BITSAT : SOLVED PAPER 2011

(memory based)
INSTRUCTIONS
· This question paper contains total 150 questions divided into four parts:
Part I : Physics Q. No. 1 to 40
Part II : Chemistry Q. No. 41 to 80
Part III : Mathematics Q. No. 81 to 125
Part IV : (A) English Proficiency Q. No. 126 to 140
(B) Logical Reasoning Q. No. 141 to 150
· All questions are multiple choice questions with four options, only one of them is correct.
· Each correct answer awarded 3 marks and –1 for each incorrect answer.
· Duration of paper 3 Hours

PART - I : PHYSICS
ML3
1. A passenger in a open car travelling at 30 m/s 4. If T = 2p then find the dimensions of q.
3 Yq
throws a ball out over the bonnet. Relative to the
car the initial velocity of the ball is 20 m/s at 60° to Where T is the time period of bar of mass M,
the horizontal. The angle of projection of the ball length L and Young modulus Y.
(a) [L] (b) [L2] (c) [L4] (d) [L3]
with respect to the horizontal road will be
5. An object experiences a net force and accelerates
æ 2ö æ 3ö from rest to its final position in 16s. How long
(a) tan –1 çè ÷ø (b) tan –1 çç 4 ÷÷ would the object take to reach the same final
3 è ø position from rest if the object's mass was four
æ 4 ö æ 3ö times larger ?
(c) tan –1 çè ÷ø (d) tan –1 çè ÷ø (a) 64 s (b) 32 s (c) 16 s (d) 8s
3 4
6. Three blocks of masses m 1, m 2 and m 3 are
2. A particle is moving in a straight line with initial connected by massless strings, as shown, on a
velocity and uniform acceleration a. If the sum of frictionless table. They are pulled with a force T3
the distance travelled in tth and (t + 1)th seconds = 40 N. If m1 = 10 kg, m2 = 6 kg and m3 = 4kg, the
is 100 cm, then its velocity after t seconds, in tension T2 will be
cm/s, is T1 T2 T3
M1 M2 M3
(a) 80 (b) 50 (c) 20 (d) 30
r r
3. The two vectors A and B are drawn from a (a) 20 N (b) 40 N (c) 10 N (d) 32 N
r r r
common point and C = A + B , then angle 7. A massless platform is kept
r r on a light elastic spring as
between A and B is –
shown in fig. When a sand
(1) 90° if C2 = A2 + B2
particle of mass 0.1 kg is
(2) greater than 90° if C2 < A2 + B2
(3) greater than 90° if C2 > A2 + B2 dropped on the pan from a
height of 0.24 m, the particle strikes the pan and
(4) less than 90° if C2 > A2 + B2
spring is compressed by 0.01 m.
Correct options are – From what height should the particle be dropped
(a) 1, 2 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4 to cause a compression of 0.04 m.
(c) 2, 3, 4 (d) 1, 2, 4 (a) 3.96 m (b) 0.396 m (c) 4 m (d) 0.4 m
8. A constant torque of 31.4 N-m is exerted on a 14. The radiation emitted by a perfectly black body
pivoted wheel. If angular acceleration of wheel is is proportional to
4 p rad/s2, then the moment of inertia of the wheel (a) temperature on ideal gas scale
is (b) fourth root of temperature on ideal gas scale
(a) 2.5 kg m2 (b) 3.5 kg m2 (c) fourth power of temperature on ideal gas
(c) 4.5 kg m 2 (d) 5.5 kg m2 scale
9. A man of mass m starts falling towards a planet (d) square of temperature on ideal gas scale
of mass M and radius R. As he reaches near to 15. A copper sphere cools from 62°C to 50°C in 10
the surface, he realizes that he will pass through minutes and to 42°C in the next 10 minutes.
a small hole in the planet. As he enters the hole, Calculate the temperature of the surroundings.
he sees that the planet is really made of two (a) 18.01ºC (b) 26ºC
pieces a spherical shell of negligible thickness of (c) 10.6ºC (d) 20ºC
mass 2M/3 and a point mass M/3 at the centre. 16. An air bubble of volume v0 is released by a fish
Change in the force of gravity experienced by at a depth h in a lake. The bubble rises to the
the man is surface. Assume constant temperature and
2 GMm standard atmospheric pressure above the lake.
(a) (b) 0 The volume of the bubble just before touching
3 R2
the surface will be (density) of water is r
1 GMm 4 GMm
(c) (d) (a) v 0 (b) v0 (rgh/p)
3 R2 3 R2
v0
10. Geo-stationary satellite is one which (c) (d) v0 æç1 + rgh ö÷
(a) remains stationary at a fixed height from the æ rgh ö p ø
è
earth’s surface çè1 + p ÷ø
(b) revolves like other satellites but in the
17. The molecules of a given mass of gas have a root
opposite direction of earth’s rotation
mean square velocity of 200m s–1 at 27°C and
(c) revolves round the earth at a suitable height
1.0 × 105 N m–2 pressure. When the temperature
with same angular velocity and in the same
is 127°C and the pressure 0.5 × 105 Nm–2, the root
direction as earth does about its own axis
mean square velocity in ms–1, is
(d) None of these
11. Two wires are made of the same material and have 400
(a) (b) 100 2
the same volume. However wire 1 has cross- 3
sectional area A and wire 2 has cross-sectional
area 3A. If the length of wire 1 increases by Dx on 100 2 100
(c) (d)
applying force F, how much force is needed to 3 3
stretch wire 2 by the same amount? 18. Which of the following expressions corresponds
to simple harmonic motion along a straight line,
(a) 4 F (b) 6 F (c) 9 F (d) F
where x is the displacement and a, b, c are positive
12. An iron rod of length 2m and cross-sectional area constants?
of 50 mm2 stretched by 0.5 mm, when a mass of (a) a + bx – cx2 (b) bx2
250 kg is hung from its lower end. Young’s (c) a – bx + cx 2 (d) – bx
modulus of iron rod is 19. A mass m is suspended from a spring of force
(a) 19.6 × 1020 N/m2 (b) 19.6 × 1018 N/m2 constant k and just touches another identical
(c) 19.6 × 1010 N/m2 (d) 19.6 × 1015 N/m2 spring fixed to the floor as shown in the figure.
13. Viscosity is the property of a liquid due to which The time period of small oscillations is
it :
(a) occupies minimum surface area m m m
(a) 2p (b) p +p k
(b) opposes relative motion between its k k k/2
m
adjacent layers
(c) becomes spherical in shape m m m k
(c) p (d) p +p .
(d) tends to regain its deformed position 3k / 2 k 2k
20. The fundamental frequency of an open organ 26. A steady current is set up in a cubic network
pipe is 300 Hz. The first overtone of this pipe has composed of wires of equal resistance and length
same frequency as first overtone of a closed d as shown in figure. What is the magnetic field
organ pipe. If speed of sound is 330 m/s, then the at the centre P due to the cubic network
length of closed organ pipe is
m 0 2I B C
(a) 41 cm (b) 37 cm (c) 31 cm (d) 80 cm (a)
4p d
21. In an uniformly charged sphere of total charge Q A E D
and radius R, the electric field E is plotted as m 0 2I P
function of distance from the centre. The graph (b)
4p 2d F
which would correspond to the above will be
(c) 0 H G
E E
m 0 qpI
(d) ( )
4p d
(a) (b) 27. If M is magnetic moment and B is the magnetic
R r R r field, then the torque is given by
uur
E E uur ur M
(a) M.B (b) ur
B
(c) (d) uur ur uur ur
(c) M ´ B (d) M B
R r R r 28. A metal rod of length 1 m is rotated about one of
its ends in a plane right angles to a field of induc-
22. A charge Q1 exerts some force on a second charge
tance 2.5 × 10–3 Wb/m². If it makes 1800 revolu-
Q2. If a 3rd charge Q3 is brought near, then the
tions/min. Calculate induced e.m.f. between its
force of Q1 exerted on Q2 –
ends.
(a) will increase
(a) 2.471 V (b) 3.171 V
(b) will decrease
(c) 0.471 V (d) 1.771 V
(c) will remain unchanged
29. Which one of the following curves represents
(d) will increase if Q3 is of the same sign as Q1
the variation of impedance (Z) with frequency f
and will decrease if Q3 is of opposite sign. in series LCR circuit?
23. A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm is charged
Z Z
such that the potential on its surface is 10 V. The
potential at a distance of 2 cm from the centre of (a) (b)
the sphere is
(a) zero (b) 10 V (c) 4 V (d) 10/3 V
24. If the potential of a capacitor having capacity 6 mF f f
is increased from 10 V to 20 V, then increase in its Z Z
energy will be (c) (d)
(a) 4 × 10–4 J (b) 4 × 10–6 J
(c) 9 × 10 J–4 (d) 12 × 10–6 J
25. Calculate the effective resistance between A and f f
B in following network. 30. An electromagnetic wave passes through space
5W 10W 15W and its equation is given by E = E0 sin (wt – kx)
where E is electric field. Energy density of
electromagnetic wave in space is
A 10W 10W B
1 1
(a) e 0 E 20 (b) e 0 E 02
10W
2 4
20W 30W
(a) 5 W (b) 10 W (c) 20 W (d) 30 W (c) e 0 E 02 (d) 2e 0 E 02
31. A thin convergent glass lens (mg = 1.5) has a 37. The output of an OR gate is connected to both
power of + 5.0 D. When this lens is immersed in a the inputs of a NAND gate. The combination will
liquid of refractive index m, it acts as a divergent serve as a:
lens of focal length 100 cm. The value of m must (a) NOT gate (b) NOR gate
be (c) AND gate (d) OR gate
(a) 4/3 (b) 5/3 (c) 5/4 (d) 6/5 38. In a semiconductor diode, the barrier potential
offers opposition to
32. A vessel of depth 2d cm. is half filled with a liquid
(a) holes in P-region only
of refractive index µ1 and the upper half with a
(b) free electrons in N-region only
liquid of refractive index µ2. The apparent depth
(c) majority carriers in both regions
of the vessel seen perpendicularly is –
(d) majority as well as minority carriers in both
æ mm ö æ 1 1 ö regions
(a) dç 1 2 ÷ (b) dç + ÷ 39. An electron, in a hydrogen-like atom, is in an
è m1 + m 2 ø è m1 m2 ø excited state. It has a total energy of –3.4 eV. The
æ 1 ö kinetic energy and the de-Broglie wavelength of
æ 1 1 ö
(c) 2d ç + ÷ (d) 2d ç ÷ the electron are respectively
m
è 1 m 2ø è m1m 2 ø (a) +3.4 eV, 0.66 × 10–9 m
33. If the distance between the first maxima and fifth (b) –3.4 eV, 1.99 × 10–9 m
minima of a double slit pattern is 7mm and the (c) 2.8 eV, 2.38 × 10–10 m
slits are separated by 0.15 mm with the screen 50 (d) 1.1 eV, 1.28 × 10–9 m
cm. from the slits, then the wavelength of the 40. Light of wavelength 180 nm ejects photoelectron
light used is : from a plate of a metal whose work function is
(a) 200 nm (b) 100 nm 2 eV. If a uniform magnetic field of 5 × 10–5 T is
(c) 800 nm (d) 600 nm applied parallel to plate, what would be the radius
34. If the energy of a photon is 10 eV, then its of the path followed by electrons ejected normally
momentum is from the plate with maximum energy ?
(a) 5.33 × 10–23 kg m/s (a) 1.239 m (b) 0.149 m
(b) 5.33 × 10–25 kg m/s (c) 3.182 m (d) 2.33 m
(c) 5.33 × 10–29 kg m/s PART - II : CHEMISTRY
(d) 5.33 × 10–27 kg m/s 41. The product of atomic weight and specific heat
35. The energies of energy levels A, B and C for a of any element is a constant, approximately 6.4.
given atom are in the sequence EA < EB < EC. If This is known as :
the radiations of wavelengths l1, l2 and l3 are (a) Dalton’s law (b) Avogadro’s law
emitted due to the atomic transitions C to B, B to
(c) Newton’s law (d) Dulong Pettit law
A and C to A respectively then which of the fol-
lowing relations is correct ? 42. 1.520 g of hydroxide of a metal on ignition gave
(a) l1 + l2 + l3 = 0 (b) l3 = l12 + l2 0.995g of oxide. The equivalent weight of metal
is :
l1l 2 (a) 1.52 (b) 0.995 (c) 190 (d) 9
(c) l3 = l1 + l2 (d) l3 =
l1 + l 2 43. The correct order of radii is
36. Which one is correct about fission? (a) N < Be < B (b) F– < O2– < N3–
(a) Approx. 0.1% mass converts into energy. (c) Na < Li < K (d) Fe3+ < Fe2+ < Fe4+
(b) Most of energy of fission is in the form of 44. Beryllium and aluminium exhibit many properties
heat. which are similar. But, the two elements differ in
(c) In a fission of U235 about 200 eV energy is (a) forming covalent halides
released. (b) forming polymeric hydrides
(d) On an average, one neutron is released per (c) exhibiting maximum covalency in
fission of U235. compounds
(d) exhibiting amphoteric nature in their oxides
45. Among Al2O3, SiO2, P2O3 and SO2 the correct 52. When a crystal of caustic soda is exposed to air,
order of acid strength is: a liquid layer is deposited because :
(a) Al2O3 < SiO2< SO2 < P2O3 (a) Crystal loses water
(b) SiO2< SO2 < Al2O3 < P2O3 (b) Crystal absorbs moisture and CO2
(c) SO2< P2O3 < SiO2 < Al2O3 (c) Crystal melts
(d) Al2O3 < SiO2< P2O3 < SO2 (d) Crystal sublimes
46. A s bonded molecule MX3 is T-shaped. The 53. Which of the following compound is not chiral?
number of non bonded pair of electrons is (a) DCH2CH2CH2Cl (b) CH3CHDCH2Cl
(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) CH3CHClCH2D (d) CH3CH2CHDCl
(c) 1
(d) can be predicted only if atomic number is 54. C 6 H 5C º N and C 6 H 5 N ®
= C exhibit which
known type of isomerism?
47. The correct bond order in the following species (a) Position (b) Functional
is: (c) Demotropism (d) Position isomerism
(a) O 22+ < O2– < O 2+ (b) O +2 < O 2– < O 22+ 55. The correct nucleophilicity order is
(c) O 2– < O 2+ < O 22+ (d) O 22+ < O 2+ < O 2– (a) CH 3- < NH -2 < HO - < F -
48. What is the free energy change, DG , when 1.0 (b) CH 3- -~ NH - > HO - ~
2 - F-
mole of water at 100º C and 1 atm pressure is (c) CH 3- > NH -2 > HO - > F -
converted into steam at 100°C and 1 atm. (d) NH -2 > F - > HO - > CH 3-
pressure?
56. In the anion HCOO– the two carbon-oxygen
(a) 540 cal (b) –9800 cal
bonds are found to be of equal length. What is
(c) 9800 cal (d) 0 cal
49. H2S gas when passed through a solution of the reason for it ?
cations containing HCl precipitates the cations (a) The C = O bond is weaker than the C — O
of second group of qualitative analysis but bond.
not those belonging to the fourth group. It is (b) The anion HCOO– has two resonating
because structures.
(a) presence of HCl decreases the sulphide (c) The anion is obtained by removal of a proton
ion concentration. from the acid molecule.
(b) solubility product of group II sulphides (d) Electronic orbitals of carbon atom are
is more than that of group IV sulphides. hybridised.
(c) presence of HCl increases the sulphide 57. What will be the product in the following
ion concentration.
reaction?
(d) sulphides of group IV cations are unstable
in HCl. CH2
NBS
50. The pH of a solution is increased from 3 to 6; its
H+ ion concentration will be
(a) reduced to half Br
(b) doubled CH2
CH3
(c) reduced by 1000 times
(a) (b)
(d) increased by 1000 times
Br
51. A gas X at 1 atm is bubbled through a solution
containing a mixture of 1 M Y– and 1 M Z– at CH3
25°C. If the reduction potential is Z > Y > X, then CH2Br
(a) Y will oxidise X and not Z
(c) (d)
(b) Y will oxidise Z and not X
(c) Y will oxidise both X and Z Br
(d) Y will reduce both X and Z
58. The fraction of total volume occupied by the 65. Phosphine is not obtained by the reaction
atoms present in a simple cube is (a) White P is heated with NaOH
p p (b) Red P is heated with NaOH
p p
(a) (b) (c) (d) (c) Ca3P2 reacts with water
3 2 4 2 4 6
(d) Phosphorus trioxide is boiled with water
59. 1.00 g of a non-electrolyte solute (molar mass
66. Which of the following halides is not oxidized by
250 g mol–1) was dissolved in 51.2 g of benzene.
MnO2
If the freezing point depression constant, Kf of
benzene is 5.12 K kg mol–1, the freezing point of (a) F– (b) Cl– (c) Br– (d) I–
benzene will be lowered by 67. Which of the following exhibit only + 3 oxidation
(a) 0.3 K (b) 0.5 K (c) 0.4 K (d) 0.2 state?
60. The number of coulombs required for the (a) U (b) Th (c) Ac (d) Pa
deposition of 108 g of silver is 68. Which of the following pairs has the same size?
(a) 96500 (b) 48250 (a) Fe 2+ , Ni 2+ (b) Zr 4+ , Ti 4+
(c) 193000 (d) 10000
61. During the kinetic study of the reaction, (c) Zr 4+ , Hf 4+ (d) Zn 2+ , Hf 4+
2A + B ® C + D, following results were obtained: 69. Which of the following is not considered as an
organometallic compound?
Run [A]/mol L–1 [B]/mol L–1 Initial rate of (a) cis-platin (b) Ferrocene
formation of
–1 –1
(c) Zeise's salt (d) Grignard reagent
D/mol L min
–1
70. The most stable ion is
I 0.1 0.1 6.0 × 10 (a) [Fe(OH)3]3– (b) [FeCl6]3–
–1
II 0.3 0.2 7.2 × 10
–1 (c) [Fe(CN)6]3– (d) [Fe(H2O)6]3+
III 0.3 0.4 28.8 × 10
IV 0.4 0.1 24.0 × 10
–1 71. A is an optically inactive alkyl chloride which on
reaction with aqueous KOH gives B. B on heating
Based on the above data which one of the with Cu at 300°C gives an alkene C, what are A
following is correct? and C
(a) rate = k [A]2[B] (b) rate = k[A] [B]
(a) CH 3CH 2 Cl, CH 2 = CH 2
(c) rate = k[A]2[B]2 (d) rate = k[A][B]2
62. Position of non-polar and polar part in micelle (b) Me 3 CCl, MeCH = CH.Me
is (c) Me 3 CCl, Me 2 C = CH 2
(a) polar at outer surface and non-polar at inner (d) Me 2 CH. CH 2 Cl, Me 2 C = CH 2
surface. 72. The reaction
(b) polar at inner surface and non-polar at outer
surface. CH3
|
(c) distributed all over the surface. CH3 – C – ONa + CH3CH2Cl ¾¾®
NaCl
(d) present in the surface only. |
63. For adsorption of a gas on a solid, the plot of CH3
log x/m vs log P is linear with slope equal to CH3
(n being whole number) |
CH3 – C – O – CH2 – CH3
1 |
(a) k (b) log k (c) n (d)
n CH3
64. Calcination is used in metallurgy for removal of? is called :
(a) Water and sulphide (a) Williamson continuous etherification process
(b) Water and CO2 (b) Etard reaction
(c) CO2 and H2S (c) Gatterman - Koch reaction
(d) Williamson Synthesis
(d) H2O and H2S
73. Which of the following esters cannot undergo PART - III : MATHEMATICS
Claisen self condensation ?
81. If f(x) is a function that is odd and even
(a) CH3CH2CH2CH2COOC2H5
simultaneously, then f(3) – f(2) is equal to
(b) C6H5–COOC2H5 (a) 1 (b) –1
(c) C6H11CH2COOC2H5 (c) 0 (d) None of these
(d) C6H5CH2COOC2H5 1 1
82. If, tan A = and tan B = , then find the value
74. Schotten-Baumann reaction is a reaction of 2 3
phenols with of A + B
p p –p
(a) benzoyl chloride and sodium hydroxide. (a) p (b) (c) (d)
(b) acetyl chloride and sodium hydroxide. 2 4 4
1
(c) salicylic acid and conc. H2SO4. 83. If sin q = – and tan q = 1 / 3 , then q =
(d) acetyl chloride and conc H2SO4. 2
(a) 2np + p/6 (b) 2np +11p/6
75. Identify X, (c) 2np +7p/6 (d) 2np + p/4
H3C CH MgI cos q sin q
C = O ¾¾¾¾
3 ® 84. + is equal to
H3C dry ether 1 - tan q 1 - cot q
(a) sinq – cos q (b) sinq + cos q
H 2O
Intermediate ¾¾¾ (c) tanq + cot q (d) tanq – cot q
®X
85. For n Î N, xn+1 + (x + 1)2n–1 is divisible by
(a) CH3OH (b) Ethyl alcohol
(a) x (b) x + 1
(c) Methyl cyanide (d) tert-Butyl alcohol
2
(c) x + x + 1 (d) x2 – x + 1
76. The reagent (s) which can be used to distinguish
acetophenone from benzophenone is (are) 86. If a, b are the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0,
(a) 2,4- dinitrophenylhydrazine then the roots of the equation
(b) aqueous solution of NaHSO3 ax2 + bx (x + 1) + c (x + 1)2 = 0 are
(c) benedict reagent (a) a – 1, b – 1 (b) a + 1, b + 1
(d) I2and NaOH. a b a b
77. Aniline reacts with nitrous acid to produce (c) , (d) ,
a -1 b -1 1- a 1- b
(a) phenol
87. If a > 0, a Î R, z = a + 2i and z | z | – az + 1 = 0 then
(b) nitrobenzene
(a) z is always a positive real number
(c) chlorobenzene (b) z is always a negative real number
(d) benzene diazonium chloride (c) z is purely imaginary number
78. The structural feature which distinguishes (d) such a complex z does not exist
proline from natural a-amino acids? 88. Which of the following is not a vertex of the
(a) Proline is optically inactive. positive region bounded by the inqualities
(b) Proline contains aromatic group. 2x + 3y £ 6, 5x + 3y £ 15 and x, y ³ 0
(c) Proline is a dicarboxylic acid. (a) (0, 2) (b) (0, 0)
(d) Proline is a secondary amine. (c) (3, 0) (d) None of these
79. Which of the following cannot give iodometric 89. If 20Cr = 20Cr–10 then 18Cr is equal to
titration? (a) 4896 (b) 816
(a) Fe3+ (b) Cu2+ (c) Pb2+ (d) Ag2+ (c) 1632 (d) None of these
80. Acetaldehyde and acetone can be distinguished 90. The term independent of x in the expansion of
by :
18
(a) Iodoform test æ 1 ö
çè 9x - ÷ , x > 0 , is a times the corresponding
(b) Nitroprusside test 3 xø
(c) Fehlings solution test binomial coefficient. Then a is
(d) C & P test (a) 3 (b) 1/3
(c) –1/3 (d) None of these
91. In the binomial (21/3 + 3-1/3)n, if the ratio of the
seventh term from the beginning of the expansion 1 + sin 3x - 1
100. Evaluate lim ;
to the seventh term from its end is 1/6, then n x ®¥ ln(1 + tan 2x)
equal to
(a) 6 (b) 9 (c) 12 (d) 15 (a) 1/2 (b) 3/2 (c) 3/4 (d) 1/4
92. If p th ,q th and r th terms of H.P. are u,v,w 101. Negation of “Paris in France and London is in
respectively, then find the value of the expression England” is
(q – r) vw + (r – p) wu + (p – q) uv. (a) Paris is in England and London is in France
(a) 2 (b) 0 (c) 4 (d) 8 (b) Paris is not in France or London is not in
93. If the sum of the first 2n terms of 2, 5, 8, ....... is England
equal to the sum of the first n terms of 57, 59, (c) Paris is in England or London is in France
61......., then n is equal to (d) None of these
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 11 (d) 13 102. Find the A.M. of the first ten odd numbers.
94. The distance of the point (–1, 1) from the line (a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 15 (d) 25
12(x + 6) = 5 (y – 2) is 103. If A and B are mutually exclusive events and if
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
1 13
95. The family of straight lines P(B) = , P(A È B) = , then P(A) is equal to
(2a + 3b) x + (a – b) y + 2a – 4b = 0 is concurrent 3 21
at the point (a) 1/7 (b) 4/7 (c) 2/7 (d) 5/7
æ 2 -14 ö æ -2 -14 ö 104. A die is loaded such that the probability of
(a) ç , ÷ (b) ç , ÷ throwing the number i is proportional to its
è5 5 ø è 5 5 ø
reciprocal. The probability that 3 appears in a
æ -2 14 ö æ 2 14 ö single throw is-
(c) ç , ÷ (d) ç , ÷
è 5 5ø è5 5 ø (a) 3/22 (b) 3/11
96. The length of the latus-rectum of the parabola (c) 9/22 (d) None of these
æ u2 u2 ö
whose focus is çç 2 g sin 2α, – 2 g cos 2α ÷÷ and directrix ì x; when x is rational
è ø 105. If f(x) = í , then fof (x)
î1 - x; when x is irrational
u2
is y= , is
2g is given as
u2 u2 (a) 1 (b) x
(a) cos 2 α (b) cos 2α
g g (c) 1 + x (d) None of these
2u 2 2u 2 1- x
(c) cos 2 2α (d) cos 2 α 106. If f (x) = the domain of f–1 (x) is
g g
1+ x
97. The equation of the ellipse with focus at (±5, 0) (a) R (b) R – {– 1}
36 (c) (– ¥, – 1) (d) (–1, ¥)
and x = as one directrix is
5 107. The value of
x 2 y2 x 2 y2 æ 1ö æ 1ö
(a) + =1 (b) + =1 sin ç 4 tan -1 ÷ - cos ç 2 tan -1 ÷ is
36 25 36 11 è 3ø è 7ø
(a) 3/7 (b) 7/8
x 2 y2 (c) 8/21 (d) None of these
(c) + =1 (d) None of these
25 11 108. The matrix A2 + 4A – 5I, where I is identity matrix
98. For what value of k the circles x2 + y2+ 5x + 3y+ 7 = 0
é1 2 ù
and x2 + y2 – 8x + 6y + k = 0 cuts orthogonally and A = ê ú , equals :
(a) 16 (b) –18 (c) – 13 (d) – 10 ë 4 -3û
99. If the lines 3x – 4y + 4 = 0 and 6x – 8y – 7 = 0 are é2 1ù é0 -1ù
(a) 4ê (b) 4 ê
2 úû
tangents to a circle, then the radius of the circle
ë2 0 úû ë2
is
(a) 3/2 (b) 3/4 (c) 1/10 (d) 1/20 é2 1ù é1 1ù
(c) 32 ê (d) 32 ê
ë2 0úû ë1 0 úû
 é2 0 0ù 2 1 21
118. Let I1 = ò dx and I = ò dx , then
109. If A = êê 2 2 0úú , then adj ( adj A) is equal to - 1 1 + x2 2
1x
êë 2 2 2 úû
(a) I1 > I2 (b) I2 > I1
é1 0 0 ù é1 0 0 ù (c) I1= I2 (d) None of these
ê ú
(a) 8 ê1 1 0ú (b) 16 êê1 1 0úú 119. What is the area bounded by y = tan x , y = 0 and
êë1 1 1 úû ëê1 1 1 ûú p
é1 0 0ù x= ?
4
(c) 64 êê1 1 0 úú (d) None of these ln 2
(a) ln 2 sq. units (b) sq. units
ëê1 1 1 ûú
2
2 dy (c) 2 (ln 2) sq. units (d) None of these
110. If y = x x , then is equal to 120. The degr ee of the differen tial equation
dx
(a) (2 ln x) (b) (2 ln x + 1) 2/3
æ d3 y ö d2 y dy
x2 çç 3 ÷÷ + 4 - 3 2 + 5 = 0 is
(c) (ln ln x + 1) x (d) None of these è dx ø dx dx
111. The function f(x) = (x - 1) | ln x | is at x = 1 (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) None of these
r r
(a) discontinuous 121. Two vectors A and B are such that
(b) continuous but not differentiable r r r r
| A + B | = | A– B | . The angle between the two
(c) differentiable with f ' (1) = 0
vectors will be–
(d) differentiable with f ¢ (1) ¹ 0
(a) 60° (b) 90° (c) 180° (d) 0°
112. The function f(x) = sin x – kx – c, where k and
c are constants, decreases always when x -1 y +1 z - 3
(a) k > 1 (b) k ³ 1 (c) k < 1 (d) k £ 1 122. Gives the line L : = = and the
3 2 -1
113. The minimum value of f (x) = sin4 x + cos4 x in the
plane p : x – 2y – z = 0. Of the following assertions,
p
interval æç 0, ö÷ is the only one that is always true is
è 2ø (a) L is ^ to p (b) L lies in p
1 (c) L is not parallel to p(d) None of these
(a) (b) 2 (c) 2 (d) 1
2 123. A ladder rests against a wall so that its top
114. The curve y –exy+ x = 0 has a vertical tangent at touches the roof of the house. If the ladder makes
(a) (1, 1) (b) (0, 1) an angle of 60° with the horizontal and height of
(c) (1, 0) (d) no point the house be 6 3 meters, then the length of the
115. The function f(x) = 2x3 – 3x2 – 12x + 4, has ladder in meters is
(a) two points of local maximum (a) 12 3 (b) 12
(b) two points of local minimum
(c) one maxima and one minima (c) 12 / 3 (d) None of these
(d) no maxima or minima 124. In an equilateral triangle, the in radius,
x2 circumradius and one of the ex-radii are in the
116. Evaluate ò x 2 - 1 dx ratio
1 æ x - 1ö 1 æ x + 1ö (a) 2 : 3 : 5 (b) 1 : 2 : 3 (c) 3 : 7 : 9 (d) 3 : 7 : 9
(a) x - log ç + c (b) x + log ç ÷ +c
2 è x + 1÷ø 2 è x -1ø 125. For the constraints of a L.P. Problem given by
1 æ x - 1ö x1 + 2x2 £ 2000, x1 + x2 £ 1500 and x 2 £ 600 and
(c) x + log ç + c (d) None of these
2 è x + 1÷ø x1, x2 ³ 0, which one of the following points does
4p
not lie in the positive bounded region
117. Find the value of ò | sin x | dx (a) (1000, 0) (b) (0, 500)
0
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 2 (c) (2, 0) (d) (2000, 0)
 PART - IV : ENGLISH DIRECTIONS (Qs. 134 & 135): Pick out the most
effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks
DIRECTIONS (126 & 127): In the following
to make the sentence meaningfully complete in the
questions, two sentences are given. There may be an
contest of the sentence.
error in the sentence(s). Mark as your correct answer.
134. ____________to popular belief that red meat
126. I. Although he was innocent, baseless
makes human aggressive, scientist have found
accusations were leveled at him.
that it actually has a calming effect.
II. Despite of repeated representations from the
(a) Sticking (b) Similarly
people, the authorities have failed to take
(c) Opposite (d) Contrary
any action.
135. From its_____________opening sequence, it is
(a) if there is an error only in the first sentence;
clear that we are in the grip of a delicious new
(b) if there is an error only in the second
voice, a voice of breathtaking.
sentence;
(a) Imagination (b) Evocative
(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and
(c) Mesmerizing (d) Resonance
(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.
127. I. I deem it as a privilege to address the DIRECTIONS (Qs. 136-140): In the following
gathering. passages, the first and the last parts of the sentence
II. Perfection can be achieved with practice. are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split
(a) if there is an error only in the first sentence; into four parts and named, P, Q, R and S. These four
(b) if there is an error only in the second parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts
sentence; and find out which of the four combinations is correct.
(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and Then find the correct answer.
(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.
136. 1. making ourselves
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 128 - 130): For each of the P. our language
following questions, select the option which is Q. part of growing into
CLOSEST in meaning to the capitalized word. R. Masters of
128. TURBULENCE S. is an important
(a) Treachery (b) Triumph 6. full manhood or womanhood
(c) Commotion (d) Overflow (a) PSRQ (b) SQPR (c) RPSQ (d) PRSQ
129. DEFER 137. 1. The very first battle they fought
(a) Discourage (b) Minimize P. and they had to fall back
(c) Postpone (d) Estimate Q. cross the border
130. ADAGE R. was lost
(a) Proverb (b) Youth S. letting the enemy
(c) Supplement (d) Hardness 6. an enter the country
(a) RQSP (b) RPSQ (c) QRPS (d) QPRS
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 131 - 133): Choose the word, which 138. 1. A nation
is most OPPOSITE in meaning as the word given in P. the material assets it possesses
bold. Q. is not made by
R. and collective determination
131. FRAGRANCE S. but by the will
(a) Aroma (b) Perfume 6. of the people
(c) Smell (d) Stink (a) PQRS (b) QPSR (c) RSPQ (d) SRPQ
132. PECULIAR 139. 1. When the Governor
(a) Characteristic (b) Special P. the bell had rung
Q. justice should be immediately
(c) Specific (d) Universal R. he ordered that
133. ETERNAL S. found out why
(a) Momentary (b) Continual 6. done to the horse
(c) Everlasting (d) Endless (a) RSPQ (b) PQSR (c) SPRQ (d) SQRP
140. 1. When you ponder over 148. Which of the given Venn diagrams out of (a), (b),
P. that the only hope (c) or (d) correctly represents the relationship
Q. you will realize among the following classes?
R. of world peace lies Rose, Flower, Lotus
S. the question deeply
6. in the United Nations
(a) QRSP (b) SPQR (c) SQPR (d) RSPQ (a) (b)
DIRECTION (Q. 141 & 142): In the following
question, a series is given with one term missing.
Choose the correct alternative from the given ones (c) (d)
that will complete the series:
141. One of the, numbers does not fit into the series. 149. A piece of paper is folded and a cut is made as
Find the wrong number. shown below. From the given responses indicate
15, 20, 45, 145, 565, 2830 how it will appear when opened?
(a) 20 (b) 45 (c) 145 (d) 565
142. VWX, BCD, HIJ, ?
(a) NOQ (b) NOP (c) MNO (d) OPQ
143. In a code language, if TARGET is coded as
201187520, then the word WILLIUM will be coded
as
(a) 239121292113 (b) 239121291213 (a) (b)
(c) 239122191213 (d) 239121292213
144. Sanjay is taller than Suresh but shorter than
Rakesh. Rakesh is taller than Harish but shorter
than Binit. Who among is the tallest? (c) (d)
(a) Suresh (b) Sanjay
(c) Binit (d) Rakesh
150. Which answer figure will complete the question
145. In a row of 62 persons. Rahul is 36th from left
side of the row and Nitesh is 29th form the right figure?
side of the row. Find out the number of persons Question figure
sitting between them?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
146. The missing number in the given figure is

?
25 17 38 18 89 16
6 8 ?
(a) 13 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 19
147. Select the combination of number so that the (a) (b)
letters arranged will from a meaningful word.
H N R C A B
1 2 3 4 5 6
(a) 2, 5, 3, 4, 1, 6 (b) 3, 5, 6, 4, 1, 2 (c) (d)
(c) 4, 1, 5, 6, 2, 3 (d) 6, 3, 5, 2, 4, 1
 SOLUTIONS
PART - I : PHYSICS 9. (a) Change in force of gravity
M
r r r G m
1. (b) (vbc ) x =(vb )x - (vc ) x GMm
r
= - 32
20cos 60° = (vb ) x - 30 R2 R
r r r r (only due to mass M/3 due to shell
(vb ) x = 40 ; (vbc ) y = (v b ) y - (vc ) y gravitational field is zero (inside the shell))
r 2GMm
20sin 60° = (vb ) y - 0 =
r 3R 2
r (v b ) y 10 3 3 10. (c) Geo-stationary satellites are also called
(vb ) y = 10 3 ; tan q = r = = synchronous satellite. They always remain
(v b )x 40 4
about the same path on equater, i.e., it has a
2. (b) 3. (d) period of exactly one day (86400 sec)
ML3 æ
4. (c) T = 2p , writing dimensions of both So orbit radius r3 ö comes out
3 Yq ç T = 2p ÷
è GM ø
é ML3 ù
1/ 2 to be 42400 km, which is nearly equal to the
the sides, we get [ T ] = ê circumference of earth. So height of
-1 -2 ú
4
ëê ML T q ûú Geostationary satellite from the earth
or q = [L ] surface is 42,400 – 6400 = 36,000 km.
5. (b) When the mass increases by a factor of 4 the 11. (c) l
acceleration must decrease by a factor of four A Y
if the same force is applied. The question asks
about position so we need to relate Wire (1)
acceleration and time to position. We can do
3A Y
this by the equation : xf – xi = vxi t + ½ ax t2
We want the change in position to stay the
l/3
same. The initial velocity is zero so in order Wire (2)
for the change in position to remain As shown in the figure, the wires will have
constant the term (1/2) at2 must remain the the same Young’s modulus (same material)
same. If the acceleration is reduced by a and the length of the wire of area of cross-
factor of 4 you can see that the time must be section 3A will be l/3 (same volume as wire 1).
increased by a factor of 2 in order for the F/A
term to remain the same. For wire 1, Y = ...(i)
D x/l
6. (d) For equilibrium of all 3 masses, F '/ 3 A
T3 For wire 2 , Y = ...(ii)
a= Dx /( l / 3)
m1 + m 2 + m3
For equilibrium of m1 & m2 From (i) and (ii) , F ´ l = F ' ´ l
(m1 + m 2 )T3 A Dx 3 A 3Dx
T2 = (m1 + m2) × a or, T2 = Þ F ' = 9F
m1 + m 2 + m 3 250 ´ 9.8
Given m1 = 10 kg, m2 = 6 kg, m3 = 4 kg, F / A -6
T3 = 40 N 12. (c) Y = = 50 ´ 10
(10 + 6).40 Dl / l 0.5 ´ 10-3
\ T2 = = 32N
2
10 + 6 + 4
7. (b) 250 ´ 9.8 2
= ´ Þ 19.6 ´ 1010 N / m 2
τ 31.4 31.4
= 2.5 kg m 2 . 50 ´ 10- 6 0.5 ´ 10- 3
8. (a) Ι = = =
α 4 π 4 ´ 3.14 13. (b) 14. (c)
15. (b) By Newton's law of cooling, v
=3
v 3l 3 11
\ 2 Þ l' = = ´
q1 - q 2 éq + q ù 2l 4 l¢ 4 4 20
= - k ê 1 2 - q0 ú ....(1)
t ë 2 û = 41.25 cm
A sphere cools from 62°C to 50°C in 10 min. 21. (c) Electric field inside the uniformly charged
62 - 50 é 62 + 50 ù kQ
= -k ê - q0 ú ....(2) sphere varies linearly, E = .r , (r £ R),
10 ë 2 û R3
Now, sphere cools from 50°C to 42°C in next while outside the sphere, it varies as inverse
10 min.
kQ
50 - 42 é 50 + 42 ù square of distance, E = ; (r ³ R ) which
= -k ê - q0 ú ....(3) r2
10 ë 2 û is correctly represented in option (c).
n
Dividing eq . (2) by (3) we get,
22. (c)
56 - q0 1.2
= 23. (b) Potential at any point inside the sphere =
46 - q 0 0.8 or 0.4q0 = 10.4 potential at the surface of the sphere = 10V.
Hence q0 = 26°C 24. (c) Capacitance of capacitor (C) = 6 mF
16. (d) As the bubble rises the pressure gets = 6 × 10–6 F; Initial potential (V1) = 10 V and
reduced for constant temperature, if P is the final potential (V2) = 20 V.
standard atmospheric pressure, then The increase in energy (DU)
(P +rgh ) V0 = PV 1
= C( V22 - V12 )
æ rgh ö 2
or V = V0 çè1 + ÷
P ø 1
= ´ (6 ´ 10 - 6 ) ´ [( 20) 2 - (10) 2 ]
2
c2 400 2
= =
17. (a)
c1 300 3 = (3 ´10 -6 ) ´ 300 = 9 ´10 - 4 J .
25. (c) Equivalent resistance
2 400
Þ c2 = ´ 200 = ms -1 = (5 + 10 + 15) | | (10 + 20 + 30)
3 3 30 ´ 60
18. (d) In linear S.H.M., the restoring force acting So, R eq = = 20 W
30 + 60
on particle should always be proportional 26. (c) By symmetry, the magnetic field at the centre
to the displacement of the particle and P is zero.
directed towards the equilibrium position. uur ur
i.e., F µ x 27. (c) Torque, t = M ´ B
or F = –bx where b is a positive constant. 28. (c) Given : l = 1m, B = 5 × 10–3 Wb/m²
19. (d) When the spring undergoes displacement 1800
f= = 30 rotations/sec
in the downward direction it completes one 60
half oscillation while it completes another In one rotation, the moving rod of the metal
half oscillation in the upward direction. The traces a circle of radius r = l
total time period is: \ Area swept in one rotation = pr2
m m df d dA Bpr 2
T=p +p = ( BA) = B. =
k 2k dt dt dt T
v = B f p r2 = (5 × 10–3) × 3.14 × 30 × 1 = 0.471 V
20. (a) For open pipe, n = , where n 0 is the
2l 2
fundamental frequency of open pipe. æ 1 ö
29. (c) Z = R 2 + ç 2 pfL - ÷
v 330 11 è p
2 fC ø
\ l= = =
30. (a) Energy density
2 n 2 ´ 300 20
As freq. of 1st overtone of open pipe = freq. 2
2 æ E0 ö 1
of 1st overtone of closed pipe = e0 E rms = e 0 ç ÷ = e0 E02
è 2ø 2
 hc 1 2 (6.63 ´ 10 -34 ) ´ (3 ´ 108 )
æ mg ö = 0W + mv
ç - 1÷÷ l 2
max
(180 ´ 10-9 )
ç
Pa è am +5
31. (b) = ø= = -5 -19 1 -31 2
P1 æ m g ö - 100 / 100 = 2 ´ (1.6 ´ 10 ) + (9.1 ´ 10 )vmax
ç ÷ 2
ç m - 1÷ \ v = 1.31 × 106 m/s
è 1 ø
The radius of the electron is given by
æ m g ö mg
- 5 çç - 1÷÷ = -1 mv (9.1 ´ 10 -31 ) ´ (1.31 ´ 106 )
r = qB = = 0.149 m
è m1 ø m a (1.6 ´ 10 -19 ) ´ (5 ´ 10 -9 )
1 .5 -1 PART - II : CHEMISTRY
-1 = (1 .5 - 1) = -0 .1 ;
m1 5
41. (d) According to Dulong and Pettit’s law
1 .5 5 Atomic weight × Specific heat = 6.4 (approx)
m1 = =
0.9 3 This law is applicable only to solid elements
d1 d 2 æ 1 1 ö but it fails to explain very high specific heat
32. (b) h¢ = + =dç + ÷ of diamond.
m1 m 2 m
è 1 m 2ø
42. (d) Let E be the equivalent weight of the metal
33. (d) There are three and a half fringes from first
maxima to fifth minima as shown. E + 17 1.52
So, =
E +8 0.995
5D
4B [17 is equivalent weight of OH and 8 is
4D
7 mm 3B equivalent weight of oxygen]
3D
2B
2D Þ 0.995 E + 17 × 0.995 = E × 1.52 + 8 × 1.52
1B
1D Þ 0.525 E = 16. 915 – 12.16 = 4.755
Central bright
1D
1B 4.755
\ E= =9
7 mm bD 0.525
Þ b= = 2 mm Þ l = = 600 nm 43. (b) Effective nuclear charge (i,e. Z/e ratio)
3.5 d decreases from F– to N3– hence the radii
E follows the order: F– < O2– < N3–. Z/e for
34. (d) Momentum of a photon µ
c F– = 9/10 = 0.9, for O2– = 8/10 = .8, for N3 – = 0.7
= 5.33 × 10–27 kg ms–1
44. (c) The valency of beryllium is +2 while that of
35. (d) 36. (a) aluminium is +3.
37. (b) ( A + B) = NOR gate 45. (d) SO 2 > P2 O3 > SiO 2 > Al2 O3
Acidic Weak acidic Amphoteric
When both inputs of NAND gate are
connected, it behaves as NOT gate 46. (b) For T-shape geometry the molecule must
OR + NOT = NOR. have 3 bonded pair and 2 lone pair of
38. (c) electrons.
39. (a) En = – 3.4 eV 47. (c) O +2 ion - Total number of electrons
The kinetic energy is equal to the magnitude (16 – 1) = 15.
of total energy in this case. E.C. :
\ K.E. = + 3.4 eV
σ1s 2 σ*1s 2 σ2s 2 σ* 2 s 2 σ2 p z2
The de Broglie wavelength of electron
π2 p 2x = π2 p 2y π* 2 p1x = p*2py
h 6.64 ´ 10 –34
l= = eV
2mK N b - N a 10 - 5 5 1
2 ´ 9.1 ´ 10 –31 ´ 3.4 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 –19 Bond order = = = =2
2 2 2 2
= 0.66 × 10–9 m
40. (b) If vmax is the speed of the fastest electron O 2– (Super oxide ion): Total number of
emitted from the metal surface, then electrons (16 + 1) = 17 .
 E.C. : CH 2 CH 2 Br
57. (c) NBS
2 *
σ1s σ 1s 2 2 *
σ2s σ 2 s σ2 pz2
2 ¾¾¾ ®
π2 px2 = π2 p 2y π* 2 px2 = π* 2 p1y
58. (d) Number of atoms per unit cell = 1
(N - Na ) 10 - 7 3 1 Atoms touch each other along edges.
Bond order = b = = =1
2 2 2 2 a
Hence r =
2
O22+ ion: Total number of electrons ( r = radius of atom and a = edge length)
= (16 – 2) = 14 4 3
pr
p
E.C. : Therefore % fraction = 3 3 =
2 2 (2r) 6
σ1s 2 σ*1s 2 σ2s 2 σ* 2 s 2 π2 px2 = π2 p y σ2 pz
(N b – Na ) 10 – 4 6 1 1000
= = =3 59. (c) DTf = K f m = 5.12 ´ ´ = 0.4K
Bond order = 250 51.2
2 2 2
So bond order: O2– < O2+ < O22+ E. wt ´ Q
60. (a) Amt. deposited = ;
96500
48. (d) Condition of equilibrium, hence DG = 0.
49. (a) IV th gr oup n eeds h i gh er S 2– i on 107.870
107.870 = ´ Q; \ Q = 96500C
concentration. In presence of HCl, the 96500
dissociation of H2 S decreases hence 61. (d) In case of (II) and (III) Keepin g
produces less amount of sulphide ions concentration of [A] constant, when the
due to common ion effect, thus HCl concentration of [B] is doubled, the rate
decreases the solubility of H2S which is quadruples. Hence it is second order with
suffici en t t o precipit ate I I nd group respect to B. In case of I & IV Keeping the
radicals. concentration of [B] constant, when the
50. (c) pH = 3. \ [H+] = 10–3; pH = 6, concentration of [A] is increased four times,
\ [H+] = 10–6. Hence [H+] is reduced by rate also increases four times. Hence, the
10–3 times. order with respect to A is one. Hence
51. (a) The more the reduction potential, the more Rate = k [A] [B]2
the oxidising power.
52. (b) It is hygroscopic and deliquescent and 62. (a) o- Polarhead
hence absorbs moisture and CO2 to form n- Non-polar tail
Na2CO3 (micelle)
2NaOH + CO2 ¾¾® Na2CO3 + H2O 63. (d) According to Freun dlich adsorption
53. (a) None of the carbon atoms in isotherm, at intermediate pressure, extent of
DCH2CH2CH2Cl is chiral i.e., each carbon adsorption
atom is achiral (symmetric). x x 1
54. (b) = kP1/ n or log = log k + log P;
m m n
55. (c) Nucleophilicity increases with the decrease
in electronegativity of the central atom.
Since electronegativity follows the order: x/m
F > O > N > C; nucleophilicity of the Ps
concerned group will follow the reverse
order i.e., P
- - - - x
CH 3 > NH 2 > OH > F plot of log vs log P is linear with slope
m
O O
|| | 1
=
56. (b) H – C– O H – C=O n
64. (b) Calcination is used for removal of volatile 75. (d) H3 C d- d+
impurities and decompose carbonates.
C = O + CH 3 - MgI ¾
¾®
65. (b) Red P does not react with NaOH to give
H3 C
PH3.
–
66. (a) F2 is strongest oxidising agent. F is not H3 C
H OH H2 O
oxidised by MnO2 C O MgI ¾¾¾ ®
67. (c) Ac (89) = [Rn] [6d1] [7s2] H3 C
68. (c) Due to lanthanide contraction, the size of CH3
Zr and Hf (atom and ions) become nearly + Mg(OH)I CH3
|
similar. H3C – C – OH
69. (a) The structural formula of cis-platin is |
H3N CH3
Cl
Tert butyl
Pt alcohol
76. (d) I2 and NaOH react with acetophenone
H3N Cl (C6H5COCH3) to give yellow ppt. of CHI3
Since no carbon is involved it is not a but benzophenone (C6H5COC6H5) does not
organometallic compound. give haloform test.
70. (b) A more basic ligand forms stable bond with 77. (d) When aniline is treated with nitrous acid in
metal ion, Cl– is most basic amongst all. the presence of HCl, then benzene
diazonium chloride is obtained.
71. (c) Me3CCl ¾KOH
¾¾® Me 3 COH
tert . alcohol
NH2
(A)
Cu / 300°
® CH 3 - CH = CH 2 + H 2O
¾¾¾¾ + NaNO2 + 2HCl¾¾ ¾ ®
|
CH 3
C 6 H 5 N = NCl + NaCl + 2H 2O
or
(Benzene diazonium chloride)
Me2 C = CH 2 78. (d) Proline contains imino (secondary amino),
(C)
NH group.
72. (d) Williamson synthesis is one of the best 79. (a) There is no reaction between I– and Fe3+.
methods for the preparation of symmetrical 80. (c) Acetaldehyde is easily oxidised to acetic
and unsymmetrical ethers. In this method, acid by a mild oxidising agent like Fehling
an alkyl halide is allowed to react with solution. Acetone is not easily oxidised.
sodium alkoxide. Both acetone and acetaldehyde give
73. (b) Claisen condensation is given by esters iodoform test. Other two conditions are not
having two a-hydrogen atoms.
relevant to aldehydes and ketones.
OH
PART - III : MATHEMATICS
74. (a) aq. NaOH
+ C6H5COCl ¾¾¾® 81. (c)f (x) = 0 " x Î R Þ f (3) – f (2) = 0
1 1
+
O.COC6H5 tan A + tan B 2 3 =1
82. (c) tan (A + B) = =
1 - tan A tan B 1 - 1 . 1
2 3
p
\ A + B = 45° =
phenyl benzoate 4
 20C = 20C
83. (c) We shall first consider values of q between 0 89. (b) r r–10 Þ r + (r – 10) = 20 Þ r = 15
1 p æ pö 18C = 18C = 18C =
18.17.16
and 2p sin q = – = – sin = sin çè p + ÷ø \ r 15 3 = 816
2 6 6 1.2.3
r
or sin (2p – p/6) æ 1 ö
\ q = 7p/6 ; 11p/6 90. (d) Tr + 1 = 18Cr(9x)18 – r ç - ÷
è 3 xø
tan q = 1 / 3 = tan (p/6) or tan (p + p/6) 3r 3r
18- 18-
\ q = p/6 , 7p/6 = (– r)r 18Cr 9 2 x 2
The value of q which satisfies both the is independent of x provided r = 12 and
equations is 7p/6 then a = 1.
Hence the general value of q is 2np + 7p/6
91. (b) Tr + 1 = nCr an - r . br where a = 21/3 and
where n Î I
b = 3 -1/3
cos q sin q cos q sin q
84. (b) + = + T7 from beginning = nC6 an - 6 b6 and
1 - tan q 1 - cot q sin q cos q
1- 1- T7 from end = nC6 bn - 6 a6
cos q sin q
cos 2 q sin 2 q a n - 12 1 n - 12 n - 12
= - = cosq + sin q Þ n - 12
= Þ 2 3 . 3 3 = 6 -1
cos q - sin q cos q - sin q b 6
85. (c) For n = 1, we have; Þ n - 12 = - 3 Þ n = 9
xn+1 + (x + 1)2n–1 = x2 + (x + 1) = x2 + x + 1, 1 1 1
which is divisible by x2 + x + 1 92. (b) Let H.P. be + + + .......
a a + d a + 2d
For n = 2, we have; xn+1 + (x + 1)2n–1
= x3 + (x + 1)3 = (2x + 1) (x2 + x + 1), 1 1
\u = a + (p - 1)d , v = a + (q - 1)d ,
which is divisible by x2 + x + 1.
86. (d) The second equation can be rewritten as 1 1
w= Þ a + (p – 1) d =
æ x ö
2
æ x ö a + (r - 1)d u
aç ÷ + b ç x +1 ÷ + c = 0
è x +1 ø è ø 1 1
x a + (q – 1) d = , a + (r –1)d =
and hence its roots correspond to =a v w
x +1 Þ (q – r) {a + (p – 1)d} + (r – p) {a + (q – 1)d} + ......
x
and = b.
x +1 1 1
= (q – r) + (r – p) + .... Þ (q – r) vw + ..... = 0
a b u v
Hence x = and . 93. (c) Given,
1- a 1-b
87. (d) Putting z = a + 2i in the given equation and 2n n
{2.2 + (2n - 1)3} = {2.57 + (n - 1)2}
comparing imaginary parts, we get a2 + 4 = a2, 2 2
which is not possible. or 2 (6n + 1) = 112 + 2n or 10n = 110, \ n = 11
88. (d) Here (0, 2), (0, 0) and (3, 0) all are vertices of 94. (d) The given line is 12 (x + 6) = 5(y – 2)
feasible region. Þ 12x + 72 = 5y – 10
Y or 12x – 5y + 72 + 10 = 0 Þ 12x – 5y + 82 = 0
(0, 5) 5x + 3y = 15 The perpendicular distance from (x1, y1) to
2x + 3y = 6
(ax1 + by1 + c)
the line ax + by + c = 0 is .
(0, 2)
a 2 + b2
The point (x1 , y1 ) is (–1, 1), therefore,
(3,0)
x
perpendicular distance from (–1, 1) to the
O line 12x – 5y + 82 = 0 is
 | -12 - 5 + 82 | 65 65 4 7/ 2 3 3
= = = =5 + = . Hence radius is
2
12 + (-5) 2144 + 25 169 9 + 16 9 + 16 2 4
95. (a) Rewriting the equation 1 + sin 3x - 1
100. (c) xlim
(2x + y + 2) a + (3x – y – 4)b = 0 and for all a, ®0 ln(1 + tan 2x)
b the straight lines pass through the inter- (1 + sin 3x) - 1
lim
section of 2x + y + 2 = 0 and 3x – y – 4 = 0 = x®0 { }
1 + sin 3x + 1 ln(1 + tan 2x)
æ 2 14 ö 1 sin 3x
i.e., the point çè , - ÷ø . = lim .
5 5 x®0
( 1 + sin 3x + 1 ) 1
ln(1 + tan 2x) tan 2x
96. (d) According to the figure, the length of latus
rectum is 1
×
u 2
2u cos α 2 2 tan 2x
2(SM) = 2 ´ (1 + cos 2α) = .
lim 1
2g g = . æ sin 3x ö æ 2x ö
æ u 2 sin 2α u2 ö
x®0
( )
1 + sin 3x + 1 çè 3x ÷ø ç ÷
è tan 2x ø
ç , ÷
ç 2g 2 g ÷ø
è 1
Y M × 3. 1
2
X
ln(1 + tan 2x) tan 2x
S
æ u 2 sin 2α –u 2 cos 2α ö æ 1 ö æ 3ö 1 3
ç , ÷ =ç ÷ (1) (1) ç ÷ = .
ç 2g
è 2g ÷
ø
è1+1ø è 2 ø ln e 4
101. (b) Let p : Paris is in France, q : London is in
England
97. (b) We have ae = 5 [Since focus is (±ae, 0)]
\ we have p Ù q
a 36 é aù
and = êsince directrix is x = ± e ú Its negation is ~ ( p Ù q) =~ pÚ ~ q
e 5 ë û
On solving we get a = 6 i.e., Paris is not in France or London is not
5 æ 25 ö in England.
and e = Þ b 2 = a 2 (1 - e 2 ) = 36ç1 - ÷ = 11 102. (a) First ten odd numbers are 1, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13,
6 è 36 ø
15, 17, 19 respectively. So A.M.
Thus, the required equation of the ellipse is
x 2 y2 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + 11 + 13 + 15 + 17 + 19
+ =1 (x) =
36 11 10
100
98. (b) Let the two circles be x2 + y2+ 2g1 x + 2f1y = = 10
+ c1 = 0 and x2 + y2 + 2g2 x + 2f2y + c2 = 0 10
where g1 = 5/2, f1 = 3/2, c1 =7, g2 =–4, f2 =3 103. (c) For mutually exclusive events
and c2 = k 2
If the two circles intersects orthogonally, P(A È B) = P(A) + P(B) Þ P(A) =
7
then 6 6
k 1 49
æ 9ö 104. (d) P(i) = Þ 1 = å P(i) = k å i = k
2 (g1g2 + f1f2) = c1 + c2 Þ 2 ç -10 + ÷ = 7 + k i i =1 i =1 20
è 2ø 20 20
Þ 11 = 7 + k Þ k = – 18 Þk= . P(3) =
49 147
99. (b) The diameter of the circle is perpendicular ìf (x) ;when f(x) is rational
distance between the parallel lines (tangents) 105. (b) fof (x) = í
7 î1 - f(x); when f(x) is irrational
3x – 4y + 4 = 0 and 3x – 4y – = 0 and so it is
2 ìx ; when x is rational
equal to =í =x
î 1 - (1 - x); when x is irrational
 1- x Thus, f (x) = sin x – kx – c decrease always
106. (b) Let f(x) = y. Then =y when k > 1.
1+ x
1- y 1- y 113. (a) Let y = sin4x + cos4x
Þx= Þ f –1 (y) = dy
1+ y 1+ y = 4 sin 3 x cos x + 4 cos 3 x (- sin x )
dx
1- x
Thus, f–1 (x) = = 4 sin xcox (sin 2 x - cos 2 x)
1+ x
Clearly, f –1 (x) is defined for 1 + x ¹ 0. = (2 sin 2x) (– cos 2x) = – sin 4x
Hence, domain of f –1 (x) is R – {– 1} dy
\ = 0 Þ sin 4 x = 0 Þ 4 x = 0, p, 2p, 3p
æ -1 1 ö
dx
107. (d) sin ç 4 tan ÷ p p 3p p
è 3ø or x = 0, , , ,......... .., Þ x =
4 2 4 4
æ -1 1 ö æ -1 1 ö
= 2sin ç 2 tan ÷ cos çè 2 tan ÷ 114. (c) y – exy + x = 0
è 3ø 3ø
æ -1 3 ö æ -1 3 ö 3 4 24 dy xy æ dy ö
= 2 sin çè tan ÷ø = cos çè tan ÷ø = 2. . = \ - e ç y + x ÷ +1 = 0
4 4 5 5 25 dx è dx ø
æ 1 ö æ 7 ö 24 dy dy
cos ç 2 tan -1 ÷ = cos ç tan -1 ÷ = i.e., - y(x + y) - x(x + y) +1 = 0
è ø è . dx dx
7 24 ø 25
The given expression = 0 dy
i.e., [1 – x (x + y)] = y (x + y) – 1
108. (a) A2 + 4A – 5I = A × A + 4A – 5I dx
é1 2 ù é1 2ù é1 2ù é1 0ù for the vertical tangents
= ê 4 -3ú ´ ê 4 -3ú + 4 ê 4 -3ú - 5 ê0 1 úû
ë û ë û ë û ë
1 - x2
é9 -4ù é 4 8 ù é5 0 ù 1 – x (x + y) = 0 i.e., y=
= ê -8 ú +ê - x
ë 17 û ë 16 -12 úû êë0 5úû \ x = 1 and y = 0
é 9 + 4 -5 -4 + 8 - 0 ù é8 4 ù 115. (c) f(x) = 2x3 – 3x2 – 12x + 4
= ê -8 + 16 - 0 =
ë 17 - 12 - 5úû êë8 0 úû Þ f ¢(x) = 6x2 – 6x – 12 = 6(x2 – x – 2)
é2 1ù = 6(x – 2) (x + 1)
= 4ê For maxima and minima f ¢(x) = 0
ë 2 0 úû
\ 6(x – 2)(x + 1) = 0 Þ x = 2, – 1
é 2 0 0ù
ê ú Now, f ¢¢ ( x ) = 12x - 6
109. (b) | A | = ê 2 2 0ú = (2) (2) (2) = 8
At x = 2; f ¢¢ ( x ) = 24 - 6 = 18 > 0
ëê 2 2 2ûú
\ x = 2 , local min. point
Now adj (adj A) = |A|3–2A
é 2 0 0ù é1 0 0ù At x = – 1; f ¢¢ ( x ) = 12 ( -1) - 6 = -18 < 0
ê 2 2 0ú ê 0úú
\ x = –1 local max. point
=8ê ú = 16 ê1 1
æ 1 ö
ëê 2 2 2ûú ëê1 1 1ûú 116. (c) Given integral I = ò ç1 + 2 ÷ dx
2
è x - 1ø
x 2
110. (d) Consider y = x Þ ln y = x ln x dx
= ò dx + ò
1 dy 1 (x - 1)(x + 1)
= 2 x ln x + x 2 . = x (1 + 2 ln x )
y dx x 1 æ x - 1ö
1 æ 1 1 ö
2 ò è x -1 x + 1ø
dy 2 2 = x+ ç - ÷ dx = x + 2 log çè x + 1÷ø + c
= x x . x (1 + 2 ln x ) = x x +1 (1 + 2 ln x )
dx
111. (c) Continuous as well as differentiable, 117. (a) We know that |sinx| is a periodic function of p
so f '(1) = 0 4p p p

112. (b) Let f (x) = sin x – kx – c where k and c are Hence ò | sin x |dx = 4ò | sin x |dx = 4ò sin xdx
constants. f '(x) = cos x – k 0 0 0
p
\ f decreases if cos x £ k = 4 [ - cos x ]0 = 8
 2 2
dx dx PART - IV : ENGLISH
118. (b) If I1 = ò 2 , I2 = ò x 126. (c) Sentence I, accusations were leveled
1 1+ x 1
against him not at him. Sentence II, despite
æ 2+ 5ö is not followed by of.
I1 = ln ç ÷ , I 2 = ln2 Þ I1 < I2
è 1+ 2 ø 127. (c) Sentence I: I deem it a privilege not as a
p privilege.
Sentence II: …… achieved through practice
119. (b) Required area = ò
0
4 tan x dx
not with practice.
p 128. (c) Commotion means an disorderly outburst
ln 2
= ln sec1 04 = ln 2 = or tumult. Its most close to tubulence which
2
2/3
means unstable flow of a liquid or gas.
æ d3 y ö d2 y dy Turbulence also refers to a state of disturbance.
120. (b) ç 3 ÷ + 4-3 +5 =0
ç dx ÷ dx 2 dx 129. (c) Other synonyms are prorogue, put off, set
è ø
back, shelve.
2 3
æ d3 y ö é d 2 y dy ù 130. (a) An adage is a proverb or byword.
Þ ç ÷ = ê 3 - 5 - 4 ú 131. (d) 132. (d) 133. (a)
ç 3÷ 2 dx
è dx ø ëê dx ûú 134. (d) Sticking-extending out above a surface or
It is a differential equation of degree 2. boundary contrary-very opposite in
r r r r nature or character or purpose.
121. (b) A + B | = |A – B |
135. (c) Evocative-recreate strong feelings,
Þ A 2 + B 2 + 2AB cos q = A 2 + B 2 - 2AB cos q memory etc.
Squaring both the sides, we get Mesmerizing-attract strongly.
r r rr r r rr 136. (c) 137. (b) 138. (b) 139. (c)
A 2 + B2 + 2AB cos q = A 2 + B2 - 2AB cos q 140. (c)
rr 141. (c) The number should be 140.
or 4AB cosq = 0 or cos q = 0 (since the scalar
× 1 + 5, × 2 + 5, × 3 + 5……
or dot product is zero) . Therefore angle between
r r 142. (b) The pattern is:
A to B is 90°
122. (b) Since 3(1) + 2(– 2) + (–1) (–1) = 3 – 4 + 1 = 0 V WX B C D H I J N O P
\ Given line is ^ to the normal to the planei.e.,
given line is parallel to the given plane. +6 +6 +6
+6 +6 +6
Also, (1, –1, 3) lies on the plane x – 2y – z = 0 if +6 +6 +6
1 – 2 (–1) – 3 = 0 i.e., 1 + 2 – 3 = 0 T A R G E T
143. (a)
which is true \ L lies in plane p.
6 3 20 1 18 7 5 20
123. (b) Length of ladder = = 12 m
sin 60° Similarly, W I L L I U M
3 2 3a
124. (b) We have D = a ,s= 23 9 12 12 9 21 13
4 2
144. (c) From the question we get,
D a abc a3 a
\ r= = , R= = = Rakesh > Sanjay > Suresh
s 2 3 4D 3a 2
3 Binit > Rakesh > Harish
2
D 3 / 4a 3 So, Binit is the tallest among them.
and r1 = = = a
s-a a/2 2 145. (a) No. of Persons between Rahul and
a a 3 Nitesh
Hence, r : R : r 1 = : : a =1:2:3 = (36 + 29) - 62-2 = 65 - 62-2=1
2 3 3 2
146. (a) 147. (d) BRANCN 148. (b)
125. (d) Clearly point (2000, 0) is outside. 149. (b) 150. (c)