheritance. Answer (3) Hint: itis a test cross. Sol.: Genotype of parent generation. Yellow seeds - Yy Green seeds - yy a g is smes © OG O Xo © D) rete | Xen olw lw sk | ob Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 Phenotypes ratio — Yellow seeds Green seeds 1: 1 145. Answer (2) Hint: Decomposition involves breakdown of the detritus. Sol.: Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simpler inorganic substances. This process is called as catabolism. Anabolism is the synthesis of complex substances from simpler ones. 4148. Answer (1) Hint: Splicing is required to remove introns and join exons after transcription in eukaryotes. Sol.: Electrophoresis, blotting and hybridisation are involved in the DNA fingerprinting 4147. Answer (2) Hint: Pusa Sadabahar a variety of chilli was developed to make it resistant against chilli mosaic virus, tobacco mosaic virus and leaf curl Sol.: In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus and powdery mildew was induced by mutations. Open Mock Test-3 (Code fon 148. Answer (3) Hint: Ganga Action Pian and Yamuna Action Plan, have been initiated to save these major rivers of ‘our country. Sol.: The Ministry of Environment and Forests has initiated Ganga Action Plan and Yamuna Action, Plan. 149, Answer (2) Hint: Ozone is found in the upper part of the atmosphere called the stratosphere, Sol: Ozone depletion is occurring widely in the stratosphere. 150. Answer (4) Hint: A toxic substance accumulated by an ‘organism cannot be metabolised or excreted, and is thus passed on to the next higher trophic level Sol: Biomagnification refers to increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels. [ZOOLOGY] SECTION-A 161. Answer (3) Hint: Ten years less than the approximate life span of crocodile Sol.: In human beings, menstrual cycle ceases around 50 years of age; that is termed as menopause. The first menstruation that begins at puberty is called menarche. 152. Answer (4) Hint: White muscle fibres anaerobic respiration Sol.: White muscle fibres have larger diameter, less number of mitochondria, more amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum and’ less quantity of myoglobin. 153. Answer (4) Hint: This is an ill-offect of STIs. Sol.: Pelvic inflammatory disease, abortions, stil- births, ectopic pregnancies are some of the ill- effects of STIs. ‘The possible i-effects of the use of contraceptives are nausea, abdominal pain, breakthrough bleeding, irregular menstrual bleeding or even breast cancer. 154, Answer (2) Hint: It connects ventricles of brain mainly perform Sol: The canal passing through the midbrain is called cerebral aqueduct, The dorsal portion of the midbrain consists mainly of four round swellings called corpora quadrigemina, 155. Answer (1) Hint: Troponin is found attached with tropomyosin Sol: The motor unit consists of a motor neuron along with muscle fibres connected to it. Calcium ion binds, with a subunit of troponin present on tropomyosin, 156, Answer (1) Hint: More than the number of phalanges in both hindlimbs Sol: The skull is composed of two sets of bones. cranial and facial, that totals to 22 bones. Cranial bones are 8 in number. They form the hard protective outer covering, cranium for the brain. The facial region is made up Of 14 skeletal elements which form the front part of the skull, A single U-shaped bone called hyoid is present at the base of the buccal cavity and it is also included in the skull, Each middle ear contains three tiny bones - malleus, incus and stapes, collectively called ear ossicles. 157. Answer (2) Hint: Main reason of ventricular filling is joint diastole Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 158, 169. 160. 161. 162 Co Sol.: All he four chambers of heart are in a relaxed slate, /e., they are in joint diastole. As the bicuspid and tricuspid valves are open, blood from the pulmonary veins and vena cava flows into the left and the right ventricles respectively through the left and right atria, During atrial systole, there is an increase in flow of blood into the ventricles by about 30 per cent. ‘Answer (2) Hint: Release of ovum occurs in this phase Sol. 08 OP? 3s = | ‘Answer (4) Hint: Foetal ejection reflex Sol.: Oxytocin released from posterior pituitary is a peptide hormone produced by hypothalamus. It plays an important role in milk ejection as well as in child birth, Answer (3) Hint: Fertilisation occurs in fallopian tube Sol.: In a female undergoing tubectomy, fusion of male and female gametes (sperm and ova) will not ‘occur. In tubectomy, a small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up through a small incision in the abdomen or through vagina. ‘Answer (2) Hint: This ganglion supplies nerves to antennae and compound eyes. Sol.: The brain of cockroach is represented by supra-oesophageal ganglion. Both supra- ‘oesophageal and sub-oesophageal ganglia are parts of brain ring, ‘Answer (3) Hint: Membrane present at the base of scala media 163. 164. 165. 166. Answer (4) Hint: Exclude homopolymers of glucose Sol: Glycogen, cellulose and starch are homopolymers of glucose. Inulin is a homopolymer of fructose. Answer (3) Hint: Inbreeding depression occurs due to continued inbreeding Sol: Inbreeding depression occurs due to continued inbreeding, Whenever this becomes a problem, selected animals of the breeding population should be mated with unrelated superior animals of the same breed, This usually helps to restore productivity and fertility Answer (3) Hint: Present only in RNA Sol: 9) ‘ SAW woe -O\ ut ou wy AY A Uracil (Pyrimidine) Answer (2) Hint: Poikilotherm Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 yaa a es) Sol.: The members of class Chondrichthyes are characterised by (2) Viviparity and internal fertilisation (b) In males, pelvic fins bear claspers (©) Cold blooded animals ‘Answer (2) Hint: Latin, annulus : litle ring Sol.: Annelids are triploblastio, segmented and coelomate animals. ‘Aquatic annelids like Nereis possess lateral appendages, parapodia, Nephridia helps_ in ‘osmoregulation and excretion in annelids. The mouth of molluscs contains a file-ike rasping ‘organ for feeding, called radula ‘Answer (4) Hint: Immune response mediated by T= lymphooytes is responsible for graft rejection Sol.: Grafts from just any source — an animal another primate, or any human beings cannot be made since the grafts would be rejected sooner or later. Tissue matching, blood group matching are essential before undertaking any graftitransplant and even after this the patient has to take immune= suppressants all hisiher life. The body is able to diferentiate ‘so and ‘nonself. The cell-mediated immune response is responsible for the graft rejection ‘Answer (3) Hint: Haemopoiesis also occurs here Sol.: Differentiation of immature lymphocytes into. antigen-sensitive lymphocytes occurs in primary lymphoid organs i.e,, bone marrow and thymus, The secondary lymphoid organs provide the sites for interaction of lymphocytes with the antigen, which then proliferate to become effector cells ‘Answer (2) Hint: One parent cell form four daughter cells after a complete meiosis in the process of spermatogenesis. Sol. 167. metamerically 168. 169. 170. At pubeny Spermatogonia toss (tereniabon Pray specmatocyios SeeSndary spermatocytes ene LS Open Mock Test-3 (Code im 172 173. 174, fon One secondary spermatocyte forms 2 spermatids after II meiotic division +. 120 secondary spermatocytes will form 120 x 2 40 spermatids Answer (3) Hint: Secreted by adrenal cortex Sol: Aldosterone, the main mineralocorticoid in ‘our body, regulates the balance of water and electrolytes in our body. ANF is secreted by the wall of atria of heart and is a vasodilator. It as a check on RAS. Adrenaline is secreted by adrenal medulla in response to stress of any kind and during ‘emergency situations, Melatonin is secreted by pineal gland and plays @ very important role in the regulation of 24-hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body. Answer (3) Hint: Bicephalic means having two heads. Sol.: There are 12 pairs of ribs. Each rib is a thin flat bone connected dorsally to the vertebral column. It has two articulation surfaces on its dorsal end and is hence called bicephalc. First seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs. Dorsally, they are attached to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally connected to the stemum with the help of hyaline cartilage The 8, 9® and 10" pairs of ribs do not articulate directly with the sternum but join the seventh rib with the help of hyaline cartilage. These are called vertebrochondral (alse) ribs. Last 2 pairs (11% and 422) of ribs are not connected ventrally and are therefore, called floating ris. ‘Answer (1) Hint: Feature of Kwashiorkor Sol: Marasmus is produced by a simultaneous deficiency of protein and calories. It is found in infants less than a year in age. This often happens if the mother has second pregnancy when the ‘older infant is stil too young. If mother's mik is replaced too early by other food which is poor in both proteins and caloric value. Growth and development of brain and mental facutties are impaired Answer (2) Hint: Respiratory minute volume Sol: 10,000 mL -> Amount of air inspire/expire per minute (RMV) 500 mis tidal volume 10000 500 =20 times/min is his rate of respiration Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 Poros 175. 176. 17. 178. 179. 180. Co Answer (3) Hint: Macrophage is a phagocytic cell Sol.: Monocytes (macrophage) and neutrophils are phagocytic WECs. Eosinophils participate in allergic reactions of the body and basophils release inflammatory mediators. Answer (3) Hint: This cell lacks nucleus. Sol.: A mature RBC lacks nucleus and other cell organelles such as mitochondria hence, it cannot respire aerobically Answer (3) Hint: Hormone secreted by adrenal medulla Sol.: The adrenal medulla secretes adrenaline and noradrenaline. It slimulates the process named glycogenolysis ¢., breakdown of glycogen resulting in an increased concentration of glucose in blood. Glucagon also stimulates glycogenolysis PTH is a hypercalcemic hormone while calcitonin is a hypocalcemic hormone Insulin is a hypoglycemic hormone while glucagon is a hypergiycaemic hormone, Aldosterone increases blood pressure lovel while ANF decreases blood pressure levels. Answer (1) Hint: Evolution has a random probability. Sol.: Evolution is not a directed process in the sense of determinism. It is a stochastic process based on chance events in nature and chance mutation in the organisms ‘Answer (3) Hint: Antagonistic to calcitonin Sol.: Parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases the Cat" levels in the blood, PTH acts on bones and stimulates the process of bone resorption (dissolution/demineralisation). PTH also stimulates reabsorption of Ca® by the renal tubules and increases Ca’ absorption from the digested food. It is thus, clear that PTH is a hypercalcemic hormone, ie. it increases the blood Ca levels. Along with TCT, it plays a significant role in calcium balance in the body. ‘Answer (4) Hint: Compound epithelium has more than one layers of cells Sol. Simple epithelium | Lining for body cavities ‘Compound Protective in function epithelium Columnar epithelium | Helps in secretion and absorption 181 182 183, 184, 185. CU Answer (2) Hint: Excludes pancreatic enzyme Sol: + Enterokinase is secreted by the intestinal mucosa which activates trypsinogen into trypsin ‘+ Carboxypeptidase is a pancreatic enzyme that helps in protein digestion. + Pepsin is a proteolytic enzyme that converts proteins into peptones and proteoses. ‘Answer (2) Hint: Natural property of normal cells Sol: In our body, cell growth and differentiation is highly controlled and regulated, in cancer cells, there is breakdown of these regulatory mechanisms. Normal cells show a property called Contact inhibition by virtue of which contact with other cells inhibits their uncontrolled growth Cancer cells appear to have lost this property. Cells sloughed from malignant tumors. reach distant sites through blood, and where they get lodged in the body, they start a new tumor there ‘This property called metastasis, is the most feared property of malignant tumors. Proto-oncogenes have been identified in normal cells, which when activated lead to oncogenic transformation of cells. Answer (3) Hint: Backbone of double helical structure Sol: Each restriction endonuclease functions by ‘inspecting’ the length of a DNA sequence. Once it finds its specific recognition sequence, it will bind to the DNA and cut each of the two strands of the double helix at specific points in their sugar - phosphate backbones. ‘Answer (4) Hint: Equals to the number of bones in pectoral Girdle in an adult man Sol: Every 100 mL of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 mL. of COs to the alveoli in an adult man under normal physiological conditions and every 100 mL. of oxygenated blood delivers approximately 5 mL of O20 the tissues in an adult man under normal — physiological conditions. ‘Answer (1) Hint: Adrenal gland Sol: Nicotinic receptors are mostly present in adrenal glands, which when stimulated release adrenaline. Corporate Office ‘Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 SECTION-B 186. Answer (3) Hint: Having high recognition sites will cleave the plasmid Sol.: In order to link the alien DNA, the vector needs to have very few, preferably single, recognition sites for the commonly used restriction ‘enzymes. Presence of more than one recognition sites within the vector will generate several fragments, which wil complicate the gene cloning Answer (2) Hint: It is an active form. Sol. ‘* Angiotensin Il is a powerful vasoconstrictor. ‘+ Angiotensinogen is an inactive form secreted by liver. ‘+ Histamine is a vasodilator. 187. + Renin is secreted from gastric mucosa of infants. ‘Answer (3) Hint: When filtrate comes towards medulla it becomes hypertonic Sol.: Descending limb of Henle's loop is permeable to water and almost impermeable to electrolytes while ascending limb of Henle’s loop is permeable for electrolytes and impermeable for water. Answer (1) Hint: DNA is negatively charged Sol.: According to question, the size of DNA fragments are d>c>a>b ~ Due to larger size, DNA fragment (d) will remain more closer to the cathode so, the position of these fragments from anode to cathode side of gel would be, b, a, ¢, d Answer (2) Hint: This test results in DNA amplification in- vitro. Sol.: PCR test can detect disease when there is a very small amount of pathogens in our body. During a PCR test, a small amount of genetic material in a sample is amplified multiple times, Widal test is used to confirm typhoid. Answer (3) Hint: Feature of cardiac arrest. Sol.: Heart Failure: Heart failure means the state of heart when it is not pumping blood effectively enough to meet the needs of the body. It is sometimes called congestive heart failure 188, 189. 190. 191 Open Mock Test-3 (Code 192 193. 194, 195. 196. 197. 198. fon because congestion of the lungsis one of the main symptoms of this disease. Heart failure is not the same as cardiac arrest (when the heart stops beating) or a heart attack (when the heart muscle is suddenly damaged by an inadequate blood supply). ‘Answer (3) Hint: itis called blind spot. Sol: Blind spot is a point in eye, which is not sensitive to light and itis located slightly above and medial to the posterior pole of the eyeball ‘Answer (4) Hint: Feature of mammals Sol.: Embryonal care and protection are better in viviparous organisms in comparison to oviparous animals. ‘Answer (1) Hint: Feature of modern man Sol: Among the stories of evolution of individual species, the story of evolution of modem man is most interesting and appears to parallel evolution of human brain and language. Homo erectus ate meat. Agriculture came around 40,000 years back. Cranial capacity of Neanderthal man was 1400 cc while that of Homo sapiens was 1350 cc. ‘Answer (3) Hint: Inclides autoimmune disease Sol: Transgenic models (animals) exist for diseases such as cancer, Alzheimer's, cystic fibrosis and rheumatoid arthritis. ‘Answer (3) Hint: LH helps in maintaining the corpus luteum Sol: In MOET, a cow is administered hormones, with FSH-ke activity to induce follicular maturation and super-ovulation ‘Answer (4) Hint: Dust and industrial exposure Sol: In cement industry and specially those involving grinding of stones, the dust inhaled is too much for the body's immune system to cope up with Long exposure can lead to inflammation resulting in proliferation of fibrous tissue ‘Answer (3) Hint: Progestasert belongs to the same category Sol: LNG-20 is a hormone releasing IUD. CuT, Cu? and multtiload-375 are copper-releasing luDs. Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 Open Mock Test-3 (Code- GS i) PRU Rats eatin 199. Answer (2) 200. Answer (4) Hint: Male gamete is haploid Hint: Cytokine barrior Sol.: Meiocyte is a cell who will undergo meiosis. Sol: Virus infected cells secrete a protein called itis aiploia interferon, which stimulates adjacent non-infected The chromosome number in meiocyte of cells to produce translation inhibiting protein, This human is 48 and genetic constitution of a male protein inhibit protein synthesis in non-infected gamete may be either 22 + X or 22 + ¥ cells. gaa Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456

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