30-08-2024

Enthu_Med_PT_2908 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

1) The current flows from A to B as shown in the figure. The direction of the induced current in the

loop (When current decreases with time) is :-

(1) clockwise
(2) anticlockwise
(3) straight line
(4) none of these

2) A long solenoid of radius 2 cm has 100 turns/cm and carries a current of 5A. A coil of radius 1 cm
having 100 turns and a total resistance of 20 Ω is placed inside the solenoid coaxially. The coil is
connected to a galvanometer. If the current in the solenoid is reversed in direction, find the charge
flown through the galvanometer :-

(1) 2 × 10–4 C
(2) 4 × 10–4 C
(3) 6 × 10–4 C
(4) 8 × 10–4C

3) When a bar magnet falls through a long hollow metal cylinder fixed with its axis vertical, the final
acceleration of the magnet is :-

(1) equal to g
(2) Less than g but finite
(3) greater than g
(4) equal to zero

4) A bulb and an open coil inductor are connected to an AC source through a key as shown in figure.
The switch is closed and after sometime, an iron rod is inserted into the interior of the inductor. The
glow of the bulb :-

(1) increases
(2) decreases
(3) is unchanged
(4) can't be determined

5) A transformer is used to light a 100 W and 110V lamp from a 220V mains. If the main current is
0.5 amp, the efficiency of the transformer is approximately :-

(1) 50%
(2) 90%
(3) 10%
(4) 30%

6) As shown in the figure a metal rod makes contact and complete the circuit. The circuit is
perpendicular to the magnetic field with B = 0.15 tesla. If the resistance is 3Ω, force needed to move

the rod as indicated with a constant speed of 2m/sec is :-

(1) 3.75 × 10–3 N

(2) 3.75 × 10–2 N
(3) 3.75 × 102 N
(4) 3.75 × 10–4 N

7) A 50 mH coil carries a current of 2 ampere. The energy stored in joules is :-

(1) 1
(2) 0.1
(3) 0.05
(4) 0.5

8) A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 × 104 turns per meter. At the centre of the solenoid, a coil
of 100 turns and radius 0.01 m is placed with its axis perpendicular with the solenoid axis. The
current in the solenoid reduces at a constant rate to 0A from 4 A in 0.05 s. If the resistance of the
coil is 10π2Ω, then the total charge flowing through the coil during this time is :-
(1) 16 µC
(2) 32 µC
(3) 32 pµC
(4) None of these

9) Two coils carrying current in opposite direction are placed co–axially with centres at some finite
separation. If they are brought close to each other then current flowing in them should

(1) decrease
(2) increase
(3) remain same
(4) become zero

10) In the diagram shown if a bar magnet is moved along the common axis of two single turn coils A

and B in the direction of arrow :-

(1) Current is induced only in A & not in B

(2) Induced currents in A & B are in the same direction
(3) Current is induced only in B and not in A
(4) Induced currents in A & B are in opposite directions

11) A uniform magnetic field B existas in a cyindrical region of radius 10 cm as shown in figure. A
uniform wire of length 80 cm and resistance 4.0 Ω is bent into a square frame and is placed with one
side along a diameter of the cylindrical region. If the magnetic field increases at a constant rate of
0.010 T/s, find the current induced in the frame.

(1) 3.9 × 10–5 A

(2) 0.2 × 10–5 A
(3) 08 × 10–5 A
(4) 10 × 10–5 A

12) Two different loops are concentric and lie in the same plane. The current in the outer loop is
clockwise and increasing with time. The induced current in the inner loop then, is :

(1) Clockwise
zero
(2)

(3) counter clockwise

(4) in a direction that depends on the ratio of the loop radii

13) Pure inductors each of inductance 2H are connected as shown. The equivalent induction of the
circuit is (Coupling factor is zero) :-

(1) 1H
(2) 2H
(3) 3H
(4) 9H

14) Two concentric circular coils, one of small radius r1 and the other of large radius r2, such that r1
<< r2, are placed coaxially with centres coinciding. Obtain the mutual inductance of the
arrangement.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) An electric potential difference will be induced between the ends of the conductor shown in the
figure when the conductor moves in the direction :-

(1) P
(2) Q
(3) L
(4) M

16)

A conducting loop having a capacitor is moving out from the magnetic field shown in following
figure. Which plate of the capacitor will be positive ?
(1) Plate – A
(2) Plate – B
(3) Plate – A and Plate – B both
(4) None

17) A conducting rod PQ of length ℓ = 2m is moving at a speed of 2m/s making an angle of 30° with
its length. A uniform magnetic field B = 2T exists in a direction perpendicular to the plane of motion,
then :-

(1) VP – VQ = 8V
(2) VP – VQ = 4V
(3) VQ – VP = 8V
(4) VQ – VP = 4V

18)

A metallic square loop ABCD is moving in its own plane with velocity v in a uniform magnetic field
perpendicular to its plane as shown in Figure. Electric field is induced :-

(1) in AD, but not in BC

(2) in BC, but not in AD
(3) neither in AD nor in BC
(4) in both AD and BC

19) A small square loop of wire of side 'ℓ' is placed inside a large square loop of side 'L' (L >> ℓ). If
the loops are coplanar and their centres coincide, the mutual induction of the system is directly
proportional to :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

20) The expression for the magnetic energy stored in a solenoid in terms of magnetic field B, area A
and length ℓ of the solenoid, is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) A metallic ring connected to a rod oscillates freely like a pendulum. If now a magnetic field is
applied in horizontal direction so that the pendulum now swings through the field, the pendulum will

:-

(1) keep oscillating with the old time period

(2) keep oscillating with a smaller time period
(3) keep oscillating with a large time period
(4) come to rest very soon

22) A rod of length 10 cm made up of conducting material. The rod is rotated with constant angular
velocity 10 rad/s about point O, in constant magnetic field of 2T as shown in the figure. The induced
e.m.f. between the point A and B of rod will be-

(1) 0.029 V
(2) 0.1 V
(3) 0.051 V
(4) 0.064 V

23) A magnetic flux of 8 × 10–4 weber is linked with each turn of a 200 turn coil when there is an
electric current of 4A in it. The self induction of coil :-
(1) 8 × 10–2 H
(2) 6 × 10–2 H
(3) 4 × 10–2 H
(4) 2 × 10–2 H

24) A magnet is brought towards a coil (i) speedly (ii) slowly then the induced e.m.f./induced charge
will be respectively:-

(1) More in first case / More in first case

(2) More in first case/Equal in both cases
(3) Less in first case/More in second cases
(4) Less in first case/Equal in both cases

25) The current carrying wire and the rod AB are in the same plane. The rod moves parallel to the
wire with a velocity v. Which one of the following statements is true about induced emf in the rod :-

(1) End A will be at lower potential with respect to B

(2) A and B will be at the same potential
(3) There will be no induced e.m.f. in the rod
(4) Potential at A will be higher than that at B

26) A conducting wire frame is placed in a magnetic field which is directed into the paper. The
magnetic field is increasing at a constant rate. The directions of induced current in wires AB and CD
are

(1) B to A and D to C
(2) A to B and C to D
(3) A to B and D to C
(4) B to A and C to D

27) The radius of a coil decreases steadily at the rate of 10–2 m/s. A constant and uniform magnetic
field of induction 10–3 Wb/m2 acts perpendicular to the plane of the coil. The radius of the coil when
the induced e.m.f. in the coil is 1μV, is :-

(1)
cm
(2)
cm

(3)
cm

(4)
cm

28) A vertical ring of radius r and resistance R falls vertically. It is in contact with two vertical
conducting rails which are joined at the top. The rails are without friction and resistance. There is a
horizontal uniform, magnetic field of magnitude B perpendicular to the plane of the ring and the

rails. When the speed of the ring is v, the current in the section PQ is

(1) zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) In electromagnetic induction, the induced charge in a coil is independent of :-

(1) change in the flux

(2) time
(3) resistance in the circuit
(4) none of the above

30) A coil of Cu wire (radius r, self-inductance L) is bent in two concentric turns each having radius

. The self-inductance now :-

(1) 2L
(2) L
(3) 4L

(4)

31) Current in a circuit falls from 5.0 A to 0.0 A in 0.1s. If an average emf of 200 V induced, give an
estimate of the self-inductance of the circuit:-
(1) 2H
(2) 4H
(3) 6H
(4) 8H

32) In figure, wires P1Q1 and P2Q2, both are moving towards right with speed 5 cm/sec. Resistance of
each wire is 2Ω. Then current through 19Ω resistor is :-

(1) 0
(2) 0.1 mA
(3) 0.2 mA
(4) 0.3 mA

33) A charge particle moves along the line AB, which lies in the same plane of a circular loop of

conducting wire as shown in the fig. Then :-

(1) No current will be induced in the loop

(2) The current induced in the loop will change its direction as the charged particle passes by
(3) The current induced will be anticlockwise
(4) The current induced, will be clockwise

34) In the circuit shown in figure what is the value of I1 just after pressing the key K ?

(1)
A

(2)
A
(3) 1 A
(4) None of the above

35)

Current through the coil varies according to graph then induced emf v/s time graph is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION - B

1) An emf of 15 volt is applied in a applied in a circuit containing 5 henry inductance and 10 ohm
resistance. The ratio of the currents at time t = ∞ and t = 1 second is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 1 – e–1
(4) e–1

2) A power transformed is used to step up an alternating e.m.f of 220 V to 11 kV to transmit 4.4 kW

of power. If the primary coil has 1000 turns, what is the current rating of the secondary? Assume
100% efficiency for the transformer

(1) 4 Amp.
(2) 0.4 Amp
(3) 0.04 Amp
(4) 0.2 Amp

3) A coil having on area of 2m2 is placed in a magnetic field which changes from 1 weber/m2 to 4
weber/m2 in 2 seconds. The e.m.f. induced in the coil will be :-
(1) 4 volt
(2) 3 volt
(3) 2 volt
(4) 1 volt

4) A step-up transformer has transformation ratio of 3 : 2. What is the voltage in secondary if voltage
in primary is 30 V ?

(1) 45 V
(2) 15 V
(3) 90 V
(4) 300 V

5) The core of a transformer is laminated to reduce energy losses due to

(1) Eddy currents

(2) Hysteresis
(3) Resistance in winding
(4) None of these

6) A metallic square loop ABCD is moving in its own plane with velocity v in a uniform magnetic field
perpendicular to its plane as shown in the figure. An electric field is induced

(1) In AD, but not in BC

(2) In BC, but not in AD
(3) Neither in AD nor in BC
(4) In both AD and BC

7) A flexible wire bent in the form of a circle is placed in uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the
coil. The radius of the coil changes as shown in figure. Induced emf in the coil is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) When the number of turns in the two circular coils placed ---------- are doubled (in both), their
mutual inductance becomes

(1) four times

(2) two times
(3) remain same
(4) sixteen times

9) In the given circuit, bulb will become suddenly bright, if

(1) switch is closed or opened

(2) switch is closed
(3) switch is opened
(4) none of these

10) A coil of 40 henry inductance is connected in series with a resistance of 8 ohm and
the combination is joined to the terminals of a 2 volt
battery. The time constant of the circuit is :-

(1)

(2) 40 sec
(3) 20 sec
(4) 5 sec

11) A conducting rod PQ of length L = 1.0 m is moving with a uniform speed v = 2.0 m/s in a uniform
magnetic field B = 4.0 T directed into the paper. A capacitor of capacity C = 10µF is connected as

shown in figure. Then:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) charge stored in the capacitor increases exponentially with time.

12) If the current in long straight current carrying wire increases with the time then direction of

induced current in circular loop is

(1) Clockwise
(2) Anticlockwise
(3) First clockwise and then anticlockwise
(4) First anticlockwise then clockwise

13) A conducting rod AC of length is rotated about a point O in a uniform magnetic

field directed into the paper. If and Then

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Self inductance of a coil is independent of

(1) current flowing in the coil

(2) emf induced in the coil
(3) rate of change of current in the coil
(4) all of these

15) The loops A and B, when both are moved (see figure) near a current carrying wire. Then

direction of induced current in A and B are

(1) No current, clockwise

(2) No current, anticlockwise
(3) Anticlockwise, clockwise
(4) Clockwise, anticlockwise

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

1) Reactivity order of following compounds towards Nucleophilic substitution reaction :-

(1) CH3–CONH2 < CH3COOC2H5 < CH3COO < CH3–COOCOCH3

(2) CH3CONH2 < CH3COOC2H5 < CH3COOCOCH3 < CH3COCl
(3) CH3COCl < CH3CONH2 < CH3COOCOCH3 < CH3COOC2H5
(4) CH3CONH2 < CH3COCl < CH3COOCOCH3 < CH3COOC2H5

2) In following given reaction

Product B would be :-
(1)

(2) CH3COC6H5
(3) CH3CH(OH)CH3

(4)

3)
Product C is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4)
The product (C) will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
5) In the given reaction (x) will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6)

Which of the following compound will reduces by both LiAlH4, as well as NaBH4

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

(5)

(1) 1, 3, 4
(2) 1, 5, 3
(3) 3, 5
(4) 4, 5, 2

7) (A) (B) (C) gas, product C is :

(1) CO
14
(2) CO2
(3) CO2
14
(4) A mixture CO2 and CO2
8) Which of the following compound can react with NaBH4 but can not show haloform reaction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) When CH2=CH–COOH is reduced with LiAlH4, the compound obtained will be :-

(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–OH
(2) CH3–CH2–CHO
(3) CH3–CH2–COOH
(4) CH2=CH–CH2–OH

10) ,
Product C is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Propionic acid reacts with Br2/P yields a dibromo product its structure would be :

(1) Br2CH–CH2COOH
(2) CH2Br–CH2–COBr
(3) CH2Br–CHBr–COOH
(4) CH3–CBr2–COOH

12)
CH2 = CH2 A

CH3–CH=CH–CH3
A+B C

A, B and C respectively :-
(1) Ethane, Acetaldehyde Acetic acid
(2) Ethanol, Acetic acid, Ethyl acetate
(3) Ethanol, Acetadehyde, Acetal
(4) Acetic acid, Ethane, Acetaldehyde

13)

CH3COOH + PCl5 → A B C, Product C is:-

(1) CH3CH(OH)CH2CH3
(2) CH3COPh
(3) CH3CH(OH)Ph

(4)

14)
Product (B) is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Correct IUPAC name of following compound is

(1) 2-Amino-3-formyl butane-1, 4-dioic anhydride
(2) 3-Amino-2-formyl butane-1, 4-dioic anhydride
(3) 3-Amino-2-oxobutane-1, 4-dioic anhydride
(4) 2-Formyl-3-amino butane-1, 4-dioic anhydride

16) Strongest acid among the following is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

17)

The correct decreasing order of acidic strength of the following carboxylic acids is

(1) I > II > III

(2) II > I > III
(3) III > II > I
(4) II > III > I

18) Assertion (A) Ester hydrolysis is fast in the beginning and becomes slow after sometime.
Reason (R) The rate of ester hydrolysis increases with the increase in the amount of carboxylic acid
produced

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
(1)
Assertion (A)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
(2)
Assertion (A)
(3) Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect
(4) Assertion (A) is incorrect but Reason (R) is correct

19) Which is maximum reactive towards decarboxylation :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Consider the following reaction -

The end product (C) is ?

(1) Succinic acid

(2) Methylmalonic acid
(3) Oxalic acid
(4) Cyanopropionic acid

21) Correct order of rate of estrification for the following reaction will be :-
(1) r1 > r2 > r3
(2) r3 > r2 > r1
(3) r1 = r2 = r3
(4) r1 > r2 = r3

22)

(1) CH3COOH
(2) CH3–CN
(3) CH3–CH3
(4) CH3–CHO

23) Which of the following acid will form an (a) Anhydride on heating and (b) Acid imide on strong
heating with ammonia ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

24) When dry ice reacts with CH3MgBr. The product is hydrolysed to give

(1) Formic acid

(2) Acetic acid
(3) Methyl alcohol
(4) Ethyl alcohol

25) Which of the following set of reactants will undergo esterification with maximum ease?

(1) HCOOH + CH3OH

(2) CH3COOH + CH3OH
(3) (CH3)2CHCOOH + (CH3)2CHOH
(4) (CH3)3C–COOH + (CH3)3C–OH

26) Which of the following compound does not give alcohol on reduction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27)

Which of the following orders of acid strength is correct ?

(1) RCOOH > ROH > HOH > HC CH
(2) RCOOH > HOH > C2H5OH > HC CH
(3) RCOOH > HOH > HC CH > ROH
(4) RCOOH > HC CH > HOH > ROH

28) Compare rate of hydrolysis of acid derivatives :

I. II.

III. IV.

(1) I > III > II > IV

(2) I > II > III > IV
(3) III > II > I > IV
(4) II > I > III > IV

29) products :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Decarboxylation occurs with maximum rate in :-

(1) C6H5CH2COOH

(2)

(3)

(4) Cl–CH2–CH2–CH2–COOH

31) Match the acids given in Column - I with their correct IUPAC names given in Column- II.

Column - I Column - II
(Acids) (IUPAC names)

(A) Phthalic acid (p) Hexane-1, 6-dioic acid

(B) Oxalic acid (q) Benzene-1, 2-dicarboxylic acid

 (C) Succinic acid (r) Pentane-1, 5-dioic acid

(D) Adipic acid (s) Butane-1, 4-dioic acid

(E) Glutaric acid (t) Ethane-1, 2-dioic acid

(1) A – (t), B – (q), C – (r), D – (p), E– (s)
(2) A – (p), B – (s), C – (t), D – (q), E– (r)
(3) A – (q), B – (t), C – (s), D – (p), E– (r)
(4) A – (r), B – (t), C – (p), D – (s), E– (q)

32)
Identify end product in above reaction sequence :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Identify B in the following reaction sequence.

(1) Ammoniumpthalate
(2) Phthalamide
(3) Phthalimide
(4) Pthalic anhydride

34) Which one of the following compounds will give HVZ reaction?

(1) Benzoic acid

(2) Formic acid
(3) 2, 2-Dimethyl propanoicacid
(4) 2-Methylpropanoic acid

35) Rate of reaction is fastest when Z is :-

(1) Cl
(2)
(3) OC2H5
(4) OCOCH3

SECTION - B

product is :-
1)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Identify the product in the following reaction

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

3) The relative acidic strength of benzoic acid, o-toluic acid and p-toluic acid is of the decreasing
order:

(1) p-toluic acid > o-toluic acid > benzoic acid

(2) o-toluic acid > p-toluic acid > benzoic acid
(3) p-toluic acid > benzoic acid > o-toluic acid
(4) o-toluic acid > benzoic acid > p-toluic acid

4) The correct order of decreasing acid strength of trichloroacetic acid (A), trifluoroacetic acid (B),
acetic acid (C) and formic acid (D) is

(1) B > A > D > C

(2) B > D > C > A
(3) A > B > C > D
(4) A > C > B > D

5) Arrange the following acids in order of the increasing acidity

(1) A < B < C < D

(2) B < C < A < D
(3) C < B < D < A
(4) C < D < B < A

6) The acid 'D' obtained through the following sequence of reactions is :

(1) Succinic acid

(2) Malonic acid
(3) Maleic acid
(4) Oxalic acid
7)
Identify X and Y for the above reaction.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The final product 'C' is

CH3CH2COOH (A) (B) (C)

(1) Ph–COOC2H5
(2) Ph–COC2H5
(3) Ph–CH2C2H5
(4) Ph–CH (OH) C2H5

9) Ph–CH2–CH2OH can be converted into PhCH2CH2COOH. The correct sequence of reagents is

 +
(1) PBr3, KCN, H
(2) PBr3, KCN, H2
+
(3) KCN, H , PBr3
+
(4) PBr3, HCN, H

10)
Z is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11)
Reagents A and B are

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) Which of the following is incorrect :-

(1) CH3(CH2)8CH2OH CH3(CH2)8COOH

(2)
CH3CH2CH2CHO CH3CH2CH2COOH

CH3–CH2–COOH
(3)

(4)
CH3–COOH CH3–CH3+Na2CO3

13) Major product :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) The reaction of ethanol on acetic anhydride is an example of :-

(1) Nucleophilic addition

(2) Nucleophilic substitution
(3) Electrophilic addition
(4) Freeradical substitution

15) Which one of the following compounds will react with solution to give sodium salt and
carbon dioxide?

(1) Acetic acid

(2) n-hexanol
(3) Phenol
(4) Both (2) & (3)

BOTANY
 SECTION - A

1) Read the following statements regarding Mendelian inheritance and choose the correct option :-
(A) Mendel’s experiments has small sample size which gave greater credibility to the data.
(B) A true breeding line shows a stable trait inheritance and expression for several generations.
(C) In a dissimilar pair of factors, one member of the pair dominates over the other.
(D) A recessive parental trait is expressed only in its heterozygous condition.
(E) Two alleles of a gene are located on homologous sites on homologous chromosomes.

(1) B alone is correct

(2) B, C and E are correct
(3) A and D are correct
(4) A, C and E are correct

2) Among seven pairs of traits studied by Mendel. The number of traits related to flower, pod and
seed were :-

(1) 2, 2, 2
(2) 2, 2, 1
(3) 1, 2, 2
(4) 1, 1, 2

3) The term genome is used for __________ of the cell.

(1) Diploid set of chromosomes

(2) Polyploid set of chromosomes
(3) Triploid set of chromosomes
(4) Haploid set of chromosomes

4) Which one of the following characters choosen by Mendel can express in heterozygous condition ?

(1) Green seed colour

(2) Constricted pod shape
(3) Terminal flower position
(4) Green pod colour

5) In monohybrid cross proportion of 3 : 1 explains:

(1) Dominance
(2) Segregation
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Unit factor

6) If a dwarf variety of Pea plant is treated with G.A. hormone it grow as the tall Pea plant. On
selfing this plant the phenotypic ratio in the next generation is likely to be :-

(1) All dwarf

(2) All tall
(3) 50% tall
(4) 75% Tall and 25% dwarf

7) In man, the blue eye colour is recessive to the brown eye colour. If the boy has brown eye and his
mother is blue eyed. What would be the phenotype of his father :-

(1) Black eye

(2) Brown eye
(3) Green eye
(4) Blue eye

8)

Total 1120 seeds were obtained from the AaBb × AaBb cross. Find the number of plants produced
having both the recessive traits (aabb).

(1) 210
(2) 420
(3) 70
(4) 480

9) Which genotype represents a true dihybrid condition

(1) tt rr
(2) Tt rr
(3) Tt Rr
(4) TT Rr

10) In a cross CcDdEe × ccddEe, what will be the probability of organisms, which are homozygous
for first character and heterozygous for second and third characters?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Observe the given diagram & select the correct option :-
(1) It is the diagrammatic representation of a out cross.
(2) It is the comparison of two monohybrid crosses, used to find out the phenotype of organisms.
(3) It is the diagrammatic representation of reciprocal cross to find out the genotype of organism.
(4) It is the diagrammatic representation of test cross to find out the genotype of organisms.

12) Which one of the following is not the characteristic feature of multiple allele?

(1) Individual will always have more than two alleles of the group
(2) A chromosome contains only one allele of the group
(3) Gametes carry single allele
(4) Multiple alleles occur on same gene locus of homologous chromosomes

13)

ABO-blood group in human is an example of:

(1) Codominance
(2) Multiple allelism
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Incomplete dominance

14) If there are five allelic forms for the gene controlling ABO blood group then what will be the
number of possible genotypes ?

(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 12
(4) 15

15) In Pea, wrinkled seeds is due to non–formation of starch because of the absence of enzyme

(1) Amylase
(2) Invertase
(3) Starch branching enzyme
(4) Diastase

16) Which of the following is example of pleiotrophy?

(1) Phenylketonuria
(2) Gene for starch synthesis in garden pea
(3) ABO blood group
(4) Both 1 and 2

17) A person with sex chromosomes XXY suffers from

(1) Down's syndrome

(2) Klinefelter's syndrome
(3) Turner's syndrome
(4) Gynandromorphism

18) AABbCc genotype forms how many types of gametes

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 2
(4) 6

19) Parallelism between chromosome and behaviour of factor (gene) was established by:-

(1) Vries, Correns and Tschermark

(2) Sutton and Boveri
(3) Bateson and Punnet
(4) Steven and Wilson

20) Label the stages A, B, C:-

(1) Anaphase I, Anaphase II, Gametes

(2) Anaphase II, Anaphase I, Gametes
(3) Anaphase II, Germ cells, Anaphase I
(4) Anaphase I, Germ cells, Anaphase II

21) When a female parent transfers its X-linked character to the grand daughter through the
offspring of opposite sex, it is known as :-
(1) Criss-Cross inheritance
(2) Non criss-cross inheritance
(3) Holandric inheritance
(4) More than one options are correct

22) A colourblind man has a colour blind sister but a normal brother then phenotype of the parents
will be

(1) Father colour blind and mother normal

(2) Father normal but mother colour blind
(3) Father and mother both are colour blind
(4) Father and mother both are normal

23) Haplodiploidy method of sex determination is found in

(1) Grasshoppers and cockroaches

(2) Birds and reptiles
(3) Butterflies and moths
(4) Honeybees, ants and wasps

24) Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. grasshopper ?

(1) Shows XO type of sex-determination

(2) Females have a pair of X-chromosomes
(3) Males have one Y-chromosome
(4) Males have only one X-chromosomes

25) In the population of 50,000 individuals. If the percentage of recessive allele for a character is
40% then find the number of organisms which are homozygous recessive for the character?

(1) 24000
(2) 26000
(3) 18000
(4) 8000

26) A child with mother of homozygous 'A' blood group and father of 'AB' blood group will be :-

(1) O
(2) A and AB
(3) A and O
(4) O and B

27) Two crosses between the same pair of genotypes or phenotypes in which the sources of the
gametes are reversed in one cross,is know as

(1) Reverse cross

(2) Test cross
(3) Reciprocal cross
(4) Back cross

28) A woman with normal vision, but whose father was colour blind, marries a colour blind man.
Suppose that the fourth child of this couple was a boy. This boy –

(1) Must have normal colour vision

(2) May be colour blind or may be normal vision
(3) Will be partially colour blind since he is heterozygous for the colour blind mutant allele
(4) Must be colour blind

29) If map distance between genes A and B is 6 units, between A and C is 15 units, the order of
genes on the linkage map can be traced as follows -

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

30) Mendel selected ................ pea plant varieties.

(1) 7 true-breeding
(2) 2 true-breeding
(3) 14 true-breeding
(4) 18 true-breeding

31) Mendel's law of inheritance which is universally acceptable is ________ and can be demonstrated
by ________ :-

(1) Law of paired factors, monohybrid cross

(2) Law of independent assortment, dihybrid cross
(3) Law of dominance, monohybrid cross
(4) Law of purity of gametes, monohybrid cross

32) Gregor Mendel, conducted hybridisation experiments on garden peas plants for seven years
between :

(1) 1900 - 1907

(2) 1956 - 1963
(3) 1856 -1863
(4) 1756 - 1763

33) Segregation of Mendelian factors occur during

(1) Anaphase I
(2) Prophase I
(3) Diplotene
(4) Metaphase I

34) Inheritance of skin colour in humans is an example of

(1) Codominance
(2) Chromosomal aberration
(3) Point mutation
(4) Polygenic inheritance

35) Female heterogamety can be seen in :-

(1) Human beings

(2) Drosophila
(3) Hen
(4) Honey bees

SECTION - B

1) A F1-hybrid is crossed with either of parent is known as :–

(1) Back cross

(2) Test cross
(3) Out cross
(4) Reciprocal cross

2) Modified allele is equivalent to the unmodified allele when it produce :-

(1) Non functional enzyme

(2) Functional enzyme
(3) No enzyme
(4) Both 1 and 3

3) The F2 generation of a cross produced identical phenotypic and genotypic ratio. It is not an
expected Mendelian result, and can be attributed to:

(1) Independent assortment

(2) Linkage
(3) Incomplete dominance
(4) Polygenic inheritance

4)

Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given:
Column I Column II
(A). Rr × Rr (1). 1 : 1
(B). Rr × rr (2). 3 : 1
(C). RrYy × RrYy (3). 1 : 1 : 1 : 1

(D). RrYy × rryy (4). 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

(1) A = 2, B = 4, C = 3, D = 1
(2) A = 1, B = 3, C = 2, D = 4
(3) A = 4, B = 3, C = 2, D = 1
(4) A = 2, B = 1, C = 4, D = 3

5) Assertion :- In each pregnancy there is always 50 percent probability of having either a male or a
female child in human.
Reason :- There is an equal probability of fertilization of the ovum with the sperm carrying either X
or Y chromosome.

(1) (A) & (R) are correct & (R) is correct explanation to (A)
(2) (A) & (R) both are incorrect
(3) (A) is correct & (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) & (R) are correct & (R) is not correct explanation to (A)

6) Assertion : Recessive characters are always pure

Reason : Recessive genes can express in homozygous condition

(1) If both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
(2) If both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion
(3) If assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) If both assertion & reason are false

7) Given diagram represent X and Y chromosomes of male individual, find out correct combination:-

Homozygous Heterozygous Hemizygous

(1) P-allele G-allele M-allele

(2) G-allele M-allele P-allele

(3) P-allele Q-allele R-allele

(4) M-allele G-allele Q-allele

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Which of the following gamete will not be produced by genotype AaBbCc :-

(1) AbC
(2) ABc
(3) aBC
(4) AaB

9) In Morgan's experiment, what will be percentage of recombination in case of body colour and eye
colour?

(1) 37.2%
(2) 1.3%
(3) 98.7%
(4) 27.3%

10) Polygenes are.

(1) Many genes which control continuously variable characters like height, weight, etc.
(2) Multiple copies of a single gene
(3) Always linked genes
(4) Pseudogenes

11) Assertion (A): In dihybrid crosses conducted by Morgan F2 generation phenotypic ratio
deviated very significantly from 9:3:3:1
Reason (R): Genes on the same chromosome are linked to each other

(1) (A) & (R) are correct & (R) is correct explanation to (A)
(2) (A) & (R) both are incorrect
(3) (A) is correct & (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) & (R) are correct & (R) is not correct explanation to (A)

12)

The pedigree chart given above is representative of :-

(a) Autosomal dominant disorder
(b) Autosomal recessive disorder
(c) X-linked dominant disorder
(d) X-linked recessive disorder
Options :-

(1) a, b
(2) c, d
(3) a, b, c
(4) a, b, c, d

13) The pedigree chart given below depicts :-

(1) SCA
(2) Myotonic dystrophy
(3) Haemophilia
(4) Hypertrichosis

14) Modified dihybrid ratio in case of complimentary genes

(1) 3 : 5
(2) 9 : 7
(3) 2 : 6
(4) 4 : 4

15) The punnet square shown below represents the pattern of inheritance in dihybrid cross –

RY Ry rY rY
RY F J N R
Ry G K O S
rY H L P T
ry I M Q U
Choose the correct symbol having similar genotype
(1) F, K
(2) G, H
(3) L, O
(4) P, U

ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A

1)

Lymphoid tissue is found in :-

(1) Thymus
(2) Tonsils
(3) Lymph nodes
(4) All of these

2) Asexual reproduction in plasmodium takes place through :

(1) Multiple fission

(2) Fragmentation
(3) Binary fission
(4) Budding

3) The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to :-

(1) Thymus
(2) Thyroid
(3) Thalamus
(4) Tonsil

4) An antigen is :-

(1) That which acts with plasma

(2) That which opposes the action of antibodies
(3) The stimulus for antibody production
(4) The antibody only

5) Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

(i) IgD A Protection of surface of body

(ii) IgA B Stimulation of mast cell

(iii) IgE C Provide immunity to embryo

(iv) IgG D Stimulation of B-lymphocyte

(1) (i)–D, (ii)–A, (iii)–B, (iv)–C
(2) (i)–B, (ii)–A, (iii)–D, (iv)–C
(3) (i)–D, (ii)–C, (iii)–B, (iv)–A
(4) (i)–C, (ii)–B, (iii)–A, (iv)–D

6) Vaccine when used as prophylaxis elicit which type of immune response?

(1) Primary
(2) Secondary
(3) Tertiary
(4) Quarternary

7) Identify the correct immune response to an antigen X-in a healthy perosn:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Which molecule is used for attachment of HIV to CD4 receptor on the cell ?

(1) GP 120
(2) P 24
(3) GP 41
(4) P 17

9) Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into
the body contain :

(1) Activated pathogens

(2) Harvested antibodies
(3) Gamma globulin
(4) Attenuated pathogens
10) The use of vaccine and immunisation programme enabled us to completely eradicate which
disease

(1) Polio
(2) Chicken pox
(3) Hepatitis B
(4) Small pox

11) Hepatitis B vaccine is produced in which organism

(1) E.coli
(2) Yeast
(3) Amoeba
(4) StreptococcusNCERT XII Pg. # 152

12) Asthma may be attributed to :-

(1) Viral infection of lung

(2) Allergic reaction of the mast cell in lung
(3) Inflammation of the trachea
(4) Accumulation of fluid in the lung

13) Choose the wrong statement regarding AIDS :-

(1) It is an immunodeficiency disease

(2) It is caused by retrovirus HIV
(3) HIV selectively infects and kills B-lymphocytes
(4) Genome RNA replicates via DNA intermediate

14) Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Acquired immunity is pathogen specific.

The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in the environment
(2)
is called Auto-immunity.
(3) Bone marrow acts as a filter of the blood by trapping blood borne micro-organisms.
(4) AIDS is caused by a group of viruses called rhinovirus.

15) Which of the following is an autoimmune disorder in which antibodies are produced against
acetylcholine receptors ?

(1) Chronic hepatitis

(2) Addison's disease
(3) Rheumatoid arthritis
(4) Myasthenia gravis

16) Acid in the stomach, saliva in the mouth, lysozyme in tears, all prevent microbial growth. These
all are included in :-
(1) Non-specific immunity
(2) Specific immunity
(3) Physiological barrier
(4) (1) and (3) Both

17) Widal test is used to diagnose the disorder :-

(1) Tuberculosis
(2) Dengue
(3) Cholera
(4) Typhoid

18) Plasmodium enters the human body as :-

(1) female Anopheles mosquito

(2) sporozoite
(3) trophozoite
(4) haemozoin

19) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

(1) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-5, e-4

(2) a-5, b-4, c-1, d-2, e-3
(3) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4, e-5
(4) a-5, b-4, c-1, d-3, e-2

20) Fill in the blanks :-

(1) a-immune system, b-endocrine system, c-neural system

(2) b-neural system, c-endocrine system, a-immune system
(3) a- neural system, c-endocrine system, b-immune system
(4) a-neural system, b-endocrine system, c-immune system
21) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching:-

(1) a-lymphatic vessels, b-thymus, c-lymph nodes

(2) c-lymphatic vessels, a-thymus, b-lymph nodes
(3) b-lymphatic vessels, c-thymus, a-lymph nodes
(4) c-lymphatic vessels, b-thymus, a-lymph nodes

22)

Incorrect about Entamoeba histolytica or amoebiasis is :-

(a) Parasite of small intestine
(b) Causes dysentery
(c) Houseflies are mechanical carriers

(d) Symptoms include constipation, abdominal pain and cramp.

(1) a
(2) c
(3) a, c
(4) All are correct

23)

(a) Haemophilus influenzae

(b) Streptococcus strain
(c) Infects alveoli of lungs
(d) Fluid present in alveoli in severe cases
(e) Lips and finger nails may turn gray to bluish in colour
(f) Droplet or aerosol infections

Above features are related with :-

(1) Pneumonia
(2) Common cold
(3) Influenza
(4) Swine flu

24) Person is suffering from sneezing, watery eyes, running nose in a particular season ? Most likely
which antibody has been found in this patient above normal range ?

(1) IgA
(2) IgE
(3) IgG
(4) IgM

25) Example of viral vector borne disease is/are?

(1) Chikungunya
(2) Malaria
(3) Filariasis
(4) All of the above

26) Memory based acquired immunity evolved in_______ based on the ability to differentiate foreign
organisms.

(1) lower plants

(2) bacteria
(3) higher vertebrates
(4) lower vertebrates

27) Mark the correctly matched option

(X) (Y) (Z)

1. Alkaline phosphatase Integrase Protease

2. Reverse transcriptase Protease Integrase

3. Reverse transcriptase Integrase Protease

4. DNA Polymerase Integrase Protease

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) Assertion (A):- HIV is a retrovirus containing ss-RNA covered by envelope.

Reason (B):- Viral RNA form viral DNA inside host cell and produce viral particles containing viral
RNA.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

29) Assertion :- Organs transplant from unmatched donor is rejected after grafting.
Reason :- Cell mediated immunity provided by T-lymphocyte may be responsible for organ rejection.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

30) Assertion : Houseflies act as mechanical carriers for amoebic dysentery.

Reason : Because it serves to transmit the parasite from faeces of infected person to food and food
products.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

31) Assertion (A) : More and more children in metro cities of India suffer from allergies and
asthma due to sensitivity to the environment.
Reason (R) : They grow up in a protected environment provided early in life.

(1) Assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason are correct but reason is not explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

32) Assertion (A) :– Everyday we are exposed to large number of infectious agents. However only
few of these exposures result in disease.
Reason (R) :– Our body is able to defend itself from most of these foreign agents. This overall
ability of host to fight the disease causing organism conferred by immune system is called immunity.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

33) Assertion (A) :– The principle of vaccination is based on memory property of our immune
system.
Reason (R) :– Vaccines generates memory-B and T cells that recognise the pathogen quickly on
subsequent exposure.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

34) Assertion (A) :– Hepatitis B vaccine is recombinant DNA vaccine that prevents hepatitis B
Reason (R) :– Recombinant DNA technology has allowed the production of antigenic polypeptides
of pathogen in yeast.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

35) Assertion :- Interferons protect non-infected cells from further viral infection.
Reason :- Fungus infected cells secrete glycoproteins called interferons.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

SECTION - B

1)

MALT constitutes how much percentage of lyphoid tissue of our body

(1) 25
(2) 50
(3) 75
(4) 100

2) Assertion : Salmonella typhi causes typhoid.

Reason : Typhoid fever could be confirmed by widal test.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

3) Assertion : Pathogens that enter the gut must know a way of surviving in the stomach at low pH
and resisting various enzymes.
Reason : Pathogen have to adapt to life within the environment of the host.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

4) Assertion : Wuchereria (W. bancrofti and W. malayi), the filarial worms affect the lymphatic
vessels usually of the lower limbs.
Reason : Wuchereria is transmitted to a healthy person through the bite by the female mosquito
vectors.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

5) Assertion : Subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicits a highly intensified secondary
or Anamnestic response.
Reason : Secondary response based on memory of 1st encounter of pathogen.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

6) Assertion: An antibody is represented as H2L2.

Reason: An antibody molecule has two heavy chains and two light chains.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

7) Assertion : Number of disease like polio, diphtheria, pneumonia and tetanus have been
controlled to large extent.
Reason : Vaccines are prepared against these diseases.

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false

8) Assertion : In tetanus preformed antibodies are given to patient.

Reason : Quick immune response is required in tetanus.

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false

9)

Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III

Column-I Column-II Column-III

i. Infection of
1. Bacteria (a) Plasmodium
lungs

(b) Wuchereria ii. Fever with

2. Virus
bancrofti chill

(c)
iii. Inflammation
3. Protozoa Haemophilus
of lower limbs
influenzae

iv. Infection of
4. Helminth (d) Rhino virus upper
respiratory tract
(1) 2–c–i, 1–d–iv, 3–4–ii, 4–b–iii
(2) 3–a–ii, 4–b–iii, 2–c–iv, 1–d–i
(3) 4–b–iii, 3–a–ii, 1–c–i, 2–d–iv
(4) 4–b–iii, 3–a–i, 1–c–ii, 2–d–iv

10)

Match these columns :-

Column-I Column-II

A Rhino virus i Female culex

B Heamophilus influenzae ii Dysentery

C Wuchereria bancrofti iii Infect the alveoli of the lungs

D Entamoeba histolytica iv Usually last for 3-7 days

(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i

11) Identify the incorrect match :-

Column-I Column-II
Physiological Acidic pH of stomach,
(1)
Barrier secretion of tears
(2) Cellular Barrier Antibodies, plasma cells
(3) Cytokine Barrier Interferon
 Mucus coating of
(4) Physical Barrier
epithelium, skin
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12)

Identify the likely A, B, C, D in the following life cycle of plasmodium.

A B C D

Salivary
(1) Sporozoite Gametocyte Liver
gland

Salivary
(2) Gametocyte Sporozoite Liver
gland

Salivary
(3) Sporozoite Gametocyte Liver
gland

Salivary
(4) Gametocyte Sporozoite Liver
gland
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13)

HIV is considered as a retrovirus because

(1) In their genome oncogene is present

Their hereditary material made up of single stranded RNA and possess reverse transcriptase
(2)
enzyme
(3) They have a gene for synthesis of interferon
 In their genome there may be cellular
(4)
protooncogene

14) The people who are at high risk of getting HIV

(1) Sharing of infected needles

(2) Sexual contact with infected person
(3) Individuals who require repeated blood transfusion.
(4) From infected mother to her child through placenta

15) Which of the following regarded as HIV factory

(1) T Helper lymphocyte

(2) Macrophages
(3) B lymphocyte
(4) Plasma cells
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 4 2 2 1 2 4 2 4 1 3 3 1 4 1 2 4 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 4 3 3 2 4 1 4 4 2 1 2 2 2 1 2

SECTION - B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2 2 2 1 1 4 2 1 3 4 1 1 3 4 1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 4 1 4 4 3 3 2 4 4 4 2 4 2 1 1 2 4 4 2
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 1 2 1 4 2 1 3 3 3 3 3 4 1

SECTION - B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 2 4 1 4 1 4 3 1 3 3 4 2 2 1

BOTANY

SECTION - A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 1 4 4 3 1 2 3 3 2 4 1 3 4 3 4 2 1 2 1
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 1 4 3 4 2 3 2 3 3 4 3 1 4 3

SECTION - B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 3 4 1 1 2 4 2 1 1 3 1 2 3

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION - A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 1 1 3 1 1 1 1 4 4 2 2 3 1 4 4 4 2 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 4 1 1 2 1 3 3 4 1 1 1 1 1 1 3

SECTION - B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 2 1 2 1 1 1 1 3 2 2 4 2 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

2)

induced charge =

=
= 2 × 10–4C

8)

If coil is placed perpendicular to the magnetic field flux linked with the coil is zero.
So induced emf is zero.
∴ charge flow is zero.

14) Let a current I2 flow through the outer circular coil. The field at the centre of the coil is B2
= μI2/2r2. Since, the other co-axially placed coil has a very small radius. B2 may be considered
constant over it's cross-sectional area. Hence,

Thus,

19)

Flux linked with the smaller loop,

or M ∝ l2/L

20) The magnetic energy is

 0
= (Since, B = μ nI, for a solenoid)

23)

Nϕ = LI

L= = 4 × 10–2 H

24)

The magnitude of induced e.m.f. is directly proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux.
Induced charge doesn't depend upon time.

25)

By Flemings right hand rule.

26)

27) ϕ = Ba cos θ

ϕ = B · πr2

ε = + π·B 2r
10–6 = π · 10–3 × 2 × r. 10–2

m=r ⇒ r= cm

28)
 29)

30)

∵ NR = Constant N = No. of Turns

N1R1 = N2R2 R = Radius of Coil

or
2
Lsolenoid ∝ N R

Lsolenoid ∝ N

31)

⇒
⇒ L = 4H

32)

Equivalent circuit

I=
I = 0.1 mA

34)

At t = 0
 I=

35)

0 to 1, = +K ⇒ e = – LK = – α

1 to 2, = –K ⇒ e = + LK = + α

2 to 3 = +K ⇒ e = – LK = – α

36)

i=

t = 1s, i1 =

t = ∞, i2 =

37)

38)

e=

39)
 41)

Both AD and BC are straight conductors moving in a uniform magnetic field and emf will be induced
in both. This will cause electric fields in both, but no net current flows in the circuit.

42)

A = πr2 ⇒

→ slope of r v/s t graph.

For t = 0 to t = 1 ⇒ slope = 0 ⇒ e = 0
For t = 1 to t = 2 ⇒ slope = constant ⇒ e ∝ r
For t > 2 ⇒ slope = 0 ⇒ e = 0

43)

44)

when switch is open

48)

CHEMISTRY

52)

CH3COOH + PCl5 →
 54)

55)

56) FACT

58)

61)

HVZ reaction

62) A = CH3CH2OH, B CH3COOH

C = CH3COOCH2CH3 (Esterification)

67) Whenever - R groups attached to benzoic acid it increase the acidic strength and +R group
decrease the acidic strength of benzoic acid.

68)

Ester hydrolysis is slow in the beginning and becomes fast after sometime because a small amount
of dilute
sulphuric acid is added in the begining to start the reaction. As the reaction proceeds, RCOOH is
produced. The rate of ester hydrolysis increases with the increase in the amount
of carboxylic acid produced.
72)

73)

74)

75) For the esterification reaction to occur more easily , both the carboxylic acid and alcohol
will be having least steric hindrance.
 78)

Rate of hydrolysis α Amount of +ve charge at carboxyl carbon.

79)

80)

Presence of β-keto w.r.t. carboxylic acid increases rate of decarboxylation.

82)

83)

87)

92)
 96) oxidises ketone only oxidises both ketone and ester

99) Acid & its derivatives characteristically gives nucleophilic substitution reaction.

100)

BOTANY

105)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 74

111)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 75

115)

NCERT Pg.# 78

117)

130)
 132) NCERT XII Pg # 70

146)

NCERT Page No. 67

ZOOLOGY

157)

NCERT XII Pg. # 151

160)

NCERT XII Pg. # 150, 2nd para

161)

NCERT XII Pg. # 152

163)

NCERT Pg. # 154,155

167)

NCERT (E) Pg # 147

170)

NCERT XII, Pg.# 145

171)

NCERT XII, Pg.# 154

177)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 155 (E)

181)

NCERT Pg. No. 153

182)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 150

183)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 136

184)
NCERT XII, Pg. # 152

185)

NCERT XII Pg # 151

Correct reason → Viral infected cells secrete glycoprotein called interferon.
िवषाणु सं िमत कोिशकाय लाइकोोटीन कहते है , ावण करती है ।

186)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 149 (E), 162 (H)

187)

NCERT Pg#146

188)

NCERT Pg # 146 [E]

NCERT Pg # 159 [H]

189)

NCERT Pg # 149 [E]

NCERT Pg # 163 [H]

190)

NCERT-XII Pg. No. 151

191)

NCERT Pg. # 151

194)

NCERT-XII, Pg.#147, 148

196)

NCERT XII, Page # 150, 151