Test-2 (Code-C)

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2025

MM:720
TEST - 2 Time:3 Hrs. 20 Min.

Choose the correct answer: [PHYSICS] 5. Aboy can throw a ball upto a maximum
SECTION -A horizontal
1. Choose the correct statement range of 200 m. How high above the ground can he
throwthe same ball?
(1) If aphysical quantity has
be a vector quantity direction then it must (1) 50 m (2) 200 m
(3) 100 m (4) 150 m
(2) If aphysical quantity is vector
a direction then it must have 6. A particle is moving on a circular path of
radius
14 m with a constant speed of 2 m/s. The time
(3) Momentum is a scalar taken
quantity by the particle to cover quarter of the circular path
(4) Force is a scalar quantity
is (use TI=
2. If two vectors Å= 4i +3 +2k and B-2i +aj +k (1) 5s (2) 22 s
are parallel, then the value of a is
(3) 8 s (4) 11 s
(1) 1 (2) 7. If position vector of a particle at any time t (in s) is
2
3
given by i-(2t i+31² j-4 k) m, then velocity
(3) 2 (4) 2 vector at t= 2 s is expressed as (in m/s)
3. If two vectors and B are such that (1) i+j+6k (2) i+j+k
2
|A+B| =|A=B,then angle between Å
and +B (3) - 4Î +2j +k (4) 2i +12
is
8. If x and y co-ordinates ofa particle varies with time
(1) 60° (2) 90° as x = 2t, y = 2 + 2t + 2, then path followed by the
(3) 120° (4) 180° particle is
4. Two projectiles are thrown from the ground at (1) Circle (2) Hyperbola
angles 1 and 2 with the horizontal respectively, (3) Ellipse (4) Parabola
reach the maximum height in same time. The ratio
of their initial speeds respectively is
9. Velocity of a boat in still water is (2i +6j) m/s. If
2sin, sin 2 velocity of river is (3i + 2j) m/s, then velocity of
(1) (2)
sin 2 sin, boat with respect to ground is (in m/s)

sin 2 cos , (1) Î-4j (2) -i+4j

(3) (4)
sin 0, cos , (3) 3i +4j (4) 5/ +8j
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2025 Test-2 (Code-c)
wateris2 km/h and
15. Speed of boat in still30 width of river
10. Position vector of two particles A and B is given is 500 m. If it
takes minutes to cross the
by A = (3t i +2t i)m, a =(ti + 2r j+3k) m river along
the shortest path, then the velocity of the river is
respectively, then magnitude of relative acceleration
of particle A w.r.t. particle Bat t 4 second will be (1) V2 km/h (2) V3 km/h
(1) V48 ms2 (2) V42 ms 2 (3) 1 km/h (4) V5 km/h
east with a speed of
(3) V52 ms2 (4) V11 ms2 16. Abird is flying towards 10 kmhof
and a car is moving towards south with a speed
11. Equation of a projectile is given by y= 3x - x*, 10 km/h. The velocity of bird W.r.t. driver of the car is
then maximum height attained by the projectile in (2) 20/2 km/h, NW
meter is (Here x, y are in meter) (1) 20 km/h, SE

(1)
1
(2
3 (3) 10/2 km/h, NE (4) 10km/h, SW
2 4

8 3
17. Unit vector along the direction of P=i+j+kis
(3) (4)
i+j+k (2) i+j+k
2
(1)
12. Two particles Aand B are thrown with same speed V2 V3
at an angle of 37° and 53° respectively from the
horizontal line. The ratio of maximum height
(3)
i+j+k (4)
i+j+k
achieved by the projectiles is given by 2 3
(1) 9:16 (2) 3:4
18. Ifa body is projected at an angle with horizontal at
(3) 5:7 (4) 7:15 speed u then its speed at maximum height is
13. Two balls A and B are thrown from ground at angle
9 and (90 0) with the horizontal direction usin 0
(1) (2) usin
respectively with same speed 'u'. If time of flight of 2
ballA is TA and that of ball B is Ta then TA + Ta is
equal to ucos 9
(3) ucos (4) 4
(1)
2u
-sin 20
V2u cos
(2)
g 19. If a=2 unit, b 8 unit and angle between åand
2u V8 u -sin
(3) -sin(7+0) (4) 4
+0 b is radian, then the value of 4 + b is
2
14. Rain is falling verticaly downwards with a speed of
'a' m/s. A cyclist is moving from west to east with a (1) 16 unit (2) 8/3 unit
speed of 'b' m/s. To protect himself from rain, he (3) 8/2 unit
should hold his umbrella from vertical at an angle of (4) 4 unit
b
20. In any uniform circular motion
(1) =tan (2) =tan (1) Velocity is constant but acceleration is variable

b (2) Velocity is variable but acceleration is constal

(3) Sin (4) Both (1) and (3) (3) Speed is constant but acceleration is variable
va +b?
(4) Both speed and acceleration are variabie
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 Test-2 (Code-C) AllIndiaAakash Test Series for NEET-2025
21. The trajectory of a particle projected from ground is magnitude of centripetal acceleration at that instant
X is
given by y =V3x1- 100
where Xand yare in
1 1
m. The horizontal range of the projectile is (1)m/s? (2) m/s2
3
2
(1) 100 m (2) 50 m 1
(3) 100/3 m (3) m/s' (4) Zero
(4) 50/3 m 9

22. A bomb is dropped from an aeroplane which is 27. A particle moves in a plane under constant
acceleration such that its acceleration is always
moving with a horizontal velocityy of 200km/h at the inclined with its velocity. The trajectory of the
height of 1960 m. The bomb will hit the ground after
atime (in seconds). particle will be
(1) Straight line (2) Parabola
(1) 10 (2) 20
(3) Cycloid (4) Helical
(3) 30 (4) 40 28. Two particles 'A' and 'B' move in concentric circles
23. A boy running horizontally with speed 5 m/s of radius 'R and 2R with speed v and 2v
observes rain falling vertically with speed 12 m/s. respectively. If time period of both the particles is TA
The speed of rain with respect to the ground is
and Tg then TA is equal to
(1) 17 m/s (2) 12 m/s
(3) 13 m/s (4) 5 m/s 1
(1) 1 (2)
24. A toy train is moving in a circular path of radius 2
2 m with auniform speed of 4 m/s. Angular speed 1
of the toy train is (3) 2 (4)
4
(1) 1rad/s (2) 3 rad/s
29. A particle starts moving with constant acceleration
(3) 2 rad/s (4) 4 rad/s and with initial velocity of (2i +2j) m/s. After
25. Assertion: Path of one projectile w.r.t. another
projectile while they are in air is a straight line. 2 second from start its velocity becomes (4i +6j)
Reason: Relative acceleration of one projectile m/s.The magnitude of its acceleration is
w.r.t. another projectile is zero. (1) V6 m/s? (2) V3 m/s
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the (3) V5 m/s? (4) V2 m/s?
reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion 30. Three vectors A, B and C form a triangle as
shown. The correct relation between the vectors is
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion
B
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false
A
26. A particle is moving in x - y plane in a circular path
with centre at origin and radius equal to 6 m. If at an (1) Ä-B- (2) B-Å-
instant velocity of particle is-i) m/s, then (3) =28 1) -Å =B
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 AllIndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2025
SECTION-B
Test-2 (Code-C)
31. For maximum range of a projectile, the angle of
projection with the horizontal ground should be 36. Two particles are moving in two
concentric circles
as shown in figure. If the angular speeds of
(1) radian (2)
T

4
radian 'A' and 'B' are o and 2o
radial acceleration will be respectively, partitchleiesr
ratio of
BI
(3) radian (4) radian
2 6 A

32. The angular speed of minute hand of a clock is

R

(1) rad/s (2) 86400 rad/s

3600

T
(3) rad/s (4) rad/s
18000 1800

33. If ¢= 0.2i +0.6+ ck is a unit vector then the value (1) 1:8 (2) 5:7
of 'c' will be (3) 3:7 (4) 8:5
3
37. Initial velocity of aprojectile is (V3 i+i) m/s from
(1)
V5 (2) 6 the horizontal ground, the cartesian equation of its
V5
path is (g = 10 m/s2)
X 5x2
(3) (4) (1) y=a (2) y =
V3 X-a
34. Velocity component of a particle is given by x
(3) y = +X (4) y= 2x2 + 3x+5
V,=3, V, =4f respectively, angle made by its 2
velocity vector with x axis at t =1 sec will be 38. Aball is thrown from the top of a tower as shown in
(1) 37° (2) 53° figure. It will strike the ground after (g= 10 m/s)
(3) 30° 20 m/s
(4) 60°
35. An oblique projectile is at the same height at time t1 30°
and tz respectively. If time period of projectile is T
then t1 + tz is equal to
400 m
3T
(1) (2) 4

(3) T (4) (1) 8s (2) 10 s

(3) 20 s (4) 16 s
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 Test-2 (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2025

39. A
particle is projected from ground. If its horizontal 44. A particle is moving with constant speed v (m/s) in
range and maximum height are equal to 60W2 m X- y plane. At t = 0 it was at point A and at
t= 1s it has moved to point B with velocities, as
and 30 m respectively, then its speed of projection shown in the figure. Average acceleration (in m/s?)
is (g = 10 m/s?) of the particle during this motion is
(1) 25 m/s (2) 30 m/s
(3) 15 m/s (4) 20 m/s
90°
40. Avector P makes angles a, Band ywith X, Yand Z
axes respectively then cos?'a + cos²B + cos?y is
equal to

45°
(1) 2 (2)
(3) 1 (4) Zero (1) (2) vi +
41. A plank is moving with 10 m/s on a horizontal
surface. A boy standing on the plank throws a ball vi
upward with 20 m/s with respect to himself. The (4)
speed of the ball with respect to horizontal surface
after one second will be (g= 10 m/s?) 45. If - then which of the following sets of
(1) 10/2 m/s magnitude of physical quantity is not possible for A,
(2) 20 m/s B and C?

(3) 10 m/s (4) 20/2 m/s (1) 2,4,5 (2) 10, 12,5
(3) 4, 8, 2 (4) 10, 11, 1
42. A cricket ball is thrown by a player with a speed of 46. A particle is moving along a circular path with a
25 m/s in adirection 30° above the horizontal. The constant speed v. If the angle rotates by the particle
height of the ball when it has covered 30 m in is 0 then magnitude of change in velocity of the
horizontal direction was (g= 10m/s?) particle will be

(1) (1043 43
5
(2)(10N3 365) (1) Zero (2) 2v sin
48 48 vsin(0)
(3) 10V3 5
m
(4) 5/3 (3)
2 (4) 2vcos
43. A particle is moving in uniform circular motion, its 47. Two bullets are fired horizontally with different
acceleration speeds from the same height. Which will reach the
ground first?
(1) Is toward the center of the circle
(1) Faster bullet will reach first
(2) Is along the tangent of circular path (2) Slower bullet will reach first
(3) Is zero (3) Both willreach simultaneously
(4) ls varies in magnitude but direction remains (4) Time to reach ground depends on mass of
constant bullets
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 All India Aakash Test Series for
48.
NEET-2025
Maximum height attained by a projectile is (1) 45° (2) 90°
Test-2 (Code-c)
increased by 2%, percentage increase in time of (3) 120° (4) 60°
flight will be (keeping the angle of projection same)
50. If P-2i -j+ 3k and L=) i -2j
(1) 1%
(3) 0.1%
(2) 0.2%
P+Qmakes with x-axis is
+k,then theangle
(4) 2%
49. Speed of water fow in a river is 4 km/h. A 4
swimmer (1) cos
SWims at a speed of 4 km/h at an angle " /34
W.r.t. river flow. If swimmer want to reach at
point R 3
as shown in the fiqure then value of 0
(take PQ= QR) should be, (2) sin
R
T
(3) cos
’ Direction of
river flow 5
0 (4) tan
3

[CHEMISTRY]
SECTION -A 54. CO bond order in CO is
51. Which among the following is square planar in
shape? (1) 2 (2) 1.75
(1) XeF4 (3) 1.33 (4) 1
(2) CH4
55. Correct order of dipole moment of the given
(3) NH3 (4) sO molecules is
52. The pair of species which is (1) CO2> H2S >H20 (2) H20 > CO2 > HS
is diamagnetic in nature
(3) CO2 > H20 > H2S (4) H20> HS> CO2
(1) N2 and O2 56. Match the atomic number given in
(2) B2 and H2 List-l with their
IUPAC official name given in List-ll.
(3) Liz and C2 (4) NO and O, List-! List-l|
53. Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is observed in a 106 () Rutherfordium
NO, NO, b 102 (ii)
(1) Seaborgium
CH, C. 101 (ii)
OCH, Nobelium
CHO CHO d 104 (iv)
Mendelevium
(3) (4)
OH (1) a(ii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(ii), c(iv), d0)
OCH, (3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(ü), d)
Space for Rough Work

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 Test-2 (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2025
57. Which among the following is not a representative 65. Correct order of negative electron gain enthalpy of
element? the given species is
(1) Rb (2) Fe (1) S> C|> Br >Se
(3) In (4) Te
(2) Cl > S> Br> Se
58. The pair of species which are acidic in nature are (3) Br > C|> Se >S
(1) N20 and CO (2) Na0 and CaO
(4) Cl> Br >S>Se
(3) ClzO7 and NO2 (4) Al23 and As203 66. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
59. The correct order of bond angles in the following Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
species is
(1) SO3 > XeF2 > CCl4
Assertion (A): Ethyl alcohol is soluble in water.
(2) XeF2 > SO3 > CCl4
(3) CCl4 > SO3 > XeF2 Reason (R): Ethyl alcohol forms intermolecular
(4) XeF > CCl4 > SO3 hydrogen bond with water.
60. Number of antibonding electrons in 0; and In light of the above statements, choose the correct
bonding electrons in B2 respectively are answer from the options given below.
(1) 5 and 6 (2) 7 and 4 (1) Both Aand R are true and R is not the correct
(3) 5 and 4 (4) 6 and 4 explanation of A
61. Maximum number of atoms present in a plane in (2) A is true but R is false
SF6 is (3) A is false butR is true
(1) 7 (2) 4 (4) Both Aand R are true and R 0s the correct
(3) 5 (4) 6 explanation of A
62. Bond order of 1.5 is shown by which species? 67. Number of o-bonds and r-bonds present in the
given molecule respectively are
(1) O; (2) Cz CH,-CH=CH-C-CH,-CN
(3) O2 (4) N,
63. The shape and hybridization of XeOF4 are (1) 16 and 3
(1) Trigonal bipyramidal and sp°d (2) 14 and 4
(2) Square pyramidal and spd (3) 15 and 3
(3) Square planar and sp° (4) 15 and 5
(4) Square pyramidal and sp°d? 68. Which among the following has minimum bond
64. Which among the following does not contain a length?
T-bond? (1) Nz (2) N,
(1) CzH2 (2) SOz
(3) CzH (4) POCl3 (3) N; (4) N
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 73. 70. 69.
75. 74. 72. 71. All
The
(c) (b) (a)
Consider India
(4) (3)
(2) Correct C--H(3) length?
(1) orderof NO(1) Which SCl2(3) SF6(1) The I SiCl4(3)CHCl3(1)
(3)C2 (1) Which Polar (3B2
) Bez(1)Which (3) (1)
bonds Transuranium The
elementsAntimony
F-> species F2 (a) Group
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> among of and and
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N3> 02-> > N3 non-planar statements 15
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which following the elements and
> N3 only only
O2 F F ionic the following tellurium Series
follows to
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diatomic areare statements. for
(2) PFs(4H2SO4
) (2) (4Oz
) (2)N2 H20(4) PCls(2) (Li4)z (2)
(4) CO
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82. 81. 80. 79. 78. 77. 76.
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stability
In Statement
Statement (3CazX3 wibe
l Calcium
) (1)compound.
shape Given CaXCompound of (3) Li (1Ge (isoelectronic
3) (1) andWhich sp°,(3)
) Alisostructural? SOCl2,
(1) The CIF3(3) (1)highest nodal a
G2s(3) *2Px(1)plane?
hi-110005.
3 among
Whicthe Which
light (X) shows sp³,
PO S0 hybridisations
of of of below is SFarespectively
ofsp°d
sp', sp², SO2,are number amongthe
the reacts diagonal and
the the 1s?2s22p5, If and the
above l: I: are sp³
molecule.Octet ground
Phone: mnolecules.Octet
the with SOClO; following of
relationship of lone following
statements. theory two
atomic
theory thenelement
state following
Contains
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statements CazX(4) CaX2(2) (4)Be(2) B (4) (2) (4) (2) XeO3(4) SeF4(2) G*2p,(4) T2px(2)
does simplest
electronic pairs orbitals
explains sp", sp°d, orbital on
(X) with ClO, NO,
choose not central
to of sp, sp², (Code-c)
Test-2
accOunt formula and and of does
configuration form ions sp°d S
the the BrO, sp³ in atom? not
an CO
correcl relative for of ionic is contain
the the not
 86. 85. 84. 83.
(Code-C)
Test-2
Consider
(a) (3) (1)o* Highest
O,
of
is (4) (3) (2) Element (1)atomic
with (4) (3) (2) (1)
3) 75%(1)
25%(percentage 1.2 If (3) (1answer.
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observed light bond physical
Magnitude 5th 4th 5th 5th Both BothStatement Statement
correct incorrect
D (a) (a) p-nitrophenol
Boiling
of period period period period statement
and and and with energy statement
the the
orporate point and
ionic A-B
dipole
(c) (b) above
each
state following and and and
of molecular I I
SECTION-Bonly only of H-bonding is is
character forms of 7n 10th 8h 5th l
bond other.
HF number 43 and I and incorrect correct
statements, the
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statement
62.5%(4) 50%(2) length (4) (2) more
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9/24 Road, Rough
90. 89. 88. 87.
New Work The
answer. situation. is valence
In Statement
approximately the
Statement Given MgCl2(4) +0.(53) are
(1) Percentage
(2) percentage
(1)-1 The (4) (3) respectively
(4) (3) (2) (1) non-bonded NF3(3) NaNO3(2) CaC2cOvalent
(1)
hi-110005. light in
Correct incorrect
Both BothStatement contact overall formal 33% 15% 20% 25%
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statement the shell and and and and
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statement
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incorrect
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 95. 94. 92. 91.
93. All

O>S>P 3) (2) elements is

1s?2s2p (enthalpy? With (c) nature? in
Unununnium
(Unnilennium
a) Which (3) (1) IUPAC (4) (3) (2) (1) Match India
N>P>S(O>
4) (N> (1) Correct configurations,
1s²2s?2p4
3) (1) (3) only(c1) The endothermic C b
(a) correct Na F a-(ii),a-(ii),a-(iv), a-(), Aakash
O> O
>S> ’ column
which and ’ name
N>S>P order among Thorium
Samarium Palladium
Chlorine Column l
Na F b-(i),b-(ii),b-(ji),b-(i),
(c) answer Test
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c-(iv), I
oto
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an c-(iv), c-(i),c-(iv), with Series
atom element
electronegativity is column
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(b) Unniltrium (4) (2) NEET-2025
Aakash with
1s?2s2p5 following (a) Na Transition
Lanthanoid
Halogen metal Column | I.
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99. 98. 97. 96.
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(1) 4CO2, Number (4) (3) compounds is(4) (3)
(2) (1) Correct (2) Bothanswer. lightIn equatorial
(1) interaction (R)
110005. which
repulsive ReasonAssertion
bonds.bonds
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MgBr2 MgBr2 NaBr AlBrs explanation
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greater the CzH2, > > (A)
AIBrs NaBr MgBr2 MgBr2 explanation
and
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Phone: following of but but PCls, In andthe are
BeCl2, > (R) PCls, statements: twois
than > > > covalent (R) (R)
NaBr AIBr3 AIB3 NaBr are statements, from
23456 species are
that XeF2,
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pairs (4) 6 (2) 3 true true (A) the axial ReasSonotheras
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first? the CS2, equatorial labelled
among
radius (R) choose (Code-C)
Test-2
H20 pairs
(R) is are
of is
of the the the the bond suffer longer labelledas
second correct notthe Correct
given given pairs. more than
 104. 103. 102. 101. 100.
(4) (3) (2)
(Code-C)
Test-2
(1)Select (4) (3) (2) Viroids (1) (4) (3)characteristic
(2) (1) SelectMonera (3) domains
classification,
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 AIl India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2025 Test-2 (Code-C)
109. Consider the following characteristics of fungi and (1) a(ii); b{iv); c(i); d(i) (2) a(ii); b(i); c(iv); d(i)
choose the fungus with allthe given characteristics. (3) a(ii); b(i); c(ii); d(iv) (4) a(i); b(ii); c(iv); d(i)
(A)The sex organs are absent. 112. Select the incorrect statement for fungi.
(B) The mycelium is branched and septate. (1) They show only heterotrophic mode of nutrition
(C) It shows dikaryophase.
(2) They are cosmopolitan
(D) Sexual spores are produced exogenously.
(3) All members show multicellular body
(E)Asexual spores are generally not found. organisation
(1) Ustilago (2) Mucor (4) Its nucleus is surrounded by nuclear membrane
(3) Alternaria (4) Aspergillus
113. Which among the following spores are not involved
110. In which among the following fungi, hyphae are in asexual reproduction of fungi?
continuous tubes filled with multinucleated
(1) Conidia (2) Zoospores
cytoplasm?
(3) Sporangiospores (4) Ascospores
(1) Penicillium (2) Claviceps
114. Which among the following statements is correct
(3) Neurospora (4) Albugo
for dinoflagellates?
111. Match the following column I with column Il and
choose the correct option.
(1) They are mostly marine and are heterotrophic
(2) They appear only red in colour
Column| Column l|
(3) Their cell wall has stiff cellulosic plates on the
a. Flagellated (1) They have cavity outer surface
protozoan |that opens to
outside of the cel! (4) They have only one flagellum
surface 115. Consider the following statements and choose the
correct option.
b. Ciliated (ii) It has false feet to
Statement A : Some members of monera
protozoan |capture its prey
synthesise their Own food from inorganic
C. |Amoeboid (iii) The parasitic form substances.
protozoan cause diseases,
Statement B: Bacterial structures are very
|like sleeping complex but they have very simple behaviour.
sickness
(1) Only statement A is correct
d. Sporozoan (iv) |It includes
organism that have
(2) Only statement B is correct
|infectious spore (3) Both statements A and B are correct
like stage (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect

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 Test-2 (Code-C)
All India Aakash Test Series for
416 Select the statement which is not true wrt.
NEET-2025
(3) Indian Criteria for Botanical Nomenclature
universal rules of nomenclature of organisms.
(1) Biological name consists of generic name and (4) International Code for Botanical
Nomenclature
specific epithet 121. Match the column I with column Il and choose the
(2) When scientific name is handwritten, then it correct option.
should be underlined separately
(3) First letter of both generic and Column| |Column I|
in small letter
specific epithet is
a. M.W. Beijerinek (i) Discovered agent
(4) Biological names are generally in Latin and smaller than viruses.
written in italics
117. What b. W.M. Stanley (ii) Contagium vivum
information is not present on the label of
herbarium sheet? fluidum
(1) Botanical name of the specimen c. D.J. Ivanowsky (iii) Showed that virus
(2) Date on which the specimen was collected could be crystallised
(3) Name of the collector of that specific
specimen d.T.O. Diener (iv) Recognised the
(4) Size of the specimen
causative organism
118. Which among the following does not represent the of the mosaic
taxonomic category order? |disease of tobacco.
(1) Primata (2) Insecta
(3) Diptera (1) a(i); b(iv); c(i); d(ii)
(4) Sapindales
119. Consider the following statements and choose the (2) a(ii); b(i); c(iv); d()
incorrect ones out of them. (3) a(i); b(iv); c(i); d(ii)
(A) In unicellular algae, reproduction is
synonymous to growth.
(4) a(iv); b(i);c(i); d(ii)
122. In which class of fungi, sexXual spores are
(B) Self-consciousness is the defining property of
all living organisms. exogenously produced after karyogamy followed by
meiosis?
(C)Solanum melongena belongs to Anacardiaceae
family. (1) Ascomycetes (2) Deuteromycetes
(D) Classification is the process by which anything (3) Phycomycetes (4) Basidiomycetes
is grouped into convenient categories
(1) A and D (2) A and B 123. classified animals into two groups
(4) B and D based on presence and absence of red blood.
(3) B and C
120. ICBN stands for
Select the correct option to fill in the blank.

(1) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature (1) Linnaeus (2) Carl Woese
(2) International Congress of Biological Names (3) Aristotle (4) R.H. Whittaker

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 Alllndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2025 Test-2 (Code-C)
124. According to R.H. Whittaker, all of the folowing are 127. Generally, the viruses that infect plant have A
common characteristics among fungi and plantae,
except
and the viruses that infect bacteria have B, as
genetic material.
(1) Presence of cell wall
Select the option to correctly fill in the blanks.
(2) Presence of nuclear membrane
A B
(3) Presence of autotrophic mode of nutrition
(1) dsRNA dsDNA
(4) Multicellular body organisation
(2) dsDNA ssRNA
125. Consider the following statements and state them
as true or false and cho0se the correct option.
(3) ssDNA dsRNA

(4) ssRNA dsDNA

(A) The fungi which grow on dung are called
coprophilous. 128. How many among the following diseases are
caused by bacteria and virus respectively?
(B) Members of Deuteromycetes reproduce by
sexual spores only (i) Typhoid (ü) Citrus canker

(C) Conidia are asexual spores generally found in (iii) Herpes (iv) Mumps
Basidiomycetes. (v) AIDS (vi) Influenza
(D) In most of the fungi cell wall is made up of chitin. (1) Three and three (2) Four and twO
(3) TwO and four (4) Five and one
A B C D
129. In which fungi, conidia and sporangiospores are
(1) F T T produced respectively?
(2) T F F T (1) Trichoderma and Colletotrichum
(2) Alternaria and Penicillium
(3) T T F
(3) Aspergillus and Mucor
(4) F F T T
(4) Mucor and Rhizopus
126. Choose the incorrectly matched pair. 130. Fill in the blanks by selecting the correct option.
(1) Yeast Used to make bread () bacteria are helpful in making curd,
(2) Penicillium - Weed of laboratory
production of antibiotics, fixing nitrogen.
(ii) gave five kingdom classification.
(3) Neurospora Used extensively in
biochemical work (ii) bacteria play a great role in recycling
nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, iron and
(4) Claviceps Causes ergot disease
sulphur.
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 Test-2 (Code-C)
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2025
() (ii) (iii) 133. Late blight of potato is caused due to which furngus?
(1) Heterotrophic Aristotle (1) Ustilago
Photoautotrophic
(2) ChemoautotrophicCarl Woese (2) Puccinia
Heterotrophic
(3) Autotrophic Linnaeus (3) Albugo candida
Chemoautotrophic (4) Phytophthora infestans
(4) Heterotrophic R.H.
Whittaker Chemoautotrophic 134. Consider the following figure and choose the
correct option.
131. Consider the following statements and choose the
correct option.
Statement A : BladderWort and Venus fly trap are
parasitic plants. A
Statement B
:According to five kingdom
classification, in kingdom Animalia both cell wall and
nuclear membrane are present.
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
B
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect (1) It can infect both plant and animal
132. Which one of the folowing is correctly matched? (2) It consists of ssRNA
(3) Label 'A' represents apart between head and
(1)| Albugo Parasitic fungus Basidiomycetes sheath
on mustard
(4) The structure labelled as 'B' is made up of
(2)|Claviceps Sexual spores are Ascomycetes carbohydrate
produced 135. In which organism the celI wall forms two thin
endogenously
overlapping shells which fit together as in a soap
(3)| Trichoderma Both sexual and Deuteromycetes box?

asexual stages (1) Diatoms

are present
(2) Dinoflagellates
(4)| Neurospora Branched and Phycomycetes (3) Desmids
septate mycelium (4) Entamoeba
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 AllIndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2025 Test-2 (Code-C)
SECTION-B 139. According to R.H. Whittaker classification, in which
136. Match the column Iwith column Il and choose the kingdom Chlamydomonas is put together with
Paramoecium?
correct option.
Column I Column |
(1) Monera
(2) Animalia
Museum () Includes alphabetical
arrangement of
(3) Plantae
species of a particular (4) Protista
place describing their 140. The group of rod shaped bacteria are
features
(1) Spirilla (2) Vibrio
b. Flora (ii) Serves as quick
(3) Bacilli (4) Cocci
referral system in
taxonomic studies. 141. All of the following are incorrect statements w.r.t.
the members of Protista, except
C Catalogue (ii) Has collections of
preserved plant and (1) All protist are autotrophic
animal specimens. (2) Allmembers have both 70S and 80S ribosomes
Herbarium (iv) Contains actual (3) They do not contain well defined nucleus
account of habitat and
(4) They reproduce asexually by a process
distribution of plants. involving cell fusion only
(1) a(iv); b(ii); c(i); d(ü) (2) a(ii); b{iv); c(i); d(ii) 142. Euglenoids do not have
(3) a(i); b(ii); c(iv); d(i) (4) a(i); b(); c(i); d(iv) (1) Two unequal flagella
137. Select the correctly printed scientific name of wheat. (2) Both autotrophic and heterotrophic mode of
nutrition
(1) Triticum Aestivum (2) Triticum aestivum
(3) Triticum aestivum (4) Triticum aestivum
(3) Pigments identical to those in higher plant
(4) Cell wall
138. As we go higher from species to kingdom, the 143. Select the incorrect match.
number of common characteristic of organisms
belong to that category (1) Saprophytes Absorb soluble organic
(1) Goes on decreasing matter from dead
substrates
(2) Remains same
(3) Goes on increasing (2) Mycorrhiza An association
between algae and
(4) Increases till family and then decreases higher plants
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2025
(3) Parasites Organisms 147. Select the true feature for the class of fungi to which
that
depend on other morels and truffles belong.
organism to derive its (1) Mycelium is branched and aseptate
nutrition
(2) Sexual spores are produced endogenously
(4) Lichens Very good pollution (3) All members are unicellular
indicators
AConsider the following Assertion (A) and
(4) They do not show dikaryophase in their sexual
Reason phase.
(R) and choose the correct option.
148. Select the organism which can fix atmospheric
Assertion (A) :Viruses are obligate parasites. nitrogen in specialised cell called heterocyst.
Reason (R): Viruses could be crystallised and (1) Rhizobium (2) Mycoplasma
crystal consists largely of proteins.
(3) Azotobacter (4) Anabaena
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct
explanation of (A) 149. All of the following are characteristics of tobacco
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct mosaic virus, except
explanation of (A) (1) It has a protein coat
(3) Only (A) is correct and (R)is false (2) It has double stranded DNA
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (3) its capsomeres are arranged in a helical form
145. Select the pair of fungi in which only asexual or (4) It is smaller than bacteria
vegetative phases are known. 150. How many of the following statements islare
(1) Claviceps and Colletotrichum incorrect?

(2) Alternaria and Trichoderma (A) The algal component of lichen is phycobiont.
(3) Ustilago and Neurospora (B) Algae absorb mineral nutrients for its partner in
lichens.
(4) Trichoderma and Rhizopus
146. Select the correct sequence of steps involved in (C) Lichens are mutually useful associations
sexual cycle of fungi. between algae and fungi.
(A) Meiosis (D) In R.H. Whittaker classification, lichens are
introduced into kingdom Fungi.
(B) Karyogamy
(C) Plasmogamy (E) Lichens often grow in polluted areas.
(2) (B) ’ (A) ’ (C) (1) Four (2) Three
(1) (C) -’ (B) ’ (A)
(4) (A)- (B) ’ (C) (3) Two (4) One
(3) (C) -’ (A) ’ (B)
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 NEET-2025
Test-2 (Code-C)
All India Aakash Test Series for
[ZOOLOGY]
airthat a healthy man
156. The volume of can inspire or
normal
SECTION -A
expire per-minute under
151. Residual volume is included in conditions is physiological
(1) Vital capacity (1) 500 mL (2) 2500 mL
(2) Expiratory capacity (3) 6000 mL (4) 4500 mL
(3) Functional residual capacity exp0sure to dust
157. Due to continued particles
(4) Inspiratory capacity generated as a resultof grinding and
152. Pulmonary respiration can be witnessed during lite
stone breaking
in certain industries, alongside working in fihre
cycle of all, except producing factories, people can suffer from
(1) Rana tigrina (1) Typhoid (2) Pneumonia
(2) Balaenoptera
(3) Lung fibrosis (4) Emphysema
(3) Planaria
(4) Chelone 158. Function not performed by conducting part of
respiratory tract is
153. At which level trachea divides into right and left
primary bronchi in humans? (1) Humidification of inhaled air
(1) 5th cervical vertebra (2) Trapping of foreign particles
(2) 5th thoracic vertebra (3) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and
(3) 7th cervical vertebra tissues
(4) 5th lumbar vertebra (4) Bringing the inhaled air to the body temperature
154. The partialpressure of O2 and that of CO2 are nearly 159. Select the correct match.
same in which locations in humans?
(1) Tissues, Oxygenated blood respectively (1) Pharynx The common passage for
food and air
(2) Atmospheric air, Alveoli respectively
(3) Oxygenated blood, Tissues respectively (2) Sound box Pharynx opens through
(4) Oxygenated blood, Alveoti respectively trachea into this

155. Part of respiratory tract not supported by incomplete (3) Glottis Thick, collagenous flap
cartilaginous rings is guarding the food pipe
(1) Trachea (2) Tertiary bronchi (4) Outer pleural Close contact with the
(3) Initial bronchioles (4) Terminal bronchioles
membrane lung suface
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 Test-2 (Code-C) A|Ihdla Aakasn TesL SUII

normal
pressure of O2 is 40 mm Hgin all of the 164. Choose the incorrect feature W.r.t.
160. The partial
given blood vessels, except exhalation.

(1) Pulmonary artery (1) Relaxation of diaphragm

(2) Systemic veins (2) Elastic recoiling of lungs
(3) Systemic artery (3) Relaxation of external inter-Costal muscles
(4) Vena cava (4) Raising of ribs and sternum
161 Complete the analogy and choose the correct 165. The approximate percentage of O2 carried by
optior plasma in dissolved state in humans under normal
Oxygen + Haemoglobin Oxyhaemoglobin conditions is
Carbon dioxide + Haemoglobin : (1) 3 (2) 7
(1) Methemoglobin (3) 25 (4) 70
(2) Carboxyhaemoglobin 166. Prneumotaxic centre is situated in
(3) Myoglobin (1) Cerebrum
(4) Carbamino-haemoglobin (2) Medulla oblongata
162. Every 800 mL of deoxygenated blood delivers (3) Pons
approximately mL of CO2 to the alveoliin an
(4) Cerebellum
adult man under normal physiological conditions.
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank. 167. In the tissues, all of the given factors are favourable
(1) 10 (2) 32 for the dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin, except
(3) 100 (4) 50 (1) High pH
163. Read the following (2) High temperature
(a) Highly vascular (3) High pCO2
(b) Lined byepithelium consisting flattened cells (4) High H concentration
(c) Irregular walls with thin membrane 168. Rate of breathing in an adult human under normal
physiological conditions is
The above points correctly describe
(1) 30-40/min
(1) Initial bronchioles
(2) Alveoli (2) 10-12/min

(3) Trachea
(3) 12-16/min
(4) Primary bronchi (4) 18-25/min

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 for NEET-2025 Arrange these steps in a correct sequence
ode-C)
AllIndia Aakash Test Series
sequence of structures through (1) D’E’B-’A’C
169. Select the correct inside during
which air passes from outside to A’B-’E’C
inspiration in humans. (2) D
’B’ C
Pharynx ’ Larynx (3) D’E’A
(1) Nostrils ’ Nose
Trachea ’ Bronchus -> Alveoli -> Bronchioles ’A’ C’E
(4) D ’ B
172. During inspiration, volume of thoracic chamber
(2) Nose. ’ Pharynx ’ Larynx ’ Trachea ’ due to
Bronchi ’ Bronchioles -’ Alveoli increases in the antero-posterior axis

Trachea ’ Larynx ’
(1) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
(3) Nostrils ’ Pharynx
Alveoli (2) Relaxation of external inter-costal muscles

(4) Nasal chamber ’ Trachea -’ Bronchioles ’ (3) Contraction of diaphragm

Oral mucosa ’ Bronchus ’ Pleura (4) Contraction of internal inter-costal muscles

170. Select the odd one w.r.t. respiration. 173. Lungs do not collapse in between breaths becauUSe
some air always remains in the lungs which is called
(1)| Tracheal tubes Earthworms
(1) Inspiratory reserve volume
(2) Expiratory capacity
(2) Branchial Molluscs
respiration (3) Expiratory reserve volume
(4) Residual volume
(3) Pulmonary Vertebrates
respiration 174. In human every 100 mL of oxygenated blood can
deliver around how much O2 to the tissues under
(4) Cutaneous Frogs normal physiological conditions?
respiration (1) 15 mL
171. Respiration involves the following steps. (2) 5 mL
(3) 4 mL
A. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and
tissue (4) 20 mL
B. Transport of gases by the blood 175. Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily
related to
C. Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic
(1) Partial pressure of CO2
reactions and resultant release of CO2
(2) Partial pressure of O2
D. Breathing
(3) Concentration of hydrogen ions
E. Diffusion of gases across alveolar membrane
(4) Temperature
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Test-2(Code-C)
AllIndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2025
176. All of the following statements are true for CO2
transport in humans, except 180. Read the following statements carefully and choose
the correct option.
AN Nearly 20-25 percent is
transported by RBCS. Statement A: Respiratory rhythm is maintained by
(2) 70 percent is carried as bicarbonates the respiratory rhythm centre in medulla region of
the brain.
(a) About 3 percent is carried in a
dissolved state Statement B: Chemosensitive area is situated
through plasma.
(4) About 7 percent is carried in a
adjacent to the rhythm centre.
dissolyed state (1) Both statements A and B are correct
through plasma.
477. What is the value of pO2 and pCO2 (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
respectively in
pulmonary vein in humans under
normal (3) Only statement A is correct
physiological conditions? (4) Only statement B is correct
(1) 45 mm Hg, 40 mm Hg 181. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. delivery and
(2) 40 mm Hg, 45 mm Hg transport of CO2 in humans.

(3) 95 mm Hg, 40 mm Hg
(1) Atthe tissue site, partial pressure of CO2 is high
in comparison to pCO2 in oxygenated blood
(4) 104 mm Hg, 40 mm Hg
(2) CO2 diffuses into the blood and forms HCO
178. Neural signals from the pneumotaxic centre can and H*at the tissue level
(1) Reduce the duration of inspiration (3) At alveolar site, pCO2 is 45 mmHg
(2) Increase the duration of inspiration (4) COztrapped as bicarbonate at the tissue site is
(3) Reduce the duration of only forceful expiration
transported to alveoli where it is released out as
CO2.
(4) Increase the duration of expiration while reduce 182. Choose the odd one w.r.t. breathing.
the duration of inspiration
(1) Increase in Contraction of external
179. The solubility of CO2 is how many times higher than thoracic inter-costal muscles
Oz in blood plasma? volume in

(1) 30-35 times dorso

ventral axis
(2) 20-25 times
(2) Increase in Causes inspiration
(3) 12-16 times
pulmonary
volume
(4) 25-30 times
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 AllIndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2025 Test-2 (Code-C)
SECTION -B
(3) Increase in Causes the expulsion of
186. Al| of the following are the constituents of
intra air from the lungs i.e.,
pulmonary expiration conducting part of respiratory system, except
pressure (1) Alveolar duct (2) External nostrils

(4) Contraction Decrease the strength of (3) Trachea (4) Nasopharynx

of expiration 187. The maximum volume of air a person can breathe
abdominal in after a forced expiration is Xwhich includes
muscles (2) ERV+RV
(1) TV+ERV
183. A person is suffering from a disorder in which his (3) VC+RV (4) IC+ERV
alveolar walls are damaged due to cigarette 188. Which of the following is not associated with
smoking. He is most likely suffering from emphysema?
(1) Asthma (1) Alveolar walls are damaged
(2) Emphysema (2) Increased supply of oxygen to tissues
(3) Asphyxia (3) Difficulty in breathing
(4) Pneumoconiosis (4) Reduction in respiratory surface
184. Total volume of air 189. Avery high concentration of the enzyme catalysing
accommodated in the lungs at
the conversion of carbon dioxide and water into
the end of a forced inspiration is
carbonic acid is present in
(1) TV + IRV
(1) Plasma
(2) TV + ERV (2) WBOCs
(3) ERV + RV (3) Erythrocytes
(4) RV + ERV + TV + IRV (4) Platelets
185. The role of pleural fluid present in between the 190. Exchange of O2 with CO2 by simple diffusion over
pleural membranes is to the entire body surface occurs in all of the
given
animals, except
(1) Increase the friction on the lung surface
(1) Sycon
(2) Promote the exchange of respiratory gases (2) Pheretima
(3) Prevent inflation of lungs (3) Hydra
(4) Reduce the friction on the lung surface (4) Labeo

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Test-2 (Code-C)
Assertion (A): The role of AllIndia
191. Aakash Test Series for NEET-2025
of respiratory rhythm is veryoxygen the
in
significant in regulation 194. Volume or capacity of
Reason (R): A humans. measured by spirometer is
lungs that cannot be
pons region of the chemosensi
hindbrain istivhighly
e area situated in (1) EC
and hydrogen ions. sensitive to O2
(3) RV
(2) VC
(4) IRV
lothe light of
above statements, select the 195. Match column I with column Il and
option. correct select the correct
answer w.r.t. an adult healthy man.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are
true and (R) is the correct Column| Column |
explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R)
are true but (R) is not the a.Inspiratory capacity (i)5100-5800 mL
correct explanation of (A} b. Expiratory capacity (i) |3000-3500 mL
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
c. Vital capacity (ii) 4000-4600 mL
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
d. Total lung capacity (iv) |1500-1600 mL
192. A person encountered a foreign
which he had difficulty in allergen due to (1) a(ii); b(iv); c(ii); d(i)
breathing. He went to a
hospital and doctor observed wheezing (2) a(i); b(i); c(iv); d(ii)
alongwith
redness and swelling in bronchi and bronchioles. (3) a(i); b(iv); c(i); d(i)
Identify the disorder and choose the correct (4) a(iv); b(ii); c(ii); d(i)
option.
(1) Asthma 196. Select the name of the enzyme which facilitates the
following given reaction in RBCs.
(2) Silicosis
(3) Emphysema CO, +H,OH,CO,HCO; +H
(4) Anthracis (1) Carbonic anhydrase
193. In an adult man under normal physiological (2) Dehydrogenase
conditions, the total thickness of diffusion (3) Hexokinase
membrane is (4) Transferase
(1) Less than a millimetre 197. Increase in CO2 and H concentration in blood is
(2) More than a millimetre recognised by receptors that are present in aortic
arch and
(3) Equal to a millimetre (1) Pulmonary artery (2) Systemic aorta
(4) Twice the one millimetre (3) Carotid artery (4) Coronary artery
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 NEET-2025 given figure apd
All India Aakash Test Series for Jdentify A. B and C in the above
the box will favour option.
198. How many of the factors given in choose the correct
curve?
the left shift of the oxygen dissociation A
B C

Red blood Basement Alveolar

High pO2, low pCO2, lesser H concentration, low (1) substance wall
pO2, lower temperature, Low pH cell
Basement
Red blood Alveolar
(2) cell cavity
(1) 5 substance
White blood Basement
(2) 3 (3) Alveolar
cell substance
cavity
(3) 4 Blood
Alveolar
(4) Capillary
(4) 6 wall
is formed by
199. A diagram given below is the section of an alveolus 200. Thoracic chamber in humans
Ventral Lateral Lower
with pulmonary capillary. Dorsal
side side
side side
Atr
Diaphragm Ribs Vertebral Sternum
(1) column
Squamous epithelum
of aveolar wall
Vertebral Sternum Diaphragm Ribs
(one-celled thick) Endothelium of
(2)
column
blood capillary
(3) Vertebral Sternum Ribs Diaphragm
column

Blood Sternum Ribs Vertebral Diaphragm

capillary B (4) column

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