For questions 1 through 7 refer to TAF bellow.

TAF WIHH 161100Z 1612/1718 22010KT 9999 FEW030 BKN040 TEMPO 1612/1617
24015G25KT PROB30 TEMPO 1616/1620 SHRA BKN012 TCU TEMPO 1622/1706 4000 BR
BKN008 PROB30.

1. What time was this TAF published?

a) 11:00 UTC
b) 16:00 UTC
c) 11:00 Local Time
d) 16:00 Local Time

2. During what time are Cumulonimbus clouds expected?

a) Between 16:00 and 20:00 UTC
b) Between 16:00 and 20:00 Local Time
c) Between 12:00 and 17:00 UTC
d) Between 16:16 and 16:20 UTC

3. What is the meaning of “BR"?

a) Mist
b) Haze
c) Fog
d) Broken

4. What is the cloud ceiling expected at 18:00?

a) Broken at 1200ft
b) Broken at 12000ft
c) Broken at 4000ft
d) Few at 3000ft

5. How long is the TAF valid for?

a) From the 16th at 12:00 UTC to the 17th at 18:00 UTC.
b) From 16:00 to 11:00 UTC the next day.
c) From 16:12 to 17:18 UTC.
d) From 16:11 to 17:18 UTC.

6. What are the wind conditions at 14:00 UTC?

a) 240˚ 15KT gusting 25KT
b) 015˚ 25KT
c) 240˚ 15KT
d) 240˚ 25KT

7. What is the Visibility at 23:00 UTC?

a) 4000 meters
b) 4000 ft
c) 9999 meters
d) 9999 ft

8. Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed?

a) Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind
b) Increasing tailwind and decreasing headwind
c) Increasing tailwind and headwind
d) Decreasing tailwind and headwind

9. A calm wind that is forecast in the TAF is encoded

as: a) 00000KT
b) VRB00KT
c) 00003KT
d) VBR

10. Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind
shear?
a) A calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion
b) The temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10˚C
c) Wind direction difference of at least 30˚ between the wind near the surface and the wind
just above the inversion
d) A strong wind above and bellow the inversion

11. Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a
calm wind?
a) Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases
b) Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases
c) Indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases
d) Indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude increases

12. What condition is necessary for formation os structural icing in flight?

a) Visible water
b) Water Vapor
c) Super cooled water drops
d) Clouds bellow 0 Celsius

13. Where is the normal location of the jet stream relative to surface lows and fronts?
a) The jet stream is located north of the surface systems
b) The jet stream is located south of the low and warm front
c) The jet stream is located over the low and crosses both the warm front and the cold front
d) The jet stream is located South of the surface systems

14. A steady state thunderstorm is associated with?

a) Weather system
b) Surface heating
c) Mature stage
b) Dissipating stage

15. Adiabatic warming is also described as:

a) Compressional heating
b) Chronographic warming
c) Expansional heating
d) Orographic Heating

16. What weather features occurs at altitude levels near the tropopause?
a) Maximum winds and narrow wind shear zones
b) Abrupt temperature increase above the tropopause
c) Thin layers of cirrus clouds at the tropopause level
d) Temperature decrease bellow tropopause

17. Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as:

a) 6,000 ft/min
b) 8,000 ft/min
c) 7,000 ft/min
d) 9,000 ft/min

18. A cyclone is:

a) A hurricane force storm in the Indian Ocean
b) A tropical depression with sustained winds of 63kts
c) A tropical depression with sustained winds of 78kts
d) A tropical depression with a barometric pressure 35 mb lower than the outside pressure

19. Which are the only cloud types forecast in terminal aerodrome forecasts?
a) Cumulonimbus
b) Altocumulus
c) Stratocumulus
d) Cirrocumulus

20. Which of the following weather conditions are conductive to inflight icing?
a) Visible rain with temperatures bellow 0˚C
b) Visible rain with temperature bellow 5˚C
c) Visible rain with temperature bellow 10˚C
d) Visible moisture

21. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool following upslope?
a) 3˚C per 1,000ft
b) 2˚C per 1,000ft
c) 3˚C per 2,000ft
d) 2˚C per 2,000ft

22. Which type of wind flows downslope becoming warmer and dryer?
a) Katabatibc wind
b) Valley wind
c) Land breeze
d) Sea breeze

23. Which type of clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence?

a) Lenticular
b) Nimbostratus
c) Cirrocumulus
d) Stratocumulus

24. What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave?
a) Rotor cloud
b) Low stratus
c) Lenticular
d) Mamatus

25. Low pressure areas are areas of:

a) ascending air
b) descending air
c) stagnant air
d) variable air

26. Clear ice generally forms in outside temperature ranges of:

a) 0 to -10 deg C
b) -15 to -25 deg C
c) -10 to -20 deg C
d) Colder than -25 deg C

27. What feature is normally associated with cumulus stage of thunderstorms?

a) Continuous updraft
b) Frequent lightning
c) Beginning of rain at the surface
d) Microburst

28. How many stages are there during the life cycle of a thunderstorm?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 1

29. What term describes an elongated area of low pressure?

a) Trough
b) Ridge
c) Hurricane
d) Typhoon

30. Which weather condition is an example of a non-frontal instability band?

a) Squall line
b) Advection fog
c) Frontogenesis
d) Sublimation

31. The most important force for air movement is:

a) Coriolis force
b) Centripetal force
c) Frictional force
d) Pressure gradient

32. Squall wind is preceded by:

a) CB cloud
b) Tropical cyclone
c) Tornado
d) Water spout

33. Clear air turbulence associated with a mountain wave may extend as far as:
a) 5,000ft above the tropopause
b) 1,000 miles or more downstream the mountain
c) 100 miles or more upwind of the mountain
d) 1,000ft above the tropopause

34. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?

a) Ambient temperature lapse rate
b) Atmospheric pressure at various levels
c) Surface temperature/ dew point spread
d) Adiabatic lapse rate

35. During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterised by downdrafts?
a) Dissipating
b) Mature
c) Cumulus
d) Growth

36. Which event usually occurs after an aircraft passes through a front into colder air?
a) atmospheric pressure increase
b) wind direction shifts to the left
c) temperature/ dew point spread decreases
d) wind direction shifts to the right
37. Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplets similar to that found in
low level stratus clouds?
a) Rime ice
b) Clear ice
c) Frost ice
d) Mixed ice

38. The most likely condition in which to experience severe inflight icing with the temperature
bellow 0˚C is:
a) Rain
b) Visible moisture
c) Fog
d) Mist

39. Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?
a) Start of rain at the surface
b) Appearance of an anvil at the top
c) Growth rate of the cloud at its maximum
d) Updrafts

40. Which feature is associated with the tropopause?

a) Abrupt change of temperature lapse rate
b) Absolute upper limit of cloud formation
c) Absence of wind and turbulence
d) Increase of temperature

41. What weather condition occurs at the altitude where the dew point lapse rate and the dry
adiabatic lapse rate converge?
a) Cloud bases form
b) Precipitation starts
c) Stable air changes to unstable air
d) Unstable air changes to stable air

42. How are Haze layers cleared or dispersed?

a) By wind or the movement of air
b) By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog
c) By convective mixing in cool night air
d) By light land breeze

43. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?

a) Stable layer of air
b) Unstable layer of air
c) Air mass thunderstorms
d) Unstable lapse rate

44. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument
flight?
a) Embedded thunderstorms
b) Clear air turbulence
c) Freezing rain
d) Lightning

45.What is indicated by the term “Embedded Thunderstorms”?

a) Thunderstorms are obscured by other types of clouds
b) Severe thunderstorms are embedded in a squall line
c) Thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air mass
d) More than one thunderstorms are embedded together

46. Which type of clouds may be associated with a jet stream?

a) Cirrus clouds on the equatorial side of the jet stream
b) Cumulonimbus clouds on the equatorial side of the jetstream
c) Cirrostratus cloud band on the polar side of the jetstream
d) Nimbostratus clouds on the equatorial side of the jetstream

For questions 47 through 50 refer to the METAR bellow.

METAR WIII 070900Z 03013KT 9000 SCT020 30/22 Q1007 NOSIG

47. What is the predicted wind according to the METAR?

a) 030 degrees at 13kts
b) 013 degrees at 30kts
c) 070 degrees at 09kts
d) 090 degrees at 13kts

48. What is the QNH at WIII?

a) 1007
b) 1020
c) 1013
d) 1009

49. What is the current cloud coverage according to the METAR?

a) Scattered
b) Broken
c) Few
d) Overcast

50. What is the visibility at WIII?

a) 9000 meters
b) 9000 feet
c) 9000 miles
d) 1007 meters