June 2019 MS - Paper 2 Edexcel Physics A-Level
June 2019 MS - Paper 2 Edexcel Physics A-Level
June 2019
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June 2019
Publications Code 9PH0_02_MS_1906
All the material in this publication is copyright
© Pearson Education Ltd 2019
PMT
• All candidates must receive the same treatment. Examiners must mark the
first candidate in exactly the same way as they mark the last.
• Mark schemes should be applied positively. Candidates must be rewarded
for what they have shown they can do rather than penalised for omissions.
• Examiners should mark according to the mark scheme not according to their
perception of where the grade boundaries may lie.
• There is no ceiling on achievement. All marks on the mark scheme should
be used appropriately.
• All the marks on the mark scheme are designed to be awarded. Examiners
should always award full marks if deserved, i.e. if the answer matches the
mark scheme. Examiners should also be prepared to award zero marks if the
candidate’s response is not worthy of credit according to the mark scheme.
• Where some judgement is required, mark schemes will provide the
principles by which marks will be awarded and exemplification may be
limited.
• When examiners are in doubt regarding the application of the mark scheme
to a candidate’s response, the team leader must be consulted.
• Crossed out work should be marked UNLESS the candidate has replaced it
with an alternative response.
Questions which involve the writing of continuous prose will expect candidates to:
• write legibly, with accurate use of spelling, grammar and punctuation in order
to make the meaning clear
• select and use a form and style of writing appropriate to purpose and to complex
subject matter
• Organise information clearly and coherently, using specialist vocabulary when
appropriate.
Full marks will be awarded if the candidate has demonstrated the above abilities.
Questions where QWC is likely to be particularly important are indicated (QWC) in
the mark scheme, but this does not preclude others.
PMT
Question Acceptable
Additional guidance Mark
Number answer
1 C The only correct answer is C: main sequence – red giant – white dwarf 1
A is not correct because it is white dwarf – red giant – main sequence
B is not correct because it moves along the main sequence from large to small
D is not correct because it moves along the main sequence from small to large
2 B The only correct answer is B: for each spring, ½ force, so ½ extension, so ½ Fx gives ¼ E, so total is ½ E 1
A is not correct because it is the energy for one spring with this extension
C is not correct because it only applies the factor of ½ once
D is not correct because it is the energy for two springs, each with the original extension
3 D The only correct answer is D: the binding energy per nucleon curve shows an increase for both processes 1
A is not correct because both processes show decreases
B is not correct because fission shows a decrease
C is not correct because fusion shows a decrease
4 C The only correct answer is C: mass decrease by 20 5 α, which is a charge decrease of 10, but total charge decrease 1
is 6, so 4 β
A is not correct because there are too few alpha and too many beta
B is not correct because there are too few alpha and too many beta
D is not correct because there are too many beta
5 B The only correct answer is B: light leaving Y is polarised in its plane of polarisation and 135° is perpendicular to the 1
plane of Y, so there will be maximum absorption by filter Z
A is not correct because Z is not perpendicular to the plane of Y so some light is transmitted
C is not correct because Z is not perpendicular to the plane of Y so some light is transmitted
D is not correct because Z is not perpendicular to the plane of Y so some light is transmitted
6 D The only correct answer is D: a wave of greater intensity would still transfer energy at a greater rate which could 1
release photoelectrons at a greater rate even if they could absorb energy continuously
A is not correct because time would be required for absorption of sufficient wave energy
B is not correct because absorption of sufficient wave energy would occur over time
C is not correct because at higher intensities the waves would have higher amplitudes and energy could increase over
time to higher values
PMT
7 C The only correct answer is C: luminosity is proportional to temperature4 which means a 16-fold increase, and 1
luminosity is proportional to area, which is proportional to diameter2, and so means a 4-fold decrease, so there is a 4-
fold increase overall
A is not the correct answer because this only accounts for the decrease due to decreasing diameter
B is not the correct answer because this is the answer obtained if the power applied to temperature is 2 instead of 4
D is not the correct answer because the effect of area is not included
8 B The only correct answer is B: Upthrust is density of fluid × volume of object × g 1
A is not the correct answer because density of object has been used, so this is the gravitational force acting on the
object
C is not the correct answer because this is the resultant force
D is not the correct answer because this is the mean of the magnitude of the forces in A and B
9 D The only correct answer is D: potential is proportional to 1/x 1
A is not correct because electric fields do not cause a force on uncharged particles
B is not correct because the force caused by gravitational field has only ever been shown to be attractive
C is not correct because field strength is inversely proportional to x2
10 D The only correct answer is D: velocity is maximum when displacement is zero, and vice versa, and has positive and 1
negative values since the direction reverses
A is not correct because this shows maximum velocity when it should be minimum and vice versa
B is not correct because this shows maximum velocity when it should be minimum and vice versa
C is not correct because this does not show the change in direction of velocity during an oscillation
(Total for Multiple Choice Questions = 10 marks)
PMT
Question
Acceptable answers Additional guidance Mark
Number
11 Example of calculation
• Use of ΔQ = mcΔθ (1) mass of water = 0.0359 kg – 0.0182 kg = 0.0177 kg
ΔQ = 0.0177 kg × 4190 J kg−1 K−1 × (100 °C − 18 °C)
• … for correct temperature change (1)
= 6100 J
• Use of ΔQ = LΔm (1) ΔQ = (0.0177 kg) × 2.26 × 106 J kg−1
= 40 000 J
• Use of P = E/t (1) P = (6100 J + 40 000 J) / 56 s = 823 W
• It is not transferred faster because: (1)
5
823 (W to water) < 2400 (W to iron)
Or 46 100 (J to water) < 134 400 (J to iron)
Or 19.2 (s to evaporate water at rate of 2400 W) < 56 (s
taken)
Question
Acceptable answers Additional guidance Mark
Number
12(a) Example of calculation
• Use of n = c / v (1) 1.52 = 3.00 × 108 m s−1 / v
1.97 × 108 m s−1 2
• v = 2.0 × 108 m s−1 (1)
12 (b) (i) Other equivalent answers may be given
• the angle of incidence in an (optically) denser medium at (1) 1
which the angle of refraction (in the less dense medium) Do not accept answers stating or implying that the critical
is 90° angle is the smallest angle at which total internal
Or reflection occur, e.g., ‘The smallest angle at which t.i.r.
takes place’, but do not automatically exclude answers on
• the greatest angle of incidence in an (optically) denser the basis of mentioning internal reflection alone without
medium at which there is an emergent ray (into the less the inclusion of ‘total’
dense medium)
‘The greatest angle before t.i.r. takes place’ is not
Or sufficient
• the greatest angle of incidence in an (optically) denser
medium at which there is a refracted ray (in the less dense
medium)
12 (b) (ii) Example of calculation
• Use of sin C = 1 / n (1) sin C = 1/1.52
C = 41.1° 2
• C = 41° (1)
12 (c)
• Light strikes the edges of the long crystals at angles (1)
greater than the critical angle
2
• It is repeatedly totally internally reflected along the
(1)
crystal
Question
Acceptable answers Additional guidance Mark
Number
*13 Guidance on how the mark scheme should be applied: The mark
This question assesses a student’s ability to show a coherent and for indicative content should be added to the mark for lines of
logically structured answer with linkages and fully-sustained reasoning. For example, an answer with five indicative marking
reasoning. points which is partially structured with some linkages and lines
of reasoning scores 4 marks (3 marks for indicative content and
Marks are awarded for indicative content and for how the answer
1 mark for partial structure and some linkages and lines of
is structured and shows lines of reasoning.
reasoning). If there are no linkages between points, the same
five indicative marking points would yield an overall score of 3
The following table shows how the marks should be awarded for
marks (3 marks for indicative content and no marks for
indicative content.
linkages).
Number of Number of Max linkage Max final
indicative marks awarded mark available mark
marking for indicative
points seen marking points
in answer
6 4 2 6
5 3 2 5
4 3 1 4
3 2 1 3
2 2 0 2
1 1 0 1
0 0 0 0
The following table shows how the marks should be awarded for
structure and lines of reasoning. 6
PMT
Number of
marks awarded
for structure of
answer and
sustained line of
reasoning
Answer shows a coherent and logical
structure with linkages and fully 2
sustained lines of reasoning
demonstrated throughout
Answer is partially structured with 1
some linkages and lines of reasoning
Indicative content
• 720 Hz is the natural frequency of the bowl Do not accept ‘resonant frequency’ for ‘natural frequency’
• The generator/hand causes forced/driven oscillations
• When they don’t match the natural frequency they are quiet
because little/less energy is transferred
• The loudness (at 720 Hz) is because of resonance
Question
Acceptable answers Additional guidance Mark
Number
Question
Acceptable answers Additional guidance Mark
Number
15 (a) • Use of v = fλ (1) Example of calculation
• λ = 0.013 m (1) 340 m s−1 = 26.0 kHz × λ
λ = 0.013 m 2
15 (b)
• Two or more waves meet Do not accept sum of amplitudes
(1)
• The (resultant) displacement (at a point) is the sum of the
individual displacements from the individual waves (1) 2
PMT
Question
Acceptable answers Additional guidance Mark
Number
16(a) • Determine period, T (1) Example of calculation
• Use of T = 2π√(l/g) (1) T = 52.2 s / 8
= 6.53 s
• Subtracts radius of mass (1)
(1) 6.53 s = 2π√(l/9.81 N kg−1)
• Length of wire = 10.3 (m)
Length of pendulum to centre of mass = 10.6 m
Length of wire = 10.6 m − 0.3 m
= 10.3 m 4
16 (b)(i) • Use of (breaking) stress = F/A (1) Example of calculation
For max stress, 3.10 × 108 N m−2 = 28 kg × 9.81 N kg−1/A
• Use of A = π r2 (1)
A = 8.86 × 10-7 m2
• Diameter = 1.06 mm and choose 1.22 mm because 8.86 × 10-7 m2 = π r2
it is the thinnest wire with stress lower than the (1) r = 5.3 × 10-4 m
breaking stress diameter = 1.06 mm 3
16 (b)(ii) • Use of stress = F/A and A = π r2 (ecf for radius Allow ecf for radius of wire chosen in part (b)(i), but not
from (b)(i)) (1) for the calculated radius or area
• Use of Young modulus = stress / strain (1) Example of calculation
and strain = Δx/x (1) stress = 28 kg × 9.81 N kg−1/ π (1.22 × 10-3 m / 2) 2 3
• Extension =1.3 cm strain = 2.34 × 108 Pa / 200 GPa = 0.00117
extension = 0.00117 × 11.2 m = 0.0132 m
PMT
OR
• There is air resistance and the force is the same for
both
• The work done by air resistance per swing is the (1)
same for both masses
(1)
• Initially the larger mass has greater quantity of
energy shared between its kinetic and potential
energy stores, so the proportion of KE transferred 3
to the thermal energy store of the sphere and the
surroundings is less per swing, so there is less effect
on the amplitude
Or Larger mass has greater total energy so fraction
dissipated per swing is smaller so the pendulum
will oscillate for a longer time (1)
PMT
OR
There is air resistance and this force is the same for
both (1)
• For both masses the change in momentum per
swing is the same (1)
Question
Acceptable answers Additional guidance Mark
Number
17 (a) • Use of lens equation 1/f = 1/v + 1/u (1) Example of calculation
1/17.9 mm = 1/v + 1/16.7 mm
• Use of magnification = v/u (1)
(1) v = (-)249 mm
• Magnification = 15 magnification = 249 mm / 16.7 mm
= 14.9 3
17 (b)(i) • The electrons/atoms can only exist in
discrete/specific energy levels (in the sodium
(1)
atoms)
Example of calculation
17 (b)(ii) • Use of nλ = d sin θ (1) 3 × 5.89 × 10−7 m = d sin 90°
d = 1.77 × 10−6 m
• d = 1.77 × 10−6 m (1)
Or
(1)
• Use of nλ = d sin θ
Question
Acceptable answers Additional guidance Mark
Number
18 (a) • Alpha won’t penetrate the plastic so the gas For MP1, accept answers in terms of the small range
can’t escape (1) of alpha particles in the air in the bag
• Alpha won’t penetrate the plastic so there is
no risk (1) 2
18(b)(i) • Calculate no of nuclei (1) Example of calculation
• Use of ln 2 = t ½ × λ (1) N = (5.18 × 10−5 g/230 g) × 6.02 × 1023
(1) = 1.36 × 1017
• Use of A = λN λ× (75 400 × 3.15 × 107) s = ln 2
(1)
• A = 3.97 × 104 (Bq) λ = 2.92 × 10−13 s−1
A = 2.92 × 10−13 s−1 × 1.36 × 1017
4
A = 3.97 × 104 Bq
18 (b)(ii) • Calculates decays in one year Example of calculation
(ecf from (b)(i)) (1) ecf λ from (a)
(1) decays in one year = 3.97 × 104 Bq × 3.15 × 107 s
• Use of pV = NkT = 1.25 × 1012
• uses T = 295 K (1) 1.00 × 105 Pa × V = 1.25 × 1012 × 1.38 × 10−23 J K−1 × 295
• V = 5.09 × 10−14
m 3 (1) K 4
V = 5.09 × 10−14 m3
18 (b)(iii) • Use of ½ m <c2> = 3/2 kT Example of calculation
1
Or Use of pV = 𝑁𝑚 < 𝑐 2 > ½ m <c2> = 3/2 kT
3 (1) ½ × (4 × 1.66 × 10−27 kg) × <c2> = 3/2 × 1.38 × 10−23 J
(allow ecf for N,V from (b)(ii))
K−1 × 295 K
• uses m = 4u <c2> = 1 840 000 m2 s−2
• √<c2> = 1360 m s−1 (1) √<c2> = 1360 m s−1
3
(1) Accept the use of proton/neutron mass instead of u
(Total for Question 18 = 13 marks)