Model Paper of Programmer 8 (P1)

Q1.Where is Rai Research Center located? jk; fjlpZ lsVa j dgk¡ fLFkr gS\
A. Sirohi fljksgh B. Banswara ckalokM+k
C. Bharatpur Hkjriqj D. barmer ckM+esj

Q2. In Desert Development Programme the funding ratio between centre and state with effect from 1st April, 1999
was -
e#LFky fodkl dk;ZØe esa 1 vçSy] 1999 ls dsUæ ,oa jkT; ds chp foÙk iks"k.k vuqikr Fkk &
A. 30:70 B. 75:25
C. 50:50 D. 60:40

Q3. The total length of railway route in Rajasthan as on March 2020 was -
ekpZ 2020 rd jktLFkku esa jsyos ekxZ dh dqy yackbZ Fkh&
A. 5998 km B. 5800 km
C. 5837 km D. 5737 km

Q4. In which place of Rajasthan , there isn't Patwari Training school?

jktLFkku ds fdl LFkku ij iVokjh izf{k{k.k fo|ky; ugha gS\
A. Tonk Vksad B. Kota dksVk
C. Alwar vyoj D. Chittorgarh fpÙkkSMx<+

Q5.Who will be the flag bearer for India at the opening ceremony of Paris Olympics 2024?
isfjl vksyafid 2024 ds mn~?kkVu lekjksg esa Hkkjr dk èotokgd dkSu gksxk\
A. PV Sindhu ihoh Çlèkq B. Gagan Narang xxu ukjax
C. Sharat Kamal ’kjr dey D. both a and c a vkSj c nksuksa

Q6. Who has been recently appointed as the Commandant of Army Hospital?
gky gh esa vkeÊ g‚fLiVy dk dekaMVsa fdls fu;qä fd;k x;k gS\
A. Abhinav Singh vfHkuo flag B. Shankar Narayan ’kadj ukjk;.k
C. Gurpreet Mann xqjizhr eku D. none of these

Q7. Recently PM Modi was awarded the highest civilian honor of which country?
gky gh esa ih,e eksnh dks fdl ns'k ds loksPZ p ukxfjd lEeku ls lEekfur fd;k x;k\
A. Russia :l B. France Ýkal
C. Spain Lisu D. Ukraine ;qØsu

Q8. Who won the ICC Player of the Month award for the month of June?
twu eghus ds fy, ICC Iys;j v‚Q+ n eaFk dk iqjLdkj fdlus thrk\
A. Rohit Sharma jksfgr 'kekZ B. Jasprit Bumrah tlizhr cqejkg
C. Hardik Pandya gkfnZd ikaM~;k D. Arshdeep Singh v’kZnhi flag

Q9. Assume following statement is true. On the basis of statement decide which of the courses of action logically
follows it.
eku ysa fd fuEufyf[kr dFku lR; gSA dFku ds vkèkkj ij fu.kZ; ysa fd dkSu lh dk;Zokgh rkÆdd :i ls bldk vuqlj.k djrh gSA
Statement: dFku %
People residing in some tribal areas are far from education. dqN vkfnoklh bykdksa esa jgus okys yksx f'k{kk ls dkslksa nwj gSaA
Courses of action: D;k & D;k dne%
I. A mass awareness programme must be initiated in these areas.
bu {ks=ksa esa tu tkx:drk dk;ZØe 'kq: fd;k tkuk pkfg,A
II. Social workers should be entrusted to educate them.
mUgsa f'kf{kr djus dk ftEek lkekftd dk;ZdrkZvksa dks lkSaik tkuk pkfg,A
A. Only I follows. B. Only II follows.
C. Both I and II follows. D. Neither I nor II follows.

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Q10. ‘A # B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’. 'A # B' dk vFkZ gS 'A, B dk HkkbZ gS*A
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’. 'A @ B' dk vFkZ gS 'A, B dh csVh gS*A
‘A & B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’. 'A & B' dk vFkZ gS* A, B dk ifr gS*A
‘A % B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’. 'A % B' dk vFkZ gS *A, B dh iRuh gS*A
If S % D # F @ G & H @ J, then how is F related to H?
;fn S % D # F @ G vkSj H @ J, rks F, H ls fdl izdkj lacfa /kr gS\
A. Daughter csVh B. Mother ek¡
C. Daughter’s daughter csVh dh csVh D. Son’s wife csVs dh iRuh

Q11. A is the spouse of G’s only Daughter. F is the father of A. G has only two children i.e. C and D. D is unmarried and
a male person. M is the nephew of D. How is F related to M?
A, G dh bdykSrh csVh dk thoulkFkh gSA F, A dk firk gSA G ds dsoy nks cPps gSa ;kuh C vkSj DA D vfookfgr gS vkSj ,d iq:"k gSA M, D dk
Hkrhtk gSA F, M ls fdl izdkj lacfa /kr gS\
A. Grandmother nknh B. Father firk
C. Uncle vady D. Grandfather nknk

Q12. In a certain code language, ‘RIGIDS’ is written as ‘TFIFFP’. What will be the code for ‘CORNET’ in that code
language?
,d fuf’pr dwV Hkk"kk es]a 'RIGIDS' dks 'TFIFFP' ds :i esa fy[kk tkrk gSA ml dwV Hkk"kk esa 'CORNET' ds fy, dwV D;k gksxk\
A. GNVMIS B. FMULHR C. ELTKRQ D. ELTKGQ

Q13. In a certain code language, 'ACD' is coded as '12', and 'BEA' is coded as '10'. How will 'ECG' be coded in that
language?
,d fuf’pr dksM Hkk"kk es]a 'ACD' dks '12' ds :i esa dksfMr fd;k tkrk gS] vkSj 'BEA' dks '10' ds :i esa dksfMr fd;k tkrk gSA ml Hkk"kk esa
'ECG' dks dSls dksfMr fd;k tk,xk\
A. 105 B. 85 C. 115 D. 125

Q14. In a certain code language, 'POKER' is written as 'IHDXK' and 'FANDS' is written as 'YTGWL'. How will 'AQBCG' be
written in that code language?
,d fuf’pr dksM Hkk"kk es]a 'POKER' dks 'IHDXK' vkSj 'FANDS' dks 'YTGWL' fy[kk tkrk gSA ml dwV Hkk"kk esa 'AQBCG' dSls fy[kk tk,xk\
A. TJVVG B. TKUVZ C. TJVUZ D. TJUVZ

Q15. Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the
number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
ml fodYi dk p;u djsa tks rhljs 'kCn ls mlh çdkj lacfa èkr gS tSls nwljk 'kCn igys 'kCn ls lacafèkr gSA ¼'kCnksa dks lkFkZd vaxzsth 'kCn ekuk
tkuk pkfg, vkSj 'kCn esa v{kjksa dh la[;k@O;atu@Lojksa dh la[;k ds vkèkkj ij ,d&nwljs ls lacafèkr ugÈ gksuk pkfg,½
Plants : Botanist :: Animals : ? ikS/ks % ouLifr’kkL=h %% i'kq % \
A. Chemists ,d dsfeLV B. Geologists HkwoSKkfud
C. Archaeologists iqjkrRofon~ D. Zoologists izk.kh’kkL=h

Q16. Select the option that is related to the fourth term in the same way as the first term is related to the second term
and the fifth term is related to the sixth term.
ml fodYi dk p;u djsa tks pkSFks in ls mlh çdkj lacfa èkr gS tSls igyk in nwljs in ls lacfa èkr gS vkSj ikapoka in NBs in ls lacafèkr gSA
18 : 234 :: ? : 176 :: 14 : 126
A. 14 B. 15 C. 20 D. 16

Q17. How many new Ramsar sites have been announced in India recently?
gky gh esa Hkkjr esa fdrus u, jkelj lkbV~l dh ?kks"k.kk dh xà gS\
A. 3 B. 5 C. 6 D. 8

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Q18. When was National Independent Workers Day celebrated recently?
gky gh esa jk"Vªh; Lora= Jfed fnol dc euk;k x;k\
A. 14 August B. 15 August
C. 16 August D. 18 August

Q19. Recently India and which country have signed an agreement to set up a water technology center?
gky gh esa Hkkjr vkSj fdl ns'k us ty çkS|ksfxdh dsæa LFkkfir djus ds fy, le>kSrk fd;k gS\
A. (Israel) btjkby B. (Sri Lanka) Jh yadk
C. (China) phu D. (Bhutan) HkwVku

Q20. N. Agarwal passed away recently. Who was he?

gky gh esa vkj- ,u- vxzoky dk fuèku gqvk gS] og dkSu Fks\
A. (Actor) vfHkusrk B. (Aerospace Engineer) ,;jksLisl bathfu;j
C. (Writer) ys[kd D. (Player) f[kykM+h

Q21. Which of the following relational query languages have the same expressive power?
i. Relational algebra ii. Tuple relational calculus restricted to safe expressions
iii. Domain relational calculus restricted to safe expressions
A. II and III only B. I and II only
C. I and III only D. I, II and III

Q22. A Relation R with FD set {A->BC, B->A, A->C, A->D, D->A}. How many candidate keys will be there in R?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Q23. What is the min and max number of tables required to convert an ER diagram with 2 entities and 1 relationship
between them with partial participation constraints of both entities?
A. Min 1 and max 2 B. Min 1 and max 3
C. Min 2 and max 3 D. Min 2 and max 2

Q24. Consider a schema R(A,B,C,D) and functional dependencies A->B and C->D. Then the decomposition of R into
R1(AB) and R2(CD) is
A. dependency preserving and lossless join B. lossless join but not dependency preserving
C. dependency preserving but not lossless join D. not dependency preserving and not lossless join

Q25. What is the canonical cover of the following set F of functional dependencies on the schema(A, B, C)?
A → BC B→C A→B AB → C
A. A → BC B. A→B
B→C
C. AB → C D. A→B
A→B
Ans. B

Q26. Let r and s be two relations over the relational schemas R and S respectively, and let A be an attribute in R. Then
the relational algebra expression σ A=a (r ⋈ s) is always equal to
A. σA = a (r) B. r
C. σA = a (r) ⋈ s D. None of these

Q27. Consider a Relational schema R(A,B,C) where A is candidate key. Then total number of super key possible is?
A. 8 B. 4
C. 2 D. 9

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Q28. Which of the following relational calculus expressions is not safe?

Q29. Consider a relation geq which represents “greater than or equal to”, that is, (x,y) ∈ geq only if y >= x.
create table geq
(
ib integer not null
ub integer not null
primary key 1b
foreign key (ub) references geq on delete cascade
)
Which of the following is possible if a tuple (x,y) is deleted?
A. A tuple (z,w) with z > y is deleted B. A tuple (z,w) with z > x is deleted
C. A tuple (z,w) with w < x is deleted D. The deletion of (x,y) is prohibited

Q30. Given the relations employee

(name, salary, deptno) and
department (deptno, deptname, address).
Which of the following queries cannot be expressed using the basic relational algebra operations (U, -, x, π, σ, p)?
A. Department address of every employee
B. Employees whose name is the same as their department name
B. The sum of all employees' salaries
D. All employees of a given department

Q31. Given the following relation instance.

x y z
1 4 2
1 5 3
1 6 3
3 2 2
Which of the following functional dependencies are satisfied by the instance? (GATE CS 2000)
A. XY -> Z and Z -> Y B. YZ -> X and Y -> Z
C. YZ -> X and X -> Z D. XZ -> Y and Y -> X

Q32. Consider an Entity-Relationship (ER) model in which entity sets E1 and E2 are connected by an m : n relationship
R12, E1 and E3 are connected by a 1 : n (1 on the side of E1 and n on the side of E3) relationship R13. E1 has two
single-valued attributes a11 and a12 of which a11 is the key attribute. E2 has two single-valued attributes a21 and a22
is the key attribute. E3 has two single-valued attributes a31 and a32 of which a31 is the key attribute. The relationships
do not have any attributes. If a relational model is derived from the above ER model, then the minimum number of
relations that would be generated if all the relations are in 3NF is ___________.
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

Q33.Consider the relation X(P, Q, R, S, T, U) with the following set of functional dependencies
F={
{P, R} → {S,T},
{P, S, U} → {Q, R}
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 }
Which of the following is the trivial functional dependency in F+ is closure of F?
A. {P,R}→{S,T} B. {P,R}→{R,T} C. {P,S}→{S} D. {P,S,U}→{Q}

Q34. Which of the following objects are data-independent and can provide security so as to restrict data access?
I. Sequence II. Views III. Indexes
A. Only ii B. Only iii C. Both ii and iii D. i, ii and iii

Q35. Consider a B+ tree in which tha maximum number of keys in a node is 5. What is the maximum number of keys in
any non-root node?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Q36. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct about the B+ tree data structure used for creating an index
of a relational database table?
A. B+ Tree is a height-balanced tree B. Non-leaf nodes have pointers to data records
C. Key value in each node are kept in sorted order D. Each leaf node has a pointer to the next leaf node

Q37. A clustering index is defined on the fields which are of type _____
A. Non-key and ordering B. Non-key and non-ordering
C. Key and ordering D. Key and non-ordering

Q38. Consider a B+ tree in which the search key is 12 bytes long, block size is 1024 bytes, record pointer is 10 bytes
long and block pointer is 8 bytes long. The maximum number of keys that can be accommodated in each non-leaf node
of the tree is ________.
A. 49 B. 50 C. 51 D. 52

Q39. Let transaction T1 has obtained a shared mode lock S on data item Q and transaction T2 has obtained an
exclusive mode lock X on data item R. consider the following statement.
I: T1 can read Q but cannot write Q. II: T2 can read R but cannot write R.
Which of the above statements is/are valid?
A. Only I B. Only II
C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II

Q40. The advantage of optimistic locking is

A. The lock is obtained only after the transaction has processed
B. The lock is obtained only before the transaction has processed
C. The lock never needs to be obtained
D. The lock transactions are best suited with a lot of activity

Q41. Consider the schema R = (S T U V) and the dependencies S → T, T → U, U → V and V → S. Let R = (R1 and R2). be a
decomposition such that R1 ∩ R2 = Ø The decomposition is
A. not in 2 NF B. in 2 NF but not in 3 NF
C. in 3 NF but not in 2 NF D. in both 2 NF and 3 NF

Q42. Consider the following relation schema pertaining to a students database:

Student (rollno, name, address)
Enroll (rollno, courseno, coursename)
where the primary keys are shown underlined. The number of tuples in the Student and Enroll tables are 120 and 8
respectively. What are the maximum and minimum number of tuples that can be present in (Student * Enroll), where
'*' denotes natural join ?
A. 8, 8 B. 120, 8 C. 960, 8 D. 960, 120
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Q43. Consider the following relational schema:
Suppliers(sid:integer, sname:string, city:string, street:string)
Parts(pid:integer, pname:string, color:string)
Catalog(sid:integer, pid:integer, cost:real)
Consider the following relational query on the above database:
SELECT S.sname
FROM Suppliers S
WHERE S.sid NOT IN (SELECT C.sid
FROM Catalog C
WHERE C.pid NOT IN (SELECT P.pid
FROM Parts P
WHERE P.color<> 'blue'))
Assume that relations corresponding to the above schema are not empty. Which one of the following is the correct
interpretation of the above query?
A. Find the names of all suppliers who have supplied a non-blue part.
B. Find the names of all suppliers who have not supplied a non-blue part.
C. Find the names of all suppliers who have supplied only blue parts.
D. Find the names of all suppliers who have not supplied only blue parts.

Q44. In the index allocation scheme of blocks to a file, the maximum possible size of the file depends on :
A. the size of the blocks, and the size of the ad-dress of the blocks.
B. the number of blocks used for the index, and the size of the blocks.
C. the size of the blocks, the number of blocks used for the index, and the size of the address of the blocks.
D. None of these

Q45. Table A
Id Name Age
----------------
12 Arun 60
15 Shreya 24
99 Rohit 11
Table B
Id Name Age
----------------
15 Shreya 24
25 Hari 40
98 Rohit 20
99 Rohit 11

Table C
Id Phone Area
-----------------
10 2200 02
99 2100 01
Consider the above tables A, B and C. How many tuples does the result of the following SQL query contains?
SELECT A.id
FROM A
WHERE A.age > ALL (SELECT B.age
FROM B
WHERE B. name = "arun")
A. 4 B. 3 C. 0 D. 1
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Q46. Consider the relation schema: singer(singerName, songName). What is the highest normal form satisfied by the
"Singer" relation schema?
A. 1NF B. 2NF C. BCNF D. 3NF

Q47.

How many minimum relation tables are required which satisfy 1NF? 333336
A. 2, 2, and 1 respectively B. 2, 2, and 2 respectively
C. 1, 2, and 1 respectively D. 1, 1, and 1 respectively

Q48. Consider the schedule S given below:

S : R1(X), W2(X), W1(X),
Which of the following statement is correct?
A. S is view-serializable but not conflict-serializable.
B. S is conflict serializable but not view serializable.
C. S is neither view nor conflict serializable.
D. S is both view and conflict serializable.

Q49. Which category of data integrity states that no duplicate rows should be there in a table?
A. User-defined B. Referential
C. Entity D. Domain

Q50. As data objects and relationships among them are represented logically in an ______.
A. Relational Data Model B. ER Model
C. Object-based Model D. Semi-structured Data Model

Q51. _____ are collections of similar types of entities.

A. Relationship Set B. Entity Set
C. ER Set D. None of the above

Q52. Which type of data model is an extension of ER Model?

A. Relational Data Model B. Object-based Data Model
C. Structured Data Model D. Semi-structured Data Model

Q53. A/An __________ of a database is the data in it at a specific moment in time.

A. Schema B. Instance
C. Instant D. Scheme

Q54. Data schemas represent the skeleton structure of a database. They represent the ___ of the database as a whole.
A. Analytical View B. Logical View
C. Semantic View D. Practical View

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Q55. Which of the following is/are true in case of tree locking?
i. It ensures shorter waiting times. ii. It ensures freedom from deadlock.
iii. Transaction cona lock data items earlier. iv. It does not enseure greater amount of concurrencey.
Choose the correct anser form the options given below:
A. i and ii only B. iii and iv only
C. ii and iii only D. i and iv only

Q56. What is a “dirty read” in the context of database transactions?

A. A read operation that accesses an uncommitted modification made by another transaction
B. A read operation that accesses committed data
C. A read operation that accesses data modified by the current transaction
D. A read operation that is faster than usual

Q57. What is a deadlock in a database system?

A. A situation where two or more transactions are waiting for each other to release a lock
B. A condition where a transaction waits indefinitely for a lock
C. A process where transactions are rolled back continuously
D. A state where multiple transactions are executed without concurrency control

Q58. What is serializability in the context of DBMS?

A. A property that ensures non-repeatable reads are avoided.
B. A property that guarantees that a schedule is conflict-free.
C. A property that ensures the transaction schedule will result in a state that could be produced by serial execution.
D. A property that allows concurrent execution without any locking.

Q59. Which of the following is used to recover the database after a failure?
A. Log-based recovery B. Shadow paging
C. Checkpoints D. All of the above

Q60. Which of the following is a necessary condition for a transaction to be considered "recoverable"?
A. It commits only after all other transactions it depends on commit
B. It rolls back all other dependent transactions upon failure
C. It must use exclusive locks
D. It must execute before all dependent transactions

Q61. Which of the following protocol is used for transferring electronic mail messages from one machine to another?
A. TELNET B. FTP C. SNMP D. SMTP

Q62. Which of the following protocols is used by email server to maintain a central repository that can be accessed
from any machine ?
A. POP3 B. IMAP C. SMTP D. DMSP

Q63. A web client sends a request to a web server. The web server transmits a program to that client ans is executed
at client. It creates a web document. What are such web documents called?
A. Active B. Static
C. Dynamic D. Passive

Q64. Which of the following protocols is an application layer protocol that establishes, manages and terminates
multimedia sessions ?
A. Session Maintenance Protocol B. Real - time Streaming Protocol
C. Real - time Transport Control Protocol D. Session Initiation Protocol
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Q65. In a sliding window ARQ scheme, the transmitter\'s window size is N and the receiver\'s window size is M. The
minimum number of distinct sequence numbers required to ensure correct operation of the ARQ scheme is
A. min (M, N) B. max (M, N)
C. M + N D. MN

Q66. Which one of the following protocols is NOT used to resolve one form of address to another one?
A. DNS B. ARP
C. DHCP D. RARP

Q67. Identify the correct sequence in which the following packets are transmitted on the network by a host when a
browser requests a webpage from a remote server, assuming that the host has just been restarted.
A. HTTP GET request, DNS query, TCP SYN B. DNS query, HTTP GET request, TCP SYN
C. DNS query, TCP SYN, HTTP GET request D. TCP SYN, DNS query, HTTP GET request

Q68. Provide the best matching between the entries in the two columns given in the table below:
I. Proxy Serverr a. Firewall
II. Kazaa, DC++ b. Caching
III. Slip c. P2P
IV. DNS d. PPP
A. I-a, II-d, III-c, IV-b B. I-b, II-d, III-c, IV-a
C. I-a, II-c, III-d, IV-b D. I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a

Q69. Which protocol will be used to automate the IP configuration mechanism which includes IP address, subnet mask,
default gateway, and DNS information?
A. SMTP B. DHCP
C. ARP D. TCP/IP

Q70. In Go–back 3 flow control protocol every 6th packet is lost. If we have to send 11 packets. How many
transmissions will be needed ?
A. 10 B. 17 C. 12 D. 9

Q71. What will be the total minimum bandwidth of the channel required for 7 channels of 400 kHz bandwidth
multiplexed together with each guard band of 20 kHz?
A. 2800 khz B. 2600 khz C. 3600 khz D. 2920 khz

Q72. In serial communications employing 8 data bits, a parity bit and 2 stop bits, the minimum band rate required to
sustain a transfer rate of 300 characters per second is
A. 2400 band B. 19200 band
C. 4800 band D. 1200 band

Q73. Purpose of a start bit in R8232 serial communication protocol is

A. to synchronize receiver for receiving every byte B. to synchronize receiver for receiving a sequence of bytes
C. a parity bit D. to synchronize receiver for receiving the last byte

Q74. Physical topology of FDDI is?

A. Bus B. Ring
C. Star D. None of the above

Q75. Packets of the same session may be routed through different paths in
A. TCP, but not UDP B. TCP and UDP
C. UDP, but not TCP D. Neither TCP, nor UDP
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Q76. The maximum window size for data transmission using the selective reject protocol with n-bit frame sequence
numbers is:
A. 2^n B. 2^(n-1) C. 2^n – 1 D. 2^(n-2)

Q77. Which of the following functionalities must be implemented by a transport protocol over and above the network
protocol ?
A. Recovery from packet losses B. Detection of duplicate packets
C. Packet delivery in the correct order D. End to end connectivity

Q78. Which of the following is NOT true about User Datagram Protocol in transport layer?
A. Works well in unidirectional communication, suitable for broadcast information.
B. It does three way handshake before sending datagrams
C. It provides datagrams, suitable for modelling other protocols such as in IP tunnelling or Remote Procedure Call and
the Network File System
D. The lack of retransmission delays makes it suitable for real-time applications

Q79. Suppose two hosts use a TCP connection to transfer a large file. Which of the following statements is/are False
with respect to the TCP connection?
1. If the sequence number of a segment is m, then the sequence number of the subsequent segment is always m+1.
2. If the estimated round trip time at any given point of time is t sec, the value of the retransmission timeout is always
set to greater than or equal to t sec.
3. The size of the advertised window never changes during the course of the TCP connection.
4. The number of unacknowledged bytes at the sender is always less than or equal to the advertised window
A. 3 only B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 4 only D. 2 and 4 only

Q80. A link has a transmission speed of 106 bits/sec. It uses data packets of size 1000 bytes each. Assume that the
acknowledgment has negligible transmission delay, and that its propagation delay is the same as the data propagation
delay. Also assume that the processing delays at nodes are negligible. The efficiency of the stop-and-wait protocol in
this setup is exactly 25%. The value of the one-way propagation delay (in milliseconds) is ___________.
A. 4 B. 8
C. 12 D. 16

Q81. What key(s) are used by the sender of an encrypted message in an asymmetric-key cipher?
A. Neither public nor private key of the receiver B. Public key of the receiver
C. Public or private key of the sender D. Private key of the sender

Q82. Assume that the bandwidth for a TCP connection is 1048560 bits/sec. Let α be the value of RTT in milliseconds
(rounded off to the nearest integer) after which the TCP window scale option is needed. Let β be the maximum
possible window size with window scale option. Then the values of α and β are.
A. 63 milliseconds 65535 × 214 B. 63 milliseconds 65535 × 216
C. 500 milliseconds 65535 × 214 D. 500 milliseconds 65535 × 216

Q83. Consider the following statements.

I. TCP connections are full duplex.
II. TCP has no option for selective acknowledgment
III. TCP connections are message streams.
A. Only I is correct B. Only I and II are correct
C. Only II and III are correct D. All of I, II and III are correct

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Q84. Which of the following is public IP address ?
A. 10.15.14.12 B. 192.168.52.62
C. 172.32.1.1 D. None of the Above

Q85. An Internet Service Provider(ISP) has the following chunk of CIDR-based IP addresses available with
it:245.248.128.0/20. The ISP wants to give half of this chunk of addresses to Organization A, and a quarter to
Organization B, while retaining the remaining with itself. Which of the following is a valid allocation of addresses to A
and B?
A. 245.248.136.0/21 and 245.248.128.0/22
B. 245.248.128.0/21 and 245.248.128.0/22
C. 245.248.132.0/22 and 245.248.132.0/21
D. 245.248.136.0/22 and 245.248.132.0/21

Q86. Keylogger are a form of ____.

A. Social Engineering B. Trojan
C. Shoulder Surfing D. Spyware

Q87. Suppose computers A and B have IP addresses 10.105.1.113 and 10.105.1.91 respectively and they both use the
same netmask N. Which of the values of N given below should not be used if A and B should belong to the same
network?
A. 255.255.255.0 B. 255.255.255.128
C. 255.255.255.192 D. 255.255.255.224

Q88. If a class B network on the Internet has a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, what is the maximum number of hosts
per subnet?
A. 1022 B. 1023 C. 2046 D. 2047

Q89. Host A (on TCP/IP v4 network A) sends an IP datagram D to host B (also on TCP/IP v4 network B). Assume that no
error occurred during the transmission of D. When D reaches B, which of the following IP header field(s) may be
different from that of the original datagram D?
(i) TTL (ii) Checksum (iii) Fragment Offset
A. (i) only B. (i) and (ii) only C. (ii) and (iii) only D. (i), (ii) and (iii)

Q90. Every host in an IPv4 network has a 1-second resolution real-time clock with battery backup. Each host needs to
generate up to 1000 unique identifiers per second. Assume that each host has a globally unique IPv4 address. Design a
50-bit globally unique ID for this purpose. After what period (in seconds) will the identifiers generated by a host wrap
around?
A. 128 B. 64 C. 256 D. 512

Q91. Station A needs to send a message consisting of 9 packets to Station B using a sliding window (window size 3) and
go-back-n error control strategy. All packets are ready and immediately available for transmission. If every 5th packet
that A transmits gets lost (but no acks from B ever get lost), then what is the number of packets that A will transmit for
sending the message to B?
A. 12 B. 14 C. 16 D. 18

Q92. The address resolution protocol (ARP) is used for

A. Finding the IP address from the DNS
B. Finding the IP address of the default gateway
C. Finding the IP address that corresponds to a MAC address
D. Finding the MAC address that corresponds to an IP address

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Q93. In a packet switching network, packets are routed from source to destination along a single path having two
intermediate nodes. If the message size is 24 bytes and each packet contains a header of 3 bytes, then the optimum
packet size is:
A. 4 B. 6 C. 7 D. 9

Q94. Consider a selective repeat sliding window protocol that uses a frame size of 1 KB to send data on a 1.5 Mbps link
with a one-way latency of 50 msec. To achieve a link utilization of 60%, the minimum number of bits required to
represent the sequence number field is ________.
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

Q95. In the diagram shown below L1 is an Ethernet LAN and L2 is a Token-Ring LAN. An IP packet originates from
sender S and traverses to R, as shown. The link within each ISP, and across two ISPs, are all point to point optical links.
The initial value of TTL is 32. The maximum possible value of TTL field when R receives the datagram is

A. 25 B. 24 C. 26 D. 28

Q96. A bit-stuffing based framing protocol uses an 8-bit delimiter pattern of 01111110. If the output bit-string after
stuffing is 01111100101, then the input bit-string is
A. 0111110100 B. 0111110101
C. 0111111101 D. 0111111111

Q97. Station A uses 32 byte packets to transmit messages to Station B using a sliding window protocol. The round trip
delay between A and B is 80 milliseconds and the bottleneck bandwidth on the path between A and B is 128 kbps.
What is the optimal window size that A should use?
A. 20 B. 40 C. 160 D. 320

Q98. What is the main function of NAT (Network Address Translation)?

A. To translate domain names to IP addresses
B. To map private IP addresses to a single public IP address
C. To ensure reliable data transmission between hosts
D. To assign IP addresses dynamically to devices

Q99. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Data Link Layer in the OSI model?
A. Framing B. Error detection and correction
C. Logical addressing D. Flow control

Q100. Which routing algorithm uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm to determine the best path to a destination?
A. Link-State Routing B. Distance-Vector Routing
C. Dynamic Routing D. Static Routing

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