FIITJEE Phase Test Paper - JEE Advanced
FIITJEE Phase Test Paper - JEE Advanced
▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
BATCH: LKITN246C03 (PINNACLE - XI - DPS)
this purpose.
▪ You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.
INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong
results.
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section -II is Chemistry and Section -III is Mathematics.
4. Each Section is further divided into two Parts: Part – A & Part – C based on type of questions as this
paper doesn’t have matrix matching so there is no Part B in question paper.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
Part-A (7 – 14) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one correct
answer(s). Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen,
both of which are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
(ii) Part-C (1 – 6) contains 6 Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer, ranging from
0 to 9 (both inclusive) and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
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LKITN246C03-DPS-XI-PH-II-ADV-2
USEFUL DATA
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY
Acceleration due to gravity : g = 10 m/s2 −1 −1
Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K mol
−34
Planck constant : h = 6.6 10 J − s = 0.0821 Lit atm
−19 −1 −1
Charge of electron : e = 1.6 10 C K mol
Mass of electron : me = 9.1 10
−31
kg
= 1.987 2 Cal
−1 −1
−12 2 2 K mol
Permittivity of free space : 0 = 8.85 10 C /N −m
Avogadro’s Number Na = 6.023 1023
Density of water : water 3
= 10 kg / m
3
−34
5 2 Planck’s constant h = 6.625 10 J .s
Atmospheric pressure : Pa = 10 N / m −27
Gas constant : R = 8.314 J = 6.625 10 erg .s
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
K −1 mol −1 1 calorie = 4.2 joule
−27
1 amu = 1.66 10 kg
−19
1 eV = 1.6 10 J
Atomic No: H = 1, He = 2, Li = 3, Be = 4, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Ne = 10, Na = 11,
Mg = 12, Si = 14, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17, Ar = 18, K = 19, Ca = 20,
Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28, Cu = 29, Zn = 30, As = 33, Br = 35,
Ag = 47, Sn = 50, I = 53, Xe = 54, Ba = 56, Pb = 82, U = 92.
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LKITN246C03-DPS-XI-PH-II-ADV-2
Section – I Physics
PART – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This part contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
2. A block of mass 5kg is suspended from the end of a vertical spring which is stretched by 10cm
under the load of the block. The block is given a sharp impulse from below so that it esqauires an
upward speed of 2m/s. The block will rise to a height (g = 10m/s 2)
(A) 0.10m (B) 0.20m (C) 0.25m (D) none of these
4. Moment of inertia of a uniform semicircular wire of mass M and radius r about a line perpendicular
to plane of wire, passing through the centre is:
2 2 1 2 1 2
(A) Mr (B) Mr (C) Mr (D) Mr2
5 2 4
5. Two particles of equal mass have velocities v1 = 2iˆ m/s and v2 = 2 ˆj m/s. First particle has an
( )
acceleration a1 = 3iˆ + 3 ˆj m / s , while the acceleration of the other particle is zero. The centre of
2
6. Two identical spheres A and B, lie on a smooth, horizontal groove at opposite ends of a diameter.
A is projected along the groove and after a time t it impinges upon B. It e is the coefficient of
restitution, then the second impact will occur after a time
(A) 3 t/2 (B) 2 t/e (C) e t/2 (D) none of these
PART – A
(Multi Correct Choice Type)
This part contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
7. A particle of mass m, moving with velocity v collides a stationary particle of mass 2 m. As a result
v
of collision, the particle of mass m deviates by 450 and has final speed of . For this situation
2
mark out the correct options
(A) The angle of divergence between particles after collision is / 2 .
(B) The angle of divergence between particles after collision is less than / 2 .
(C) collision is elastic
(D) collision is inelastic
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LKITN246C03-DPS-XI-PH-II-ADV-2
10. Two masses M and m (M>m) are joined by a light string passing over a smooth light pulley
11. A particle of mass 1 kg has velocity v1 = ( 2t ) i ms −1 and another particle of mass 2 kg has velocity
v2 = ( t 2 ) j ms −1 then
80 −1
(A) Net force on CM at 2s is 68 Newton (B) velocity of CM at 2s is ms
3
20 40 −1
(C) Displacement of CM in 2s is m (D) velocity of CM at 2s is ms
9 3
12. A ball falls freely from a height ‘h’ on a smooth fixed inclined plane forming
an angle with horizontal and does several collisions with the plane in
further motion, Assume the impact to be perfectly elastic, then:
(A) velocity of ball along inclined plane remains unchanged just
before and after all collisions
(B) time of flight (T) for each collision remains unchanged
(C) Range on plane goes on increasing
(D) Range on the plane goes on decreasing
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LKITN246C03-DPS-XI-PH-II-ADV-2
14. Two blocks A and B each of mass ‘m’ are connected by a massless v
spring of natural length ‘L’ and spring constant ‘k’. The blocks are
initially resting on a smooth horizontal floor with the spring at its natural C A B
length as shown in figure. A third identical block ‘C’ also of mass m,
moves on the floor with a speed v along the line joining A and B and
collides elastically with A then.
(A) The kinetic energy of the A – B system at maximum compression of the spring is zero
mv 2
(B) The kinetic energy of the A – B system at maximum compression of spring is
4
m
(C) The maximum compression of spring is v
k
m
(D) The maximum compression of spring is v
2k
PART – C
(Numerical Based)
This part contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
1. A block of mass m and a pan of equal mass are connected by a string going
over a smooth pulley as shown in fig. Initially the system is at rest when a
particle of mass m falls on the pan and sticks to it. The particle strikes the
v0
pan with a speed v0. The speed of the system just after the collision is . m
x
The value of x is
m m
2. Block A shown in figure can slide over fixed rigid friction less wire of
quarter circular shape. String connected to A and B is mass less
and inextensible. The system is released with rest when = 00
MA
Determine the ratio k= (app. Integer value) for which the A
MB
system will come to rest again when = 300 . MA B MB
3. A pendulum of mass 1 kg and length l = 1 m is released from rest at angle 600. The power
delivered by all the forces acting on the bob at an angle = 300 is x . The value of x is ( is
instantaneous angular velocity)
4. A block of mass 2 m collides elastically with mass m kept at rest.
Friction exists between the block B and surface with coefficient 9 m/s
= 0.3 . Where as no friction exists between block A and the 2m m
surface. The block A collides with B at t = o. The second collision
takes place after t. The value of t in sec is A B
loops inside the vertical loop of radius R from where a section of 60°
A
angle = 60° has been removed. If R = (1/N) meter, such that after H
losing contact at A and flying through the air, the particle will reach R
at the point B. Find N. Neglect friction everywhere.
Y
6. A circular arc (AB) of thin wire frame of radius R = 2 cm and mass M makes
an angle of 900 at the origin. Find the y coordinate of the CM. taking O as the
origin in cm. A B
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LKITN246C03-DPS-XI-PH-II-ADV-2
Section – II Chemistry
PART – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This part contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Select pair of compounds in which both have different hybridization but have same shape?
S S
Cl Cl Cl Cl
(C) O Cl (D) Cl O
S S
Cl Cl Cl Cl
Cl Cl
O t (min)
4. Graph between log k and 1/T [k is rate constant (s –1) and T is
1
temperature (K)] is a straight line with OX = 5, = tan −1 − .
2.303
Log10k
Hence Ea will be
2 X
(A) 2.303 x 2 cal (B) cal
3.303
(C) 2 cal (D) none of these O 1/T
5. The rate of diffusion of a sample of ozonized oxygen is 0.98 times that of oxygen. Find the
percentage (by volume)of ozone in the ozonised sample.
(A) 7.25 (B) 8.25
(C) 10.25 (D) 15.25
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LKITN246C03-DPS-XI-PH-II-ADV-2
PART – A
(Multi Correct Choice Type)
This part contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
7. Cl
The dipole moment of the above compound is 0.8D. Which of the following compounds will have
the same value of dipole moment as the above compound?
Cl Cl
CI
(A) (B)
CI CI CI
Cl CI
CI
(C) (D)
CI
CI
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LKITN246C03-DPS-XI-PH-II-ADV-2
r t1/2
log 0 k
r Slope =
2.303
time concentration
(C) (D)
log r0
rate
log r
concentration time
d[A]
12. For the reaction A → B, the rate law expression is − = k [A]1/2 . If initial concentration of A is A0.
dt
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding this reaction?
(A) the plot of A against ‘t’ will be linear
2( 2 − 1)
(B) the half life period is t1/2 = A0
K
(C) the linear decreases of rate of reaction with time
K
(D) the integrated form of rate expression is A =− t + A0
2
13. van der Waal’s constant ‘a’ and ‘b’ for hydrogen gas are 0.246 l 2 atm mol-2 and 0.0267 l mol-1
respectively then identify the correct statement (s) among the following:
(A) critical temperature of H2 gas is 33.25 K
(B) Boyle temperature of H2 gas is 112.2 K
(C) critical compressibility factor is 0.375
(D) critical volume of H2 gas is 0.080 l/mol.
14. A cylinder contains equal weight of four gases, H2, He, CH4 and O2 at -30oC. Choose correct
statements.
1
(A) The partial pressure of O2 is times of the total pressure.
27
(B) The partial pressure of CH4 is the lowest as compared to other gases
(C) The partial pressure of H2 is the highest in the vessel
1
(D) Fraction of pressure exerted by methane is of the total pressure.
12
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LKITN246C03-DPS-XI-PH-II-ADV-2
PART – C
(Numerical Based)
This part contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
1. F
F F
F F
F
o
The S – F bond length in SF6 molecule is 0.42 A . If the on the plane F – F distance is 5.93 x 10-x
o
A , the value of ‘x’ will be:
3. The pressure of a gas decomposition reaction on the surface of a solid has been measured at
different times is in the following manner:
Time in second 0 100 200 300
Pressure in kPa 3 2.5 2.0 1.5
The order of the reaction is
5. The density of gas X (mol.mass = 60) is 1.4 g/litre at a certain temperature and pressure. Under
the same conditions, the density of another gas(Y) is 2.1 g/litre. What is the mass of 0.1 gram
molecule of gas ‘Y’?
6. Two grams of hydrogen diffuse from a container in 10 minutes. How many grams of oxygen would
diffuse through the same container in the same time under similar conditions?
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LKITN246C03-DPS-XI-PH-II-ADV-2
1. A GP consists of an even number of terms. If the sum of all the terms is 5 times the sum of the
terms occupying odd places, the common ratio will be equal to-
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
2. If the A.M. is twice the G.M. of the numbers a and b, then a : b will be-
3+2 2+ 3
(A) (B)
3−2 2− 3
3−2
(C) (D) None of these
3+2
3. In the following two A.P.'s how many terms are identical? 2, 5, 8, 11.... to 60 terms; 3, 5, 7, .. 50
terms
(A) 15 (B) 16
(C) 17 (D) 18
4. Bhavana has 4 different toys and Quincy has 7 different toys, The number of ways in which they
can be exchange their toys so that each keeps her initial number of toys is
(A) 239 (B) 330
(C) 331 (D) 338
5. The number of ways to form three digit number xyz with x < y, z < y
(A) 240 (B) 230
(C) 220 (D) 210
6. If a, b, c, d are odd natural numbers such that a + b +c + d = 20 then the number of values of
ordered quadruplet (a, b, c, d) is
(A) 165 (B) 455
(C) 310 (D) None of these
PART – A
(Multi Correct Choice Type)
This part contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
7. If a, b & c are distinct positive real which are in H.P., then the quadratic equation ax2 + 2bx + c = 0
has-
(A) two non-real roots such that their sum is real
(B) two purely imaginary roots
(C) two non-real roots such that their product is real
(D) None of these
8. If AM of the number 51+x and 51–x is 13 then the set of possible real values of x is -
1
(A) 5, (B) {1, – 1}
5
(C) {x| x2–1= 0, x R} (D) None of these
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LKITN246C03-DPS-XI-PH-II-ADV-2
9. If n objects are arranged in a row, then the number of ways of selecting three of these objects so
that no two of them are next to each other is
1
(A) (n − 2 )(n − 3 )(n − 4 ) (B) n − 2 C3
6
(C) n−3 C3 + n−3C2 (D) None of these
11. Eight people enter an elevator. At each of four floors atleast one person leaves the elevator after
which elevator is empty. The number of ways in which this is possible, is
4 4
Ci ( −1) ( 4 − i ) Ci ( −1) ( 8 − i )
4 i 8 8 i 4
(A) (B)
i=0 i=0
12. The total number of ways in which 15 identical blankets can be distributed among four persons so
that each of them gets at least two blankets is equal to
(A) 10 C3 (B) 9 C3
11
(C) C3 (D) None of these
1 3 5 7
13. The nth term of series + + + + ....
4 16 64 256
4n 2n − 1
(A) (B)
2n − 1 4n
2n + 1 2n − 1
(C) (D)
4n 22n
14. If sum of n terms of an A.P. is given by Sn = a + bn + cn2 where a, b, c are independent of n then
(A) a = 0 (B) common difference of A.P. must be 2b
(C) common difference of A.P. must be 2c (D) all above
PART – C
(Numerical Based)
This part contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
1 1 1 1 1 1
1. The value of the ratio 1 + 2 + 2 + 2 + .... 1 − 2 + 2 − 2 + .... is …….
2 3 4 2 3 4
2. If the sum of the first 3n terms is equal to the next n terms of an A.P. whose common difference is
non-zero, then the reciprocal of the ratio of the sum of the first 2n terms to the next 2n terms is ….
3. 6 boys, 5 girls and 3 teachers are arranged in a line such that boys are in ascending order girls are
in descending order of their height, no two teachers are together. The number of such
arrangements is 220 11C5 k, then the value of k is _____.
4. The sum of first n terms (n > 1) of an A.P is 153 and the common difference is 2. If the first terms is
an integer, the number of possible values of n is ________.
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LKITN246C03-DPS-XI-PH-II-ADV-2
5. Let n be the number of ways in which 5 boys and 5 girls can stand in a queue in such a way that all
the girls stand consecutively in a queue. Let m be the numbers of ways in which 5 boys and 5 girls
can stand in a queue in such a way that exactly four girls stand consecutively in the queue. Then
m
the value of is
n
6. Number of ways in which the letters of the word DECISIONS be arranged so that letter N be
9
somewhere to the right of the letter “D” is . Find .
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LKITN246C03-DPS-XI-PH-II-ADV-2
PART – A
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. D
5. B 6. B 7. BD 8. ABCD
9. ABC 10. ABC 11. ABC 12. ABC
13. ABC 14. BD
PART – C
1. 3 2. 3 3. 5 4. 8
5. 5 6. 4
SECTION – II (CHEMISTRY)
PART – A
1. A 2. C 3. C 4. C
5. B 6. B 7. CD 8. BD
9. AC 10. AB 11. ABD 12. ABD
13. ABCD 14. AC
PART – C
1. 1 2. 4 3. 0 4. 7
5. 9 6. 8
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. A
5. A 6. A 7. AC 8. BC
9. ABC 10. ACD 11. AC 12. A
13. BD 14. AC
PART – C
1. 2 2. 5 3. 6 4. 5
5. 5 6. 8
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