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PTS 2025 - Solution - Test Code: 211201 - : General's Council General's

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PTS 2025 - Solution - Test Code: 211201 - : General's Council General's

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Rasheed Khan

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PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.1)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Charter Act of 1833 made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor General of India and vested
in him all civil and military powers. It deprived the Governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative
powers.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Charter Act of 1853 separated, for the first time, the legislative and
executive functions of the Governor-General’s council. It provided for the addition of six new members
called legislative councilors to the council. In other words, it established a separate Governor-General’s
legislative council which came to be known as the Indian (Central) Legislative Council. This legislative
wing of the council functioned as a mini-Parliament, adopting the same procedures as the British
Parliament.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Charter Act of 1853 introduced, for the first time, local representation in the
Indian (Central) Legislative Council. Of the six new legislative members of the Governor General’s
council, four members were appointed by the local (provincial) governments of Madras, Bombay, Bengal
and Agra.
Knowledge Base:
Features of Charter Act of 1833
1) It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor General of India and vested in him all civil and
military powers. Lord William Bentick was the first Governor-General of India.
2) It deprived the Governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor-General of
India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India.
3) It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely
administrative body.
4) The Charter Act of 1833 attempted to introduce a system of open competition for the selection of civil
servants.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Historical Background
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Historical Background
Subtopic:)

Q.2)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Indian Statutory Commission or Simon commission was a seven-member statutory commission under
the chairmanship of Sir John Simon. It was appointed to report on the condition of India under its new
Constitution under Government of India Act of 1919. All the members of the commission were British and
hence, all the Indian political parties boycotted the commission. The commission submitted its report in
1930.
Statement 1 is correct. The Simon Commission proposed abolishing the system of Dyarchy in the
Provinces, which had been introduced by the Government of India Act of 1919. Under Dyarchy, certain
subjects of provincial administration were split between elected Indian ministers and appointed British
officials. The Commission recommended replacing this system with a more responsible government in
the provinces.
Statement 2 is correct. The idea of forming a federation that included both British India and the Princely
states was suggested by the Simon Commission. This concept was later introduced in the Government of
India Act, 1935.

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9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[1]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Statement 3 is correct. The Simon Commission supported the continuation of communal electorates,
which meant that separate electorates would be maintained for different religious communities (e.g.,
Muslims, Sikhs, Christians).
Statement 4 is incorrect. The Simon Commission did not recommend Dominion Status for India.
Dominion Status was a demand of the Indian National Congress, reflecting a degree of self-governance
similar to that enjoyed by countries like Canada and Australia, but the Commission did not endorse this.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Historical Background
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Historical Background
Subtopic:)

Q.3)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The interim government of 1946 in India was formed to facilitate the transition of British India to
independence. It was established under the Cabinet Mission Plan and consisted of representatives from
major political parties.
Pair 1 is correct. Rajendra Prasad held the portfolio for Food and Agriculture in the interim government.
Pair 2 is correct. Liaquat Ali Khan was indeed the finance minister in the interim government.
Pair 3 is incorrect. Asaf Ali was not the defense minister but Minister of Railways and transport. The
portfolio for Defense was held by Baldev Singh.
Pair 4 is correct. C. Rajagopalachari was the Minister for Education and Arts.
Knowledge Base: Other Ministers in the Interim government of 1946
1) Jawaharlal Nehru: Portfolio: Vice-President of the Council; External Affairs and Commonwealth
Relations
2) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel: Portfolio: Home, Information and Broadcasting
3) Dr. John Mathai: Portfolio: Industries and Supplies
4) Jagjivan Ram: Portfolio: Labour
5) C.H. Bhabha: Portfolio: Works, Mines and Power
6) Abdur Rab Nishtar: Portfolio: Posts and Air
7) I.I. Chundrigar: Portfolio: Commerce
8) Ghaznafar Ali Khan: Portfolio: Health
9) Joginder Nath Mandal: Portfolio: Law
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Historical Background
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Historical Background
Subtopic:)

Q.4)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Various features of the Indian Constitution and polity have their roots in the British rule. There were
certain events in the British rule that laid down the legal framework for the organization and functioning
of government and administration in British India. Some of the British Indian acts are discussed below.
Pair 1 is incorrect. The Indian Councils Act of 1892 did not provide for the establishment of a Federal
Court. It primarily increased the number of members in the legislative councils and allowed for indirect
elections. The Federal Court of India was established by the Government of India Act 1935.

[2]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Pair 2 is incorrect. The Indian Councils Act of 1909, also known as the Morley-Minto Reforms,
introduced reforms to include more Indians in the government and expanded the legislative councils but
did not establish the Railway Board. The Railway Board was established by the Railway Board Act of
1905.
Pair 3 is correct. The Government of India Act 1919, also known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms,
provided for the establishment of the Public Service Commission. Later the first Public Service
Commission was constituted on 1 October 1926 under the chairmanship of Sir Ross Barker.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth-Historical Background
https://www.indiacode.nic.in/handle/123456789/2340?view_type=browse&sam_handle=123456789/13
62
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Historical Background
Subtopic:)

Q.5)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
In January 2024, the Financial Intelligence Unit India (FIU IND) has issued Show Cause Notices to 9
offshore Virtual Digital Assets Service Providers (VDA-SPs) for not complying with the PMLA
regulations.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Virtual Digital Assets are a digital representation of value that can be
digitally traded, or transferred, and can be used for payment or investment purposes. Foreign
currencies and Indian currency are excluded from the category of Virtual Digital Assets (VDAs), whether
digitally transferred or not.
Statement 2 is correct: In India, regardless of their physical presence, persons providing VDA service
in India must register themselves with the Financial Intelligence Unit India (FIU IND). Failure to
register themselves amounts to non-compliance by the concerned party and FIU IND has the authority to
take appropriate actions to ensure compliance.
Statement 3 is correct: The provisions of the Prevention of Money-laundering Act, 2002 will extend to
cover exchange between virtual digital assets and fiat currencies, transfer of virtual digital assets.
Hence the transactions of VDAs are regulated by the Prevention of Money Laundering Act
(PMLA) 2002.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/why-did-fiu-ind-act-against-virtual-asset-
providers/article67695217.ece
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Virtual Digital Assets
Subtopic:)

Q.6)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
Statement 1 is correct: It is true that the ninth schedule was added by the First Constitutional
Amendment Act, 1951. The first Amendment added Article 31A and 31B to the constitution which ensured
certain laws were valid even if it violated the fundamental rights of citizens.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Ninth Schedule of the Constitution contains a list of central and state
laws. Currently, 284 such laws are shielded from judicial review. Hence the schedule includes only laws
made by the Parliament is not correct.

[3]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Statement 3 is incorrect: Originally, Article 31B saves the acts and regulations included in the Ninth
Schedule from being challenged and invalidated on the ground of contravention of any of the
fundamental rights. However, in I.R. Coelho case (2007), the Supreme Court ruled that the laws placed
under the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973, are open to challenge in court if they violate fundamentals
rights guaranteed under Articles 14, 15, 19 and 21 or these laws violate the ‘basic structure’ of the
constitution.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth -Fundamental Rights
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/ninth-schedule-of-the-constitution-explained-6265890/
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Fundamental Rights
Subtopic:)

Q.7)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Secularism is a principle advocating for the separation of religion and government. It promotes equal
treatment of all religions by the state, ensuring no religion is given preferential treatment or
discrimination. In India, secularism also encompasses respect and tolerance for diverse religious
practices, fostering communal harmony and preventing religious dominance.
Statement 1 is correct: The Western concept of secularism emphasizes a strict separation of religion
and state. It envisions a "wall of separation" where the government remains neutral and does not
interfere in religious affairs until the religion works within the limits of the law of the land. This model
prohibits the state from promoting or endorsing any particular religion, but it also means that the state
cannot intervene in religious practices.
The Indian model of secularism, on the other hand, is characterized by principled distance, rather than
strict separation between the state and religion. While the Indian state does not have an official religion
and treats all religions equally, it also recognizes the need to intervene in religious matters to ensure
social justice and equality.
This means that the Indian state can, and often does, interfere in religious practices to eliminate social
evils like untouchability, child marriage, or the dowry system. The state actively works to reform
religion from within, guided by constitutional values of equality, liberty, and social justice.
Statement 2 is correct: In many Western countries, secularism involves the state maintaining a neutral
stance towards all religions, often referred to as treating all religions with "equal indifference." This
means that the state does not provide financial support to religious institutions, nor does it impose
taxes on them. The idea is to keep religion and government activities separate.
The Indian model allows the state to engage with and support religious institutions financially. This
can include grants, subsidies, and other forms of financial aid to promote religious and cultural
activities. The state may also impose taxes on these institutions, but the primary goal is to ensure that all
religions are treated equally and supported adequately to maintain social harmony without any
discrimination.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - Salient features of the Constitution.
Additional reading: https://jagiroadcollegelive.co.in/attendence/classnotes/files/1589303523.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Salient features of the Constitution.
Subtopic:)

[4]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.8)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Scheduled and Tribal Areas are designated regions in India with a significant tribal population. These
areas receive special administrative attention to safeguard the rights, culture, and development of tribal
communities. The Fifth and Sixth Schedules of the Constitution provide the framework for their
governance, with varying degrees of autonomy granted to tribal communities.
Statement 1 is correct: Part X (Articles 244-244A) of the Indian Constitution is dedicated to the
"Scheduled and Tribal Areas." It lays down provisions for the administration of these areas, including the
establishment of Tribes Advisory Councils and the power of the Governor to make regulations for their
peace and good government.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Schedule V pertains to the "Administration and Control of Scheduled Areas
and Scheduled Tribes", but it specifically applies to states other than those in the northeastern region
of India (Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram). The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution provides for
the establishment of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) for tribal areas in these northeastern states,
granting them significant autonomy in matters of local governance.
Statement 3 is correct. PART XVI of the Constitution of India contain provisions related to the
reservation in Lok Sabha, state legislative assembly and claims to services and posts of union government
of scheduled Tribes. These part cover various aspects such as:
1) Political representation: Reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and state legislative
assemblies (Articles 330 & 332).
2) Safeguarding interests: Establishment of a National Commission for Scheduled Castes and a National
Commission for Scheduled Tribes to monitor and protect their interests (Articles 338 & 338A).
3) Special provisions: Claims of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes to services and posts in
connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State (Article 335).
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - Salient features of the Constitution.
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Salient features of the Constitution.
Subtopic:)

Q.9)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Indian federalism is a unique blend of centralizing and decentralizing tendencies. It features a dual
polity with a clear division of powers between the Union and state governments, enshrined in a written
constitution. While the Constitution is supreme, the Indian federation exhibits flexibility, allowing for a
dynamic balance between the Union and states through mechanisms like cooperative federalism.
Statement I is correct: India is an indestructible union of destructible states reflects the quasi-federal
nature of India. While states can be altered or even dissolved by Parliament (making them 'destructible'),
the union itself remains inviolable and cannot be broken up ('indestructible').
Statement II is correct: India's federal structure is often described as a "holding together" federation
because it accommodates a vast diversity of cultures, languages, and regional aspirations within a
unified national framework. Unlike a "coming together" federation (like the United States), where
sovereign states voluntarily join together to form a union with specified powers, India's federation
emphasizes unity while recognizing and preserving the diversity and autonomy of its constituent states.
Statement III is correct: Under Article 3 of the Indian Constitution, Parliament has the power to form
new states, alter boundaries, or change the names of existing states. This power enables Parliament to

[5]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |
adjust the political map of India to better reflect administrative, linguistic, or other considerations. This
flexibility allows for the reorganization of states without threatening the overall unity and integrity of the
Indian Union.
Statement II correctly explains Statement I: India's federal structure is designed to hold together a
diverse nation. It acknowledges the autonomy and identity of states within a unified framework,
reinforcing the idea that while states are important entities, they are part of a larger indivisible whole.
Statement III correctly explains Statement I: It illustrates how the central authority (Parliament) can
alter state boundaries and structures while maintaining the overall integrity of the Indian Union. This
power ensures that while states can be reorganized or created based on various factors, the unity and
integrity of India as a nation remain intact.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - Salient features of the Constitution. + Union and its Territory
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Salient features of the Constitution / Union and its Territory
Subtopic:)

Q.10)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
XPoSat (X-ray Polarimeter Satellite) is the first dedicated scientific satellite from ISRO to carry out
research in space-based polarisation measurements of X-ray emission from celestial sources.
Statement 1 is correct: XPoSat (X-ray Polarimeter Satellite) is India’s first dedicated polarimetry
mission to study various dynamics of bright astronomical X-ray sources in extreme conditions. The
spacecraft will carry two scientific payloads in a low earth orbit - POLIX (Polarimeter Instrument in X-
rays) and XSPECT (X-ray Spectroscopy and Timing) to measure X-rays with different energy ranges.
Statement 2 is correct: XPoSat is India’s first dedicated polarimetry mission to study various dynamics of
bright astronomical x-ray sources in extreme conditions. This mission is instrumental in examining the
X-ray radiation emitted by nearby black hole and neutron star systems, with a specific focus on
analyzing the polarization of the radiation.
Polarized X-rays have a preferred electric field orientation during propagation, determined by the
motion of the electric charge generating the wave. Measuring this polarization aids astronomers in
studying objects emitting polarized X-rays, like pulsars or areas around black holes, providing insights
into their nature.
Source:
https://www.isro.gov.in/XPoSat.html#:~:text=XPoSat%20(X%2Dray%20Polarimeter%20Satellite,in%20a
%20low%20earth%20orbit.
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/tech/technology/isro-to-launch-advanced-astronomy-
observatory-xposat-today/articleshow/106425369.cms?from=mdr#:~:text=ET%20that%20the-
,mission,-will%20help%20study
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/what-is-it-xposat-isros-x-ray-eye-in-the-
sky/article67697737.ece#:~:text=Premium&text=At%209.10%20am%20on%20the,their%20polarisation%
20from%20earth%2Dorbit.
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) XPoSat (X-ray Polarimeter Satellite)
Subtopic:)

[6]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.11)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Indian parliamentary system is a democratic form of government based on the Westminster
model. It features a bicameral legislature (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) and a Council of Ministers
headed by the Prime Minister. The executive is responsible to the legislature, ensuring accountability
and preventing authoritarianism. This system promotes collective decision-making and reflects the will of
the people.
Statement-I is incorrect: Indian Parliament is not a sovereign body like the British Parliament. In
India, parliamentary sovereignty is limited by the Constitution, which is the supreme law of the land.
This means that the Indian Parliament cannot enact laws that violate the Constitution, and any such laws
can be struck down by the judiciary through judicial review. This is a fundamental difference from the
British Parliament, which is considered supreme and not bound by a written constitution.
Statement-II is correct: India follows a parliamentary form of government. This means that the
executive branch (the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers) is drawn from and responsible to the
legislature (Parliament). The Prime Minister is the head of the government and holds office as long as
they enjoy the confidence of the majority in Parliament.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - Salient features of the Constitution.
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/keps204.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Salient features of the Constitution.
Subtopic:)

Q.12)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer
The establishment of Family Courts was done with a view to promote conciliation and secure speedy
settlement of disputes relating to marriage and family affairs.
Statement 1 is correct: There are no specific provisions regarding Family Courts in the Indian
Constitution. The establishment of Family Courts is based on legislation i. e. Family Courts Act, 1984
which was enacted to provide for the establishment of Family Courts.
Statement 2 is correct: Family Courts Act, 1984 makes it obligatory on the State Governments to set up a
Family Court in every city or town with a population exceeding one million. As it is a provision under
the Family Court Act 1984, it is a statutory obligation on the State Governments.
Statement 3 is correct: The Family Court Act makes it obligatory on the part of the Family Court to
endeavor, in the first instance, to effect a reconciliation or a settlement between the parties to a
family dispute. During this stage, the proceedings will be informal and rigid rules of procedure will not
apply.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth, 6th Edition Chapter-36
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Subordinate Courts
Subtopic:)

Q.13)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

[7]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |
The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ‘Objectives Resolution’, drafted and moved by
Pandit Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. The preamble reveals justice, liberty, equality
and fraternity as objectives of the constitution.
Statement 1 is correct: The term 'justice' in the Preamble embraces three distinct forms-social, economic
and political, secured through various provisions of Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles. The
ideal of justice has been taken from the Russian Revolution (1917) which came as a result of the strain of
war and the conflicts within Russian society. The revolution created a new social and political system,
based on social justice.
Statement 2 is correct: The term 'liberty' means the absence of restraints on the activities of individuals,
and at the same time, providing opportunities for the development of individual personalities. Liberty, as
elaborated in the Preamble, is very essential for the successful functioning of the Indian democratic
system. The ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble is inspired from the French
revolution.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The term 'equality' means the absence of special privileges to any section of the
society and the provision of adequate opportunities for all individuals without any discrimination. The
ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble is inspired from the French Revolution (Not
from the American Constitution).
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth – Preamble
https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/iess301.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Preamble
Subtopic:)

Q.14)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
In the background of India’s multi-lingual, multi-cultural and multi- religious society and keeping in view
the partition of the country, the framers of the Constitution were very much concerned about the unity
and integrity of the newly independent country and introduced the idea of Fraternity in the Indian
constitution.
Option c is correct: The Preamble declares that fraternity has to assure the dignity of the individual
and the unity and integrity of the nation. The word 'integrity' has been added to the preamble by the
42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976).
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - Preamble
https://www.nios.ac.in/media/documents/srsec317newE/317EL5.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Preamble
Subtopic:)

Q.15)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has listed State Bank of India, HDFC Bank, and ICICI Bank as Domestic
Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs). SBI moved from bucket 3 to 4, HDFC Bank shifted from bucket 1 to
2, while ICICI Bank retained its bucket 1 status.
RBI places these banks in appropriate buckets depending upon their Systemic Importance Scores (SISs).
Based on the bucket in which a D-SIB is placed, an additional Common Equity Requirement (it is a

[8]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |
measurement of a bank's core equity capital, compared with its total risk-weighted assets) has to be
applied to it.
Option b is correct: Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs) are financial institutions whose
potential failure could significantly disrupt the stability of financial system. This financial risk emerges
given the size, cross-jurisdictional activities, complexity, lack of substitutability, and
interconnectedness of the D-SIBs.
These Systemically Important Banks (SIBs) are often labelled as 'Too Big to Fail (TBTF)' due to the
critical role they play in the stability of the financial system.
Option a, c and d are incorrect: Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs) are not identified based
on customer confidence, return on investment, or resilience to external shocks. Instead, they are
primarily categorized based on their potential to adversely impact a nation's economy in the event of
their failure.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/rbi-tags-sbi-icici-bank-hdfc-bank-as-systemically-
important-banks/article66330854.ece
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs)
Subtopic:)

Q.16)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution declares India to be of a sovereign, socialist, secular democratic
and republican polity. A democratic polity, as stipulated in the Preamble, is based the doctrine of popular
sovereignty
Option a is correct: As per the doctrine of popular sovereignty government is created by and subject to
the will of the people. Thus, it refers to the possession of supreme power by the people.It is the
principle that a state and its government, by means of their elected representatives (people's rule), which
are the source of every political power, shall be established and sustained by their own consent. The
objective resolution which was further adopted as the Preamble of the Constitution states that “All
powers and authority of sovereign and independent India and its constitution shall flow from the
people.”
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Preamble
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/keps201.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Preamble
Subtopic:)

Q.17)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Article 11 of Constitution of India extends the power to Parliament to make any provision with respect to
the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship in India.
Accordingly, the Parliament enacted the Citizenship Act (1955) which prescribes five ways of acquiring
citizenship, viz, birth, descent, registration, naturalisation and incorporation of territory.
Option b is correct: As the child is less than one year and both of her parents have Indian citizenship,
the most preferred way of obtaining the Indian citizenship is by descent. The child’s birth needs to be
registered at an Indian consulate within one year of the date of birth or with the permission of the

[9]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |
Central Government, after the expiry of the said period. In an application for registering the birth of a
minor child at an Indian consulate, the parents must provide a written undertaking stating that the minor
child does not hold a passport from any other country.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - Citizenship
https://indiankanoon.org/doc/1678224/#:~:text=Parliament%20to%20regulate%20the%20right,other
%20matters%20relating%20to%20citizenship.
https://indiancitizenshiponline.nic.in/initial?formcode=09
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Citizenship
Subtopic:)

Q.18)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Article 11 of Constitution of India extends the Parliament to make any provision with respect to the
acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship in India.
Accordingly, the Parliament enacted the Citizenship Act (1955) which prescribes three ways of losing
citizenship whether acquired under the Act or prior to it under the Constitution, viz, renunciation,
termination and deprivation
Statement 1 is incorrect: When the citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India, he/she
loses the Indian Citizenship by Deprivation.
Statement 2 is correct: When an Indian citizen voluntarily (consciously, knowingly and without duress,
undue influence or compulsion) acquires the citizenship of any other country, his/her citizenship is
lost by the method of termination. However, this provision, does not apply during a war in which India is
engaged in this case termination thereof shall be withheld until central government directs otherwise
Statement 3 is incorrect: If the citizen has, within five years after registration or naturalisation, been
imprisoned in any country for two years, he/she loses the Indian Citizenship by Deprivation.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - Citizenship
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Citizenship
Subtopic:)

Q.19)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Option b is correct. Citizens of India are not only full members of the Indian state but also possess and
enjoy all of their civil and political rights as guaranteed by the Indian Constitution. The Citizenship Act,
1955 provides for acquisition and loss of citizenship in India. Indian citizenship can be acquired by birth,
descent, registration, naturalization or incorporation of territory.
The Central Government, Ministry of Home Affairs can in application grant a certificate of
naturalization to any person (not being an illegal migrant). Some of the conditions specified for the
grant of this certificate are, as mentioned in the Third Schedule of the Citizenship Act, 1955 are:
1) That he is not a citizen or subject of any country where citizens of India are prevented from becoming
subjects or citizens of that country by naturalization,
2) That, if he is a citizen of any country, he undertakes to renounce the citizenship of that country in the
event of his application for Indian citizenship being accepted,

[10]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |
3) That he has either resided in India or been in the service of a Government in India or partly the one and
partly the other, throughout the period of twelve months immediately preceding the date of the
application,
4) That during the fourteen years immediately preceding the said period of twelve months, he has either
resided in India or been in the service of a Government in India, or partly the one and partly the other, for
periods amounting in the aggregate to not less than eleven years,
5) That he is of good character,
6) That he has an adequate knowledge of a language specified in the Eighth Schedule to the
Constitution, and
7) That in the event of naturalization being granted to him, he intends to reside in India, or to enter into
or continue in service under a Government of India or under an international organization of which India
is a member or under a society, company or body of persons established in India.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Citizenship
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Citizenship
Subtopic:)

Q.20)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Recently, Gangster Goldy Brar, the mastermind behind the murder of Punjabi singer Sidhu Moosewala,
was declared a designated terrorist by the Centre under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA).
Option a is incorrect: The UAPA amendment act does not specify automatic freezing of assets, unlike
the UN designation of a global terrorist which involves sanctions such as freezing of assets, travel bans
and an embargo against procuring arms.
Option b is incorrect: There is no such provision in UAPA that stipulates the automatic suspension of
Indian citizenship of the person who is designated as terrorists under the same act.
Option c is correct: Typically, an individual accused of a crime can seek bail after 15 days of arrest, and in
some cases, even earlier if the court deems it appropriate. According to Section 167 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure (CrPC), the maximum statutory detention period is 90 days. However, in instances
involving terror charges, Section 43D(2) of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), 1967,
extends this period to a maximum of 180 days.
Option d is incorrect: The act provides avenues for individuals to challenge the designation, including
applying for removal through the government, review committee intervention, or moving the courts to
contest the government's decision.
The act empowers the Central government to remove a name upon individual application, and the
review committee, comprising a chairperson (a retired or sitting judge of a High Court) and three other
members. can order the government to delete the designation if it deems the order flawed. Additionally,
individuals can challenge the government's decision by moving the courts.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/goldy-brar-designated-
terrrorist-uapa-sidhu-moosewala-9090652/
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/why-getting-bail-in-uapa-case-is-so-
difficult/articleshow/102426429.cms?from=mdr
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Act, 2019
Subtopic:)

[11]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.21)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The doctrine of the basic structure of the Indian Constitution asserts that certain fundamental features
cannot be altered or abrogated by any amendment passed by Parliament. Any amendment that infringes
upon the basic structure doctrine is deemed to be void. This principle was established in the landmark
case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973).
Option 1 is correct. The secular character of the Indian Constitution is an integral part of its basic
structure, as first established in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973). Secularism, as enshrined in
the Constitution, mandates equal respect and treatment of all religions. The State maintains a stance of
neutrality and does not affiliate with or endorse any particular religion.
Option 2 is correct. The idea of a Welfare State was recognized as a part of the basic structure of the
Indian Constitution in various judgements including the Bhim Singhji v. Union of India (1981) case. A
Welfare State is one in which the government plays a pivotal role in safeguarding and promoting the
economic and social well-being of its citizens, in alignment with the principles of justice, equity, and the
directive principles of state policy enshrined in the Constitution.
Option 3 is correct. The parliamentary system of government was first recognized as a part of the
basic structure of the Indian Constitution in the landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of
Kerala (1973). This system ensures that the executive is accountable to the legislature for its policies and
actions, thereby upholding the principles of representative democracy and responsible governance as
envisaged by the Constitution.
Option 4 is correct. Effective access to justice was recognized as a part of the basic structure of the
Indian Constitution in the Central Coal Fields Ltd. v. Jaiswal Coal Co. (1980) case. Effective access to
justice entails the provision of timely and equitable access to legal remedies and the judicial system for all
individuals, thereby ensuring the protection and enforcement of rights as guaranteed by the Constitution.
Option 5 is incorrect. Constitutional supremacy, rather than judicial supremacy, was first
recognized as a part of the basic structure of the Indian Constitution in Kesavananda Bharati v. State
of Kerala (1973). Constitutional supremacy signifies that the Constitution is the paramount law of the
land, and all other laws and legal norms derive their validity from and are subordinate to it.
Source: Chapter 11: Basic Structure of the Constitution, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth.
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Basic Structure of the Constitution
Subtopic:)

Q.22)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
All India Services are a unitary provision of the Indian Constitution, present in Article 312 of the
Constitution. In 1947, the Indian Civil Service became the Indian Administrative Service, and the Indian
Police became the Indian Police Service. The Indian Forest Service was established as the third All India
Service in 1966. These services are thus, common to the Centre and the State.
Statement 1 is correct. The All India Services Act, 1951 empowers the Government of India to make
rules for regulating recruitment and conditions of service for these services. However, state
governments do not have the authority to make rules specifically for the All-India Services. Their rules
and procedures are formulated by the Central Government, in consultation with the State Governments.
Statement 2 is correct. The authority to take disciplinary action against officers of the All India
Services lies with both the Central and State Governments. This authority is governed by the All India

[12]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |
Services (Discipline and Appeal) Rules, 1969. These rules outline the procedures for misconduct
investigations and penalties, ensuring shared responsibility between the two levels of government.
Source: Chapter 13: Federal System, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth.
doc202212610201.pdf (pib.gov.in)
1 THE ALL INDIA SERVICES (DISCIPLINE AND APPEAL) RULES, 1969 (dopt.gov.in)
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Important Judgements
Subtopic:)

Q.23)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Federalism, as enshrined in the Indian Constitution, denotes the distribution of powers between the
Centre and the States, wherein each level of government is sovereign within its own domain..
Option 1 is incorrect. Single constitution is a unitary feature of the Indian Constitution as it provides for
only one constitution for both, the center and the states.
Option 2 is correct. Independent judiciary is a federal feature of the Indian Constitution. This is because
it helps protect the supremacy of the Constitution, and helps in settling dispute between the Centre and
the states or between states, as provided in Article 131 of the Indian Constitution.
Option 3 is correct. Bicameralism (Article 79) at the center is a federal feature of the constitution as the
Upper House, i.e., the Rajya Sabha consists of representative from the states of the Indian federation. The
Rajya Sabha thus, acts as a safety valve for state interest and prevents the Lok Sabha from passing any
laws that might be deleterious to state interests.
Option 4 is incorrect. Emergency provisions, present in Article 352-360 of the Indian Constitution are a
unitary feature of the Constitution. This is because the Central government becomes all powerful, and the
states go into total control of the centre. All this is done even without a formal amendment to the
Constitution of India.
Option 5 is correct. The written constitution is a federal feature as it provides the limits within which
each entity of the federal government has to work, thus avoiding disputes between the Centre and states
over the division of power or any other such matters.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth – Federal System
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Federal System
Subtopic:)

Q.24)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
India is characterized as a 'quasi-federal' nation, with its Constitution embodying both federal and unitary
features. This unique structure ensures a balance between the autonomy of the States and the overriding
authority of the Centre, as interpreted in various Supreme Court judgements.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Equality of representation to states is not provided in the Rajya Sabha. The
allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha is based on proportional representation according to population, as
specified in Article 80 of the Indian Constitution and detailed in the Fourth Schedule. This ensures
balanced representation among states and Union territories, with larger states receiving more seats.
However, the US Senate provides for total equality of representation to all states. This is the reason why
the USA is deemed to be a model of true federalism.

[13]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Statement 2 is correct. Only the Parliament can amend the Constitution of India, not the State
Legislature. However, the amendment can be initiated in either House of Parliament, and by any member,
whether a minister or a private member.
Statement 3 is correct. As per Article 248 of Constitution of India, the power with respect to making laws
on residuary subjects lies with the Centre. This includes the power to levy residuary taxes.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Federal System
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Federal System
Subtopic:)

Q.25)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Union Ministry of Defence has recently sanctioned over ₹1.42 trillion for the acquisition of weapons
systems developed by the Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO). The Government of
India aims to enhance the involvement of private companies in domestic defense production to reduce
the nation's reliance on imports and bolster self-reliance.
Option a is correct: Acceptance of Necessity" (AON) is the initial approval granted by the Union Ministry
of Defence (MoD) for procuring defence equipment. It signifies the commencement of the detailed
procurement process, encompassing requests for information, proposals, evaluations, and the final
awarding of contracts. Essentially, it serves as a green light from the defence ministry, indicating the
necessity of the procurement plan and allowing it to progress through the acquisition procedure.
India, under the "Aatmanirbhar Bharat" initiative, emphasizes DRDO-developed systems for self-
reliance. Reports from industry bodies indicate that 80-90% of Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) instances
involve Indian companies.
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/national/more-than-142000-cr-worth-aon-
accorded-for-induction-of-drdo-developed-defence-products/article67695816.ece
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Defence Procurement- Aatmanirbhar Bharat Initiative
Subtopic:)

Q.26)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, also known as the "Mini-Constitution," was a significant amendment to
the Indian Constitution enacted during the Emergency period under the Indira Gandhi government.
Option 1, 2 and 4 are correct: 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 shifted five subjects from the state list to the
concurrent list under the Seventh Schedule of Constitution of India, viz, education, forests, protection of
wild animals and birds, weights and measures and administration of justice, constitution and
organisation of all courts except the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
Option 3 and 5 are incorrect: Registration of births and deaths and Labour disputes were already in the
Concurrent List, so it was not transferred by the 42nd Amendment.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Centre State Relation
Subtopic:)

[14]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.27)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Article 257(4) of the Constitution of India states that where in carrying out any direction given to a State
under clause (2) as to the construction or maintenance of any means of communication or under clause
(3) as to the measures to be taken for the protection of any railway, costs have been incurred in excess
of those which would have been incurred in the discharge of the normal duties of the State if such
direction had not been given, there shall be paid by the Government of India to the State such sum as
may be agreed, or, in default of agreement, as may be determined by an arbitrator appointed by the
Chief Justice of India, in respect of the extra costs so incurred by the State.
In simple terms, Article 257 of the Indian Constitution grants the Union power to direct States to ensure
their executive actions do not impede Union functions. It allows the Union to instruct States on
constructing and maintaining communication means of national or military importance and protecting
railways.
If a State incurs extra or additional costs due to these directives, the Union must reimburse the State. If
there's a dispute over the amount, an arbitrator appointed by the Chief Justice of India will resolve it.
Source: Constitution Of India - Article 257
https://lddashboard.legislative.gov.in/sites/default/files/coi/COI_2024.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Centre State Relation
Subtopic:)

Q.28)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Article 315 of Constitution of India makes a provision for the establishment of a Joint State Public Service
Commission (JSPSC) for two or more states.
Statement 1 is incorrect: While the UPSC and the SPSC are created directly by the Constitution, a Joint
State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) can be created by an act of Parliament (not by an order of the
President) on the request of the state legislatures concerned. Thus, a JSPSC is a statutory and not a
body created by a Presidential order. The two states of Punjab and Haryana had a JSPSC for a short
period, after the creation of Haryana out of Punjab in 1966.
Statement 2 is correct: An annual performance report is presented by a Joint State Public Service
Commission to each of the concerned state governors. The report is placed by the governor in front of
the state legislature.
Source: Laxmikanth Chapter 44 State Public Service Commission
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Centre State Relations
Subtopic:)

Q.29)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Governor plays a crucial role in India's Centre-State relations, serving as the constitutional head of
the State and representative of the Centre, with powers to appoint officials, dissolve the Assembly, and
sign bills into laws.

[15]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 243K of Constitution of India, State election commissioner is
appointed by the Governor of the state. State election commissioner’s conditions of service and tenure
of office shall also be determined by the Governor. He shall not be removed from the office except in the
manner and on the grounds prescribed for the removal of a judge of the state high court. This means that
a state election commissioner cannot be removed by the Governor, though appointed by him.
Statement 2 is correct: According to Article 243K of Constitution of India, the State Election
Commissioner's (SEC) conditions of service and tenure are determined by the Governor of the State,
subject to any laws enacted by the State Legislature.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The state legislature (not the State Election Commission) may make
provisions with respect to all matters relating to elections to the panchayats in the respective state.
Source: Laxmikanth – chapter 14: Center State Relation
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Centre State Relations
Subtopic:)

Q.30)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Recently the Union Cabinet has approved the Square Kilometre Array (SKA) project, allocating Rs 1,250
crore. The SKA comprises radio telescopes in South Africa and Australia, operating in two frequency
ranges, with the SKA Observatory headquartered in the UK.
Participating countries include Australia, Canada, China, India, Italy, New Zealand, South Africa, Sweden,
the Netherlands, and the UK.
Option b is correct: The SKA project delves into the vast realms of the cosmos, meticulously mapping
visible galaxies, providing intricate data on the evolution of our own galaxy, searching for potential
extraterrestrial life, and identifying gravitational waves. This comprehensive exploration aims to yield
profound insights into the early phases of our galaxy's evolution while actively investigating the
possibility of life beyond Earth.
Source: https://www.deccanherald.com/science/space/explained-square-kilometre-array-project-
worlds-largest-radio-telescope-and-indias-role-in-it-2833808
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/what-is-the-square-kilometer-
array-project-significance-of-india-joining-it-9102401/
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Square Kilometre Array (SKA) project
Subtopic:)

Q.31)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
To protect the interest of states in the financial matters, the Indian Constitution lays down that the
following bills can be introduced in the Parliament only on the recommendation of the President (Article
274 of Indian Constitution):
1) A bill which imposes or varies any tax or duty in which states are interested;
2) A bill which varies the meaning of the expression ‘agricultural income’ as defined for the purposes of
the enactments relating to Indian income tax;
3) A bill which affects the principles on which moneys are or may be distributable to states; and

[16]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

4) A bill which imposes any surcharge on any specified tax or duty for the purpose of the Union i.e., bill
that introduces or modifies a surcharge intended for purposes such as public welfare, infrastructure
development, defence, and central government operations
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Centre State relations
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Centre State relations
Subtopic:)

Q.32)
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
Articles 268 to 300 in Part XII of the Constitution deal with Centre-state financial relations. Like any
other federal Constitution, the Indian Constitution also contain the rule of ‘immunity from mutual
taxation’ for Centre and states.
Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 285 of the Constitution of India, the property of the Centre is
exempted from all taxes imposed by a state or any authority within a state. But the Parliament is
empowered to remove this exemption. This exemption includes lands, buildings, chattels, shares, debts,
and every kind of property, whether movable or immovable, and tangible or intangible.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Corporations or companies created by the Central government are not
immune from state or local taxation because they are considered separate legal entities. State
governments may levy taxes such as property tax, sales tax (now subsumed under GST), and other local
taxes on corporations or companies created by Central government operating within their jurisdiction.
These laws treat such entities as separate taxable entities. The GST Act, 2017, imposes taxes on the supply
of goods and services by corporations or companies, irrespective of their ownership or origin. This
includes entities created by the Central government.
Statement 3 is incorrect: As per Article 289 (1) of the Constitution of India, the property and income of a
state are exempted from Central taxation, whether the income is derived from sovereign functions or
commercial functions incidental to the ordinary functioning of the state government.
However, Article 289 (2) of Constitution of India states that “Nothing in clause (1) of Article 289 shall
prevent the Union from imposing, or authorising the imposition of, any tax to such extent, if any, as
Parliament may by law provide in respect of a trade or business of any kind carried on by, or on behalf of,
the Government of a State, or any operations connected therewith, or any property used or occupied for
the purposes of such trade or business, or any income accruing or arising in connection therewith.
For example, The apex court, in the case of Andhra Pradesh State Road Transport Corporation, had held
that the income derived by Andhra Pradesh State Road Transport Corporation (constituted by a
notification issued by the Andhra Pradesh Government) from its activities could not be said to be income
of state of Andhra Pradesh, as the corporation had a separate personality of its own.
Similarly, in case of UP Forest Corporation (incorporated by a separate Act), the Allahabad High Court has
held that the Corporation cannot claim exemption under Article 289, as exemption is given to a state and
not an extended arm of the state. So, the statement given is incorrect.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The property and income of local authorities situated within a state are not
exempted from Central taxation. Local authorities, such as municipal corporations and municipal
councils, are treated as separate entities for the purpose of income tax. Their income is subject to
taxation under the provisions of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
Source: Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth- Chapter: Centre-State Relations
Additional reading: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/wealth/personal-finance-news/taxing-
state-owned-corporations/articleshow/1862846.cms?from=mdr

[17]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |
https://www.deccanherald.com/india/delhi/centre-not-owner-of-enemy-properties-cant-seek-
exemption-from-paying-civic-taxes-supreme-court-2907798
https://cgda.nic.in/adm/circular/AN-III-Payment-13012020.pdf
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/sc-denies-income-tax-exemption-to-
local-authority/articleshow/66288036.cms?from=mdr
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Centre State relations
Subtopic:)

Q.33)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
The successful functioning of the Indian federal system depends not only on the harmonious relations
and close cooperation between the Centre and the states but also between the states inter se. Hence, the
Constitution also makes the provisions with regard to inter-state relations.
According to Article 261 of the Constitution of India, Public acts, records and judicial proceedings.
(1) Full faith and credit shall be given throughout the territory of India to public acts, records and
judicial proceedings of the Union and of every State. (Hence statement 1 is correct.)
(2) The manner in which and the conditions under which the acts, records and proceedings referred to in
clause (1) shall be proved and the effect thereof determined shall be as provided by law made by
Parliament.
(3) Final judgments or orders delivered or passed by civil courts in any part of the territory of India
shall be capable of execution anywhere within that territory according to law. (Hence statement 2 is
correct.)
Source: Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth- Centre State relations
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Centre State relations
Subtopic:)

Q.34)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
Article 3 of the Constitution of India deals with the internal re-adjustment inter se of the territories of
the constituent states of the Union of India. Article 3 authorises the Parliament to:
1) form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more states or parts of
states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state;
2) increase the area of any state;
3) diminish the area of any state;
4) alter the boundaries of any state; and
5) alter the name of any state.
Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 3 of the Constitution of India, a bill seeking to form a new
state by separation of territory from any state in India can only be introduced in the Parliament on the
recommendation of the President of India i.e. only with the prior recommendation of the President.
This ensures that such significant changes are made with proper consideration and oversight from the
highest authority in the country.
Statement 2 is correct: Before giving his recommendation, the President is required to refer the bill
seeking to form a new state by separation of territory from any state in India to the state legislature

[18]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

concerned for its opinion. The state legislature must express its views within a specified period. This
provision ensures that the views and interests of the affected state are considered before any decision is
made.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The President is not bound by the views of the concerned state legislature in
relation to the bill seeking to form a new state by separation of territory from that state of India. While
the President must refer the bill to the state legislature for its opinion, the recommendation of the state
legislature is not binding on the President or Parliament. They may proceed with the bill even if the state
legislature opposes it or suggests modifications that are not accepted.
Also, once the President has referred the bill seeking to form a new state by separation of territory from
any state in India, to the state legislature and received its views, it is not necessary to make a fresh
reference to the state legislature for any subsequent amendments to the bill during its passage
through Parliament. This provision allows for flexibility and efficiency in the legislative process without
repeatedly seeking the state legislature's opinion on every change.
Source: Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth - Chapter: Union and its Territory
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Union and its Territory
Subtopic:)

Q.35)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
A recent study conducted by the Economic Research Department of the State Bank of India challenges
the notion of a K-shaped recovery in India's domestic economy post-pandemic. The study suggests that
this debate may be flawed and biased, potentially serving the interests of certain groups who are
uncomfortable with India's significant economic progress.
Option a is incorrect: A V-shaped recovery is defined by a rapid downturn succeeded by a swift and
equally sharp rebound, often returning to pre-recession levels.
Option b is correct: K-shaped recovery describes the uneven economic recovery across different
sectors, industries, and groups of people in the economy. Thus K-shaped economic recovery best
represents the scenario where certain segments of the economy rebound from a recession while others
continue to decline.

Option c is incorrect: U-shaped recovery is a form of economic recovery where the recession portion
typically lasts for several quarters with a slow return to growth. It is measured by economic indicators
like GDP, inflation, employment levels, and industrial output.
Option d is incorrect: A W-shaped recovery occurs when an economy experiences a recession, enters a
brief recovery, and then promptly enters another recession. This pattern resembles the shape of the

[19]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |
letter "W" on economic performance charts. Also known as a double-dip recession, this type of downturn
can mislead investors into premature re-entry due to the temporary recovery phase.
Source: https://www.livemint.com/economy/sbi-study-questions-flawed-narrative-of-k-shaped-
recovery-highlights-five-major-trends-of-indian-economy-11704702238245.html
https://www.investopedia.com/k-shaped-recovery-
5080086#:~:text=A%20K%2Dshaped%20recovery%20is,while%20others%20continue%20to%20decline.
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Trends in Indian Economy
Subtopic:)

Q.36)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Article 3 of the Constitution of India relates to the formation of or changes in boundaries of the existing
states of the Union of India. This does not specifically cover provision with regards to power to cede
Indian territory. In other words, Article 3 deals with the internal re-adjustment inter-se of the territories
of the constituent states of the Union of India.
Statement I is correct: According to the Constitution of India, ceding any part of Indian territory to a
foreign state can only be done through a Constitutional amendment under Article 368. This process
ensures that such a significant change receives thorough consideration and approval from both houses of
Parliament with a special majority.
Statement II is correct: The power of Parliament to diminish the area of a state under Article 3 of the
Constitution does not include the power to cede Indian territory to a foreign country. This limitation was
clarified by the Supreme Court in the Berubari Union case, which led to the enactment of the 9th
Constitutional Amendment Act in 1960 to facilitate the transfer of Berubari Union to Pakistan.
The Supreme Court's ruling that cession of territory cannot be done under Article 3 but requires a
Constitutional amendment (Article 368) directly explains why ceding Indian territory involves a more
rigorous process than mere state reorganization.
Hence, both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II explains Statement I.
Source: Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth - Chapter: Union and its Territory
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Union and its Territory
Subtopic:)

Q.37)
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
The concept of ‘equality before law’ is enshrined in Article 14 – Right to Equality under Part III –
Fundamental Rights of the Constitution of India. The concept which is of ‘of British origin connotes:
1) the absence of any special privileges in favour of any person,
2) the equal subjection of all persons to the ordinary law of the land administered by ordinary law courts,
and
3) no person (whether rich or poor, high or low, official or non-official) is above the law.
Statement I is correct: As per Article 361 of the Constitution of India, no criminal proceedings can be
instituted or continued against the President or a Governor during their term of office.

[20]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |
However, no civil proceedings against the President or the Governor be instituted during his term of
office in any court in respect of act done by him in his personal capacity, whether before or he entered
upon his office, until the expiration of two months after notice has been delivered to him.
Statement II is correct: The rule of equality before law, enshrined in Article 14 of the Constitution, is not
absolute. There are several exceptions, such as the immunities provided to the President and Governors
under Article 361. This provision ensures that these high-ranking officials are not distracted or hindered
by legal proceedings during their term of office.
Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I: The constitutional exceptions to the rule of
equality before law justify why the President and Governors are provided with certain immunities during
their tenure. This ensures the smooth functioning of their offices and the execution of their
constitutional duties without interference.
Source: Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth- Chapter: Fundamental Rights
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Fundamental Rights
Subtopic:)

Q.38)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement-I is incorrect. Article 15(5) of the Constitution of India explicitly empowers the state to
make special provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes of
citizens, (for e.g. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes), in admissions to educational institutions
including private educational institutions, whether aided or unaided by the State, other than the
minority educational institutions referred to in clause (1) of article 30.
Similarly, supreme court uphold the Constitution (Ninety-Third Amendment) Act, 2005 inserting Clause
(5) of Article 15 of the Constitution and the Constitution (Eighty-Sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 inserting
Article 21A of the Constitution by saying that they do not alter the basic structure or framework of the
Constitution and are constitutionally valid. However, the supreme court holds that the right to
education Act does not apply to minority schools, aided or unaided, covered under clause (1) of Article
30 of the Constitution.
Statement-II is correct and correct explanation of Statement-I. Article 15 of the Indian Constitution
prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. However, it also
includes provisions (in clauses 4 and 5) that allow the state to make special provisions for the
advancement of socially and educationally backward classes, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
Thus, while the article generally prohibits discrimination, it also explicitly permits positive discrimination
or affirmative action for the benefit of these groups.
Hence, Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is the correct
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - Fundamental Rights
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Fundamental Rights
Subtopic:)

Q.39)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Articles 12-35 (under Part III) of the Indian Constitution deal with Fundamental Rights. These rights are
conferred upon Indian citizens, and the Constitution states that these are inviolable.

[21]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Statement 1 is incorrect. Fundamental Rights are not sacrosanct or permanent in nature, as Parliament
can curtail or abolish them. Parliament can only curtail or repeal them through a Constitutional
Amendment Act, not an ordinary act, but this can be done without affecting the 'basic structure' of the
Constitution of India.
Statement 2 is correct. Fundamental Rights are justiciable and allow persons to move the courts for
their enforcement, if and when they are violated. Any aggrieved person can directly go to the Supreme
Court (under Article 32) or High Court (under Article 226) in case of violation of any fundamental right.
Statement 3 is correct. While Fundamental Rights are vital, they are not absolute but qualified and can
be subject to reasonable restrictions. These restrictions are meant to ensure that the exercise of one’s
rights does not infringe upon the rights of others or harm the interests of the state and public order. For
example, the right to freedom of speech can be restricted in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity
of India, the security of the state, public order, decency, or morality.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - Fundamental Rights
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Fundamental Rights
Subtopic:)

Q.40)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
In January 2024, the Ministry for Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) has nominated
Indore (Madhya Pradesh), Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh), and Udaipur (Rajasthan) for Wetland City
Accreditation (WCA) under the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands.
Statement 1 is correct: The Wetland City Accreditation (WCA) scheme, introduced in 2015 under the
Ramsar Convention, operates on a voluntary basis. It serves as a recognition system for cities that have
undertaken notable efforts in the conservation and protection of urban and peri-urban wetlands. The
primary aim of the scheme is to promote the sustainable utilization of these wetlands, fostering socio-
economic benefits for local communities.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Wetland City Accreditation (WCA) scheme acknowledges the
commendable efforts of cities in conserving and managing their urban wetlands. The scheme does not
provide any financial assistance from the Ramsar Small Grants Fund (SGF). However, such an
international recognition t could aid these cities in securing financial support due to their renowned
conservation efforts.
Statement 3 is correct: At present, no cities from India have been included in this scheme. Although
the Ministry for Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) has nominated Indore, Bhopal and
Udaipur it is yet to be recognised as WCA cities by the Ramsar Convention.

Source: https://ddnews.gov.in/international/indore-bhopal-and-udaipur-nominated-international-
wetland-city-accreditation
https://www.ramsar.org/our-work/activities/wetland-city-accreditation
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Wetland City Accreditation (WCA) scheme
Subtopic:)
Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[22]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.41)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
British Jurist A. V. Dicey propounded that the rule of law means the absolute supremacy or predominance
of the regular law as opposed to the influence of arbitrary power and excludes the existence of
arbitrariness or even of wide discretionary.
Statement 1 is correct. This aspect is applicable to the Indian political system. The Indian legal
framework ensures that no individual can be punished unless they have violated a law. This principle is
a cornerstone of the rule of law in India, ensuring that power is not exercised arbitrarily by State or any of
its authorities. The Constitution of India, through various articles, provides safeguards against arbitrary
action by the state.
Statement 2 is correct. This aspect is applicable to the Indian political system. The Indian Constitution
explicitly guarantees equality before the law under Article 14. This means that all individuals, regardless
of their status, are subject to the same laws and are entitled to the same legal protections administered
by the ordinary courts of law.
Statement 3 is incorrect. This aspect is not applicable to the Indian political system. In India, the
Constitution is the supreme law and the source of individual rights. The Fundamental Rights enshrined
in the Constitution are granted and protected by the Constitution itself, rather than being derived from
pre-existing individual rights. The courts enforce these rights, but these rights originate from the
Constitution of India.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - Fundamental Rights
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Fundamental Rights
Subtopic:)

Q.42)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Indian Constitution aims to protect the welfare and rights of children, ensuring that they are not
exploited or deprived of their childhood. One critical measure in this regard is the prohibition of child
labor, particularly for children under 14.
Option a is correct. Article 24 of the Indian Constitution explicitly states that no child below the age of
14 years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous
employment. This provision is a part of the Fundamental Rights, which are essential for the protection of
individuals' liberties and freedoms in India.
Option b is incorrect. While the prohibition of child labor is also supported by various laws, such as the
Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, and the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory
Education Act, 2009, these laws are in place to enforce the Fundamental Right provided by the
Constitution.
Option c is incorrect. Although this prohibition is indeed a part of the Constitution, referring to it as a
Fundamental Right is more specific and accurate, as it falls under the category of Fundamental Rights
aimed at safeguarding individual freedoms.
Option d is incorrect. Natural rights are considered inherent and not contingent on laws, customs, or
beliefs. The prohibition of child labor is a legal measure enshrined in the Constitution, rather than an
inherent natural right.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - Fundamental Rights Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Fundamental Rights Subtopic:)

[23]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.43)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Fundamental rights enshrined in the Constitution of India embody the core principles of equality, justice,
and individual freedoms. These rights not only define the relationship between the state and its citizens
but also outline specific obligations that both the government and individuals must uphold.
1) Right to Equality (Articles 14–18)
Article 14: Equality before law
Article 15: Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth, hence
information given in row 1 is incorrectly, matched.
Article 16: Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
Article 17: Abolition of untouchability
Article 18: Abolition of titles
2) Right to Freedom (Articles 19–22)
Article 19: Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.
Article 20: Protection in respect of conviction for offenses, hence information in row 2 and 4 is
incorrectly matched.
Article 21: Protection of life and personal liberty
Article 21A: Right to education
Article 22: Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases, hence information in row 2 and 4 is
incorrectly matched.
3) Right against Exploitation (Articles 23–24)
Article 23: Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labor, hence information given in row 3 is
correctly matched.
Article 24: Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc.
4) Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25–28)
Article 25: Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion
Article 26: Freedom to manage religious affairs
Article 27: Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion
Article 28: Freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational
institutions
5) Cultural and Educational Rights (Articles 29–30)
Article 29: Protection of language, script and culture of minorities
Article 30: Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions
6) Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)
Article 32: Remedies for enforcement of rights conferred by this Part (Right to move the Supreme Court
for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights)
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - Fundamental Rights
https://lddashboard.legislative.gov.in/sites/default/files/coi/COI_2024.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Fundamental Rights
Subtopic:)

Q.44)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

[24]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Article 29 of the Indian Constitution protects the interests of any citizen of India. Constitution
recognized the rich cultural diversity of India and the need to protect the rights of minority communities.
Option c is correct: Article 29 ensures that any section of citizens residing in any part of India, having
a distinct language, script, or culture, has the right to conserve it .
Article 29(1) is a manifestation of this commitment to preserving and promoting the unique identities of
different sections of society.
It also prohibits educational institutions receiving state aid, from discriminating against admission based
on religion, race, caste or language
Supreme Court in Ahmedabad St. Xavier’s College vs. State of Gujarat (1974) has clarified that this
article is not restricted solely to minorities, contrary to common belief, but is available to majorities as
well so it is applicable to any section of citizens residing in any part of India who considered his
language, script, or culture distinct from others has the right to conserve the same.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - Fundamental Rights
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Fundamental Rights
Subtopic:)

Q.45)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
South Africa recently appealed to the International Court of Justice (ICJ) for an urgent ruling, asserting
that Israel breached its obligations under the 1948 Genocide Convention. South Africa alleged Israel of
committing genocide during its current military operations in Gaza against Palestinians.
Statement 1 is correct: The Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide
(Genocide Convention) was the first human rights treaty adopted by the General Assembly of the
United Nations on 9 December 1948. It signified the international community’s commitment to ‘never
again’ after the atrocities committed during the Second World War.
Statement 2 is correct: This convention imposes three key obligations on its member nations.
1) Firstly, it mandates the prevention and punishment of genocide, regardless of whether it occurs during
times of peace or conflict.
2) Secondly, member states are required to enact domestic legislation that aligns with the provisions
outlined in the Genocide Convention.
3) Thirdly, signatory nations must ensure that individuals accused of genocide are brought to trial before
competent tribunals.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Convention enables the International Court of Justice to investigate upon
the crime of genocide upon the request of any involved party. However, the ICC does not have the
unilateral power to prosecute individuals for the crime of aggression in non-member states. The
United Nations Security Council (UNSC) holds significant control over the ICC's jurisdiction, being the
only entity capable of overriding the need for State consent. This authority allows the UNSC to extend
ICC jurisdiction to any state, unless vetoed by one of its five permanent members.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/icj-genocide-case-israel-
south-africa-9105662/
https://thewire.in/law/genocide-ontario-1984
https://www.ohchr.org/en/instruments-mechanisms/instruments/convention-prevention-and-
punishment-crime-genocide
https://guide-humanitarian-law.org/content/article/3/international-criminal-court-
icc/#:~:text=has%20a%20high-,degree,-of%20authority%20over

[25]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) United Nation's Genocide Convention
Subtopic:)

Q.46)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The power to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights is a significant constitutional
power conferred on the Supreme Court and High courts in India, under Articles 32 and 226 of the
Indian Constitution, respectively.
Option c is correct: Clause (3) of Article 32 specifically mentions that Parliament may by law empower
any other court to exercise within the local limits of its jurisdiction or any of the powers exercisable
by the Supreme Court related matter of issuance of writs for enforcing of Fundamental Rights.
Therefore, the Parliament of India by a simple legislation can empower any other court including the
subordinate courts of India to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights, within local
limits of their jurisdiction.
However, this can be done without prejudice to the above powers conferred on the Supreme Court. Any
other court here does not include high courts because Article226 has already conferred these powers on
the high courts.
Knowledge Base: Under Article 32, the Supreme Court of India has the power to issue five types of writs:
1) Habeas Corpus: This writ is issued to bring a person who has been detained unlawfully before the court
to determine if the person's detention is legal.
2) Mandamus: This writ is issued to command a public official, the government, or a court to perform a
public or statutory duty that they have failed or refused to perform.
3) Prohibition: This writ is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent the lower court
from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it does not possess.
4) Certiorari: This writ is issued by a higher court to quash the order of a lower court or tribunal. It is
issued on the grounds of excess of jurisdiction or lack of jurisdiction or error of law apparent on the face
of the record.
5) Quo Warranto: This writ is issued to restrain a person from holding a public office to which he/she is
not entitled.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - Fundamental Rights + Article 32 of Constitution of India.
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Fundamental Rights
Subtopic:)

Q.47)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement-I is incorrect: According to Article 33 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament may, by
law, restrict or abrogate the application of fundamental rights to members of the armed forces,
paramilitary forces, police forces, intelligence agencies, and similar services.
This power is exclusively conferred on Parliament (not on the President of India,) and any such law
cannot be challenged in court on the grounds of violating fundamental rights. Accordingly, Parliament has
enacted the Army Act (1950), the Navy Act (1950), the Air Force Act (1950), the Police Forces (Restriction of
Rights) Act (1966), and the Border Security Force Act, among others.

[26]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Statement-II is correct: The rationale behind restricting or abrogating certain fundamental rights for
members of the armed forces is to ensure a high level of discipline and effectiveness in the discharge
of their duties. This is necessary for the maintenance of national security and order within the forces.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - Fundamental Rights
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Fundamental Rights
Subtopic:)

Q.48)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Martial law is the imposition of military rule over a civilian population, typically during times of war,
rebellion, or civil unrest. National Emergency, on the other hand, is a constitutional provision in India
(Article 352) that grants the central government extraordinary powers to deal with situations like war,
external aggression, or armed rebellion.
Statement 1 is correct: Martial Law primarily affects Fundamental Rights (under Article 34), while
National Emergency has a broader impact, including Fundamental Rights, Centre-state relations,
distribution of revenues, and legislative powers (under Article 352).
Statement 2 is correct: Martial Law, when imposed, typically involves the military taking control of
government functions and suspending ordinary law courts to maintain law and order, especially in
specific areas facing severe disturbances. This suspension is part of the extraordinary measures taken
under Martial Law to restore stability swiftly.
In contrast, during a National Emergency in India, while fundamental rights can be suspended or
restricted, ordinary law courts and government continue to function. The legal system remains intact
to ensure that judicial oversight and due process are upheld, even as certain administrative and legislative
powers are centralized or modified by the executive.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - Fundamental Rights
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Fundamental Rights
Subtopic:)

Q.49)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: The right to property in India, while no longer a Fundamental Right, is still
protected by Article 300A of the Constitution. Article 300A guarantees that no person shall be deprived
of their property except by the authority of law. This means that the government cannot simply
confiscate property without a valid legal basis and procedure. This means that private property cannot
be arbitrarily taken away by the executive branch of the government without following due process of
law. However, the Parliament, through legislation, can enact laws to acquire or regulate property, subject
to certain limitations and conditions.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In the event of a violation of the right to property as enshrined in Article
300A, the aggrieved individual cannot directly approach the Supreme Court of India. While the right to
property is a constitutional right, it is not a fundamental right.
Article 32 of the Constitution grants the Supreme Court the power to issue writs for the enforcement
of fundamental rights. However, since the right to property is not a fundamental right, Article 32

[27]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

cannot be directly invoked. Instead, the aggrieved person must approach the High Court under Article
226, which empowers High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights as well as
other legal rights.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - Fundamental Rights
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Fundamental Rights
Subtopic:)

Q.50)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The critical need for ethical governance of AI technology takes centre stage amidst the complex
challenges presented by digital sovereignty, misinformation, and privacy concerns. Further the concept
of territorial sovereignty is gradually evolving into that of digital sovereignty, emphasizing the need for a
holistic approach to ensure responsible and human-centric AI advancements
Option c is correct: Digital Sovereignty is the nation's capacity to govern its digital future,
encompassing control over the complete AI supply chain, spanning from data to hardware and software.
This shift towards digital sovereignty finds resonance in the European Union’s General Data Protection
Regulation (GDPR), implemented in 2018. The GDPR stands as a notable instance of a country asserting
its digital sovereignty by establishing regulations that prioritize data protection and privacy.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/ai-is-changing-what-sovereignty-
means-9095702/
https://www.brookings.edu/articles/the-geopolitics-of-ai-and-the-rise-of-digital-
sovereignty/#:~:text=rise%20in%20digital-,sovereignty,-%2C%20which%20refers%20to
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Digital Sovereignty
Subtopic:)

Q.51)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Article 124(3) of the Constitution provides the qualifications for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme
Court of India. It states that a person shall be eligible for this position only if they are a citizen of India
and meet either one of three additional criteria.
Option 1 is incorrect: As per Article 124(3)(a) of the Constitution, a Judge of the Supreme Court has
been for at least five years a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession
Option 2 is incorrect: As per Article 124(3)(a) of the Constitution, a Judge of the Supreme has been for
at least ten years an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such courts in succession
Option 3 is correct: As per Article 124(3)(a) of the Constitution, a Judge of the Supreme Court should be
a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President of India.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - Supreme Court
https://indiankanoon.org/doc/1164880/
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Supreme Court
Subtopic:)

[28]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.52)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement I is correct: The judgements, proceedings and acts of the Supreme Court are recorded for
perpetual memory and testimony. These records are admitted being of evidentiary value and cannot be
questioned when produced before any court. They are recognised as legal precedents and legal
references.
Statement II is correct: As per Article 129 of Constitution of India, The Supreme Court shall be a court
of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of
itself.
The Constitution has conferred a very extensive jurisdiction and vast powers on the Supreme Court
including the Court of Record. A Court of Record has two implications such as
(i) All its decisions and judgments are cited as precedents in all courts of the country
(ii) Supreme Court can send a person to jail who may have committed contempt of the court.
Thus, as a Court of Record, the judgements, proceedings and acts of the Supreme Court can be admitted
being of evidentiary value before any court.
Hence, Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation for
Statement I.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - Supreme Court
https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/srsec317newE/317EL12.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Supreme Court
Subtopic:)

Q.53)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
As a Court of Record, the Supreme Court has power to punish for contempt of itself. In 1961, the
government appointed H.N. Sanyal Committee to examine the law relating to the contempt of courts and
based on the recommendations, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was enacted by the Parliament. Under
the Act, the contempt of court may be civil or criminal.
Option 1 is incorrect: Wilful disobedience to any judgement, order, writ or other process of a court or
wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court is considered as the civil contempt under the Contempt
of Courts Act, 1971.
Option 2 is correct: The publication of any matter or doing an act which scandalises or lowers the
authority of a court is a criminal contempt under the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.
Option 3 is correct: The publication of any matter or doing an act which prejudices or interferes with
the due course of a judicial proceeding is a criminal contempt under the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.
Option 4 is correct: The publication of any matter or doing an act which interferes or obstructs the
administration of justice in any other manner is a criminal contempt under the Contempt of Courts
Act, 1971.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - Supreme Court
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Supreme Court
Subtopic:)

[29]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.54)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Judicial Review is a process through which judiciary examines whether a law enacted by a legislature, or
an action of the executive is in accordance with the Constitution or not. The power of the judicial review
was first acquired by the Supreme Court of the United States. At present it is freely exercised by the
Supreme Court of India and in many other countries. High Courts in India also exercise this power.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The phrase 'Judicial Review' is not explicitly mentioned or defined within the
text of the Indian Constitution. However, the several constitutional provisions confer the power of
judicial review on the Supreme Court and the High Courts in India. Example: Article 32 guarantees the
right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights and empowers the
Supreme Court to issue directions or orders or writs for that purpose.
Statement 2 is correct: The power of Judicial review vested in the judiciary allows Supreme court of India
or the High courts to assess the constitutional validity of legislative enactments or executive orders based
on the following three grounds (a) it infringes the Fundamental Rights (Part Ill), (b) it is outside the
competence of the authority which has framed it, and (c) it is repugnant to the constitutional provisions.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The due process of law allows the judiciary to protect citizens' rights by
declaring laws void if they are unlawful or procedurally unreasonable. The American Constitution
provides for 'due process of law' against that of 'procedure established by law' which is contained in
the Indian Constitution. 'Procedure established by law' only checks if the law falls within the authority's
power, without considering its reasonableness, suitability, or policy implications. Over time, Indian courts
have also incorporated elements of due process into their judicial review of fundamental rights. While
both countries recognize the importance of procedural fairness in the application of laws at present,
USA's judicial interpretation of due process extends beyond fundamental rights to encompass broader
principles of fairness and justice. Hence the Judicial review of Indian judiciary is narrower than that of
United States of America
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - Supreme Court
https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/srsec317newE/317EL12.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Supreme Court
Subtopic:)

Q.55)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
In recent times, the world has observed the eruption of various conflicts adversely affecting the life and
livelihood of people. In this context, the cities Sanaa, Kerman, and Haifa, have become focal points of the
ongoing turmoil.
Pair 1 is incorrect: The Houthi militia currently controls Sanaa, the capital of Yemen. Since November,
they've launched attacks on international shipments in the Red Sea, claiming solidarity with Palestinians.
These actions have resulted in retaliatory strikes from the US and Britain in the past month. These
attacks significantly disrupt maritime trade in the Red Sea, a crucial global shipping lane, forcing
companies to reroute cargo around Africa to avoid the Suez Canal.
Pair 2 is incorrect: Recently, the Islamic State (IS) claimed responsibility for bombings in Kerman, an
Iranian city. The twin blasts in the southeastern Iranian city of Kerman at a memorial for Qassem
Soleimani, the Quds Force commander whom the U.S. assassinated in Baghdad in January 2020, expose

[30]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |
the security vulnerabilities of the Iranian regime at a time when conflicts are spreading in West Asia. At
least 84 were killed in the worst terror attack in the Islamic Republic’s history.
Pair 3 is correct: The recent reports from Israel indicate Hezbollah militants targeted cities Acre and
Haifa with drones and missiles, all of which were successfully neutralized by Israel's air defense
systems, resulting in no reported casualties. These events unfold amidst ongoing clashes between Israel
and Hezbollah along the Lebanon-Israeli border amidst the Gaza conflict.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/terror-in-iran-on-the-blasts-in-irans-kerman-
and-the-impact/article67706200.ece
https://www.reuters.com/world/middle-east/yemen-houthi-leader-says-group-will-further-escalate-
if-attacks-gaza-do-not-stop-2024-02-06/
https://www.hindustantimes.com/videos/world-news/israels-port-cities-under-fire-from-lebanon-
hezbollah-strikes-with-drones-missiles-watch-101703776657203.html
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Regions in news
Subtopic:)

Q.56)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
According to Article 131 of the Indian Constitution, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction,
subject to the provisions of the Constitution, excluding all other courts in any disputes
1) Between the Government of India and one or more Slates;
2) Between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more other States on
the other; or
3) Between two or more States, if and in so far as the dispute involves any question (whether of law or
fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends
Option a is incorrect: Article 32 of the Constitution gives extensive original jurisdiction to the Supreme
Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights. It is empowered to issue directions, orders or writs,
including writs to enforce them. A writ petition filed by the aggrieved citizen in the Supreme Court when
his fundamental rights are violated comes under original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India but
not the exclusive. It is because the high courts are also empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of
Fundamental Rights.
Option b is incorrect: According to Article 131 of the Indian Constitution, original jurisdiction shall not
extend to a dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, named or other similar
instrument which, having been entered into or executed before the commencement of this Constitution,
continues in operation after such commencement, or which provides that the said jurisdiction shall not
extend to such a dispute.
Option c is incorrect: The original and exclusive jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not extend to
the case dealing with the Inter-state river water dispute among Indian states as Article 262 of the
Indian Constitution provides for the adjudication of such disputes by a special tribunal and explicitly
excludes the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in these matters.
Option d is correct: As per Article 131(c) of the Constitution of India, The Supreme Court of India can
exercise the original and exclusive jurisdiction over a case dealing with a legal dispute between two or
more states concerning a question of law
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - Supreme Court
https://indiankanoon.org/doc/786824/
Subject:) Polity Topic:) Supreme Court Subtopic:)

[31]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.57)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his office by an order of the President. The President
can issue the removal order only after an address by the Parliament has been presented to him in the
same session of the House, for such removal.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The constitution of India does not give detailed procedure for removal of a
judge of Supreme. It is the Judges Enquiry Act, 1968, which gives a detailed procedure for removal of a
judge of the Supreme Court. The grounds of removal are proven misbehavior and incapacity.
Statement 2 is incorrect. A motion moved for the removal of a Supreme Court must be signed by 100
members of the Lok Sabha is given to the Speaker. He may admit the motion or refuse to admit it.
Source: Chapter 26: Supreme Court, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth.
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Supreme Court
Subtopic:)

Q.58)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Constitution of India authorizes the President to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court in two
categories of matter:
1) On any question of law or fact of public importance which has arisen, or which is likely to arise,
2) On any dispute arising out of any pre-constitutional treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, Sanad
or other similar instruments.
Statement 1 is correct. The Supreme Court must tender its opinion on any dispute arising out of any pre-
constitutional treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, Sanad or other similar instruments. This is
provided in Article 143 of the Constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The opinion expressed by the Supreme Court is not binding on the President. It
is not a judicial pronouncement, but only an advice and thus, not binding. The President may follow or
not follow the advice given by the Supreme Court.
Source: Chapter 26: Supreme Court, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth.
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Supreme Court
Subtopic:)

Q.59)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The National Commission for Minority Educational Institutions (NCMEI) Act has been enacted to
safeguard the educational rights of the minorities enshrined in Article 30(1) of the Constitution. The
Commission is a quasi-judicial body and has been endowed with the powers of a Civil Court for the
purpose of discharging its functions under the Act.
Statement 1 is correct. The National Commission for Minority Educational Institutions decides all
questions relating to the status of any institution as a Minority Educational Institution (MEI). It also serves
as an appellate authority in respect of the matters related to the grant of status of minority educational
institution.

[32]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Statement 2 is correct. The Commission has the power to cancel the minority status of an educational
institution, as per the grounds mentioned in the National Commission for Minority Educational
Institutions Act, 2004. The two grounds stated in Section 12C of the Act are:
1) If the aims and objects of the educational institution has been amended so that it no longer reflects the
purpose or character of a Minority Educational Institution;
2) If during the inspection or investigation, it is found that the Minority Educational Institution has failed
to admit students belonging to the minority community in the institution during any academic year.
Statement 3 is incorrect. No court (except the Supreme Court and a High Court exercising jurisdiction
under Articles 226 and 227 of the Constitution) shall entertain any suit, application or other proceedings
in respect of any order made by the Commission. Thus, any order made by the Commission can be
challenged in the Supreme Court or High Court.
Source: https://ncmei.gov.in/about-department/about-us-2/
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Quasi-Judicial Bodies
Subtopic:)

Q.60)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Recently, violations of both the Wildlife (Protection) Act and the Forest Rights Act have intensified
conflicts within Tiger Reserves, primarily revolving around clashes between the forest bureaucracy and
forest-dwellers. In this context following acts are important in the content of protecting forest reserves
and ensuring the rights of forest dwellers.
Pair 1 is incorrect: The Forest Rights Act (FRA) introduced a concept known as 'Critical Wildlife
Habitat' (CWH), which bears resemblance to the 'Critical Tiger Habitat' (CTH) outlined in the Wildlife
Protection Act (WLPA). The land once designated as a CWH, couldn't be diverted for non-forestry
purposes.
On the other hand, Critical 'tiger' habitats (CTHs), also known as core areas of tiger reserves—are
identified under the Wild Life Protection Act (WLPA), 1972. These zones are maintained inviolate to
ensure the conservation of tigers while safeguarding the rights of Scheduled Tribes and other forest
dwellers.
Pair 2 is correct: The Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006 recognizes the rights of the forest dwelling tribal
communities and other traditional forest dwellers to forest resources, on which these communities
were dependent for a variety of needs, including livelihood, habitation and other socio-cultural needs. It
also provides rights to allocation of forest land for developmental purposes to fulfill basic
infrastructural needs of the community. In conjunction with the Right to Fair Compensation and
Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Settlement Act, 2013, FRA protects the tribal
population from eviction without rehabilitation and settlement
Pair 3 is incorrect: The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation
and Settlement Act, 2013 provides for land acquisition as well as rehabilitation and resettlement of people
affected by certain projects. Under the act, projects involving land acquisition conducted by private
companies or public-private partnerships necessitate the consent of at least 80% of the affected
individuals. However, it is important to note that no such consent is mandated for projects undertaken
by Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/project-tiger-50-years-
forest-rights-act-legal-crossfire-conflict-explained/article67715863.ece

[33]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |
https://tribal.nic.in/FRA.aspx#:~:text=The%20Forest%20Rights%20Act%20(FRA,and%20other%20socio
%2Dcultural%20needs.
https://prsindia.org/billtrack/the-right-to-fair-compensation-and-transparency-in-land-acquisition-
rehabilitation-and-resettlement-bill-2013#:~:text=private%20companies%20or-,public,-
private%20partnerships%20require
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Important Environmental Legislation in news
Subtopic:)

Q.61)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Article 262 of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment of an Inter-State Water Dispute
Tribunal. They are established by the Central Government on the request of the state governments
concerned, to adjudicate such water disputes.
Statement 1 is correct. The decisions of the tribunal are final and binding on the parties to the dispute.
Neither the Supreme Court nor any other court is to have jurisdiction in respect of any water dispute
which may be referred to such a tribunal.
Statement 2 is incorrect. For adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers and river
valleys thereof, the Parliament has enacted the Inter-State River Water Disputes (ISRWD) Act, 1956. When
any request under the said Act is received from any State Government in respect of any water dispute on
the inter-State rivers and the Central Government is of the opinion that the water dispute cannot be
settled by negotiations, the Central Government constitutes a Water Disputes Tribunal for the
adjudication of the water dispute. So far 9 water disputes Tribunals have been constituted to adjudicate
inter-State River water disputes out of which 5 Tribunals have adjudicated the water disputes and
subsequently these Tribunals have been dissolved. There are currently four inter-state water dispute
tribunal functional in India. They are-
1) Krishna Water Dispute Tribunal-II.
2) Mahanadi Water Dispute Tribunal.
3) Mahadayi Water Dispute Tribunal.
4) Ravi and Beas Water Dispute Tribunal.
Source: Chapter 15: Inter-State Relations, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth,
https://sansad.in/getFile/loksabhaquestions/annex/1711/AU1304.pdf?source=pqals#:~:text=So%20far
%209%20water%20disputes,these%20Tribunals%20have%20been%20dissolved.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1897692
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Inter-State Relations
Subtopic:)

Q.62)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement-I is incorrect. The Governor is a nominee of the Central Government in a state. However, in
Hargovind Pant v. Dr. Raghukul Tilak (1979), the Supreme Court held that the office of the Governor of a
State is not an employment under the Central Government. It is an independent Constitutional office
and is not under the control of or subordinate to the Central Government.

[34]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Statement-II is correct. As per Article 155, Governor of a State is appointed by the President of India. He
holds office for a term of five years. However, this is subject to the pleasure of the President.
Thus, Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Centre State Relation.
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Centre State Relations
Subtopic:)

Q.63)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
Statement I is incorrect: The usage of "Bharat Ratna" or any other national award as a suffix or prefix to a
name is not permitted in India. The Supreme Court has ruled that although these awards do not amount
to ‘titles’ within the meaning of Article 18 that prohibits only hereditary titles of nobility. Therefore, they
are not violative of Article 18 as the theory of equality does not mandate that merit should not be
recognised. However, the apex court also ruled that they should not be used as suffixes or prefixes to
the names of awardees. Otherwise, they should forfeit the awards.
Statement II is correct: The Supreme Court in Balaji Raghavan v. Union of India (1996) upheld the
constitutional validity of national awards like Bharat Ratna, stating that these awards do not amount to
"titles" within the meaning of Article 18 of the Constitution. The ruling by the Supreme Court of India
upheld that though these awards are constitutional, their use as prefix and suffix is prohibited, violation
of which makes it liable for forfeit of the awards.
Source: Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth, Fundamental Rights, Article 18.
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Fundamental Rights
Subtopic:)

Q.64)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
The right to education in India has been significantly shaped by several landmark judgments of the
Supreme Court. These cases have helped define and reinforce the constitutional mandate for providing
education to children in the country.
Option 1 is incorrect. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (1950) case primarily dealt with the interpretation
of Article 21 regarding personal liberty. In this case the Supreme Court, based on the use of expression
‘procedure established by law’, held that the protection under Article 21 is available only against arbitrary
executive action and not from arbitrary legislative action. This means that the State can deprive the right
to life and personal liberty of a person based on a law. The subject matter of the case does not have any
bearing on right to education in India.
Option 2 is correct. In the absence of an express constitutional right, the Court in the case of Mohini
Jain v. State of Karnataka (1992) interpreted a right to education as a necessary condition for fulfilment
of the right to life under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. In this case fundamental right to education
was interpreted up to any level including professional education like medicine and engineering.
Option 3 is correct. M.C. Mehta v. State of Tamil Nadu (1996) case addressed the issue of child labour in
hazardous industries, highlighting the detrimental impact of child labour on children's health,
development, and education. The Court further emphasized the need for children to be provided with
an education, which is crucial for their overall development and future opportunities. This judgment

[35]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

underscored the importance of education as a fundamental right, integral to the right to life and
personal liberty under Article 21.
Option 4 is correct. In the case of Unnikrishnan v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1993) the Supreme Court
held that every child of this country has a right to free education until he completes the age of 14 years
unlike up to any level as held in earlier case. Thereafter, his right to education is subject to the limits of
economic capacity and development of the state.
Source: Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth- Fundamental Rights
https://indiankanoon.org/doc/212829/ (only for ref)
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Important Judgements
Subtopic:)

Q.65)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Tricholime serves as a bio-pesticide and bio-fertiliser in crop production. Tricholime integrates a fungus
called ‘Trichoderma’ and lime into a single product, making the application easier for the farmers.
Statement 1 is incorrect: ‘Tricholime’ is a bio pesticides and bio fertilizers that utilizes the living
organism known as Trichoderma fungi, which is commonly found in all types of soil. Therefore, the
statement that it has the genes of a soil bacterium is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct: Tricholime is a lime-based formulation that neutralizes the soil acidity while
promoting plant growth and shields crops from soil-borne pathogens. It also benefits the crop by
improving the physical condition of the soil, enhancing secondary nutrient availability and by boosting
soil microbial activity.
Statement 3 is correct: The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) -Indian Institute of Spices
Research (IISR), Kozhikode has developed a new granular lime-based Trichoderma biopesticide known
as Tricholime.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/kozhikode/iisr-develops-new-granular-lime-
based-trichoderma-bio-pesticide-fertiliser/article67706359.ece
https://icar.org.in/tricholime-new-granular-lime-based-trichoderma-formulation
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Biopesticide ‘Tricholime’
Subtopic:)

Q.66)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
In S. R. Bommai case (1994), the Supreme Court laid down various guidelines on imposition of President’s
Rule in a state under Article 356.
Statement 1 is correct. In the S.R. Bommai case (1994), the Supreme Court of India established that the
presidential proclamation imposing President’s Rule is subject to judicial review. This ruling ensures
that the imposition of President’s Rule under Article 356 is not absolute and can be challenged in court.
Statement 2 is correct. The Supreme Court also ruled that if it finds the presidential proclamation to be
unconstitutional and invalid, it has the authority to restore the dismissed state government and revive
the state legislative assembly if it was suspended or dissolved through any such presidential proclamation
imposing the President’s rule in a state.
Source: Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth, Emergency Provisions

[36]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Important Judgements
Subtopic:)

Q.67)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 abolished the Right to Property as a Fundamental Right by repealing
Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 from Part III of the Constitution. Instead, it inserted a new Article 300A in
Part XII under the heading 'Right to Property', making it a legal right. This amendment was enacted
during the Prime Ministership of Morarji Desai.
Source: Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth, Fundamental Rights
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Fundamental Rights
Subtopic:)

Q.68)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
Option 1 is incorrect. The provision for education of children below the age of 6 years is not mentioned
as a Fundamental Right. The Fundamental Right to education under Article 21A covers children aged 6 to
14 years only.
Option 2 is incorrect. The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, added a new Fundamental Duty
under Article 51A(k), which states that it is the duty of every citizen who is a parent or guardian to
provide opportunities for education to their child or ward between the ages of 6 and 14 years.
Option 3 is correct. Article 45 of the constitution states that the State shall endeavour to provide early
childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years". This provision
was amended by 86th amendment act to the constitution of India but, the amended provision is not yet
brought into force. Hence the original provision still stands.
Source: Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth - Fundamental Rights, Directive Principle of State Policy and
Fundamental Duties.
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Directive Principles of State Policy
Subtopic:)

Q.69)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the
Cabinet Mission Plan.
Statement I is correct: The Constituent Assembly included members from various sections of Indian
society, including different religious, linguistic, and social groups. It comprised representatives of all
sections of Indian Society—Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs, Parsis, Anglo–Indians, Indian Christians, SCs, STs
including women of all these sections. The Assembly included all important personalities of India at that
time, with the exception of Mahatma Gandhi.
Statement II is incorrect: Constituent Assembly was not directly elected by the people of India on the
basis of adult franchise. Constituent Assembly was to be a partly elected and partly nominated body.
Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[37]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Moreover, the members were to be indirectly elected by the members of the provincial assemblies, who
themselves were elected on a limited franchise
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - Making of Indian Constitution.
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Making of the Constitution
Subtopic:)

Q.70)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Recently, SpaceX successfully launched the first set of Starlink satellites equipped with direct-to-cell
capabilities. These Starlink satellites can beam phone signals from space directly to smartphones.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Direct-to-cell technology allows for the direct transmission of
communication signals, including text messages, voice, and data, from space-based satellites to mobile
devices (cell phones), without conventional ground-based infrastructure. These satellites once in orbit
instantly connect over a laser backhaul to Starlink’s low-earth-orbit (LEO) constellation to provide global
connectivity. Starlink satellites, loaded with the specific modems, will then directly beam internet to
smartphones in any location on the planet.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While direct-to-cell satellite technology may be less vulnerable to certain
types of cyber threats due to its reduced reliance on ground-based infrastructure, it is not entirely
immune to cyber threats. For instance, Internet of Things (IoT) devices that utilizes this technology
make it vulnerable for cyber-attacks.
Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/et-explains/et-explainer-what-is-starlinks-
direct-to-cell-technology-does-it-work-with-existing-handsets/articleshow/106542052.cms?from=mdr
https://www.archonsecure.com/blog/satellite-cybersecurity#:~:text=that%20utilize%20satellite-
,communications,-pose%20additional%20potential
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Direct-to-cell satellite technology
Subtopic:)

Q.71)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Constituent Assembly had two separate functions i.e. making a constitution for free India and
enacting ordinary law for the country. These two tasks were to be performed on separate days. Thus,
the Assembly became the first Parliament of free India (Dominion Legislature).
Whenever the Assembly met as the Constituent body it was chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad and
When it met as the legislative body, it was chaired by G V Mavlankar.
These two functions continued till November 26, 1949, when the task of making the Constitution was
over.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - Making of Indian Constitution.
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Making of the Constitution
Subtopic:)

[38]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.72)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The feature of a strong Centre in the Indian federation, where substantial powers are vested with the
central government compared to the states, is borrowed from the Constitution of Canada.
Both Canada and India adopt a federal system where the central government holds significant authority
over defense, foreign affairs, and national economic policies. This structure ensures national uniformity
and stability while granting provinces or states autonomy in areas like education, healthcare, and local
governance. India's federal model, inspired by Canada's, maintains central control over crucial matters
like defense and interstate commerce, aiming to preserve national unity amidst regional diversity.
Other features borrowed from Canadian Constitution: vesting of residuary powers in the Centre,
appointment of state governors by the Centre, and advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
Knowledge Base:
Features borrowed from:
1) US Constitution: Fundamental rights, independence of judiciary, judicial review, impeachment of the
president, removal of Supreme Court and high court judges and post of vice-president.
2) Australian Constitution: Concurrent List, freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse, and joint
sitting of the two Houses of Parliament
3) Government of India Act of 1935: Federal Scheme, Office of governor, Judiciary, Public Service
Commissions, Emergency provisions and administrative details.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - Salient features of the Constitution.
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Salient features of the Constitution of India/ Nature of Indian Federalism
Subtopic:)

Q.73)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
North-Eastern Council was created by a separate Act of Parliament—the North-Eastern Council Act of
1971.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The North-Eastern Council (NEC) consists of eight states (not seven) of India:
Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, and Tripura. After the
amendment of the NEC Act in December 2002 (Notified on 23rd June 2003), Sikkim was added as 8th
Member State, and NEC was mandated to function as a statutory Regional Planning Body for the
Northeastern Region.
Statement 2 is correct: The council has to formulate a unified and coordinated regional plan covering
matters of common importance. It has to review from time to time the measures taken by the member
states for the maintenance of security and public order in the region.
Statement 3 is incorrect: As per amendment of NEC Act in December 2002, the Council comprises of
Governors and Chief Ministers of constituent States and three members to be nominated by the
President as per clause (iii) of Section 3 of the Northeastern Council (Amendment) Act, 1971. The union
home minister is ex-Officio Chairman, and the Minister DoNER is the ex-Officio Vice-Chairman of the
NEC.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Inter state Relations
https://mdoner.gov.in/organisations
Subject:) Polity Topic:) Inter State Relation
Subtopic:)

[39]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.74)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Judicial restraint refers to the approach or philosophy adopted by judges and courts in which they
exercise self-restraint and limit their own authority to interfere with the decisions and actions of the
other branches of government, such as the legislature and the executive.
It is based on the understanding by emphasizing adherence to the original intent of the Constitution's
framers as a guiding principle for judges practicing judicial restraint.
Option a is incorrect: Judicial restraint does not imply an absolute and unconditional deference to the
decisions of the political branches of government. While judicial restraint advocates for self-restraint and
a cautious approach by judges, it does not mean they must always defer to political decisions.
Option c is incorrect: The concept of judicial restraint is actually in contrast to judicial activism.
Judicial restraint calls for judges to exercise self-restraint and limit their involvement in policymaking or
interpreting the law in a broad or expansive manner. On the other hand, judicial activism refers to a more
active role taken by judges in shaping public policy and interpreting the law expansively to achieve
certain social or political objectives.
Option d is incorrect: Judicial restraint does not imply a rigid or inflexible approach that limits the
judiciary's ability to interpret and apply the law. Rather, it emphasizes a cautious and limited exercise of
judicial power, with an understanding that judges should respect the roles of the other branches of
government and avoid overstepping their constitutional boundaries.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth
https://blog.ipleaders.in/judicial-
restraint/#:~:text=Judicial%20restraint%20is%20a%20theory,executive%20organs%20of%20the%20gov
ernment.
https://www.legalservicesindia.com/article/2019/Judicial-Activism-and-Judicial-Restraint.html
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Indian Judiciary
Subtopic:)

Q.75)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
According to a recent study conducted by Respirer Living Sciences and Climate Trends, a significant
number of Indian cities are considerably distant from achieving clean air targets.
Statement 1 is correct: Initially, The National Clean Air Program (NCAP) aimed to attain a 20% to 30%
decrease in atmospheric particulate matter concentrations of PM10 (particulate matter with a diameter
between 10 and 2.5 micrometers) and PM2.5 (particulate matter with a diameter of 2.5 micrometers or
less) by the year 2024. Later, the target was revised to reduce the atmospheric particulate matter (PM 10)
concentrations by 40% by the year 2026. The comparison will be based on concentration levels from the
year 2017.
Statement 2 is correct: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is responsible for identifying cities to
be included under this programme. The list of cities under NCAP are called Non-attainment cities and
declared as such if over a 5-year period they consistently do not meet the National Ambient Air Quality
Standards (NAAQS) for PM 10 (Particulate matter that is 10 microns or less in diameter) or N02 (Nitrogen
Dioxide).

[40]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Statement 3 is correct: The funding for implementation of NCAP is to be mobilized through convergence
of resources from various schemes of Central Government such as Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban), Atal
Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation, Smart City Mission,
Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation etc. Further resources from State/UT
Governments and its agencies such as Municipal Corporation, Urban Development authorities and
Industrial development authorities etc are utilized to implement this programme.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/majority-of-cities-far-from-
clean-air-target-says-study/article67723999.ece#:~:text=making%20significant%20progress.-
,In%2049%20cities%20whose%20particulate%20matter%20numbers%20were%20consistently%20availa
ble,Sciences%20and%20Climate%20Trends%2C%20released
https://loksabhadocs.nic.in/Refinput/New_Reference_Notes/English/15072022_173626_10212046
3.pdf
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1914423
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)
Subtopic:)

Q.76)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Since 1950, the successive governments at the Centre and in the states have made several laws and
formulated various programmes for implementing the Directive Principles for raising the standard of
living of the people in India. The correct chronological order of the programmes is:
1) Drought-Prone Area Programme (1973): It was initiated during the Fourth Five Year Plan (1969-1974)
with the objectives of providing employment to the people in drought-prone areas and creating
productive assets.
2) Minimum Needs Programme (1974): It was introduced in the first year of the Fifth Five Year Plan (1974–
78), to provide certain basic minimum needs and improve the living standards of people.
3) Integrated Rural Development Programme (1978): It was launched by the Government of India in 1978
to alleviate poverty. It provides job opportunities and essential subsidies to impoverished people. This
blog explores the implementation, impact, and eligibility of this program on rural communities in India.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - DPSPs
https://www.ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/legy209.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Directive Principles of State Policy (Welfare State)
Subtopic:)

Q.77)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to
51. It denotes the ideals that the State should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws.
Article 37 of Part IV mentions the application of the provisions given under Part IV, which deals with the
Directive Principles of State Policy. It states that the Directive Principles of State Policy contained in Part
IV are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these
principles in making laws.

[41]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Statement 1 is correct: According to the article 38 of the Constitution of India, The State shall strive to
promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may a social order in
which justice, social, economic and political, shall inform all the institutions of the national life.
Statement 2 is correct: According to Article 42 of Constitution of India, State shall make provision for
securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth – Directive Principles of State Policy
https://cdnbbsr.s3waas.gov.in/s380537a945c7aaa788ccfcdf1b99b5d8f/uploads/2024/07/202407168903
12078.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Directive Principles of State Policy
Subtopic:)

Q.78)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The principle of separation of powers is the basis of the American presidential system. According to it,
legislative, executive and judicial powers of the government are separated and vested in the three
independent organs of the government.
Statement I is incorrect: Indian constitutional systems do not have a strict separation of powers
between the various organs in the classical sense because it is impractical. The Constitution of India
embraces the idea of separation of powers in an implied manner. Despite there being no express
provision recognizing the doctrine of separation of powers in its absolute form, the Constitution does
make the provisions for a reasonable separation of functions and powers between the three organs of
Government.
There are many functional overlaps. For instance, the judiciary has the power of judicial review, which
allows it to examine the constitutionality of executive actions. Article 142 of the Constitution allows the
Supreme Court to issue orders necessary for doing complete justice in any case before it, which
occasionally involves matters affecting executive decisions.
Additionally, the executive plays an important role in appointing judges. The President, in consultation
with the Chief Justice of India and other senior judges, appoints judges to the higher judiciary.
Statement II is correct Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) are guidelines for the government to
frame laws and policies. They are not enforceable by any court unless they are implemented through
legislation. Article 50 directs the state to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the
public services of the State but there is no specific legislation detailing how this separation should be
achieved. The absence of such legislation leaves room for overlap in functions and does not make the
separation absolute.
Source: Laxmikanth
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Directive Principles of State Policy
Subtopic:)

Q.79)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
One of the Fundamental Duties under Article 51A(a) of the Constitution of India states that it shall be the
duty of every citizen of India to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the
National Flag and the National Anthem.

[42]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Statement 1 is correct: The design of the National Flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India
on 22 July 1947. It was designed by Pingali Venkayya.
Statement 2 is correct: The Flag Code of India, 2002, is an attempt to bring together all such laws,
conventions, practices and instructions for the guidance and benefit of all concerned. As per the code,
the ratio of the width (height) to the length of the National Flag is 2:3.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth
https://knowindia.india.gov.in/national-identity-elements/national-flag.php
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Fundamental Duties
Subtopic:)

Q.80)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Ties between India and the Maldives deteriorated rapidly following the election of President Mohamed
Muizzu, who campaigned on an "India Out" platform. Recently, three Maldivian Ministers criticized the
Indian Prime Minister's promotion of tourism in Lakshadweep and made derogatory remarks.
Subsequently, these Ministers were suspended, and the Maldivian government distanced itself from their
comments.
Option a is incorrect: Andaman and Nicobar islands are not separated by the Eight Degree Channel;
rather they are separated by the Ten Degree Channel in the Bay of Bengal.
Option b is incorrect: The Great Nicobar Islands and the Sumatra Islands of Indonesia are separated by
the Grand channel. The Grand channel is located at six degrees north of the equator and it is commonly
referred to as the 'Six Degree Channel'.
Option c is correct: Maliku Kandu is the traditional name of the broad channel also called the Eight
Degree Channel that runs between Minicoy in Lakshadweep Island and Ihavandippulhu or the Haa Alif
Atoll in the Maldives.
Option d is incorrect: The Sunda Strait separates the Indonesian islands of Java and Sumatra. The
strait connects the Java Sea with the Indian Ocean.
Source:
https://oxfordre.com/asianhistory/display/10.1093/acrefore/9780190277727.001.0001/acrefore-
9780190277727-e-327;jsessionid=00D593AC08A17934919CE1B587A3332B?rskey=mqy5i7&result=10
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Map-Eight Degree Channel
Subtopic:)

Q.81)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
First Information Report (FIR): It is with the registration of an FIR that the police can begin their
investigations into a crime. The FIR usually mentions the date, time and place of the offence, details the
basic facts of the offence, including a description of the events. There is a prescribed form in which the
police registers an FIR and it is signed by the complainant. The complainant also has a legal right to get a
free copy of the FIR from the police.
Statements 1 is incorrect: The term First Information Report (FIR) is not defined in the Indian Penal
Code (IPC), Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, or in any other law. FIR is the information given to
a police officer as per the provisions of Section 154 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC).

[43]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |
There are three important elements of an FIR:
1) the information must relate to the commission of a cognizable offence
2) it should be given in writing or orally to the head of the police station and,
3) it must be written down and signed by the informant, and its key points should be recorded in a daily
diary.
Statement 2 is correct. A zero FIR can be filed in any police station, regardless of whether the offence
was committed under the jurisdiction of that particular police station.
When a police station receives a complaint regarding an alleged offence that has been committed in the
jurisdiction of another police station, it registers an FIR, and then transfers it to the concerned police
station for further investigation. This is called a Zero FIR.
No regular FIR number is given. After receiving the Zero FIR, the concerned police station registers a
fresh FIR and starts the investigation.
Statement 3 is incorrect. All an informant has to do to file an FIR is to visit the local police station and
furnish information, orally or in writing, about the commission of an offence. Further, anyone can file an
FIR — the person approaching the police does not necessarily have to be the victim of or an eyewitness
to an offence.
Knowledge Base:
What is the difference between a complaint and an FIR?
The CrPC defines a “complaint” as “any allegation made orally or in writing to a Magistrate, with a view to
his taking action under this Code, that some person, whether known or unknown, has committed an
offence, but does not include a police report.”
However, an FIR is the document that has been prepared by the police after verifying the facts of the
complaint. The FIR may contain details of the crime and the alleged criminal.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/fir-cognizable-offence-
ipc-explained-
7780266/#:~:text=In%20essence%20then%2C%20there%20are,should%20be%20recorded%20in%20a
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?hess3=6-10
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Miscellaneous (Legal terms)
Subtopic:)

Q.82)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Article 51 'A', contained in Part IV A of the Constitution deals with Fundamental Duties. By the 42nd
Amendment of the Constitution, adopted in 1976, Fundamental Duties of the citizens have also been
enumerated. Article 51A (i) of the Indian Constitution, puts an obligation on the citizens to safeguard
public property and to abjure violence.
While the other options are not specifically listed as Fundamental Duties in the Constitution.
Knowledge Base:
According to Article 51 A, it shall be the duty of every citizen of India:
1) to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National
Anthem;
2) to cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom;
3) to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;
4) to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;

[44]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |
5) to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India
transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities and to renounce practices
derogatory to the dignity of women;
6) to value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture;
7) to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have
compassion for living creatures;
8) to develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
9) to safeguard public property and to abjure violence;
10) to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation
constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement; and
11) to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Fundamental Duties
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Fundamental Duties
Subtopic:)

Q.83)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Though India has a dual polity, there is no dual system of administration of justice. The Constitution, on
the other hand, established an integrated judicial system with the Supreme Court at the top and the state
high courts below it.
Statement I is correct: Article 231 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to establish a
common High Court for two or more states, or for two or more states and a Union territory, through
legislation. This provision enables the efficient administration of justice across regions by centralizing
judicial functions under a single High Court jurisdiction. For example, Punjab and Haryana have a
common High Court established under this constitutional provision. Further Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram
and Arunachal Pradesh have a common High Court at Gauhati. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Statement II is correct: The Constitution of India provides for a High Court for each state of India.
Article 214 of the Constitution states that there shall be a High Court for each state.
Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 authorised the Parliament to establish a common high
court for two or more states or for two or more states and a union territory. This is why there are
currently 25 High Courts in India, serving the 28 states and 8 union territories. For example,
Maharashtra and Goa or Punjab and Haryana have common high courts.
Hence Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth -High Court
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) High Courts
Subtopic:)

Q.84)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The 99th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2014 and the National Judicial Appointments Commission Act
of 2014 tried to replace the Collegium System of appointing judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts
with a new body called the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC).

[45]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Statement I is correct: In 2015, the Supreme Court has declared both the 99th Constitutional
Amendment Act as well as the NJAC Act as unconstitutional and void. Consequently, the earlier
collegium system became operative again. This verdict was delivered by the Supreme Court in the
Fourth Judges case (2015).
Statement II is correct and is the correct explanation of statement I: Supreme Court in Fourth Judges
case opined that the new system (i.e., NJAC) would affect the independence of the judiciary which is a
part of Basic Structure of the Constitution of India. The independence of the judiciary is considered a
basic feature or basic structure of the Constitution of India. This principle ensures that the judiciary
remains impartial and free from external influences, safeguarding the rights and liberties of citizens.
Source: India Polity by Laxmikanth - High Courts
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Basic Structure of the Constitution of India
Subtopic:)

Q.85)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Lead, a naturally occurring toxic metal present in the Earth's crust, has caused extensive
environmental contamination and human exposure due to its widespread use.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Babesiosis is a disease that occurs due to the parasitic infection of red
blood cells. It is primarily transmitted to humans and babies through the bite of infected ticks,
particularly the black-legged or deer tick.
Children are more prone to lead exposure than adults. Compared to Adults, children absorb 4–5 times of
lead by ingestion from a given source due to their innate curiosity and hand-to-mouth behaviour.
Statement 2 is correct: The human body stores lead in the teeth and bones and lead stored in bone may
be released into the blood during pregnancy, thus exposing the fetus/foetus. Exposure of pregnant
women to high levels of lead can cause miscarriage, stillbirth, premature birth and low birth weight.
Knowledge base: A recent report, jointly prepared by the government think tank Niti Aayog and the
Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR), identifies traditional medicines, cosmetics, and
adulterated spices as inconspicuous sources of lead. It also states that battery recycling, occupational
sources such as lead mining and scrapping of automobiles as major sources of lead pollution.
Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/lead-exposure-caused-millions-to-lose-health-removing-
it-from-petrol-was-a-global-
achievement/articleshow/106582655.cms?from=mdr#:~:text='Lead%20exposure%20caused%20millions
%20to,India%20News%20%2D%20Times%20of%20India
https://www.who.int/news-room/fact-sheets/detail/lead-poisoning-and-
health#:~:text=Lead%20exposure%20also%20causes%20anaemia,are%20believed%20to%20be%20irrev
ersible.
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/health/india-bears-world-s-highest-health-economic-burden-
due-to-lead-poisoning-centre-85428#:~:text=spices%2C%20cosmetics%20and-,traditional,-medicines
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Lead Pollution
Subtopic:)

[46]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.86)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Article 217 of the Indian Constitution outlines the qualifications, appointment process, and conditions of
service for Judges of the High Courts. It ensures that individuals appointed to these positions possess the
requisite legal experience and credentials, thereby maintaining the integrity and competence of the
judiciary.
Statement 1 is correct: Article 217 of the Constitution does not contain any requirement of a minimum
age. As per Article 217, a person shall be qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court if they are a
citizen of India and meet either of the following criteria:
(a) they have held a judicial office in the territory of India for at least ten years, or
(b) they have been an advocate of a High Court, or of two or more such Courts in succession, for at least
ten years.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Unlike in the case of the Supreme Court, the Constitution makes no provision
for appointment of a distinguished jurist as a judge of a High Court. A person to be appointed as a judge
of a High Court, should have the following qualifications:
1) He should be a citizen of India.
2) (a) He should have held a judicial office in the territory of India for ten years; or (b) He should have been
an advocate of a high court (or high courts in succession) for ten years.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Salaries, Pension and Allowances of the Supreme Court Judges are charged
upon the Consolidated Fund of India, whereas the Salaries and Allowances of the High Court Judges are
charged upon the Consolidated Fund of the respective States and the Pension is charged on the
Consolidated Fund of India.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - High Court
https://cdnbbsr.s3waas.gov.in/s380537a945c7aaa788ccfcdf1b99b5d8f/uploads/2023/05/2023050195.p
df
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) High Courts
Subtopic:)

Q.87)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Article 12 of the Indian Constitution defines the term "State" for the purposes of Part III, which deals
with Fundamental Rights. According to Article 12, the term "State" includes the Government and
Parliament of India, the Government and Legislature of each State, and all local or other authorities
within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India. This definition ensures that
Fundamental Rights can be enforced against these entities.
Statement 1 is correct: Fundamental Rights are designed to protect individuals against arbitrary
actions taken by the executive branch of the government. This includes actions by government officials,
police officers, and any other administrative authority. If a person's fundamental rights are violated by the
executive, they can seek redressal through the courts.
Statement 2 is correct: Fundamental Rights also act as a check on the power of the legislature
(Parliament and state legislatures). The courts have the power to review laws passed by the legislature
and determine whether they violate any Fundamental Rights. If a law is found to be violating the
Fundamental Rights or is unconstitutional, it can be struck down by the court.

[47]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 12 of the Indian Constitution does not explicitly define the judiciary
as "State".
Judicial decisions themselves cannot be directly challenged under Article 12 for infringing on
Fundamental Rights, this protection applies only to the judiciary's core judicial functions.
Nevertheless, it does not grant judicial authorities unchecked power to violate Fundamental Rights.
Judiciary's administrative actions, like those of any other state entity, fall within the purview of
Article 12 and can be challenged if they violate Fundamental Rights.
This distinction highlights the dual nature of the judiciary: as an independent interpreter of the law and
as a state entity with administrative responsibilities.
Hence, jurisprudence of the Judiciary is not covered under the definition of state under article 12.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - Salient features of the Constitution.
https://blog.ipleaders.in/judiciary-state-article-12/
https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/judicial-decision-does-not-infringe-fundamental-rights-supreme-
court-
250128#:~:text=The%20Supreme%20Court%20recently%20reiterated,in%20Naresh%20Shridhar%20Mir
ajkar%20Vs
https://sundayguardianlive.com/legally-speaking/can-judicial-order-violate-fundamental-
rights#google_vignette
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Salient features of the Constitution/ Fundamental Rights
Subtopic:)

Q.88)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
A High Court is primarily a court of appeal. It hears appeals against the judgements of subordinate courts
functioning in its territorial jurisdiction. It has appellate jurisdiction in both civil and criminal matters.
Statement 1 is correct: In India, all death sentences awarded by a Sessions Court must be confirmed by
the High Court of the state before they can be executed. This is a mandatory requirement under Section
366 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC).
Statement 2 is correct: The appellate jurisdiction of the High Court includes intra-court appeals, which
means appeals filed against the decisions of a lower bench of the same High Court. When a single judge of
the High Court has decided a case (either under the original or appellate jurisdiction of the High Court),
an appeal from such a decision lies to the division bench of the same High Court.
Source: India Polity by Laxmikanth -High Courts
Additional Reading: https://www.indiacode.nic.in/show-
data?actid=AC_CEN_5_23_000010_197402_1517807320555&orderno=411#:~:text=(1)%20When%20the%
20Court%20of,jail%20custody%20under%20a%20warrant.
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) High Courts
Subtopic:)

Q.89)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

[48]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

After the great revolt of 1857, the British Government felt the necessity of seeking the cooperation of the
Indians in the administration of their country. In pursuance of this policy of association, three acts were
enacted by the British Parliament in 1861, 1892 and 1909.
Statement 1 is correct. Indian Councils Act of 1861 gave a recognition to the ‘portfolio’ system,
introduced by Lord Canning in 1859. Under this, a member of the Viceroy’s council was made in-charge
of one or more departments of the Government and was authorized to issue final orders on behalf of the
council on matters of his department(s).
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Government of India Act 1858 established a 15-member Council of India
to assist the Secretary of State for India. The council was an advisory body. The secretary of state was
made the Chairman of the council.
Statement 3 is correct. Indian Councils Act of 1861 made a beginning of the representative institutions by
associating Indians with the law-making process. It, thus, provided that the Viceroy should nominate
some Indians as non-official members of his expanded legislative council. In 1862, Lord Canning, the
then Viceroy, nominated three Indians to his legislative council–the Raja of Benares, the Maharaja of
Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- historical background
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Historical Background
Subtopic:)

Q.90)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Recently, the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry has asked the Union Finance Ministry to address
the inverted duty structure in the forthcoming Union Budget for 2024-25. The Ministry noted that
inverted duty structures are not economically efficient and was hopeful that the Budget 2024-25 would
address it.
Option a is correct: An inverted duty structure occurs when the taxation on inputs exceeds that of
finished products, potentially making domestic industry import dependent. This goes against the
objective of the Government's 'Make in India' as it incentivizes the import of finished goods over raw
materials.
Furthermore such duty structures can be exacerbated by Free Trade Agreement (FTA) pacts, such as
those with ASEAN countries, where duty elimination under the agreement may render finished product
imports duty-free while maintaining import taxes on intermediates.
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/commerce-ministry-submits-list-of-items-
to-finmin-for-removal-of-inverted-duties/article67638973.ece
https://indianexpress.com/article/business/industry-lower-tariff-fdi-norm-9336958/
https://www.livemint.com/industry/manufacturing/government-to-consider-correcting-inverted-
duty-structure-in-key-sectors-11704793287659.html
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Inverted Duty Structure
Subtopic:)

Q.91)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

[49]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Federal Features of the Indian Constitution: There are a total of seven federal features of the
Constitution of India. These are:
1) Dual Polity
2) Written Constitution
3) Division of Powers
4) Supremacy of the Constitution
5) Rigid Constitution
6) Independent Judiciary
7) Bicameralism
Dual Polity: The Constitution of India provides a dual polity composed of the Union at the Centre and
the states at the periphery. Each has been provided with sovereign authority to exercise in the sphere
that the Constitution has assigned to them separately. The Union government oversees matters of
national importance like defence, international affairs, the currency, communication, and others. The
state governments deals with the issues related to public order, agriculture, health, local governance, and
other issues of regional and local importance.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Salient Features of the Constitution of India/ Nature of Indian Federalism
Subtopic:)

Q.92)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Article 43 of Part IV specifically states that the state shall endeavor to secure, by suitable legislation or
economic organization or in any other way, to all workers a living wage, conditions of work ensuring a
decent standard of life, and social and cultural opportunities.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Living wage includes the hourly amount needed for a worker or family to
cover basic expenses like food, housing, transportation, and childcare. On the other hand, the
minimum wage is the lowest amount of remuneration required by law to be paid by employers to
employees for work performed during a given period. The Living wage is calculated to ensure a decent
standard of living and is usually higher than the minimum wage.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Minimum wage’ includes the bare needs of life like food, shelter and
Clothing. It represents the lowest legal hourly wage that employers can pay their workers. It is
intended to protect workers from exploitation and low pay. While the living wage includes the hourly
amount needed for a worker or family to cover basic expenses like food, housing, transportation, and
childcare.
Statement 3 is correct: A ‘fair wage’ is a mean between ‘living wage’ and ‘minimum wage’. A fair wage
that's higher than the minimum wage but lower than the living wage. It's considered reasonable for the
type of work being done. Factors like labour productivity and prevailing wage rates can influence fair
wages.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - DPSPs - notes and references
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/readersblog/lawpedia/concept-of-minimum-wages-fair-wage-
and-living-wage-and-need-based-minimum-wages-51504/
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Directive Principles of State Policy
Subtopic:)

[50]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.93)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Part IVA of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Duties. As of now, there are 11 Fundamental
duties. Originally, the Constitution of India did not contain these duties. Fundamental duties were added
by 42nd and 86th Constitutional Amendment acts.
Statement 1 is correct: Part IVA (Article 51A) was added to the Constitution of India during the internal
emergency (1975-77) through the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. In 1976, the Congress Party set up the
Sardar Swaran Singh Committee to make recommendations about fundamental duties, the need and
necessity of which was felt during the operation of the internal emergency (1975–1977).
Statement 2 is correct: Part IVA has only been amended once since its addition to the Constitution. This
amendment was done by the 86th Amendment Act of 2002, which added a new duty related to providing
education to children.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Unlike some of the Fundamental Rights which extend to all persons whether
citizens or foreigners, the Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens only and do not extend to
foreigners.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - Fundamental Duties
https://www.legalserviceindia.com/legal/article-5780-fundamental-duties-in-india-article-51-a-.html
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Fundamental Duties
Subtopic:)

Q.94)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
A doctrine is a principle, belief, or position, often held by authorities such as courts. A doctrine can be a
rule, a theory or a tenet of law. There are many judicial doctrines applied under the Constitution of India.
Pair 1 is incorrect: The Doctrine of Eclipse states that any law which is inconsistent with fundamental
rights does not completely become invalid. It is not totally dead but overshadowed by the fundamental
right. The inconsistency (conflict) can be removed by constitutional amendment. The amendment to the
relevant fundamental right will remove the eclipse and the entire law becomes valid. Doctrine of eclipse
is contended in Article 13(1) of the Indian Constitution.
The Doctrine of Ancillary Powers implies that the power to legislate on a topic of legislation carries with
it the power to legislate on an ancillary matter which can be said to be reasonably included in the power
given.
Pair 2 is correct: The phrase “Pith and Substance” means true nature and character. This Doctrine of
Pith and Substance determines whether a specific law relating to a particular subject falls within the
legitimate power of a legislature. In such cases, the court looks at the substance of the matter. Thus, for
example, if the substance falls within Union List, then the incidental encroachment by the law on the
State List does not make it invalid.
Pair 3 is incorrect: Doctrine of Colourable Legislation means when a legislature does not have the
power to make laws on a particular subject directly, it cannot make laws on it indirectly.
Pair 4 is incorrect: Doctrine of Severability is also known as the Doctrine of Separability. It states that if
any part of law is inconsistent with the fundamental rights, only that part shall be treated by the
courts as void, not the whole law.
Source:
https://www.legalserviceindia.com/legal/article-4535-doctrine-of-eclipse.html
Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
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9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[51]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |
https://legalserviceindia.com/legal/article-4014-doctrine-of-severability-a-scalpel-rather-than-a-
bulldozer.html
https://www.legalserviceindia.com/legal/article-6798-doctrine-of-pith-and-substance.html
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Judicial Doctrines
Subtopic:)

Q.95)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Clean Core Thorium Energy, headquartered in Chicago, has developed ANEEL (Advanced Nuclear Energy
for Enriched Life) nuclear fuel that holds immense promise for India’s journey in green energy transition.
This newly developed fuel is named after India's esteemed scientist, Dr. Anil Kakodkar.

Statement 1 is correct: Nuclear fuel ANEEL (Advanced Nuclear Energy for Enriched Life) uses the
combination of radioactive materials such as Thorium and Uranium to produce electrical energy.
Specifically, it merges Thorium with High Assay Low Enriched Uranium (HALEU), which is uranium
enriched to levels greater than 5% but falling below 20% of the U-235 isotope.
Statement 2 is correct: ANEEL can be used in the existing Pressurized Heavy-Water Reactors
(PHWRs) in India. This offers an immense benefit to India as India has the world's largest reserves of
Thorium, estimated at 1.07 million tonnes.
Statement 3 is correct: The ANEEL fuel bundle demonstrates enhanced fuel efficiency, resulting in
reduced nuclear waste compared to conventional natural uranium. For instance, each ANEEL fuel bundle
boasts an extended operational lifespan of 1,400 days, surpassing the 150-day operational span of existing
uranium fuel.
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/business-tech/this-new-nuclear-fuel-can-guarantee-
indias-green-energy-
transition/article67716078.ece#:~:text=ANEEL%20can%20be%20used%20in,more%20of%20700%20MW
%20each.
https://www.forbes.com/sites/jamesconca/2020/09/22/aneel-a-game-changing-nuclear-
fuel/?sh=584aaa5f14ea#:~:text=After%20the%20first-,150,-days%20of%20operation
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) ANEEL (Advanced Nuclear Energy for Enriched Life)
Subtopic:)

[52]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.96)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The members of the Constituent Assembly were elected by the provincial assemblies by a single,
transferable-vote system of proportional representation. The total membership of the Constituent
Assembly was 389 of which 292 were representatives of the provinces, 93 represented the princely
states and four were from the chief commissioner’s provinces of Delhi, Ajmer-Merwara, Coorg and British
Baluchistan.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Congress Party held a large majority in the Constituent Assembly (69
percent of the seats), and the Muslim League held nearly all the seats reserved in the Assembly for
Muslims. There were also members of smaller parties, such as the Scheduled Caste Federation, the
Communist Party of India and the Unionist Party. Communist Party of India got 1 seat in the
Constituent Assembly.
Statement 2 is correct. Muslim League with 73 seats was the second largest party after Indian National
Congress (208 seats) in the Constituent Assembly of India.

Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Making of the Constitution

Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Making of the Constitution of India
Subtopic:)

Q.97)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
State Administrative Tribunals (SATs) are specialized quasi-judicial bodies established at the state level in
India. These tribunals are designed to provide an alternative forum for resolving disputes and grievances
related to the recruitment, conditions of service, and other administrative matters of state government
employees.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Administrative Tribunals Act of 1985 empowers the Central government to
establish the State Administrative Tribunals (SATs) on specific request of the concerned state
governments.
Statement 2 is correct: SATs exercise original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service
matters of state government employees. This means that once a dispute or grievance is filed before the
SAT, it cannot be adjudicated by any other court or tribunal, except for appeals to higher courts.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The chairman and members of the SATs are appointed by the President of
India after consultation with the Governor of the state concerned. SATs are typically composed of
administrative members and judicial members. The administrative members are usually senior
bureaucrats or retired civil servants, while the judicial members are retired judges or legal professionals
with relevant expertise.

[53]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Tribunals
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Tribunals
Subtopic:)

Q.98)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. The Bar Council of India was established by Parliament under the Advocates Act,
1961. It regulates and represents the Indian bar. It safeguards the rights, privileges and interests of
advocates.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It exercises disciplinary jurisdiction over advocates/lawyers. It performs the
regulatory function by prescribing standards of professional conduct and etiquette and by exercising
disciplinary jurisdiction over the bar. It lays down procedure to be followed by its disciplinary committee
and the disciplinary committees of each State Bar Council.
Statement 3 is correct. It grants recognition to universities whose degree in law shall be a qualification
for enrolment as an advocate. The Bar Council of India visits and inspects Universities, or directs the
State Bar Councils to visit and inspect Universities for this purpose.
It promotes legal education and lays down standards of legal education. This is done in consultation with
the Universities in India imparting legal education and the State Bar Councils
Source: http://www.barcouncilofindia.org/about/about-the-bar-council-of-india/
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Miscellaneous (Regulatory Bodies)
Subtopic:)

Q.99)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Fundamental Rights have been enshrined in Part III of the Constitution of India from Articles 12 to 35.
Statement 1 is correct. The Right to Freedom is enumerated under Articles 19, 20, 21A and 22 of the of the
Constitution of India. Article 19 (a) (ii) guarantees every person the freedom of Assembly peacefully and
without arms.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Freedom of Assembly comprises the right to hold public meetings,
processions and demonstrations. Only public land may be used to exercise this freedom, and the
gathering must be unarmed and peaceful. This provision does not protect assemblies that are violent,
disorderly, riotous, or that disturb the public peace or use arms. The right to strike is not a part of this
fundamental right.
Statement 3 is correct. The State can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of right of assembly
on two grounds:
1) sovereignty and integrity of India, and
2) public order including the maintenance of traffic in the area concerned.
Source: M. Laxmikanth Indian Polity (Sixth Edition) Page 199
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Miscellaneous (Regulatory Bodies)
Subtopic:)

[54]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.100)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Recently, the Telecommunication Act 2023 was passed in India which replaces older laws and aims to
modernize and improve the telecom industry. The new act replaces the Telegraph Act 1885 and the
Wireless Telegraphy Act 1933.
Statement 1 is correct: As per section 3 of the Telecommunication Act 2023, the prior authorisation from
the Central government is mandatory for service providers to offer telecommunication services and to
set up, manage, maintain or to expand the telecommunication networks.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Spectrum will be assigned by auction, except for specified uses mentioned in
First Schedule of the Telecommunication Act 2023, where it will be allocated on an administrative basis.
Specified purposes include weather forecasting, national security and defense, disaster management,
transport, satellite services such as DTH and satellite telephony, and BSNL, MTNL, and public
broadcasting services. Thus, allocation of spectrum for weather forecasting is not done through
auction but through administrative basis.
Statement 3 is correct: According to the Act, messages or a class of messages between two or more
persons can be intercepted, monitored, or blocked by the Central Government on the following grounds:
1) To protect the Security of the state.
2) To prevent incitement of offenses
3) To protect public order etc.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/open-up-the-playing-field-9105807/
https://egazette.gov.in/WriteReadData/2023/250880.pdf
https://prsindia.org/billtrack/the-telecommunication-bill-
2023#:~:text=The%20Bill%20provides%20a%20mechanism,a%20do%20not%20disturb%20register.
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) The Telecommunication Act 2023
Subtopic:)

[55]

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