FEB - 34213/II

Life Science
Paper II
Time Allowed : 75 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 100
Note : This Paper contains Fifty (50) multiple choice questions, each question
carries Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1. Which one of the following is not a 3. Organelle found in plant seeds that

modification of a compound light oxidise stored lipids as source

of carbon and energy for growth

microscope ?
are :
(A) Phase contrast microscope
(A) peroxisomes
(B) Fluorescence microscope
(B) chloroplasts
(C) Electron microscope
(C) glyoxysomes
(D) Dark-field microscope
(D) lysosomes
2. In Drosophila melanogaster, sex is
4. Which of the following represents
determined by :
mammalian mitotic cyclins ?

(A) X and Y chromosomes

(A) Cyclins A and D

(B) X/A ratio

(B) Cyclins B and D

(C) Ploidy (C) Cyclins E and B

(D) Z and W chromosomes (D) Cyclins A and B

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5. The valency of Immunoglobulin M 8. GIUT 1 is a well studied example

molecule is : of a protein that mediates :

(A) 8 (A) active transport

(B) 10 (B) facilitated diffusion

(C) 12
(C) osmosis

(D) 14
(D) differentiation
6. Bivalent formation and crossing
9. Cadherins are a family of cell
over take place during :
adhesion molecules dependent on :
(A) Zygotene
(A) Ca2+
(B) Pachytene
(B) K1+
(C) Diplotene
(C) Na1+
(D) Leptotene
(D) Mg2+
7. Induction of new blood vessels that
10. Cellulose is formed by repeated units
invade the tumor and nourish it is

known as : of :

(A) metastasis (A) glucose and galactose

(B) neogenesis (B) galactose

(C) angiogenesis (C) glucose

(D) extravasation (D) fructose

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13. Which one of the following is not a

11. The acetyl groups required for
proton pump ?
cytoplasmic fatty acid biosynthesis
(A) NADH-Q reductase
generated due to activity of :
(B) Succinate-Q reductase

(A) citrate lyase

(C) Cytochrome C reductase

(B) citrate synthase (D) Cytochrome oxidase

14. Two molecules of double stranded

(C) isocitrate lyase
DNA have same length (1000
(D) isocitrate dehydrogenase basepairs) but differ in base

composition. Molecule 1 contains

12. A non-competitive inhibitor :
20% A + T, molecule 2 contains 60%
(A) increases Km and Vmax both
A + T. Which molecule has a higher

(B) decreases Km and increases Tm and how many C residues are

there in molecule 2 ?
Vmax
(A) 1 ; 400
(C) decreases Km and Vmax both
(B) 1 ; 200

(D) Km remains unaltered, Vmax (C) 2 ; 400

decreases (D) 2 ; 40

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15. Which of the following is NOT

17. Which of the following does not
involved in the lagging strand
inhibit translation ?
synthesis ?

(A) RNaseA (A) chloramphenicol

(B) Primase
(B) streptomycin
(C) Reverse Transcriptase

(C) tetracycline
(D) DNA Pol I

16. There are three kinds of RNA (D) rifampicin

polymerases (I, II, III) in eukaryotic

18. For a spontaneous reaction ∆G
cells, each specific for one class of

RNA molecule (mRNA, tRNA and should be :

rRNA). Which of the following is a

(A) positive
correct match ?

(A) I-rRNA, II-tRNA (B) negative

(B) II-mRNA, III-rRNA

(C) equal to zero
(C) I-rRNA, II-mRNA

(D) I-tRNA, III-rRNA (D) may be negative or zero

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19. Cold stress—induced increase in 21. Which of the following is an

membrane fluidity is caused due
osmoregulatory hormone in lower
to :

(A) increase in cholesterol vertebrates ?

(B) increase in long chain fatty

(A) Thyroxine
acids

(B) Malatonin
(C) increase in unsaturated fatty

acids
(C) Prolactin
(D) increase in sphingolipids
(D) Epinephrine
20. Which of the following statements

is true ?
22. “Mottled enamel” a condition which

(A) Intestinal cells have Na + /

makes teeth particularly more
glucose antiporters
resistant to decay is due to :
(B) Intestinal cells have Na+/amino

acid symporters
(A) vitamin A excess
(C) Maintenance of low Ca ++

concentration in cytosol is due (B) fluoride excess

to primary active transport of

(C) vitamin B12 deficiency
Na+ and Ca++

(D) Cells have Na+/H+ symporters. (D) selenium excess

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23. Blue-light receptors in the plant

26. The Okazaki fragments of the
are :
lagging strand of DNA template are
(A) Cryptochromes

(B) Carotenoids joined by :

(C) Cytochromes
(A) DNA gyrase

(D) Phytochromes
(B) DNA ligase
24. Echo location is characteristic of :

(A) Bats (C) DNA polymerase

(B) Whales
(D) RNA primer
(C) Birds
27. The name of chromosome map unit
(D) Birds, whales and bats

25. Genes that are located at identical is :

loci of homologous chromosomes are

(A) Inter locus distance
called :

(A) alleles (B) Cytomorgan

(B) polygenes
(C) Chromomere
(C) homozygous

(D) Centimorgan
(D) pseudogenes

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28. The basic unit of chromatin 30. A molecular technique that can be

nucleosome consists of : used to isolate contiguous regions of

genomic DNA beginning with

(A) H1A, H2B, H3, H4 histones and
previously cloned DNA fragments
200 bp of DNA
that map near a gene of interest is
(B) H1, H2, H3, H4 histones and 180
called :
bp of DNA
(A) chromosome walking
(C) H2A, H2B, H3, H4 histones and
(B) chromosome painting
140 bp of DNA
(C) chromosome scanning
(D) DNA polymerase, DNA helicase
(D) chromosome mapping
and histones
31. Renewability, pluripotency and
29. The human hereditary disease
ability to differentiate are properties
associated with DNA repair is :
of :

(A) Kleinfelter’s syndrome

(A) endocrine cells

(B) Haemophilia (B) endodermal cells

(C) Thalassemia (C) oocytes

(D) Bloom’s syndrome (D) stem cells

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32. Exception to universal genetic code 34. The effect of natural selection may

be countered by :
is seen in :

(A) gene flow

(A) plasmids

(B) genetic drift

(B) viruses
(C) mutation
(C) mitochondria
(D) inbreeding

(D) transposons
35. In a population of 100 persons, there

33. Characteristics that have arisen as are 30 persons with M blood group

a result of common evolutionary and 20 persons with N blood group.

The gene frequency for M and N

descent are said to be :

blood groups is :
(A) analogous
(A) 0.20, 0.80

(B) homologous
(B) 0.60, 0.40

(C) heterologous
(C) 0.20, 0.30

(D) heterogamous
(D) 0.65, 0.45

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36. Which of the following definitions 37. During the early stages of

correctly depicts “biological species” development, embryos of reptiles,

concept ? birds and mammals look very

(A) A species is the most inclusive similar. This suggests that reptiles,

population of organisms that birds and mammals :

share a common fertilization (A) have a common ancestor

system
(B) live in the same type of

(B) A species is a single lineage of environment

population that maintains an

(C) have undergone parallel
identity separate from other
evolution
such lineages
(D) are no longer undergoing
(C) Species are groups of actually
evolution
or potentially interbreeding
38. Speciation is more likely to occur in
natural populations that are
cases of :
reproductively isolated from
(A) sympatry
other such groups
(B) allopatry
(D) A species is the smallest unit of

group of individuals sharing (C) antipatry

common ancestry (D) panmixis

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39. The ecosystem without stress is : 41. Which of the following ecosystems

(A) highly productive is represented by inverted pyramid

(B) highly diverse and stable of biomass ?

(C) highly unstable (A) Forest

(D) less productive and unstable (B) Grass land

40. A sustainable development practice (C) Pond

involves :
(D) Rhizosphere

(A) control of pathogens using

42. The organism used for large scale
biopesticides
production of vit B2 is :

(B) reclamation of soils using

(A) Penicillium chrysogenum
chemical fertilizers

(B) Aspergillus niger

(C) use of chemicals for control of

(C) Ashbya gossypi

pathogens

(D) use of fossil fuels (D) Trichoderma harzianum

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43. Assimilatory microbial SO 4 45. Bentham and Hooker’s system

reduction occurs in : classifies :

(A) all tracheophytes

(A) flowing water

(B) all seed plants

(B) surface water

(C) all embryophytes

(C) atmosphere

(D) thallophytes, bryophytes and

(D) water sediments
pteridophytes
44. Bt toxin is active in the gut
46. Botanical gradens serve the purpose
environment having :
of .................................. conservation of

(A) alkaline pH
plants.

(B) alkaline protease

(A) ex situ, ex vitro

(C) alkaline pH and alkaline (B) in situ, ex vitro

protease
(C) ex situ, in vitro

(D) neutral pH and protease (D) in situ, in vitro

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47. The common mushroom puffballs 49. A pair of halteres is seen in :

and truffles belong to the class of (A) Damsel fly

fungi : (B) May fly

(A) Ascomycetes (C) Butterfly

(B) Basidiomycetes (D) Fruit fly

(C) Oomycetes 50. The group which contains all

Cnidaria is :
(D) Deuteromycetes

(A) Obelia, Acetabularia, Hydra,

48. The biological name of common
Coral
brewing and baking yeast is :

(B) Hydra, Jellyfish, Rotifer, Coral

(A) Candida albicans
(C) Obelia, Hydra, Jellyfish, Sea

(B) Escherichia coli

Anemone

(C) Cryptococcus neoformans

(D) Jellyfish, Ascon, Physalia, Sea

(D) Saccharomyces cerevisiae Anemone

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ROUGH WORK

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 FEB - 34213/II

ROUGH WORK

14
 Test Booklet No.
iz'uif=dk ÿ- F
FEB - 34213/II
Paper-II
LIFE SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator Seat No.
1. (Signature) ......................................... (In figures as in Admit Card)
(Name) ................................................ Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) ......................................... (In words)

(Name) ................................................ OMR Sheet No.

FEB - 34213 (To be filled by the Candidate)

Time Allowed : 1¼ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
Instructions for the Candidates fo|kF;k±lkBh egŸokP;k lwpuk
1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided 1. ifj{kkFkh±uh vkiyk vklu ÿekad ;k i`"Bkojhy ojP;k dksiÚ;kr fygkok-
on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of 50 objective type questions. Each question rlsp vki.kkal fnysY;k mŸkjif=dspk ÿekad R;k[kkyh fygkok-
will carry two marks. All questions of Paper-II will be compulsory, 2. lnj iz'uif=dsr 50 cgqi;kZ; iz'u vkgsr- izR;sd iz'ukl nksu xq.k
covering entire syllabus (including all electives, without options). vkgsr- ;k iz'uif=dsrhy loZ iz'u lksMfo.ks vfuok;Z vkgs- lnjps iz'u
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet gs ;k fo"k;kP;k laiw.kZ vH;klÿekoj vk/kkfjr vkgsr-
will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are
requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as 3. ijh{kk lq: >kY;koj fo|kF;kZyk iz'uif=dk fnyh tkbZy- lq#okrhP;k 5
follows : feuhVkae/;s vki.k lnj iz'uif=dk m?kMwu [kkyhy ckch vko'; riklwu
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the igkO;kr-
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(i) iz'uif=dk m?kM.;klkBh iz'uif=dsoj ykoysys lhy m?kMkos-
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions lhy ulysyh fdaok lhy m?kMysyh iz'uif=dk fLodk: u;s-
in the booklet with the information printed on the (ii) ifgY;k i`"Bkoj uewn dsY;kizek.ks iz'uif=dsph ,dw.k i`"Bs
cover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/ rlsp iz'uif=dsrhy ,dw.k iz'ukaph la[;k iMrkˇwu igkoh-
questions or questions repeated or not in serial
order or any other discrepancy should not be
i`"Bs deh vlysyh@deh iz'u vlysyh@iz'ukapk pwdhpk
accepted and correct booklet should be obtained ÿe vlysyh fdaok brj =qVh vlysyh lnks"k iz'uif=dk
from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. lq#okrhP;k 5 fefuVkrp i;Zos{kdkyk ijr ns≈u nqljh
Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be iz'uif=dk ekxowu ?;koh- R;kuarj iz'uif=dk cnywu
replaced nor any extra time will be given. The same
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(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number fo|kF;k±uh uksan ?;koh-
should be entered on this Test Booklet. (iii) ojhyiz e k.ks loZ iMrkˇw u ifgY;kua r jp iz ' uif=ds o j
4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), vks-,e-vkj- mŸkjif=dspk uacj fygkok-
(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item. 4. izR;sd iz'uklkBh (A), (B), (C) vkf.k (D) v'kh pkj fodYi mŸkjs fnyh
Example : where (C) is the correct response. vkgsr- R;krhy ;ksX; mŸkjkpk jdkuk [kkyh n'kZfoY;kizek.ks Bˇdi.ks
dkˇk@fuˇk djkok-
A B D
mnk- % tj (C) gs ;ksX; mŸkj vlsy rj-
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place A B D
other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
5. ;k iz'uif=dsrhy iz'ukaph mŸkjs vks-,e-vkj- mŸkjif=dsrp n'kZokohr-
7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet. brj fBdk.kh fyghysyh mŸkjs riklyh tk.kkj ukghr-
8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put 6. vkr fnysY;k lwpuk dkˇthiwoZd okpkO;kr-
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space 7. iz'uif=dsP;k 'ksoVh tksMysY;k dksÚ;k ikukojp dPps dke djkos-
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your 8. tj vki.k vks-,e-vkj- oj uewn dsysY;k fBdk.kk O;frjh‰ brj dksBsgh
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair uko] vklu ÿekad] Qksu uacj fdaok vksˇ[k iVsy v'kh dks.krhgh [kw.k
means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. dsyys h vk<ˇwu vkY;kl vFkok vlH; Hkk"kspk okij fdaok brj xSjekxk±pk
9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the voyac dsY;kl fo|kF;kZyk ijh{ksl vik= Bjfo.;kr ;sbZy-
end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with 9. ijh{kk laiY;kuarj fo|kF;kZus ewˇ vks-,e-vkj- mŸkjif=dk i;Zo{s kdkadMs
you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed ijr dj.ks vko';d vkgs- rFkkih] iz'uif=dk o vks-,e-vkj- mŸkjif=dsph
to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
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12. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers. 12. pqdhP;k mŸkjklkBh xq.k dikr dsyh tk.kkj ukgh-
15 [P.T.O.