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JEE Advanced 10 Mock Test Papers-PCM

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
54 views24 pages

JEE Advanced 10 Mock Test Papers-PCM

Uploaded by

mesiviji312
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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JEE Advanced PAPER

(2024) 1
Physics
General Instructions:
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 12)
• This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
• For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e., the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 in all other cases.

1. A dimensionless quantity is constructed in terms of 3. Two beads, each with charge q and mass m, are on a
electronic charge e, permittivity of free space ε0, Planck’s horizontal, frictionless, non-conducting, circular hoop of
constant ℎ, and speed of light c. If the dimensionless radius R. One of the beads is glued to the hoop at some
quantity is written as eα ε0β hγ cδ and n is a non-zero point, while the other one performs small oscillations
about its equilibrium position along the hoop. The
integer, then (α, β, γ, δ) is given by
square of the angular frequency of the small oscillations
(A) (2n, −n, −n, −n) (B) (n, −n, −2n, −n) is given by
(C) (n, −n, −n, −2n) (D) (2n, −n, −2n, −n) [ε0 is the permittivity of free space.]
2. An infinitely long wire, located on the z-axis, carries (A) q2/(4πε0R3m) (B) q2/(32πε0R3m)
a current I along the +z-direction and produces the 2 3
 (C) q /(8πε0R m) (D) q2/(16πε0R3m)
magnetic field B . The magnitude of the line integral
  4. A block of mass 5 kg moves along the x-direction subject
(
∫ B ⋅ dl along a straight line from the point − 3a, a, 0 ) to the force F = (−20x + 10)N, with the value of x in
to (a, a, 0) is given by metre. At time t = 0 s, it is at rest at position x = 1 m. The
position and momentum of the block at t = (π/4) s are
[µ0 is the magnetic permeability of free space.]
(A) −0.5 m, 5 kg m/s (B) 0.5 m, 0 kg m/s
(A) 7µ0I/24 (B) 7µ0I/12
(C) 0.5 m, −5 kg m/s (D) −1 m, 5 kg m/s
(C) µ0I/8 (D) µ0I/6
General Instructions:
SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 12)
• This section contains THREE (03) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are
correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If unanswered;
Negative Marks : −2 in all other cases.
• For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;
choosing no option(s) (i.e., the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks and
choosing any other option(s) will get −2 marks.
xviii Oswaal JEE Advanced 10 Mock Test Papers

5. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular orbit under the (B) With an antinode at O, the minimum frequency of
influence of the central force F(r) = −kr, corresponding vibration of the composite string is 2n0.
to the potential energy V(r) = kr2/2, where k is a positive (C) When the composite string vibrates at the minimum
force constant and r is the radial distance from the origin.
frequency with a node at O, it has 6 nodes, including
According to the Bohr’s quantization rule, the angular
momentum of the particle is given by L = n, where  = the end nodes.
ℎ/(2π), ℎ is the Planck’s constant, and n a positive integer. (D) No vibrational mode with an antinode at O is
If v and E are the speed and total energy of the particle, possible for the composite string.
respectively, then which of the following expression(s) 7. A glass beaker has a solid, plano-convex base of
is(are) correct? refractive index 1.60, as shown in the figure. The radius
1 k of curvature of the convex surface (SPU) is 9 cm, while
(A) r 2 = n (B) v 2 = n the planar surface (STU) acts as a mirror. This beaker is
mk m3
filled with a liquid of refractive index n up to the level
QPR. If the image of a point object O at a height of ℎ (OT
L k n k in the figure) is formed onto itself, then, which of the
(C) 2
= (D) =
E =
mr m 2 m following option(s) is(are) correct?
6. Two uniform strings of mass per unit length µ and 4µ,
and length L and 2L, respectively, are joined at point O
O, and tied at two fixed ends P and Q, as shown in the
figure. The strings are under a uniform tension T. If we
1 T
define the frequency ν 0 = which of the following
2L µ Q
P R
statement(s) is(are) correct?
S U
µ O 4µ T
P Q
L 2L (A) For n = 1.42, ℎ = 50 cm.
(B) For n = 1.35, ℎ = 36 cm.
(A) With a node at O, the minimum frequency of (C) For n = 1.45, ℎ = 65 cm.
vibration of the composite string is n0. (D) For n = 1.48, ℎ = 85 cm.

General Instructions:
SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 24)
• This section contains SIX (06) questions.
• The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
• For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the onscreen virtual
numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 in all other cases.

8. The specific heat capacity of a substance is temperature


dependent and is given by the formula C = kT, where k
is a constant of suitable dimensions in SI units, and T is M R
R/2 M
the absolute temperature. If the heat required to raise the
temperature of 1 kg of the substance from −73 °C to 27
°C is nk, the value of n is _____.
10. A point source S emits unpolarised light uniformly in all
[Given: 0 K = −273 °C.] directions. At two points A and B, the ratio r = IA/IB of the
9. A disc of mass M and radius R is free to rotate about its intensities of light is 2. If a set of two polaroids having 45°
angle between their pass-axis is placed just before point
vertical axis as shown in the figure. A battery operated
B, then the new value of r will be _____.
motor of negligible mass is fixed to this disc at a point on 11. A source (S) of sound has frequency 240 Hz. When the
its circumference. Another disc of the same mass M and observer (O) and the source move towards each other at
a speed v with respect to the ground (as shown in Case
radius R/2 is fixed to the motor’s thin shaft. Initially, both
1 in the figure), the observer measures the frequency of
the discs are at rest. The motor is switched on so that the the sound to be 288 Hz. However, when the observer
smaller disc rotates at a uniform angular speed ω. If the and the source move away from each other at the same
speed v with respect to the ground (as shown in Case
angular speed at which the large disc rotates is ω/n, then 2 in the figure), the observer measures the frequency of
the value of n is _____. sound to be n Hz. The value of n is _____.
JEE ADVANCED (2024) PAPER-1 xix
S v v O of length L fixed to one end (top view is shown in the
Case 1 figure). The other end of the string is pivoted to a point
v v O. If a horizontal impulse P is imparted to the rod at
Case 2 a distance x = L/n from the mid-point of the rod (see
S O figure), then the rod and string revolve together around
12. Two large, identical water tanks, 1 and 2, kept on the the point O, with the rod remaining aligned with the
top of a building of height H, are filled with water up to string. In such a case, the value of n is _____.
height ℎ in each tank. Both the tanks contain an identical
hole of small radius on their sides, close to their bottom.
A pipe of the same internal radius as that of the hole is
connected to tank 2, and the pipe ends at the ground
level. When the water flows from the tanks 1 and 2 L L
through the holes, the times taken to empty the tanks
 16  O
are t1 and t2, respectively. If H =   ℎ , then the ratio t1 P L/2
 9
x
/ t2 is _____.

13. A thin uniform rod of length L and certain mass is kept


on a frictionless horizontal table with a massless string

General Instructions:
SECTION 4 (Maximum Marks: 12)
• This section contains FOUR (04) paragraphs.
• Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
• Each set has TWO lists: List-I and List-II.
• List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II has FIVE entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5).
• FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four
options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 in all other cases.

14. One mole of a monatomic ideal gas undergoes the cyclic (S) Change in the internal (4) −2ℛT0 ln 2
process J ® K ® L ® M ® J, as shown in the P–T diagram. energy of the gas in the
process MJ
P
(5) −3ℛT0 ln 2

M L (A) P → 1; Q → 3; R → 5; S → 4
2P0
(B) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 5; S → 2
(C) P → 4; Q → 1; R → 2; S → 2
(D) P → 2; Q → 5; R → 3; S → 4
P0 K 15. Four identical thin, square metal sheets, S1, S2, S3 and S4,
J
each of side a are kept parallel to each other with equal
T distance d (<< a) between them, as shown in the figure.
T0 3T0
Let C0 = ε0a2/d, where ε0 is the permittivity of free space.
Match the quantities mentioned in List-I with their S1 S2 S3 S4
values in List-II and choose the correct option.
[R is the gas constant].
a
List-I List-II
(P) Work done in the (1) ℛT0 − 4ℛT0 ln 2
complete cyclic process
(Q) Change in the internal (2) 0
energy of the gas in the
process JK
d d d
(R) Heat given to the gas in (3) 3ℛT0 Match the quantities mentioned in List-I with their
the process KL
values in List-II and choose the correct option.
xx Oswaal JEE Advanced 10 Mock Test Papers

(A) P → 5; Q → 2; R → 1; S → 4
List-I List-II
(B) P → 5; Q → 1; R → 2; S → 4
(P) The capacitance between S1 and S4, (1) 3C0 (C) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 1; S → 4
with S2 and S3 not connected, is (D) P → 3; Q → 1; R → 2; S → 5
(Q) The capacitance between S1 and S4, (2) C0/2 17. The circuit shown in the figure contains an inductor L, a
with S2 shorted to S3, is capacitor C0, a resistor R0 and an ideal battery. The circuit
also contains two keys K1 and K2. Initially, both the keys
(R) The capacitance between S1 and S3, (3) C0/3 are open and there is no charge on the capacitor. At an
with S2 shorted to S4, is instant, key K1 is closed and immediately after this the
current in R0 is found to be I1. After a long time, the
(S) The capacitance between S1 and S2, (4) 2C0/3
current attains a steady state value I2. Thereafter, K2 is
with S3 shorted to S1, and S2 shorted
to S4, is closed and simultaneously K1 is opened and the voltage
across C0 oscillates with amplitude V0 and angular
(5) 2C0 frequency ω0.
K2 C0 = 10 µF
(A) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 4; S → 5
(B) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 2; S → 1
(C) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 4; S → 1
(D) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 2; S → 5
16. A light ray is incident on the surface of a sphere of
refractive index n at an angle of incidence θ0. The ray L = 25 mH
partially refracts into the sphere with angle of refraction
φ0 and then partly reflects from the back surface. The R0 = 5 Ω K1
reflected ray then emerges out of the sphere after a
partial refraction. The total angle of deviation of the
emergent ray with respect to the incident ray is α.
20 V
Match the quantities mentioned in List-I with their
Match the quantities mentioned in List-I with their
values in List-II and choose the correct option.
values in List-II and choose the correct option.
List-I List-II
List-I List-II
(P) If n = 2 and α = 180°, then all (1) 30° and 0°
(P) The value of I1 in Ampere is (1) 0
the possible values of θ0 will be
(Q) The value of I2 in Ampere is (2) 2
(2) 60° and 0°
(Q) If n = 3 and α = 180°, then all
(R) The value of ω0 in kilo-radians/s is (3) 4
the possible values of θ0 will be
(S) The value of V0 in Volt is (4) 20
(3) 45° and 0°
(R) If n = 3 and α = 180°, then all (5) 200
the possible values of φ0 will be
(4) 150° (A) P → 1; Q → 3; R → 2; S → 5
(S) If n = 2 and θ0 = 45°, then all (B) P → 1; Q → 2; R → 3; S → 5
the possible values of a will be
(C) P → 1; Q → 3; R → 2; S → 4
(5) 0° (D) P → 2; Q → 5; R → 3; S → 4

Chemistry
General Instructions:
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 12)
• This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
• For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e., the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 in all other cases.

1. A closed vessel contains 10 g of an ideal gas X at 300 K, 2. At room temperature, disproportionation of an aqueous
which exerts 2 atm pressure. At the same temperature, solution of in situ generated nitrous acid (HNO2) gives
80 g of another ideal gas Y is added to it and the pressure the species
becomes 6 atm. The ratio of root mean square velocities (A) H3O+, NO3− and NO
of X and Y at 300 K is (B) H3O+, NO3− and NO2
(A) 2 2 : 3 (B) 2 2 : 1 (C) H3O+, NO− and NO2
(C) 1 : 2 (D) 2 : 1 (D) H3O+, NO3− and N2O
JEE ADVANCED (2024) PAPER-1 xxi
3. Aspartame, an artificial sweetener, is a dipeptide aspartyl phenylalanine methyl ester. The structure of aspartame is

Structures of phenylalanine and aspartic acid are given below.


O
Ph
HO
OH OH
H 2N H 2N
O O

O
HO O Ph
O O
HO H
(A) OMe (B)
H 2N N N
H 2N OMe
H
O O
Ph
Ph O
O
H
N MeO O
(C) H2N OMe (D) H
N
O OH H 2N OH
O
O Ph
4. Among the following options, select the option in which (B) Set-I: [Co(en)(NH3)2Cl2] and [PdCl2(PPh3)2]
each complex in Set-I shows geometrical isomerism and
Set-II: [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6]
the two complexes in Set-II are ionisation isomers of each
other. (C) Set-I: [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3] and [Co(en)2Cl2]
[en = H2NCH2CH2NH2] Set-II: [Co(NH3)5Cl]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5(SO4)]Cl
(A) Set-I: [Ni(CO)4] and [PdCl2(PPh3)2] (D) Set-I: [Cr(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 and [Co(en)(NH3)2Cl2]
Set-II: [Co(NH3)5Cl]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5(SO4)]Cl Set-II: [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2∙H2O

General Instructions:
SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 12)
• This section contains THREE (03) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are
correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If unanswered;
Negative Marks : −2 in all other cases.
• For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;
choosing no option(s) (i.e., the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks and
choosing any other option(s) will get −2 marks.

5. Among the following, the correct statement(s) for (B) The energy of an electron in 2s orbital of an atom is
electrons in an atom is(are) lower than the energy of an electron that is infinitely
(A) Uncertainty principle rules out the existence of far away from the nucleus.
definite paths for electrons.
xxii Oswaal JEE Advanced 10 Mock Test Papers

(C) According to Bohr’s model, the most negative HO CCl3


energy value for an electron is given by n = 1, which
corresponds to the most stable orbit.
H3C CH3
(D) According to Bohr’s model, the magnitude of
velocity of electrons increases with increase in values (B) Reaction of R with O2 in the presence of light gives
of n. phosgene gas.
6. Reaction of iso-propylbenzene with O2 followed by the (C) Q reacts with aqueous NaOH to produce
treatment with H3O+ forms phenol and a by-product P. Cl3CCH2OH and Cl3CCOONa
Reaction of P with 3 equivalents of Cl2 gives compound (D) S on heating gives P
Q. Treatment of Q with Ca(OH)2 produces compound R 7. The option(s) in which at least three molecules follow
and calcium salt S. Octet Rule is(are)
The correct statement(s) regarding P, Q, R and S is(are) (A) CO2, C2H4, NO and HCl
(A) Reaction of P with R in the presence of KOH (B) NO2, O3, HCl and H2SO4
followed by acidification gives (C) BCl3, NO, NO2 and H2SO4
(D) CO2, BCl3, O3 and C2H4

General Instructions:
SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 24)
• This section contains SIX (06) questions.
• The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
• For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the onscreen virtual
numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 in all other cases.

8. Consider the following volume−temperature (V−T) whereas Q on acidification gives positive Tollens’ test.
diagram for the expansion of 5 moles of an ideal Treatment of P with excess cyclohexanone in the presence
monoatomic gas. of catalytic amount of p-toluenesulfonic acid (PTSA) gives
product R.
Y Z Sum of the number of methylene groups (-CH2-) and
20 oxygen atoms in R is ______.
V(L)→

11. Among V(CO)6, Cr(CO)5, Cu(CO)3, Mn(CO)5, Fe(CO)5,


[Co(CO)3]3−, [Cr(CO)4]4− and Ir(CO)3, the total number
10
of species isoelectronic with Ni(CO)4 is ______.
[Given, atomic number: V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25,
Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28, Cu = 29, Ir = 77]
335415
T(K)→ 12. In the following reaction sequence, the major product P is
Considering only P-V work is involved, the total change formed.
i) Hg2+, H3O+
in enthalpy (in Joule) for the transformation of state in
ii) Zn-Hg/HCl
the sequence X ® Y ® Z is ______.
H iii) H3O+, ∆
[Use the given data: Molar heat capacity of the gas for the CO2Et P
given temperature range, CV, m = 12 J K−1 mol−1 and gas
15
constant, R = 8.3 J K−1 mol−1]
Glycerol reacts completely with excess P in the presence
9. Consider the following reaction, of an acid catalyst to form Q. Reaction of Q with excess
2H2 (g) + 2NO(g) ® 2N2 (g) + 2H2O (g) NaOH followed by the treatment with CaCl2 yields Ca-
which follows the mechanism given below: soap R, quantitatively.
k Starting with one mole of Q, the amount of R produced

1
2NO(g) 
 N 2O2 (g) (fast equilibrium)
k −1 in gram is ______.
N 2O2 (g) + H 2 (g) →
2 k
N 2O(g) + H 2O(g) (slow reaction)
[Given, atomic weight: H = 1, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, Na
= 23, Cl = 35, Ca = 40]
k
N 2O(g) + H 2 (g) 
3
→ N 2 (g) + H 2O(g) (fast reaction) 13. Among the following complexes, the total number of

The order of the reaction is ______. diamagnetic species is ______.
[Mn(NH3)6]3+, [MnCl6]3−, [FeF6]3−, [CoF6]3−, [Fe(NH3)6]3+,
10. Complete reaction of acetaldehyde with excess
and [Co(en)3]3+
formaldehyde, upon heating with conc. NaOH solution,
[Given, atomic number: Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27;
gives P and Q. Compound P does not give Tollens’ test,
en = H2NCH2CH2NH2]

General Instructions:
SECTION 4 (Maximum Marks: 12)
• This section contains FOUR (04) paragraphs.
• Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
JEE ADVANCED (2024) PAPER-1 xxiii

• Each set has TWO lists: List-I and List-II.


• List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II has FIVE entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5).
• FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four
options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 in all other cases.

14. In a conductometric titration, small volume of titrant of higher concentration is added stepwise to a larger volume of titrate
of much lower concentration, and the conductance is measured after each addition.
The limiting ionic conductivity (Λ0) values (in mS m2 mol−1) for different ions in aqueous solutions are given below:

Ions Ag+ K+ Na+ H+ NO3– Cl– SO42– OH– CH3COO–


Λ0 6.2 7.4 5.0 35.0 7.2 7.6 16.0 19.9 4.1

For different combinations of titrates and titrants given in List-I, the graphs of ‘conductance’ versus ‘volume of titrant’ are
given in List-II.
Match each entry in List-I with the appropriate entry in List-II and choose the correct option.

List-I List-II (4)

Conductance→
(1)
Conductance→

(S) Titrate: NaOH


T i t r a n t :
(P) Titrate: KCl CH3COOH
Titrant: AgNO3
Volume of titrant→
Volume of titrant→
(5)

Conductance→
(2)
Conductance→

(Q) Titrate: AgNO3


Titrant: KCl

Volume of titrant→ Volume of titrant→

(3)
Conductance→

(R) Titrate: NaOH


Titrant: HCl

Volume of titrant→

(A) P ® 4; Q ® 3; R ® 2; S®5 (C) P ® 3; Q ® 4; R ® 2; S ® 5


(B) P ® 2; Q ® 4; R ® 3; S®1 (D) P ® 4; Q ® 3; R ® 2; S ® 1
15. Based on VSEPR model, match the xenon compounds (R) XeO3 (3) Octahedral and two lone pair of
given in List-I with the corresponding geometries and electrons
the number of lone pairs on xenon given in List-II and (S) XeO3F2 (4) Trigonal bipyramidal and no
choose the correct option. lone pair of electrons
(5) Trigonal bipyramidal and three
List-I List-II
lone pair of electrons
(P) XeF2 (1) Trigonal bipyramidal and two
(A) P ® 5; Q ® 2; R ® 3; S ® 1
lone pair of electrons
(B) P ® 5; Q ® 3; R ® 2; S ® 4
(Q) XeF4 (2) Tetrahedral and one lone pair of
(C) P ® 4; Q ® 3; R ® 2; S ® 1
electrons (D) P ® 4; Q ® 2; R ® 5; S ® 3
xxiv Oswaal JEE Advanced 10 Mock Test Papers

16. List-I contains various reaction sequences and List-II contains the possible products.
Match each entry in List-I with the appropriate entry in List-II and choose the correct option.
List-I List-II
(P) (i) O3, Zn (1) HO
CH3
(ii) aq. NaOH, ∆
(iii) ethylene glycol, PTSA
(iv) (a) BH3, (b) H2O2, NaOH OH
(v) H3O+
(vi) NaBH4
(Q) (i) O3, Zn (2) OH
(ii) aq. NaOH, ∆
CH3 CH3
(iii) ethylene glycol, PTSA
(iv) (a) BH3, (b) H2O2, NaOH HO
(v) H3O+
(vi) NaBH4
(R) O (i) ethylene glycol, PTSA (3) OH
(ii) (a) Hg(OAc)2H2O, (b) NaBH4
CH3
(iii) H3O+ OH
(iv) NaBH4
(S) O (i) ethylene glycol, PTSA (4) HO
CH3
(ii) a) BH3, b) H2O2, NaOH
CH3 OH
(iii) H3O+
(iv) NaBH4

(5) CH3

OH

OH

(A) P ® 3; Q ® 5; R ® 4; S®1
(B) P ® 3; Q ® 2; R ® 4; S®1
(C) P ® 3; Q ® 5; R ® 1; S®4
(D) P ® 5; Q ® 2; R ® 4; S®1
17. List-I contains various reaction sequences and List-II contains different phenolic compounds.
Match each entry in List-I with the appropriate entry in List-II and choose the correct option.

List-I List-II

(P) SO3H (1) OH


(i) molten NaOH, H3O+
(ii) Conc. HNO3

O2 N OH

(Q) (i) Conc. HNO3/ Conc. H2SO4 (2) OH


NO2
(ii) Sn/HCl NO2
(iii) NaNO2/HCl, 0 - 5°C,
(iv) H2O
(v) Conc. HNO3 / Conc. H2SO4
NO2
(R) OH (3) OH
(i) Conc. H2SO4 O2 N NO2
(ii) Conc. HNO3
(iii) H3O+, ∆
OH
NO2
JEE ADVANCED (2024) PAPER-1 xxv

(S) Me (i) (a) KMnO4 / KOH, ∆; (b) H3O+ (4) OH


(ii) Conc. HNO3 / Conc. H2SO4, ∆ NO2
(iii) (a) SOCl2, (b) NH3
(iv) Br2, NaOH
(v) NaNO2/HCl, 0 - 5° C, OH
(vi) H2O

(5) OH
O2 N NO2

OH
NO2

(A) P ® 2; Q ® 3; R ® 4; S ® 5 (C) P ® 3; Q ® 5; R ® 4; S®1


(B) P ® 2; Q ® 3; R ® 5; S ® 1 (D) P ® 3; Q ® 2; R ® 5; S®4

Mathematics
General Instructions:
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 12)
• This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
• For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e., the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 in all other cases.

1. Let f(x)be a continuously differentiable function on the  −5


3. Let  x   be such that cot x = .
interval (0, ∞) such that f(1) = 2 and for each x > 0. Then, 2 11
t10 f ( x )  x10 f (t )  11x   11x 
for all x > 0, f(x) is equal to lim 1 Then,  sin (sin 6 x  cos 6 x )   cos (sin 6 x  cos 6 x )
t xt9  x 9  2   2 
31 9 10 9 13 10 is equal to:
(A) − x (B) + x
11x 11 11x 11
9 13 10 13 9 10 11 − 1 11 + 1 11 + 1 11 − 1
(C)  x (D) + x (A) (B) (C) (D)
11x 11 11x 11 2 3 2 3 3 2 3 2
2. A student appears for a quiz consisting of only true-
false type questions and answers all the questions. The x2 y2
4. Consider the ellipse   1. Let S( p, q) be a point in
student knows the answers of some questions and guess 9 4
the answers for the remaining questions. Whenever the p2 q2
the first quadrant such that   1. Two tangents
student knows the answer of a question, he gives the 9 4
correct answer. Assume that the probability of the student
are drawn from S to the ellipse, of which one meets the
giving the correct answer for a question, given that he
ellipse at one end point of the minor axis and the other
1
has guessed it is . Also, assume that the probability of meets the ellipse at a point T in the fourth quadrant. Let R
2 be the vertex of the ellipse with positive x-coordinate and
the answer for a question being guessed, given that the O be the centre of the ellipse. If the area of the triangle
1 3
student’s answer is correct, is . Then the probability ∆ORT , then which of the following options is correct?
6 2
that the student knows the answer of a randomly chosen (A)= q 2= ,p 3 3 (B)= q 2=,p 4 3

question is: (C) =


q 1=
,p 5 3 (D)=
q 1=
,p 6 3
1 1 5 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
12 7 7 12

General Instructions:
SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 12)
• This section contains THREE (03) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
xxvi Oswaal JEE Advanced 10 Mock Test Papers

• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are
correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If unanswered;
Negative Marks : −2 In all other cases.
• For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;
choosing no option(s) (i.e., the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks and
choosing any other option(s) will get −2 marks.

5. Let S = {a  b 2 : a , b  }, T1  {( 1  2 )n : n  }, and (C) For any given (a, b, c) ∈ S, the system of linear
n equations ax + by = 1, bx + cy = –1 has a unique
T2 = {(1  2 ) : n  }. Then, which of the following solution.
statements is (are) TRUE? (D) For any given (a, b, c) ∈ S, the system of linear
(A)   T1  T2 ⊂ S equations (a + 1)x + by = 0, bx + (c + 1)y = 0 has a
unique solution.
 1 
(B) T1   0 ,   , where φ denotes the empty set. 7. Let 3 denote the three-dimensional space. Take two
 2024  points P = (1, 2, 3) and Q = (4, 2, 7). Let dist (X, Y) denote
(C) T2  (2024, ∞) ≠ φ the distance between two points X and Y in 3. Let
(D) For any given a, b ∈ , S = {X ∈ 3 : (dist(X, P))2 − (dist(X, Q))2 = 50} and
T = {Y ∈ 3 : (dist(Y, Q))2 −(dist(Y, P))2 = 50}.

cos  a  b 2   i sin    a  b 2  ∈  if and only if b

Then, which of the following statements is (are) TRUE?
= 0, where i = −1. (A) There is a triangle whose area is 1 and all of whose
6. Let 2 denote  × . Let S = {(a, b, c) : a, b, c ∈  and ax2 vertices are from S.
(B) There are two distinct points L and M in T such that
+ 2bxy + cy2 > 0 for all (x, y) ∈ 2 – {(0,0)}. Then, which
each point on the line segment LM is also in T.
of the following statements is (are) TRUE? (C) There are infinitely many rectangles of perimeter 48,
 7  two of whose vertices are from S and the other two
(A)  2 , , 6   S vertices are from T.
 2 
(D) There is a square of perimeter 48, two of whose
 1  vertices are from S and the other two vertices are
(B) If  3, b ,   S, then | 2b |  1.
 12  from T.
General Instructions:
SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 24)
• This section contains SIX (06) questions.
• The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
• For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the onscreen virtual
numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 in all other cases.

1 10. Let
8. Let a = 3 2 and b = . If x, y, ∈  are such that
51 / 6 6  0 1 c  
   
5 S =  A   1 a d  : a , b , c , d , e  {0 , 1} and| A | {1, 1} ,

3x + 2y = log a  18  4 and 2x – y = log b  
1080 , then 

1 b e 
 


4x + 5y is equal to ________.
where |A| denotes the determinant of A. Then, number
9. Let f(x) = x4 + ax3 + bx2 + c be a polynomial with real of elements in S is ______.
coefficients such that f(1) = −9. Suppose that i 3 is a 11. A group of 9 students s1, s2,....,s9, is to be divided to form
three teams X, Y, and Z of sizes 2, 3, and 4, respectively.
root of the equation 4x3 + 3ax2 + 2bx = 0, where i = −1.
Suppose that s1 cannot be selected for the team X, and s2
If a1, a2, a3, and a4 are all the roots of the equation f(x) =
cannot be selected for the team Y. Then, the number of
0, then |a1|2 + |a2|2 + |a3|2 + |a4|2 is equal to ______.
ways to form such teams, is _______.
JEE ADVANCED (2024) PAPER-1 xxvii
 α − 1   13. Let X be a random variable, and let P(X = x) denote the
12. Let OP = ˆi + ˆj + kˆ, OQ = ˆi + β − 1 ˆj + kˆ and OR =
α β probability that X takes the value x. Suppose that the
ˆi + ˆj + 1 kˆ be three vectors, where a, b ∈  – {0} and O points (x, P(X = x)), x = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, lie on a fixed straight
2    line in the xy-plane, and P(X = x) = 0 for all x ∈  – {0, 1,
denotes the origin. If (OP × OQ ) ⋅ OR = 0 and the point 5
2, 3, 4}. If the mean of X is , and the variance of X is a,
(a, b, 2) lies on the plane 3x + 3y – z + l = 0, then the 2
then the value of 24a is _______.
value of l is ________.

• Each set has TWO lists: List-I and List-II.


• List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II has FIVE entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5).
• FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four
options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 in all other cases.

14. Let a and b be the distinct roots of the equation x2 + x – 1


The correct option is:
= 0. Consider the set T = {1, a, b}. For a 3 × 3 matrix M = (A) (P) → (4) (Q) → (2) (R) → (1) (S) → (3)
{aij}3 × 3, define Ri = ai1 + ai2 + ai3 and Cj = a1j + a2j + a3j (B) (P) → (2) (Q) → (4) (R) → (1) (S) → (3)
for i = 1, 2, 3 and j = 1, 2, 3.
(C) (P) → (4) (Q) → (2) (R) → (5) (S) → (3)
Match each entry in List-I to the correct entry in List-II.
(D) (P) → (2) (Q) → (4) (R) → (3) (S) → (5)
List-I List-II x  11 y  21 z  29
16. Let γ ∈  be such that the lines L1 :  
(P) The number of matrices M = (aij)3 × 3 (1) 1 1 2 3
with all entries in T such that Ri = Cj x  16 y  11 z  4
= 0 for all i, j, is and L2 :   intersect. Let R1 be the
3 2 
(Q) The number of symmetric matrices (2) 12 point of intersection of L1 and L2. Let O = (0, 0, 0) and n̂
M = (aij)3 × 3 with all entries in T such denote a unit normal vector to the plane containing both
that Cj = 0 for all j, is the lines L1 and L2.
(R) Let M = (aij)3 × 3 be a skew symmetric (3) infinite Match each entry in List-I to the correct entry in List-II.
matrix such that aij ∈ T for i > j. Then,
List-I List-II
the number of elements in the set
 x   x   a12   (P) γ equals (1) − ˆj − ˆj + kˆ
     
 y  : x , y , z   , M  y    0   is
 z   z   a   3
     23   (Q) A possible choice for n̂ is (2)
2
(S) Let M = (aij)3 × 3 be a matrix with (4) 6 
all entries in T such that Ri = 0 for (R) OR1 equals (3) 1
all i. Then, the absolute value of the
determinant of M is 1 ˆ 2 ˆ 1 ˆ
(4) i− j+ k
 6 6 6
(5) 0 (S) A possible value of OR1 ⋅ nˆ
The correct option is: is
2
(5)
(A) (P) → (4) (Q) → (2) (R) → (5) (S) → (1) 3
(B) (P) → (2) (Q) → (4) (R) → (1) (S) → (5)
(C) (P) → (2) (Q) → (4) (R) → (3) (S) → (5)
The correct option is:
(D) (P) → (1) (Q) → (5) (R) → (3) (S) → (4) (A) (P) → (3) (Q) → (4) (R) → (1) (S) → (2)
15. Let the straight line y = 2x touch a circle with centre (B) (P) → (5) (Q) → (4) (R) → (1) (S) → (2)
(0, a), a > 0, and radius r at a point A1. Let B1 be the point (C) (P) → (3) (Q) → (4) (R) → (1) (S) → (5)
on the circle such that the line segment A1B1 is a diameter
(D) (P) → (3) (Q) → (1) (R) → (4) (S) → (5)
of the circle. Let   r  5  5.
17. Let f :  -  and g :  →  be functions defined by
Match each entry in List-I to the correct entry in List-II.
 1  1
List-I List-II x | x |sin   , x  0 , 1  2 x , 0  x  ,
f (x)   x and g ( x )   2
(P) a equals (1) (–2, 4) 0 , 0 ,
 x  0, otherwise.

(Q) r equals ( 2) 5
Let a, b, c, d, ∈ . Define the function h :  →  by
(R) A1 equals (3) (–2, 6)  1 
h( x )  af ( x )  b  g ( x )  g   x    c( x  g ( x ))  dg ( x ), x  .
(S) B1 equals (4) 5   2 

(5) (2, 4)
xxviii Oswaal JEE Advanced 10 Mock Test Papers

Match each entry in List-I to the correct entry in List-II. (S) If a = 0, b = 0, c = 0, (4) the range of h is [0, 1].
List-I List-II and d = 1, then
(P) If a = 0, b = 1, c = 0, (1) h is one-one. (5) the range of h is {0, 1}.
and d = 0, then

The correct option is:
(Q) If a = 1, b = 0, c = 0, (2) h is onto.
(A) (P) → (4) (Q) → (3) (R) → (1) (S) → (2)
and d = 0, then
(B) (P) → (5) (Q) → (2) (R) → (4) (S) → (3)
(R) If a = 0, b = 0, c = 1, (3) h is differentiable on .
and d = 0, then (C) (P) → (5) (Q) → (3) (R) → (2) (S) → (4)
(D) (P) → (4) (Q) → (2) (R) → (1) (S) → (3)

Answer Key
Physics
Q.No. Answer key Topic’s name Chapter’s name
1 (A) Unit & Dimensions General Physics
2 (A) Biot-Savart Law and Ampere’s Law Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
3 (B) Different SHM, Forced and Damped Oscillations Oscillation
4 (C) Simple Harmonic Motion Oscillation
5 (A,B,C) Bohr’s Quantisation Condition Atomic Physics
6 (A,C,D) Standing Waves and Organ Pipe Wave Motion
7 (A,B) Reflection and Refraction of Light and Lens Geometrical Optics
Makers Formula
8 25000 Specific Heat Thermal Properties of Matter
9 12 Conservation of Angular Momentum System of Particles and Rotational Motion
10 8 Polarisation and Brewster’s Law Wave Optics
11 200 Beats and Doppler Effect Wave Motion
12 3 Equation of Continuity Mechanical Properties of Fluids
13 18 Impulse, Rotational Motion System of Particles and Rotational Motion
14 B Work done in Cyclic Process Thermodynamics
15 C Capacitance, Capacitor and their Combinations, Electrostatic Potential and Capacitors
Polarisation and Dielectric
16 A Reflection and Refraction of Light and TIR Geometrical Optics
17 A LCR Series Circuit Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating
Current
Chemistry
1 (D) Root Mean Square State of Matter
2 (A) Disproportionation Reaction p Block Element
3 (B) Artificial Sweetner Biomolecule
4 (C) Isomers Coordination Compound
5 (A,B,C) Models Atomic Strucutre
6 (A,B,D) Chemical Reactions' Phenols
7 (A,D) Octet Rule Chemical Compound and Strucutre
8 8120 V-T Graph Thermodynamics
9 3 Order Chemical Kinetics
10 18 Canizzaro Reaction Aldehyde
11 3 Isoelectronic Species Coordination Compound
12 909 Mix Reactions Esters
13 1 Diamagnetic Coordination Compound
14 (C) Titrations Electrochemistry
15 (B) VSEpr Chemical Bonding and Strucutre
16 (A) Mix Reactions Organic Chemistry
17 (C) Mix Reactions Organic Chemistry
JEE ADVANCED (2024) PAPER-1 xxix

Mathematics
1 (B) Linear Differential Equation Differential Equation
2 (C) Bayes Theorem Probability
3 (B) Sum or Difference Trigonometric Ratio and Identities
4 (A) Tangent Ellipse
5 (A, C, D) Operations on Sets Sets
6 (B, C, D) Cramer Rule Determinant
7 (A, B, C, D) Plane Three Dimensional
8 8 Log Essential Math
9 20 Biquadratic Quadratic Equation
10 16 Miscellaneous Matrices
11 665 Division into Groups Permutation and Combination
12 5 Scalar Product Vector
13 42 Variance Stat
14 (C) Miscellaneous Matrices
15 (C) Tangent Circle
16 (C) Intersecting Lines Three Dimensional
17 (C) Miscellaneous Function

ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATIONS

Physics
For small φ,
1. Correct option is (A).
q2 φ
Dimensionless quantity = ea εb0 hγ cδ mw2x =  
2
16 πR ε0  2 
[AT]a [M–1 L–3 T4 A2]b [ML2T–1]γ [LT–1]δ = [M0L0T0]
q2 φ 1
[A]a + 2b [M]–b + γ [L]–3b + 2γ + d [T]a + 4b – γ – d = [M0L0T0] w2 =  × (x = Rφ)
16 πR 2 ε0  2  mRφ
So,
q2
a + 2b = 0 ...(i) w2 =
32πε0 mR 3
–b + γ = 0 ...(ii)
–3b + 2γ + δ = 0 ...(iii) 4. Correct option is (C).
Given, F = (– 20x + 10) N
a + 4b – γ – δ = 0 ...(iv)
⇒ a = – 4x + 2
On solving above equations
a = –2b In SHM a = w2x + c,
c 2
γ= b At extreme position, a = 0 then x0 = = = 0.5 m
ω2 4
δ= b
This is the near position of the particle performing SHM.
Hence, (a, b, γ, δ) = (–2b, b, b, b) ≈ (2n, –n, –n, –n)
Now w2 = 4
2. Correct option is (A). ⇒ w=2
Rest
  2π X
θ0 =    So T = 0 x = 0.5 m x = 1m
6 4 ω
7p
 3a, a, 0  (a, a, 0) ⇒ T=ps
= π
12 At t = , the particle is at the mean position and is
θ0
Now, θ2 = π/6 θ1 = π/4 4
moving with the fastest speed, i.e.,
 
 µ0 I
 B  dl = 2π [θ]
θ0 + θ1 v = Aw
θ1 ⇒ v = – 0.5 × 2 = –1 ms–1
So, Linear momentum p = mv
µ0 I 7µ I = – 5 kg ms–1
= θ0 = 0
2π 24 5. Correct options are (A, B, C).
According to Bohr’s quantization rule,
3. Correct option is (B). L = n
q
mvr = n
n
v= ...(1)
θ mr
R
mv 2
r and = kr
r
f
θ mv 2 m n 2  2
r2 = =
q k k m2 r 2
θ
x FR = F sin θ n
r2 = (option A is correct)
mk
F cos θ F
From equation (1)
1 q2 2
F=  n  1 ( n)2 mk
4 0 r2 v2 =    2  
m r m2 n
Restoring force = F sin q
k
1 q2 v2 = n (option B is correct)
FR = sin  m3
4 0 r2
Now
1 q2
FR = sin  (r = 2 R cos θ) k
4 0 4 R cos2 
2 v2 = L
m3
1 q2  Putting v from equation (1)
FR = sin  
4 0 2 2 2
4 R cos    n 
2
k
2  mr  = L
 (φ = 2θ)   m3
JEE ADVANCED (2024) PAPER-1 xxxi

L k For image to coincide with object


= –h = 2fnet
m2 r 2 m3
2  n  1   0.6   1 
L k = 2    2  
= (option C is correct) h  9   9   
mr 2 m
9
and, h=
1.6 − n
1 2 1 2
T = K.E. + P.E = mv + kr Now,
2 2
9
1  k  1  n  n = 1.42, h=  50 cm (option A is correct)
= m  n   k  1.6  1.42

2  m3  2  mk  9
n = 1.35, h=  36 cm (option B is correct)
k 1.6  1.35
= n (option D is incorrect) 9
m n = 1.45, h=  60 cm (option C is incorrect)
1.6  1.45
6. Correct options are (A, C, D).
9
n = 1.48, h=  75 cm (option D is incorrect)
µ O 4µ 1.6  1.48
P Q
L 2L 8. Correct answer is [25000].
T1 = 273 + (–73) = 200K
T T 1 T2 = 273 + (27) = 300K
v= v′ = = v
µ 4µ 2 Now
With a node at O dQ
= mC = mkT
1 T 1 T dT
m = n Q 300 k
2L µ 2( 2 L) 4µ
m 1

∫ dQ = mk ∫ TdT
= 0 200 k
n 4
T 2 mk
1 T Q = mk  [300 2  200 2 ]
fmin = 1 × = ν0 (option A is correct) 2 2
2L µ
k
With an antinode at O Q = 1   5  10 4  25000 k  nk
2
1 T 1 T n = 25000
( 2m  1) = ( 2n  1)
4L  4( 2 L ) 4 
9. Correct answer is [12].
2n + 1 Applying conservation of angular momentum
=4
2m + 1 2
R
 MR 2  M 
odd 2
= even   MR        0
2
odd  2  2
 
Not possible (option D is correct)
3 MR 2
(option B is incorrect) MR 2  =  
With node at O 2 8

w′ = 
P Q 12
Total node = 6 (option C is correct)  
|w′| = 
For antinode at O. n 12
7. Correct options are (A, B). n = 12
10. Correct answer is [8].
1  1 1  n 1
= ( n  1)        I′A = IA
fliq  9  9 
I 2 I
I′B = B cos 45  B
1  1 1  0.6 2 4
= (1.6  1)    
flens 9  9
rnew = I ′A = I A × 4 = 2 × 4 = 8
1 1 I B′ IB
=
fmirror ∞ 11. Correct answer is [200].
Now, Net focal length is For First case
v v
1  1   1   1 
− = 2   2   S O
fnet  fliq   flens   fmirror 
   v0 + v 
f′ = f  
 v0 − v 
xxxii Oswaal JEE Advanced 10 Mock Test Papers

 v0 + v  So,
288 = 240   ...(1) 7 mL2  3L   3L L 
 v0 − v  w0 = m0     
3  2  2 n 
For Second case
v v 7 33 1
=   
S O 3 22 n
 v0 − v   240  3 1
 = 240  =  n  18
f″ = f   2n 12
 v0 + v   288 
14. Correct option is (B).
= 200 Hz
Work done (W1) in process (J → K)
12. Correct answer is [3].
A W1 = nR(∆T) = nR(3T0 – T0) = 2nRT0
Work done (W2) in process (K → L)
 P 
W2 = nR( 3T0 ) ln  0   3RT0 ln( 2 )
 2 P0 
h Work done (W3) in process (L → M)
W3 = nR(T0 – 3T0) = –2nRT0
9
v Work done (W4) in process (M → L)
v= 2gh  2P 
W4 = nRT0  0  = nRT0 ln 2
Applying equation of continuity  P0 
 dh  Total work done = 2nRT0 – 3RT0 ln (2) – 2nRT0 + nRT0 ln (2)
 A   = a 2 gh
 dt  = –2nRT0 ln (2)
t hf P→4
− A dh

∫ dt =
∫a 2g h
In process J → K
3R
0 hi ∆U = nCV∆T = 1 × × ( 3T0 − T0 ) = 3RT0
2
t=
2A
a 2g
 hi  h f  Q→3
In process K → L
For tank 2 ∆Q = ∆W = –3RT0 ln (2)
16 h 25h R→5
hi = h  H  h   In process M → J
9 9
∆U = nCV∆T = 0
16 h
hf = H = S→2
9
15. Correct option is (C).
2 A  25h 16 h  2 A h For P
t2 =  − =
a 2g  9 9  3a 2 g
For tank 1
1 1 1 1 C
hi = h, and hf = 0 = + + ⇒ Ceq = 0
Ceq C0 C0 C0 3
t1 =
2A
a 2g
( )
h −0 =
2A h
a 2g P→3
t1 For Q
=3
t2
13. Correct answer is [18].
1 1 1 C
Moment of inertia of rod about centre (O) = + ⇒ Ceq = 0
2 Ceq C0 C0 2
mL2  L
I=  m L   Q→2
12  2
For R
7 mL2
Now, I=
3
 L L
Ang. Mom. J = pL + +  1 1 1 2C 0
 2 n = + ⇒ Ceq =
Ceq C 0 2C 0 3
 3L L 
Iw0 = p  +  ...(1) R→4
 2 n
For S
 L  3L 
p = mvc = mω0  L +  = mω0   ...(2)
 2   2 
JEE ADVANCED (2024) PAPER-1 xxxiii
Ceq = C0 + C0 + C0 = 3C0 ( 90° − α )
sin 30° = sin
S→1 4
16. Correct option is (A). 90° − α
30° =
4
θ0 120° = 90° – a
δ1
a = 90° – 120°
φ0
α = − 30°
φ0
φ0 In anticlockwise direction,
δ2
angle, a = 180° – 30°
φ0 α = 150°
17. Correct option is (A).
δ3
θ0 For P: When key k1 is closed, then current is I1 in R0.
At instant (t = 0), L-coil act as high-resistive in nature.
sin θ0 = n sin φ0 ...(i)
Therefore, I1 = 0
δ1 = θ0 – φ0 Open Circuit
δ2 = 180° – (2f0)
δ3 = θ0 – φ0 L = 25 mH
α = δ1 + δ2 + δ3 R0 = 5Ω K1
α = 180° + 2θ0 – 4φ0 I1
Now for P
n = 2 and a = 180° P→1
2θ0 = 4φ0 = θ0 = 2φ0 For Q: For long time, ‘L’-coil behave as connecting wire.
 
sin θ0 = n sin φ0 = 2 sin  0 
 2 
20
 0  =
I2 = 4A R0 = 5Ω
cos   = 1 ⇒ θ0 = 0° 5
 2 
P→5 I2
For Q θ0 = 2φ0
20 V
θ  Q→3
sin θ0 = 3 sin φ0 = 3 sin  0 
 2  For R: When k1 is open and k2 is closed.
  3 1
cos  0  = ω0 =
 2  2 LC
θ0 = 60° 1
ω0 =
Q→2 25 × 10 −3 × 10 × 10 −6
For R sin 2φ0 = 3 sin f0 w0 = 2 × 103 rad/s or w0 = 2 k rad/s
f0 = 0° R→2
For S: Voltage across C0 is V0, while K1 is open and K2 is
3
cos f0 = closed.
2
f0 = 30° C0 = 10µF
R→1 K2
For S
Given q0 = 45° n = 2 , a = ?
⇒ a = 180° + 2q0 – 4f0 L = 25 mH
a = 180° + 2 × 45° – 4f0
a = (90° – 4f0) R0 = 5Ω K1
4f0 = (90° – a)
( 90° − α ) 20 V
f0 =
4 Energe in capacitor = Energy in inductor coil
From equation (1)
1 1
( 90° − α ) × 10 × 10 −6 × V02 = × 25 × 10 −3 × 4 2
sin 45° = 2 sin 1 1 2 2
4 CV02 = LI 22
2 2 V02 = 2500 × 16
1  90° − α 
= 2 sin   V0 = 50 × 4
2  4 
V0 = 200 V
1 ( 90° − α )
= sin
2 4 S→5
xxxiv Oswaal JEE Advanced 10 Mock Test Papers

Chemistry
1. Correct option is (D). it’s speed simultaneously only probability of finding
For Ideal Gas electron is defined as orbitals.
PV = nRT (B) In 2s orbital energy of electron is –ve but at r → ∞,
energy (E) → 0
∴ n ∝ P at constant T & V. (C) As per Bohr’s Model
Mass
 mole = z2
Molar mass E = −13.6 ev
n2
10
For gas X : ∝ 2 atm ...(1) at n = 1, E = –13.6 Z2 ev (most negative)
MX
6 z
(D) V = 2.18 × 10 m/sec. (by Bohr’s model)
10 80 n
For gas X & Y : + ∝ 6 atm ...(2)
MX MY 1
V ∝
From (2) – (1) n
6. Correct options are (A, B, D).
80
∝4 ...(3)
MY CH3 CH3
On dividing (1) by (3)
CH – CH3 C – O – OH
MY 1 O2
= CH3
8MX 2
MY H 3 O+
∴ =4 ...(4)
MX OH
H 3C
3RT 1 + C = O (P)
 Vrms = ⇒ Vrms ∝ H 3C
M M
3Cl2
( Vrms )X MY 4 2
∴ = = =
( Vrms )Y MX 1 1 Cl3C – C – CH3 + 3HCl
(Q)
2. Correct option is (A). O
3HNO2 → HNO3 + 2NO + H2O Ca(OH)2
3HNO2 → NO3 + 2NO + H3O+

Cl3CH + (CH3CO2)2Ca
3. Correct option is (B). (Chloroform)
(R) Ca – Salt of
Aspartame structure is a dipeptide consisting aspartic
acetic acid
acid and methyl ester of phenylalanine (s)
O H 3C H 3C OH
KOH
(A)CHCl3 + C=O C
HO H O H 3C H 3C CCl3
N C – OMe (Chloritone)
H 2N O2
(B) CHCl3 COCl2 + HCl
O
Ph (R) Phosgene gas
(C) Q does not undergo Cannizaro reaction
O
Ph O
HO
OH + HO – Me
OH + H2N CH3 – C – O
H 2N (D) Ca ∆
O CH3 – C – CH3 + CaCO3
O CH3 – C – O
Aspartic acid Phenylalanine O
4. Correct option is (C). O
Set-I: [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3] shows two geometrical isomers:
facial and meridional
7. Correct options are (A, D).
[Co(en)2Cl2] shows two geometrical isomers:
Compounds following octet rule are:
cis and trans
(A) CO2, C2H4 & HCl
Set-II: [Co(NH3)5Cl]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]Cl are ionisation
(B) O3, HCl
isomers of each other.
(C) None
5. Correct option is (A, B, C). (D) CO2, O3, C2H4
(A) Exact path of electron in atom can't be defined with
JEE ADVANCED (2024) PAPER-1 xxxv
8. Correct answer is [8120 J]. k1 k 2
∆H = nCp,m ∆T ⇒ ror = [ H 2 ][ NO]2
k −1
for xy process, ∆T = 0 = ∆Hxy = 0
⇒ Order of reaction is (3)
for yz process, ∆T = 80 K
Cp,m = Cv,m + R = (12 + 8.3) J/k. mol. 10. Correct answer is [14 + 4 = 18].
= 20.3 J/mol.k
∆Hyz = nCpm ∆T O O
= (5) (20.3) (80) J
= 8120 J CH3 – C – H + H–C–H
(excess)
∆Hx→y→z =∆Hxy + ∆Hyz
0 + 8120 Conc. NaOH
\ DHx→y→z = 8120
9. Correct answer is [3]. O
Slow reacton is R.D.S and HO OH
Rate law of R.D.S = Rate law of reaction + H – C – ONa
HO OH
⇒ ror = k2[N2O2][H2] ...(1) (Q)
from fast equilibrium (P) H⊕
k1 [ N 2 O 2 ]
= O
k −1 [ NO]2
k
⇒ [ N 2O2 ] = 1 [ NO]2 H – C – OH
k −1 gives positive
substituting in (1) Tollens Test
CH3

O O
H O O H SO3H
O O
H O O H –2H2O O O
(R)
Total CH2 in R = 14 and oxygen in R = 4
So 14 + 4 = 18
11. Correct answer is [3]. O
Electrons in Ni(CO)4 = 28 + 4 × 2 = 36 CH2 – O – C – C17H35
Electrons in Cr(CO)5 = 24 + 2 × 5 = 34
Glyceryl stearate CH – O – C – C17H35
Electrons in Cu(CO)3 = 29 + 2 × 3 = 35
Electrons in Mn(CO)5 = 25 + 2 × 5 = 35 O
CH2 – O – C – C17H35 (Q)
Electrons in Fe(CO)5 = 26 + 2 × 5 = 36
(1 mole)
Electrons in [Co(CO)3]4– = 27 + 2 × 3 + 3 = 36 O
Electrons in [Cr(CO)4]4– = 24 + 2 × 4 + 4 = 36 NaOH(excess)
Electrons in Ir (CO)3 = 77 + 3 × 2 = 83 CH2OH
So iso-electronic species which are similar to Ni(CO)4 are
CHOH + 3C17H35CO2Na
Fe(CO)5, [Co(CO)3]4–, [Cr(CO)4]4–
So answer is 3. CH2OH (3 mole)
12. Correct answer is [909]. CaCl2
H – C C – (CH2)15 – CO2Et
(C17H35CO2)2Ca (Soap)
Hg2+/H3O+ 3/2 mole
O The amount of R produced in gram
3
H3C – C – (CH2)15 – CO2Et = × [34 × 12 + 70 × 1 + 2 × 44 + 40]
2
Zn(Hg) + Conc. HCl 3
= × 606
H3C – CH2 – (CH2)15 – CO2Et 2
= 909
H 3 O+
13. Correct answer is [1].
H3C – (CH2)16 – CO2H [Mn(NH3)6]+3 ⇒ 3d4 + S.F.L ⇒ two unpaired electrons
Glycerol/H+ [MnCl6]3– ⇒ 3d4 + W.F.L ⇒ four unpaired electrons
[FeF6]3– ⇒ 3d5 + W.F.L ⇒ five unpaired electrons
[CoF6]3– ⇒ 3d6 + W.F.L ⇒ four unpaired electrons
xxxvi Oswaal JEE Advanced 10 Mock Test Papers

[Fe(NH3)6]+3 ⇒ 3d5 + S.F.L ⇒ one unpaired electron solution OH– will be replaced by CH3COO– ions, so
[Co(en)3]+3 ⇒ 3d6 + S.F.L ⇒ zero unpaired electron & conductance of solution decreases. After complete
diamagnetic. neutralisation further added CH3COOH will remain
14. Correct option is (C). undissociated because it is a weak acid and there is
Option (P) : On adding AgNO3 solution to KCl solution also common ion effect on acetate ions. So number of
precipitation of AgCl will occur due to which Cl– already ions in solution will remain almost constant therefore
present will be replaced by NO–3 ions. So conductance conductance of solution will remain constant.
of solution will decrease till equivalence point. After 15. Correct option is (B).
complete precipitation of AgCl, further added AgNO3 XeF2 ⇒ 2 sigma bonds and 3 lone pairs on Xe, number of
will increase the number of ions in resulting solution so hybrid orbitals = 5, sp3d hybridisation , geometry will be
conductance will increase. trigonal bipyramidal.
Option (Q) : On adding KCl solution to AgNO3 solution P–5
precipitation of AgCl will occur due to which already XeF4 ⇒ 4 sigma bonds and 2 lone pairs on Xe, number of
present Ag+ ions will be replaced by K+ ions in solution. hybrid orbitals = 6, sp3d2 hybridisation , geometry will be
So, conductance of solution will increase. After complete octahedral.
precipitation of AgCl further added KCl will increase the Q–3
number of ions in resulting solution so conductance will XeO3 ⇒ 3 sigma bonds and 1 lone pairs on Xe, number of
increase further. hybrid orbitals = 4, sp3 hybridisation , geometry will be
Option (R) : On adding HCl solution to NaOH solution, tetrahedral.
OH– will be replaced by Cl– ions so conductance of R–2
solution decreases. After complete neutralisation further XeO3F2 ⇒ 5 sigma bonds and 0 lone pairs on Xe, number
added HCl will increase number of ions in the solution. of hybrid orbitals = 5, sp3d hybridisation , geometry will
So, conductance will increase further. be trigonal bipyramidal.
Option (S) : On adding CH3COOH solution to NaOH S–4
16. Correct option is (A).
OH O
O3 CH=O Aq. NaOH CH=O OH CH
(P) O
Zn CH=O ∆ PTSA
Aldol (a) BH3
(b) H2O2, NaOH
O
OH + CH–O H 3 O+ CH
O
OH
OH OH
NaBH4

OH
(3) OH
CH3 O O O
Aq. NaOH
OH
(Q) O3
O OH
Zn CH=O ∆
Aldol PTSA
(a) BH3
(b) H2O2, NaOH
OH O O O
NaBH4 H 3 O+

OH OH OH
(S)
O O O O O
CH3 OH CH3 CH3
(R) OH Hg(OAc)2 NaBH4
OH
PTSA H 2O
H 3 O+

OH O
CH3 CH3
NaBH4
OH OH
O O O O O
CH3 OH CH3 BH3 H2O2 CH3
OH
(S)
PTSA NaOH OH
H 3 O+
OH O
CH3 NaBH CH3
4

OH OH
JEE ADVANCED (2024) PAPER-1 xxxvii
17. Correct option is (C).
SO3H OH OH
+ O2 N
(i) Molten NaOH, H2O (ii) Conc. H2SO4 NO2

NO2
NO2 NH2
NO2
Conc. HNO3 Sn + HCl
Conc. H2SO4 NH2
NO2
NaNO2 + HCl
0 – 5°
OH OH
N2Cl
O2 N NO2 Conc. HNO3
H2SO4 H 2O
OH OH
N2Cl
NO2

OH OH
OH HO3S NO2
Conc. H2SO4 HO3S Conc. HNO3

OH OH
OH
SO3H SO3H

H3O+/∆

OH
NO2

OH

CH3 CO2K CO2H


+
KMnO4/KOH H 3O

Conc. HNO3 + H2SO4/∆

COCl CO2H

SOCl2

O2 N O2 N NO2
NO2
NH3

CONH2 +
NH2 N2Cl–
Br2 + OH– NaNO2 + HCl
0 – 5° C
O2 N NO2
O2 N NO2 O2 N NO2

H2O/∆

OH

O2 N NO2
xxxviii Oswaal JEE Advanced 10 Mock Test Papers

Mathematics
1. Correct option is (B).
10 100
t10 f ( x ) − x 10 f (t ) + +4
lim =1 x 11 11
⇒ tan =
t →x t9 − x9 2 2
0
Form is hence using L'Hospital's 10 + 12
0 = = 11
2 11
10t 9 f ( x ) − x 10 f ′(t )
lim =1 11 + 1
t →x 9t 8 ∴ λ=
2 3
⇒ 10 x f ( x ) − x f ′( x ) = 1
9 10

9x 8 4. Correct option is (A).


y
⇒ f ′( x ) − 10 f ( x ) = −9
x x2
−10 (0, 2)
IF = e ∫ S (l, 2) = (p, q)
dx
x
= e −10 ln x
= x −10
−9 R
⇒ yx–10 = ∫x 12
dx O x

9 −11 T(α, β)
⇒ yx–10 = x +c
11
13
given f(1) = 2 ⇒ c =
11 3×β 3
9 13 10 Area of ∆ORT = =
⇒y= + x 2 2
11x 11 ∴ β<0
2. Correct option is (C). ∴ β = –1
Let P (guess) = λ α2 1
P (knows the answer) = 1 – l (α, β) lie on ellipse ⇒ + =1
9 4
1
P (Correct answer/guess) = , P 3 3
2 α Equation of tangent at 'T' > 0 ⇒ α =
(Correct answer/known the answer) v 2
3 3 ⋅x y
1   − =1
λ× 18 4
 guess  1 2
P = =  (λ, 2) lie on tangent
 correct answer  λ × 1 + (1 − λ ) × 1 6
2 ⇒ λ = 3 3 = p and q = 2
λ 5. Correct option is (A, C, D).
3λ = 1 − If b = 0 then a ∈ Z ⇒ Z ⊂ S
2
( ) ( 2) ( 2)
n n n −1
2     2 −1 = n C0 − nC1 + ...
⇒ λ=
7 = a1 + b1 2 where a1, b1, ∈ 
Probability
( )
n
=1−λ Similarly 2 +1 = a2 + b2 2 where a2, b2, ∈ 
5 ∴ Z ∪ T1 ∪ T2 ⊂ S (true)
=
7 Option (B)
3. Correct option is (B).
 11x   11x  0 < 2 −1 < 1
Let λ = sin  sin 6 x − sin  cos 6 x
 2   2  ( )
n
∴ 2 −1 → 0 as n →∞
 11x   11x   1 
+ cos  sin 6 x + cos  cos 6 x
 2   2  Hence T1 ∩  0 , ≠φ
 2024 
 11x   11x  if n is large
sin  6 x −  + cos  6 x − 
 2  2  (∴ Option (B) is wrong)
Option (C)
 x  x
⇒ λ = sin   + cos    ...(i) 2 +1 >1
 2  2
( )
n
x ∴ 2 +1 → ∞ as n → ∞
2 tan
11 2 Hence T2 ∩ (2024, ∞) ≠ φ
tan x = − =
5 x (Option (C) is correct)
1 − tan 2
2 Option (D)
2 x 10 x Answer = A, C, D
⇒ −1 + tan = tan
2 11 2 a + b 2 must be an Integer
∴b=0
JEE ADVANCED (2024) PAPER-1 xxxix
6. Correct options are (B, C, D). (x2 + 8) (x2 – 2) = 0
ax2 + 2bxy + cy2 > 0 ⇒x= 2 , 2 2 i , −2 2 i, − 2
y
Let = t 2 2 2 2
x α1 + α 2 + α 3 + α 4 = 20
ct2 + 2bt + a > 0 10. Correct answer is [16].
∴ c > 0 and b2 – ac < 0 |A| = d – e + c (b – a) = ± 1
 7  Case I ⇒ c = 1
 2 , , 6 does not satisfy above condition
2 d+b–a–e=±1
(option (A) wrong) Three of them one = 4C3
 1 Three of them zero = 4C3
Option (B) ⇒  3, b ,  ∈ S ⇒ (4 + 4) ⇒ 8 ways
 12 
1 Case II ⇒ c = 0
∴ b2 < d–e=±1
4
a, b can take an given value
(option (B) correct)
Total ways ⇒ 2 × 4 ⇒ 8 ways.
Option (C) For unique solution
11. Correct answer is [665].
a b
≠0 Total ways without any conditon
b c
9!
(option (C) correct) = 9C2 × 7C3 × 4C4 =
2! 3! 4 !
Option (D) For unique solution
(a + 1) (c + 1) – b2 ≠ 0 8!
S1 ∈ X then ⇒ 8C1 × 7C3 × 4C4 =
{b2 – ac < 0 and c > o 3!4 !
∴ a, c > 0 8!
(option (D) correct) S2 ∈ Y then ⇒ 8C2 × 6C2 × 4C4 =
2! 2! 4!
7. Correct options are (A, B, C, D). 7!
Let X = (x, y , z) S1 ∈ X and S2 ∈ Y ⇒ 7C1 6C2 4C4 =
2! 4!
∴ (x – 1)2 + (y – 2)2 + (z – 3)2 – {(x – 4)2 + (y – 2)2 + (z – 7)2 } Required ways ⇒ Total ways – n(S1 ∪ S2)
= 50
9! 8! 8! 7!
⇒ S : 6x + 8z – 105 = 0 ⇒ − − +
Let Y = (x, y, z) 2! 3! 4 ! 3! 4 ! 2! 2! 4 ! 2! 4 !
Similarly, we get T : 6x + 8z – 5 = 0 ⇒ 665
(A) S is a plane equation hence correct
12. Correct answer is [5].
(B) T is a plane equation hence correct   
(C) distance between both planes (OP × OQ) ⋅ OR = 0
100 1
⇒ = 10 1− 1 1
36 + 64 α
Hence correct. 1
1 1− 1 =0
There are infinitely many rectangles of perimeter 48 β
because there are infinity many point on the plane. A 1
1 1 1−
square of perimeter 48 having side 12 if the framing 2
square on the plane S = T. C1 → C1 → C2 ; C2 → C2 → C3
So Option (D) is correct.
1
8. Correct answer is [8]. − 0 1
α
1 1 1
18 , b = (1080 )

a= 6 − 1 =0
β β
5
⇒ 3x + 2y = 1 1
2 0
2 2
and 2x – y = –3
1  1 1 1
1 − − − + =0
∴x= − ,y=2 α  2β 2  2β
2
hence 4x + 5y = 8 1 1 1
+ + = 0 ⇒ α+β+1= 0
9. Correct answer is [20]. αβ α β
x(4x2 + 3ax + 2b) = 0 has roots 0, ± i 3 {a, b, 2} lie on 3x + 3y – z + l = 0
3(a + b) –2 + l = 0 ⇒ l = 5
⇒ a = 0,
2b
4
= ( 3 i ) (− 3 i ) 13. Correct answer is [42].
⇒b=6 4
5
f(1) = –9 ⇒ c = –16 mean = ∑ x P( x ) = 2 ...(1)
x=0
∴ x4 + 6x2 – 16 = 0
x, P(x) lie on a line
xl Oswaal JEE Advanced 10 Mock Test Papers

∴ P(1) – P(0) = P(2) – P(1) = P(3) – P(2) = P(4) – P(3) = m ˆi ˆj kˆ


4
n =1 2 3 =−4ˆi + 8 ˆj − 4 kˆ
∑ P( r ) = 1 ⇒ 5P( 0 ) + 10m = 1 ...(2)
x + 11 y + 21 z + 29
r =0 3 2 1 Let = = =λ
1 2 3
We can also write P(n) = n . m + P(0) n ∈ N ˆi 2 ˆj kˆ x + 16 y + 11 z + 4
From equation (1) ⇒ nˆ= − + = = =µ
6 6 6 3 2 1
5 Both lines intersect at R1
∴ = 30m + 10 P( 0 ) ...(3)
2 ∴ λ – 11 = 3µ – 16, 2λ – 21 = 2µ – 11
1 1 ⇒ λ = 10
⇒m= , P( 0 ) = R1 = –1, –1, 1
20 10 
4 2 OR1 =−ˆi − ˆj + kˆ
 5
a = variance = ∑ x 2 P( x ) −  2  
OR1 ⋅ nˆ =
2
x=0
3
1 25 7
= ( 3 × 1 + 4 × 2 2 + 5 × 32 + 6 × 4 2 ) − Þa= 17. Correct option is (C).
20 4 4
Hence, 24a = 42  1  1 1
1  1 − 2  − x  , 0 ≤ − x ≤
g  − x =
 2  2 2
14. Correct option is (C). 2  
x2+ x – 1 = 0 has roots α, β 0 , otherwise

⇒ α + β = –1, αβ = –1  1
2 x , 0≤x≤
= 2
(P) Ri = Ci = 0
0 , otherwise
 α β 1  → This can be arranged in six ways
   1
   → This can't be one hence two ways 1  1 , 0 ≤ x ≤
∴ g( x ) + g  − x =  2
  2  
   0 , otherwise
Total ways ⇒ 6 × 2 ⇒ 12  1
af ( x ) + b + c( 3x − 1) + d(1 − 2 x ) , 0 ≤ x ≤
P →2 ⇒ h( x ) =  2
 1 α β → 6 ways and A = A T af ( x ) + cx , otherwise
 
(Q) A =  α  → If R1 is filled C1 is also fix.
 1
0≤x≤
 β   1 ,
( P) = h( x ) =  2
0 , otherwise

P→5
This cannot be α and β
(Q) ⇒ h(x) = f(x)
Total ways ⇒ 6 f (0) − f (0 − h)
Q →4 LHD = lim = lim h sin( h −1 ) = 0
h→ 0 + h h→ 0
(R) M is skew symmetric ⇒ |M| = 0
f (0 + h) − f (0)
hence ∞ solution RHD = lim = lim h sin( h −1 ) = 0
R →3 h→ 0 + h h→ 0

(S) If Ri = 0 ⇒ |M| = 0 Q→3


S→5
 1
15. Correct option is (C). 3 x − 1 , 0≤x≤
tan θ = 2 y y= 2x ( R ) ⇒ h( x ) =  2
x , otherwise
α
=r⇒α=r 5 B1 y
5 C θ A1 C = (0, a)
 1 1
 ,  y=x
Given α + r = 5 + 5 θ 2 2
x
O
∴ α = 5 and r = 5 O y = 3x – 1
x
OA1 = α 2 − r 2 = 2 5 x
y= (0, –1)
A1 = ( 2 5 cos θ, 2 5 sin θ ) = (2, 4)
B1 = (–2, 6) h(x) is onto function.
(R) → 2
16. Correct option is (C).  1
L1 and L2 are intersecing lines; hence, the shortest 1 − 2 x , 0 ≤ x ≤
(S) h( x ) =  2
0 , otherwise
3 2 γ
distance = 0 1 2 3 =0⇒γ =1 h(x)max = 1 – 0 = 1
h(x)min = 0
5 −10 −25
0 ≤ h(x) ≤ 1 Þ (S) → 4

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