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Maximum Marks: 80 Time Allowed: 3 hours
General Instructions:
1. The question paper consists of five sections (A, B, C, D and E) with 30 questions in total.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.
4. Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50-60 words each.
5. Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100-120 words each.
There is an internal choice in two of the 4 marks questions
6. Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
7. Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170-180 words.
8. There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

Multiple
Chapter Assertion MCQ - MCQ - Map Choice Picture Subjective
Name - & Reason Matching Sequence Question Question Question Question Total

B-1 - - - 1 (1) - - - 1 (4) 2 (5)

International
Organizations

B-2 Politics of - - - - - 2 (1) - - 2 (2)

Planned
Development

B-2 Era of - - - - - 1 (1) - 1 (2) 2 (3)

One-party
Dominance

B-1 - - 1 (1) - - - - - 1 (1)

Globalisation

B-2 - 1 (1) - - - - - - 1 (1)

Challenges of
Nation-
Building

B-2 India’s - - - - - 2 (1) - 1 (2) 3 (4)

External
Relations

B-2 - - - - - 1 (1) - 1 (2) 2 (3)

Challenges
and
Restoration of
the Congress
System

B-1 The End of - 1 (1) - - - - - - 1 (1)

Bipolarity

B-2 Regional - - - - - 1 (1) - 1 (4) 2 (5)

aspirations

B-1 - - - - - 1 (1) 1 (4) - 2 (5)

Contemporary
South Asia

B-1 Security in - - - - - - - 1 (2) 2 (6)

Contemporary
1 (4)
World

B-2 Recent - - - - - - - 1 (2) 1 (2)

Developments
in Indian
Politics

B-1 - - - - - - - 1 (2) 1 (2)

Environment
and Natural
Resources

Overall Map - - - - 1 (4) - - - 1 (4)

Questions

(4 Grouped 1 - - - - - - - 1 (4)
Questions) (4)
B-2
Challenges of
Nation-
Building

(12 Internal - - - - - - - 1 (6) 1 (6)

Choice)
B-1
Environment
and Natural
Resources
B-1
Environment
and Natural
Resources
B-1
Globalisation
B-1
Globalisation
B-1 The End of
Bipolarity
B-1 The End of
Bipolarity
B-1
Contemporary
Centres of
Power
B-1
Contemporary
Centres of
Power
B-2 Recent
Developments
in Indian
Politics
B-2 Recent
Developments
in Indian
Politics
B-2 The Crisis
of Democratic
Order
B-2 The Crisis
of Democratic
Order

Total 1 2 (2) 1 (1) 1 (1) 1 (4) 8 (8) 1 (4) 10 (30) 30

(4) (80)
 Series ARSP/01 Set ~ 1
Roll No. Q.P Code 15/1/1
Candidates must write the Q.P Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

 Please check that this question paper contains 05 printed pages.

 Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
 Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
 Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-book
before attempting it.
 15 Minute times has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10:15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m to 10.30 a.m, the students
will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer –
book during this period.

POLITICAL SCIENCE

Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. The question paper consists of five sections (A, B, C, D and E) with 30 questions in total.

2. All questions are compulsory.

3. Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.

4. Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50-60 words each.

5. Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100-120 words each.

There is an internal choice in two of the 4 marks questions

6. Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
7. Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170-180 words.

8. There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

SECTION – A (12 MARKS)

1. Arrange the following in chronological order- [1]
i. Kofi A. Annan established the Peacebuilding Commission and the Human Rights Council.
ii. The UN was established immediately after the Second World War.
iii. Dag Hammarskjöld awarded Nobel Peace Prize posthumously for his efforts to settle the Congo crisis
iv. Ban Ki-moon, UN Secretary-General, launches UN @ 70 to celebrate the 70th Anniversary in New Delhi

a) ii, iii, i, iv b) iv, iii, ii, i

c) i, iv, iii, ii d) iv, ii, i, iii

2. In which city the Congress session declared that the socialist pattern of society was its goal? [1]

a) Avadi b) Kolkata

c) Champaran d) Madurai
3. The first Chief Election Commissioner of India was ________. [1]

a) Sukumar Sen b) S.L. Shakdhar

c) R.R. Trivedi d) K.V.K. Sundaram

4. The main objective of the first Five-year plan was [1]

a) Industrial development b) Growth with social justice

c) Agricultural growth d) Transport and Communication

5. Match List I with List II regarding resistance to globalization in India by different quarters. [1]
 List-1 List-2

(a) Left wing (i) cultural influences

(b) Trade unions (ii) Patents on Indian herbs

(c) Right Wing (iii) economic liberalization

(d) Industry (iv) entry of multinationals

a) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) b) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

c) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

6. Assertion (A): The partition of India was the outcome of the two-nation theory. [1]
Reason (R): Punjab and Bengal were the two provinces divided on the basis of religion.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

7. The Architect of Non-alignment is: [1]

a) Atal Bihari Vajpayee b) Pt. Nehru

c) Indira Gandhi d) Y.B. Chavan

8. Which of the following leader was the deputy prime minister of India in the Vajpayee's government? [1]

a) Lal Krishna Advani b) Murali Manohar Joshi

c) Arun Jaitley d) Sushma Swaraj

9. What is Non-Alignment? [1]

a) Not joining any blocs but supporting on the b) None of the above
basis of logic or justice

c) Both (a) and (b) d) Not participating in any war

10. Assertion (A): USSR came into being after 1917 Revolution. [1]
Reason (R): It was inspired by socialism and opposed capitalism.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

11. Which of the following was not the demands of the Assam movement led by AASU in 1979? [1]

a) Use of natural resources for their benefits b) Send back illegal migrants

c) Secessionist demands d) Balanced economic development

12. Which of the following country is a South Asian country? [1]

a) Pakistan b) China

c) USA d) Japan
SECTION- B (12 MARKS)
13. Analyse any one reason for considering NPT of 1968 as an arms control treaty. [2]
14. Write a short note on BAMCEF. [2]
15. What is Resource Geopolitics? [2]
16. Analyse any two events from 1970 to 1972 that made Indira Gandhi a strong nationalist leader. [2]
17. Highlight the contribution made by Nehru to the foreign policy of India. [2]
18. When were the first general elections expected in India? Why was it delayed? [2]
SECTION-C (20 MARKS)
19. What are the differences in the threats that people in the Third World face and those living in the First World [4]
face?
20. Describe the main objectives for which the United Nations stand. How far they have been realized? [4]
21. Write a short note on the indigenous people in India. [4]
OR
Describe any four issues relating to environmental degradation.
22. Explain any two arguments given by the advocates of political globalization. [4]
OR
“Globalisation has shifted power from nation states to global consumers.” Justify the statement.
23. Describe the role played by insurgency and separatism in aggravating the political crisis in Kashmir. [4]
SECTION-D (12 MARKS)
24. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
A few days before Independence, the Maharaja of Manipur, Bodhachandra Singh, signed the Instrument of
Accession with the Indian government on the assurance that the internal autonomy of Manipur would be
maintained. Under the pressure of public opinion, the Maharaja held elections in Manipur in June 1948 and the
state became a constitutional monarchy. Thus Manipur was the first part of India to hold an election based on a
universal adult franchise. In the Legislative Assembly of Manipur, there were sharp differences over the question
of the merger of Manipur with India. While the state Congress wanted the merger, other political parties were
opposed to this. The Government of India succeeded in pressurizing the Maharaja into signing a Merger
Agreement in September 1949, without consulting the popularly elected Legislative Assembly of Manipur. This
caused a lot of anger and resentment in Manipur, the repercussions of which are still being felt.
(a) Which of the following is the ruler of the Manipur?

a) Hari Singh b) Bodhachandra Singh

c) Hari Chandra Meitei d) Chong Meitei

(b) Which Indian states were first to held elections on universal adult suffrage?

a) Manipur b) Gujarat

c) Rajasthan d) Punjab
(c) Which of the following wanted Manipur to merge with India?

a) Maharaja b) State Party

c) State Congress d) State Youth

(d) When did the Government of India succeed in Pressurising the maharaja of Manipur?

a) 1946 b) 1956

c) 1948 d) 1949
25. In the given political outline map of India (on page 7), four States have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). [4]
 Identify these States on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-
book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets given in the
map as per the following format:

Name of the
Serial number of the information used Concerned alphabet in the map
State

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

i. The State to which B.P. Mandal, the Chairman of Mandal Commission, belonged.
ii. The State where Somnath Temple is situated.
iii. The State which was most concerned about the ethnic problems in Sri Lanka.
iv. The State where Bahujan Samaj Party formed the government.

26. Study the cartoon given below carefully and answer the follow ing questions : [4]
 i. The given cartoon is related to which country?
ii. What is the full form of LTTE?
iii. What was the main demand of LTTE?
iv. Rajapakse is trying to perform which political act?
SECTION-E (24 MARKS)
27. Describe global changes that have occurred after the cold war. Compelling the United Nations to bring about [6]
necessary reforms.
OR
How did the second most powerful country in the world become so weak that suddenly it disintegrated? Explain any
six factors.
28. How did China rise to be an economic superpower? Assess. [6]
OR
How did the European countries resolve their post-Second World War problem? Briefly outline the attempts that led
to the formation of the European Union.
29. Analyze any three major changes that took place in the India political system towards the end of 1980s. [6]
OR
Which alliances of political parties have emerged after the year 1990 in Indian Politics? Highlight any four
consequences of this emergence.
30. Why was an emergency declared in India on 25th June 1975? How far was the imposition of this emergency [6]
justified? Support your answer with any three suitable arguments.
OR
The 1977 elections for the first time saw the Opposition coming into power at the Centre. What would you consider
as the reasons for this development?
 SECTION – A (12 MARKS)
1. (a) ii, iii, i, iv
Explanation: ii. The UN was established in 1945 immediately after Second World War
iii. Dag Hammarskjöld was awarded Nobel Peace Prize posthumously in 1961 for his efforts to settle the Congo crisis
i. Kofi A. Annan established the Peacebuilding Commission and the Human Rights Council in 2005.
iv. Ban Ki-moon, UN Secretary-General, launches UN @ 70 to celebrate the 70th Anniversary in New Delhi in 2015
2. (a) Avadi
Explanation: The second wanted to bring about quick structural transformation by making changes simultaneously in all
possible directions. Before this plan was finalized, the Congress party at its session held at Avadi near the then Madras city
passed an important resolution. It declared that ‘socialist pattern of society’ was its goal.
3. (a) Sukumar Sen
Explanation: The Election Commission of India was set up in January 1950. Sukumar Sen became the first Chief Election
Commissioner. The country’s first general elections were expected sometime in 1950 itself.
4.
(c) Agricultural growth
Explanation: Agricultural growth
5.
(d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
Explanation: (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
6.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
7.
(b) Pt. Nehru
Explanation: Pt. Nehru
8. (a) Lal Krishna Advani
Explanation: Lal Krishna Advani was the deputy prime minister of India during 2002-2004 under the prime ministership of
Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
9. (a) Not joining any blocs but supporting on the basis of logic or justice
Explanation: Not joining any blocs but supporting on the basis of logic or justice
10. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
11.
(c) Secessionist demands
Explanation: In 1979, the All Assam Students’ Union (AASU), a students’ group not affiliated to any party, led an anti-
foreigner movement. The movement demanded outsiders who had entered the state after 1951 should be sent back. It had not
demanded a separate country.
12. (a) Pakistan
Explanation: Pakistan
SECTION- B (12 MARKS)
13. Reason: Limiting Nuclear Proliferation
The Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) of 1968 is considered an arms control treaty primarily because it aims to limit the spread of
nuclear weapons. The treaty has three main pillars:
1. Non-Proliferation: The NPT seeks to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and nuclear weapon technology. Non-nuclear
weapon states agree not to acquire or develop nuclear weapons, while nuclear-weapon states commit to halting their nuclear
 arms race and pursuing disarmament.
By controlling the proliferation of nuclear weapons, the NPT aims to enhance global security and reduce the risk of nuclear
conflict, thereby contributing to arms control and promoting international stability.
14. i. BAMCEF or the Backward and Minority Communities Employees Federation was formed in 1978.
ii. It was founded in 1978 to enlist the aid of the comparatively well-educated among the Other Backward Classes, Scheduled
Castes and the Scheduled Tribes and other communities of India who suffer discrimination and humiliation on the basis of the
privilege by 'birth'.
iii. It took a strong position in favour of political power to the ‘Bahujan - SCs, STs, OBCs and the other backward minorities’.
iv. The origins of BAMCEF organization was for employees of the suppressed communities that was established in 1978 by
Kanshi Ram.
15. Resource Geopolitics is about who gets what, when, where, and how. It is concerned with the allocation of distribution of natural
resources among the nation states of the global arena. They have been the focus of inter- state rivalry and western geopolitical
thinking about resources have been dominated by the relationship of trade, war and power, at the core of which are overseas
resources and maritime navigation.
16. Two events were-
i. Indo-Pak War which led to the establishment of Bangladesh (earlier East Pakistan)
ii. The thumping victory of Congress Party under Indira Gandhi in 1971 elections.
17. Jawaharlal Nehru is considered the architect of modern India. Apart from his careful handling of India’s domestic situation in the
years immediately after Independence, Nehru’s major contribution lies in foreign policies. The contribution made by Nehru to the
foreign policy of India are highlighted below:
i. India’s initiatives for non-alignment for maintenance of mutual understanding and security.
ii. India always maintained her dignity and image of the peace-loving country by taking initiatives to bring about equality and
understanding among nations i.e. to end the Korean war in 1953, French rule in China etc.
18. a. The country's first general elections were expected sometime in 1950 itself but the elections had to be postponed twice and
finally held from October 1951 to February 1952.
b. The first general elections were delayed due to the following reasons:
i. Large country.
ii. Delimitation of electoral constituencies.
iii. Illiterate voters.
iv. Need for a special method of voting.
SECTION-C (20 MARKS)
19. The differences in the threats that people in the Third World face and those living in the First World face are as given below:
i. The Third World countries face threats not only from outside their borders, mostly from neighbours but also from within. On
the other hand, most of the First World countries, faced no serious threats from groups or communities living within those
borders. These countries faced threats only from outside their borders.
ii. New states of the Third World face threats from separatist movements which wanted to form an independent country.
Sometimes such movements got help from neighbouring countries. There was no threat in the First World countries.
iii. The major threat the people of the third world faces is the environmental threat, the rise in global warming has increased the
sea level that some islands face the threat of being washed off. Whereas the first world people did not face such a threat.
20. Its aims or objectives are as under:
i. To maintain international peace and security.
ii. To establish friendly relations among the nations.
iii. To make efforts to solve economic, social and humanitarian problems.
iv. To bring all the nations on the one stage to achieve the above-mentioned ends and to bring co-ordination among their efforts.
The methods suggested for all realisation of these objectives are:
i. To practice tolerance.
ii. To unite in maintaining international peace and security.
iii. To ensure that armed forces shall not be used except in common interest.
21. The UN defines indigenous populations as comprising the descendants of peoples who inhabited the present territory of a country
at the time when persons of a different culture ethnic origin arrived there from other parts of the world and overcame them. In
India ‘indigenous people’ are referred to as ‘Scheduled Tribes- who - constitute nearly eight percent of the population. Most
 indigenous populations in India depend for their subsistence primarily on the cultivation of land. They enjoy constitutional
protection in political representation. Some seats in the legislatures have been reserved for them. In spite of political
representation, they are the largest group among the people displaced by various developmental projects since independence.
OR
There are several issues relating to environmental degradation.
i. Soil degradation: A substantial portion of the existing agricultural land is losing fertility. Grasslands have been overgrazed
and fisheries overharvested.
ii. Shortage of drinking water: Water bodies have suffered extensive depletion and pollution. The people of the third world are
not getting safe water for drinking and other purposes.
iii. Shrinking vegetal cover: Natural forests are being cut down and people are being displaced. The loss of biodiversity
continues due to the destruction of habitat in areas which are rich in species.
iv. Depletion of ozone in stratosphere: A steady decline in the total amount of ozone in the Earth's stratosphere (commonly
referred to as the ozone hole) pose a real danger to ecosystems and human health.
22. Two Arguments by Advocates of Economic Globalization:
1. Greater Economic Growth and Well-being:
Advocates of economic globalization argue that de-regulation and increased trade among countries lead to greater economic
growth and improved well-being for larger sections of the population. By allowing each economy to focus on its strengths,
globalization is seen as a way to benefit the entire world, enhancing economic efficiency and prosperity.
2. Inevitability of Globalization:
Supporters also contend that economic globalization is an inevitable process, driven by the historical march of progress. They
believe that resisting this trend is unwise and that it is more prudent to respond to globalization intelligently, recognizing its
challenges without accepting it uncritically.
OR
The impact of changing role of state in developing countries in the light of globalisation can be summed up as follows:
1. It results in an erosion of state capacity i.e, the ability of government to do what they do.
2. In place of the welfare state, it is the market that becomes the prime determinant down to economic and social priorities.
3. The entry and the increased role of multinational companies all over the world lead to a reduction in the capacity of
governments to take decisions on their own.
4. The old 'welfare state' is now giving way to more minimalist state to perform certain core functions as the maintenance of law
and order and the security of its citizens.
23. The role played by insurgency and separatism in aggravating the political crisis in Kashmir. By 1989, the state had come in the
grip of a militant movement mobilised around the cause of a separate Kashmiri nation. The insurgents got moral, material and
military support from Pakistan. There is one strand of separatists who want a separate Kashmiri nation, independent of India and
Pakistan. Then there are groups that want Kashmir to merge with Pakistan. Besides these, there is a third strand which wants
greater autonomy for the people of the state within the Indian Union. The idea of autonomy attracts the people of Jammu and
Ladakh regions in a different way. They often complain of neglect and backwardness. Therefore, the demand for intrastate
autonomy is as strong as the demand for state autonomy.
SECTION-D (12 MARKS)
24. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
A few days before Independence, the Maharaja of Manipur, Bodhachandra Singh, signed the Instrument of Accession with the
Indian government on the assurance that the internal autonomy of Manipur would be maintained. Under the pressure of public
opinion, the Maharaja held elections in Manipur in June 1948 and the state became a constitutional monarchy. Thus Manipur was
the first part of India to hold an election based on a universal adult franchise. In the Legislative Assembly of Manipur, there were
sharp differences over the question of the merger of Manipur with India. While the state Congress wanted the merger, other
political parties were opposed to this. The Government of India succeeded in pressurizing the Maharaja into signing a Merger
Agreement in September 1949, without consulting the popularly elected Legislative Assembly of Manipur. This caused a lot of
anger and resentment in Manipur, the repercussions of which are still being felt.
(i) (b) Bodhachandra Singh
Explanation: Bodhachandra Singh
(ii) (a) Manipur
Explanation: Manipur
 (iii) (c) State Congress
Explanation: State Congress
(iv) (d) 1949
Explanation: 1949

Name of the
Serial number of the information used Concerned alphabet in the map
25. State
(i) C Bihar

(ii) A Gujarat

(iii) D Tamil Nadu

(iv) B Uttar Pradesh

26. i. In Sri Lanka.

ii. The full form of LTTE is Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE)
iii. Leading to the demand for secession by one of the regions.
iv. Raja Pakse is trying International actors, particularly the Scandinavian countries such as Norway and Iceland have been trying
to bring the warring group back to negotiations. The future of the island hinges on the outcome of these talks.
SECTION-E (24 MARKS)
27. Global changes that have occurred after the cold war was as follows:
i. Economic condition of USSR after the Second World War improved at large scale. It had good and improved communications
network, vast energy resources including oil, iron and steel machinery production and a transport sector that connected its
remotest areas with efficiency.
ii. It had a domestic consumer industry that produced everything from pins to cars, though their quality did not match that of the
western capitalist countries.
iii. The Soviet state ensured a minimum standard of living for all its citizens and the government subsidised basic necessities
including health, education, childcare and other welfare schemes.
iv. There was no unemployment. State ownership was the dominant form of ownership: land and productive assets were owned
and' controlled by the Soviet state.
v. The Soviet system, however, became very bureaucratic and authoritarian, making life very difficult for its citizens. Lack of
democracy and the absence of freedom of speech stifled people who often expressed their dissent in-jokes and cartoons. Most
of the institutions of the Soviet state needed reform the one-party system represented by the Communist Party of the Soviet
Union had tight control over all institutions and was unaccountable to the people. The party refused to recognise the urge of
people in the fifteen different republics that formed the Soviet Union to manage its own affairs including their cultural affairs.
Although on paper, Russia was only one of the republics that together constituted the USSR, in reality, Russia dominated
everything and people from other regions felt neglected and often suppressed.
OR
The factors which led to the disintegration of the Soviet Union:
i. Gorbachev’s economic reforms including the adoption of advanced technology, infrastructure e.g. transport, power were
proved a major factor of the disintegration.
ii. There arose a new revolution in the Soviet Union under his leadership. His policy can be briefed in two words i.e. Perestroika
[restructure and Glasnost (openness)].
iii. The hold of the Communist Party was loosened and other political parties were also allowed to function.
iv. He wanted to change in the social-economic order of the Soviet Union, people of them were given the freedom to raise their
voice of all affairs of the state and bureaucracy.
v. He was humanist and favoured world peace. He signed a pact with the USA to confirm over nuclear weapons. His policy
earned him the most coveted Nobel Peace Prize.
vi. Leninist Communism was severely him when the right to have personal property was given to people by Gorbachev.
28. China had adopted Soviet model of economy. Despite development, China faced economic crisis as its industrial production was
not growing fast, international trade was minimal and per capita income was very low. Under these situations some major policy
decisions were taken:
i. China ended its political and economic isolation, which established relations with the US in 1972.
ii. China proposed the 'four modernisation' areas as agriculture, industry, science and technology and military in 1973.
 iii. 'Open door' policy and economic reforms were introduced to generate higher productivity by investments of capital and
technology from abroad.
iv. China followed its own path in introducing a market economy. The privatisation of agriculture and industry in 1982 and 1998.
v. China set Special Economic Zones(SEZs) to remove trade barriers where foreign investors could set up enterprises.
vi. The integration of China's economy and the inter-dependencies has enabled China to have considerable influence with its
trade partners.
vii. The Open door policy has contributed to the stability of the ASEAN economies.
viii. China’s outward looking for investment and aid policies in Latin America and Africa are projecting China as a global player
on the side of developing economies.
OR
As a result of the Second World War, European countries faced the problems of the ruin of their economies and the destruction of
the assumptions and structures on which Europe had been founded. The burning question was whether the European countries be
allowed to revert to its old rivalries or be reconstructed on the principles and institutions that would contribute to a positive
conception of international relations. In those problems, the Cold War played an important role in the integration of Europe. Thus,
the following attempts were made that led to the formation of the European Union in 1992.
i. Marshall Plan: Under this plan, America extended massive financial help for reviving Europe’s economy.
ii. NATO: America created NATO as a new collective security structure.
iii. OEEC: Under the Marshall Plan, the Organisation for European Economic Cooperation was established in 1948 to channel
aid to the West European states. It encouraged cooperation on trade and economic issues.
iv. Council of Europe: It was established in 1949 for political cooperation.
v. European Economic Community. It was formed in 1957.
vi. European Parliament: Economic integration took a political dimension in the form of the European Parliament.
vii. European Union: The disintegration of the Soviet Union in 1991 led to the formation of the European Union in 1992. Its aim
was to have a common foreign and security policy, cooperation on justice and home affairs, and the creation of a single
currency.
29. Following are the three major changes that took place in the Indian political system towards the end of the 1980s:
i. The defeat of the Congress after the 1989 elections: First, the most significant outcome of this period was the defeat of the
Congress Party in the elections held in 1989. The Congress Party got 415 seats in the Lok Sabha in 1984. In 1989, the number
of seats reduced to 197. It was certainly a very serious setback. However, Congress improved its electoral performance and
came back to power in 1991.
ii. The emergence of the Mandal Issue: Second, development was the emergence of the “Mandal issue” in national politics.
The Janata Dal brought together a combination of political groups with strong support among the OBGs in the 1980s. The
National Front took the decision to implement the recommendations of the Mandal Commission. It helped in shaping the
politics of ‘Other Backward Classes’.
iii. A long chain of Coalition Politics: With the elections of 1989, a long chain of coalition politics started in our country. The
era of coalition governments may be seen as a long-term development resulting from relatively noiseless changes that were
taking place over the last few decades. The defeat of the Congress Party marked the end of Congress’ political dominance
over the Indian party system elections in 1989 did not bring much relief to the Congress party.
OR
I. Coalition Politics in India: It was (United Front) the fourth alliance or coalition under Prime Ministership of Chandra
Shekhar from November 10 to 1990-June 21, 1991. The fifth (June 1,1996-April 20, 1997) was formed under H.D. Devegoda.
It was called the United Front. The sixth (April 21, 1997-March 19, 1998) was formed under Indra Kumar Gujral and called
United Front. The seventh (March 19,1998-October 10,1999) and the eighth (from October 11, 1999, to 2004) was formed
under Atal Behari Vajpayee and called National Democratic Alliance. The ninth Congress-led coalition was formed in May
2004 for the 14th Lok Sabha elections between Congress and Left Front, DMK and other non-NDA parties. It was called the
United Progressive Alliance (UPA).
UPA has been reelected in the general elections of 2009.
II. Results of These Political Changes:
i. Unstable coalition: Coalition governments were unstable governments since they had no inherent compatibility amongst
constituent parties. They had their own internal contradictions which led to the breakup not only of various fronts but of
governments as well. e.g. one month’s ruling of Bhartiya Janta Party from May 1996 to June 1996 and 18 months ruling of
National Front under V.P. Singh.
 ii. Political opportunism: The most important factor in the formation of the coalition was a witness as political opportunism.
Coalition governance became a game for the selfish, opportunist, power hungry and unscrupulous politicians who had to
look after nothing but their personal interests e.g. Congress support to United Front under H.D. Devegoda and National
Front under Chandra Shekhar.
iii. High Corruption: Coalition governments are generally bad because they force a reduction in healthy interparty
competition, which may end up leading to widespread cooperative corruption to undermine the interests of the citizens.
iv. Political Crisis: In almost every case, coalition governments are born by a political crisis.. Where a country goes in for
Presidential elections and none of the contenders is willing to concede defeat and in that controversy, the state runs into
extreme turmoil and unrest along with, conflict, unrest, suspicion, and many loss of lives. When the conflicting parties
cannot solve the animosity anymore, they are left with no further choice than to save the country by agreeing to share
power, and therefore, a coalition government is made.
30. i. An emergency declared in India on 25th June 1975 due to:
a. Internal disturbances and agitations in the country.
b. Political mood of the country had turned hostile
c. Grave crisis had arisen which made the [proclamation of a state of emergency necessary.
ii. Justification of the imposition of a state of emergency:
a. Whether the declaration of a state of emergency was justified or not would always remain a controversial issue in Indian
politics. We have differing viewpoints about the need to declare an emergency. During this period the government
practically suspended the process of democratic functioning. The Shah Commission after the emergency found out, there
were several "excesses’ committed during this period.
b. However, the issue of the imposition of a state of emergency is still debatable or under debate. The then government
argued that in a democratic system the opposition parties must allow the duly elected ruling party to rule as per its policies.
It opined that frequent recourse to agitation, protests and collective action are not good for democracy.
c. On the other hand, the critics of emergency maintain that JP and several other opposition leaders had the right to publicly
protest against the government. The movements of Bihar and Gujrat were by and large peaceful and non-violent. During
this period, the protestors who were arrested were never tried and no cases were registered against most of the detainees.
OR
The 1977 elections were evolved as a shock to everyone as Congress party was defeated for the very first time and opposition
party came into power. The following were the reasons for this development:
i. The opposition fought the election on the slogan ‘Save democracy’ against the imposition of emergency earlier.
ii. The Janata Party made this election into a referendum on the Emergency. Its campaign was focused on the non- democratic
character of the rule and on the various excesses that took place during an emergency.
iii. In the backdrop of arrests of thousands of persons and the censorship of the Press, the public opinion was against the
Congress. Jayaprakash Narayan became the popular symbol of restoration of democracy.
iv. The formation of the Janata Party also ensured that non-Congress votes would not be divided.
v. The middle castes form north India were beginning to move away from Congress and the Janata Party became a platform for
many of these sections to come together.
Hence, elections of 1977 were not merely about emergency only.
 Series ARSP/02 Set ~ 2
Roll No. Q.P Code 15/2/2
Candidates must write the Q.P Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

 Please check that this question paper contains 06 printed pages.

 Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
 Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
 Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-book
before attempting it.
 15 Minute times has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10:15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m to 10.30 a.m, the students
will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer –
book during this period.

POLITICAL SCIENCE

Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:
1. The question paper consists of five sections (A, B, C, D and E) with 30 questions in total.

2. All questions are compulsory.

3. Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.

4. Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50-60 words each.

5. Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100-120 words each.

There is an internal choice in two of the 4 marks questions

6. Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
7. Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170-180 words.

8. There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

SECTION – A (12 MARKS)

1. Arrange the following in chronological order: [1]
i. India joined United Nations
ii. Sign of 51 countries on United Nations Charter
iii. Establishment of International Atomic Energy Agency
iv. Establishment of World Trade Organisation

a) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) b) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

c) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) d) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

2. When was the 10th five year plan ended? [1]

a) 31-1-2007 b) 2000

c) 31-4-2007 d) 31-3-2007
3. Which one of the following is a state where Congress did not win even after a huge victory in the first general [1]
elections?

a) Bihar b) Madhya Pradesh

c) Maharashtra d) Orissa
4. ________ budget that spent on a five-year basis as per the priorities fixed by the plan. [1]

a) Both Plan and Non-plan b) Developmental

c) Non-plan d) Plan
5. Match List I with List II regarding resistance to globalization. [1]
 List-1 List-2

(a) Political (i) Forgetting own traditions, values and culture

(b) Economical (ii) Less power to states to protect the interests of the poor

(c) Cultural (iii) economic liberalization

(d) Social (iv) Harms social boundaries of the community

a) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) b) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

c) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

6. Assertion (A): The first deputy prime minister and home minister of India, Sardarvallabhbhaipatel, emerged as [1]
an Iron man of India.
Reason(R): Sardarvallabhbhaipatel faced key challenges of integration of Hyderabad, Junagarh, Kashmir.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

7. Shimla agreement was signed between ________. [1]

a) Lal Bahadur Shastri and Zhou Enlai b) V.P. Mandal and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto

c) V.P. Mandal and Sheikh Mujib-ur Rahman d) Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto
8. Aam Aadmi party was formed in _______. [1]

a) 2011 b) 2013

c) 2014 d) 2012
9. What was given the first priority in Nehru's foreign policy? [1]

a) Domestic interest b) Social interest

c) International interest d) National interest

10. Assertion (A): Vladimir Lenin died in 1924. [1]
Reason (R): Stalin came to power in 1924.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

11. Which of the following places were most affected during the Anti-Sikh riots of 1984? [1]

a) Chandigarh b) Kanpur

c) Amritsar d) Ludhiana
12. Name the nation which became a member of the SAARC recently. [1]

a) Afghanistan b) Bhutan

c) Pakistan d) Myanmar
SECTION- B (12 MARKS)
13. Explain any two objectives of terrorism and highlight any two classic cases of terrorism. [2]
14. When and why did a long phase of coalition politics begin in India? [2]
15. Mention the major problems of ecological issues. [2]
16. How far do you agree with the statement that what Indira Gandhi had done in 1971-72 was not a revival of the [2]
old Congress Party but she re-invented her party?
17. What was the policy of India at the Suez Canal crisis (1956) and USSR’s invasion of Hungary (1956). [2]
18. “India’s experiment with universal adult franchise appeared very bold and risky”. Justify the statement. [2]
SECTION-C (20 MARKS)
19. Write a short note on the traditional notion of internal security. [4]
20. Describe any six criteria for the new membership of Security Council as suggested after 1997. [4]
21. Describe any four steps taken by India to improve the environment. [4]
OR
Define indigenous population. Highlight problems of such people.
22. What is worldwide interconnectedness? What are its components? [4]
OR
Examine any four arguments against globalisation that have emerged from all over the globe.
23. What was the main outcome of Rajiv Gandhi-Longowal accord in July 1985? [4]
SECTION-D (12 MARKS)
24. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Our leaders felt that carving out states on the basis of language might lead to disruption and disintegration. It
was also felt that this would draw attention away from other social and economic challenges that the country
faced. Protests began in the Telugu speaking areas of the old Madras province, which included present day Tamil
Nadu, parts of Andhra Pradesh, Kerala and Karnataka. The Vishalandhra movement (as the movement for a
separate Andhra was called) demanded that the Telugu speaking areas should be separated from the Madras
province of which they were a part and be made into a separate Andhra province. The movement gathered
momentum as a result of the Central government’s vacillation. Potti Sriramulu, a Congress leader and a veteran
Gandhian, went on an indefinite fast that led to his death after 56 days. Finally, the Prime Minister announced
the formation of a separate Andhra state in December 1952.
(a) Name the first Indian states to be created on the basis of language?

a) Nagaland b) Gujarat

c) Andhra Pradesh d) Punjab

(b) How many days Potti Sriramalu went on the fast?

a) 56 b) 70

c) 66 d) 68
(c) When the central government appoints the state reorganization commission?

a) 1950 b) 1947

c) 1953 d) 1952
(d) Which of the following was not a part of the old Madras province?

a) Andhra Pradesh b) Goa

c) Kerala d) Karnataka
25. In the given political outline map of India, four States have been marked as A, B, C and D. Identify these States [4]
 on the basis of information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with the
respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets given in the map as per the
following format:
i. The State related to V.V. Giri, the former President of India.
ii. The State related to the Congress leader, K. Kamaraj.
iii. The State from where the phrase, Aya Ram, Gaya Ram originated.
iv. The State which faced the most acute food crisis in 1965-1967.

Sr. no. of the information used Concerned alphabet in the map Name of the State

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

26. Study the cartoon given below carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
 i. The cartoon is related to which one of the following regional organisations?
a. ASEAN
b. BRICS
c. G-7
d. SAARC
ii. Identify the member country whose name is missing in the cartoon.
a. Iran
b. Afghanistan
c. Myanmar
d. Pakistan
iii. What is the main objective of the organisation related to the cartoon?
a. To evolve cooperation among member states through multilateral means.
b. To resolve bilateral conflicts.
c. To solve mutual social and religious conflicts.
d. To fight together against a common enemy.
iv. Which one of the following member countries does not have an elected government?
a. Nepal
b. Maldives
c. Bhutan
d. Bangladesh
SECTION-E (24 MARKS)
27. What kind of conflicts had occurred in Soviet Republics? Explain. [6]
OR
What sort of conflicts had occurred in Soviet Republics? Explain.
28. Name the pillars and the objectives of the ASEAN Community. [6]
OR
Describe the importance and strengths of ASEAN.
29. What were the White Papers in connection with demolition of Babri Masjid? [6]
OR
In your opinion, how far a two party system is required for successful democracy? Based on India’s experience of
 coalition governments, what are the advantages of the present party system in India.
30. The anti-Emergency wave does not adequately describe the mode of the 1977 elections. Describe in detail. [6]
OR
Write a brief note on the students’ agitation in Bihar in 1974.
 Series ARSP/03 Set ~ 3
Roll No. Q.P Code 15/3/3
Candidates must write the Q.P Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

 Please check that this question paper contains 05 printed pages.

 Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
 Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
 Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-book
before attempting it.
 15 Minute times has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10:15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m to 10.30 a.m, the students
will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer –
book during this period.

POLITICAL SCIENCE

Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:
1. The question paper consists of five sections (A, B, C, D and E) with 30 questions in total.

2. All questions are compulsory.

3. Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.

4. Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50-60 words each.

5. Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100-120 words each.

There is an internal choice in two of the 4 marks questions

6. Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
7. Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170-180 words.

8. There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

SECTION – A (12 MARKS)

1. Arrange the following in chronological order- [1]
i. 189 member countries in IMF
ii. Meeting in Washington, D.C. between 26 Allied nations fighting the Axis Powers
iii. Tehran Conference Declaration of the Three Powers (US, Britain and Soviet Union)
iv. US President Franklin D. Roosevelt and British Prime Minister Winston S. Churchill signed the Atlantic
Charter

a) iv, iii, ii, i b) iii, ii, i, iv

c) i, iv, iii, ii d) iv, ii, iii, i

2. The state which has achieved nearly total literacy in India is: [1]

a) Manipur b) Andhra Pradesh

c) Tamil Nadu d) Kerala

3. How many seats did Indian Congress win in general election 1952? [1]

a) 365 b) 384

c) 364 d) 360
4. The second five-year plan was draft under the leadership of ________. [1]

a) P.C. Mahalanobis b) C. Kumar

c) N. Raj d) N. Roy
5. Match List I with List II regarding the cultural consequences of globalization. [1]
 List-1 List-2

(a) Cultural Homegenisation (i) Imposition of Western culture on the rest of the world

(b) US Hegemony (ii) Cultures seeking to buy into the dominant American dream

(c) McDonaldisation (iii) Each culture becoming more different and distinctive

(d) Cultural Heterogenisation (iv) Uniform culture

a) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) b) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

c) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

6. Assertion (A): The ruler of Travancore decided to remain independent and Nizam of Hyderabad made a similar [1]
announcement the next day.
Reason (R): With the end of British rule in India, the paramountcy of the British crown over princely rulers also
came to an end.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

7. When did the war between India and Pakistan take place? [1]

a) 1971 b) All of these

c) 1948 d) 1965
8. When was the Socialist Party formed in India? [1]

a) 1948 b) 1960

c) 1955 d) 1952
9. Which conference led to the establishment of NAM? [1]

a) Belgrade conference b) Tashkent conference

c) Bandung conference d) Shimla conference

10. Assertion (A): After the second World War, the world was divided into Eastern Block and Weston Block. [1]
Reason (R): Western countries joined Eastern Block.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

11. Separatist politics surfaced in Kashmir from: [1]

a) 1989 b) 1969

c) 1999 d) 1979
12. ________ is becoming an accepted norm in the entire region of South Asia. [1]

a) Democracy b) Socialism

c) Dictatorship d) Authorizations
SECTION- B (12 MARKS)
13. Explain the meaning of Global Security. [2]
14. When was India’s New Economic Policy launched? Who was its chief architect? [2]
15. Mention any two outcomes of Rio Summit. [2]
16. ‘1960s were labelled as the dangerous decade'. Explain. [2]
17. Match the following: [2]

(a) The goal of India's foreign policy in the

(i) Tibetan spiritual leader who crossed over to India
period 1950-1964

(ii) Preservation of territorial integrity, sovereignty and

(b) Panchsheel
economic development

(c) Bandung Conference (iii) Five principal of peaceful coexistence

(d) Dalai Lama (iv) Led to the establishment of NAM

18. Describe any four features of the Congress party. [2]

SECTION-C (20 MARKS)
19. Assess the process of confidence building with the help of examples. How does it function as a means of [4]
avoiding violence and war?
20. Discuss the resolution adopted by General Assembly in 1992 over the reform of the UN Security Council and [4]
the role General Assembly to establish peace in world.
21. What is meant by the protection of global commons? Explain with the help of examples. [4]
OR
With the help of any four examples, explain India’s stand on environmental issues.
22. Does globalisation lead to ‘cultural homogenisation’ or ‘cultural heterogenization’ or both? Justify. [4]
OR
How has globalisation impacted on India and how is India, in turn, impacting on Globalisation?
23. Describe the three major issues in the North Eastern States of India. [4]
SECTION-D (12 MARKS)
24. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
On the 15th August 1947, Mahatma Gandhi did not participate in any of the Independence Day celebrations. He
was in Kolkata in the areas which were torn by gruesome riots between Hindus and Muslims. He was saddened
by the communal violence and disheartened that the principles of ahimsa (non-violence) and satyagraha (active
but non-violent resistance) that he had lived and worked for, had failed to bind the people in troubled times.
Gandhiji went on to persuade the Hindus and Muslims to give up violence. His presence in Kolkata greatly
improved the situation, and the coming of independence was celebrated in a spirit of communal harmony, with
joyous dancing in the streets. Gandhiji’s prayer meetings attracted large crowds. But this was short-lived as riots
between Hindus and Muslims erupted once again and Gandhiji had to resort to a fast to bring peace. Finally, on
30 January 1948, one such extremist, Nathuram Vinayak Godse, walked up to Gandhiji during his evening
prayer in Delhi and fired three bullets at him, killing him instantly.
(a) Which of the following city Gandhiji was there on 15th August 1947?

a) Kolkata b) Delhi

c) Mumbai d) Chennai
(b) Which of the following killed Gandhiji on 30 January 1948?
 a) Nathuram Singh b) Nathuram Parikkar

c) Nathuram Godse d) Abdul Gaffar Khan

(c) What was the effect of the Gandhiji’s death in Pakistan on subsiding of communal situation?

a) None of these b) Magical

c) Neutral d) Disaster
(d) Which of the following is known as Iron Man of India?

a) Khan Abdul Gaffar b) Mahatma Gandhi

c) Amrita Kaur d) Sardar Patel

25. In the given outline political map of India, four states have been marked as (A) (B) (C) and (D). Identify these [4]
states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book, along with
their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets as per the following formate:-
i. The states where women put a ban on the sale of arrack and stopped its auction.
ii. The states where there was anti-Hindi agitation in 1965.
iii. The State formed in 1966.
iv. The State related to Dairy Cooperative Movement under the name ‘Amul’.

26. See the cartoons given below and answer the questions that follow: [4]
 i. Interpret the role of two key players who are also interested in the region.
ii. Is there any commonality between their perspectives?
SECTION-E (24 MARKS)
27. What was Shock Therapy? Was this the best way to make a transition from communism to capitalism? [6]
OR
Mention major tensions and conflicts that took place in the former Soviet republics. What are their results?
28. Explain the role of the European Union as a supranational organisation. [6]
OR
How does geographical proximity influence the formation of regional organisations?
29. Write an essay on the Janta Dal. [6]
OR
Explain the reforms in industrial sector after 1990s.
30. Write a brief note on the background leading to the declaration of Emergency of June 1975 in India. [6]
OR
What is Naxalite movement? Evaluate its role in Indian politics.
 Series ARSP/04 Set ~ 4
Roll No. Q.P Code 15/4/4
Candidates must write the Q.P Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

 Please check that this question paper contains 05 printed pages.

 Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
 Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
 Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-book
before attempting it.
 15 Minute times has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10:15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m to 10.30 a.m, the students
will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer –
book during this period.

POLITICAL SCIENCE

Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:
1. The question paper consists of five sections (A, B, C, D and E) with 30 questions in total.

2. All questions are compulsory.

3. Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.

4. Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50-60 words each.

5. Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100-120 words each.

There is an internal choice in two of the 4 marks questions

6. Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
7. Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170-180 words.

8. There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

SECTION – A (12 MARKS)

1. Arrange the following in the chronological order of their establishment: [1]
i. The WTO
ii. Amnesty International
iii. League of Nations
iv. World Bank

a) iv, iii, ii, i b) iv, iii, ii, i

c) i, ii, iii, iv d) iii, iv, i, ii

2. Name the commission which replaced planning commission? [1]

a) NITI Aayog b) Start-up commission

c) Reserve Bank of India d) Hazari commission

3. The First General Elections in India were held in the year: [1]

a) 1951 b) 1952

c) 1954 d) 1953
4. The Second Five Year Plan was launched in [1]

a) 1958 b) 1955

c) 1956 d) 1957
5. Match List I with List II regarding globalization. [1]
 List-1 List-2

(a) IMF (i) Ensure social and economics justice to labours

(b) WTO (ii) Public health agency

(c) WHO (iii) Financial agency

(d) ILO (iv) Governs trade between governments

a) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) b) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

c) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

6. Assertion (A): India was divided into 14 states and 6 union territories by the state Reorganisation Act 1956. [1]
Reason (R): The creation of linguistic provinces has helped a lot in instilling feelings of regionalism in the
Indian public.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

7. Who was one of the chief architects who laid strong foundations for Bhutan-India relations [1]

a) Sushma Swaraj b) Shri. Narender Modi

c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar d) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

8. In which year first general election was held in India? [1]

a) 1960 b) 1952

c) 1947 d) 1955
9. Tashkent agreement was signed between ________. [1]

a) Rajendra Prashad and Yahya Khan b) Lal Bahadur Shastri and Ayub Khan

c) Jawaharlal Nehru and Ayub Khan d) Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto
10. Assertion (A): Cold War came to an end with the collapse of Soviet Union. [1]
Reason (R): The USA became only the powerful country in the world.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

11. In which year agreement took place between Sheikh Abdullah and Prime Minister Indira Gandhi? [1]

a) 1980 b) 1976

c) 1970 d) 1974
12. Which of the following South Asian country was first to liberalize its economy? [1]

a) India b) Sri Lanka

c) Bhutan d) Maldives
SECTION- B (12 MARKS)
13. Analyse any one reason for considering human security more important than territorial security. [2]
14. When did the BJP come to power at the Centre and how? [2]
15. How did Earth Summit draw attention of global politics towards environmental issues? [2]
16. Describe how the opposition unity and the Congress split posed a challenge to Congress dominance. [2]
17. Access any four principles of India’s foreign policy. [2]
18. What were the reasons for dominance of one party system in India? [2]
SECTION-C (20 MARKS)
19. Elaborate upon any four components of traditional notion of security. [4]
20. Why do some countries question the issue of India’s inclusion as a permanent member of the UN Security [4]
Council? Explain.
21. What is meant by Common but differentiated responsibilities? How could we implement the idea? [4]
OR
Explain India’s stand on environmental issues. What steps have been suggested by India in this respect?
22. Explain any four consequences of globalisation. [4]
OR
Highlight any four economic effects of globalisation.
23. Describe the outcome of the Assam Accord of 1985. [4]
SECTION-D (12 MARKS)
24. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Just before Independence, it was announced by the British that with the end of their rule over India, the
paramountcy of the British crown over the Princely States would also lapse. This meant that all these states, as
many as 565 in all, would become legally independent. The British government took the view that all these
states were free to join either India or Pakistan or remain independent if they so wished. This decision was left
not to the people but to the princely rulers of these states. This was a very serious problem and could threaten the
very existence of a united India. The problems started very soon. First of all, the ruler of Travancore announced
that the state had decided on Independence. The Nizam of Hyderabad made a similar announcement the next
day. Rulers like the Nawab of Bhopal were averse to joining the Constituent Assembly.
(a) How many princely states were there in India at the time of independence?

a) 565 b) 436

c) 665 d) 336
(b) What was the ruler of Hyderabad was popularly referred to as?

a) Iron Man b) Nizam

c) Maharaja d) Tipu
(c) What were not the choices given to the princely states by the British?

a) All of these b) Free to join Pakistan

c) Free to join India d) Free to remain independent

(d) Which of the following were the largest princely states of India?

a) Manipur b) Junagarh

c) Hyderabad d) Kashmir
25. In the given political outline map of India (on page 7), four States have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). [4]
Identify these States on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-
 book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets given in the
map as per the following format:

Serial number of the information used Concerned alphabet in the map Name of the State

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

i. The State with the largest number of seats in its Legislative Assembly.
ii. The State to which the first Indian Governor General (1948 - 1950) belonged.
iii. The State where the Congress Party did not get majority in 1967 Assembly polls, but formed a government
with the help of others.
iv. The region which is a Union Territory now.

26. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow: [4]

Questions
i. What does the cartoon represent?
ii. Which animals do represent Sinhala and LTTE?
iii. What does Sri Lankan leadership speak in the cartoon?
 iv. Write a short note on the Civil War in Sri Lanka.
SECTION-E (24 MARKS)
27. Why did the Soviet Union disintegrate? [6]
OR
Why was Gorbachev forced to initiate reforms and how did it lead to the disintegration of the Soviet Union?
28. In what ways does the present Chinese economy differ from its command economy? [6]
OR
What is meant by ASEAN? How has it broadened its objectives beyond the economic and social spheres?
29. Write an essay on caste oppressions and socio-economic inequalities among backward classes. [6]
OR
State the main issues in Indian politics in the period after 1989. What different configurations of political parties
these differences lead to?
30. Describe the issues of conflict between the Government and the Ruling Party and the Judiciary from 1971-75. [6]
OR
Highlight any three developments of 1970s which were the cause of confrontation between the Union Government
and the Judiciary in India.
 Series ARSP/05 Set ~ 5
Roll No. Q.P Code 15/5/5
Candidates must write the Q.P Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

 Please check that this question paper contains 05 printed pages.

 Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
 Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
 Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-book
before attempting it.
 15 Minute times has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10:15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m to 10.30 a.m, the students
will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer –
book during this period.

POLITICAL SCIENCE

Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:
1. The question paper consists of five sections (A, B, C, D and E) with 30 questions in total.

2. All questions are compulsory.

3. Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.

4. Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50-60 words each.

5. Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100-120 words each.

There is an internal choice in two of the 4 marks questions

6. Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
7. Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170-180 words.

8. There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

SECTION – A (12 MARKS)

1. Arrange the following in chronological order- [1]
i. Appointment of Javier Perez de Cuellar as a UN secretary general
ii. Appointment of Ban Ki-moon as a UN secretary general
iii. Appointment of Kofi A. Annan as a UN secretary general
iv. Appointment of Boutros Boutros-Ghali as a UN secretary general

a) ii, i, iv, iii b) iv, ii, i, iii

c) i, iv, iii, ii d) iii, ii, iv, i

2. Who was the first Chairperson of the Planning Commission? [1]

a) Jawaharlal Nehru b) P.C. Mahalanobis

c) K.N. Raj d) Morarji Desai

3. Which of the following state got non- Congress ruling in 1st legislative elections? [1]

a) Uttar Pradesh b) Kerala

c) Madhya Pradesh d) Bihar

4. Which are the two models of development? [1]

a) Capitalist and Gandhism b) Capitalist and Marxist

c) Capitalist and Socialist d) Capitalist and Maoist

5. Match List I with List II regarding the political consequences of globalization earlier and now. [1]
 List-1 List-2

(a) Welfare state (i) Global leaders

(b) Social wellbeing (ii) Minimalist government

(c) Politically ill-informed about other countries (iii) Marketing Economy

(d) Political leaders (iv) Well-informed due to technological advancements

a) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) b) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

c) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

6. Assertion (A): Princely states covered one-third of the land area of the British Indian Empire. [1]
Reason (R): Some of the princely states clearly wanted to become part of the Indian Union.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

7. When did Jawaharlal Nehru and Ayub Khan sign on Sindhu water treaty? [1]

a) 1953 b) 1952

c) 1960 d) 1950
8. The Syndicate wanted Indira Gandhi to act as a: [1]

a) financial backup b) face of the country

c) puppet d) strong leader

9. The Panchsheel agreement was signed between India and: [1]

a) Bangladesh b) USA

c) Pakistan d) China
10. Assertion (A): Many western European countries joined NATO. [1]
Reason (R): It was a military alliance formed by the USA.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

11. Who was the Prime Minister of India at the time of Operation Blue Star? [1]

a) Indira Gandhi b) V.P. Singh

c) Atal Behari Vajpayee d) Rajiv Gandhi

12. In which South Asian country the King abolished the parliament and dismissed the government in 2002? [1]

a) Nepal b) Bangladesh

c) Bhutan d) Maldives
SECTION- B (12 MARKS)
13. Why is it said that history of petroleum is also the history of war and struggles? [2]
14. What happened to the state government after the demolition of Babri Masjid? [2]
15. Why do indigenous people need special protection to protect their rights? [2]
16. Assess any two factors that were responsible for Indira Gandhi’s popularity after the mid-term elections of 1971. [2]
17. How did the Sino-Indian conflict affect the opposition also? [2]
18. Describe any two methods of voting since the first general election in India. [2]
SECTION-C (20 MARKS)
19. How do per capita income and population growth affect the economic disparity in the world? Suggest ways to [4]
reduce economic disparity between the poor and the rich at the global level.
20. Suggest the steps since 2005 to make the United Nations more relevant in the changing context. [4]
21. Explain India’s position on the environmental issues facing the contemporary world. [4]
OR
Water is a crucial resource to global politics. Explain with examples.
22. Identify and explain any two factors responsible for the emergence of globalisation. [4]
OR
Globalisation affects us in what we eat, drink, wear and indeed in what we think. Justify the statement by giving
examples.
23. Stress the significant features about the economy and politics of the north-east states. [4]
SECTION-D (12 MARKS)
24. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Our leaders felt that carving out states on the basis of language might lead to disruption and disintegration. It
was also felt that this would draw attention away from other social and economic challenges that the country
faced. Protests began in the Telugu speaking areas of the old Madras province, which included present day Tamil
Nadu, parts of Andhra Pradesh, Kerala and Karnataka. The Vishalandhra movement (as the movement for a
separate Andhra was called) demanded that the Telugu speaking areas should be separated from the Madras
province of which they were a part and be made into a separate Andhra province. The movement gathered
momentum as a result of the Central government’s vacillation. Potti Sriramulu, a Congress leader and a veteran
Gandhian, went on an indefinite fast that led to his death after 56 days. Finally, the Prime Minister announced
the formation of a separate Andhra state in December 1952.
(a) Name the first Indian states to be created on the basis of language?

a) Nagaland b) Gujarat

c) Andhra Pradesh d) Punjab

(b) How many days Potti Sriramalu went on the fast?

a) 56 b) 70

c) 66 d) 68
(c) When the central government appoints the state reorganization commission?

a) 1950 b) 1947

c) 1953 d) 1952
(d) Which of the following was not a part of the old Madras province?

a) Andhra Pradesh b) Goa

c) Kerala d) Karnataka
25. In the given outline political map of India, four states have been marked as (A) (B) (C) and (D). Identify these [4]
 states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book, along with
their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets as per the following formate:-
i. The State that resisted its merger with the Union of India.
ii. The State which was carved out of Assam in 1972.
iii. The state where the Sardar Sarovar dam is located.
iv. The State formed in 1966.

26. Study the cartoon given below carefully and answer the questions that follow. [4]

i. Identify the country related to this cartoon.

ii. Evaluate the system of governance being practised in this country.
iii. How is the system of governance in India different from that of the country related to the cartoon?
SECTION-E (24 MARKS)
27. What were the major consequences of the disintegration of the Soviet union for countries like India? [6]
OR
What was Soviet system? Assess any four features of Soviet system.
28. Why is the EU considered a highly influential regional organisation in the economic, political and military [6]
fields?
OR
The emerging economies of China and India have great potential to challenge the unipolar world. Do you agree with
the statement? Substantiate your arguments.
29. Explain how in the coalition era a consensus seems to have emerged among most political parties. Explain its [6]
elements also.
OR
‘Inspite of serious differences between major national political parties, emergence of new consensus is being viewed
with interest'. In the light of this statement describe any three consensus.
30. The Emergency, declared on 25 June, 1975, is seen a blur on Indian democracy. Assess its impact on the party [6]
system in India.
OR
How did the Party System in India change dramatically between the elections of 1977 and 1980? Explain.
 Series ARSP/06 Set ~ 6
Roll No. Q.P Code 15/6/6
Candidates must write the Q.P Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

 Please check that this question paper contains 05 printed pages.

 Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
 Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
 Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-book
before attempting it.
 15 Minute times has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10:15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m to 10.30 a.m, the students
will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer –
book during this period.

POLITICAL SCIENCE

Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. The question paper consists of five sections (A, B, C, D and E) with 30 questions in total.

2. All questions are compulsory.

3. Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.

4. Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50-60 words each.

5. Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100-120 words each.

There is an internal choice in two of the 4 marks questions

6. Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
7. Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170-180 words.

8. There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

SECTION – A (12 MARKS)

1. Arrange in chronological order: [1]
i. Establishment of Human Rights Council
ii. Yalta Association
iii. Atlantic Charter
iv. India took part in United Nations

a) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

c) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii) d) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)

2. Which project was allotted a huge amount in the first five-year plan? [1]

a) Both Narmada and Bhakra Nangal project b) Bhakra Nangal project

c) Narmada project d) Ganga river dam project

3. Which political party was at the second place in winning the Lok Sabha seats in the first general elections of [1]
India?

a) Communist Party of India b) Socialist Party

c) Swatantra Party d) Bhartiya Jana Sangh

4. ________ Policy has been adopted by NITI Aayog. [1]

a) Ayushman Bharat b) Make in India

c) Made in India d) Start-up India

5. Match List I with List II regarding the negative effects of globalization. [1]
 List-1 List-2

(a) Corporate sector (i) MNCs opening retail chains in India, locals may lose their livelihood

(b) Retail sector (ii) Hollywood movies dominating over Bollywood movies

(c) Entertainment sector (iii) Extremists threatening students who wear Western clothes

(d) Social sector (iv) Buying a major rival company in Europe

a) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) b) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

c) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) d) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

6. Assertion (A): The partition of the country proved everyone’s worst tears. There were serious questions about [1]
the future of India.
Reason (R): British government decided to give independence to India.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

7. There was base of Nehru's foreign policy: [1]
i. To follow independent foreign policy for India as sovereign nation.
ii. Nehru supported UN for freedom of colonization and the full right of the persons who are dependent.
iii. Not any support for imperialism.

a) (ii) and (iii) only b) (i), (ii) and (iii)

c) (i) and (ii) only d) (i) and (iii) only

8. In 1957, which party formed the government in Kerala? [1]

a) Socialist Party b) C.P.I

c) Jan Sangh d) Congress

9. In which conference, Non-alignment was formed? [1]

a) Badung Conference b) Indonesia Conference

c) Belgrade Conference d) Hawana Conference

10. Assertion (A): In 1990s, the economy of Russia was ruined completely. [1]
Reason (R): More than 90% of the industries were sold to private companies at throwaway prices.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

11. Which of the following country has also faced a secessionist movement from Basques like India? [1]

a) Poland b) Germany

c) Norway d) Spain
12. Kashmir and the Indian province of Jammu and Kashmir are divided by the: [1]

a) Line of Capricorn b) Line of Commons

 c) Line of Connect d) Line of Control
SECTION- B (12 MARKS)
13. Mention two arms control treaties signed by the Soviet Union and the U.S. [2]
14. “Coalition government helps in consensus building”. Do you agree with the statement? Give arguments in [2]
support of your answer.
15. Suggest any two steps to be taken by the government to check pollution and save environment. [2]
16. Why did senior Congress leader support Indira Gandhi as Prime Minister after the death of Lal Bahadur Shastri? [2]
17. Assess the relations between India and China after 1991. [2]
18. How did the dominance of Congress Party in the first three general elections help in establishing a democratic [2]
set-up in India?
SECTION-C (20 MARKS)
19. Explain the areas of operation of non-traditional notion of security. [4]
20. Mention the difficulties involved in implementing the suggested reforms to reconstruct the UN. [4]
21. Explain the importance and role of concept common but differentiated pertaining to environment. [4]
OR
Oil is an important resource in global strategy that affects the geopolitics and global economy. Comment.
22. Analyse any three demerits of Globalization. [4]
OR
How do per capita income and population growth affect the economic disparity in the world? Suggest any two ways
to reduce economic disparity between the poor and the rich at the global level.
23. Analyze any two major developments after 1980 that led to a cycle of violence in Punjab. [4]
SECTION-D (12 MARKS)
24. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Just before Independence, it was announced by the British that with the end of their rule over India, the
paramountcy of the British crown over the Princely States would also lapse. This meant that all these states, as
many as 565 in all, would become legally independent. The British government took the view that all these
states were free to join either India or Pakistan or remain independent if they so wished. This decision was left
not to the people but to the princely rulers of these states. This was a very serious problem and could threaten the
very existence of a united India. The problems started very soon. First of all, the ruler of Travancore announced
that the state had decided on Independence. The Nizam of Hyderabad made a similar announcement the next
day. Rulers like the Nawab of Bhopal were averse to joining the Constituent Assembly.
(a) How many princely states were there in India at the time of independence?

a) 565 b) 436

c) 665 d) 336
(b) What was the ruler of Hyderabad was popularly referred to as?

a) Iron Man b) Nizam

c) Maharaja d) Tipu
(c) What were not the choices given to the princely states by the British?

a) All of these b) Free to join Pakistan

c) Free to join India d) Free to remain independent

 (d) Which of the following were the largest princely states of India?

a) Manipur b) Junagarh

c) Hyderabad d) Kashmir
25. In the given outline political map of India, four states have been marked as (A) (B) (C) and (D). Identify these [4]
states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book, along with
their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets as per the following formate:-
i. The state where women put a ban on the sale of arrack and stopped its auction.
ii. The state where there was anti-Hindi agitation in 1965.
iii. The state where the Sardar Sarovar dam is located.
iv. The state which saw a farmer's agitation in 1988 protesting against the government increased electricity rates.

v.

26. Observe the cartoon given below, and answer the following : [4]

a. Name the two leaders.

b. Imagine any two problems they might be discussing.
 c. Mention the outcome of their discussion.
SECTION-E (24 MARKS)
27. Explain any ten factors which helped the Soviet Union in becoming a superpower after the Second World War. [6]
OR
Explain as to how did the reforms initiated by Mikhail Gorbachev bring about the disintegration of the U.S.S.R.
28. Evaluate any three major factors responsible for making the European Union a political force from economic [6]
forces.
OR
Describe the importance and strengths of ASEAN.
29. What have been the major trends in the electoral performance of the BJP since 1989? [6]
OR
'Coalition government is a bane or a boon for democracy in India'. Explain any three arguments in support of your
answer.
30. Indira Gandhi was left with no option except to impose Emergency. Explain the statement. [6]
OR
What were the factors that led to popular protests before the 1975 Emergency? Which parties did organise the
protests?
 Series ARSP/07 Set ~ 7
Roll No. Q.P Code 15/7/7
Candidates must write the Q.P Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

 Please check that this question paper contains 05 printed pages.

 Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
 Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
 Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-book
before attempting it.
 15 Minute times has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10:15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m to 10.30 a.m, the students
will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer –
book during this period.

POLITICAL SCIENCE

Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:
1. The question paper consists of five sections (A, B, C, D and E) with 30 questions in total.

2. All questions are compulsory.

3. Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.

4. Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50-60 words each.

5. Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100-120 words each.

There is an internal choice in two of the 4 marks questions

6. Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
7. Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170-180 words.

8. There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

SECTION – A (12 MARKS)

1. Arrange the following in chronological order- [1]
i. Appointment of Trygve Lie as a UN secretary general
ii. Javier Perez de Cuellar retired as a UN secretary general
iii. Appointment of U Thant as a UN secretary general
iv. Ban Ki-moon retired as a UN secretary general

a) i, iii, ii, iv b) iii, i, ii, iv

c) iii, ii, i, iv d) iv, iii, ii, i

2. ________ budget that is spent on routine items on a yearly basis. [1]

a) Ex-ante b) Both Plan and Non-plan

c) Plan d) Non-plan
3. The party that won the second largest number of Lok Sabha seats in the first General elections was the [1]

a) Bhartiya janta party b) Bhartiya Jana Sangh

c) Communist Party of India d) Praja Socialist Party

4. What became the central machinery for deciding what track and plan/approach India would adopt for its [1]
development?

a) Bombay plan b) First five year plan

c) Drafting committee d) Planning commission

5. Match List I with List II regarding globalization. [1]
 List-1 List-2

(a) BPO Services (i) Making friends from any part of the world

(b) Shopping (ii) Stay in India and study at MIT

(c) Online Education (iii) Communicating with clients abroad

(d) Social Media (iv) Purchasing goods from MNCs

a) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) b) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

c) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

6. Assertion (A): Writers, poets, and filmmakers in India and Pakistan have often used the phrase division of [1]
hearts to describe partition.
Reason (R): Muslim league put forward the Two nation theory that British did not consist of one but two
people.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

7. Which country's nuclear policy is No First Use? [1]

a) Israel b) Russia

c) China d) India
8. The slogan of garibi hatao was used before the: [1]

a) 1967 elections b) 1971 elections

c) 1952 elections d) 1977 elections

9. Where did Pakistan conduct its nuclear tests? [1]

a) Kargil hills b) Chagai hills

c) Naga hills d) Patkai hills

10. Assertion (A): Due to shock therapy the value of Russian Rubledeclined. [1]
Reason (R): Ruble is not the currency of the USSR.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

11. Nagaland was recognised to be formed as a separate state in: [1]

a) 1970 b) 1960

c) 1980 d) 1990
12. India and Pakistan have signed the Indus Waters treaty with the help of the ________. [1]

a) UNO b) USA

c) World Bank d) USSR

SECTION- B (12 MARKS)
13. Mention any four threats, except war, to human security. [2]
14. State the main issues in Indian politics in the period after 1989. [2]
15. Is there any difference between the perspective adopted by the rich and the poor nations to protect the Earth? [2]
Explain.
16. How did Congress face challenge of political succession second time? [2]
17. Arrange the following events in the correct chronological sequence from the earlier to the latest: [2]
a) First nuclear test conducted by India.
(b) Twenty year treaty of peace and relationship between India and Soviet Union.
(c) The Tashkent Agreement.
(d) The Panchsheel declaration.
18. Bring out three differences between the Socialist parties and the Communist party. [2]
SECTION-C (20 MARKS)
19. Describe the various concepts of human security. [4]
20. Write the full form of UNESCO. State any two of its functions. [4]
21. Explain Agenda 21 and Sustainable development as discussed at the Rio Summit. [4]
OR
What is meant by common property resources? Explain with examples.
22. Do you agree that cultural consequences of globalisation are always negative? Justify your answer with any two [4]
suitable arguments.
OR
How Globalization has affected Indian economy in positive or negative manner. Discuss.
23. Write a short note on the Dravidian movement. [4]
SECTION-D (12 MARKS)
24. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
On the 15th August 1947, Mahatma Gandhi did not participate in any of the Independence Day celebrations. He
was in Kolkata in the areas which were torn by gruesome riots between Hindus and Muslims. He was saddened
by the communal violence and disheartened that the principles of ahimsa (non-violence) and satyagraha (active
but non-violent resistance) that he had lived and worked for, had failed to bind the people in troubled times.
Gandhiji went on to persuade the Hindus and Muslims to give up violence. His presence in Kolkata greatly
improved the situation, and the coming of independence was celebrated in a spirit of communal harmony, with
joyous dancing in the streets. Gandhiji’s prayer meetings attracted large crowds. But this was short-lived as riots
between Hindus and Muslims erupted once again and Gandhiji had to resort to a fast to bring peace. Finally, on
30 January 1948, one such extremist, Nathuram Vinayak Godse, walked up to Gandhiji during his evening
prayer in Delhi and fired three bullets at him, killing him instantly.
(a) Which of the following city Gandhiji was there on 15th August 1947?

a) Kolkata b) Delhi

c) Mumbai d) Chennai
(b) Which of the following killed Gandhiji on 30 January 1948?

a) Nathuram Singh b) Nathuram Parikkar

c) Nathuram Godse d) Abdul Gaffar Khan

(c) What was the effect of the Gandhiji’s death in Pakistan on subsiding of communal situation?
 a) None of these b) Magical

c) Neutral d) Disaster
(d) Which of the following is known as Iron Man of India?

a) Khan Abdul Gaffar b) Mahatma Gandhi

c) Amrita Kaur d) Sardar Patel

25. In the given political outline map of India (on page 15), four States/Union Territories have been marked as A, B, [4]
C and D. Identify these States/Union Territories on the basis of the information given below and write their
correct names in your answer-book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the
concerned alphabets given in the map as per the following format:

Serial number of the information used Concerned alphabet given in the map Name of the State

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

i. The State to which the Chairman of the Mandal Commission, B.P. Mandal, belonged.
ii. The State where Bahujan Samaj Party formed its first government.
iii. The Union Territory which was constituted in 2019.
iv. The State from which the political party Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam originated.

26. Study the picture n below and answer the questions that follow: [4]
 Questions
i. What does the cartoon represent?
ii. What does the equations speak about?
iii. “I m always good at calculations”. What does this represent?
iv. Write a note on the role of the military in Pakistan's politics.
SECTION-E (24 MARKS)
27. Explain five features of the Soviet System. [6]
OR
India's relations with Russia are important aspects of India’s foreign policy. How was it of great benefit to India?
28. What is meant by ASEAN? How has it broadened its objectives beyond the economic and social spheres? [6]
OR
Why is the EU considered a highly influential regional organisation in the economic, political and military fields?
29. Write a short note on Dalit Politics. [6]
OR
In spite of the decline of Congress dominance the Congress party continues to influence politics in the country. Do
you agree? Give reasons.
30. The opposition to Emergency could keep the Janata Party together only for a while. Evaluate. [6]
OR
What is Naxalite movement? Evaluate its role in Indian politics.
 Series ARSP/08 Set ~ 8
Roll No. Q.P Code 15/8/8
Candidates must write the Q.P Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

 Please check that this question paper contains 05 printed pages.

 Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
 Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
 Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-book
before attempting it.
 15 Minute times has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10:15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m to 10.30 a.m, the students
will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer –
book during this period.

POLITICAL SCIENCE

Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:
1. The question paper consists of five sections (A, B, C, D and E) with 30 questions in total.

2. All questions are compulsory.

3. Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.

4. Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50-60 words each.

5. Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100-120 words each.

There is an internal choice in two of the 4 marks questions

6. Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
7. Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170-180 words.

8. There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

SECTION – A (12 MARKS)

1. Arrange the following in chronological order- [1]
i. Yalta Conference of the ‘Big Three’ (Roosevelt, Churchill and Stalin) decides to organise a United Nations
conference on the proposed world organisation.
ii. 26 Allied nations fighting against the Axis Powers meet in Washington,. D.C., to support the Atlantic Charter
and sign the ‘Declaration by United Nations’
iii. Signing of the Atlantic Charter by the US President Franklin D. Roosevelt and British PM Winston S.
Churchill
iv. Tehran Conference Declaration of the Three Powers (US, Britain and Soviet Union)

a) iii, iv, i, ii b) ii, i, iv, iii

c) iv, iii, ii, i d) iii, ii, iv, i

2. A section of big industrialists got together in 1944 and drafted a joint proposal for setting up a planned economy [1]
in the country. It was called ________.

a) Bombay plan b) Constituent assembly

c) Drafting committee d) Planning commission

3. Who was the founder of Bharatiya Jana Sangh? [1]

a) Mahatma Gandhi b) Indira Gandhi

c) Sukumar Sen d) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee

4. The Socialist model of development was related to: [1]
 a) USSR b) Pakistan

c) Europe d) The U.S.A.

5. Match List I with List II regarding globalization in Indian history. [1]

List-1 List-2

(a) Ancient
(i) An exporter of primary goods and raw materials and a consumer of finished goods.
period

(ii) Not to allow others to export to us so that our own producers could learn to make
(b) British period
things

(c) Before 1991 (iii) Economic liberalization and FDI

(d) After 1991 (iv) Flows pertaining to the movement of capital, commodities, ideas

a) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) b) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

c) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) d) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

6. Assertion (A): The partition of the country proved everyone’s worst tears. There were serious questions about [1]
the future of India.
Reason (R): British government decided to give independence to India.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

7. The foreign policy of a country is the outcome of her economic policy these remarks were made by: [1]

a) Morarji Desai b) Indira Gandhi

c) Charan Singh d) Jawaharlal Nehru

8. Which one of the following is a state where Congress was not in power even after a huge victory in the first [1]
general elections?

a) Madhya Pradesh b) Maharashtra

c) Orissa d) Bihar
9. When did the Prime Minister of India Narendra Modi visit Israel? [1]

a) 2014 b) 2016

c) 2015 d) 2017
10. Assertion (A): The Soviet Union and Communism collapsed in 1991. [1]
Reason (R): The internal weaknesses of the Soviet political and economic institutions failed to meet the
aspirations of the Soviet people.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

11. Which of the following schedule of the Indian constitution allows different tribes to complete autonomy? [1]

a) Second Schedule b) Fourth Schedule

 c) Fifth Schedule d) Sixth Schedule
12. ________ gave up the office because of the popular dissatisfaction against him. [1]

a) Imran Khan b) Benazir Bhutto

c) General Ayub Khan d) Zubaida Jalal Khan

SECTION- B (12 MARKS)
13. Explain the meaning of Global Security. [2]
14. Write a short note on Hindutva. [2]
15. Suggest any four steps that the Government of India should immediately take to save the environment. [2]
16. Why were the fifth general elections held one year earlier in 1971 instead of 1972? Explain any two reasons. [2]
17. How did China war of 1962 dirt India’s image at home and abroad. Explain any four points. [2]
18. Bharatiya Jana Sangh was different from other parties in terms of ideology and programmes. Validate the [2]
statement by giving two relevant arguments.
SECTION-C (20 MARKS)
19. Describe India-Sri Lanka relations. [4]
20. Critically evaluate the difficulties involved implementing the suggested reforms to reconstruct the UN. [4]
21. Explain the meaning of global commons. Give any four examples of global commons. Why are they exploited? [4]
OR
What is meant by Global Commons? Give any two examples of Global Commons. Why is it very essential to save
them?
22. ‘A militant group issued a statement threatening college girls who wear western clothes’. Analyse. [4]
OR
Critically evaluate the impact of the changing role of state in the developing countries in the light of globalisation?
23. The Union Government has to play a very active and positive role in the political economy of north-east. Clarify [4]
this statement.
SECTION-D (12 MARKS)
24. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
A few days before Independence, the Maharaja of Manipur, Bodhachandra Singh, signed the Instrument of
Accession with the Indian government on the assurance that the internal autonomy of Manipur would be
maintained. Under the pressure of public opinion, the Maharaja held elections in Manipur in June 1948 and the
state became a constitutional monarchy. Thus Manipur was the first part of India to hold an election based on a
universal adult franchise. In the Legislative Assembly of Manipur, there were sharp differences over the question
of the merger of Manipur with India. While the state Congress wanted the merger, other political parties were
opposed to this. The Government of India succeeded in pressurizing the Maharaja into signing a Merger
Agreement in September 1949, without consulting the popularly elected Legislative Assembly of Manipur. This
caused a lot of anger and resentment in Manipur, the repercussions of which are still being felt.
(a) Which of the following is the ruler of the Manipur?

a) Hari Singh b) Bodhachandra Singh

c) Hari Chandra Meitei d) Chong Meitei

(b) Which Indian states were first to held elections on universal adult suffrage?

a) Manipur b) Gujarat
 c) Rajasthan d) Punjab
(c) Which of the following wanted Manipur to merge with India?

a) Maharaja b) State Party

c) State Congress d) State Youth

(d) When did the Government of India succeed in Pressurising the maharaja of Manipur?

a) 1946 b) 1956

c) 1948 d) 1949
25. In the given political outline map of India, four states have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these [4]
states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your Answer Book along with
the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabet as per format that follows:

S. No. of the Concerned Name of the

Information used Alphabet State

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

i. The State which was not under the rule of the Congress Party in 1952.
ii. The State where the Congress Party could not win majority in 1957.
iii. The State from where K. Kamraj, a Veteran leader of the Congress Party, lost election in 1967.
iv. The State from where the phrase 'Aaya Ram, Gaya Ram' originated.
26. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow: [4]
 Questions
i. What does the cartoon represent?
ii. What message does this cartoon convey?
iii. Is the representation of cartoon is different from our country?
SECTION-E (24 MARKS)
27. Mention the causes of Soviet disintegration. [6]
OR
Explain six factors which helped Soviet Union becoming superpower after Second World War.
28. How did China rise to be an economic superpower? Assess. [6]
OR
Evaluate any three major factors responsible for making the European Union a political force from economic forces.
29. Many people think that a two-party system is required for a successful democracy. Drawing from India’s [6]
experience of last twenty years, write an essay on what advantages the present party system in India has.
OR
Explain the salient features of coalition governments.
30. Describe any three events that led to the imposition of emergency in 1975. [6]
OR
Describe the issues of conflict between the Government and the Ruling Party and the Judiciary from 1971-75.
 Series ARSP/09 Set ~ 9
Roll No. Q.P Code 15/9/9
Candidates must write the Q.P Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

 Please check that this question paper contains 05 printed pages.

 Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
 Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
 Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-book
before attempting it.
 15 Minute times has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10:15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m to 10.30 a.m, the students
will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer –
book during this period.

POLITICAL SCIENCE

Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:
1. The question paper consists of five sections (A, B, C, D and E) with 30 questions in total.

2. All questions are compulsory.

3. Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.

4. Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50-60 words each.

5. Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100-120 words each.

There is an internal choice in two of the 4 marks questions

6. Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
7. Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170-180 words.

8. There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

SECTION – A (12 MARKS)

1. Arrange the following in chronological order- [1]
i. Appointment of U Thant as a UN secretary general
ii. Appointment of Dag Hammarskjöld as a UN secretary general
iii. Appointment of Kurt Waldheim as a UN secretary general
iv. Appointment of Trygve Lie as a UN secretary general

a) iv, ii, i, iii b) iii, ii, iv, i

c) iii, iv, i, ii d) ii, i, iv, iii

2. The year in which no five-year plan has adopted is called ________. [1]

a) plan holiday b) economic crisis

c) gap between five year plans d) Non-plan holiday

3. The first three Lok Sabha elections of 1952, 1957, and 1962 were dominated by the Congress Party under the [1]
leadership of:

a) Indira Gandhi b) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee

c) Mahatma Gandhi d) Jawaharlal Nehru

4. In India, planning was conceived as the main instrument of: [1]

a) Social development b) Political development

c) Socio-economic development d) Cultural development

5. Match List I with List II regarding globalization in ancient times and the modern era. [1]
 List-1 List-2

(a) Writing books and visiting countries (i) MNCs investing in various industrial and infrastructure
physically projects

(b) Humans and animals transport

(ii) Pandemic
commodities

(c) Foreign invaders stayed and built

(iii) Connecting through telecommunication and Social Media
monuments

(d) Epidemic (iv) Cargo, ships and trains

a) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) b) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

c) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

6. Assertion (A): There were no single belt of uniform Muslim majority areas in British India. There were two [1]
areas of concentration one in the west and in the east.
Reason (R): Not all Muslim majority areas wanted to join with Pakistan.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

7. Two disputed areas between India and China: [1]

a) Jammu and Kashmir b) Ladakh and Uttrakhand

c) Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim d) Aksai Chin and NEFA

8. Institutional Revolutionary Party exercised power in: [1]

a) Cairo b) Finland

c) Brazil d) Mexico
9. Which of the following leaders has created the Indian National Army during the Second World War? [1]

a) Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose b) Chandra Shekhar Azad

c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel d) Bhagat Singh

10. Assertion (A): Joseph Stalin period saw the rapid industrialisation of USSR. [1]
Reason (R): His period was known as the Great Terror of 1930's.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

11. North East region shares boundaries with: [1]

a) Japan b) Taiwan

c) China d) Mongolia
12. The country that is Bhutan's biggest source of development aid is: [1]

a) the Maldives b) India

 c) The USA d) Russia
SECTION- B (12 MARKS)
13. What are Human rights? Mention some human rights. [2]
14. Highlight any two demerits of coalition government. [2]
15. Highlight any two reasons that made environmental issues the concern of Global Politics. [2]
16. What made the new Congress have an upper hand over the opposition alliance? [2]
17. i. Give Example of Religious-cultural ties between India and Bhutan. [2]
ii. When and where diplomatic relations between Bhutan and India were established?
18. What is the full form of EVM? When was it introduced in India? Mention one advantage each of EVM and [2]
Voter Identity Card?
SECTION-C (20 MARKS)
19. Why do the people in the SAARC countries share the aspiration for democracy? [4]
20. What steps should be taken to strengthen the UNO? [4]
21. Describe the issues relating to environmental degradation. [4]
OR
With the help of any four examples, explain India’s stand on environmental issues.
22. Explain any four negative consequences of Globalization for the people of India. [4]
OR
How has globalisation enhanced the position of a state?
23. Describe the main features of the Indian approach to diversity. [4]
SECTION-D (12 MARKS)
24. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
The acceptance of the principle of linguistic states did not mean, however, that all states immediately became
linguistic states. There was an experiment of ‘bilingual’ Bombay state, consisting of Gujarati- and Marathi-
speaking people. After a popular agitation, the states of Maharashtra and Gujarat were created in 1960. In Punjab
also, there were two linguistic groups: Hindi-speaking and Punjabi-speaking. The Punjabi-speaking people
demanded a separate state. But it was not granted with other states in 1956. Statehood for Punjab came ten years
later, in 1966, when the territories of today’s Haryana and Himachal Pradesh were separated from the larger
Punjab state. Another major reorganisation of states took place in the north-east in 1972. Meghalaya was carved
out of Assam in 1972. Manipur and Tripura too emerged as separate states in the same year. The states of
Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh came into being in 1987. Nagaland had become a state much earlier in 1963.
(a) Name the original state from which Gujarat was carved out?

a) Saurastra b) Bombay

c) Rajputana d) Junagarh
(b) Which year the states of Meghalaya have been carved out from Assam?

a) 1990 b) 1982

c) 1987 d) 1972
(c) When the Haryana and Punjab have been separated from Punjab?

a) 1966 b) 1978

c) 1956 d) 1960
 (d) Which year the state of Nagaland had come into being?

a) 1987 b) 1963

c) 1956 d) 1953
25. On the given political outline map of India, four States have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify [4]
these States on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along
with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets given in the map as per
the following format:

Serial number of the information used Concerned alphabet in the map Name of the State

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

i. The State where Bahujan Samaj Party formed its first government.
ii. The State to which K. Kamaraj belonged.
iii. The latest Union Territory of the Indian Union.
iv. The State from where Bharatiya Janata Party began its Rath Yatra.

26. Read the cartoon below and write a short note in favour or against the connection between war and terrorism [4]
depicted in this cartoon.
 SECTION-E (24 MARKS)
27. The transition from communism to capitalism was not a smooth one. Comment. [6]
OR
What were the consequences of disintegration of USSR?
28. Why is the EU considered a highly influential regional organisation in the economic, political and military [6]
fields?
OR
How did the European countries resolve their post-Second World War problem? Briefly outline the attempts that led
to the formation of the European Union.
29. Trace the emergence of BJP as a significant force in post-Emergency politics. [6]
OR
Write a note on Bahujan Samaj Party with special reference to its emergence as a major political player in UP.
30. Highlight any three lessons learnt from the Emergency imposed in 1975. [6]
OR
Evaluate the role of the Naxalite Movement in India.
 Series ARSP/10 Set ~ 10
Roll No. Q.P Code 15/10/10
Candidates must write the Q.P Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

 Please check that this question paper contains 05 printed pages.

 Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
 Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
 Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-book
before attempting it.
 15 Minute times has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10:15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m to 10.30 a.m, the students
will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer –
book during this period.

POLITICAL SCIENCE

Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:
1. The question paper consists of five sections (A, B, C, D and E) with 30 questions in total.

2. All questions are compulsory.

3. Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.

4. Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50-60 words each.

5. Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100-120 words each.

There is an internal choice in two of the 4 marks questions

6. Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
7. Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170-180 words.

8. There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

SECTION – A (12 MARKS)

1. Arrange the following in chronological order- [1]
i. 26 Allied nations fighting against the Axis Powers meet in Washington, D.C
ii. Signing of the Atlantic Charter
iii. 189 member countries in IMF
iv. Lebanon crisis

a) iii, i, ii, i b) iv, iii, ii, i

c) ii, i, iv, iii d) iii, iv, i, ii

2. The provision of Five year plan was borrowed from? [1]

a) Union of Soviet Socialist Republic b) Britain

c) United State of America d) Japan

3. The socialists advocated the ideology of: [1]

a) Hindutva b) Socialism

c) Democratic Socialism d) Communalism

4. What is the name of the document that the government of India prepares that has a plan for all its income and [1]
expenditure?

a) Union Addresses b) Statistical Abstract

c) Budget d) Census Report

5. Match List I with List II regarding resistance to globalization in India by different quarters. [1]
 List-1 List-2

(a) Left wing (i) cultural influences

(b) Trade unions (ii) Patents on Indian herbs

(c) Right Wing (iii) economic liberalization

(d) Industry (iv) entry of multinationals

a) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) b) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

c) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

6. Assertion (A): Princely states covered one-third of the land area of the British Indian Empire. [1]
Reason (R): Some of the princely states clearly wanted to become part of the Indian Union.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

7. Which of the following Chinese premier was accompanied by the Dalai Lama in 1956? [1]

a) Zhou Enlai b) Deng Xiaoping

c) Mao d) Hu Jintao
8. Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru passed away in May: [1]

a) 1984 b) 1974

c) 1964 d) 1954
9. In which year was Civil Nuclear Agreement signed between India and USA? [1]

a) 2nd March, 2006 b) 7th March, 2007

c) 7th April, 1999 d) 2nd March, 2004

10. Assertion (A): Shock therapy was the transition of communism to capitalism. [1]
Reason (R): The collapse of communism resulted in shock therapy.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

11. Which political party came to power in Assam after its movements against foreign nationals? [1]

a) The BJP b) The AGP

c) The TMC d) The Congress

12. Which of the following pairs of South Asian countries have operated a democratic system successfully since its [1]
independence?

a) Pakistan and Maldives b) India and Bhutan

c) Sri Lanka and India d) Nepal and Bangladesh

SECTION- B (12 MARKS)
13. Mention components of India’s security strategy. [2]
14. What were the results of Congress defeat in 1989 elections to the Lok Sabha? [2]
15. What do you mean by common property? What are different norms of common property? [2]
16. What does ‘Aaya Ram, Gaya Ram’ stand for in Indian politics? [2]
17. Write a short note on Consensus in foreign policy matters. [2]
18. Who formed the government in Kerala in 1957? What was the importance of that government? [2]
SECTION-C (20 MARKS)
19. Explain any two reasons that led to National Jubilation in India after the 1971 war with Pakistan. [4]
20. Write a short note on the contribution of the United Nations for the world-peace. [4]
21. Explain the meaning of ‘Global commons’ and give any four examples of ‘Global commons’. [4]
OR
What is meant by ‘Global Commons’? A Explain any two reasons for the dwindling of global commons.
22. Globalisation has shifted power from nation-states to global consumers. Justify the statement. [4]
OR
Mention any four political consequences of globalisation.
23. What is Kashmir issue? What is the political situation in the state since independence? [4]
SECTION-D (12 MARKS)
24. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
The acceptance of the principle of linguistic states did not mean, however, that all states immediately became
linguistic states. Linguistic states underlined the acceptance of the principle of diversity. When we say that India
adopted democracy, it does not simply mean that India embraced a democratic constitution, nor does it merely
mean that India adopted the format of elections. The choice was larger than that. It was a choice in favour of
recognising and accepting the existence of differences that could at times be oppositional. Democracy, in other
words, was associated with plurality of ideas and life methods. Much of the politics in the later period was to
take place within this framework.
(a) With which democracy is aligned?

a) Politics and government b) Social and economic life

c) In ideas and life method d) Social and cultural

(b) What is the meaning of choosing democracy?

a) To recognise diversity and accepting it b) To recognise diversity and not

accepting it

c) To recognise unity and accepting it d) All of these

(c) For linguistic states reorganization, which principle was permitted?

a) Culture b) Unity

c) Diversity d) Civilisation
(d) In diversity there may be mutual ________.

a) Support b) War

c) Protest d) Conflict
25. In the given outline political map of India, four states have been marked as (A) (B) (C) and (D). Identify these [4]
states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book, along with
their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets as per the following formate:-
 i. The State was carved out of Assam in 1972.
ii. The State where the Communist Party of India formed its Government in 1957.
iii. The states where the MKSS demanded records for famine relief and accounts of labors.
iv. The state where the Sardar Sarovar dam is located.

26. See the cartoon given below and answer the questions that follow: [4]

Question
i. What does the above picture show?
ii. Describe the importance of oil in resource geopolitics?
iii. Which is the most important resource in global strategy?
SECTION-E (24 MARKS)
27. Explain as to how did the reforms initiated by Mikhail Gorbachev bring about the disintegration of the U.S.S.R. [6]
 OR
Highlight any three positive and three negative features each of the Soviet system in the Soviet Union.
28. How did China rise to be an economic superpower? Assess. [6]
OR
How does geographical proximity influence the formation of regional organisations?
29. What do you know about the politics of coalition in India? [6]
OR
Discuss the ways and measures to fight communalism.
30. The 1977 elections for the first time saw the Opposition coming into power at the Centre. What would you [6]
consider as the reasons for this development?
OR
Highlight the legacy of Janata Government which came into power after end of the Emergency of 1975-77.
 Series ARSP/11 Set ~ 11
Roll No. Q.P Code 15/11/11
Candidates must write the Q.P Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

 Please check that this question paper contains 05 printed pages.

 Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
 Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
 Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-book
before attempting it.
 15 Minute times has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10:15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m to 10.30 a.m, the students
will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer –
book during this period.

POLITICAL SCIENCE

Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:
1. The question paper consists of five sections (A, B, C, D and E) with 30 questions in total.

2. All questions are compulsory.

3. Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.

4. Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50-60 words each.

5. Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100-120 words each.

There is an internal choice in two of the 4 marks questions

6. Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
7. Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170-180 words.

8. There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

SECTION – A (12 MARKS)

1. Arrange the following in chronological order- [1]
i. The UN was founded
ii. Signing of the UN Charter by 50 nations
iii. India joins the UN
iv. Yalta Conference of the ‘Big Three’

a) ii, i, iv, iii b) iii, iv, i, ii

c) iv, ii, i, iii d) iii, ii, iv, i

2. ________ acts as a think tank of the Union Government. [1]

a) Ministry of External Affairs b) Yojana Aayog

c) NITI Aayog d) Election Commission of India

3. Name the founder President of Congress Socialist Party. [1]

a) Sukumar Sen b) Shayama Prasad Mukherjee

c) Acharya Narendra Dev d) K.M. Munshi

4. By which Five Year Plans the novelty of the planning system had declined? [1]

a) The 11th Five Year Plan b) The 2nd Five Year Plan

c) The 3rd Five Year Plan d) The 4th Five Year Plan

5. Match List I with List II regarding resistance to globalization in India by different quarters. [1]
 List-1 List-2

(a) Left wing (i) cultural influences

(b) Trade unions (ii) Patents on Indian herbs

(c) Right Wing (iii) economic liberalization

(d) Industry (iv) entry of multinationals

a) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) b) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

c) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

6. Assertion (A): Movement of the people of Hyderabad State against the Nizam's rule had gathered force and [1]
momentum.
Reason (R): Peasantry and women joined hands against the oppressive rule of the Nizam.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

7. Basis of India- Bhutan bilateral relation is [1]

a) Treaty of Trade b) Treaty of water

c) Treaty of Military Relations d) Treaty of Friendship and Cooperation

8. The policy initiatives of Mrs. Indira Gandhi's government did not include [1]

a) nationalisation of banks b) nuclear tests

c) abolition of the privy purse d) ban on nuclear tests

9. Five principles of peaceful co-existence are called ________. [1]

a) Punchsheel b) SAARC

c) Treaty Peace d) India’s foreign policy

10. Assertion (A): The Berlin wall was built in 1961. [1]
Reason (R): Germany was a friend of allied countries.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

11. Name the political agitation led by Akali Dal for the creation of Punjab. [1]

a) Shiromani Gurudwara Prabandhak b) Punjabi Popular Movement

Movement

c) Punjabi Suba Movement d) Dravidian Movement

12. Until 1960, India-Pakistan were locked in a fierce argument over the use of the rivers of the: [1]

a) Beas basin b) Indus basin

c) Ravi basin d) Satluj basin

SECTION- B (12 MARKS)
13. Explain the meaning of Global Security. [2]
14. Write a note on Hindu-Muslim Riots in Gujarat. [2]
15. How can we protect the rights of indigenous people with regard to environment? [2]
16. 'Coalition governments proved to be a boon for democracy in India.' Support this statement with any two [2]
suitable arguments.
17. Highlight the major objectives of Prime Minister Nehru’s Foreign Policy. [2]
18. Highlight the changes introduced in the voting methods in India after 1952. [2]
SECTION-C (20 MARKS)
19. Despite the mixed record of democratic experience, why do the people in South Asian countries, even today, [4]
share the aspiration in favour of democracy? Explain with the help of examples.
20. Explain any four reasons as to why India should be given a permanent membership in the UN Security Council. [4]
21. Write a short note on the indigenous people in India. [4]
OR
With the help of any four examples, explain India’s stand on environmental issues.
22. What is globalisation? Highlight its causes. [4]
OR
Define globalisation. Describe any three economic implications of globalisation.
23. What are the causes of the delicate and complex nature of politics and demands in different states of the North- [4]
East region? Which issues have been raised by the people?
SECTION-D (12 MARKS)
24. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
A few days before Independence, the Maharaja of Manipur, Bodhachandra Singh, signed the Instrument of
Accession with the Indian government on the assurance that the internal autonomy of Manipur would be
maintained. Under the pressure of public opinion, the Maharaja held elections in Manipur in June 1948 and the
state became a constitutional monarchy. Thus Manipur was the first part of India to hold an election based on a
universal adult franchise. In the Legislative Assembly of Manipur, there were sharp differences over the question
of the merger of Manipur with India. While the state Congress wanted the merger, other political parties were
opposed to this. The Government of India succeeded in pressurizing the Maharaja into signing a Merger
Agreement in September 1949, without consulting the popularly elected Legislative Assembly of Manipur. This
caused a lot of anger and resentment in Manipur, the repercussions of which are still being felt.
(a) Which of the following is the ruler of the Manipur?

a) Hari Singh b) Bodhachandra Singh

c) Hari Chandra Meitei d) Chong Meitei

(b) Which Indian states were first to held elections on universal adult suffrage?

a) Manipur b) Gujarat

c) Rajasthan d) Punjab
(c) Which of the following wanted Manipur to merge with India?

a) Maharaja b) State Party

c) State Congress d) State Youth

(d) When did the Government of India succeed in Pressurising the maharaja of Manipur?
 a) 1946 b) 1956

c) 1948 d) 1949
25. In the given political map of India, four states have been marked as A, B, C, D. Identify these states on the basis [4]
of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book along with the respective
serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabet as per the format that follows.
i. The state to which Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur, Health Minister in Nehru's Cabinet, belonged.
ii. The state to which former Congress President, S. Nijalingappa, belonged.
iii. The state where Karpoori Thakur was the Chief Minister.
iv. The state to which political party DMK belongs.

Sr. No. of the Information used Concerned alphabet Name of the state

ii

iii

iv

26. See the cartoon given below and answer the questions that follow: [4]

i. How do the big powers react when new countries claim nuclear status?
 ii. On what basis can we say that some countries can be trusted with nuclear weapons while others can’t be?
SECTION-E (24 MARKS)
27. What were the major consequences of the disintegration of the Soviet union for countries like India? [6]
OR
Examine any six characteristics of the Soviet system during 1971-1991.
28. How did the European countries resolve their post-Second World War problem? Briefly outline the attempts that [6]
led to the formation of the European Union.
OR
Why is the EU considered a highly influential regional organisation in the economic, political and military fields?
29. In the midst of severe competition and many conflicts in 1989, a consensus appeared to have emerged among [6]
most parties. Explain any three points.
OR
Highlight any three issues of consensus to show that in the midst of severe competitions and conflicts, a consensus
has appeared among most political parties.
30. The anti-Emergency wave does not adequately describe the mode of the 1977 elections. Describe in detail. [6]
OR
What were the factors that led to popular protests before the 1975 Emergency? Which parties did organise the
protests?
 Series ARSP/12 Set ~ 12
Roll No. Q.P Code 15/12/12
Candidates must write the Q.P Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

 Please check that this question paper contains 05 printed pages.

 Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
 Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
 Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-book
before attempting it.
 15 Minute times has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10:15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m to 10.30 a.m, the students
will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer –
book during this period.

POLITICAL SCIENCE

Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. The question paper consists of five sections (A, B, C, D and E) with 30 questions in total.

2. All questions are compulsory.

3. Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.

4. Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50-60 words each.

5. Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100-120 words each.

There is an internal choice in two of the 4 marks questions

6. Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
7. Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170-180 words.

8. There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

SECTION – A (12 MARKS)

1. Arrange the following in chronological order- [1]
i. Setting up of WTO
ii. Membership of the UN Security Council was expanded from 11 to 15
iii. IAEA was established
iv. Signing of GATT

a) iv, iii, ii, i b) iv, ii, i, iii

c) i, iv, iii, ii d) iii, ii, iv, i

2. Which of the following is not true about the Kerala model of planning? [1]

a) People's Participation in plans at the b) Focus on big industries and large projects
Panchayat level

c) Focus on health and education d) Focus on land reforms and effective food
distribution
3. What was called “the biggest gamble in history”? [1]

a) The era of Congress dominance b) Universal adult franchise

c) The first general elections of 1952 d) Emergency of 1975

4. From which country, the Capitalist model of development is related? [1]

a) Both USSR and Czechoslovakia b) USSR

c) Czechoslovakia d) USA
 5. Match List I with List II regarding resistance to globalization in India by different quarters. [1]

List-1 List-2

(a) Left wing (i) cultural influences

(b) Trade unions (ii) Patents on Indian herbs

(c) Right Wing (iii) economic liberalization

(d) Industry (iv) entry of multinationals

a) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) b) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

c) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

6. Assertion (A): Princely states covered one-third of the land area of the British Indian Empire. [1]
Reason (R): Some of the princely states clearly wanted to become part of the Indian Union.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

7. What major decision was taken by India after the end of cold war era? [1]

a) Liberalisation of economy b) Connection with global economy

c) Both (Liberalisation of economy) and d) connection with foreign policy

(Connection with global economy)
8. The socialists advocated the ideology of [1]

a) Socialism b) Democratic Socialism

c) Hindutva d) Communalism
9. Between which countries was the Kaccha-Tivu problem? [1]

a) India-Pakistan b) India-Sri Lanka

c) Indo-Nepal d) India-Bangladesh
10. Assertion (A): Due to shock therapy the value of Russian Rubledeclined. [1]
Reason (R): Ruble is not the currency of the USSR.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

11. Which two new states were carved out of Punjab? [1]

a) Haryana and Himachal Pradesh b) Haryana and Uttarakhand

c) Punjab and Haryana d) Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh

12. Which of the following leaders has led the popular struggle against the domination of West Pakistan? [1]

a) Sheikh Mujibur Rahman b) Lt. Gen H.M. Ershad

c) Ziaur Rahman d) Indira Gandhi

SECTION- B (12 MARKS)
13. Human security stresses on “freedom from want” and “freedom from fear”. Justify the statement. [2]
14. State any two major political happenings of 1984 in India. [2]
15. What is meant by environment? Suggest any two steps for the environmental improvement. [2]
16. Why did Indira Gandhi government devalue the Indian Rupee in 1967? [2]
17. What was Afro-Asian Unity? [2]
18. Explain the major difference of ideology between that of Congress and the Bharatiya Jana Sangh. [2]
SECTION-C (20 MARKS)
19. Highlight any two hurdles that obstruct the successful functioning of SAARC. [4]
20. As decided by the member states in 2005 highlights any four steps to make the United Nations more relevant in [4]
the changing context.
21. Explain the meaning of global commons. Give any four examples of global commons. Why are they exploited? [4]
OR
Explain Agenda 21 and Sustainable development as discussed at the Rio Summit.
22. What is meant by globalisation? Explain any three cultural consequences of globalisation. [4]
OR
Explain positive and negative effects of globalisation.
23. “The entire region of North-East has undergone considerable political reorganisation”. Mention the changes that [4]
have taken place since independence. What were their effects?
SECTION-D (12 MARKS)
24. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
On the 15th August 1947, Mahatma Gandhi did not participate in any of the Independence Day celebrations. He
was in Kolkata in the areas which were torn by gruesome riots between Hindus and Muslims. He was saddened
by the communal violence and disheartened that the principles of ahimsa (non-violence) and satyagraha (active
but non-violent resistance) that he had lived and worked for, had failed to bind the people in troubled times.
Gandhiji went on to persuade the Hindus and Muslims to give up violence. His presence in Kolkata greatly
improved the situation, and the coming of independence was celebrated in a spirit of communal harmony, with
joyous dancing in the streets. Gandhiji’s prayer meetings attracted large crowds. But this was short-lived as riots
between Hindus and Muslims erupted once again and Gandhiji had to resort to a fast to bring peace. Finally, on
30 January 1948, one such extremist, Nathuram Vinayak Godse, walked up to Gandhiji during his evening
prayer in Delhi and fired three bullets at him, killing him instantly.
(a) Which of the following city Gandhiji was there on 15th August 1947?

a) Kolkata b) Delhi

c) Mumbai d) Chennai
(b) Which of the following killed Gandhiji on 30 January 1948?

a) Nathuram Singh b) Nathuram Parikkar

c) Nathuram Godse d) Abdul Gaffar Khan

(c) What was the effect of the Gandhiji’s death in Pakistan on subsiding of communal situation?

a) None of these b) Magical

c) Neutral d) Disaster
(d) Which of the following is known as Iron Man of India?
 a) Khan Abdul Gaffar b) Mahatma Gandhi

c) Amrita Kaur d) Sardar Patel

25. In the given political outline map of India, four States have been marked A, B, C and D. Identify these States on [4]
the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with the
respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets given in the map as per the
following format:

Serial number of the information used Concerned alphabet in the map Name of the State

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

i. The State which was called Madras at the time of Independence.

ii. The State formed on the basis of imbalanced development.
iii. The State which was partitioned in 1947.
iv. The first State created in 1952.

26. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow: [4]

Questions
i. What does the cartoon represent?
 ii. What message does the cartoon convey?
iii. What does the pigeon and man with goods symbolise?
SECTION-E (24 MARKS)
27. If the Soviet Union had not disintegrated and the world had remained bipolar, how would that situation have [6]
affected the world politics?
OR
What was the Soviet system? Assess any four features of the Soviet system.
28. Analyse any three factors responsible for the European Union to be a highly influential regional organization. [6]
OR
The emerging economies of China and India have great potential to challenge the unipolar world. Do you agree with
the statement? Substantiate your arguments.
29. Trace the emergence of BJP as a significant force in post-Emergency politics. [6]
OR
State the main issues in Indian politics in the period after 1989. What different configurations of political parties
these differences lead to?
30. Evaluate the role of the Naxalite Movement in India. [6]
OR
What were the factors that led to popular protests before the 1975 Emergency? Which parties did organise the
protests?
 Series ARSP/13 Set ~ 13
Roll No. Q.P Code 15/13/13
Candidates must write the Q.P Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

 Please check that this question paper contains 05 printed pages.

 Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
 Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
 Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-book
before attempting it.
 15 Minute times has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10:15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m to 10.30 a.m, the students
will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer –
book during this period.

POLITICAL SCIENCE

Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:
1. The question paper consists of five sections (A, B, C, D and E) with 30 questions in total.

2. All questions are compulsory.

3. Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.

4. Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50-60 words each.

5. Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100-120 words each.

There is an internal choice in two of the 4 marks questions

6. Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
7. Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170-180 words.

8. There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

SECTION – A (12 MARKS)

1. Arrange the following in chronological order- [1]
i. Antonio Manuel de Oliveira Guterres as President of the Socialist International.
ii. Antonio Manuel de Oliveira Guterres appointed as a UN secretary general.
iii. Antonio Manuel de Oliveira Guterres served as former Prime Minister of Portugal.
iv. Antonio Manuel de Oliveira Guterres was the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees.

a) iv, ii, i, iii b) iii, i, iv, ii

c) iii, ii, i, iv d) iv, iii, ii, i

2. Tribals of Orissa fear their displacement due to the extraction of ________. [1]

a) Uranium b) Copper

c) Zinc d) Iron ore

3. When did Hindu Mahasabha come into existence? [1]

a) 1924 b) 1914

c) 1885 d) 1915
4. Which of the following is a primary feature of the Second Five-Year Plan? [1]

a) Stressed on agrarian sector b) Stressed on Small-scale industries

c) Stressed on Dams and Irrigation d) Stressed on heavy industries

5. Match List I with List II regarding the cultural consequences of globalization. [1]
 List-1 List-2

(a) Cultural Homegenisation (i) Imposition of Western culture on the rest of the world

(b) US Hegemony (ii) Cultures seeking to buy into the dominant American dream

(c) McDonaldisation (iii) Each culture becoming more different and distinctive

(d) Cultural Heterogenisation (iv) Uniform culture

a) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) b) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

c) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

6. Assertion (A): Writers, poets, and filmmakers in India and Pakistan have often used the phrase division of [1]
hearts to describe partition.
Reason (R): Muslim league put forward the Two nation theory that British did not consist of one but two
people.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

7. State the incorrect sentence from the following sentences: [1]

a) India contemplated signing the non- b) Non-alignment allowed India to gain

proliferation treaty in 1968. assistance both from USA and USSR.

c) The treaty of peace and friendship in 1971 d) The cold war has affected the relationship
was the result of India's closeness of USA. between India and Pakistan.
8. After the death of Lal Bahadur Shastri, there was an intense competition for the post of Prime Minister between [1]
Indira Gandhi and which one of the following?

a) Morarji Desai b) K. Kamaraj

c) S. Nijalingappa d) V.V. Giri

9. The Panchsheel agreement was signed between ________. [1]

a) Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto b) Jawaharlal Nehru and Zhou Enlai

c) Jawaharlal Nehru and Ahmed khan d) Lal Bahadur Shastri and Yahya Khan
10. Assertion (A): Many western European countries joined NATO. [1]
Reason (R): It was a military alliance formed by the USA.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

11. Name the leader who demanded a separate nation for Sikh on the name of religion before cabinet mission 1946? [1]

a) Guru Charan Singh Tohra b) Master Tara Singh

c) Darbara sSingh d) Baldev Singh

12. Maoist means: [1]

a) Freedom fighters b) A secret society

 c) Communists who believe in the ideology of d) Terrorist groups
Mao
SECTION- B (12 MARKS)
13. Analyse any one reason for considering NPT of 1968 as an arms control treaty. [2]
14. Describe any two advantages and two disadvantages of ‘coalition government’ in India. [2]
15. What is meant by the protection of global commons in the world? [2]
16. What was the object of Garibi Hatao slogan of Indira Gandhi? [2]
17. Assess the steps taken by the Indian Government due to volatile situation in the North-East region caused by the [2]
Indo-China War.
18. Why was the first general election in India considered unusual? [2]
SECTION-C (20 MARKS)
19. Why would South Asia continue to be known as a conflict prone zone? Explain. [4]
20. Assess the role of the United Nations as the most important international organisation. [4]
21. Explain the steps taken by Governments of India to curb the emission of greenhouse gases. [4]
OR
Oil is an important resource in global strategy that affects the geopolitics and global economy. Comment.
22. Give four reasons due to which Globalization was resisted. [4]
OR
Explain economic consequences of globalisation.
23. Describe the demands of AASU, AGP and ULFA. [4]
SECTION-D (12 MARKS)
24. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
On the 15th August 1947, Mahatma Gandhi did not participate in any of the Independence Day celebrations. He
was in Kolkata in the areas which were torn by gruesome riots between Hindus and Muslims. He was saddened
by the communal violence and disheartened that the principles of ahimsa (non-violence) and satyagraha (active
but non-violent resistance) that he had lived and worked for, had failed to bind the people in troubled times.
Gandhiji went on to persuade the Hindus and Muslims to give up violence. His presence in Kolkata greatly
improved the situation, and the coming of independence was celebrated in a spirit of communal harmony, with
joyous dancing in the streets. Gandhiji’s prayer meetings attracted large crowds. But this was short-lived as riots
between Hindus and Muslims erupted once again and Gandhiji had to resort to a fast to bring peace. Finally, on
30 January 1948, one such extremist, Nathuram Vinayak Godse, walked up to Gandhiji during his evening
prayer in Delhi and fired three bullets at him, killing him instantly.
(a) Which of the following city Gandhiji was there on 15th August 1947?

a) Kolkata b) Delhi

c) Mumbai d) Chennai
(b) Which of the following killed Gandhiji on 30 January 1948?

a) Nathuram Singh b) Nathuram Parikkar

c) Nathuram Godse d) Abdul Gaffar Khan

(c) What was the effect of the Gandhiji’s death in Pakistan on subsiding of communal situation?

a) None of these b) Magical

 c) Neutral d) Disaster
(d) Which of the following is known as Iron Man of India?

a) Khan Abdul Gaffar b) Mahatma Gandhi

c) Amrita Kaur d) Sardar Patel

25. In the given political outline map of India, four countries/states have been marked as A, B, C and D. Identify [4]
these on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book along with
their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabet as per format that follows:
i. The country with which India fought a battle in 1962.
ii. The country with which India has a dispute on Kashmir.
iii. The country which came into existence after the 1971 war.
iv. The Indian state which shares its border with China.

Sr. No. of the information used Concerned alphabet given in the map Name of the Countries/State

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

26. Study the cartoon given below carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
 i. How do the big powers react when new countries claim nuclear status?
ii. On what basis can we say that some countries can be trusted with nuclear weapons while others can't be?
iii. Besides the big powers, N. Korea and Iran, name any other two countries which possess nuclear weapons.
SECTION-E (24 MARKS)
27. Highlight any three positive and three negative features each of the Soviet system in the Soviet Union. [6]
OR
Describe global changes that have occurred after the cold war. Compelling the United Nations to bring about
necessary reforms.
28. Evaluate any three major factors responsible for making the European Union a political force from economic [6]
forces.
OR
Discuss Indo-China relations.
29. In 2014 elections, people have voted for a stable government at the Centre. Do you think that the era of the [6]
coalition has ended? Support your answer with suitable arguments.
OR
‘Inspite of serious differences between major national political parties, emergence of new consensus is being viewed
with interest'. In the light of this statement describe any three consensus.
30. The Emergency, declared on 25 June, 1975, is seen a blur on Indian democracy. Assess its impact on the party [6]
system in India.
OR
Write a brief note on the background leading to the declaration of Emergency of June 1975 in India.
 Series ARSP/14 Set ~ 14
Roll No. Q.P Code 15/4/14
Candidates must write the Q.P Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

 Please check that this question paper contains 05 printed pages.

 Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
 Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
 Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-book
before attempting it.
 15 Minute times has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10:15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m to 10.30 a.m, the students
will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer –
book during this period.

POLITICAL SCIENCE

Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. The question paper consists of five sections (A, B, C, D and E) with 30 questions in total.

2. All questions are compulsory.

3. Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.

4. Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50-60 words each.

5. Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100-120 words each.

There is an internal choice in two of the 4 marks questions

6. Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
7. Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170-180 words.

8. There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

SECTION – A (12 MARKS)

1. Arrange the following in chronological order- [1]
i. Setting up of WTO
ii. Membership of the UN Security Council was expanded from 11 to 15
iii. IAEA was established
iv. Signing of GATT

a) iv, iii, ii, i b) iv, ii, i, iii

c) i, iv, iii, ii d) iii, ii, iv, i

2. Name a young economist involved in drafting the first five-year plan, who argued that India should hasten [1]
slowly for the first two decades.

a) V. Keskar b) Jawaharlal Nehru

c) C. Mahalanobis d) K.N. Raj

3. Institutional Revolutionary Party exercised power in: [1]

a) Finland b) Mexico

c) Cairo d) Brazil
4. Which of the following is not a contributory factor for development? [1]

a) Level of technology b) Character of people

c) Abundance of national resources d) Frequent and free elections

5. Match List I with List II regarding globalization. [1]
 List-1 List-2

(a) IMF (i) Ensure social and economics justice to labours

(b) WTO (ii) Public health agency

(c) WHO (iii) Financial agency

(d) ILO (iv) Governs trade between governments

a) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) b) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

c) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

6. Assertion (A): Writers, poets, and filmmakers in India and Pakistan have often used the phrase division of [1]
hearts to describe partition.
Reason (R): Muslim league put forward the Two nation theory that British did not consist of one but two
people.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

7. In which year was the Shimla accord signed between Indian and Pakistan? [1]

a) 1982 b) 1978

c) 1980 d) 1972
8. The use of the English language was strongly opposed by the [1]

a) J.L. Nehru b) Charan Singh

c) Gulzari Lal Nanda d) Karpoori Thakur

9. Which conference marked the zenith of India's engagement with the newly independent Asian and African [1]
nations?

a) Bandung Conference b) Malaysian Conference

c) Singapore Conference d) Egyptian Conference

10. Assertion (A): Many western European countries joined NATO. [1]
Reason (R): It was a military alliance formed by the USA.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

11. Who was the leader of the Naga National Council? [1]

a) Angame Zapu Phizo b) V.P. Singh

c) Karunanidhi d) Lai Denga

12. Which country among the following is not a member of SAARC? [1]

a) Myanmar b) Nepal

c) India d) Bangladesh
 SECTION- B (12 MARKS)
13. What is the basis of alliances? When do they change? Give an example in support of your answer. [2]
14. List the four groups to be emerged in 1990s. [2]
15. Describe the efforts made by the Government of India to reduce greenhouse gas emission to have better [2]
environment.
16. What was the status of SVD in the new era of coalition? [2]
17. Which factors influence the foreign policy of a nation? [2]
18. Mention the aims and goals of Socialist Party of India. Why the party could not prove itself as an effective [2]
alternative to the Congress?
SECTION-C (20 MARKS)
19. Explain India's changing relationship with Pakistan. [4]
20. Study the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
The world may not be ready for such a radical step even though the Cold War is over. Without the Veto, there is
the danger as in 1945 that the great powers would lose interest in the world body, that they would do what they
pleased outside it, and that without their support and involvement the body would be ineffective.
a. Name the five permanent members of the UN Security Council.
b. Why is the Veto power given to the permanent members called a special privilege?
c. What will be the consequence if all the fifteen members of the Security Council are given the power to Veto?
21. What is meant by the protection of global commons? Explain with the help of examples. [4]
OR
Explain the concept of ‘common property resource’ with the help of an example from India.
22. What is meant by globalisation? Explain any three cultural consequences of globalisation. [4]
OR
Explain any four negative consequences of Globalization for the people of India.
23. “Regional aspirations, regional in balances and regionalism are a hindrance in the way of national unity of [4]
India’’. Do you agree with the statement?
SECTION-D (12 MARKS)
24. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
A few days before Independence, the Maharaja of Manipur, Bodhachandra Singh, signed the Instrument of
Accession with the Indian government on the assurance that the internal autonomy of Manipur would be
maintained. Under the pressure of public opinion, the Maharaja held elections in Manipur in June 1948 and the
state became a constitutional monarchy. Thus Manipur was the first part of India to hold an election based on a
universal adult franchise. In the Legislative Assembly of Manipur, there were sharp differences over the question
of the merger of Manipur with India. While the state Congress wanted the merger, other political parties were
opposed to this. The Government of India succeeded in pressurizing the Maharaja into signing a Merger
Agreement in September 1949, without consulting the popularly elected Legislative Assembly of Manipur. This
caused a lot of anger and resentment in Manipur, the repercussions of which are still being felt.
(a) Which of the following is the ruler of the Manipur?

a) Hari Singh b) Bodhachandra Singh

c) Hari Chandra Meitei d) Chong Meitei

(b) Which Indian states were first to held elections on universal adult suffrage?
 a) Manipur b) Gujarat

c) Rajasthan d) Punjab
(c) Which of the following wanted Manipur to merge with India?

a) Maharaja b) State Party

c) State Congress d) State Youth

(d) When did the Government of India succeed in Pressurising the maharaja of Manipur?

a) 1946 b) 1956

c) 1948 d) 1949
25. In the given outline political map of India, four states have been marked as (A) (B) (C) and (D). Identify these [4]
states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book, along with
their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets as per the following formate:-
i. The State that resisted its merger with the Union of India.
ii. The states where there was anti-Hindi agitation in 1965.
iii. A state where chipko movement was carried out.
iv. The state which saw a farmer's agitation in 1988 protesting against the government increased electricity rates.

26. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow: [4]

Questions
 i. What does the cartoon represent?
ii. What message does the cartoon convey?
iii. What does the pigeon and man with goods symbolise?
SECTION-E (24 MARKS)
27. What sort of conflicts had occurred in Soviet Republics? Explain. [6]
OR
Highlight any three positive and three negative features each of the Soviet system in the Soviet Union.
28. What makes the European Union a highly influential regional organisation? [6]
OR
Discuss Indo-China relations.
29. Discuss the ways and measures to fight communalism. [6]
OR
Analyze any three major changes that took place in the India political system towards the end of 1980s.
30. What factors led to the declaration of internal emergency in India on June 25,1975? [6]
OR
Highlight the legacy of Janata Government which came into power after end of the Emergency of 1975-77.
 Series ARSP/15 Set ~ 15
Roll No. Q.P Code 15/5/5
Candidates must write the Q.P Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

 Please check that this question paper contains 05 printed pages.

 Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
 Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
 Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-book
before attempting it.
 15 Minute times has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10:15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m to 10.30 a.m, the students
will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer –
book during this period.

POLITICAL SCIENCE

Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. The question paper consists of five sections (A, B, C, D and E) with 30 questions in total.

2. All questions are compulsory.

3. Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.

4. Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50-60 words each.

5. Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100-120 words each.

There is an internal choice in two of the 4 marks questions

6. Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
7. Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170-180 words.

8. There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.

SECTION – A (12 MARKS)

1. Arrange the following in chronological order- [1]
i. Yalta Conference of the ‘Big Three’ (Roosevelt, Churchill and Stalin) decides to organise a United Nations
conference on the proposed world organisation.
ii. 26 Allied nations fighting against the Axis Powers meet in Washington,. D.C., to support the Atlantic Charter
and sign the ‘Declaration by United Nations’
iii. Signing of the Atlantic Charter by the US President Franklin D. Roosevelt and British PM Winston S.
Churchill
iv. Tehran Conference Declaration of the Three Powers (US, Britain and Soviet Union)

a) iii, iv, i, ii b) ii, i, iv, iii

c) iv, iii, ii, i d) iii, ii, iv, i

2. Which Indian state has launched the New Democratic Initiative that involved campaigns for development in [1]
1987-1991?

a) Gujarat b) Kerala

c) Bihar d) West Bengal

3. An Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) is used to record: [1]

a) senior citizens preferences b) politicians preferences

c) pressure groups preferences d) voters preferences

4. When the second Five year plan was launched? [1]
 a) 1955 b) 1956

c) 1952 d) 1951
5. Match List I with List II regarding the political consequences of globalization earlier and now. [1]

List-1 List-2

(a) Welfare state (i) Global leaders

(b) Social wellbeing (ii) Minimalist government

(c) Politically ill-informed about other countries (iii) Marketing Economy

(d) Political leaders (iv) Well-informed due to technological advancements

a) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) b) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

c) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

6. Assertion (A): India was divided into 14 states and 6 union territories by the state Reorganisation Act 1956. [1]
Reason (R): The creation of linguistic provinces has helped a lot in instilling feelings of regionalism in the
Indian public.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

7. The foreign policy of independent India vigorously pursued the dream of a peaceful world by advocating the [1]
policy of:

a) no Cold War b) military expansion

c) non-alignment d) no nuclear weapons

8. The economic situation in 1967 triggered off: [1]

a) Price fall b) Military rise

c) Price rise d) Economic progress

9. What was the objective of Nehru's Foreign Policy? [1]

a) All of these b) Maintain territorial integrity

c) Save sovereignty, get after forge struggle d) Faster economic development

10. Assertion (A): In 1990s, the economy of Russia was ruined completely. [1]
Reason (R): More than 90% of the industries were sold to private companies at throwaway prices.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

11. J&K experienced a very fair election in: [1]

a) 2002 b) 2004

c) 2008 d) 2006
12. Which among the following is not a reason for the Indo-Nepal sour relations? [1]
 a) A trade-related disputes b) Interlocking water management grids

c) Maoist movement in Nepal d) The warm relationship between Nepal and

China
SECTION- B (12 MARKS)
13. Why is it said that history of petroleum is also the history of war and struggles? [2]
14. Write a short note on Hindutva. [2]
15. Give some environmental concerns of global politics. [2]
16. Highlight any two political parties of 1960s in India that were Rightist and any two other parties as Left leaning [2]
parties.
17. How did China war of 1962 dirt India’s image at home and abroad. Explain any four points. [2]
18. Describe the factors which were responsible for the dominance of the Congress Party in India till 1967. [2]
SECTION-C (20 MARKS)
19. What are the major differences between SAARC and European Union as alternative centres of power? [4]
20. Examine the role played by India in the implementation of UN policies and programmes. [4]
21. What is the significance of Kyoto Protocol? Is India a signatory to this protocol? [4]
OR
Explain the concept of ‘common property resource’ with the help of an example from India.
22. Do you agree that cultural consequences of globalisation are always negative? Justify your answer with any two [4]
suitable arguments.
OR
Explain positive and negative effects of globalisation.
23. What was the main outcome of the Rajiv Gandhi Longowal Accord in July 1985? [4]
SECTION-D (12 MARKS)
24. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Just before Independence, it was announced by the British that with the end of their rule over India, the
paramountcy of the British crown over the Princely States would also lapse. This meant that all these states, as
many as 565 in all, would become legally independent. The British government took the view that all these
states were free to join either India or Pakistan or remain independent if they so wished. This decision was left
not to the people but to the princely rulers of these states. This was a very serious problem and could threaten the
very existence of a united India. The problems started very soon. First of all, the ruler of Travancore announced
that the state had decided on Independence. The Nizam of Hyderabad made a similar announcement the next
day. Rulers like the Nawab of Bhopal were averse to joining the Constituent Assembly.
(a) How many princely states were there in India at the time of independence?

a) 565 b) 436

c) 665 d) 336
(b) What was the ruler of Hyderabad was popularly referred to as?

a) Iron Man b) Nizam

c) Maharaja d) Tipu
(c) What were not the choices given to the princely states by the British?

a) All of these b) Free to join Pakistan

 c) Free to join India d) Free to remain independent
(d) Which of the following were the largest princely states of India?

a) Manipur b) Junagarh

c) Hyderabad d) Kashmir
25. In the given outline political map of India, four states have been marked as (A) (B) (C) and (D). Identify these [4]
states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book, along with
their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets as per the following formate:-
i. The states where women put a ban on the sale of arrack and stopped its auction.
ii. State which is related with article 370 of the Indian constitution.
iii. State from where the J.P. Narayan demanded the dismissal of congress govt. in 1974.
iv. State which is highly affected the Naxalites.

26. See the cartoon given below and answer the questions that follow: [4]

i. How do the big powers react when new countries claim nuclear status?
ii. On what basis can we say that some countries can be trusted with nuclear weapons while others can’t be?
SECTION-E (24 MARKS)
27. Describe the factors that make most of the former Soviet Republics prone to conflicts and threats. [6]
OR
What were the consequences of disintegration of USSR?
28. Explain any four steps taken by China to develop its economy. [6]
OR
Analyse any three factors responsible for the European Union to be a highly influential regional organization.
29. In your opinion, how far a two party system is required for successful democracy? Based on India’s experience [6]
of coalition governments, what are the advantages of the present party system in India.
OR
Highlight any three areas where consensus has emerged among most of the political parties in India after 1989.
30. The anti-Emergency wave does not adequately describe the mode of the 1977 elections. Describe in detail. [6]
OR
Write a brief note on the background leading to the declaration of Emergency of June 1975 in India.