09-06-2024

2202CMD303022240001 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) Charge 'q' on a capacitor varies with voltage 'V' as shown. The area of represents.

(1) Capacitance
(2) Capacitance reactance
(3) Magnetic field between plates
(4) Energy stored in the capacitor

2) In a parallel plate capacitor, the capacitance

(1) increases with increase in the distance between the plates

(2) decreases if a dielectric material is put between the plates
(3) increases with decrease in the distance between the plates
(4) increases with decrease in the area of the plates

3) When a dielectric material is introduced between the plates of a charged condenser, after
disconnecting the battery. The electric field between the plates

(1) decreases
(2) increases
(3) does not change
(4) may increase or decrease

4) A parallel plate capacitor is charged and the charging battery is then disconnected. If the plates
of the capacitor are moved further apart by means of insulating handles

(1) the charge in the capacitor becomes zero

(2) the capacitance becomes infinite
(3) the charge in the capacitor increases
(4) the voltage across the plates increases

5) Two capacitors (uncharged) of 2µF and 3µF are connected in series. A battery of 10 V is
connected across the second capacitor. The charge on the first capacitor is :-

(1) 30µC
(2) 20µC
(3) 10µC
(4) zero

6) Force acting upon a charged particle kept between the plates of a charged condenser is F. If one
of the plates of the condenser is removed, force acting on the same particle will become-

(1) zero
(2) F/2
(3) F
(4) 2F

7) A condenser is charged and then battery is removed. A dielectric plate is put between the plates
of condenser, then correct statement is

(1) Q constant V and U decrease

(2) Q constant V increases U decreases
(3) Q increases V decreases U increases
(4) Q, V and U increase

8) If an uncharged capacitor is charged by connecting it to a battery, then the amount of energy lost
as heat is

(1) 1/2QV
(2) QV
(3) 1/2QV2
(4) QV2

9) A metal plate of thickness half the separation between the capacitor plates of capacitance C is
inserted. The new capacitance is

(1) C
(2) C/2
(3) Zero
(4) 2C

10) One plate of parallel plate capacitor is smaller than the other, the charge on the smaller plate
will be

(1) less than other

(2) more than other
(3) equal to other
(4) will depend upon the medium between them
11) Two condensers of unequal capacities are connected in series across a constant voltage d.c.
source. The ratio of the potential differences across the condensers will be

(1) direct proportion to their capacities

(2) inverse proportion to their capacities
(3) direct proportion to the square of their capacities
(4) inverse proportion to the square root of their capacities

12) A parallel plate capacitor is first charged and then isolated, and a dielectric slab is introduced
between the plates. The quantity that remains unchanged is

(1) Charge Q
(2) Potential V
(3) Capacity C
(4) Energy U

13) A parallel plate condenser is charged by connecting it to a battery. Without disconnecting the
battery, the space between the plates is completely filled with a medium of dielectric constant k.
Then

(1) potential becomes 1/k times

(2) charge becomes k times
(3) energy becomes 1/k times
(4) electric intensity becomes k times.

14) Three identical capacitors are connected together differently. For the same voltage to every
combination, the one that stores maximum energy is

(1) the three in series

(2) the three in parallel
(3) two in series and the third in parallel with it
(4) two in parallel and the third in series with it

15) The capacitance of a capacitor depends on

(1) the geometry of the plates

(2) separation between plates
(3) the dielectric between the plates
(4) all the above

16) The electric field between two parallel plates of a capacitor will be uniform if

(1) the plate separation (d) is equal to area of the plate (A)
(2) the plate separation (d) greater when compared to area of the plate (A)
(3) the plate separation (d) is less when compared to area of the plate (A)
(4) Both (2) & (3)
17) For metals the value of dielectric constant (K) is

(1) One
(2) Infinity
(3) Zero
(4) Two

18) Two capacitors C1 and C2 = 2C1 are connected in a circuit with a switch between them as shown
in the figure. Initially the switch is open and C1 holds charge Q. The switch is closed. At steady state,

the charge on each capacitor will be :-

(1) Q, 2Q
(2) Q/3, 2Q/3
(3) 3Q/2, 3Q
(4) 2Q/3, 4Q/3

19) Before closing the switch EPE of A is E0 then after closing the switch its EPE is -

(1) 2E0
(2) E0/2
(3) 4E0
(4) 3E0

20) Two condensers of unequal capacities are connected in parallel across a constant voltage d.c.
source. The ratio of the charges stored in the condensers will be

(1) direct proportion to their capacities

(2) inverse proportion to their capacities
(3) direct proportion to the square root of their capacities
(4) inverse proportion to the square of their capacities

21) Two unequal capacitors, initially uncharged, are connected in series across a battery. Which of
the following is true

(1) The potential across each is the same

(2) The charge on each is the same
(3) The energy stored in each is the same
(4) The equivalent capacitance is the sum of the two capacitances

22) Which of the following will not increase the capacitance of an air capacitor?

(1) adding a dielectric in the space between the plates

(2) increasing the area of the plates
(3) moving the plates closer together
(4) increasing the voltage

23) In a parallel-plate capacitor, the region between the plates is filled by a dielectric slab. The
capacitor is connected to a cell and the slab is taken out. Then

(1) charge on capacitor will increase

(2) charge on capacitor will decrease
(3) the potential difference across the capacitor is reduced
(4) charge on capacitor will not change

24) The capacity of a parallel plate condenser consisting of two plates each of Area 10 cm2 and are
separated by a distance of 2 mm is (Take air as the medium between the plates)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

25) Sixty four spherical drops each of radius 2 cm and carrying 5C charge combine to form a bigger
drop. Its capacity is

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

26) Two metal plates are separated by a distance d in a parallel plate condenser. A metal plate of
thickness t and of the same area is inserted between the condenser plates. The value of capacitance
increases by ...... times

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

27) A radio capacitor of variable capacitance is made of n parallel plates each of area A and
separated from each other by a distance d. The alternate plates are connected together. The
capacitance of the combination is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) The radius of the circular plates of a parallel plate condenser is ‘r’. Air is there as the dielectric.
The distance between the plates if its capacitance is equal to that of an isolated sphere of radius r'
is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) When two capacitors are joined in series the resultance capacity is 2.4μF and when the same
two are joined in parallel the resultant capacity is 10μF. Their individual capacities are

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

30) Three condensers 1μF, 2μF and 3μF are connected in series to a p.d. of 330 volt. The p.d across
the plates of 3μF is

(1) 180 V
(2) 300 V
(3) 60 V
(4) 270 V

31) The effective capacitance between the point P and Q in the given figure is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

32) The equivalent capacitance between P and Q is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

33) The equivalent capacity between the points X and Y in the circuit with C = 1μF (2007M).

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

34) The equivalent capacitance of the network given below is 1μF. The value of ‘C’ is
(1) 3μF
(2) 1.5μF
(3) 2.5μF
(4) 1μF

35) Three capacitors of 3μF, 2μF and 6μF are connected in series. When a battery of 10V is
connected to this combination then charge on 3μF capacitor will be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

SECTION-B

1) Two spheres of radii 12 cm and 16 cm have equal charge. The ratio of their energies is

(1) 3 : 4
(2) 4 : 3
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 2 : 1

2) A condenser of capacity 10μF is charged to a potential of 500 V. Its terminals are then connected
to those of an uncharged condenser of capacity 40μF. The loss of energy in connecting them
together is

(1) 1J
(2) 2.5J
(3) 10J
(4) 12J

3) A 2μF condenser is charged to 500V and then the plates are joined through a resistance. The heat
produced in the resistance in joule is -

(1) 50 × 10–2 Joule

(2) 25 × 10–2 Joule
(3) 0.25 × 10–2 Joule
(4) 0.5 × 10–2 Joule
4) The area of the positive plate is A1 and the area of the negative plate is A2(A2 < A1) . They are
parallel to each other and are separated by a distance d. The capacity of a condenser with air as
dielectric is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Two condensers of capacity C and 2C are connected in parallel and these are charged upto V volt.
If the battery is removed and dielectric medium of constant K is put between the plates of first
condenser, then the potential at each condenser is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Two capacitors of capacities 3μF and 6μF are connected in series and connected to 120V. The
potential difference across 3μF is V0 and the charge here is q0. We have

(1) A, C are correct

(2) A, B are correct
(3) B, D are correct
(4) C, D are correct

7) An infinite number of identical capacitors each of capacitance 1μF are connected as shown in the

figure. Then the equivalent capacitance between A and B is

(1) 1 μF
(2) 2 μF
(3) 1/2 μF
(4) ∞

8) The charge flowing through the cell on closing the key k is equal to

(1)

(2) 4 CV

(3)

(4)

9) The time in seconds required to produce a P.D at 20V across a capacitor at 1000 μF when it is
charged at the steady rate of 200μC/sec is

(1) 50
(2) 100
(3) 150
(4) 200

10) The force between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C and distance of
separation of the plates d with a potential difference V between the plates, is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A capacitor of capacitance 1μF withstands a maximum voltage of 6 kV, while another capacitor
of capacitance 2μF withstands a maximum voltage of 4 kV. If they are connected in series, the
combination can withstand a maximum voltage of

(1) 3 kV
(2) 6 kV
(3) 10 kV
(4) 9 kV

12) Energy ‘E’ is stored in a parallel plate capacitor ‘C1’. An identical uncharged capacitor ‘C2’ is
connected to it, kept in contact with it for a while and then disconnected, the energy stored in C2 is

(1) E/2
(2) E/3
(3) E/4
(4) zero

13) In the figure a potential of +1200V is given to point A and point B is earthed, what is potential at

the point P :-

(1) 100 V
(2) 200 V
(3) 400 V
(4) 600 V

14) In the following circuit, the resultant capacitance between A and B is 1μF.Then value of C is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
15) A condenser of capacity 500μF is charged at the rate of 400μC per second. The time required to
raise its potential by 40V is

(1) 50 s
(2) 100 s
(3) 20 s
(4) 10 s

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Which pair shows a contraction in volume on mixing along with evolution of heat :

(1) CHCl3 + C6H6

(2) H2O + HCl
(3) H2O + HNO3
(4) All of these

2) One mole of a solute A is dissolved in a given volume of a solvent. Association of the solute takes
place according to . Van't Hoff factor (i) is expressed as (x is degree of association) -

(1) i = 1 – x

(2)

(3)

(4) i = 1

3) Which of the following pairs of solution are isotonic at the same temperature ?

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4) 0.2 M urea and 0.2 M NaCl

4) Molarity of 10% w/w NaOH solution having density 2g/mL will be :

(1) 0.5 M
(2) 1 M
(3) 2.5 M
(4) 5 M

5) Vapour pressure of pure A = 100 mmHg

Vapour pressure of pure B = 150 mmHg
A solution containing 2 moles A and 3 moles B will have total vapour pressure, approximately :-

(1) 130 mm Hg
(2) 135 mm Hg
(3) 140 mm Hg
(4) 145 mm Hg

6)

Raoult’s law is obeyed by each constituent of a binary liquid solution when :

the forces of attractions between like molecules are greater than those between unlike
(1)
molecules.
the forces of attractions between like molecules are smaller than those between unlike
(2)
molecules.
the forces of attractions between like molecules are identical with those between unlike
(3)
molecules.
(4) the volume occupied by unlike molecules are different.

7) Mathematical representation for t1/4 life i.e. when 1/4th reaction is over for first order reaction is
given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The activation energy for the forward reaction A + B C + D + 38 kJ is 20 kJ. The activation
energy for this same reaction in the reverse direction will be :

(1) 20 kJ
(2) 38 kJ
(3) 58 kJ
(4) 18 kJ

9) Effective collisions are those in which molecules must :-

(1) Have energy equal to or greater than the threshold energy

(2) Have proper orientation
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

10) A reaction is carried out at 10°C. If temperature is increased by 40°C. Then how many times rate
of reaction will become?
(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 4
(4) 32

11)

If concentration of reactant in a first order reaction is increased by 'x' times, then rate constant (k)
becomes :

(1) e–k/x
(2) x/k
(3) k
(4) xk

12)

The increase in concentration of the reactants lead to change in :

(1) ΔH
(2) Collision frequency
(3) Activation energy
(4) Equilibrium constant

13) The standard electrode potentials for the elements A, B and C are 0.68, –2.50 and 0.50 V
respectively. The order of their reducing power is :-

(1) A > B > C

(2) A > C > B
(3) C > B > A
(4) B > C > A

14) Which of the following salts can be used in salt bridge while using Ag electrode

(1) KCl
(2) NH4Cl
(3) NaCl
(4) None

15) Consider the cell potentials = – 2.37 V and = – 0.04 V. The best
reducing agent would be :

(1) Mg2+
(2) Fe3+
(3) Mg
(4) Fe

16) In Daniel cell, Cu2+ ions are -

(1) reduced
(2) oxidized
(3) evaporated
(4) decomposes

17) The standard electrode potential of Zn, Ag and Cu electrodes are –0.76V, 0.80V and 0.34V
respectively then :

(1) Ag+ can oxidize Zn and Cu

(2) Ag can reduce Zn+2 and Cu+2
(3) Zn can reduce Ag and Cu
(4) Both (1) and (3)

18) A pair of chain isomers is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All

19)

and are :-

(1) Positional isomers

(2) Functional isomers
(3) Identical
(4) Chain isomer

20) Which statements are true about constitutional isomers ?

(I) They have the same molecular formula
(II) They have the same mol. weight.
(III) The have the same order of attachment of atoms.
(IV) They have the same physical properties.

(1) (I), (IV)

(2) (I), (III)
(3) (I), (II)
(4) (II), (IV)

21) The given compound show :-

(1) Functional isomer

(2) Position isomer
(3) Chain isomer
(4) Ring-chain isomer

22) CH3CH2CH2NH2 and show which type of isomerism :-

(1) Position
(2) Chain
(3) Functional
(4) None

23) Order of energy in conformer of butane are ?

(1) Anti > Gauche > Partially eclipsed > Fully eclipsed
(2) Anti < Gauche < Partially eclipsed < Fully eclipsed
(3) Partially eclipsed > Fully eclipsed > Gauche > Anti
(4) Partially eclipsed < Fully eclipsed < Gauche < Anti

24) Match the column

Column - I Column - II

Number of
(a) (p)
chiral center = 1

Number of
(b) (q)
chiral center = 2

Number of
(c) (r)
chiral center = 3

Number of
(d) (s)
chiral center = 4

(1) a → p, b → q, c → r, d → s
(2) a → q, b → r, c → p, d → s
(3) a → p, b → s, c → r, d → q
(4) a → p, b → q, c → s, d → r

25) Total no. of optical isomers :-

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) How many optically active forms are possible for given a compound :-
CH2OH.CHOH.CHOH.CHOH.CHO

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 8

27) Which of the following are pair of geometrical isomers :

(1)
and

(2)
and

(3)

and

(4)

and

28) Which of following has E-configuration :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

29) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) cis–2–butene and trans–2–butene are diastereomers.

(2) All optically inactive compounds are meso.
(3) Racemic mixture is optically inactive due to external compensation.
(4) Enantiomers cannot be seprated by fractional distillation.

30) Which of the following has E as well as cis configuration ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Which of the following is a 'threo' isomer :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) The correct statement about the compoud (A), (B) and (C) is :–
(1) (A) and (B) are identical
(2) (A) and (B) are diastereomers
(3) (A) and (C) are enantiomers
(4) (A) and (B) are enantiomers

33)

Which of the following statements is not correct:

(1) Enantiomers are essentially chiral and optically active

(2) Diastereomers are not necessarily chiral and optically active
(3) All geometrical isomers are diastereomers
(4) All diastereomers are chiral and optically active

34) The most stable conformer of 2-fluoroethanol will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

35) Which of the following is homomer of given compound?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION-B

1) 2 moles each of liquids A and B are dissolved to form an ideal solution. What will be the mole
0 0
fraction of B in the vapour phase :- pA = 120 torr; pB = 80 torr.

(1) 1/4
(2) 1/2
(3) 2/5
(4) 3/5
2) If two substances A and B have PA° : PB° = 1 : 2 and have mole fraction in solution 1 : 2 then mole
fraction of A in vapours :-

(1) 0.33
(2) 0.25
(3) 0.20
(4) 0.52

3) Consider the following statements :

CaCl2 undergoes 60 % dissociation in water. The value of i for CaCl2

A
is 2.2.

Ethanoic acid undergoes 60 % dimerisation in benzene. The value of

B
i is 0.7.

C For dissociation i > 1 and for association i < 1.

The correct statements are :
(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) A, B and C

4) Consider the following two statements :

Statement I : Molecules of ethanoic acid dimerise in benzene due to H-bonding.
Statement II : Due to association, the number of particles is reduced.
Select the correct option among the following :

(1) Both Statement I and II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct and Statement II is false
(3) Statement I is false and Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and II are false

5) For a reaction, activation energy is zero. What is the value of rate constant at 300 K, if K = 1 ×
10–6s–1 at 280K
(R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1) :-

(1) 2 × 10–6s–1
(2) 4 × 10–6s–1
(3) 1 × 10–6s–1
(4) 1 × 106s–1

6) The decomposition of N2O into N2 and O in the presence of gaseous argon follows first order

kinetics with K = 5 × 1011exp , Hence Ea(activation energy) is :-

(1) 5 × 1011
(2) 29000KCal
(3) 58 KCal
(4) –29000 Cal

7) The position of some metals in the electrochemical series in decreasing electropositive character
is given as Mg > Al > Zn > Cu > Ag. What will happen if a copper spoon is used to stir a solution of
aluminium nitrate ?

(1) The spoon will get coated with aluminium

(2) An alloy of aluminium and copper is formed
(3) The solution becomes blue
(4) There is no reaction

8) The oxidation potential of Zn, Cu, Ag, H2 and Ni are 0.76, – 0.34, – 0.80, 0, 0.55 volt respectively.
Which of the following reation will provide maximum voltage?

(1) Zn + Cu2+ → Cu + Zn2+

(2) Zn + 2Ag+ → 2Ag + Zn2+
2+ +
(3) H2 + Cu → 2H + Cu
2+ +
(4) H2 + Ni → 2H + Ni

9) What is dihedral angle in staggered form of ethane :-

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 75°
(4) 60°

10) Which of the following is correct match.

(a) (i) fully eclipsed

(b) (ii) partial eclipsed

(c) (iii) Gauche

 (d) (iv) Anti

(1) a - i; b - ii; c - iii; d - iv

(2) a - i; b - iii; c - ii; d - iv
(3) a - ii; b - iii; c - iv; d - i
(4) a - ii; b - iii; c - i; d - iv

11) Stereoisomers have different

(1) Molecular formula

(2) Structural formula
(3) Orientation of atoms (groups) in space
(4) Molecular mass

12) Ring-chain isomerism can be observed between –

(1) Alkane & Alkene

(2) Alkene & Alkyne
(3) Alkane & Cycloalkane
(4) Alkene & Cycloalkane

13) The absolute configuration of the two chiral centres in the following molecule are :-

(1) 2R, 3S
(2) 2R, 3R
(3) 2S, 3S
(4) 2S, 3R

14) Which statement is correct :-

(1) Diastereomers have different physical properties.

(2) Mixing d and l mirror images in equal amount is called racemisation
(3) Rotation of a fischer by 180° by lifting from plane always gives enantiomer of given molecule
(4) All

15) Incorrect match is :-

(1)

and Enantiomers

(2)

and Diastereomers
(3) CH3–CH=CH–CH2–CH3 Optically inactive
(4) CH3–CH=C=CH–CH3 Shows geometrical Isomerism

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) Polyembryony means ?

(1) Presence of many seeds in a fruit.

(2) Production of many embryos by a plant.
(3) presence of more than one embryos in a seed
(4) All of these

2) Assertion :- When embryo sac develops from megaspore mother cell without meiosis it is called
diplospory.
Reason :- Fruits are formed without seeds in parthenocarpy.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

3) Following figure represents :-

(1) Endospermic seed of bean

(2) Endospermic seed of castor
(3) Non-endospermic seed of bean
(4) Non-endospermic seed of castor
4) How many plants in the list given below have albuminous seeds ?
Gram, Bean, Pea, Castor, Groundnut, Wheat, Maize

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 7
(4) 6

5) Apomixis is seen in

(1) Asteraceae
(2) Grasses
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

6) As the seed matures, its water content is reduced. How much moisture it contain?

(1) 1-5% moisture by mass

(2) 15-25% moisture by mass
(3) 10-15% moisture by mass
(4) 35% moisture by mass

7) Which one of the following is the final product of sexual reproduction ?

(1) Embryosac
(2) Ovary
(3) Seed
(4) Ovule

8) Identify the Part A

(1) Mesocarp
(2) Seed
(3) Thalamus
(4) Membranous part around a seed.

9) What would be the number of chromosomes in the cells of the aleurone layer in a plant species
with 8 chromosomes in its synergids ?

(1) 16
(2) 24
(3) 32
(4) 8

10) When a tetraploid female plant is crossed with a hexaploid male plant, the ploidy of endosperm
cells in the resulting seed is :-

(1) Pentaploid
(2) Septaploid
(3) Triploid
(4) Octaploid

11) Scutellum is a -

(1) Long structure, with apical origin

(2) Shield-like, residual structure
(3) Shield-like, cotyledon
(4) Long, vascular structure

12) Apomixis is a type of asexual reproduction in which

(1) Development of plant in darkness

(2) Inability to perceive stimulus for flowering
(3) Effect of low temperature on plant growth
(4) Development of seed without fusion of gametes

13) What does the filiform apparatus do at the entrance into ovule?

(1) It brings about opening of the pollen tube

(2) It guides pollen tube from a synergid to egg
(3) It helps in the entry of pollen tube into a synergid
(4) It prevents entry of more than one pollen tube into the embryo sac

14) Find the correct option w.r.t. ploidy of structures marked as A, B and C.
(1) A - 2n, B - 2n, C - n
(2) A - 2n, B - 3n, C - 2n
(3) A - 2n, B - 3n, C - n
(4) A - n, B - 2n, C - n

15) Number of meiotic divisions required to produce 200 seeds of pea would be

(1) 200
(2) 400
(3) 300
(4) 250

16) If the female plants produces unisexual flowers, there is no need for ____in artificial
hybridization.

(1) Emasculatiuon
(2) Bagging
(3) Pollination
(4) Fertilization

17) A true - breeding line is one that :-

(1) Have undergone continuous self pollination

(2) Have undergone continuous cross pollination
(3) Shows stable trait inheritance & expression for several generations
(4) (1) & (3) both

18) Alleles are :-

(1) True breeding homozygotes

(2) Same molecular forms of a DNA
(3) Different molecular forms of a gene
(4) Different phenotypes

19) Which of the following proved that Mendel's results pointed to general rules of inheritance
rather than being unsubstantiated ideas : -

(1) His experiments had a large sampling size for greater credibility to data that he collected
(2) Confirmation of his inferences from experiments on successive generations of his test plants
(3) Use of statistical analysis and mathematical logic
(4) All the above

20) (i) Mendel conducted hybridisation experiments on pea plants for seven years (1956 - 1963).
(ii) Mendel used large sampling size.
(iii) Mendel's work properly published worldwide.
(iv) Mendel studied seven characters in garden pea plant.
How many above given statements are correct :-

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

21) Two alleles of a gene are located on :-

(1) Only sex chromosome

(2) two homologous chromosome
(3) two non-homologous chromosome
(4) any two chromosomes

22) Mendel selected :-

(1) 7 true breeding Pea plant varieties

(2) 12 true breeding Pea plant varieties
(3) 14 true breeding Pea plant varieties
(4) 10 true breeding Pea plant varieties

23) Genotype is :-

(1) Genetic composition of species

(2) Genetic composition of plastids
(3) Genetic composition of vector DNA
(4) Genetic composition of an individual

24) Contrasting forms of a character is known as :-

(1) Allele
(2) Trait
(3) Genotype
(4) Phenotype

25) The period of Mendel's hybridization experiments is ?

(1) 1865 - 1884

(2) 1856 - 1863
(3) 1822 - 1856
(4) 1884 - 1900

26) Inborn tendency of an offspring to resemble with its parents is known as :-

(1) Variation
(2) Segregation
(3) Inheritance
(4) Resemblance

27) Assertion: Gregor Mendel conducted the hybridization experiment on garden peas and
proposed the laws of inheritance in living organism.
Reason: Mendel selected 7 true breeding pea plant varieties.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false.

28) Assertion (A) : Recessive characters are generally pure.

Reason (R) : Dominant character appear both in homozygous and heterozygous condition.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

29) Assertion : Alleles are sligthly different forms of the same gene.
Reason : They are the genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits of a character.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

30) Presence of single allele of a character in diploid organism is known as :-

(1) Homozygous
(2) Heterozygous
(3) Hemizygous
(4) Hybrid vigour

31) A dominant trait is the one which is expressed in :-

(1) Homozygotes only

(2) Heterozygotes only
(3) Either homozygotes or heterozygotes
(4) Both homozygotes and heterozygotes

32) The phenomenon where the offspring superior than either of the parents is :-

(1) Influence
(2) Inheritance
(3) Penetrance
(4) Heterosis(hybrid vigour)

33) Phenotype of an organism is the result of :-

(1) Environmental changes and sexual dimorphism

(2) Cytoplasmic effect and nutrition
(3) Genotype and environment interaction
(4) Mutation and linkage

34) Variation is the :-

(1) Degree by which progeny differ from their parent

(2) Degree by which progeny similar from their parent
(3) Pure lines
(4) True breeding lines

35) Mendel performed emasculation in garden pea

(1) To prevent cross pollination from undesired plant

(2) To prevent self pollination
(3) To keep the flowers fresh
(4) All of these

SECTION-B

1) Find out the correct sequence in stages of embryogeny in dicotyledonous embryo.

(1) Zygote → Proembryo → Heart shaped → Globular → Mature embryo

(2) Zygote → Globular → Proembryo → Heart shaped → Mature embryo
(3) Zygote → Proembryo → Globular → Heart shaped → Mature embryo
(4) Zygote → Heart shaped → Globular → Proembryo → Mature embryo

2) Consider the following four statements (A-D) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
A. The portion of the embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is the epicotyl which terminates
with the plumule
B. Seeds of beet possesses remnant of nucellus called perisperm.
C. Parthenocarpy can be induced through the application of growth hormones.
D. Seeds have better adaptive strategies for dispersal to new habitat and help the species to colonise
in other areas.

(1) Only statements A, B, C

(2) Only statements B, C, D
(3) Only statements A, B, D
(4) Statements A, B, C, D

3) L.S. of a maize grain is given below. Identify labelled structures [A] & [B] :-

(1) [A] Embryo, [B] Scutellum

(2) [A] Scutellum, [B] Embryo
(3) [A] Endosperm, [B] Scutellum
(4) [A] Scutellum, [B] Endosperm

4) Adventive embryos arise from maternal sporophytic tissue like.

[Where N-Nucellus, S-Synergid, I-lntegument, E-Endosperm, F-Funicle]

(1) N + F + I
(2) N + E
(3) N + I
(4) S + N

5) Which one of the following options gives the correct categorisation of six plants according to the
type of fruits (A, B, C) they have :-

A B C
FALSE TRUE PARTHENOCARPIC
FRUITS FRUITS FRUITS

1 Watermelon, Tomato Apple, Strawberry Banana, Grapes

2 Apple, Strawberry Watermelon, Tomato Banana, Grapes

3 Banana, Grapes Watermelon, Tomato Apple, Strawberry

4 Apple, Watermelon Strawberry, Banana Tomato, Grapes

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Which of the following is the correct sequence of microsporogenesis.

(1) PMC(2N) megaspore tetrad (2N) microspores (N)

(2) PMC(2N) megaspore tetrad(N) microspore (N)
(3) PMC (2N) microspore tetrad (N) → microspores (N)
(4) PMC (2N) microspore tetrad (2N) microspores (N)

7) Match the following and choose the correct option?

(1) A- i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv

(2) A- ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii
(3) A- iv, B - ii, C - i, D - iii
(4) A- ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii

8) Apomixis.

(1) Prevent segregation of traits in hybrids

(2) Is seen in members of poaceae and asteraceae
(3) Is genetically controlled
(4) More than one option is correct

9) Match the following (column-I with Column-II)

Column-I Column-II

Two alleles of a gene

a Allele i
are identical

An individual having
b Genotype ii two different alleles of
a gene

Genetic constitution of
c Homozygous iii
an organism

Alternative forms of a
d Heterozygous iv
gene
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i

10) During Mendel's investigation, it was first time that ...A... and ...B... were applied in biology.
Here A and B refers to

(1) A-statistical analysis; B-mathematical logic

(2) A-statistical analysis; B-physical logic
(3) A-statistical analysis; B-chemistry logic
(4) A-statistical analysis; B-simple logic
11) Why was Mendel successful in his experiments performed on pea plant ?

(1) He selected only pure breeding varieties of Pisum sativum

(2) Mental studied inheritance of many character at a time.
(3) Characters chosen by him were not distinctive contrasting traits
(4) He studied the inheritance of a character for only one generation

12) Why mendel selected pea plant for his experiments?

(1) It is an annual plant with short life span and give results within 3–4 months.
(2) It produces small no. of progeny (seeds)
(3) It is strictly self pollinated plant and cross pollination is not possible any how
(4) Traits were indistinct

13) Assertion (A) : Unit of inheritance is gene.

Reason (R) : Gene has information for expression of a particular character.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

14) Read given diagram and select correct option :

(1) A – Emasculation
(2) A – Bagging
(3) A – Artificial cross pollination
(4) A – F1 generation

15) Assertion: Genetics deals with the inheritance as well as the variation of characters from
parents to offspring.
Reason: Humans knew from as early as 8000-1000 B.C. that one of the causes of variation was
hidden in sexual reproduction.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) When released from ovary, human egg contains:-

(1) X/Y chromosome

(2) 2 X chromosome
(3) 1 X chromosome
(4) XY chromosome

2) Find out the correct match from the following table

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Dilate the pubic

(i) Ovary Relaxin symphysis of
pectoral girdle

Posterior Help in
(ii) Oxytocin
pituitary parturition

Corpus Maintain the

(iii) Progesterone
luteum pregnancy
(1) i and iii
(2) ii and iii
(3) i and ii
(4) i, ii & iii

3) In human, how many ova and sperm will be formed from 50 secondary oocyte and 50 spermatid :

(1) 50 ova and 50 sperm

(2) 50 ova and 100 sperm
(3) 100 ova and 100 sperm
(4) 50 ova and 200 sperm

4) How many of the following events occurs before ovulation during menstruation cycle
(a) Formation of corpus luteum
(b) FSH and LH surge
(c) Extreme high progesterone level
(d) Formation of Ist polar body

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

5) Which of the following will secrete inhibin hormone ?

(a) Corpus Luteum
(b) Sertoli cells
(c) Leydig cells
(d) Theca cells

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (a) and (c)

6) It is a diagrammatic sectional view of female reproductive system. In which identify the site where

the embryo develop?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

7) Which of the following labelled parts produces energy for the movement of the tail that facilitate
sperm motility essential for fertilisation?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

8) Match the hormone in Column-I with their functions in column II ?

Column-I Column-II
Prepare uterus
A. FSH i.
for implantation
Development of
B. LH ii.
feminine characters
Contraction of
C. Progesterone iii.
uterine wall
Development of
D. Estrogen iv.
corpus luteum
Development of
v.
ovarian follicle
(1) A-v, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(2) A-v, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-v, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv

9) In the given columns, column I contain structures of male reproductive system and column II
contains its feature. Select the correct match from the options given below.
 Column I
(Structure of Column II
Male Reproductive (Features)
System)

A. Seminiferous tubule I. Network of seminiferous tubule

B. Rete testis II. Secondary sexual characters

C. Leydig cells III. Meiosis and sperm formation occurs

D. Foreskin IV. Place of implantation

V. Terminal skin of penis

(1) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – V
(2) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – V
(3) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(4) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – V

10) Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct options which include only
correct statements ?
(A) Mammary gland is characterstic of all female vertebrates.
(B) Prolactin hormone is responsible for production of milk from cells of alveoli of breast.
(C) Nipple and its surrounding part is dark in colour and are known as macula.
(D) Menstrual cycle do not occur during the period of intense lactation this is called lactational
amenorrhoea.

(1) A and B
(2) B and D
(3) C and D
(4) B, C and D

11) Assertion (A): If a man in his seventies marry young woman, he is still able to produce children,
but, if a woman in her seventies marries a man, producing children naturally is almost impossible.
Reason (R): Sperm formation in man continues even in old age. But formation of ovum ceases after
fifties.
In light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false

12) Which cell secretion is responsible for stimulation for spermatogenesis ?

(1) α-cells
(2) Leydig cells
(3) Follicular cells
(4) Luteal cells
13) Read the followig statements are choose incorrect statement :

(1) The oviducts, uterus and vagina constitutes the female accessory ducts
(2) The edges of the infundibulum possess finger like projections called fimbrae
(3) Fimbrae help in collection of the ovum after ovulation
(4) Ovaries produce female gamete and several protein hormones

14) Ovulation in human female normally takes place during the menstruation cycle.

(1) At the mid of secretory phase

(2) At the end of proliferative phase
(3) Just before the end of secretory phase
(4) At the beginning of proliferative phase

15)

Cu ions from the copper releasing intra uterine devices (IUD's)

(1) Prevent ovulation

(2) Suppress sperm motility
(3) Increase phagocytosis of sperms
(4) Make uterus unsuitable for implantation

16) Match the following :-

Uterus unsuitable for

(A) Non-medicated IUDs (a) Multiload 375 (i)
implantation
(B) Copper releasing IUDs (b) Saheli (ii) Phagocytose the sperms
(C) Hormone releasing IUDs (c) Lippes loop (iii) Suppress sperm motility
(D) Weekly oral pill (d) LNG-20 (iv) Prevent implantation
(1) A–b–i, B–C–ii, C–d–iii, D–a–iv
(2) A–c–iv, B–a–iii, C–d–i, D–d–ii
(3) A–c–ii, B–a–iii, C–d–i, D–b–iv
(4) A–a–iii, B–c–ii, C–d–ii, D–b–iv

17) Surgical methods of sterilization are highly effective but the disadvantage is :

(1) Ectopic pregnancy risk

(2) Increased risk of cancer
(3) Reversibility is very poor
(4) Irregular menstrual bleeding

18) Select the correct match from following table ?

(i) Condom Barrier method

Most widely accepted methods of
(ii) IUD
contraception in India
(iii) Saheli Steroidal preparation
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (iii)
(4) (iii) only

19) Select the correct option regarding the contraceptive methods and one of their property :

(1) Coitus interruptus – is a natural method of contraception with a very low failure rate
Condoms – are made up of latex which also provide protection against sexually transmitted
(2)
diseases
(3) Saheli – is a hormonal contraceptive pill which is taken weekly
(4) IUDs – are generally made up of copper and they prevent ovulation

20)

Which of the following is a Cu releasing IUD and its function ?

Suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity

1 Multiload 375
of sperms

Makes uterus unsuitable for implantation and

2 Progestasert
cervix hostile to sperms

3 Lippes loop Increase phagocytosis of sperms

Inhibits ovulation and implantation as well as

4 LNG-20 alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/retard
entry of sperms
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21)

Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by the females. Choose the correct option from the
statements given below:
i. They are introduced into the uterus
ii. they are placed to cover the cervical region
iii. They act as physical barriers for sperm entry
iv. They act as spermicidal agents

(1) i and ii
(2) i and iii
(3) ii and iii
(4) iii and iv

22) Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives becuase of the following reasons
(1) These are effective barriers which prevent insemination
(2) They do not interfere with sexual act of user
(3) These help in reducting the risk of STDs
(4) All of the above

23)

Choose the incorrect statement

(1) Complete lactation could be a natural method of contraception

Creating awareness about sex related aspects is an effective method to improve reproductive
(2)
health
(3) Infertility is always due to defects in the female partner
(4) Abortions can occur spontaneously too

24)

Read the statements (A to D) carefully :-

(A) Barrier methods work on the principle of blockage of path of gamete transport
(B) MTPs accounts to 20% of the total number of conceived pregnancies in a year all over the world
(C) 'Nirodh' is a popular brand of condom for the female
(D) IUDs increases phagocytosis of sperms within the vagina
How many of the above statements are not correct :-

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

25)

Which of the following STIs is not caused by a virus?

(1) Genital herpes

(2) Genital warts
(3) AIDS
(4) Syphilis

26) The mechanism of action of non medicated IUDS is

(1) To suppress motility and fertilizing capacity of sperms

(2) To make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and cervix hostile to the uterus
(3) To prevent the ovulation from ovary
(4) To promote phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus

27) How many of the following methods are permanent methods of contraception in female ?
a → IUCD
b → Diaphragm
c → CuT
d → LNG - 20
e → Vasectomy

(1) zero
(2) three
(3) four
(4) one

28) Select the incorrect statement –

(1) In India MTP is legalised but with some strict conditions.

(2) Even breast cancer can occur as a ill-effect of use of contraceptive measures.
As an emergency contraceptive measure, IUD should be inserted within 72 hours of unprotected
(3)
coitus.
(4) Lippes loop is a hormone releasing contraceptive.

29) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered safe up to -

(1) Three months

(2) Twelve weeks
(3) Eighteen weeks
(4) Both (1) & (2)

30) The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’

(1) Blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.
(2) Increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.
(3) Is a post-coital contraceptive.
(4) Is an Intra uterine device.

31) A natural method of contraception, periodic abstinence is :-

(1) Abstaining from coitus from day 1 to 5 of the menstrual cycle.

(2) Abstaining from coitus from day 17 to 22 of the menstrual cycle.
(3) Abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle.
(4) Abstaining from coitus from day 5 to 10 of the menstrual cycle.

32) All the following are uses of amniocentesis, but one is misuse. Which one is misuse?

The centres for genetic counselling offer amniocentesis on request to women for chromosome
(1)
analysis
This technique has been developed for detecting foetal abnormalities by analysing chromosomal
(2)
defects
(3) It is used to detect down syndrome
(4) It is done to examine the sex of the foetus leading to increasing female foeticides
33) Primary sex organs differ from the secondary sex organs in all the following, except

(1) They produce gametes

(2) They secrete sex hormones
(3) They are concerned with the conduction of gametes
(4) Testis in male and ovaries in female are the example of primary sex organs

34) Select the hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine Devices.

(1) Lippes Loop, Multitoad 375

(2) Vaults, LNG-20
(3) Multiload 375, Progestasert
(4) Progestasert, LNG-20

35)

If the trophoblast layer failed to form in a mammalian embryo, which of the following structure
would not develop?

(1) Yolksac
(2) Archaenteron
(3) Amniotic fluid
(4) Fetal placenta

SECTION-B

1) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding parturition ?

(1) Parturition is a complex neuro endocrine mechanism

(2) Estrogen and progesterone ratio decreases
(3) Oxytocin is the main parturition hormone
(4) Foetal ejection reflex triggers release of oxytocin.

2) Which of the following statement is not correct :-

(1) Placenta acts as an endocrine tissue

(2) In the later phase of pregnancy, a hormone called relaxin is also secreted by the ovary
The Placenta is connected to the embryo through an umbilical cord which helps in the transport
(3)
of substances to and from the embryo
(4) hCG, hPL and relaxin are produced in women during menstrual cycle.

3) Which of the following is an incorrect match w.r.t. stage of human growing embryo and its
description?
(1)

- Formed as a result of cleavage in zygote

(2)

- Four celled stage called as gastrula

(3)

- Solid ball of cells called Morula; eight celled stage

(4)

- The blastomeres are arranged into an outer layer called trophoblast and
an inner group of cells attached to trophoblast called the inner cell mass; it embeds in the
endometrium of uterus

4) Essential for the maintenance of the endometrium, which hormone is secreted in large amounts
by the corpus luteum in a non-pregnant female?

(1) hCG
(2) Progesterone
(3) Estrogen
(4) LH

5) Oogenesis differs from spermatogenesis in a number of aspects. One of the following is however a
similarity between the two

(1) Growth phase is prolonged in both of them and starts before birth
(2) Both give rise to non-motile gametes
(3) Both produce equal number of gametes
(4) Both start inside primary sex organs

6)

During the secretory phase of menstrual cycle, you would normally not expect :-

(1) The highest levels of progesterone

(2) A follicle present in the ovary ready to ovulate.
(3) The lining of the uterus reaches its greatest degree of development.
(4) Corpus luteum in ovary.
7)

Given below are some events during parturition

(a) Release of oxytocin
(b) Stronger uterine contraction
(c) Expulsion of the baby
(d) Signals from fully developed foetus and placenta
(e) Placenta → expelled out
(f) Mild uterine contractions
Arrange these events in sequence during normal parturition :-

(1) f → d → a → b → e → c
(2) a → f → d → b → c → e
(3) d → f → a → b → c → e
(4) a → b → c → e → d → f

8)

How do the pills work?

(i) Inhibit ovulation and implantation
(ii) Prevent the ejaculated semen from entering the female vagina
(iii) Inhibit spermatogenesis
(iv) Alter the quality of cervical mucus to retard the entry of sperms

(1) (i) and (iii)

(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i) and (iv)
(4) All of these

9) A method in which the male partner withdraws his penis from the vagina just before ejaculation
so as to avoid insemination is termed

(1) Coitus interruptus

(2) Periodic abstinence
(3) Rhythm method
(4) Both (1) and (2)

10)

How many statements are valid regarding the figure given below

(a) Progestogens used by females for contraception.

(b) Their mode of action is similar to that of pills and their effective periods are much longer.
(c) Placed under the skin.
(1) a only
(2) a and c
(3) c only
(4) a, b and c

11) In intra uterine devices a substance increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus and the
metallic ions released by them suppress sperm motility and the fertillising capacity of sperms. The
non-medicated IUD is :

(1) Copper - T
(2) LNG 20
(3) Lippes loop
(4) Norplant

12) Which of the following statements are correct regarding female reproductive cycle ?
A. In non-primate mammals cyclical changes during reproduction are called oestrus cycle.
B. First menstrual cycle begins at puberty and is called menopause.
C. Lack of menstruation may be indicative of pregnancy.
D. Cyclic menstruation extends between menarche and menopause.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) A and B only

(2) A, B and C only
(3) A, C and D only
(4) A and D only

13) Which one of the following is the correct matching of the events occurring during menstrual
cycle?

(1) Ovulation-Sharp fall in LH & FSH

(2) Proliferative phase-Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of Graafian follicle
(3) Development of corpus luteum-Secretory phase and increased secretion of progesterone
(4) Menstruation-Breakdown of myometrium and ovum not fertilized

14) Assertion (A): Pregnancy is characterised by metabolic changes in the mother.

Reason (R): During pregnancy the level of thyroxine is increased in the maternal blood.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

15) Identify the following process shown below as well as the related right place of its occurrence in
a woman, and select the right option for the two together :-
 (i) Fertilization
(ii) Implantation
(iii) Formation of graafian follicle
(iv) Insemination

(1) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)

(2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(3) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(4) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 1 4 4 2 1 1 4 3 2 1 2 2 4 3 2 2 3 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 4 2 2 1 4 2 1 3 3 1 3 1 2 2

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2 1 2 2 4 4 2 1 2 1 4 3 3 4 1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 4 3 1 4 1 3 3 3 3 2 3 2 4 4 3 1 1 4 2 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 2 1 3 4 4 2 2 4 2 4 4 2 2

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 3 4 1 3 3 4 2 4 3 3 4 1 1 4

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 3 2 2 1 3 3 3 3 2 2 3 4 3 2 4 1 4 3 4 2
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 3 4 2 2 3 3 2 1 3 4 4 3 1 2

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 3 3 2 3 2 4 2 1 1 1 1 3 2

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 1 2 1 1 3 2 2 2 1 2 4 2 2 3 3 1 2 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 3 4 3 2 4 4 1 4 4 1 3 4 3 4 4

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 4 2 2 4 2 3 3 1 4 3 3 3 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

CHEMISTRY

56)

Raoult's law is followed by ideal solution.

69)

Two different functional group but same molecular formula.

76)
Molecule is unsymmetric
Number of O.A. isomer = 2n
= 23
=8

87) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 43

91) k = A exp ]

∴
Ea = 29000R = 29000×2 cal
= 58 kcal

97)

Ring-chain isomerism involves the conversion between cyclic & acyclic forms. Also the degree of
unsaturation should be 1 or more than 1.

BOTANY
 101)

NCERT (XII) (E) Pg. # 39, (H) Pg. # 41

104)

106)

117)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 70

118)

NCERT XII Pg. # 72

122)

NCERT Pg. # 70

125)

NCERT-XII, Pg. no. 70

128)

NCERT Pg. # 72-73 [E]

NCERT Pg. # 72-73 [H]

130) 5 Module

133)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 72

135)

NCERT XII Pg. # 71

138)

NCERT XII pg.# 37(E)

140)

NCERT (XII) Pg # 36,37(E), 40(H)

142)
 148)

NCERT Pg. # 72 [E]

NCERT Pg. # 72 [H]

ZOOLOGY

163)

NCERT Pg. # 44,45

167)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 62

176)

177)

NCERT Page # 59, 60

180) Saheli is the first non-steroidal, once a week pill. It contains centchroman and its
functioning is based upon selective Estrogen Receptor modulation.