1.

A lump of modelling clay is moved from a small measuring cylinder to a large

measuring cylinder that has twice the diameter.

The reading on the small measuring cylinder goes down by 20 cm3.

By how much does the reading on the large cylinder go up?

A. 10 cm3 B. 20 cm3 C. 40 cm3 D. 80 cm3

Answer:

The correct answer is B

● When the lump of clay is removed from the small measuring cylinder, the volume
of liquid goes down by 20 cm3
● Therefore, the lump of clay has a volume of 20 cm3
● When the lump of clay is placed in the large measuring cylinder, the volume of
liquid will go up by 20 cm3

Don’t be fooled by the large measuring cylinder having twice the diameter of the small
cylinder. The cylinders both measure volume, so to compensate for the larger size, the
larger cylinder has twice as many divisions on its measuring scale.
2. The speed–time graph for a train is shown.

Which regions of the graph show the train moving?

A. P, Q, R and S

B. Q, R and S only

C. Q and S only

D. R only

Answer:

The correct answer is B

● The speed-time graph shows

○ P: the train is not moving
○ Q: the train is speeding up (accelerating)
○ R: the train is moving at a constant speed
○ S: the train is slowing down (decelerating)
● The regions where the train is moving are Q, R and S only
3. A man stands next to a railway track.

A train travelling at 40 m/s takes 2.0 s to pass the man.

What is the length of the train?

A. 20 m B. 38 m C. 40 m D. 80 m

Answer:

The correct answer is D

● Speed and distance are related by the equation

𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 = 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒

● The length of the train is equal to the distance that passes the man
● Therefore, the length of the train is

𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 = 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 × 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒

𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 = 40 × 2. 0 = 80 m
4. A spring balance operates by the compression of a spring. It has been calibrated on
the Earth in grams.

A beam balance operates by balancing standard masses against the unknown mass to
be measured.

The same unknown mass is measured with each balance on the Earth and on the
Moon.

The gravitational field strength on the Earth is greater than that on the Moon.

How would the measurements on the Earth compare with those on the Moon?

spring balance measurements beam balance measurements

A larger on the Earth than on the Moon larger on the Earth than on the Moon

larger on the Earth than on the Moon same on the Earth as on the Moon
B

same on the Earth as on the Moon larger on the Earth than on the Moon
C

same on the Earth as on the Moon same on the Earth as on the Moon
D

Answer:

The correct answer is B

● Gravitational field strength is a measure of the force per unit mass acting on an
object in a gravitational field
○ An object’s mass is always the same, regardless of location
○ The force (weight) exerted on the object will be different depending on
the strength of the gravitational field
● The spring balance measures the weight of the object but is calibrated to give a
reading of mass
○ The Earth’s gravitational field strength is stronger than the Moon’s
○ The object experiences a greater weight on the Earth than on the Moon
○ Therefore, measurements using the spring balance will be larger on the
Earth than on the Moon
○ This eliminates options C and D
● The beam balance measures the mass of the object
○ The object has the same mass on both the Earth and the Moon
○ Therefore, the measurement using the beam balance will be the same on
the Earth as on the Moon
○ Therefore, the correct answer is B
5. A measuring cylinder contains 30 cm3 of a liquid

Some more of the liquid is added until the liquid level reaches the 50 cm3 mark.

The reading on the balance increases by 30 g.

What is the density of the liquid?

A. 0.60 g/cm3 B. 0.67 g/cm3 C. 1.5 g/cm3 D. 1.7 g/cm3

Answer:

The correct answer is C

● The density of a substance is given by the equation:

𝑚
ρ= 𝑉

● When the mass of the liquid increases by 30 g, this corresponds to a volume of:

𝑉 = 50 − 30 = 20 cm3

● The density of the liquid is

 30
ρ= 20
= 1. 5 g/cm3

There are a few different measurements given in this question, so you must read and
analyse it carefully to understand the scenario
6. Which pieces of apparatus are the most appropriate for an experiment to plot an
extension–load graph of a spring?

A. ruler, newton meter, clamp and stand

B. balance, stop-watch, ruler

C. light gate, ruler, newton meter

D. stop-watch, balance, measuring cylinder

Answer:

The correct answer is A

● Hooke’s law tells us that the extension of a spring is directly proportional to the
force (load) applied to it
● The extension-load graph of a spring can be plotted using
○ a clamp and stand - to hang the spring from
○ a newton meter - to measure the force (load) applied to the spring when
masses are added
○ a ruler - to measure the extension of the spring

B is incorrect because measurements of mass and time are not required, so neither a
balance nor a stop-watch would be necessary

C is incorrect because the motion of the spring is not being measured, so a light gate
would not be necessary

D is incorrect because no measurements of liquid volume are required, so a measuring

cylinder would not be necessary
7. A beam is pivoted at one end, as shown.

The beam weighs 6.0 N and its weight acts at a point X 40 cm from the pivot.

A force of 4.0 N is applied to the beam causing it to balance horizontally.

In which direction and where is the 4.0 N force applied?

A. vertically downwards at 20cm to the left of X

B. vertically downwards at 20cm to the right of X

C. vertically upwards at 20cm to the left of X

D. vertically upwards at 20cm to the right of X

Answer:

The correct answer is D

● The equation for calculating the moment of a force is

𝑚𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡 = 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒 × 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑝𝑒𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑓𝑟𝑜𝑚 𝑝𝑖𝑣𝑜𝑡

● The principle of moments tells us that, for the beam to be balanced:

𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑐𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑘𝑤𝑖𝑠𝑒 𝑚𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑠 = 𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑎𝑛𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑘𝑤𝑖𝑠𝑒 𝑚𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑠

● The weight of the beam at X causes a clockwise moment about the pivot

𝑐𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑘𝑤𝑖𝑠𝑒 𝑚𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡 = 6. 0 × 40 = 240 N cm

● To balance the beam, the 4.0 N force must be directed vertically upwards to
cause an anticlockwise moment about the pivot
 ○ Therefore, options A and B can be eliminated

● When the 4.0 N is applied 20 cm to the left of X, the distance from the pivot is 20
cm, which would give a moment of:

𝑎𝑛𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑘𝑤𝑖𝑠𝑒 𝑚𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡 = 4. 0 × 20 = 80 N cm

● This is not equal to the clockwise moment of X, therefore, option C can be

eliminated
● When the 4.0 N is applied 20 cm to the right of X, the distance from the pivot is
60 cm, which would give a moment of:

𝑎𝑛𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑘𝑤𝑖𝑠𝑒 𝑚𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡 = 4. 0 × 60 = 240 N cm

● This is equal to the clockwise moment of X, therefore, option D is correct

8. The diagrams show the forces acting on four moving objects.

Which object is moving at a constant speed?

Answer:

The correct answer is C

● The object travelling at constant speed will have a resultant force of zero acting
on it
● Consider the forces on object C
○ Upward forces = 5 N
○ Downward forces = 3 + 2 = 5 N
○ Resultant force on C = upward forces − downward forces
○ Resultant force on C = 5 − 5 = 0 N
● Therefore, object C must be travelling at a constant speed

A is incorrect because there is an upward resultant force of 6 N acting on it

B is incorrect because there is a downward resultant force of 4 N acting on it

D is incorrect because there is a downward resultant force of 10 N acting on it

9. A mass hangs vertically from a spring.

The mass is raised to a point P and is then released.

The mass oscillates repeatedly between point P and a lower point Q.

Which energies alternately increase and decrease throughout the oscillations?

A. gravitational potential energy, kinetic energy and elastic energy

B. gravitational potential energy and kinetic energy only

C. gravitational potential energy, kinetic energy and internal energy

D. internal energy and elastic energy

Answer:

The correct answer is A

● Consider the motion of the mass and spring:

○ When the mass is raised to point P, it gains gravitational potential
energy
○ When the mass is released, that gravitational potential energy is
transferred into kinetic energy
○ When the spring begins to stretch, the kinetic energy is transferred into
elastic energy until it reaches the lower point Q
○ As the mass moves back up to point P, the same energy changes occur in
reverse
● Therefore, as the mass oscillates repeatedly between P and Q, energy changes
between gravitational potential, kinetic and elastic types

B is incorrect because elastic energy is stored in the stretched spring

C & D are incorrect because internal energy is related to the molecules in a substance
rather than its motion
10. A force F acts on an object and the object moves a distance d in the direction of the
force.

What is the work done on the object?

𝐹 𝑑 1
A. 𝑑
B. 𝐹
C. 𝐹×𝑑 D. (𝐹×𝑑)

Answer:

The correct answer is C

● When a force F acts on an object and moves it a distance d in the direction of the
force, the work done is equal to:

𝑤𝑜𝑟𝑘 𝑑𝑜𝑛𝑒 = 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒 × 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 = 𝐹 × 𝑑

● This is option C
11. Liquid of mass 92 kg is contained in a rectangular tank.

The area of the base of the tank is 0.23 m2 .

What is the pressure exerted by the liquid on the base of the tank?

A. 2.5 × 10–4 N/m2

B. 2.5 × 10–3 N/m2

C. 400 N/m2

D. 4000 N/m2

Answer:

The correct answer is D

● Pressure is defined as the force exerted per unit area and is given by the
equation

𝐹
𝑝= 𝐴

● The force exerted by the liquid is given by its weight

𝐹 = 𝑊 = 𝑚𝑔

● Where g is the acceleration of free fall, g = 10 m/s2

● Therefore, the pressure exerted by the liquid of the base of the tank is

92×10
𝑝= 0.23
= 4000 N/m2

● This is option D
12. The diagram shows a deep reservoir formed by a dam.

On what does the pressure at X depend?

A. the depth of the water at X

B. the length of the reservoir

C. the surface area of the water

D. the thickness of the dam wall

Answer:

The correct answer is A

● The pressure of a liquid depends on

○ the depth beneath the surface of the liquid
○ the density of the liquid
● Therefore, the pressure at X depends only on the depth of the water at X
13. The list gives three properties of different states of matter.

1 They cannot be compressed significantly.

2 They can flow.

3 They always completely fill their container.

Which properties are correct for liquids?

A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer:

The correct answer is A

● The defining properties of a liquid are

○ they are not compressible
○ they can flow
○ they take the shape of a container but do not always completely fill it
● Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct

Remember, completely filling a container is one of the defining properties of a gas.

14. Two thermometers, P and Q, give the same reading at room temperature.

The bulb of thermometer Q is wrapped in gauze and dipped in a beaker of water at

room temperature.

Air at room temperature is blown over the two thermometer bulbs.

Which statement correctly describes and explains what happens?

A. P reads higher than Q because bulb P absorbs energy from the air.

B. P reads higher than Q because water evaporates from the gauze and cools bulb Q.

C. P reads lower than Q because the wet gauze insulates bulb Q.

D. P reads lower than Q because water evaporates from the gauze and warms bulb Q.

Answer:

The correct answer is B

● When air is blown over the wet gauze wrapped around thermometer Q, the water
will evaporate
○ This eliminates options A and C
● During evaporation, the most energetic molecules become water vapour (gas
molecules) and escape, taking the energy with them
○ As a result, this cools the wet gauze and thermometer bulb
○ Hence, the temperature reading on thermometer Q will decrease
● Therefore, thermometer P will show a higher temperature reading than
thermometer Q
15. What happens to the volumes of liquid metal and of solid metal when heated at
constant pressure?

volume of liquid metal volume of solid metal

A decreases increases

no change
B decreases

increases
C increases

no change
D increases

Answer:

The correct answer is C

● When a substance is heated at constant pressure, it expands

● This means its volume increases
● This applies to all states of matter, i.e. solids, liquids and gases
● Therefore, the volume of liquid metal and solid metal will both increase when
heated
16. The diagram shows a liquid-in-glass thermometer.

A student wishes to check the marking of the upper fixed point on this thermometer.

What should she do?

A. Put the bulb in a beaker of boiling sea water.

B. Put the bulb in a beaker of boiling pure water.

C. Put the bulb in a beaker of ice and salt.

D. Put the bulb in a beaker of pure melting ice.

Answer:

The correct answer is B

● The melting and boiling points of pure water are fixed points
● This means a correctly calibrated liquid-in-glass thermometer should show
○ a reading of 0°C for a beaker of pure melting ice
○ a reading of 100°C for a beaker of pure boiling water
● The upper fixed point on the thermometer is 100°C, so this could be checked by
putting the bulb in a beaker of boiling pure water

A & C are incorrect because the melting and boiling points of a mixture of water (or ice)
and salt are not fixed points

D is incorrect because the question asks how to check the upper fixed point, not the
lower one
17. A glass contains an iced drink on a warm and humid day. Water starts to form on
the outside of the glass.

What is the name of the effect by which the water forms?

A. condensation

B. conduction

C. convection

D. evaporation

Answer:

The correct answer is A

● Condensation is when a substance cools and changes from a gas into a liquid
● This can be seen on the outside of the glass of a cold drink
○ The cold glass cools the water vapour (gas) in the air and changes it into
water droplets (liquid)

B is incorrect because conduction is a type of heat transfer involving the vibrations of

particles in a medium

C is incorrect because convection is a type of heat transfer involving the movement of

particles in a liquid or gas

D is incorrect because evaporation is when a substance is heated and changes from a

liquid into a gas
18. The diagram shows a convection current caused by a piece of ice placed in a
beaker of water at room temperature.

Which row correctly compares the temperatures and densities at water points P and Q?

temperature at P density at P
A higher than at Q higher than at Q

B higher than at Q lower than at Q

C lower than at Q higher than at Q

D lower than at Q lower than at Q

Answer:

The correct answer is C

● A convection current occurs in a liquid when a difference in temperature causes

a change in density
● When the piece of ice is added to the beaker of water, it cools the region of water
around it
● As a result, the water molecules lose energy and move closer together, making
the water more dense
● The denser, cooler water then sinks downwards to point P
● This causes the warmer, less dense water to rise upwards to point Q
● Therefore, at point P:
○ the temperature of the water is lower than at Q
○ the density of the water is higher than at Q
19. The outside of one of two identical shiny metal containers is painted dull black. The
containers are filled with equal masses of hot water at the same temperature.

Why does the dull black container cool more quickly?

A. Black surfaces are better conductors than shiny surfaces.

B. Black surfaces are better emitters of radiation than shiny surfaces.

C. Black surfaces are better reflectors of radiation than shiny surfaces.

D. Black surfaces are worse absorbers of radiation than shiny surfaces.

Answer:

The correct answer is B

● The cubes are identical, so they are made from the same metal, meaning they
conduct heat equally well
○ This eliminates option A
● Black surfaces are the best absorbers and emitters of radiation
○ This eliminates option C
● Shiny surfaces are the best reflectors of radiation, therefore, they are the worst
absorbers and emitters of radiation
○ This eliminates option D
● Therefore, black surfaces are better emitters of radiation than shiny surfaces
○ Therefore, option B is correct
20. The diagram shows a wave.

Which row is correct?

amplitude of the wavelength of the

wave / cm wave / cm
A 1.0 4.0

B 1.0 8.0

C 2.0 4.0

D 2.0 8.0

Answer:

The correct answer is B

● The amplitude of the wave is the displacement (vertical axis) from zero to a
peak (or trough)
○ Therefore, amplitude = 1.0 cm
● The wavelength of the wave is the distance (horizontal axis) from one point on
the wave to the same point on the next wave
○ Therefore, wavelength = 8.0 cm
21. A girl is sitting on a rock in the sea looking at passing waves. She notices that five
complete wavelengths pass her in 20 s.

What is the frequency of this wave?

A. 0.25 Hz B. 4.0 Hz C. 15 Hz D. 100 Hz

Answer:

The correct answer is A

● Frequency is defined as the number of waves passing a point in a second

● If five complete wavelengths pass a point in 20 seconds, this corresponds to a
frequency of:

5
𝑓= 20
= 0. 25 Hz
22. A card is placed in front of a plane mirror so that its label is facing the mirror, as
shown.

The label is shown.

How does the image of the label formed by the mirror appear to the observer?

Answer:

The correct answer is C

● When an image is formed by a plane mirror, to an observer it will be

○ the same size
○ the same distance from the mirror
○ a virtual image
● Virtual images are always upright
○ This eliminates options B and D, as the letter i appears inverted on these
images
● When viewed by the observer, the letters in the reflected image will appear
backwards and in the reverse order
○ This eliminates option A as the letters are backwards, but are still in the
same order
23. An object is placed in front of a converging lens. The lens has a focal length f.

In which labelled position should the object be placed in order to produce a real image
that is smaller than the object?

Answer:

The correct answer is A

● A real image is one formed by the convergence of rays of light and can be
projected onto a screen
○ In this case, since the object is on the left of the lens, the projected image
would be on the right of the lens
● To produce a real image that is smaller than the object, the object should be
placed further than 2f

B & C are incorrect because an object placed at f, or between f and 2f, would produce a
real image that is larger than the object

D is incorrect because an object placed closer than f would produce a virtual image that
is larger than the object
24. Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is used by a remote controller for a
television?

A. infrared waves

B. microwaves

C. radio waves

D. visible light

Answer:

The correct answer is A

● A remote controller for a television uses infrared waves

B & C are incorrect because microwaves and radio waves are used for sending signals
over longer ranges, such as WiFi, mobile, and satellite communications

D is incorrect because visible light is not used for sending signals

25. Which statement correctly compares radio waves and X-rays?

A. Radio waves have a longer wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum.

B. Radio waves have a longer wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum.

C. Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum.

D. Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum.

Answer:

The correct answer is B

● All electromagnetic waves travel at the same speed in a vacuum

○ This eliminates options A and C
● Radio waves have a longer wavelength than X-rays
○ This eliminates option D
26. Point X is near to a bar magnet, as shown

Which arrow indicates the direction of the magnetic field of the bar magnet at point X?

Answer:

The correct answer is D

● Magnetic fields always point from the north pole to the south pole
● If a compass were placed at point X, it would point towards the south pole, as
shown by option D
27. A student counts how many iron pins an electromagnet picks up when its power
supply is switched on. Then, she counts how many pins are picked up when the power
supply is switched off.

She repeats the experiment using cores made of different materials. The results are
shown.

Which core is made out of soft iron?

pins picked up with pins picked up with

the power supply on the power supply off
A 0 0

B 2 7

C 8 5

12
D 0

Answer:

The correct answer is D

 ● Soft iron is a temporary magnet, so it is only magnetic when the current flows in
the coil i.e. when the power supply is on
● Therefore, when a core of soft iron is used, the expected results are that the
electromagnet will pick up
○ a large number of pins when the power supply is on
○ no pins when the power supply is off
● This is shown by option D

A is incorrect because no pins are picked up when the power supply is on or off, so the
core is likely a non-magnetic material

B & C are incorrect because pins are picked up when the power supply is both on and
off, so the core is likely a permanent magnet
28. The diagram shows a charged plastic rod and an uncharged metal sphere. The
metal sphere is suspended by an insulating thread.

The plastic rod is then moved close to the metal sphere.

Which row is correct?

observation the overall state of the metal sphere

A The rod attracts the sphere. charged

The rod attracts the sphere. uncharged

B

The rod repels the sphere. charged

C

The rod repels the sphere. uncharged

D

Answer:

The correct answer is B

● The rod's positive charges attract the sphere’s negatively charged electrons
toward its surface
● As a result, the rod attracts the sphere
○ This eliminates options C and D
● The rod is moved close to the sphere, but it does not come into contact with it
● Therefore, the sphere does not become charged
○ This eliminates option A
29. A large battery is labelled with various items of information about the battery.

One of these items of information is the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery.

What is the e.m.f. of the battery?

A. 12V B. 30 kg C. 216 kJ D. 680A

Answer:

The correct answer is A

● The electromotive force (e.m.f.) of a battery is the voltage it supplies

● From the list, this can only be 12 V

B is incorrect because 30 kg is the mass of the battery

C is incorrect because 216 kJ is the energy supplied by the battery

D is incorrect because 680 A is the current supplied by the battery

30. The circuit shown is being used to measure the resistance of resistor Z.

What is the correct combination of meters to determine the resistance of resistor Z?

meter X meter Y
A ammeter ammeter

ammeter voltmeter
B

voltmeter ammeter
C

voltmeter voltmeter
D

Answer:

The correct answer is C

● The resistance of resistor Z can be determined from measurements of

○ potential difference, using a voltmeter
○ current, using an ammeter
● To measure the potential difference, the voltmeter must be placed in parallel with
resistor Z
○ Therefore, meter X = voltmeter
● To measure current, the ammeter must be placed in series with resistor Z
○ Therefore meter Y = ammeter
31. The diagram shows the circuit diagram symbol of an electrical component.

Which component does the symbol represent?

A. light-dependent resistor

B. relay coil

C. thermistor

D. variable resistor

Answer:

The correct answer is C

● This is the circuit symbol for a thermistor

A is incorrect because the symbol for a light-dependent resistor is

B is incorrect because the symbol for a relay coil is

D is incorrect because the symbol for a variable resistor is

32. What is the advantage of connecting lamps in parallel in a lighting circuit?

A. A smaller fuse is needed to protect the lamps.

B. If the filament of one lamp breaks, the remaining lamps stay lit.

C. The current taken from the supply is less.

D. The lamps use less power.

Answer:

The correct answer is B

● When lamps are connected in parallel

○ the potential difference across each lamp is the same as the power supply
○ the current taken from the supply splits at each junction
● The advantage of this is that if one lamp breaks, the remaining lamps stay lit

A & C are incorrect because the current flowing into a junction is the same as the
current flowing out of the junction on the other side, so the total current is the same.
Hence, a smaller current isn’t taken from the supply, and a smaller fuse wouldn’t be
needed (as compared to a similar series circuit)

D is incorrect because a lamp in parallel uses more power than a lamp in series
because it receives the full voltage of the battery
33. The diagram shows a circuit of six identical lamps connected to a battery.

Which lamps are brightest?

A. P only

B. Q and R only

C. S, T and U only

D. P, Q, R, S, T and U are equally bright

Answer:

The correct answer is A

● The brightness of a lamp is determined by the power it receives

○ This is dependent on the potential difference and current across each
lamp (P = VI)
● In a series circuit:
○ the potential difference across the components is shared
○ the current through all the components is the same
● Since P, Q&R and S&T&U are in series, the current at a point before P is the
same as a point after S&T&U
● In a parallel circuit:
○ the potential difference across each branch is the same
○ the current splits along each branch at a junction
 ● Lamps R & Q, and lamps S, T & U, are in parallel
● Therefore, the current in P = current in (Q + R) = current in (S + T + U)
● Since the bulbs are identical, lamp P is the brightest as it receives
○ the greatest current
○ the greatest potential difference
○ the maximum power

The combined resistance of two lamps in parallel is less than one individual lamp. This
means lamp P has the greatest resistance and, therefore, the greatest share of potential
difference.
34. Why is a fuse used in an electrical circuit?

A. so that the current can have only one value

B. to prevent the current becoming too large

C. to provide a path to earth if a fault occurs

D. to save electrical energy

Answer:

The correct answer is B

● When the current exceeds a safe level, the fuse will melt and break the circuit,
protecting the components from damage due to excessive current flow
● Therefore, fuses are used in circuits to prevent the current from becoming too
large
35. Which transformer can change a 240V a.c. input into a 15V a.c. output?

Answer:

The correct answer is D

● The transformer equation is given by

𝑉𝑝 𝑁𝑝
𝑉𝑠
= 𝑁𝑠

● Where the input (primary) voltage is Vp = 240 V, and the output (secondary)
voltage is Vs = 15 V
● The ratio of these voltages is:

𝑉𝑝 240
𝑉𝑠
= 15
= 16

● Consider transformer D, where the primary coil has Np = 1200 turns, and the
secondary coil has Ns = 75 turns
● The ratio of these turns is:

𝑁𝑝 1200
𝑁𝑠
= 75
= 16

● Therefore, option D is correct

 𝑁𝑝 800
A is incorrect as the ratio of the turns is 𝑁𝑠
= 40
= 20
𝑁𝑝 1000
B is incorrect as the ratio of the turns is 𝑁𝑠
= 25
= 40
𝑁𝑝 2400
C is incorrect as the ratio of the turns is 𝑁𝑠
= 15
= 160
36. The diagrams show patterns around a straight wire carrying a current
perpendicularly out of the page.

Which pattern represents the magnetic field due to the current in the wire?

Answer:

The correct answer is B

● The direction of the magnetic field due to the current in the wire can be found
using the right-hand grip rule
● If the current (thumb) points perpendicularly out of the page, the magnetic field
(fingers) curl around in the anticlockwise direction
○ This is shown by option B

A is incorrect because this shows the magnetic field around a bar magnet
C is incorrect because this shows the magnetic field directed in the clockwise direction

D is incorrect because the arrows on either side of the wire show the magnetic field
directed in both the clockwise and anticlockwise directions
37. A current-carrying coil in a magnetic field experiences a turning effect.

Three suggestions for increasing the turning effect are given.

1 Increase the number of turns on the coil.

2 Increase the current in the coil.

3 Increase the strength of the magnetic field.

Which suggestions are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer:

The correct answer is D

● The turning effect of a current-carrying coil in a magnetic field can be increased

by increasing
○ the number of turns on the coil
○ the current in the coil
○ the strength of the magnetic field
● Therefore, all three suggestions are correct
38. A model of an atom consists of small particles orbiting a central nucleus.

Where is the positive charge in an atom?

A. on the orbiting particles

B. in the nucleus

C. in the space between the nucleus and the orbiting particles

D. spread throughout the atom

Answer:

The correct answer is B

● The positive charge in an atom comes from protons

● Protons are located in the nucleus
39. A radioactive source has a half-life of 0.5 hours.

A detector near the source shows a reading of 6000 counts per second.

Background radiation can be ignored.

What is the reading on the detector 1.5 hours later?

A. 750 counts per second

B. 1500 counts per second

C. 2000 counts per second

D. 3000 counts per second

Answer:

The correct answer is A

● A half-life of 0.5 hours means the activity of the radioactive source falls by half
every 0.5 hours
● In a time of 1.5 hours, the radioactive source undergoes 3 half-lives
● If the initial activity is 6000 counts per second:
○ after 1 half-life (0.5 hours), the activity will be 3000 counts per second
○ after 2 half-lives (1 hour), the activity will be 1500 counts per second
○ after 3 half-lives (1.5 hours), the activity will be 750 counts per second
● This means the reading on the detector will be 750 counts per second
40. Which statement about the radioactive decay of a substance is correct?

A. It cannot be predicted when a particular nucleus will decay.

B. Placing a radioactive substance inside a lead-lined box prevents it from decaying.

C. The decay always produces poisonous gases.

D. The rate of decay increases if the substance is dissolved in water.

Answer:

The correct answer is A

● The emission of radiation from a nucleus is spontaneous and random in

direction
● This means that it cannot be predicted when a particular nucleus will decay

B is incorrect because placing a radioactive substance inside a lead-lined box doesn’t

prevent it from decaying, but it does stop harmful radiation from escaping

C is incorrect because radioactive decay does not produce poisonous gases, it is the
emission of ionising radiation i.e. alpha, beta or gamma particles

D is incorrect because the rate of decay of a substance cannot be changed or

influenced by environmental factors, such as dissolving it in water