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27NOV Life Science PII

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
39 views11 pages

27NOV Life Science PII

Uploaded by

Riyana Gupta
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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NOV - 34211/II

Life Science
Paper II
Time Allowed : 75 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 100
Note : This Paper contains Fifty (50) multiple choice questions, each question
carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1. Sex determination in mammals is 3. Which of the following types of genes


governed by TDy. The most probable are not found in mitochondrial
genome ?
candidate gene for TDy is :
(A) tRNA genes
(A) Zfy
(B) respiratory chain genes
(B) Bkm
(C) rRNA genes
(C) Sry (D) glycolytic genes
(D) Sox 9 4. Genes responsible for determining
the identification of the segments in
2. How does homologous recombination
Drosophila are the :
play a role in replicative
(A) Gap genes
transposition ?
(B) Pair-rule genes
(A) Replicative transposition can
(C) Segment polarity genes
only occur between homologous
sequences (D) Homeotic selector genes

(B) Proteins involved in homologous 5. In garden peas, yellow seed colour


(Y) is dominant to green (y), round
recombination are required to seed shape (R) is dominant to
initiate replicative transposition wrinkled (r) and tall (T) is dominant
(C) After the transposon is to dwarf (t). These traits segregate
independently. What phenotypes are
replicated, free copy of sequence
expected from the cross TyRRTt and
is integrated into genome at the YyRRTT ?
new site via homologous
(A) Yellow-wrinkled-dwarf and
recombination green-round-tall
(D) Replication of transposon (B) Yellow-round-tall only
sequence converts the hybrid (C) Yellow-round-tall and green-
DNA molecule into a round-tall
cointegrate, which is uncoupled (D) Yellow-round-tall and green-
via homologous recombination wrinkled-dwarf
1 [P.T.O.
NOV - 34211/II

6. Damage encountered during 9. Which of the following codons code


replication is repaired by : for two amino acids based on its
context ?
(A) Nucleotide excision repair
system (A) AUG

(B) Base excision repair system (B) GUG

(C) Recombination repair system (C) UGA


(D) GUA
(D) Mismatch repair system
10. For efficient attachment of sister
7. Transgenic plants expressing the
chromatids to the spindle, which
CryA1 genes will show the following
one of the following processes is
phenotype :
required :
(A) Pathogen resistance (A) Inhibition of Cdk
(B) Insect resistance (B) Aggregation of lamins in
(C) Drought tolerance nuclear membrane

(D) Oxidative stress tolerance (C) Breakdown of nuclear


membrane
8. Why is actin used as a control
for transcriptome studies in (D) Rapid synthesis of cyclin B
vertebrates ? 11. Which of the following enzymes is
not found in lysosome ?
(A) It is used as a negative control
as the gene is not expressed in (A) Collagenase
vertebrates (B) Mannosidase
(B) It is used as a negative control (C) Acetylcholine esterase
as its mRNA is degraded (D) Hyaluronidase
rapidly
12. Which of the following is not a part
(C) It is used as a positive control of host defence mechanism :
as its expression is fairly
(A) Lipopolysaccharide
constant in different cell types
(B) Macrophage
(D) It is used as a positive control
as it is the most highly (C) Skin
expressed gene in all cell types (D) Interferon
2
NOV - 34211/II

13. Which of the following components 17. Paraquat inhibits photosynthesis by


exhibits peptidyl transferase blocking :
activity ?
(A) PS I
(A) 16S rRNA
(B) PS II
(B) 23S rRNA
(C) ATPase
(C) One of the 30S ribosomal
protein (D) Cyt bf
(D) One of the 50S ribosomal 18. Which of the following is the donor
protein
of new glucose molecules in glycogen
14. Which one of the following is not a synthesis ?
molecular motor ?
(A) UDP glucose 1 phosphate
(A) Myosin
(B) UDP glucose 6 phosphate
(B) Kinesin
(C) Dynein (C) Glucose 1 phosphate

(D) Dynamin (D) UDP glucose


15. Which one of the following immune 19. Protein denaturation does not
cells has both myeloid and lymphoid involve the breakage of :
lineage ?
(A) Hydrogen bonds
(A) Natural killer cell
(B) Peptide bonds
(B) Dendritic cell
(C) Mast cell (C) Ionic bonds

(D) Monocyte (D) Disulphide bonds


16. Which of the following can be used 20. The connecting link between HMP
for distinguishing an activated T shunt and lipid synthesis is ?
lymphocyte from a naive T cell ?
(A) Acetyl CoA
(A) Presence of T cell receptor
(B) NADPH
(B) Presence of co-receptor
(C) CD28 (C) Sedoheptulose 7-phosphate

(D) IL-2 receptor (D) NADH


3 [P.T.O.
NOV - 34211/II

21. Cytochrome P450 is a member of 24. Purine synthesis differs from


which family of oxidoreductases ? pyrimidine synthesis. Which of the
following is true ?
(A) Catalase
(A) Purine ring is synthesized on
(B) Hydroperoxidase
pentose sugar
(C) Oxidase
(B) Purine ring is synthesized and
(D) Oxygenase then coupled to pentose sugar
22. A sigmoidal plot of substrate (C) Pyrimidine ring is synthesized
concentration ([S]) versus reaction on pentose
velocity (V) indicates which of the
(D) Pyrimidine ring is derived from
following ?
purine ring
(A) Cooperative binding
25. Which of the following statements
(B) Competitive inhibition about species and speciation is
(C) Michaelis-Menten kinetics true ?

(D) Non-competitive inhibition (A) Hybrids are always selected


against in nature
23. Which of the following proteins is
not absolutely required for growth (B) Reproductive isolating

of Saccharomyces cerevisiae in a mechanisms are usually

medium containing glucose as the selected against in nature

sole source of carbon ? (C) A single species can evolve


through undergoing adaptive
(A) Phosphoglycerate kinase
radiation and produce a cluster
(B) Cytochrome oxidase
of species
(C) Hexokinase
(D) Species usually have only one
(D) Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate type of reproductive isolating
dehydrogenase mechanism
4
NOV - 34211/II

26. A classical example of micro- 29. A similar feature (at the molecular
evolutionary process is : level) occurring in different species
(A) development of penicillin whose ancestral lineages differ from
resistant bacteria
each other is called :
(B) recurrence of pest
(A) parallelism
(C) appearance of six fingers in both
left and right hand and in some (B) convergent evolution
human newborns
(C) divergent evolution
(D) occurrence of non-disjunction in
population of dividing cell (D) homology

27. Which of the following statements 30. Which of the following processes is
is most likely to be true about two thought to underlie concerted
species ?
evolution ?
(A) They occupy different niches
(A) Gene conversion
(B) They can never hybridize
naturally (B) Lateral gene transfer
(C) Their chromosome number will
(C) Programmed mutation
differ
(D) Their structural genes may (D) Transposition
show 25-50% sequence 31. According to Stebbins :
homology
(A) Dicotyledons evolved before
28. A rare allele which is being selected
against : monocotyledons

(A) is found predominantly in (B) Dicotyledons evolved from


heterozygotes monocotyledons
(B) has selection co-efficient of 0.01
(C) Monocotyledons and dicotyledons
(C) can be said to be in linkage
evolved parallel
disequilibrium
(D) is found to be a result of (D) Sporophyte evolution is
bottleneck independent of gametophyte
5 [P.T.O.
NOV - 34211/II

32. For each molecule of ATP → ADP 35. Antimalarial drug primaquine
+ Pi, the Na+/K+ ATPase moves causes side effects in some people
........................ across the plasma leading to RBC lysis and jaundice.
membrane.
This is due to a deficiency in the
(A) 2K+ and 2Na+ ions enzyme :
(B) 2K+ and 3Na+ ions (A) Glucose 6P dehydrogenase
(C) 3K+ and 2Na+ ions (B) Fructose 6P dehydrogenase
(D) 3K+ and 3Na+ ions
(C) Aldolase
33. Signal transduction does not
(D) Hexokinase
involve :
36. Intracellular concentration of the
(A) Interaction of a molecule with
following ions in a plant cell are :
cell surface receptor

(B) Phosphorylation of membrane (A) K+ > Ca2+ > Na+

bound proteins (B) Ca2+ > K+ > Na+


(C) Production of secondary (C) K+ > Na+ > Ca2+
messengers
(D) Na+ > K+ > Ca2+
(D) Activation of nuclear membrane
37. Which of the following chloroplastic
proteins
proteins is rapidly turned over in the
34. Mutations that increase the yield of
presence of light ?
a microbial product are most likely
to occur in : (A) Light harvesting chlorophyll

(A) Biosynthetic genes binding proteins

(B) Catabolic genes (B) Plastoquinone binding proteins

(C) Plasmid-encoded genes (C) Plastocyanin binding protein

(D) Regulatory genes (D) NADP reductase


6
NOV - 34211/II
38. Q10 is associated with one of the
42. Remote sensing followed by broad
following specific processes :
scale sampling is used to assess :
(A) Growth rate
(B) Photosynthesis (A) genetic diversity
(C) Oxygen affinity of haemoglobin
(B) taxonomic diversity
(D) Breathing rate
39. The aortic valve : (C) species diversity

(A) Prevents mixing of auricular


(D) ecosystem diversity
and ventricular blood
(B) Prevents back flow of blood from 43. DNA barcoding for species
auricles to ventricles
identification involves the use of :
(C) Prevents mixing of blood
between right and left auricles (A) VNTRs
(D) Prevents back flow of blood from
(B) Cytochrome oxidase gene
major arteries to ventricles
40. The centre of origin of maize is : (C) tRNA gene family
(A) Tropical America
(D) Actin and vimentin
(B) Brazil
(C) Peru 44. Classification based on overall

(D) Central Asia similarities and differences is :


41. Field gene banks are least useful
(A) Phylogenetic classification
for :
(A) Ornamental species (B) Phenetic classification
(B) Plantation crops
(C) Natural classification
(C) Forest trees
(D) Wild relatives of crops (D) Artificial classification

7 [P.T.O.
NOV - 34211/II

45. Susceptibility to extinction of Blue 48. The ability of a genotype to modify


its growth and development in
Whale has been attributed to :
response to changes in environment
(A) small population size is known as :

(B) low reproductive rate (A) Allelopathy

(B) Phenotypic plasticity


(C) both (A) and (B)
(C) Adaptability
(D) habitat loss
(D) Mutatability
46. Conservation of cultivated plants
49. In uncrowded, resource-rich
has been mandated to the : environment, natural selection
would favour organisms which are
(A) National Bureau of Plant
able to achieve rapid population
Genetic Resources
growth. Such organisms are termed
(B) World Conservation Union as :

(A) k-strategists
(C) Ministry of Environment and
(B) γ-strategists
Forests
(C) α-strategists
(D) National facility for plant tissue
(D) β-strategists
culture Repository
50. The relative efficiency of scavenging
47. Mint oil is obtained from : of nutrients by rainwater is
called :
(A) Mentha spicata
(A) Deposition velocity
(B) Mentha piperata
(B) Carbonation
(C) Peperomia pallida
(C) Weathering
(D) Piper nigrum (D) Wash-out ratio
8
NOV - 34211/II

ROUGH WORK

9 [P.T.O.
NOV - 34211/II

ROUGH WORK

10
Test Booklet No. NOV - 34211/II
iz'uif=dk ÿ- F
Signature of Invigilators
1. .........................................
2. ......................................... Seat No.
LIFE SCIENCE (In figures as in Admit Card)
Paper II Seat No. (In words) ............................
NOV - 34211 ..............................................................

Answer Sheet No.


Time Allowed : 75 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 12
Instructions for the Candidates ijh{kkFkh±lkBh lwpuk
1. Write your Seat Number in the space
provided on the top of this page. Write
1. ;k ikukojhy ojP;k dksiÚ;kr vkiyk vklu ÿekad
your Answer Sheet No. in the space rlsp vki.kkl fnysY;k mŸkjif=dspk ÿekad
provided for Answer Sheet No. on the R;k[kkyh fygkok-
top of this page. 2. iz'uif=dk ÿekad OMR mŸkjif=dsoj fnysY;k
2. Write and darken Test Booklet No. on
OMR Answer Sheet. jdkU;kr fygwu R;kizek.ks dkˇk djkok-
3. This paper consists of Fifty (50) 3. ;k iz'uif=dsr iÈkkl cgqfuoM iz'u vkgsr-
multiple choice type of questions. 4. izR;sd iz'uklkBh (A), (B), (C) vkf.k (D) v'kh
4. Each item has four alternative
responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D).
pkj fodYi mŸkjs fnyh vkgsr- R;krhy ;ksX; mŸkjkpk
You have to darken the responses as jdkuk [kkyh n'kZfoY;kizek.ks Bˇdi.ks dkˇk
indicated below on the correct djkok-
response against each item. mnk- A B C D
Example : A B C D
tj (C) gs ;ksX; mŸkj vlsy rj-
Where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items for this 5. ;k iz'uif=dsrhy iz'ukaph mŸkjs mŸkjif=dse/;sp
paper are to be indicated on the |kohr- mŸkjkP;k jdkU;ke/;s ( × ) ( ) ( / ) o
Answer Sheet only. Responses like ( × ) vLi"Vi.ks dkˇs dsysys mŸkj xzk· /kjys tk.kkj
( ) ( / ) and light shaded responses
will not be considered/evaluated.
ukgh-
6. Read instructions given inside 6. vkr fnysY;k lwpuk dkˇthiwoZd okpkO;kr-
carefully. 7. dPP;k dkeklkBh iz'uif=dsP;k 'ksoVh dksjs iku
7. One Sheet is attached at the end of the tksMys vkgs-
booklet for rough work.
8. You should return the test booklet and 8. ;k isijph ijh{kk laiY;kuarj iz'uif=dk o
answer sheet both to the invigilator mŸkjif=dk nksUgh i;Zos{kdkauk ijr djkoh- ;krhy
at the end of the paper and should not dks.krkgh dkxn rqeP;k cjkscj ijh{kk dsaÊkckgsj
carry any paper with you outside the
examination hall.
us.;kl lDr eukbZ vkgs-
9. Answers marked on the body of the 9. iz'uif=dsoj n'kZfoysyh mŸkjs riklyh tk.kkj
question paper will not be evaluated. ukghr-
11 [P.T.O.

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