SRI GURU JUNIOR COLLEGE

Time : 180 Mins. NEET MODEL WEEKEND TEST - 18 FOR 25 M Date: 08-12-2024
SYLLABUS:
PHYSICS U&D, Current Electricity, Thermodynamics
(1-50)
CHEMISTRY Elemination substitution, Chemical Equilibrium, Buffer Solutions,
(51-100) Solubility Products
BOTANY Cell the unit of life
(101-150)
ZOOLOGY Organic Evolution
(151-200)
PHYSICS:
1. Statement I: For a given conductor, electric current 5. In thermodynamics, heat and work are:
across its cross-section does not vary even if its cross-
sectional area varies. (a) Path functions
Statement II: Charge does not get accumulated (b) Intensive thermodynamic state variables
anywhere inside the conductor.
(c) Extensive thermodynamic state variables
Statement I and Statement II are true and
(a) Statement II is the correct explanation of (d) Point functions
Statement I.
6. Statement I: The equation s = ut + at2 is dimensionally
Statement I and Statement II are true but the correct.
(b) Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement II: A dimensionless quantity is always
Statement I. unitless.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. Statement I and Statement II are true and the
(d) Statement I and Statement II are false. (a) Statement II is the correct explanation of
Statement I.
2. The dimensional formula for energy is
Statement I and Statement II are true but the
(b) Statement II is not the correct explanation of
(a) MLT–2 (b) ML2T–2 Statement I.
(c) M–1L2T (d) ML2T (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
3. In a process, 500 calories of heat is given to a system (d) Statement I and Statement II are false.
and at the same time 100 joules of work is done by the
system. The increase in the internal energy of the 7. The pressure of a gas is given by P = aV−3, where a is a
constant and V is the volume of the gas. The bulk
system is: -
modulus for this process is equal to
(a) 40 calories (b) 1993 joules
(a) (b) 3P (c) 2P (d) P
P
(c) 2193 joules (d) 82 calories 2

4. Some of the thermodynamic parameters are state 8. A screw gauge has a screw having 2 threads in 1mm.
variables while some are process variables. Some The circular scale has 50 divisions. Find the diameter of
groupings of the parameters are given. Choose the wire, if the main scale shows 6th division and the 46th
correct ones. division of circular scale coincides with reference line?

State variables : Temperature, the number of mole (a) 6.46 mm (b) 3.46 mm
(a) Process variables : Internal energy, work done by (c) 6.54 mm (d) 3.04 mm
the gas
State variables : Volume, temperature 9. The entropy of a system decreases (for a reversible
(b) Process variables : Internal energy, work done by process )
the gas When heat is supplied to a system at constant
(a)
temperature
State variables : Work done by the gas, heat
(c) rejected by the gas When heat is taken out from the system at
(b)
Process variables : Temperature, volume constant temperature
State variables : Internal energy, volume (c) At equilibrium
(d) Process variables : Work done by the gas, heat
(d) In any spontaneous process
absorbed by the gas
10. Potential difference across AB in the network shown is (c) I-A, II-A, III-B, IV-C
(d) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-D

15. A gas mixture consists of 2 mole of oxygen and 4

mole of argon at temperature T. Neglecting all
vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the
system is:

(a) 4 RT
(b) 15 RT
(c) 9 RT
(d) 11 RT
(a) Zero
16. Statement I: Ohm's law is universally applicable for all
(b) E conducting elements.
Statement II: All conducting elements show straight-line
(c) E =
Ir
2 graphic variation on (I – V) plot.

(d) E – 2Ir Statement I and Statement II are true and the

11. In a vernier caliper, ten smallest divisions of the vernier (a) Statement II is the correct explanation of
scale are equal to nine smallest divisions of the main Statement I.
scale. If the smallest division of the main scale is half- Statement I and Statement II are true but the
millimeter, then find out vernier constant of the vernier (b) Statement II is not the correct explanation of
calipers? Statement I.

(a) 0.005 mm (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(b) 0.05 mm (d) Both statements are false.

(c) 0.5 mm 17. H amount of thermal energy is developed in a resistor in

10 s when a current of 4 A is passed through it. If the
(d) 0.1 mm current is increased to 16 A, the thermal energy
What will be the most suitable combination of three developed in the resistor in 10 s will be
12.
resistors A = 2 Ω, B = 4 Ω, C = 6 Ω so that ( )Ω is
22
3 (a) H
the equivalent resistance of the combination? (b) 16H
(c) 4H
Parallel combination of A and C connected in
(a)
series with B.
(d)
H
Parallel combination of A and B connected in
4
(b)
series with C. 18. Among the following, state functions are
(I) Internal energy
Series combination of A and C connected in
(c) (II) Work done in reversible expansion
parallel with B.
(III) Work done in irreversible expansion
Series combination of B and C connected in (IV) Heat supplied to the system
(d)
parallel with A.
(a) I only
13. What is the number of significant figures in 0.310?
(b) I & III
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 6
(c) I & II
14. Match the thermodynamic processes taking place in a (d) All of the above
system with the correct conditions. In the table : ΔQ is
the heat supplied, ΔW is the work done and ΔU is 19. a2b3
change in internal energy of the system : A physical quantity P is given as P = . The
c√d
Process Condition percentage errors in the measurement of a, b, c and d
(I) Adiabatic (A) ΔW = 0 are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. The percentage
(II) Isothermal (B) ΔQ = 0 error in the measurement of the quantity P will be:
(III) Isochoric (C) ΔU ≠ 0, ΔW ≠ 0, ΔQ ≠ 0
(IV) Isobaric (D) ΔU = 0 (a) 13%
(b) 14%

(a) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C (c) 12%

(b) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C (d) 16%

20. As the temperature increase, the electrical resistance:

decreases for both conductors and

(a)
semiconductors
increases for conductors but decreases for
(b)
semiconductors
decreases for conductors but increase for
(c)
semiconductors
increases for both conductors and
(d)
semiconductors.
21. An ideal monoatomic gas is taken round the cycle
ABCDA as shown in the following P–V diagram. The
work done during the cycle is: -

(a) PV (b) 2PV (c) 4PV (d) Zero

22. A monoatomic gas at pressure P , having volume V

expands isothermally to volume 2V and then
adiabatically to volume 16V . Find out the final pressure
of the gas?

(a) 64P (b) 32P (c) (d) 16P

P
64

23. A reversible polytropic process is given by

ρ1 n ρ1 n
(a) (b)
T1 P1
={ } ={ }
T2 ρ2 P2 ρ2
n−1
P1 n−1
(c) (d)
T1 T1 ρ1 n
={ } ={ }
T2 P2 T2 ρ2

24. Ten 60 W, 220 V bulbs are connected in series to 220 V

supply. Power consumed in the circuit is
(a) 6 W (b) 12 W (c) 180 W (d) 600 W

25. If the electric field across a conductor of uniform cross-

section is doubled while the temperature remains the
same, the drift velocity of the electrons becomes
(a) two times
(b) four times
(c) eight times
(d) sixteen times
26. The unit of thermal conductivity is

27. The damping force on an oscillator is directly proportional to the velocity. The units of the constant of propor-
tionality are

28. The unit of permittivity of free space,

(a) coulomb/newton-metre

29. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and there are 50 divisions in its circular scale. The pitch of the
screw gauge is
(a) 0.01 mm (b) 0.25 mm (c) 0.5 mm (d) 1.0 mm
30. In an experiment, the percentage of error occurred in the measurement of physical quantities A, B, C and D
are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. Then the maximum percentage of error in the measurement X, where

, will be

31. The main scale of a vernier callipers has n divisions/cm. n divisions of the vernier scalecoincide with (n-
1)divisions of main scale. The least count of the vernier callipers is

32. A student measured the diameter of a small steel ball using a screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm.The main
scale reading is 5 mm and zero of circular scale division coincides with 25 divisions above the reference level.
If screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm, the correct diameter of the ball is
(a) 0.521 cm (b) 0.525 cm (c) 0.053 cm (d) 0.529 cm
33. In an experiment, four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4%

respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows

34. A student measures the distance traversed in free fall of a body, initially at rest, in a given time. He uses this
data to estimate g, the acceleration due to gravity. If the maximum percentage errors in measurement of the
distance and the time are e1 and e2 respectively, the percentage error in the estimation of g is

35. If the error in the measurement of radius of a sphere is 2%, then the error in the determination ofvolume of the
sphere will be
(a) 8% (b) 2% (c) 4% (d) 6%
5 -2
36. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and normal pressure (1.013 × 10 Nm ) ) requires 54 cal of heat energy
to convert to steam at 100°C. If the volume of the steam produced is 167.1 cc, the change in internal energy
of the sample, is
(a) 104.3 J (b) 208.7 J (c) 42.2 J (d) 84.5 J
37. A system is taken from state a to state c by two paths adc and abc as shown in the ?gure. The internal energy
at Ua = 10 J. Along the path adc the amount of heat absorbed dQ1 = 50 J and the work obtained dW1=20 J
whereas along the path abc the heat absorbed dQ2 = 36 J. The amount of work along the path c is
 (a) 10 J (b) 12 J (c) 36 J (d) 6 J
38. The internal energy change in a system that has absorbed 2 kcal of heat and done 500 J of work is
(a) 6400 J (b) 5400 J (c) 7900 J (d) 8900 J
39. 110 joule of heat is added to a gaseous system whose internal energy is 40 J, then the amount of external work
done is
(a) 150 J (b) 70 J (c) 110 J (d) 40 J
40. First law of thermodynamics is consequence of conservation of
(a) work (b) energy (c) heat (d) all of these
41. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a transition from A to B along a path AB as shown in the figure.
The change in internal energy of the gas during the transition is

(a) 20 J (b) –12 kJ (c) 20 kJ (d) –20 kJ

42. If Cp and Cv denote the speci?c heats per unit mass of an ideal gas of molecular weight M, then (where R is
the molar gas constant)

43. The resistance of a wire is ‘R’ ohm. If it is melted and stretched to ‘n’ times its original length, its newresistance
will be

44. A wire of resistance 4  is stretched to twice its original length. The resistance of stretched wire would be

45. A wire of a certain material is stretched slowly by ten percent. Its new resistance and specific resistance
become respectively
(a) both remain the same (b) 1.1 times, 1.1 times (c) 1.2 times, 1.1 times (d) 1.21 times, same
46. A charged particle having drift velocity of 7.5 × 10-4 ms-1 in an electric ?eld of 3 × 10-10 Vm-1 , has a mobility
in m2V-1s-1 of

47. Which of the following graph represents the variation of resistivity (  ) with temperature (T) for copper?
48. The solids which have the negative temperature coefficient of resistance are
(a) metals (b) Insulators only
(c) semiconductors only (d) insulators and semiconductors.
49. Which of the following acts as a circuit protection device?
(a) fuse (b) conductor (c) inductor (d) switch
50. In the circuits shown below, the readings of the voltmeters and the ammeters will be

CHEMISTRY
51. The tendency of BF3, BCl3 and BBr3 to behave as Lewis acid decreases in the sequence
a) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 b) BCl3 > BF3 > BBr3 c) BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3 d) BBr3 > BF3 > BCl3
52. The equilibrium concentrations of the species int he reaction A + B  C + D are 2, 3, 10 and 6 mol L-1
respecetively at 300K. G 0 for the reactions is
a) -13.73 cal b) 1372.60 cal c) -137.26 cal d) -1381.80 cal
53. KP for the following reaction is 3.0 at 1000 K. CO2(g) + C(s)  2CO(g) What will be the value of Kc for
the reaction at the same temperature? (Given - R = 0.083 L bar K-1 mol-1)
a) 3.6 b) 0.36 c) 3.6 x 10-2 d) 3.6 x 10
54. The equilibrium constants of the following are
N2 + 3H2  2NH3 K1
N2 + O2  2NO K2
1
H 2  O2  H 2 O K3
2
The equilibrium constant (K) of the reaction:
5

k
2 NH 3  O2  2 NO  3H 2 O
2
a) K 23 K 3 / K1 b) K1 K 33 / K 2 c) K 2 K 33 / K1 d) K 2 K 3 / K1
55. KMnO4 can be prepared from K2MnO4 as per the reaction:
3MnO42- + 2H2O  2MnO4- + MnO2 + 4OH-
The reaction can go to completion by removing OH- ions by adding
a) HCl b) KOH c) CO2 d) SO2
56. What is [H+] in mol L-1 of a solution that is 0.20 M in CH3COONa and 0.10 M in CH3COOH? Ka for
CH3COOH = 1.8 x 10-5.
a) 9.0 x 10-6 b) 3.5 x 10-4 c) 1.1 x 10-5 d) 1.8 x 10-5
57. Conjugate base for Bronsted acids H2O and HF are
a) OH- and H2F+, respectively b) H3O+ and F-, respectively
- -
c) OH and F , respectively d) H3O- and H2F+, respectively
58. In Haber process, 30 litres of dihydrogen adn 30 litres of dinitrogen were taken for reaction which yeided
only 50% of the expected product. What will be the composition of gaseous mixture under the above condi-
tion in the end?
a) 20 litres ammonia, 20 litres nitrogen, 20 litres hydrogen
 b) 10 litres ammonia, 25 litres nitrogen, 15 litres hydrogen
c) 20 litre ammonia, 10 litres nitrogen, 30 litres hydrogen
d) 20 litre ammonia, 25 litres nitrogen, 15 litres hydrogen
59. For the reaction: N2(g) + O2(g)  2NO(g), the equilibrium constant is K1. The equilibrium constant is K2 for
the reaction: 2NO(g) + O2(g)  2NO2(g). What is K for the reaction:
1
NO2 ( g )  N 2 ( g )  O2 ( g ) ?
2
1/ 2
1 1 1  1 
a)  K K  b)  2K K  c)  4K K  d)  
1 2 1 2 1 2  K1 K 2 
60. If the value of an equilibrium cosntant for a particular reaction is 1.6 x 1012, then at equilibrium the system willl
contain
a) Mostly reactants b) Mostly products
c) Similar amounts of reactants and products d) All reactants
61. For a given exothermic reaction, Kp and K’p are the equilibrium constants at temperature T1 and T2, respec-
tively. Assuming that heat of reaction is constant in temperature range between T1 adn T2, it is readily ob-
served that
1
a) Kp > K’p b) Kp < K’p c) Kp = K’p d) Kp = k '
p

62. In which of the following equilibrium. Kc and Kp are not equal ?

a) 2C(s) + O2(g)  2CO2(g) b) 2NO(g)  N2(g) + O2(g)
c) SO2(g) + NO2(g)  SO3(g) + NO(g) d) H2(g) + I2(g)  2HI(g)
63. The value of  for the reaction, X2(g) + 4Y2(g)  2XY4(g) is less then zero. Formation of XY4(g) will be
favored at:
a) High pressure and low temperature b) High temperature and high pressure
c) Low pressure and low temperature d) High temperature and low pressure
64. If the concentration of OH- ions in the reaction Fe(OH)3(s)  Fe3+(aq) + 3OH-(aq) is decreased by 1/4
times, then equilibrium concentration of Fe3+ will increase by
a) 4 times b) 8 times c) 16 times d) 64 times
65. For the reaction, CH4(g) + 2O2(g)  CO2(g) + 2H2O(I),  r H  170.8 kJ mol 1 . Which of the following
statements is not ture?
a) At equilibrium, the concentrations of CO2(g) and H2O(I) are not equal
b) The equilibrium constant for the reaction is given by Kp = [CO2]/[CH4][O2]
c) Addition of CH4(g) or O2(g) at equilibrium wil cause a shift to the right
d) The reaction is exothermic
66. Which will make basic buffer?
a) 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 25 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH
b) 100 mL of .1 M CH3COOH + 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH
c) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 200 mL of 0.1 M NH4OH
d) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH
67. An acidic buffer is prepared by mixing:
a) Weak acid and it’s salt with strong base
b) Equal volume of equimolar solutions of weak acid and weak base
c) Strong acid adn it’s salt with strong base
d) Strong acid and it’s salt with weak base (The pKa of acid = pKb of the base)
68. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH. Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)2 is 2 x 10-15.
a) 2 x 10-8 M b) 1 x 10-13 M c) 1 x 108 M d) 2 x 10-13 M
69. The Ksp of Ag2CrO4, AgCl, AgBr and AgI are respectively, 1.1 x 10-12, 1.8 x 10-10, 5.0 x 10-13, 8.3 x 10-17.
Which one of the following salts will precipitate last if AgNO3 solution is added to teh solution containing equl
moles of NaCl, NaBr, NaI and Na2CrO4?
a) AgCl b) AgBr c) Ag2CrO4 d) AgI
70. The solubility procut of CuS, Ag2S and HgS are 10-31, 10-44 adn 10-54 respectively. The solubiility of these
suphides are in the order.
a) HgS > Ag2S > Cus b) CuS > Ag2S > HgS c) Ag2S > CuS > HgS d) AgS > HgS > CuS
71. H2S gas when passed through a solution of cations containing HCl, precipitates the cations of second group
in qualitative analysis but not those belonging tot he fourth group. It is because
a) Presence of HCl decreases the sulphide ion concentration
b) Presence of HCl increases the sulphide ion concentration
c) Solubility product of grouop II sulphides is more than that of group IV sulphides
d) Suphides of group IV cations are unstable HCl
72. 3O2(g)  2O3(g) for the given reaction at 298K, Kc is found to be 3.0 x 10-59. If the concentration of O2 at
equilibrium is 0.040 M, then concentration of O3 in M is
a) 1.2 x 1021 b) 4.38 x 10-32 c) 1.9 x 10-63 d) 2.4 x 1031
73. If the equilbrium constant for N2(g) + O2(g)  2NO(g) is K, the equilbrium constant for
1 1
N 2 ( g )  O2 ( g )  NO ( g ) will be:
2 2
1
a) K2 b) K1/2 c) K d) K
2
74. In liquid-gas equilibrium, the pressure of vapours above the liquid is constant at:
a) Constant temperture b) Low temperature c) High temperature d) None of these
75. Consider the nitration of benzene using mixed conc. H2SO4 and HNO3. If a larger amount of KHSO4 is
added to the mixture, the rate of nitration will be:
a) Doubled b) Increase c) Decrease d) Unchanged
76. Which of the following is correct for the reaction?
HBr
CH 3  CH  CH 2 
Peroxide
?
(1) Electrophilic substitution (2) Anti-Markovnikov’s addition
(3) Nucleophilic substitution (4) Markovnikov’s addition

77.

78. Which is most reactive nucleophile in polar protic solvent?

 1 F   2  Cl   3  Br  4 I
79. Which is most reactive nucleophile in polar aprotic solvent?
 1 F   2  Cl   3  Br   4 I 
80. Which cannot act as an ambident nucleophile?
 1  CN   2  NO2  3  SCN   4  OH 
81. For SN 1 mechanism, which of the following is correct?
(1) Inversion (100%) (2) Formation of carbocation
(3) Non-polar solvent (4) Elimination
82. The reaction, CH 3 Br  OH 
 CH 3OH  Br proceeds mainly by the mechanism
 1  SN 1  2  SN 2  3  SE 1  4  SE 2
83. Which of the following solvent is suitable for SN 1 reaction?
(1) Non-polar (2) Polar protic (3) Polar aprotic (4) All of these

84.

Product P (major) is

85. An SN 2 reaction at an asymmetric carbon of a compound always gives

(1) An enantiomer of the substrate
(2) A product with opposite optical rotation
(3) A mixture of diastereomers
(4) A product with 100% inversion
86. Which one is the most reactive towards SN 1 reaction?

87.

The reaction goes through

 1  SN 1  2  SN 2  3  E2  4  E1
88. Which of the following is least reactive towards SN 2 mechanism?

89. Which of the following will be readily soluble in water?

90. Which of the following compounds undergoes nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily?

91. The correct order of reactivity of the following compounds towards aqueous NaCN will be

(1) I > II > III > IV (2) I > IV > II > III (3) IV > II > I > III (4) IV > II > III > I
92. Which of the following does not give yellow precipitate with AgNO3 ?

93. The correct orders of reactivity towards SN 1 reaction is

(1) I > II > III (2) II > III > I (3) III > II > I (4) I > III > II
94. In an SN 1 reaction on chiral centres, there is
(1) 100% retention
(2) 100% inversion
(3) 100% racemization
(4) Inversion more than retention leading to partial racemization
95. In which of the following compounds, the C – Cl bond ionisation shall give most stable
carbonium ion?
96. Which of the following compounds will undergo racemisation when solution of KOH hydrolyses

(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iv) (3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iv)
97. Consider the reactions

The mechanisms of reactions (i) and (ii) are respectively

 1  SN 2 and SN 2  2  SN 2 and SN 1  3  SN 1 and SN 2  4  SN 1 and SN 1
98. Which one is most reactive towards SN 1 reaction ?

 1  C6 H 5CH C6 H 5  Br  2  C6 H 5CH CH 3  Br

 3  C6 H 5C CH 3 C 6 H 5  Br  4  C6 H 5CH 2 Br
99. Which of the following undergoes nucleophilic substitution exclusively by SN 1 mechanism ?
(1) Benzyl chloride (2) Ethyl chloride (3) Chlorobenzene (4) Isopropyl chloride
100. Which of the following compounds is not chiral?
 1  CH 3CHDCH 2Cl  2  CH 3CH 2CHDCl  3  DCH 2CH 2CH 2Cl  4  CH 2CHClCH 2 D

BOTANY:
101. Identify the components labelled A, B, C and D in the diagram below from the list (i) to (vii) given along
with:

Components:
(i) Cristae of mitochondria (ii) Inner membrane of mitochondria
(iii) Cytoplasm (iv) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(v) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (vi) Mitochondrial matrix
(vii) Cell vacuole (viii) Nucleus
The correct components are:
A B C D
(a) (v) (iv) (viii) (iii)
(b) (i) (iv) (viii) (vi)
(c) (vi) (v) (iv) (vii)
(d) (v) (i) (iii) (ii)
102. Membrane-bound organelles are absent in
(a) Saccharomyces (b) Streptococcus (c) Chlamydomonas (d) Plasmodium
103. Which one of the following has its own DNA?
(a) Mitochondria (b) Dictyosome (c) Lysosome (d) Peroxisome
104. The main arena of various types of activities of a cell is
(a) Plasma membrane (b) Mitochondrion (c) Cytoplasm (d) Nucleus
105. The plasma membrane consists mainly of
(a) Phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer.
(b) Proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer.
(c) Proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose molecules.
(d) Proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer.
106. The figure below shows the structure of a mitochondrion with its four parts labelled as A, B, C and D.
Identify the parts:

(a) D (outer membrane) – gives rise to inner membrane by splitting

(b) B (inner membrane) – forms infolding called cristae
(c) C (crista) – possesses single circular DNA molecule and ribosomes
(d) A (matrix) – major site for respiratory chain enzymes
107. In mitochondria, protons accumulate in the
(a) Outer membrane (b) Inner membrane (c) Intermembrane space (d) Matrix
108. Which one of the following is not considered as a part of the endomembrane system?
(a) Golgi complex (b) Peroxisome (c) Vacuole (d) Lysosome
109. Which one of the following organisms is not an example of eukaryotic cells?
(a) Escherichia coli (b) Euglena viridis (c) Amoeba proteus (d) Paramecium caudatum
110. The important site for the formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids is
(a) Golgi apparatus (b) Plastid (c) Lysosome (d) Vacuole
111. In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles eukaryotic cells is
(a) Nucleus (b) Ribosomes (c) Cell wall (d) Plasma membrane
112. Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in
(a) Mitochondria (b) Chromoplast (c) Ribosomes (d) Chloroplast
113. Which one of the following cellular parts is correctly described?
(a) Centrioles - Sites for active RNA synthesis
(b) Ribosomes - Those on chloroplasts are larger (80S) while those in the cytoplasm are smaller (70S)
(c) Lysosomes - Optimally active at a pH of about 8.5
(d) Thylakoids - Flattened membranous sacs forming the grana of chloroplasts
114. Which one of the following structures is an organelle within an organelle?
(a) Peroxisome (b) ER (c) Mesosome (d) Ribosome
115. Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in
(a) Lysosomes (b) Nucleolus (c) Nucleoplasm (d) Ribosomes
116. What is true about ribosomes?
(a) The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80S, where ‘S’ stands for sedimentation coefficient.
(b) These are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins.
(c) These are found only in eurkaryotic cells.
(d) These are self-splicing introns of some RNAs.
117. Nuclear membrane is absent in
(a) Penicillium (b) Agaricus (c) Volvox (d) Nostoc
118. Select the correct statement from the following regarding cell membrane.
(a) NA+ and K+ ions move across cell membrane by passive transport.
(b) Proteins make up 60 to 70 per cent of the cell membrane.
(c) Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar heads towards the inner part.
(d) Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was proposed by Singer and Nicolson.
119. A major site for synthesis of lipids is
(a) RER (b) SER (c) Symplast (d) Nucleoplasm
120. The Golgi complex plays a major role
(a) In trapping the light and transforming it into chemical energy.
(b) In digesting proteins and carbohydrates.
(c) As energy transferring organelles.
(d) In post translational modification of proteins and glycosidation of lipids.
121. Which one of the following organelle in the figure correctly matches with its function?

(a) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, formation of glycoproteins

(b) Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis
(c) Golgi apparatus, formation of glycolipids
(d) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein synthesis
122. Which structures perform the function of mitochondria in bacteria?
(a) Nucleoid (b) Ribosomes (c) Cell wall (d) Mesosomes
123. The solid linear cytosketetal elements having a diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type of monomer
are known as
(a) Microtubules (b) Microfilaments (c) Intermediate filaments (d) Lamins
124. Match the following and select the correct answer:
(A) Centriole (1) Infoldings in mitochondria
(B) Chlorophyll (2) Thylakoids
(C) Cristae (3) Nucleic acids
(D) Ribozymes (4) Basal body cilia or flagella
(a) A : 4, B : 2, C : 1, D : 3 (b) A : 1, B : 2, C : 4, D : 3
(c) A : 1, B : 3, C : 2, D : 4 (d) A : 4, B : 3, C : 1, D : 2
125. The motile bacteria are able to move by
(a) Fimbriae (b) Flagella (c) Cilia (d) Pili
126. The chromosomes in which the centromere is situated close to one end are
(a) Metacentric (b) Acrocentric (c) Telocentric (d) Sub-metacentric
127. Nuclear envelope is a derivative of
(a) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (b) Membrane of Golgi complex
(c) Microtubules (d) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
128. The structures that are formed by the stacking of organized flattened membranous sacs in the chloroplast
are
(a) Cristae (b) Grana (c) Stroma lamellae (d) Stroma
129. Select the correct matching in the following pairs:
(a) Smooth ER Oxidation of phospholipids
(b) Smooth ER Synthesis of lipids
(c) Rough ER Synthesis of glycogen
(d) Rough ER Oxidation of fatty acid
130. True nucleus is absent in
(a) Anabaena (b) Mucor (c) Vaucheria (d) Volvox
131. Which one of the following is not an inclusion body found in prokaryotes?
(a) Phosphate granule (b) Cyanophycean granule (c) Glycogen granule (d) Polysome
132. DNA is not present in
(a) Chloroplast (b) Ribosomes (c) Nucleus (d) Mitochondria
133. Which of the following are not membrane-bound?
(a) Ribosomes (b) Lysosomes (c) Mesosomes (d) Vacuoles
134. Which of the following structures is not found in a prokaryotic cell?
(a) Ribosome (b) Mesosome (c) Plasma membrane (d) Nuclear envelope
135. The structures that help some bacteria to attach to rocks and/or host tissues are
(a) Fimbriae (b) Mesosomes (c) Holdfast (d) Rhizoids
136. Match the columns and identify the correct option.
Column I Column II
(a) Thylakoids (i) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
(b) Cristae (ii) Condensed structure of DNA
(c) Cisternae (iii) Flat membranous sacs in stroma
(d) Chromatic (iv) Infoldings in mitochondria
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(c) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
137. Cellular organelles with membranes are
(a) Chromosomes, ribosomes and endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes and nuclei
(c) Lysosomes, golgi apparatus and mitochondria
(d) Nuclei, ribosomes and mitochondria
138. Mitochondria and chloroplast are:
(i) Semi-autonomous organelles.
(ii) Formed by division of pre-existing organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein synthesizing
machinery.
Which one of the following options is correct?
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are correct (b) (ii) is true and (i) is false
(c) (i) is true and (ii) is false (d) Both (i) and (ii) are false
139. Microtubules are the constituents of:
(a) Cilia, Flagella and Peroxisomes (b) Spindle fibres, Centrioles and Cilia
(c) Centrioles, Spindle fibres and Chromatin (d) Centrosome, Nucleosome and Centrioles
140. A complex of ribosome attached to a single strand of RNA is known as:
(a) Polysome (b) Polymer (c) Polypeptide (d) Okazaki fragment
141. Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane?
(a) Mitochondria (b) Chloroplasts (c) Lysosomes (d) Nuclei
142. Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are:
(a) Xanthophylls (b) Chlorophylls (c) Carotenoids (d) Anthocyanins
143. Select the mismatch
(a) Large central vacuoles – Animal cells (b) Protists-Eukaryotes
(c) Methanogens-Prokaryotes (d) Gas vacuoles-Green bacteria
144. Select he wrong statement.
(a) Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in monthly of bacteria cells
(b) Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells
(c) Mycoplasma is a wall-less microorganism
(d) Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan
145. Which of the following is not the function of cell wall?
(a) Interaction with outside world (b) Provide structural support and shape
(c) Prevent from bursting and collapsing (d) Exchange of nutrition takes place through it
146. Which of the following is a form of mesosome?
(a) Vesicles (b) Tubules (c) Lamellae (d) All of these
147. Select the incorrect statement:
(a) Glycocalyx di?ers in composition and thickness among di?erent bacteria.
(b) All organism are made of cells or aggregates of cells.
(c) ER helps in synthesis of proteins, lipoproteins and glycogen.
(d) Cells of all living organisms have nuclues.
148. Assertion: Cells have di?erent shapes
Reason: Shapes of cells vary with function they perform
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false. (d) If both the assertion and reason are false.
149. Assertion: Mitochondria is known as the power house of cell.
Reason: ATP production takes place here.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false. (d) If both the assertion and reason are false.
150. Which of the following organisms are not composed of cells?
(a) Amoeba (b) Paramecium (c) Euglena (d) None of these

ZOOLOGY:
151. Assertion: Dryopithecus was more man-like.
Reason: Ramapithecus was more ape-like.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false. (d) If both the assertion and reason are false.
152. Assertion: Homologous organ represent divergent evolution.
Reason: Homology indicate common ancestry.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false. (d) If both the assertion and reason are false.
153. Which of the following defines Hardy–Weinberg’s law?

154. Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium is known to be a?ected by gene ?ow, genetic drift, mutation, genetic
recombination and ________.
(a) Saltation (b) Evolution (c) Limiting factors (d) Natural selection
155. Darwin’s ?nches are an excellent example of
(a) Connecting links (b) Brood parasitism (c) Adaptive radiation (d) Seasonal migration
156. In the developmental history of mammalian heart, it is observed that it passes through a two chambered
fishlike heart, three chambered frog-like heart and ?nally four chambered stage. To which hypothesis
can this above cited statement be approximated?
(a) Biogenetic law (b) Lamarck’s principle (c) Hardy-Weinberg law (d) Mendelian principles
157. Darwin’s finches are found in
(a) Tahiti (b) Tundra (c) Galapagos Island (d) None of these
158. Arrange the periods of Palaeozoic era in ascending order in a geological time scale:

159. The spread of genes from one breeding population to another by migration which may result in change
in gene frequency is
(a) Gene flow (b) Genetic drift (c) Gene frequency (d) None of these
160. Speciation usually occurs
(a) Suddenly (b) By genetic drift
(c) When populations are geographically isolated (d) When populations are not geographically isolated
161. The phenomenon of ‘Industrial melanism’ demonstrates
(a) Natural selection (b) Induced mutation
(c) Reproductive isolation (d) Geographical isolation
162. Industrial melanism was highlighted by
(a) Polar bear (b) Rock python (c) Mimosa pudica (d) Biston betularia
163. Which of these is a correct match?

164. Directional selection ________.

(a) Works against adaptive traits
(b) Favours intermediate forms of a trait
(c) Eliminates uncommon forms of alleles
(d) Shifts allele frequencies in a steady, consistent direction
165. Disruptive selection ________.
(a) Eliminates uncommon forms of alleles
(b) Does not favour intermediate forms of a trait
(c) Shifts allele frequencies in a steady, consistent direction
(d) All the above
166. Which of the following concepts is known as the Sewall Wright e? ect?
(a) Genetic drift (b) Isolation (c) Gene pool (d) Gene flow
167. Match the following concepts of evolution in List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(A) Mutation (1) Changes in population’s allele frequencies due to chance alone.
(B) Gene flow (2) Differences in survival and reproduction among variant individuals.
(C) Natural selection (3) Immigration, emigration change allele frequencies.
(D) Genetic drift (4) Source of new alleles
(a) A:1, B:2, C:3, D:4 (b) A:4, B:2, C:3, D:1 (c) A:3, B:1, C:4, D:2 (d) A:4, B:3, C:2, D:1
168. Initiating the force of evolution is
(a) Variation (b) Adaptation (c) Competition (d) Natural selection
169. For natural selection the important factor is
(a) Disuse (b) Variation (c) Catastrophe (d) Special creation
170. Mutation theory explaining organic evolution was proposed by
(a) E. Darwin (b) W. Harvey (c) Hugo de Vries (d) Louis Pasteur
171. The breeding of plants and animals by humans is termed as
(a) Natural selection (b) Founder e?ect (c) Neutral variation (d) Arti?cial selection
172. Which one of the following phenomena supports Darwin’s concept of natural selection in organic
evolution?
(a) Development of transgenic animals.
(b) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects.
(c) Production of ‘Dolly’ the sheep by cloning.
(d) Development of organs from ‘stem cells’ for organ transplantation.
173. Which one provides the correct sequence of events in origin of species according to Darwinism?
(A) Natural selection (B) Variations and their inheritance
(C) Survival of the fittest (D) Struggle for existence
(a) A, B, C, D (b) B, D, C, A (c) D, B, C, A (d) B, C, A, D
174. What is A, B, C and D in this figure?

(a) A: Therapsids, B: Thecodonts, C: Pelycosaurs, D: Dinosaurs

(b) A: Thecodonts, B: Dinosarus, C: Therapsids, D: Pelycosaurs
(c) A: Dinosaurs, B: Pelycosaurs, C: Thecodonts, D: Therapsids
(d) A: Pelycosaurs, B: Therapsids, C: Dinasours, D: Thecodonts
175. The concepts of natural selection in evolution were proposed by
(a) Hugo de Vries (b) Charles Darwin
(c) August Weismann (d) Jean Baptiste de Lamarck
176. Occurrence of endemic species in South America and Australia is due to
(a) Progressive evolution (b) Continental separation
(c) Absence of terrestrial route to these places (d) Extinction of these species in other regions
177. Evolution of unique groups of mammals in South America, Africa and Australia is an evidence sup-
porting
(a) Continental drift (b) Glaciation
 (c) Crustal movement (d) Geographical juxtaposition
178. The Jurassic period belongs to the era
(a) Cenozoic (b) Mesozoic (c) Palaeozoic (d) Archaeozoic
179. Dinosaurs became extinct during
(a) Jurassic (b) Triassic (c) Permian (d) Cretaceous
180. Mesozoic era is the age of
(a) Birds (b) Fishes (c) Reptiles (d) Mammals
181. Carboniferous period of coal deposition was
(a) 50 million years ago (b) 300 million years ago
(c) 500 million years ago (d) 2000 million years ago
182. Correct order is

183. Our best estimate for the age of Earth, which is 4.5 billion years is supported by
(a) Gradualism (b) Big bang theory
(c) Assumption of uniformitarianism (d) Radioactive dating of the oldest rocks found
184. The most direct evidence of organic evolution is
(a) Fossils (b) Embryos (c) Morphology (d) Vestigial organs
185. Which of the following pairs are correct?
(a) Bat wing and insect wing are analogous.
(b) Seal fiippers and bat paw are homologous.
(c) Insect wing and bird wing are homologous.
(d) Thorn of bougainvillea and tendril of pea are analogous.
186. Analogy is found between
(a) Wings of birds and bats (b) Wings of bat and butter?y
(c) Hands of man and fiippers of whale (d) Hands of man and forelimbs of horse
187. Which of the following are homologous organs?
(a) Wings of insects and bats
(b) Fins of fishes and fiippers of whale
(c) Fins of fishes and forearms of human
(d) Forearm of human, bat’s wings and whale’s fiippers
188. Thorn of bougainvillea and tendril of cucurbita are examples of
(a) Vestigial organs (b) Analogous organs
(c) Homologous organs (d) Retrogressive evolution
189. Which of the following are homologous organs?
(a) Hand of man, wings of bat (b) Eyes of man, eyes of squid
(c) Gills of fish, lungs of man (d) Leaf of moss, frond of fern
190. Which group includes homologous organs?
(a) Wings of butterfly, flying fish and bird
(b) Tentacles of hydra and arms of starfish
(c) Fins of seal, wings of birds and forelimbs of man
(d) Horns of cattle, tail of horse and teeth of mammals
191. Biologists de? ne evolution as
(a) Heritable change in a line of descent over generations
(b) Inheritance of characteristics acquired by the individual
(c) The origin of species
(d) None of the above
192. The concept of chemical evolution is based on
(a) Crystallization of chemicals.
(b) Effect of solar radiation on chemicals.
(c) Interaction of water, air and clay under intense heat.
(d) Possible origin of life by combination of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions.
193. Earliest life forms on the earth were
(a) Autotrophs (b) Cyanobacteria (c) Photoautotrophs (d) Chemoheterotrophs
194. The energy used in the Miller–Urey experiment was
(a) Photo energy (b) Electric spark (c) Atomic radiation (d) Mechanical energy
195. Stanley Miller conducted his experiments and produced amino acids by electric discharge passed through
NH 3, H2O, CH4 and __________.
(a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen (c) Nitrogen (d) Carbon dioxide
196. The spark-discharge apparatus to test chemical evolution of life was designed by
(a) Urey and Miller (b) Dixon and Jolly (c) Jacob and Monod (d) Oparin and Haldane
197. Life originated in
(a) Air (b) Water (c) Land (d) All of these
198. The basic components of atmosphere of primitive Earth were
(a) Ammonia, methane and water (b) Methane, ozone, nitrogen and water
(c) Hydrogen, nitrogen, methane and water (d) Ammonia, methane, hydrogen and water
199. ‘Modern theory of origin of life’ was propounded by
(a) Oparin (b) Miller (c) Darwin (c) Khorana
200. About how long ago was the Earth formed?
(a) 3.0 billion years ago (b) 10 billion years ago (c) 4.6 billion years ago (d) 20 billion years ago

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