Biochemistry: Structure and function of biological macromolecules; Allostery; Enzymes – basic

mechanisms of enzyme catalysis, Michaelis-Menten kinetics, enzyme inhibition, vitamins as

coenzymes, and regulation; Bioenergetics – free-energy change, high-energy compounds,
biological oxidation-reduction reactions and reduction potential; Metabolism – glycolysis, TCA
cycle, oxidative phosphorylation, photosynthesis, nitrogen fixation, urea cycle, and regulation of
glycolysis and TCA cycle.

MCQs: Structure and Function of Biological Macromolecules

1. Which of the following is a characteristic of biological macromolecules?

a) Small and simple structure
b) High molecular weight
c) Composed of a single element
d) Insolubility in water
2. The primary structure of a protein refers to:
a) The three-dimensional folding of the protein
b) The sequence of amino acids
c) The arrangement of α\alphaα-helices and β\betaβ-sheets
d) The interaction between polypeptide subunits
3. What type of bond holds the two strands of DNA together?
a) Covalent bonds
b) Hydrogen bonds
c) Ionic bonds
d) Peptide bonds
4. Which of the following is NOT a lipid?
a) Triglyceride
b) Phospholipid
c) Collagen
d) Cholesterol
5. The monomers of carbohydrates are:
a) Fatty acids
b) Amino acids
c) Nucleotides
d) Monosaccharides
6. Which nitrogenous base is present in RNA but not in DNA?
a) Adenine
b) Thymine
c) Guanine
d) Uracil
7. The basic building blocks of nucleic acids are:
a) Amino acids
b) Nucleotides
c) Fatty acids
d) Monosaccharides
8. Which macromolecule serves as the primary energy source for most organisms?
a) Proteins
b) Lipids
c) Carbohydrates
d) Nucleic acids
9. Which of the following is a structural polysaccharide?
a) Glycogen
b) Cellulose
c) Starch
d) Amylopectin
10. Hemoglobin is an example of which protein structure?
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Quaternary

11. What is the role of chaperones in protein folding?

a) Catalyze peptide bond formation
b) Stabilize unfolded proteins
c) Prevent misfolding and aggregation
d) Hydrolyze proteins
12. Which type of lipid is the main component of biological membranes?
a) Triglycerides
b) Steroids
c) Phospholipids
d) Waxes
13. What type of bond links amino acids in a protein?
a) Hydrogen bond
b) Peptide bond
c) Glycosidic bond
d) Phosphodiester bond
14. The alpha-helix and beta-sheet are types of:
a) Primary structure
b) Secondary structure
c) Tertiary structure
d) Quaternary structure
15. The backbone of a DNA molecule is composed of:
a) Nucleotides and bases
b) Sugars and bases
c) Phosphates and bases
d) Sugars and phosphates
16. Which of the following amino acids is polar?
a) Valine
b) Phenylalanine
c) Serine
d) Leucine
17. Enzymes are primarily composed of:
a) Nucleic acids
b) Carbohydrates
c) Proteins
d) Lipids
18. Which macromolecule contains sulfur?
a) Nucleic acids
b) Lipids
c) Carbohydrates
d) Proteins
19. Which polysaccharide serves as energy storage in animals?
a) Glycogen
b) Cellulose
c) Chitin
d) Starch
20. What are purines in nucleotides?
a) Single-ring structures
b) Double-ring structures
c) Ribose sugars
d) Phosphate groups
21. What is the role of RNA in protein synthesis?
a) Stores genetic information
b) Transfers amino acids
c) Catalyzes metabolic reactions
d) Provides structural support
22. Which macromolecule is insoluble in water and hydrophobic?
a) Proteins
b) Lipids
c) Nucleic acids
d) Carbohydrates
23. The disaccharide sucrose is composed of:
a) Glucose and galactose
b) Glucose and fructose
c) Glucose and glucose
d) Glucose and maltose
24. What is the role of cholesterol in membranes?
a) Energy storage
b) Catalysis of reactions
c) Regulating fluidity
d) Transporting molecules
25. Which type of protein structure is stabilized by disulfide bonds?
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Quaternary

26. What is the main storage form of carbohydrates in plants?

a) Glycogen
b) Cellulose
c) Starch
d) Sucrose
27. Which of the following amino acids is basic?
a) Alanine
b) Glutamate
c) Lysine
d) Tyrosine
28. The double helix of DNA is stabilized by:
a) Ionic bonds
b) Hydrogen bonds
c) Peptide bonds
d) Covalent bonds
29. The hydrophobic effect is primarily responsible for which protein structure?
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Quaternary
30. Which biomolecule has a sugar-phosphate backbone?
a) Proteins
b) Lipids
c) Nucleic acids
d) Carbohydrates

31. Which vitamin is part of the coenzyme NAD+?

a) Vitamin B6
b) Vitamin B12
c) Niacin
d) Biotin
32. Which polysaccharide is used in fungal cell walls?
a) Glycogen
b) Cellulose
c) Chitin
d) Amylose
33. What type of macromolecule is ATP?
a) Lipid
b) Nucleic acid
c) Protein
d) Carbohydrate
34. Hydrogen bonding in water is responsible for:
a) DNA helix formation
b) Protein secondary structure
c) Water's high heat capacity
d) All of the above
35. Which of these macromolecules contains the most energy per gram?
a) Proteins
b) Lipids
c) Carbohydrates
d) Nucleic acids

36. What is the sugar component of RNA?

a) Ribose
b) Deoxyribose
c) Glucose
d) Fructose
37. The central dogma of molecular biology states:
a) DNA is transcribed to RNA, which is translated to protein
b) RNA is transcribed to DNA, which is translated to protein
c) Proteins code for DNA and RNA
d) DNA is the only functional biomolecule
38. Which macromolecule is used to store genetic information?
a) Lipids
b) Proteins
c) Nucleic acids
d) Carbohydrates
39. Which amino acid contains a hydroxyl group?
a) Cysteine
b) Serine
c) Lysine
d) Histidine
40. Which macromolecule is primarily responsible for catalyzing biochemical reactions?
a) Lipids
b) Nucleic acids
c) Enzymes
d) Polysaccharides

41. Which polysaccharide cannot be digested by humans?

a) Amylose
b) Glycogen
c) Cellulose
d) Maltose
42. The protein responsible for oxygen transport in blood is:
a) Myoglobin
b) Hemoglobin
c) Collagen
d) Keratin
43. Which bond is responsible for the rigidity of cellulose?
a) Alpha glycosidic
b) Beta glycosidic
c) Hydrogen
d) Ionic
44. What component differentiates one amino acid from another?
a) Amino group
b) Carboxyl group
c) R group
d) Hydrogen atom
45. Which is the most abundant macromolecule in the cell?
a) Carbohydrates
b) Lipids
c) Nucleic acids
d) Proteins

46. What is the common secondary structure in fibrous proteins?

a) Alpha-helix
b) Beta-pleated sheet
c) Random coil
d) Triple helix
47. The bond between the sugar and base in a nucleotide is a:
a) Hydrogen bond
b) Phosphodiester bond
c) Glycosidic bond
d) Peptide bond
48. A nucleotide is made up of:
a) Sugar, base, and phosphate
b) Base and phosphate
c) Sugar and base
d) Sugar and phosphate
49. Which lipid has a ring structure?
a) Fatty acid
b) Triglyceride
c) Steroid
d) Phospholipid
50. Which type of bond forms between complementary base pairs in DNA?
a) Covalent bond
b) Hydrogen bond
c) Ionic bond
d) Van der Waals forces

Answers
1. b
2. b
3. b
4. c
5. d
6. d
7. b
8. c
9. b
10. d
11. c
12. c
13. b
14. b
15. d
16. c
17. c
18. d
19. a
20. b
21. b
22. b
23. b
24. c
 25. c
26. c
27. c
28. b
29. c
30. c
31. c
32. c
33. b
34. d
35. b
36. a
37. a
38. c
39. b
40. c
41. c
42. b
43. b
44. c
45. d
46. a
47. c
48. a
49. c
50. b
Multiple Select Questions (MSQs)
1. Which of the following are structural polysaccharides?
• a) Glycogen
• b) Chitin
 • c) Cellulose
• d) Starch

2. Which of the following statements about enzymes is/are correct?

• a) Enzymes lower the activation energy of biochemical reactions.
• b) Enzymes are consumed during the reaction.
• c) Enzymes are highly specific to their substrates.
• d) Enzyme activity is influenced by temperature and pH.

3. Which of the following bonds are involved in stabilizing the tertiary structure of proteins?
• a) Hydrogen bonds
• b) Disulfide bonds
• c) Peptide bonds
• d) Ionic interactions

4. Which of the following reactions is/are involved in oxidative phosphorylation?

• a) Formation of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate
• b) Reduction of oxygen to water
• c) Decarboxylation of pyruvate
• d) Electron transfer through the cytochrome chain

5. Which of the following statements about vitamins is/are true?

• a) Vitamin B1 functions as a coenzyme in carbohydrate metabolism.
• b) Vitamin C is a fat-soluble vitamin.
• c) Vitamin K is required for blood clotting.
• d) Vitamin D deficiency leads to scurvy.
Answers

MSQs:
1. b, c
2. a, c, d
3. a, b, d
4. a, b, d
5. a, c
MCQs (20 Questions)
1. Which of the following is characteristic of allosteric enzymes?
a) They exhibit cooperativity.
b) They follow Michaelis-Menten kinetics.
c) They bind to substrates irreversibly.
d) They have a single active site.
2. Which of the following is a coenzyme involved in redox reactions?
a) NAD+
b) ATP
c) Coenzyme A
d) Coenzyme Q
3. In the Michaelis-Menten equation, what does VmaxV_{\text{max}}Vmax represent?
a) The substrate concentration when the reaction rate is half of
VmaxV_{\text{max}}Vmax.
b) The maximum rate of the enzyme-catalyzed reaction.
c) The enzyme's affinity for the substrate.
d) The concentration of enzyme needed for the reaction.
4. Which of the following inhibitors binds to the active site of the enzyme?
a) Competitive inhibitor
b) Non-competitive inhibitor
c) Uncompetitive inhibitor
d) Allosteric inhibitor
5. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-
6-phosphate?
a) Hexokinase
b) Phosphofructokinase
c) Pyruvate kinase
d) Aldolase
6. Which of the following statements is true for enzyme-catalyzed reactions?
a) Enzymes increase the activation energy.
b) Enzymes are consumed in the reaction.
 c) Enzymes lower the activation energy.
d) Enzymes change the equilibrium constant of a reaction.
7. Which molecule acts as the primary energy carrier in cells?
a) Glucose
b) ATP
c) NADH
d) FADH2
8. Which of the following processes generates the most ATP?
a) Glycolysis
b) TCA cycle
c) Oxidative phosphorylation
d) Photosynthesis
9. Which of the following enzymes is involved in the TCA cycle?
a) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
b) Hexokinase
c) Lactate dehydrogenase
d) Glucokinase
10. Which of the following inhibitors is not affected by increasing substrate
concentration?
a) Competitive inhibitor
b) Non-competitive inhibitor
c) Uncompetitive inhibitor
d) Both b and c
11. Which of the following molecules is produced in the TCA cycle?
a) Glucose
b) NADH
c) Pyruvate
d) ATP
12. Which enzyme catalyzes the conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-
bisphosphate in glycolysis?
a) Phosphofructokinase
b) Hexokinase
c) Pyruvate kinase
d) Aldolase
13. Which metabolic pathway produces NADH and FADH2?
a) Glycolysis
b) TCA cycle
c) Oxidative phosphorylation
d) Photosynthesis
14. Which of the following is a high-energy molecule used in cellular processes?
a) NADH
b) Glucose
 c) Pyruvate
d) Both a and b
15. Which of the following is a characteristic of competitive enzyme inhibition?
a) The inhibitor binds to the active site.
b) The inhibitor binds to a site other than the active site.
c) The reaction rate increases at high substrate concentrations.
d) The inhibitor affects the maximum reaction rate.
16. Which of the following enzymes is regulated by feedback inhibition?
a) Hexokinase
b) Phosphofructokinase
c) Pyruvate kinase
d) All of the above
17. In which metabolic pathway is oxygen the final electron acceptor?
a) Glycolysis
b) TCA cycle
c) Oxidative phosphorylation
d) Photosynthesis
18. Which of the following reactions is coupled with ATP hydrolysis?
a) Protein synthesis
b) Active transport
c) Muscle contraction
d) All of the above
19. Which of the following is true about the reduction potential of a substance?
a) A higher reduction potential indicates a stronger electron acceptor.
b) A lower reduction potential indicates a stronger electron donor.
c) Reduction potential is measured in volts.
d) All of the above
20. Which of the following processes occurs in the mitochondria?
a) Glycolysis
b) TCA cycle
c) Oxidative phosphorylation
d) Both b and c

MSQs (15 Questions)

1. Which of the following are characteristics of allosteric enzymes?
a) They exhibit cooperativity.
b) They follow Michaelis-Menten kinetics.
c) They have multiple subunits.
d) Their activity is regulated by small molecules.
2. Which of the following are involved in redox reactions?
a) NAD+
 b) FAD
c) ATP
d) Coenzyme A
3. Which of the following enzymes are involved in glycolysis?
a) Hexokinase
b) Phosphofructokinase
c) Pyruvate kinase
d) Lactate dehydrogenase
4. Which of the following molecules are high-energy compounds?
a) ATP
b) NADH
c) AMP
d) FADH2
5. Which of the following factors affect enzyme activity?
a) pH
b) Temperature
c) Substrate concentration
d) All of the above
6. Which of the following are examples of enzyme inhibitors?
a) Competitive inhibitors
b) Non-competitive inhibitors
c) Uncompetitive inhibitors
d) Allosteric inhibitors
7. Which of the following metabolic pathways produce ATP?
a) Glycolysis
b) TCA cycle
c) Oxidative phosphorylation
d) All of the above
8. Which of the following are derivatives of coenzyme A?
a) Acetyl-CoA
b) Fatty acyl-CoA
c) NADH
d) FADH2
9. Which of the following statements is true about competitive inhibition?
a) It increases VmaxV_{\text{max}}Vmax.
b) It increases KmK_mKm.
c) It binds to the enzyme-substrate complex.
d) It can be overcome by increasing substrate concentration.
10. Which of the following enzymes are involved in the TCA cycle?
a) Citrate synthase
b) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
 c) Fumarase
d) Malate dehydrogenase
11. Which of the following are components of oxidative phosphorylation?
a) ATP
b) NADH
c) Cytochromes
d) FADH2
12. Which of the following enzymes catalyze the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-
6-phosphate?
a) Hexokinase
b) Phosphofructokinase
c) Pyruvate kinase
d) Aldolase
13. Which of the following are required for the TCA cycle?
a) Oxygen
b) NAD+
c) ATP
d) Coenzyme A
14. Which of the following statements is true for enzyme-substrate interaction?
a) Enzyme and substrate interact through non-covalent bonds.
b) The enzyme undergoes a conformational change upon binding the substrate.
c) The substrate is always converted to the product during the first binding.
d) Enzyme-substrate interaction decreases the reaction rate.
15. Which of the following are roles of ATP in metabolism?
a) Energy source
b) Energy carrier
c) Coenzyme
d) Both a and b
Answers

MCQs
1. a) They exhibit cooperativity.
2. a) NAD+
3. b) The maximum rate of the enzyme-catalyzed reaction.
 4. a) Competitive inhibitor
5. a) Hexokinase
6. c) Enzymes lower the activation energy.
7. b) ATP
8. c) Oxidative phosphorylation
9. a) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
10. b) Non-competitive inhibitor
11. b) NADH
12. a) Phosphofructokinase
13. b) TCA cycle
14. a) NADH
15. a) The inhibitor binds to the active site.
16. b) Phosphofructokinase
17. c) Oxidative phosphorylation
18. d) All of the above
19. d) All of the above
20. d) Both b and c
MSQs
1. a, c, d
2. a, b
3. a, b, c
4. a, b, d
5. a, b, c, d
6. a, b, c, d
7. a, b, c, d
8. a, b
9. a, b, d
10. a, b, c
11. a, b, d
12. a, b
 13. a, b, d
14. a, b
15. a, b
NAT Answers
1. 150 µmol/min
2. 10 mM
3. -20 kJ/mol
4. -18.6 kJ/mol
5. 6 ATP
6. 2/3 Vmax
7. 0.034 min^-1
8. 6 ATP
9. -19.8 kJ/mol
10. 12 kcal/mol
MCQs on Glycolysis
1. What is the primary function of glycolysis? a) To produce ATP
b) To convert glucose to pyruvate
c) To produce oxygen
d) To produce NADH and FADH2
2. Which enzyme catalyzes the conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in
glycolysis? a) Hexokinase
b) Phosphofructokinase
c) Glucokinase
d) Aldolase
3. How many ATP molecules are consumed in the first phase of glycolysis? a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
4. Which molecule is formed at the end of glycolysis? a) Lactic acid
b) Pyruvate
c) Acetyl-CoA
d) Glucose-6-phosphate
5. What is the net production of ATP in glycolysis? a) 2 ATP
b) 4 ATP
c) 1 ATP
d) 3 ATP
6. Which enzyme catalyzes the conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-
bisphosphate? a) Hexokinase
b) Phosphofructokinase
c) Aldolase
d) Triosephosphate isomerase
7. What is the role of NAD+ in glycolysis? a) To oxidize glucose
b) To reduce glucose
c) To produce ATP
d) To accept electrons in the oxidation of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
8. What is the final product of the oxidation of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate in
glycolysis? a) NADH
b) ATP
c) Pyruvate
d) Glucose
9. Which step in glycolysis produces ATP through substrate-level phosphorylation? a)
Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate
b) Conversion of 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate
c) Conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate
d) Conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
10. Which enzyme catalyzes the final step in glycolysis, converting
phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate? a) Pyruvate kinase
b) Phosphofructokinase
c) Aldolase
d) Triosephosphate isomerase
11. What is the role of ATP in glycolysis? a) ATP is used in the activation of glucose
b) ATP is produced during substrate-level phosphorylation
c) Both a and b
d) ATP is not involved in glycolysis
12. How is NADH generated in glycolysis? a) By the reduction of NAD+
b) By the oxidation of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
c) By the conversion of pyruvate to lactate
d) By the conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate
13. What is the significance of the enzyme hexokinase in glycolysis? a) It catalyzes the
conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate
b) It catalyzes the conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
c) It catalyzes the final step of glycolysis
d) It catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to lactate
14. Which enzyme is inhibited by high ATP levels, thereby regulating glycolysis? a)
Pyruvate kinase
b) Hexokinase
c) Phosphofructokinase
d) Aldolase
15. How many molecules of NADH are produced in one turn of glycolysis? a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
16. What happens to pyruvate in anaerobic conditions after glycolysis? a) It is converted
into acetyl-CoA
b) It is converted into lactic acid
c) It enters the TCA cycle
d) It is converted to glucose
17. Which enzyme in glycolysis is regulated by the presence of fructose-2,6-
bisphosphate? a) Phosphofructokinase
b) Pyruvate kinase
c) Hexokinase
d) Aldolase
18. How does the conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in glycolysis contribute
to cellular energy? a) It is an irreversible reaction that traps glucose inside the cell
b) It generates ATP
c) It generates NADH
d) It is the final step in glycolysis
19. Which intermediate of glycolysis can be converted into glycogen for storage? a)
Glucose-6-phosphate
b) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
c) Pyruvate
d) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
20. What is the fate of pyruvate under aerobic conditions? a) It is converted to lactic acid
b) It enters the TCA cycle
c) It is converted to ethanol
d) It is converted to glucose
21. Which step in glycolysis is regulated by ATP as an allosteric inhibitor? a) The
conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate
b) The conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
c) The conversion of 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate
d) The conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA
22. What is the role of aldolase in glycolysis? a) It splits fructose-1,6-bisphosphate into two
triose sugars
b) It converts glucose to glucose-6-phosphate
c) It catalyzes the final step of glycolysis
d) It converts pyruvate into lactate
23. What type of reaction is involved in the conversion of 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate to 3-
phosphoglycerate? a) Redox reaction
b) Substrate-level phosphorylation
 c) Hydration reaction
d) Dehydration reaction
24. What is the function of phosphoglycerate mutase in glycolysis? a) It converts 3-
phosphoglycerate to 2-phosphoglycerate
b) It converts fructose-1,6-bisphosphate to fructose-6-phosphate
c) It converts pyruvate to acetyl-CoA
d) It splits fructose-1,6-bisphosphate into two triose sugars
25. What is the role of phosphoglucose isomerase in glycolysis? a) It converts glucose-6-
phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate
b) It splits fructose-1,6-bisphosphate into two triose sugars
c) It converts fructose-1,6-bisphosphate to glucose-6-phosphate
d) It generates ATP
26. Which of the following is a consequence of glycolysis in the absence of oxygen? a)
The accumulation of pyruvate
b) The reduction of NAD+
c) The reduction of glucose to lactic acid
d) The production of acetyl-CoA
27. Which product of glycolysis is used for the synthesis of ATP in the electron transport
chain? a) NADH
b) Glucose
c) Pyruvate
d) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
28. How is the enzyme pyruvate kinase regulated in glycolysis? a) By phosphorylation
b) By fructose-2,6-bisphosphate
c) By feedback inhibition from ATP
d) All of the above
29. Which molecule is generated from the oxidation of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate in
glycolysis? a) NADH
b) ATP
c) Pyruvate
d) Glucose-6-phosphate
30. What is the first step of glycolysis? a) The conversion of glucose to glucose-6-
phosphate
b) The conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA
c) The splitting of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
d) The conversion of glucose to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate

MSQs on Glycolysis
1. Which of the following enzymes are involved in the regulation of glycolysis? (Choose all
that apply)
a) Hexokinase
 b) Phosphofructokinase
c) Pyruvate kinase
d) Aldolase
2. Which steps in glycolysis involve the consumption of ATP? (Choose all that apply)
a) Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate
b) Fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
c) 1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate
d) Phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate
3. Which of the following are products of glycolysis? (Choose all that apply)
a) NADH
b) ATP
c) FADH2
d) Pyruvate
4. Which intermediates of glycolysis are used for gluconeogenesis? (Choose all that apply)
a) Glucose-6-phosphate
b) Pyruvate
c) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
d) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
5. Which molecules inhibit the enzyme phosphofructokinase? (Choose all that apply)
a) ATP
b) Citrate
c) AMP
d) Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate
6. Which of the following are allosteric regulators of pyruvate kinase? (Choose all that
apply)
a) ATP
b) AMP
c) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
d) NADH
7. Which enzymes in glycolysis are subject to feedback inhibition by ATP? (Choose all that
apply)
a) Hexokinase
b) Phosphofructokinase
c) Aldolase
d) Pyruvate kinase
8. Which of the following reactions in glycolysis produce ATP? (Choose all that apply)
a) 1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate
b) Phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate
c) Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate
d) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate to dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehyde-3-
phosphate
 9. Which of the following are required for the conversion of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to
1,3-bisphosphoglycerate? (Choose all that apply)
a) NAD+
b) ATP
c) Pi (inorganic phosphate)
d) NADH
10. Which of the following molecules are produced in the second phase of glycolysis?
(Choose all that apply)
a) ATP
b) NADH
c) Pyruvate
d) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
11. Which of the following enzymes are responsible for the conversion of glucose to glucose-
6-phosphate? (Choose all that apply)
a) Hexokinase
b) Glucokinase
c) Phosphofructokinase
d) Aldolase
12. Which of the following metabolites can be converted to glucose through
gluconeogenesis? (Choose all that apply)
a) Pyruvate
b) Glycerol
c) Lactic acid
d) Acetyl-CoA
13. Which of the following are associated with the conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to
fructose-1,6-bisphosphate? (Choose all that apply)
a) Phosphofructokinase
b) ATP
c) NADH
d) Hexokinase
14. Which reactions in glycolysis involve the generation of NADH? (Choose all that apply)
a) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
b) Pyruvate to acetyl-CoA
c) Fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
d) Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate
15. Which enzymes are involved in the reversible steps of glycolysis? (Choose all that apply)
a) Hexokinase
b) Phosphofructokinase
c) Aldolase
d) Triosephosphate isomerase

Answers
MCQs Answers:
1. b
2. a
3. b
4. b
5. a
6. b
7. d
8. a
9. c
10. a
11. c
12. b
13. a
14. c
15. a
16. b
17. a
18. a
19. a
20. b
21. c
22. a
23. b
24. a
25. a
26. c
27. a
28. d
29. a
 30. a
MSQs Answers:
1. a, b, c
2. a, b
3. a, b, d
4. a, b, d
5. a, b
6. a, c
7. b, d
8. a, b
9. a, c
10. a, b, d
11. a, b
12. a, b
13. a, b
14. a, b
15. a, c
MCQs (30)
1. What is the starting molecule of the TCA cycle? a) Glucose
b) Acetyl-CoA
c) Pyruvate
d) Citrate
2. Which enzyme catalyzes the conversion of citrate to isocitrate? a) Citrate synthase
b) Aconitase
c) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
d) Succinate dehydrogenase
3. Which compound is produced during the decarboxylation of isocitrate in the TCA
cycle? a) Succinyl-CoA
b) Alpha-ketoglutarate
c) Acetyl-CoA
d) Malate
4. How many ATP molecules are generated per turn of the TCA cycle? a) 1 ATP
b) 2 ATP
c) 3 ATP
d) 4 ATP
5. Which enzyme catalyzes the conversion of succinate to fumarate? a) Succinate
dehydrogenase
b) Fumarase
c) Aconitase
d) Malate dehydrogenase
6. Which molecule is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain? a)
Oxygen
b) Carbon dioxide
c) NAD+
d) FAD
7. Which of the following is a product of the TCA cycle? a) NADH
b) NAD+
c) FAD
d) Pyruvate
8. What is the role of oxaloacetate in the TCA cycle? a) It is formed from acetyl-CoA
b) It is the final product of the cycle
c) It combines with acetyl-CoA to form citrate
d) It is reduced to produce ATP
9. How many NADH molecules are produced in one turn of the TCA cycle? a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
10. Which enzyme in the TCA cycle catalyzes the formation of succinyl-CoA from
alpha-ketoglutarate? a) Succinate dehydrogenase
b) Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
c) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
d) Citrate synthase
11. Which compound is oxidized to form ATP or GTP in the TCA cycle? a) Succinate
b) Citrate
c) Alpha-ketoglutarate
d) Malate
12. How many molecules of CO2 are released per turn of the TCA cycle? a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
13. Which of the following is required to start the TCA cycle? a) Acetyl-CoA
b) Glucose
c) NADH
d) Oxygen
14. What is the role of NAD+ in the TCA cycle? a) It acts as a coenzyme for ATP synthesis
b) It is reduced to NADH
 c) It is converted to FAD
d) It transports electrons to the electron transport chain
15. Which intermediate of the TCA cycle is involved in the formation of amino acids? a)
Citrate
b) Alpha-ketoglutarate
c) Fumarate
d) Succinate
16. Which enzyme catalyzes the conversion of malate to oxaloacetate? a) Malate
dehydrogenase
b) Fumarase
c) Aconitase
d) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
17. Which of the following is NOT a product of the TCA cycle? a) ATP
b) NADH
c) FADH2
d) Glucose
18. What type of reaction is involved in the conversion of succinyl-CoA to succinate? a)
Redox reaction
b) Hydrolysis
c) Phosphorylation
d) Decarboxylation
19. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of acetyl-CoA to citrate? a)
Aconitase
b) Citrate synthase
c) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
d) Succinate dehydrogenase
20. How is the TCA cycle connected to fatty acid metabolism? a) Fatty acids can be
broken down into Acetyl-CoA
b) Fatty acids are converted into glucose
c) Fatty acids enter the TCA cycle directly
d) Fatty acids are used to regenerate NADH
21. What is the net yield of ATP equivalents (ATP + GTP) from one turn of the TCA
cycle? a) 1 ATP
b) 2 ATP
c) 3 ATP
d) 4 ATP
22. Which step in the TCA cycle generates FADH2? a) The conversion of succinate to
fumarate
b) The conversion of isocitrate to alpha-ketoglutarate
c) The conversion of citrate to isocitrate
d) The conversion of oxaloacetate to malate
 23. Which molecule is regenerated in the TCA cycle and is essential for the continuation
of the cycle? a) Acetyl-CoA
b) Oxaloacetate
c) Citrate
d) Alpha-ketoglutarate
24. What is the result of a deficiency in pyruvate dehydrogenase? a) Inhibition of the
TCA cycle
b) Excessive production of lactate
c) Decreased NADH production
d) Increased acetyl-CoA levels
25. Which metabolic pathway does the TCA cycle connect to directly? a) Glycolysis
b) Pentose phosphate pathway
c) Urea cycle
d) Fatty acid synthesis
26. Which of the following intermediates of the TCA cycle is produced by the
decarboxylation of alpha-ketoglutarate? a) Citrate
b) Fumarate
c) Succinyl-CoA
d) Malate
27. What happens to NADH produced in the TCA cycle? a) It is used to produce glucose
b) It is converted into ATP directly
c) It donates electrons to the electron transport chain
d) It is stored for later use
28. Which of the following is NOT an enzyme involved in the TCA cycle? a) Isocitrate
dehydrogenase
b) Phosphofructokinase
c) Malate dehydrogenase
d) Succinyl-CoA synthetase
29. What is the primary purpose of the TCA cycle? a) To generate ATP by substrate-level
phosphorylation
b) To produce intermediates for biosynthesis
c) To generate electron carriers (NADH, FADH2) for oxidative phosphorylation
d) To break down glucose into pyruvate
30. Which molecule is produced by the reduction of FAD in the TCA cycle? a) NADH
b) FADH2
c) ATP
d) Citric acid

MSQs (15)
1. Which of the following enzymes are involved in the TCA cycle?
a) Aconitase
 b) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
c) ATP synthase
d) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
2. Which of the following are products of the TCA cycle per turn?
a) NADH
b) FADH2
c) GTP
d) CO2
3. Which of the following intermediates are involved in the TCA cycle?
a) Malate
b) Glucose
c) Oxaloacetate
d) Acetyl-CoA
4. Which of the following steps in the TCA cycle involve decarboxylation reactions?
a) Conversion of isocitrate to alpha-ketoglutarate
b) Conversion of alpha-ketoglutarate to succinyl-CoA
c) Conversion of succinate to fumarate
d) Conversion of malate to oxaloacetate
5. Which of the following reactions generate NADH in the TCA cycle?
a) Isocitrate to alpha-ketoglutarate
b) Succinate to fumarate
c) Citrate to isocitrate
d) Malate to oxaloacetate
6. Which of the following molecules participate in the electron transport chain as electron
carriers?
a) NADH
b) FADH2
c) Acetyl-CoA
d) Citrate
7. Which of the following statements about the TCA cycle is true?
a) It generates ATP through substrate-level phosphorylation
b) It operates in the cytoplasm
c) It only occurs under anaerobic conditions
d) It generates carbon dioxide as a waste product
8. Which of the following regulatory factors affect the TCA cycle?
a) High levels of ATP
b) NADH
c) Citrate
d) Low levels of oxygen
9. Which of the following enzymes catalyze oxidation reactions in the TCA cycle?
a) Aconitase
b) Malate dehydrogenase
 c) Fumarase
d) Succinate dehydrogenase
10. Which of the following enzymes are regulated in the TCA cycle?
a) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
b) Citrate synthase
c) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
d) Acetyl-CoA synthase
11. Which of the following reactions are catalyzed by enzymes in the TCA cycle?
a) Fumarate to malate
b) Oxaloacetate to acetyl-CoA
c) Succinate to fumarate
d) Glucose to pyruvate
12. Which of the following is a product of oxidative decarboxylation in the TCA cycle?
a) NADH
b) GTP
c) CO2
d) ATP
13. Which of the following molecules can be used to produce ATP via the TCA cycle?
a) Acetyl-CoA
b) Pyruvate
c) Glucose
d) NADH
14. Which of the following intermediates are involved in both the TCA cycle and the urea
cycle?
a) Alpha-ketoglutarate
b) Fumarate
c) Oxaloacetate
d) Succinate
15. Which of the following are required for the functioning of the TCA cycle?
a) Oxygen
b) Acetyl-CoA
c) NAD+
d) Glucose

NAT (10)
1. Calculate the number of NADH molecules produced in one full round of the TCA
cycle from one molecule of glucose.
2. How many molecules of CO2 are produced per molecule of glucose during the TCA
cycle?
 3. Calculate the total ATP equivalents (ATP + GTP) generated from one glucose
molecule in the TCA cycle.
4. If a mutation prevents the conversion of succinate to fumarate in the TCA cycle,
which intermediate will accumulate?
5. How many molecules of FADH2 are produced from one glucose molecule in the TCA
cycle?
6. If the TCA cycle operates at maximum efficiency, how many NADH molecules are
generated per acetyl-CoA molecule?
7. Calculate the number of ATP produced from one acetyl-CoA molecule in the TCA
cycle, assuming NADH and FADH2 are used in oxidative phosphorylation.
8. How much NADH is generated in the conversion of isocitrate to alpha-ketoglutarate
in the TCA cycle?
9. What is the number of high-energy compounds (ATP + NADH + FADH2) produced
from two rounds of the TCA cycle?
10. If the levels of ATP and NADH are high in the cell, how would the activity of citrate
synthase in the TCA cycle be affected?

Answers:

MCQs Answers
1. b
2. b
3. b
4. b
5. a
6. a
7. a
8. c
9. c
10. b
11. a
12. b
13. a
 14. b
15. b
16. a
17. d
18. c
19. b
20. a
21. b
22. a
23. b
24. a
25. a
26. c
27. c
28. b
29. c
30. b

MSQs Answers
1. a, b, d
2. a, b, c, d
3. a, c
4. a, b
5. a, d
6. a, b
7. a, d
8. a, b, c
9. a, b
10. a, b, c, d
11. a, b
 12. a, b
13. a, b
14. a, b, c
15. a, b, c

NAT Answers
1. 6 NADH
2. 6 CO2
3. 2 ATP, 6 NADH, 2 FADH2
4. Succinate
5. 2 FADH2
6. 3 NADH
7. 10 ATP equivalents
8. 1 NADH
9. 2 ATP, 6 NADH, 2 FADH2
10. Decreased activity
4o mini
Certainly! Below are 30 MCQs and 15 MSQs on Oxidative Phosphorylation. The answers will
be provided at the end.

MCQs on Oxidative Phosphorylation

1. Where does oxidative phosphorylation occur in eukaryotic cells? a) Cytoplasm
b) Nucleus
c) Mitochondria
d) Endoplasmic reticulum
2. The proton gradient in oxidative phosphorylation is created across the: a) Outer
mitochondrial membrane
b) Inner mitochondrial membrane
c) Cytoplasm
d) Nucleoplasm
3. What is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain during oxidative
phosphorylation? a) NADH
b) Oxygen
 c) FADH2
d) Water
4. Which enzyme complex directly synthesizes ATP in oxidative phosphorylation? a) ATP
synthase
b) NADH dehydrogenase
c) Cytochrome c reductase
d) Cytochrome c oxidase
5. Which of the following is NOT part of the electron transport chain in mitochondria? a)
NADH dehydrogenase
b) Cytochrome c reductase
c) ATP synthase
d) Succinate dehydrogenase
6. Which molecule donates electrons to Complex I in the electron transport chain? a)
NADH
b) FADH2
c) Oxygen
d) ATP
7. How many protons are pumped across the inner mitochondrial membrane by Complex I?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 3
8. What is the primary role of the proton gradient in oxidative phosphorylation? a) To
produce glucose
b) To synthesize ATP
c) To reduce oxygen
d) To generate NADH
9. What is the result of oxygen accepting electrons in the electron transport chain? a) Water
is formed
b) NADH is synthesized
c) Carbon dioxide is produced
d) ATP is generated
10. The movement of protons through ATP synthase results in the synthesis of: a) Glucose
b) Water
c) ATP
d) NADH
11. Which of the following complexes is involved in the reduction of oxygen to water? a)
Complex I
b) Complex II
c) Complex III
d) Complex IV
12. Which molecule enters the electron transport chain at Complex II? a) NADH
b) FADH2
c) Cytochrome c
d) Oxygen
13. How many ATP molecules are produced for each pair of electrons donated by NADH to
the electron transport chain? a) 1 ATP
b) 2 ATP
c) 3 ATP
d) 4 ATP
14. In which part of the mitochondrion is the proton gradient formed during oxidative
phosphorylation? a) Mitochondrial matrix
b) Intermembrane space
c) Inner mitochondrial membrane
d) Outer mitochondrial membrane
15. The chemical energy of NADH and FADH2 is ultimately converted into: a) Glucose
b) ATP
c) Oxygen
d) Acetyl-CoA
16. Which of the following inhibits ATP synthase? a) Cyanide
b) Oligomycin
c) Carbon monoxide
d) Rotenone
17. What is the function of cytochrome c in the electron transport chain? a) It synthesizes
ATP
b) It donates electrons to Complex IV
c) It pumps protons across the membrane
d) It reduces NAD+ to NADH
18. Which of the following is the most efficient pathway for ATP production? a) Glycolysis
b) Fermentation
c) Oxidative phosphorylation
d) Citric acid cycle
19. How is the flow of protons through ATP synthase coupled to ATP synthesis? a) Proton
flow drives the phosphorylation of ADP
b) Proton flow generates heat
c) Proton flow reduces NADH to NAD+
d) Proton flow breaks down glucose
20. What type of transport is responsible for the movement of electrons through the electron
transport chain? a) Active transport
b) Facilitated diffusion
c) Simple diffusion
d) Electron transport
21. How many protons are pumped across the inner mitochondrial membrane for each
NADH molecule oxidized? a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 5
22. The ATP synthase enzyme in the mitochondrial inner membrane is also known as: a)
Complex V
b) Complex I
c) Cytochrome c
d) NADH dehydrogenase
23. Which of the following is a product of oxidative phosphorylation? a) Carbon dioxide
b) Oxygen
c) Glucose
d) ATP
24. Which of the following compounds is an electron donor to the electron transport chain?
a) NADH
b) Oxygen
c) ATP
d) FAD
25. Which of the following is a consequence of blocking the electron transport chain at
Complex I? a) Increased ATP production
b) Decreased proton gradient
c) Increased NADH levels
d) Increased oxygen consumption
26. In which step of oxidative phosphorylation does oxygen participate? a) Complex I
b) Complex III
c) Complex IV
d) Complex II
27. The proton motive force generated in the mitochondrion is used for: a) Active transport
b) ATP synthesis
c) DNA replication
d) Protein synthesis
28. Which of the following inhibitors of oxidative phosphorylation affects the proton
gradient? a) Oligomycin
b) Rotenone
c) Cyanide
d) Carbon monoxide
29. The electron transport chain and ATP synthesis are coupled by: a) NADH
b) The proton gradient
c) ATP
d) FADH2
 30. Which of the following is the primary role of the mitochondrial matrix in oxidative
phosphorylation? a) It generates ATP
b) It pumps protons into the intermembrane space
c) It acts as a reservoir for NADH and FADH2
d) It serves as the site for the citric acid cycle and electron transport

MSQs on Oxidative Phosphorylation

1. Which of the following are components of the electron transport chain? (Select all that
apply) a) NADH dehydrogenase
b) Cytochrome c
c) ATP synthase
d) Succinate dehydrogenase
2. Which of the following are true about ATP synthase in oxidative phosphorylation? (Select
all that apply) a) It synthesizes ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate
b) It is located in the outer mitochondrial membrane
c) It uses the proton gradient to drive ATP production
d) It is involved in the electron transport chain
3. Which of the following molecules are required for oxidative phosphorylation? (Select all
that apply) a) NADH
b) Oxygen
c) Glucose
d) FADH2
4. Which of the following inhibitors affect oxidative phosphorylation? (Select all that apply)
a) Cyanide
b) Rotenone
c) Oligomycin
d) Carbon monoxide
5. The following are true about the electron transport chain. (Select all that apply) a) It
occurs in the mitochondrial inner membrane
b) It generates a proton gradient across the membrane
c) Oxygen is directly involved in the process
d) It produces NADH for ATP synthesis
6. Which of the following complexes in the electron transport chain are involved in proton
pumping? (Select all that apply) a) Complex I
b) Complex II
c) Complex III
d) Complex IV
7. Which of the following are products of oxidative phosphorylation? (Select all that apply)
a) ATP
b) Water
 c) NADH
d) Oxygen
8. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the role of oxygen in oxidative
phosphorylation? (Select all that apply) a) Oxygen is reduced to water
b) Oxygen accepts electrons from cytochrome c
c) Oxygen is involved in proton pumping
d) Oxygen serves as the final electron acceptor in the chain
9. Which of the following describe the role of the proton gradient in oxidative
phosphorylation? (Select all that apply) a) It drives ATP synthesis through ATP synthase
b) It provides energy for the transport of electrons
c) It stores potential energy in the mitochondrial matrix
d) It helps in the reduction of NADH to NAD+
10. Which of the following statements are true about the role of NADH in oxidative
phosphorylation? (Select all that apply) a) NADH donates electrons to Complex I
b) NADH is oxidized to NAD+ during electron transfer
c) NADH directly synthesizes ATP
d) NADH is the final electron acceptor
11. Which of the following components of the electron transport chain are involved in
oxygen reduction to form water? (Select all that apply) a) Cytochrome c oxidase
b) NADH dehydrogenase
c) ATP synthase
d) Cytochrome c
12. Which of the following molecules participate in the formation of the proton gradient?
(Select all that apply) a) NADH
b) Oxygen
c) Cytochrome c
d) ATP synthase
13. Which of the following are true about the flow of electrons in the electron transport
chain? (Select all that apply) a) Electrons flow from NADH to oxygen
b) Electrons flow from Complex I to Complex IV
c) Electrons are passed through cytochrome c
d) Electrons are passed to NADH
14. Which of the following affect ATP production in oxidative phosphorylation? (Select all
that apply) a) Proton gradient
b) ATP synthase activity
c) NADH availability
d) Oxygen availability
15. Which of the following accurately describe the process of oxidative phosphorylation?
(Select all that apply) a) It occurs in the mitochondria
b) It requires oxygen as the final electron acceptor
c) It involves the synthesis of glucose
d) It generates energy by creating a proton gradient
Answers
MCQs:
1. c) Mitochondria
2. b) Inner mitochondrial membrane
3. b) Oxygen
4. a) ATP synthase
5. c) ATP synthase
6. a) NADH
7. b) 4
8. b) To synthesize ATP
9. a) Water is formed
10. c) ATP
11. d) Complex IV
12. b) FADH2
13. c) 3 ATP
14. b) Intermembrane space
15. b) ATP
16. b) Oligomycin
17. b) It donates electrons to Complex IV
18. c) Oxidative phosphorylation
19. a) Proton flow drives the phosphorylation of ADP
20. d) Electron transport
21. b) 4
22. a) Complex V
23. d) ATP
24. a) NADH
25. b) Decreased proton gradient
26. c) Complex IV
27. b) ATP synthesis
 28. a) Oligomycin
29. b) The proton gradient
30. c) It serves as the site for the citric acid cycle and electron transport
MSQs:
1. a, b, c
2. a, c, d
3. a, b, d
4. a, b, c
5. a, b, c
6. a, c, d
7. a, b
8. a, d
9. a, b
10. a, b
11. a, d
12. a, c
13. a, b
14. a, b, c
15. a, b
Hope this helps!
4o mini
Here are 30 MCQs and 15 MSQs on Photosynthesis and Nitrogen Fixation, with answers at the
end.

Photosynthesis
MCQs (30 Questions)
1. Where does the light reaction of photosynthesis occur in plant cells?
o a) Mitochondria
o b) Nucleus
o c) Chloroplast
o d) Golgi apparatus
2. What is the main pigment involved in photosynthesis?
o a) Carotenoids
o b) Chlorophyll
o c) Phycobilins
o d) Xanthophylls
3. Which of the following is produced during the light-dependent reactions of
photosynthesis?
o a) NADH
o b) Oxygen
o c) Glucose
o d) ATP
4. What is the final electron acceptor in the light reactions of photosynthesis?
o a) NADP+
o b) Oxygen
o c) ATP
o d) Glucose
5. What is the Calvin Cycle also known as?
o a) Dark reactions
o b) Light reactions
o c) Photosystem II
o d) Photosystem I
6. Which molecule is fixed in the Calvin Cycle?
o a) Oxygen
o b) Carbon dioxide
o c) Glucose
o d) Water
7. Which enzyme catalyzes the fixation of carbon dioxide in the Calvin Cycle?
o a) Rubisco
o b) ATP synthase
o c) Phosphofructokinase
o d) NADP+ reductase
8. What is the primary role of chlorophyll in photosynthesis?
o a) To act as an electron donor
o b) To absorb light energy
o c) To synthesize glucose
o d) To produce oxygen
9. How many molecules of ATP are produced in the light reactions of photosynthesis?
o a) 2
o b) 6
o c) 12
o d) 18
10. Which of the following is not a product of the light-dependent reactions?
o a) NADPH
o b) Oxygen
o c) Glucose
o d) ATP
11. Which is the main electron carrier in the light reactions of photosynthesis?
o a) NADP+
o b) FAD
o c) NADH
o d) Coenzyme A
12. Where does the oxygen produced during photosynthesis come from?
o a) Water molecules
o b) Carbon dioxide
o c) Glucose
o d) Sunlight
13. What happens to the ATP produced during the light reactions of photosynthesis?
o a) It is used in the Calvin Cycle
o b) It is stored in chloroplasts
o c) It is converted to NADPH
o d) It is used in the production of glucose
14. Which of the following processes occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast?
o a) Electron transport chain
o b) Calvin Cycle
o c) Photosystem I
o d) Photosystem II
15. What is the role of NADP+ in photosynthesis?
o a) To transport carbon dioxide
o b) To act as an electron carrier
o c) To fix glucose
o d) To absorb light energy
16. What is the role of the thylakoid membrane in the chloroplast?
o a) To store glucose
o b) To house the Calvin Cycle
o c) To facilitate light reactions
o d) To regulate enzyme activity
17. Which light wavelength is most efficiently absorbed by chlorophyll for
photosynthesis?
o a) Green
o b) Red
o c) Blue
o d) Yellow
18. What is the primary product of the Calvin Cycle?
o a) ATP
o b) NADPH
o c) Glucose
o d) Oxygen
19. What molecule is reduced during the light-dependent reactions?
o a) NADP+
o b) Oxygen
o c) ATP
o d) CO2
20. Which of the following statements about photosystem II is correct?
o a) It produces NADPH
o b) It is involved in the splitting of water molecules
o c) It produces ATP directly
o d) It occurs in the stroma
21. What happens during the non-cyclic photophosphorylation in photosynthesis?
o a) Water molecules are oxidized
o b) Only ATP is produced
o c) NADPH is produced without ATP
o d) Only glucose is produced
22. What is the primary function of the light-independent reactions (Calvin Cycle)?
o a) To convert solar energy into chemical energy
o b) To fix carbon dioxide into organic molecules
o c) To synthesize glucose
o d) To release oxygen
23. What is the electron transport chain's function in photosynthesis?
o a) To generate NADPH
o b) To generate ATP
o c) To absorb sunlight
o d) To split water molecules
24. Which of the following is true about C4 plants?
o a) They fix carbon only at night
o b) They perform photosynthesis more efficiently in hot, dry climates
o c) They have a lower rate of water loss than C3 plants
o d) They do not use rubisco in their Calvin Cycle
25. Which molecule is regenerated in the Calvin Cycle and used again for carbon
fixation?
o a) Acetyl-CoA
o b) Oxaloacetate
o c) Ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP)
o d) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P)
 26. Which of the following is a product of the light reactions in photosynthesis?
o a) Glucose
o b) NADPH
o c) Pyruvate
o d) Water
27. What is the role of ATP in the Calvin Cycle?
o a) To provide energy for the reduction of carbon molecules
o b) To produce glucose
o c) To capture solar energy
o d) To split water molecules
28. Which of the following best describes the Z-scheme in photosynthesis?
o a) It is the pathway through which glucose is synthesized
o b) It is the pathway by which electrons move through the photosystems
o c) It is the cycle for the production of NADPH
o d) It is the mechanism of ATP synthesis
29. Which structure in plant cells contains the photosynthetic pigments?
o a) Mitochondria
o b) Chloroplasts
o c) Ribosomes
o d) Endoplasmic reticulum
30. Which of the following is the main source of energy for photosynthesis?
o a) Glucose
o b) Carbon dioxide
o c) Sunlight
o d) Oxygen

Nitrogen Fixation
MCQs (15 Questions)
1. What is the primary enzyme involved in nitrogen fixation?
o a) Nitrogenase
 o b) Rubisco
o c) Hexokinase
o d) ATP synthase
2. Which organism is capable of nitrogen fixation?
o a) Fungi
o b) Bacteria
o c) Animals
o d) Viruses
3. In which part of the plant does nitrogen fixation occur in leguminous plants?
o a) Roots
o b) Leaves
o c) Stem
o d) Flowers
4. What is the form of nitrogen that plants can directly assimilate?
o a) Nitrate (NO₃⁻)
o b) Nitrite (NO₂⁻)
o c) Ammonia (NH₃)
o d) Nitrogen gas (N₂)
5. Which molecule is reduced to ammonia during nitrogen fixation?
o a) Nitrite (NO₂⁻)
o b) Nitrate (NO₃⁻)
o c) Nitrogen gas (N₂)
o d) Glucose
6. What is the role of leghemoglobin in nitrogen fixation?
o a) To transport nitrogen
o b) To protect nitrogenase from oxygen
o c) To fix nitrogen
o d) To synthesize ATP
7. Which of the following is a symbiotic nitrogen-fixing bacterium?
o a) Rhizobium
 o b) Escherichia coli
o c) Bacillus subtilis
o d) Streptococcus pyogenes
8. Which form of nitrogen is absorbed by plants after nitrogen fixation?
o a) Nitrate
o b) Nitrogen gas
o c) Ammonium
o d) Ureide
9. What happens to the nitrogenous compounds produced during nitrogen fixation?
o a) They are used in the synthesis of amino acids and proteins
o b) They are stored in vacuoles
o c) They are converted to glucose
o d) They are excreted by the plant
10. What is the energy source required for nitrogen fixation?
o a) Light energy
o b) Chemical energy in the form of ATP
o c) Carbon dioxide
o d) Water
11. Which of the following plants forms a symbiotic relationship with nitrogen-fixing
bacteria?
o a) Sunflower
o b) Pea
o c) Rose
o d) Cactus
12. Which gas is produced as a byproduct of nitrogen fixation?
o a) Oxygen
o b) Nitrogen dioxide
o c) Hydrogen
o d) Carbon dioxide
13. What is the significance of nitrogen fixation in agriculture?
o a) It helps to increase crop yield by providing free nitrogen
 o b) It reduces the need for organic fertilizers
o c) It helps in the growth of non-leguminous crops
o d) It improves soil texture
14. Which of the following is NOT required for nitrogen fixation?
o a) Nitrogenase
o b) Oxygen
o c) ATP
o d) Molybdenum
15. Which of the following organisms fix nitrogen without a symbiotic relationship with
plants?
o a) Cyanobacteria
o b) Rhizobium
o c) Frankia
o d) Both a and b

Answers
Photosynthesis:
1. c) Chloroplast
2. b) Chlorophyll
3. b) Oxygen
4. a) NADP+
5. a) Dark reactions
6. b) Carbon dioxide
7. a) Rubisco
8. b) To absorb light energy
9. b) 6
10. c) Glucose
11. a) NADP+
12. a) Water molecules
13. a) It is used in the Calvin Cycle
14. b) Calvin Cycle
 15. b) To act as an electron carrier
16. c) To facilitate light reactions
17. b) Red
18. c) Glucose
19. a) NADP+
20. b) It is involved in the splitting of water molecules
21. a) Water molecules are oxidized
22. b) To fix carbon dioxide into organic molecules
23. b) To generate ATP
24. b) They perform photosynthesis more efficiently in hot, dry climates
25. c) Ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP)
26. b) NADPH
27. a) To provide energy for the reduction of carbon molecules
28. b) It is the pathway by which electrons move through the photosystems
29. b) Chloroplasts
30. c) Sunlight
Nitrogen Fixation:
1. a) Nitrogenase
2. b) Bacteria
3. a) Roots
4. a) Nitrate (NO₃⁻)
5. c) Nitrogen gas (N₂)
6. b) To protect nitrogenase from oxygen
7. a) Rhizobium
8. a) Nitrate
9. a) They are used in the synthesis of amino acids and proteins
10. b) Chemical energy in the form of ATP
11. b) Pea
12. c) Hydrogen
13. a) It helps to increase crop yield by providing free nitrogen
 14. b) Oxygen
15. a) Cyanobacteria

4o mini
MCQs on Urea Cycle
1. Where does the urea cycle primarily occur in the body? a) Cytoplasm
b) Mitochondria
c) Nucleus
d) Ribosome
2. Which organ is primarily responsible for the urea cycle? a) Heart
b) Brain
c) Kidney
d) Liver
3. Which of the following is the first molecule formed in the urea cycle? a) Citrulline
b) Arginine
c) Carbamoyl phosphate
d) Urea
4. What is the main function of the urea cycle? a) Glucose synthesis
b) Ammonia detoxification
c) Fatty acid metabolism
d) ATP production
5. Which enzyme catalyzes the conversion of ammonia and bicarbonate to carbamoyl
phosphate? a) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
b) Ornithine transcarbamoylase
c) Arginase
d) Glutamine synthetase
6. Which molecule combines with carbamoyl phosphate to form citrulline? a) Aspartate
b) Glutamate
c) Ornithine
d) Arginine
7. Where is the carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I enzyme found? a) Cytoplasm
b) Mitochondria
c) Endoplasmic reticulum
d) Nucleus
8. What is the immediate product formed from citrulline in the urea cycle? a) Arginine
b) Ornithine
c) Argininosuccinate
d) Fumarate
9. Which enzyme catalyzes the conversion of citrulline to argininosuccinate? a)
Arginase
b) Aspartate transaminase
c) Argininosuccinate synthetase
d) Fumarase
10. Which amino acid is used to form argininosuccinate in the urea cycle? a) Glutamine
b) Asparagine
c) Aspartate
d) Glutamate
11. What is the final product of the urea cycle? a) Fumarate
b) Citrulline
c) Arginine
d) Urea
12. Which enzyme is responsible for converting argininosuccinate to fumarate and
arginine? a) Arginase
b) Argininosuccinate lyase
c) Ornithine transcarbamoylase
d) Citrate synthase
13. What happens to the urea produced by the urea cycle? a) It is excreted in the urine
b) It is used in protein synthesis
c) It is converted into amino acids
d) It is stored in the liver
14. Which of the following is NOT involved in the urea cycle? a) Fumarate
b) Aspartate
c) Glutamate
d) GTP
15. How many ATP molecules are consumed in one complete cycle of the urea cycle? a)
1 ATP
b) 2 ATP
c) 3 ATP
d) 4 ATP
16. Which of the following intermediate molecules is released during the urea cycle and
is used in other metabolic pathways? a) Fumarate
b) Citrulline
c) Urea
d) Glutamine
17. What is the role of ornithine in the urea cycle? a) It activates carbamoyl phosphate
synthetase
b) It combines with carbamoyl phosphate to form citrulline
c) It converts citrulline to arginine
d) It helps in the production of urea
18. What is the effect of increased ammonia levels in the body? a) Increased urea
production
b) Decreased urea production
c) Accumulation of toxic ammonia
d) Decreased protein synthesis
19. Which of the following statements is true about the urea cycle? a) It occurs only in
the cytoplasm
b) It requires oxygen
c) It is a mechanism for detoxifying ammonia
d) It produces glucose
20. Which molecule acts as the final electron acceptor in the urea cycle? a) NAD+
b) FAD
c) Oxygen
d) Urea
21. Which of the following is an allosteric activator of carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
I? a) AMP
b) ATP
c) GTP
d) NADH
22. What is the main metabolic function of the urea cycle? a) Oxidizing glucose
b) Detoxifying ammonia
c) Synthesis of nucleic acids
d) Metabolizing fatty acids
23. Which of the following intermediates in the urea cycle is also a part of the citric acid
cycle? a) Fumarate
b) Citrulline
c) Arginine
d) Aspartate
24. Which of the following enzymes is responsible for the final step in the urea cycle,
converting arginine to urea? a) Arginase
b) Ornithine transcarbamoylase
c) Argininosuccinate lyase
d) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II
25. What is the effect of elevated urea cycle intermediates on the cycle? a) Negative
feedback regulation
b) Increased ammonia detoxification
c) Increased energy production
d) Inhibition of protein synthesis
26. In which part of the cell does the urea cycle begin? a) Cytoplasm
b) Mitochondria
c) Ribosomes
d) Nucleus
 27. Which enzyme is inhibited by high levels of N-acetylglutamate? a) Carbamoyl
phosphate synthetase I
b) Ornithine transcarbamoylase
c) Arginase
d) Argininosuccinate lyase
28. How does the urea cycle impact protein metabolism? a) It helps in protein synthesis
b) It removes excess nitrogen from amino acid metabolism
c) It breaks down proteins into amino acids
d) It regulates lipid synthesis
29. Which molecule is synthesized as an intermediate in the urea cycle and is essential
for the recycling of nitrogen? a) Aspartate
b) Glutamine
c) Ornithine
d) Citrulline
30. Which of the following is a byproduct of the urea cycle that is excreted from the
body? a) Urea
b) Fumarate
c) Acetyl-CoA
d) Pyruvate

MSQs on Urea Cycle

1. Which of the following are products of the urea cycle? a) Urea
b) Citrulline
c) Fumarate
d) ATP
2. Which of the following are involved in the urea cycle? a) Aspartate
b) Carbamoyl phosphate
c) NADPH
d) Argininosuccinate
3. Which enzymes are involved in the urea cycle? a) Arginase
b) Ornithine transcarbamoylase
c) Citrate synthase
d) Argininosuccinate synthetase
4. Which of the following molecules are required for the synthesis of carbamoyl
phosphate? a) ATP
b) Ammonia
c) Aspartate
d) Bicarbonate
5. Which amino acids are involved in the urea cycle? a) Glutamine
b) Aspartate
 c) Glutamate
d) Ornithine
6. Which of the following enzymes regulate the urea cycle? a) Carbamoyl phosphate
synthetase I
b) Arginase
c) Pyruvate kinase
d) Hexokinase
7. Which of the following are the roles of fumarate in the urea cycle? a) Produced as an
intermediate
b) Converts to oxaloacetate
c) Regenerates ATP
d) Re-enters the citric acid cycle
8. Which of the following are true regarding the urea cycle? a) It occurs only in the liver
b) It requires ATP
c) It produces glucose
d) It detoxifies ammonia
9. Which of the following molecules can stimulate carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
activity? a) GTP
b) ATP
c) NAD+
d) Acetyl-CoA
10. Which of the following are feedback inhibitors of the urea cycle? a) Urea
b) Arginine
c) Citrulline
d) Ornithine
11. Which molecules are involved in the transfer of nitrogen in the urea cycle? a)
Glutamate
b) Aspartate
c) Ammonia
d) Fumarate
12. Which of the following are true regarding urea cycle regulation? a) High levels of
ammonia activate carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
b) High levels of ATP inhibit the urea cycle
c) High levels of urea stimulate the cycle
d) High levels of glutamate inhibit carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
13. Which of the following are intermediates in the urea cycle? a) Ornithine
b) Citrulline
c) Fumarate
d) Pyruvate
14. Which of the following are products of the conversion of argininosuccinate to
arginine? a) Arginine
 b) Fumarate
c) ATP
d) Ammonia
15. Which of the following enzymes can be inhibited by high levels of N-
acetylglutamate? a) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
b) Arginase
c) Ornithine transcarbamoylase
d) Argininosuccinate synthetase

Answers
MCQs:
1. b) Mitochondria
2. d) Liver
3. c) Carbamoyl phosphate
4. b) Ammonia detoxification
5. a) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
6. c) Ornithine
7. b) Mitochondria
8. c) Argininosuccinate
9. c) Argininosuccinate synthetase
10. c) Aspartate
11. d) Urea
12. b) Argininosuccinate lyase
13. a) It is excreted in the urine
14. d) GTP
15. b) 2 ATP
16. a) Fumarate
17. b) It combines with carbamoyl phosphate to form citrulline
18. c) Accumulation of toxic ammonia
19. c) It is a mechanism for detoxifying ammonia
20. a) NAD+
21. b) ATP
 22. b) Detoxifying ammonia
23. a) Fumarate
24. a) Arginase
25. a) Negative feedback regulation
26. b) Mitochondria
27. a) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
28. b) It removes excess nitrogen from amino acid metabolism
29. c) Ornithine
30. a) Urea
MSQs:
1. a, b, c
2. a, b, d
3. a, b, d
4. a, b, d
5. b, c, d
6. a, b
7. a, b, d
8. a, b
9. a, b, d
10. a, b
11. a, b
12. a, b
13. a, b
14. a, b
15. a, b
4o mini
MCQs (30)
1. Which enzyme is the key regulatory enzyme of glycolysis? a) Hexokinase
b) Pyruvate kinase
c) Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)
d) Aldolase
2. How does ATP influence phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1) in glycolysis? a) Allosteric
inhibitor
b) Allosteric activator
c) No effect
d) Competitive inhibitor
3. Which of the following is a positive regulator of phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)? a)
Citrate
b) ATP
c) Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate
d) NADH
4. Which molecule inhibits pyruvate kinase during glycolysis? a) ATP
b) ADP
c) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
d) NADH
5. Which enzyme catalyzes the conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in glycolysis?
a) Phosphofructokinase
b) Hexokinase
c) Aldolase
d) Pyruvate kinase
6. What is the effect of increased AMP levels on glycolysis? a) Inhibition of glycolysis
b) Activation of glycolysis
c) No effect
d) Inhibition of pyruvate kinase
7. What is the role of fructose-2,6-bisphosphate in the regulation of glycolysis? a) Activates
pyruvate kinase
b) Inhibits phosphofructokinase-1
c) Inhibits hexokinase
d) Activates phosphofructokinase-1
8. Which enzyme is responsible for converting pyruvate to acetyl-CoA, linking glycolysis
and the TCA cycle? a) Pyruvate decarboxylase
b) Pyruvate kinase
c) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
d) Citrate synthase
9. How is pyruvate dehydrogenase complex regulated? a) Allosteric inhibition by NADH
and acetyl-CoA
b) Phosphorylation by pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
10. In the TCA cycle, which enzyme is inhibited by high levels of ATP? a) Isocitrate
dehydrogenase
b) Succinate dehydrogenase
 c) Citrate synthase
d) Malate dehydrogenase
11. How does NADH regulate the TCA cycle? a) Allosteric activation of isocitrate
dehydrogenase
b) Allosteric inhibition of isocitrate dehydrogenase
c) Activation of citrate synthase
d) Inhibition of pyruvate dehydrogenase
12. Which of the following inhibits citrate synthase in the TCA cycle? a) ATP
b) NADH
c) Acetyl-CoA
d) Both a and b
13. What effect does high levels of acetyl-CoA have on the TCA cycle? a) Activates pyruvate
dehydrogenase
b) Inhibits citrate synthase
c) Inhibits pyruvate kinase
d) Activates succinate dehydrogenase
14. What is the primary regulator of the TCA cycle under low energy conditions? a) NADH
b) ADP
c) ATP
d) Acetyl-CoA
15. How does the presence of oxygen influence the regulation of glycolysis and the TCA
cycle? a) Oxygen increases the activity of glycolysis
b) Oxygen activates the TCA cycle
c) Oxygen inhibits glycolysis
d) Oxygen has no effect on these pathways
16. Which of the following is a feedback inhibitor of the TCA cycle? a) Citrate
b) NADH
c) ATP
d) Both b and c
17. What is the function of pyruvate kinase in glycolysis regulation? a) Catalyzes the
conversion of PEP to pyruvate
b) Regulates the conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate
c) Inhibits phosphofructokinase-1
d) Activates isocitrate dehydrogenase
18. How does fructose-2,6-bisphosphate influence glycolysis and gluconeogenesis? a)
Activates glycolysis and inhibits gluconeogenesis
b) Inhibits glycolysis and activates gluconeogenesis
c) Activates both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis
d) Inhibits both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis
19. What happens to the activity of phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1) when ATP levels are
high? a) PFK-1 is activated
 b) PFK-1 is inhibited
c) PFK-1 activity remains unchanged
d) PFK-1 is completely inactivated
20. Which enzyme of the TCA cycle is regulated by both NADH and ATP? a) Succinyl-CoA
synthetase
b) Citrate synthase
c) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
d) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
21. Which molecule is required to activate pyruvate dehydrogenase? a) NADH
b) Acetyl-CoA
c) Calcium ions
d) ATP
22. In the regulation of the TCA cycle, what effect does high levels of ADP have? a) Inhibits
pyruvate kinase
b) Activates isocitrate dehydrogenase
c) Inhibits citrate synthase
d) No effect on the cycle
23. What is the result of phosphorylation of pyruvate dehydrogenase? a) Activation of the
enzyme
b) Inactivation of the enzyme
c) No change in the activity
d) Decrease in acetyl-CoA production
24. What role does calcium play in the regulation of the TCA cycle? a) Inhibits isocitrate
dehydrogenase
b) Activates pyruvate kinase
c) Activates pyruvate dehydrogenase
d) Inhibits citrate synthase
25. Which molecule stimulates the TCA cycle by promoting the activity of pyruvate
dehydrogenase? a) NADH
b) Acetyl-CoA
c) Calcium
d) ATP
26. How is the TCA cycle regulated during fasting conditions? a) Increased ATP production
b) Decreased acetyl-CoA levels
c) Increased ADP levels
d) Inhibition of citrate synthase
27. Which compound is produced during glycolysis and feeds into the TCA cycle? a) Acetyl-
CoA
b) Pyruvate
c) NADH
d) FADH2
 28. Which molecule is an activator of phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)? a) NADH
b) ATP
c) AMP
d) Citrate
29. What is the effect of high levels of citrate on glycolysis? a) Inhibition of
phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)
b) Activation of pyruvate kinase
c) Activation of phosphofructokinase-2
d) No effect
30. How is phosphofructokinase-2 regulated in response to energy needs? a) Activation by
high glucose levels
b) Inactivation by low glucose levels
c) Activation by high ATP levels
d) Activation by insulin

MSQs (15)
1. Which of the following molecules inhibit glycolysis? a) ATP
b) NADH
c) Citrate
d) Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate
2. Which of the following regulate pyruvate dehydrogenase? a) NADH
b) Acetyl-CoA
c) Calcium ions
d) ADP
3. Which enzymes are involved in the regulation of glycolysis? a) Hexokinase
b) Phosphofructokinase-1
c) Pyruvate kinase
d) Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate
4. Which of the following molecules regulate the TCA cycle? a) NADH
b) ATP
c) Citrate
d) Calcium ions
5. Which enzymes are inhibited by ATP in the TCA cycle? a) Citrate synthase
b) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
c) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
d) Succinate dehydrogenase
6. Which molecules activate the TCA cycle? a) ADP
b) NAD+
c) Calcium ions
d) ATP
 7. Which of the following are allosteric inhibitors of phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)? a)
ATP
b) Citrate
c) NADH
d) Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate
8. Which molecules activate pyruvate dehydrogenase? a) Calcium ions
b) ADP
c) Acetyl-CoA
d) NADH
9. Which enzyme in the TCA cycle is regulated by NADH levels? a) Citrate synthase
b) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
c) Succinate dehydrogenase
d) Malate dehydrogenase
10. Which molecule regulates phosphofructokinase-2 (PFK-2)? a) Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate
b) Insulin
c) Glucagon
d) NADH
11. Which of the following influence pyruvate kinase activity? a) AMP
b) ATP
c) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
d) Citrate
12. Which of the following affect the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex? a) NADH
b) Acetyl-CoA
c) Calcium ions
d) ATP
13. Which molecules activate phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)? a) AMP
b) ATP
c) NADH
d) Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate
14. How is the TCA cycle regulated by feedback inhibition? a) ATP and NADH inhibit key
enzymes
b) Citrate activates pyruvate dehydrogenase
c) AMP inhibits citrate synthase
d) Calcium ions increase NADH levels
15. Which enzymes are regulated by ATP levels in the TCA cycle? a) Citrate synthase
b) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
c) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
d) Malate dehydrogenase

Answers:
MCQs Answers:
1. c) Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)
2. a) Allosteric inhibitor
3. c) Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate
4. a) ATP
5. b) Hexokinase
6. b) Activation of glycolysis
7. d) Activates phosphofructokinase-1
8. c) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
9. c) Both a and b
10. a) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
11. b) Allosteric inhibition of isocitrate dehydrogenase
12. d) Both a and b
13. b) Inhibits citrate synthase
14. b) ADP
15. b) Activates the TCA cycle
16. d) Both b and c
17. a) Catalyzes the conversion of PEP to pyruvate
18. a) Activates glycolysis and inhibits gluconeogenesis
19. b) PFK-1 is inhibited
20. a) Succinyl-CoA synthetase
21. c) Calcium
22. b) Activates isocitrate dehydrogenase
23. b) Inactivation of the enzyme
24. c) Activates pyruvate dehydrogenase
25. c) Calcium
26. c) Increased ADP levels
27. b) Pyruvate
28. c) AMP
29. a) Inhibition of phosphofructokinase-1
 30. d) Activation by insulin
MSQs Answers:
1. a) ATP, b) NADH, c) Citrate
2. a) NADH, b) Acetyl-CoA, c) Calcium ions
3. a) Hexokinase, b) Phosphofructokinase-1, c) Pyruvate kinase
4. a) NADH, b) ATP, c) Citrate, d) Calcium ions
5. a) Citrate synthase, b) Isocitrate dehydrogenase, c) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
6. a) ADP, b) NAD+, c) Calcium ions
7. a) ATP, b) Citrate, c) NADH
8. a) Calcium ions, b) ADP, c) Acetyl-CoA
9. b) Isocitrate dehydrogenase, d) Malate dehydrogenase
10. a) Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate, b) Insulin, c) Glucagon
11. a) AMP, b) ATP, c) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
12. a) NADH, b) Acetyl-CoA, c) Calcium ions
13. a) AMP, b) ATP, d) Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate
14. a) ATP and NADH inhibit key enzymes
15. a) Citrate synthase, b) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
4o mini