PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211201 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

T.B.C. : FIAS-PTS25 Test Booklet Series
Serial No.

A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
Paper – 1

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU
SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY
UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT
REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOK.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in
the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully without
any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR
Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet
liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test
booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in
English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the
response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that
there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you
consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet
provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items
in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as
per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and
the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only
the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A
CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each
question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-
third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong
answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there
will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left bank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there
will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[1]
 PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.1) With reference to Charter Act of 1833 How many of the above pairs are correctly
issued by British government, consider the matched?
following statements: a) Only one
1. It separated the legislative and executive b) Only two
functions of the Governor general's Council c) Only three
for the first time. d) All four
2. It introduced for the first time, local
representation in the Indian (Central) Q.4) Consider the following pairs about various
Legislative Council. Acts/laws in the British India and their
Which of the statements given above is/are provisions:
correct? Act Provision for
a) 1 only establishment of
b) 2 only 1. Indian Council Act, 1892 Federal Court
c) Both 1 and 2 2. Indian Council Act, 1909 Railway Board
d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Government of India Public Service
Act, 1919 Commission
Q.2) The Indian Statutory Commission, How many of the above pairs are correctly
appointed by British Government in November matched?
1927, to report on the condition of India under a) Only one
its new Constitution of 1919, submitted its b) Only two
report in 1930. In this context consider the c) All three
following statements: d) None
1. Abolition of Dyarchy in the provinces
2. Establishment of a federation of British Q.5) With reference to Indian Economy,
India and Princely states consider the following statements regarding
3. Continuation of communal electorate the Virtual Digital Assets (VDAs):
4. Dominion Status for India 1. VDAs refer to digitally transacted and
How many of the above were the stored assets such as foreign currencies.
recommendations made by the Indian 2. Regardless of their physical presence,
Statutory Commission in its report submitted persons providing VDA service in India
in 1930? must register themselves with the Financial
a) Only one Intelligence Unit India (FIU IND).
b) Only two 3. Transactions of VDAs are regulated under
c) Only three the Prevention of Money Laundering Act
d) All four (PMLA) 2002.
How many of the statements given above are
Q.3) Consider the following pairs about the correct?
Ministers and their portfolio in the Interim a) Only one
Government of India constituted in 1946: b) Only two
Minister Portfolio c) All three
1. Rajendra Prasad Food and d) None
Agriculture
2. Liaquat Ali khan Finance
3. Asaf Ali Defense
4. C. Rajagopalachari Education and Arts

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[2]
 PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.6) With reference to the Ninth Schedule of governing bodies for Tribals in some states
the Constitution of India, consider the of Northeast India.
following statements: 3. PART XVI contains provisions related to
1. The Schedule was added to the Scheduled Tribes regarding their
Constitution by the First Constitutional reservation in Lok Sabha, state legislative
Amendment Act. assemblies and their claims to services and
2. Only the laws made by Parliament can be posts under union government.
placed in this Schedule. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
3. Currently, the Supreme Court cannot strike a) 2 only
down the laws placed in this Schedule on b) 1 and 2 only
the grounds of violation of any of the c) 1 and 3 only
Fundamental Rights. d) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Q.9) Consider the following statements:
a) 1 only Statement-I: India is indestructible union of
b) 1 and 2 only destructible states.
c) 3 only Statement-II: India is a holding together
d) 2 and 3 only federation rather than coming together
federation.
Q.7) With reference to differences between Statement-III: Parliament can redraw the
Indian model of secularism and Western political map of India according to its will.
model of secularism, consider the following Which one of the following is correct in
statements: respect of the above statements?
1. The Western model separates religion and a) Both statement II and III are correct and
state, while in the Indian model State may both of them explain Statement I.
interfere in religion to eliminate evils in it. b) Both statement II and Statement III are
2. The Western model treats all religions correct but only one of them explains
indifferently without aid or taxation, while Statement I
the Indian model provides financial aid to c) Only one of the Statement II and Statement
religious institutions without any III is correct and that explains Statement I
discrimination. d) Neither statement II nor Statement III is
Which of the statements given above is/are correct.
correct?
a) 1 only Q.10) Consider the following statements
b) 2 only regarding the Indian Space Research
c) Both 1 and 2 Organisation (ISRO)’s’ XPoSat Mission’:
d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. It is India’s first dedicated polarimetry
mission to study various dynamics of bright
Q.8) The Constitution of India has several parts astronomical X-ray sources.
and schedules dedicated to the administration 2. It will contribute to an improved
and welfare of Scheduled and other Tribes and understanding of astronomical phenomena
Tribal Areas. With reference to this, consider such as black holes and neutron stars.
the following statements: Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. Part X contains provisions related to the a) 1 only
Administration of Scheduled Areas and b) 2 only
Tribal Areas. c) Both 1 and 2
2. Schedule V provides for the establishment d) Neither 1 nor 2
of Autonomous District Councils as self-

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[3]
 PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.11) Consider the following statements: Q.14) Which among the following objectives of
Statement I: Parliament of India is a sovereign Preamble of Indian Constitution aims to assure
body. dignity of the Individual and the unity and
Statement II: India follows parliamentary form integrity of the nation?
of Government. a) Justice
Which one of the following is correct in b) Liberty
respect of the above statements? c) Fraternity
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are d) Equality
correct and Statement-II explains
Statement-I Q.15) Which one of the following best reflects
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are the meaning of the term 'Domestic
correct, but Statement-II does not explain Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs)'?
Statement-I a) Banks that have secured customer
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is confidence owing to their robust
incorrect performance.
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II b) Banks whose potential failure might disrupt
is correct the stability of financial system of India.
c) Banks exhibiting a higher return on
Q.12) Consider the following statements with investment and lower Non-Performing
reference to the Family Courts in India: Assets (NPAs).
1. There is no provision for Family Courts in d) Banks which majorly operate within India
the Indian Constitution. and are resilient to external shocks.
2. It is a Statutory obligation for the State
Governments to set up a Family Court in Q.16) A democratic polity like India is based on
every city or town with a population concept of doctrine of Popular Sovereignty.
exceeding one million. Which among the following best describes this
3. It is obligatory for the Family Court, in the doctrine?
first instance, to try for a reconciliation a) The source of governmental power or the
between the parties to a family dispute. sovereignty of Indian state lies with the
Which of the above given statements are people of India.
correct? b) The sovereign power of an independent
a) 1 and2 only nation lies with the Union legislature.
b) 2 and 3 only c) The recognition of Judiciary as the
c) 1 and 3 only principal protector of the Constitution of
d) 1, 2 and 3 India.
d) The supreme power and authority are
Q.13) With reference to the ideals enshrined in balanced between the Legislature and the
Preamble of the Indian Constitution, consider Judiciary.
the following statements:
1. The ideal of Justice is inspired from Russian Q.17) A child is born outside India to parents
Revolution. who have Indian citizenship. Currently, that
2. The ideal of liberty is inspired from French child's age is less than one year, and she does
Revolution. not hold the passport of any other country.
3. The ideal of Equality is inspired from In the above given context, which of the
American Constitution. following would be the most preferred way for
Which of the above given statements is/are that child’s parents to provide her Indian
correct? Citizenship?
a) 2 only a) Citizenship by Birth
b) 1 and 2 only b) Citizenship by Descent
c) 1 and 3 only c) Citizenship by Registration
d) 1,2 and 3 d) Citizenship by Naturalisation

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[4]
 PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.18) Consider the following situations with 5. Judicial supremacy

respect to Indian citizens: How many of the above are recognized as part
1. A citizen showing the disloyalty to the of the Basic Structure of the Indian
Constitution of India. Constitution in various pronouncements of
2. A citizen voluntarily acquiring the Supreme Court judgements?
citizenship of another country except a) Only two
during a war in which India is engaged. b) Only three
3. A citizen has, within five years after c) Only four
registration or naturalization, been d) All five
imprisoned in any country for two years or
more. Q.22) Consider the following statements
In how many of the above-mentioned regarding All India Services:
situations does a person lose Indian 1. The All-India Services is exclusively
citizenship through termination? governed by rules formulated by the
a) Only one Central Government.
b) Only two 2. The authority to take disciplinary action
c) All three regarding the conduct of officers of the All-
d) None India Services is vested in both the Central
and the State Government.
Q.19) Adequate knowledge of a language Which of the statements given above is/are
mentioned in the Eighth Schedule of the correct?
Constitution of India is one of the criterions a) 1 only
for acquisition of citizenship: b) 2 only
a) by Registration c) Both 1 and 2
b) by Naturalization d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) by Birth
d) by Incorporation of Territory Q.23) Consider the following features of the
Constitution of India:
Q.20) Which of the following is the most likely 1. Single Constitution
consequence if a person is declared as a 2. Independent Judiciary
designated terrorist under the Unlawful 3. Bicameral Legislature at the Centre
Activities (Prevention) Amendment Act, 2019? 4. Emergency Provisions
a) The person’s assets are automatically 5. Written Constitution
frozen by the government. How many of the above features of the Indian
b) The person loses their Indian citizenship Constitution reflect the federal form of
automatically. government in India?
c) The person could be detained for a a) Only two
maximum of 180 days without the b) Only three
possibility of bail. c) Only four
d) The person could only revoke such d) All five
designation through judicial means.

Q.21) With reference to Indian polity, consider

the following features:
1. Secular character of the Indian State
2. Idea of Welfare State
3. Parliamentary system
4. Effective access to justice

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[5]
 PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.24) In the context of Indian polity, consider Q.27) According to the Constitution of India,
the following statements: who among the following appoints an
1. All the States of India are allocated equal arbitrator in the event of a dispute concerning
number of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the additional costs incurred by a state in
ensure equality among states. complying with the Union's directions for the
2. The authority to amend the Constitution of protection of railways in that state.?
India is exclusively vested in the a) President of India
Parliament, with no such power granted to b) Governor of the state concerned
the State Legislatures. c) Chief Justice of High Court of the state
3. Power with respect to making laws on concerned
residuary subjects lies with Parliament. d) Chief Justice of India
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct? Q.28) Consider the following statements:
a) 2 only According to the Constitution of India, the
b) 1 and 2 only Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC):
c) 2 and 3 only 1. can be established by an order of the
d) 1, 2 and 3 President of India for two or more states on
the request of the state legislatures
Q.25) The term ‘Acceptance of Necessity” concerned.
(AON)’ is sometimes seen in the news with 2. presents its report, as to the work done by
reference to the Commission in relation to that State, to
a) Procurement of defence equipment. Governers of each of the states concerned.
b) Import of equipment required for Which of the statements given above is/are
establishing solar power plants in India. correct?
c) Export of packaged food items to other a) 1 only
countries from India. b) 2 only
d) Allowing foreign educational institutions to c) Both 1 and 2
set up their campuses in India. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.26) The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act Q.29) Consider the following statements
of 1976 transferred few subjects to Concurrent regarding State Election Commission:
List from State List under the Seventh 1. The State Election Commissioner is
Schedule of Constitution of India. In this appointed and can be removed by the
context, consider the following subjects: Governor of the state.
1. Education 2. The conditions of service and tenure of
2. Forest office of the State Election Commissioner
3. Registration of births and deaths are determined by the Governor of the
4. Weights and measures State, subject to any laws enacted by the
5. Labour disputes State Legislature.
How many of the above subjects were 3. The State Election Commission makes
transferred from State list to Concurrent list provisions regarding all the matters
under the Seventh Schedule of Constitution of relating to elections to the panchayats in
India by 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act the respective state.
of 1976? Which of the statements given above is/are
a) Only two correct?
b) Only three a) 1 only
c) Only four b) 2 only
d) All five c) 3 only
d) None

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[6]
 PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.30) India is an important member of the 'the 4. The property and income of local
Square Kilometre Array (SKA) project'. Which authorities situated within a state are
one of the following is the primary purpose of exempted from Central taxation.
this project? Which of the statements given above is/are
a) To detect the effectiveness of missile correct?
defence systems. a) 1 only
b) To explore and understand the origin and b) 1 and 3 only
evolution of the Universe c) 2 and 4 only
c) To precisely detect gravitational waves by d) 1, 3 and 4 only
employing trilateral Space based
telescopes. Q.33) Consider the following statements:
d) To harness energy from nuclear fusion 1. Full faith and credit shall be given
reactions. throughout the territory of India to public
acts, records and judicial proceedings of
Q.31) Consider the following statements the Union and of every State.
regarding the bills introduced in the Indian 2. Final judgments or orders delivered or
Parliament: passed by civil courts in any part of the
1. A bill which imposes or varies any tax or territory of India shall be capable of
duty in which states are interested. execution anywhere within that territory
2. A bill which varies the meaning of the according to law.
expression ‘agricultural income’ as defined Which of the above statements is/are correct?
for the purposes of the enactments relating a) 1 Only
to Indian income tax. b) 2 Only
3. A bill which affects the principles on which c) Both 1 and 2
money is or may be distributable to the d) Neither 1 nor 2
States.
4. A bill that imposes any surcharge for Q.34) Consider the following statements
purposes of the Union government. regarding the formation of new states in India:
How many of the above bills can be introduced 1. A bill seeking to form a new state by
in the Parliament only on the recommendation separation of territory from any state in
of the President of India? India cannot be introduced in Parliament
a) Only one except on the recommendation of the
b) Only two President of India.
c) Only three 2. A bill seeking to form a new state by
d) All four separation of territory from any state in
India shall be referred the to the state
Q.32) Consider the following statements legislature concerned by the President of
regarding tax immunities in India after the India.
commencement of the Constitution of India: 3. The President is bound by the
1. The property of the Centre in a state is recommendation made by the concerned
exempted from all taxes imposed by a state state legislature regarding the bill seeking
or any authority within that state. to form a new state by separation of
2. Corporations or companies created by the territory from that state of India.
Central government are immune from state How many of the statements give above are
or local taxation. correct?
3. The property and income of a state a) Only one
including all incomes from the trade and b) Only two
business done by or on behalf of states are c) All three
exempted from Central taxation. d) None

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[7]
 PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.35) Which of the following recovery types Q.38) Consider the following statements:
best represents the scenario where certain Statement-I: The state is empowered to make
segments of the economy rebound from a special provisions regarding the admission of
recession while others continue to decline? socially and educationally backward classes of
a) V-shaped recovery citizens in any educational institutes in the
b) K-shaped recovery country.
c) U-shaped recovery Statement-II: Article 15 of the Constitution of
d) W-shaped recovery India prohibits the state from discriminating
among citizens on grounds only of religion,
Q.36) Consider the following statements: race, caste, sex or place of birth.
Statement I: The Indian government can cede Which one of the following is correct in
its territory to a foreign State only through a respect of the above statements?
process of Constitutional amendment. a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Statement II: The power of Parliament to correct and Statement-II is the correct
diminish the area of a state under Article 3 of explanation of Statement-I
the Constitution does not cover the cession of b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Indian Territory. correct and Statement-II is not the correct
Which one of the following is correct in explanation of Statement-I
respect of the above statements? c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
correct, and Statement II explains d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
Statement I. correct
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct, but Statement II does not explain Q.39) The Fundamental Rights enshrined in the
Statement I. Indian Constitution are:
c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is 1. Sacrosanct in nature.
incorrect. 2. Justiciable in a court of law.
d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is 3. Not absolute but qualified.
correct. How many of the above given statements are
correct?
Q.37) Consider the following statements: a) Only one
Statement I: No criminal proceedings can be b) Only two
instituted against the President of India or the c) All three
Governor of a state during his/her term of d) None
office.
Statement II: The principle of "Equality before Q.40) Consider the following statements
the law" as outlined in Part III of the regarding the Wetland City Accreditation
Constitution of India is subject to (WCA) scheme under the Ramsar Convention
constitutional exceptions and limitations. on Wetlands:
Which one of the following is correct in 1. It is voluntary for nations to join this
respect of the above statements? scheme.
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are 2. Cities recognized under the scheme are
correct, and Statement II explains eligible for financial assistance from the
Statement I. Ramsar Small Grants Fund (SGF).
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are 3. Currently, no city from India is part of this
correct, but Statement II does not explain scheme.
Statement I. How many of the statements given above are
c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is correct?
incorrect. a) Only one
d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is b) Only two
correct. c) All three
d) None

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[8]
 PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.41) Consider the following aspects of rule of In which of the above rows is the given
law – information correctly matched?
1. Absence of arbitrary power of state, a) Only one
meaning that no person shall be punished b) Only two
except for a violation of law. c) Only three
2. Equality before the law, meaning that all d) All four
citizens are subject to the ordinary law of
the land, as administered by ordinary Q.44) In India, the right to conserve distinct
courts of law. language, script, or culture is a fundamental
3. Primacy of rights of the individual, meaning right available to:
the constitution is the result of rights of a) socially and educationally backward classes
individuals, defined and enforced by court in India
of law rather than the Constitution being b) Religious and linguistic minorities in India
the source of individual rights. c) Any section of citizens of India
Which of the above aspects of rule of law are d) Any person residing in India
applicable to the Indian political system?
a) 2 only Q.45) With reference to the United Nation's
b) 1 and 2 only Genocide Convention, consider the following
c) 1 and 3 only statements:
d) 1, 2 and 3 only 1. It was the first human rights treaty adopted
by the United Nations General Assembly.
Q.42) Prohibition of employment of children 2. It obligates member nations to enact
under the age of 14 years in any hazardous appropriate legislation to give effect to its
place of work is categorized as which of the provisions.
following types of rights in India? 3. It grants International Criminal Court (ICC)
a) Fundamental Right the power to prosecute individuals for
b) Legal Right genocide in non-member states.
c) Constitutional Right Which of the statements given above are
d) Natural Right correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
Q.43) Consider the following information: b) 2 and 3 only
Article of Category Matter Listed c) 1 and 3 only
the of d) 1, 2 and 3
Constituti Fundame
on of India ntal Q.46) In India, both the Supreme Court and
Rights High Courts have the power to issue writs for
1. Article Right to Equality of the enforcement of Fundamental Rights of
15 Equality opportunity in citizens. If subordinate courts of India were to
matters of public be given this power to issue writs for the
employment enforcement of fundamental rights, then it can
2. Article Right to Protection be done by-
20 Freedom against arrest a) An order of the President of India
and detention in b) An order by the Chief Justice of India with
certain cases prior consent of the President of India
3. Article Right Prohibition of c) The Parliament of India by a simple
23 against traffic in human legislation
Exploitati beings and d) The Parliament of India by a process of
on forced labor. Constitutional Amendment.
4. Article Right to Protection in
22 freedom respect of
of conviction for
Religion offenses

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[9]
 PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.47) Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are
Statement I: The Constitution of India correct?
empowers the President of India to modify, a) 1 only
restrict or abrogate the application of b) 2 only
fundamental rights of members of the Armed c) Both 1 and 2
Forces. d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement II: Members of the Armed Forces
are expected to maintain a sense of discipline Q.50) The term "digital sovereignty" often seen
and uphold high standards in the effective in the news, most closely refers to?
discharge of their duties. a) Utilization of digital technologies by all
Which one of the following is correct in citizens, including the most disadvantaged.
respect of the above statements? b) Freedom to access the internet by citizens
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are with minimal restriction from the
correct, and Statement II is the correct government.
explanation of Statement I. c) Control of a nation's data infrastructure
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are and online platforms by domestic entities.
correct, but Statement II is not the correct d) The increasing impact that tech giants have
explanation of Statement I. on shaping the political landscape of a
c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is specific nation.
incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is Q.51) For appointment of an Indian citizen as a
correct. judge of the Supreme Court, he/she should
fulfil any one of three criteria given in article
Q.48) Consider the following statements 124 of the Constitution. In this context
regarding Martial Law and National consider the following criterion-
Emergency in India: 1. He/she has been a judge of the High Court
1. Both Martial Law and National Emergency for at least ten years.
affect the fundamental rights of citizens in 2. He/she has been an advocate for the High
that territory of India. Court for at least fifteen years.
2. Martial Law may suspend the functioning 3. He/she is a distinguished jurist in the
of ordinary law courts, while it is not the opinion of the President of India.
case during National Emergency. How many of the above given criterion are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct for an Indian citizen to be appointed
correct? as a judge of Supreme Court?
a) 1 only a) Only one
b) 2 only b) Only two
c) Both 1 and 2 c) All three
d) Neither 1 nor 2 d) None

Q.49) Consider the following statements

regarding the right to property in India:
1. At present, the right to property in India is
available against executive action but not
against legislative action.
2. In case of violation of this right, a writ
petition can be directly filed in Supreme
Court of India by the aggrieved person for
enforcement of his/ her right to property.

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[10]
 PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.52) With reference to Supreme Court of How many of the statements given above are
India, consider the following statements: correct?
Statement I: The judgements, proceedings and a) Only one
acts of the supreme court can be admitted b) Only two
being of evidentiary value before any court in c) All three
India. d) None
Statement II: Supreme Court of India is a
Court of Record. Q.55) Consider the following pairs:
Which one of the following is correct in Regions sometimes Country
respect of the above statements? mentioned in the
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are news
correct, and Statement II is the correct 1. Sanaa Iran
explanation for Statement I. 2. Kerman Yemen
b) Both Statement I and Statement-II are 3. Haifa Israel
correct, and Statement II is not the correct How many of the pairs given above are
explanation for Statement I. correctly matched?
c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is a) Only one
incorrect. b) Only two
d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is c) All three
correct. d) None

Q.53) Consider the following grounds of Q.56) In which of the following given cases
Contempt of Court in India: does the Supreme Court have Original and
1. Wilful disobedience of any judgement of Exclusive jurisdiction?
the court. a) A writ petition filed by the aggrieved citizen
2. Scandalising the authority of court. when his fundamental rights are violated.
3. Prejudicing with the due course of a judicial b) A dispute arising from a treaty, or an
proceedings. agreement enforced in India prior to the
4. Interfering with the administration of commencement of the Constitution.
justice in any manner. c) A case dealing with the Inter-state river
How many of the above given grounds are water dispute among Indian states.
categorized as criminal contempt under the d) A legal dispute between two Indian states
Contempt of Courts Act, 1971? concerning a question of law.
a) Only one
b) Only two Q.57) Consider the following statements with
c) Only three respect to a judge of the Supreme Court:
d) All four 1. The Constitution of India gives a detailed
procedure for removal of a judge of the
Q.54) With reference to the Power of Judicial Supreme Court.
review of Indian Judiciary, consider the 2. The Speaker of Lok Sabha must admit the
following motion moved in the House for the removal
statements: of a judge of the Supreme Court.
1. The term ‘Judicial review’ is mentioned and Which of the statements given above is/are
defined in the Constitution of India. correct?
2. The power of judicial review is available a) Only 1
against action of both executive and b) Only 2
legislature in India. c) Both 1 and 2
3. The scope of judicial review in India is d) Neither 1 nor 2
wider than that of what exists in United
States of America.

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[11]
 PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.58) With reference to the advisory developmental

jurisdiction of the Supreme Court on matters purposes to fulfil
arising out of any pre-constitutional treaty or their basic
agreement, consider the following statements: infrastructural
1. In such a case, the Supreme Court must needs.
tender its opinion to the President. 3. All land Right to Fair
2. The opinion expressed by the Supreme acquisitions Compensation and
Court in such a case is binding on the require the Transparency in Land
President. consent of at Acquisition,
Which of the statements given above is/are least 80% of theRehabilitation and
correct? people affected.Resettlement Act 2013
a) Only 1 (LARR Act)
b) Only 2 How many of the pairs given above are
c) Both 1 and 2 correctly matched?
d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) Only one
b) Only two
Q.59) Consider the following statements about c) All three
the National Commission for Minority d) None
Educational Institutions (NCMEI):
1. The Commission decides on all questions Q.61) Consider the following statements about
relating to the status of any institution as a the Inter-State Water Dispute Tribunals:
minority educational institution (MEI). 1. The decisions of the tribunal are final and
2. The Commission has the power to cancel binding on the parties to the dispute.
the minority status of an educational 2. Currently, there are six inter-state water
institution, as per the grounds mentioned dispute tribunal functional in India.
in the National Commission for Minority Which of the statements given above is/are
Educational Institutions Act, 2004. correct?
3. Any order made by the Commission cannot a) Only 1
be challenged in any court in India. b) Only 2
Which of the statements given above are c) Both 1 and 2
correct? d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only Q.62) Consider the following statements:
c) 2 and 3 only Statement-I: Office of the Governor of a State
d) 1, 2 and 3 is an employment under the Central
Government.
Q.60) With reference to India, consider the Statement-II: Governor of a State is appointed
following pairs: by the President of India.
Action The Act under which Which one of the following is correct in
it is covered respect of the above statements?
1. Land could not The Wildlife a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
be converted for (Protection) Act correct and Statement-II is the correct
non-forest (WLPA), 1972 explanation for Statement-I.
purposes once it b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
was notified as correct and Statement-II is not the correct
Critical Wildlife explanation for Statement-I.
Habitat (CWH). c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
2. Recognizes the Forest Rights Act incorrect.
right of the (FRA), 2006 d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
community to correct.
allocate forest
land for

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[12]
 PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.63) Consider the following statements: c) All three

Statement I: Usage of "Bharat Ratna" as a d) None
suffix or prefix to the name of the awardee is
permitted in India. Q.66) Consider the following statements
Statement II: Bharat Ratna is not considered a regarding the judgement of S.R. Bommai case
‘title’ under the provisions of Article 18 of the (1994):
Constitution of India. 1. The presidential proclamation imposing
Which one of the following is correct in President’s Rule in a state is subject to
respect of the above statements? judicial review.
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are 2. The Supreme Court can restore a state
correct, and Statement II explains government dismissed by presidential
Statement I. proclamation if it holds the said
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are proclamation to be unconstitutional.
correct, but Statement II does not explain Which of the statements given above is/are
Statement I. correct?
c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is a) 1 only
incorrect. b) 2 only
d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is c) Both 1 and 2
correct. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.64) Consider the following famous cases in Q.67) The constitutional amendment which
Supreme Court of India: made the Right to Property a mere legal right
1. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras was passed during the Prime Ministership of:
2. Mohini Jain v. State of Karnataka a) Jawaharlal Nehru
3. M.C. Mehta v. State of Tamil Nadu b) Indira Gandhi
4. Unnikrishnan v. State of Andhra Pradesh c) Morarji Desai
Which of the above cases of the Supreme d) Rajiv Gandhi
Court of India have a direct bearing on the
right to education in India? Q.68) The provision for providing education to
a) 1, 2, and 3 children below the age of 6 years is mentioned
b) 2, 3, and 4 in Constitution of India under which of the
c) 1, 3, and 4 following?
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
Q.65) With reference to the biopesticide 3. Directive Principles of State Policy
‘Tricholime’, recently seen in news, consider Select the correct answer using the code given
the following statements: below:
1. It has the genes of a soil bacterium that can a) 1 only
kill the specific virus and fungi that can b) 1 and 2 only
affect the plants. c) 3 only
2. It promotes the growth of plants by d) 2 and 3 only
neutralizing the soil acidity.
3. It has been developed by the Indian
Institute of Spices Research (IISR).
How many of the statements given above are
correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[13]
 PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.69) Consider the following statements: Q.72) The feature of "Indian federation with a
Statement I: The Constituent Assembly of strong Centre" in the Indian Constitution is
India had representation from various sections borrowed from the-
of Indian society. a) Constitution of United States of America.
Statement II: The members of the Constituent b) Canadian Constitution.
Assembly were directly elected based on c) Australian Constitution.
universal adult franchise. d) Government of India Act, 1935.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements? Q.73) With reference to North-Eastern
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Council, consider the following statements:
correct and Statement-II explains 1. It consists of seven states of India.
Statement-I 2. It reviews the measures taken by the
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are member states for maintenance of security
correct, but Statement-II does not explain and public order in the region.
Statement-I 3. It is chaired by the Minister of
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is Development of the Northeastern Region.
incorrect How many of the statements given above are
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II correct?
is correct a) Only one
b) Only two
Q.70) With reference to ‘Direct-to-cell satellite c) All three
technology’, consider the following d) None
statements:
1. While it enables direct transfer of data Q.74) Which of the following statements best
from satellite to mobile phones, it cannot reflects the understanding of judicial
directly transmit voice data. restraint?
2. It is completely immune to cyber threats as a) It requires the judges to always defer the
it does not require any ground-based decisions of the political branches of
infrastructure for government.
communication purposes. b) It encourages judges to limit their own
Which of the statements given above is/are authority to interfere with the decisions of
correct? the other branches of government.
a) 1 only c) It allows judges to engage in judicial
b) 2 only activism when they deem it necessary to
c) Both 1 and 2 protect individual rights.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 d) It is a rigid and inflexible approach that
limits the judiciary's ability to interpret and
Q.71) The Constituent Assembly of India had apply the law.
two separate functions i.e. making a
constitution for free India and enacting
ordinary law for the country. Whenever the
assembly met as a constituent body, it was
chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad. Who among
the following personalities chaired the
Assembly when it met as a legislative body?
a) Dr. Sacchidananda Sinha
b) G.V. Mavlankar
c) H.C. Mukherjee
d) V.T. Krishnamachari
Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[14]
 PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.75) With reference to the National Clean Air Q.78) With reference to Indian polity, consider
Programme (NCAP), consider the following the following statements:
statements: Statement I: The principle of “Separation of
1. It aims to achieve a 40% reduction in Power” is strictly followed between Executive
atmospheric particulate matter 10 (PM 10) and Judiciary in India.
concentrations by the year 2026 keeping Statement II: Directive Principles of State
2017 as the base year. Policy direct the state to take steps to separate
2. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) the judiciary from the executive in the public
is responsible for identifying cities to be services of the State.
included under this programme. Which one of the following is correct in
3. The funding for implementation of this respect of the above statements?
programme can be utilized through various a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
schemes of the Central Government such correct and Statement-II explains
as Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban). Statement-I
How many of the statements given above are b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct? correct, but Statement-II does not explain
a) Only one Statement-I
b) Only two c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
c) All three incorrect
d) None d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II
is correct
Q.76) What is the correct chronological
sequence of the below mentioned Q.79) One of the fundamental duties under
programmes launched by the Government of Part IVA of the Constitution is to respect the
India? National Flag of India. In this context, consider
1. Integrated Rural Development Programme the following statements:
2. Minimum Needs Programme 1. The design of the National Flag was
3. Drought Prone Area Programme adopted by the Constituent Assembly of
Select the correct code given below: India on 22 July 1947.
a) 1-2-3 2. The ratio of width(height) of the National
b) 3-2-1 flag to its length is 2:3.
c) 3-1-2 Which of the statements given above are
d) 2-3-1 correct?
a) 1 only
Q.77) Consider the following statements b) 2 only
regarding Part IV of the Constitution of India: c) Both 1 and 2
1. Article 38 of the constitution of India d) Neither 1 nor 2
directs State to secure a social order for
the promotion of welfare of the people. Q.80) Which one of the following pairs of
2. Article 42 of the constitution contains a islands is separated from each other by the
provision for just and humane conditions of 'Eight Degree Channel'?
work and maternity relief. a) Andaman and Nicobar
Which of the statements given above is/are b) Nicobar and Sumatra
correct? c) Maldives and Lakshadweep
a) 1 only d) Sumatra and Java
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[15]
 PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.81) With reference to the First Information c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
Report (FIR), consider the following incorrect
statements: d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II
1. The term ‘First Information Report’ is is correct
defined in the Code of Criminal Procedure,
1973. Q.84) With reference to Judiciary in India,
2. A police station can register a ‘Zero FIR’ consider the following statements:
even if the offence was committed outside Statement I: In the fourth Judges case,
its jurisdiction. Supreme Court of India declared ninety-
3. Only a person, who is either the victim of nineth (99th)
the offence or an eyewitness to the offence, Constitutional Amendment Act of 2014 as
can file the FIR. unconstitutional and void.
How many of the statements given above are Statement II: Independence of Judiciary is the
correct? part of Basic Structure of the Constitution of
a) Only one India.
b) Only two Which one of the following is correct in
c) All three respect of the above statements?
d) None a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II explains
Q.82) Which of the provisions given below is Statement-I
enumerated in the Fundamental Duties under b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Part IV A of the Indian Constitution? correct, but Statement-II does not explain
a) To actively participate in the democratic Statement-I
process by voting in elections. c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
b) To contribute to the nation's development incorrect
by paying taxes as determined by the d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II
government. is correct
c) To protect public property and refrain from
violence. Q.85) A recent study claimed that lead
d) To adopt family planning measures for exposure caused millions to lose health across
population control. the world and removing it from petrol was a
global achievement. In this context, consider
Q.83) With reference to High Court in states, the following statements regarding lead
consider the following statements: pollution:
Statement I: The states of Punjab and Haryana 1. Babesiosis is a disease that occurs mainly
have a common High Court. among children due to their high exposure
Statement II: Article 214 of the Indian to lead poisoning.
Constitution states that, “There shall be a High 2. Pregnant women exposed to lead poisoning
Court for each State”. transmit the same to their developing
Which one of the following is correct in foetuses.
respect of the above statements? Which of the statements given above is/are
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct?
correct and Statement-II explains a) 1 only
Statement-I b) 2 only
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are c) Both 1 and 2
correct, but Statement-II does not explain d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement-I

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[16]
 PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.86) With reference to High Courts in India, Q.89) With reference to Indian Councils Act of
consider the following statements: 1861 enacted under the British rule in India,
1. Constitution of India does not provide for a consider the following statements:
minimum age for appointment as a judge of 1. It gave formal recognition to the portfolio
a High Court. system which was introduced by Viceroy
2. One of the qualifications for appointment Canning.
as a High Court judge is "being a 2. It established a 15-member Council of India
distinguished jurist in the opinion of the to assist the Secretary of State for India.
President of India". 3. It provided for the first time that the
3. Salaries and Allowances of the High Court Viceroy can nominate some Indians as non-
Judges are charged upon the Consolidated official members to his legislative council.
Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct? a) 2 only
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 2 only c) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1,2 and 3
d) 3 only
Q.90) Which one of the following best
Q.87) The Fundamental Rights enshrined in describes the meaning of the term ‘Inverted
Part III of the Indian Constitution act as a Duty Structure’ recently seen in sews?
safeguard against the arbitrary use of power a) It is a duty structure where inputs are
by the state. In this context, the Fundamental taxed at higher rates than finished
Rights in India are available against which of products.
the following? b) It is a duty structure which allows
1. Arbitrary action of the executive. producers to offset the taxes paid on
2. Arbitrary laws by the legislature. inputs.
3. Arbitrary jurisprudence of the Judiciary. c) It is a duty structure wherein taxes are
Select the correct answer using the code given waived on exports but not on imported
below: goods.
a) 2 only d) It involves imposition of higher import
b) 1 and 2 only duties primarily to discourage imports for
c) 1 and 3 only safeguarding domestic industries.
d) 1, 2, and 3
Q.91) In the context of the Indian federal
Q.88) Consider the following statements: system, the term "Dual polity" best refers to
1. All cases of death sentence awarded by a which of the following?
session court must be approved by the a) The division of powers between Union and
High Court of the state before it is States
executed. b) The separation of jurisdictions of Judiciary
2. The appellate jurisdiction of High Courts in and Executive
India has provision for intra-court appeal c) The existence of Central and State
within that High Court involving pleading Governments
before a higher bench. d) The Governor's role as the state's
Which of the statements given above is/are Constitutional head and Centre's
correct? representative.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[17]
 PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.92) Part IV of Indian Constitution puts an 3. Doctrine It states that only the
obligation on state to secure a decent of provisions of a law which are
standard of life for all workers. In this context, Colourable inconsistent with the
consider the following statements: Legislation fundamental rights shall be
1. Living wage represents the lowest amount void and not the whole law.
of remuneration required by law to be paid 4. Doctrine of It means when a legislature
by employers to employees for work Severabilit does not have the power to
performed during a given period. y make laws on a particular
2. Minimum wage includes the bare needs of subject directly, it cannot
life like food, shelter, clothing, education make laws on it indirectly.
for children and health insurance. How many of the above given pairs are
3. Fair wage is the wage that's higher than the correctly matched?
minimum wage but lower than the living a) Only one
wage. b) Only two
Which of the statements given above is/are c) Only three
correct? d) All four
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only Q.95) With reference to nuclear fuel ANEEL
c) 2 and 3 only (Advanced Nuclear Energy for Enriched Life),
d) 3 only consider the following statements:
1. It uses the combination of radioactive
Q.93) Consider the following regarding Part materials such as Thorium and Uranium to
IVA of the Constitution of India: produce electrical energy.
1. It was added to the Constitution of India 2. It can be operated efficiently in the existing
during the operation of the internal Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors
emergency (1975-77). (PHWRs) in India.
2. This part of the constitution has been 3. It burns more efficiently and produces less
amended only once since its addition to the amount of nuclear waste compared to
Constitution. conventional nuclear fuels.
3. Like Fundamental Rights, all the duties Which of the statements given above is/are
mentioned in this part apply to both correct?
citizens and foreigners. a) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above are b) 2 and 3 only
correct? c) 3 only
a) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only Q.96) Consider the following statements
d) 1, 2 and 3 regarding the elections to the Constituent
Assembly of India in 1946:
Q.94) Consider the following pairs: 1. Communist Party of India did not win any
Judicial Description seats in the elections to the Constituent
Doctrine Assembly of India in 1946.
1. Doctrine of It states that the power to 2. Muslim League won the second largest
Eclipse legislate on a topic of number of seats after Indian National
legislation carries with it the Congress in the elections to the
power to legislate on an Constituent Assembly.
ancillary matter. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Doctrine of It determines whether a correct?
Pith and specific law related to a a) 1 only
Substance particular subject falls within b) 2 only
the legitimate power of a c) Both 1 and 2
legislature. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[18]
 PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211201 |

Q.97) With reference to ‘State Administrative Q.100) With reference to the

Tribunals’ (SATs), consider the following Telecommunication Act 2023 in India,
statements: consider the following statements:
1. SATs are established by the state 1. As per the act prior authorisation from the
government through law passed in the Central government is mandatory for
respective state legislature. service providers to expand their
2. They exercise original jurisdiction in telecommunications networks.
relation to recruitment and all service 2. The act mandates assignment of telecom
matters of state government employees spectrum through auction for all purposes
3. The chairman and members of the SATs are including Weather forecasting.
appointed by the Governor after 3. Messages between two or more persons
consultation with the High Court of the can be blocked by the Central government
state concerned. to prevent incitement of offenses.
How many of the above given statements are Which of the statements given above are
correct? correct?
a) Only one a) 1 and 2 only
b) Only two b) 1 and 3 only
c) All three c) 2 and 3 only
d) None d) 1,2 and 3

Q.98) With reference to the Bar Council of

India, consider the following statements:
1. It is a statutory body established by
Parliament under the Advocates Act, 1961.
2. It exercises disciplinary jurisdiction over
both judges and lawyers in India.
3. It grants recognition to law universities in
India.
How many of the above given statements are
correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Q.99) With reference to the Fundamental Right

to Freedom of Assembly, consider the
following statements:
1. The Constitution guarantees the right to
assemble peacefully and without arms.
2. The Right to Strike is an intrinsic part of
this fundamental right.
3. Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on
this right on the grounds of sovereignty
and integrity of the country.
Which of the above given statements are
correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[19]