Objective Type Question or MCQ of Electrical Circuits

and Magnetic Fields page-1

1. A 2 ohms resistor having 1 ampere current will dissipate the power of

a) 2 Watts
b) 2 Joules
c) 1 Watt
d) 1 Joule

Ans: (a)

2. When 2 volts e.m.f. is applied across a 1 farad capacitor, it will store the energy of

a) 2 Joules
b) 2 Watts
c) 4 Joules
d) 1 Watt

Ans: (a)

3. Thevenin’s equivalent circuit can be used to calculate the power loss in the original circuit.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

4. A 1 H inductance carrying the current of amperes will store the energy of

a) 2 Watts
b) 2 Joules
c) 4 Watts
d) 4 Joules

Ans: (b)

5. An electrical circuit with 10 branches and 7 junctions will have

a) 10 loop equations
b) 4 loop equations
c) 3 loop equations
d) 7 loop equations

Ans: (b)

6. An electrical circuit with 8 independent nodes will have

a) 10 node equations
b) 4 node equations
c) 3 node equations
d) 7 node equations

Ans: (d)

7. If two winding having self-inductances L1 and L2, and a mutual inductance m are connected in
series will opposite, then the total inductance of series combination will be

a) L1 + L2 - 2M
b) L1 + L2 + 2M
c) L1 - L2 + 2M
d) L1 + L2 – M

Ans: (a)

8. The parallel circuit resonance magnifies

a) Current
b) Voltage
c) Power
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

9. The power factor at resonance in R-L-C parallel circuit is

a) 0.5 lagging
b) 0.5 leading
c) Unity
d) Zero

Ans: (c)

10.An inductive circuit resistance 2 ohms and inductance 0.5 H is connected to a 250 volts, 50 Hz
supply. What capacitance will be placed in parallel to produce resonance?

a) 700 micro-farad
b) 750 micro-farad
c) 701 micro-farad
d) 714 micro-farad
e) 711 micro-farad

Ans: (d)

11. The current in resonance in parallel L-C circuit will be

a) Very small
b) Very high
c) Zero
d) Infinity

Ans: (a)

12. Which of the following statement is true?

a) A galvanometer with low resistance in series is an ammeter

b) A galvanometer with high resistance in series is an ammeter
c) A galvanometer with high resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
d) A galvanometer with low resistance in parallel is a voltmeter

Ans: (a)

13. The time constant of the capacitance circuit defined as the time during which voltage

a) Rises to 63.2% of its final steady value

b) Rises to 38.6% of its final steady value
c) Falls to 36.8% of its final steady value
d) None of the above
Ans: (a)

14. Which of the following equation is Poisson’s equation?

a) d2V/dx2 + d2V/dy2 + d2V/dz2 = 0

b) d2V/dx2 = - p/ε0
c) d2V/dx2 + d2V/dy2 = 0
d) d2V/dx2 + d2V/dy2 = p/ε0

Ans: (b)

15. The circuit whose properties are same in either direction is known as

a) Reversible circuit
b) Irreversible circuit
c) Unilateral
d) Bilateral circuit

Ans: (d)

16. A passive network

a) Has no current source

b) Has no e.m.f. source
c) Has neither of the above
d) Has either of the above

Ans: (b)

17.If an electrical network having one or more than one voltage sources is transformed into equivalent
electrical network with a single voltage source (which is open circuit voltage of previous circuit) with
series internal resistance of the network with all voltage sources replaced by their internal resistances.

The above illustration is called

a) Reciprocity theorem
b) Thevenin’s theorem
c) Superposition theorem
d) Duality
Ans: (b)

18. In the circuit given below, the ammeter reads 0.1 ampere and voltmeter 10 volts. The internal
resistance of the ammeter is 1 ohm and that of voltmeter is 500 ohms. What is the value of R?

a) 110 ohms
b) 120 ohms
c) 115 ohms
d) 112.5 ohms
e) 125 ohms

Ans: (e)

19.In the circuit given below the power factor will be

a) Lagging
b) Leading
c) Zero
d) Unity,

Ans: (b)

20. If a = 4 < 20° and b = 2 < 10° then the value of a/b, will be :

a) 2 < 10°
b) 2 < 30°
c) 2 < -10°
d) 2 < 20°

Ans: (a)

21. The conjugate of the complex quantity (a + jb) will be

a) – a – jb
b) – a + jb
c) A - jb
d) Ja – b

Ans: (c)
22. Mass in the MKS unit system is analogous to

a) Resistance
b) Voltage
c) Inductance
d) Capacitance

Ans: (d)

23.A damped oscillation has the equation I = 50 e-10tsin 628 t. What will be the frequency of a
oscillation?

a) 50 Hz
b) 75 Hz
c) 100 Hz
d) 60 Hz

Ans: (c)

24. In a loss-free R-L-C circuit the transient current is

a) Sinusoidal
b) Oscillating
c) None-oscillating
d) Square wave

Ans: (a)

25. A 0.5 meter long conductor carrying a current of 2 amperes is placed in a magnetic field having
the flux density of 0.05 wb/m2. What will be the amount of force experienced by the conductor?

a) 1 New
b) 2 New
c) 0.05 New
d) 0.5 New

Ans: (c)

26. Two parallel conductors carry the same current in the same direction. What kind of mutual force
they will experience?
a) Repulsion
b) Attraction
c) Zero
d) Either (a) or (b)

Ans: (b)

27. Which of the following statement is correct?

a) The flow of current in the electric circuit involves discontinuous expenditure of energy.
b) The flow of current in the electric circuit requires energy for creating the current but not to
maintain it.
c) In the magnetic circuit energy is needed continuously to maintain the flux.
d) In the magnetic circuit energy is needed for creating the flux initially but not to maintain it.

Ans: (c)

28. If a coil has a resistance of 10 ohms and an inductance of 1 H, what will be the value of current
0.1 second after switching on a 500 V d.c. supply?

a) 6.32 A
b) 3.16 A
c) 3.7 A
d) 4.0 A

Ans: (b)

29. The r.m.s. value of an alternating current is given by steady (d.c) current which when flowing
through a given circuit for given time produces

a) The same heat as produced by a.c. when flowing through the same circuit
b) The less heat than produced by a.c. when flowing through the same circuit
c) The more heat than produced by a.c. when flowing through the same circuit
d) 14.4 calories

Ans: (a)

30.In case of an unsymmetrical alternating current the average value must always be taken over
a) The half cycle
b) The whole cycle
c) Unsymmetrical part of the waveform
d) The quarter cycle

Ans: (b)

31. The average value of the alternating current is more than the r.m.s. value

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

32. The amplitude factor of sinusoidal voltage is

a) 1.11
b) 1.57
c) 1.414
d) 0.637
e) 0.707

Ans: (c)

33. An electrical circuit is shown below, what will be the power dissipation in the circuit assuming P
as power across R2 ?

a) 3/4 P
b) 2/3 P
c) 4/3 P
d) 3/2 P

Ans: (c)

34. The resistance of a few meters of wire conductor in closed electrical circuit is

a) Very high
b) Practically zero
c) A few thousand ohm
d) Close to 10,000 ohms

Ans: (b)

35. If two resistances connected in parallel and each dissipates 10 watts the total power supplied by
the voltage source equals

a) 5 watts
b) 10 watts
c) 20 watts
d) 100 watts

Ans: (c)

36. If a parallel circuit is open in the main line, the current

a) Increases in each branch

b) Is zero in all branches
c) Is zero in the highest resistive branch
d) Increases in the branch of the lowest resistance

Ans: (b)

37. In a series parallel circuit, any two resistances in the same current path must be in

a) Parallel with each other

b) Parallel with the voltage source
c) Series with the voltage source
d) Series with each other

Ans: (d)

38. In a series parallel circuit with 6 resistances if there are three in one parallel bank, these three
resistances must have

a) The same current as in the voltage source

b) The same current
c) The same IR drop
d) An IR drop equal to the applied voltage
Ans: (c)

39. In which of the following circuits most current will be produced by the voltage source?

a) 5 volts across a 5 ohm resistance

b) 5 volts across two 5 ohm resistance in series
c) 5 volts across two 5 ohm resistance in parallel
d) 500 volts across a 1 M Ω resistance

Ans: (c)

40. There 60 watt bulbs are in parallel across the 60 volt power line. If one bulbs burns open

a) Rest of the two bulbs will not light

b) All three bulbs will light
c) The other two bulbs will light
d) There will be heavy current in the main line

Ans: (c)

41. If a wire conductor of 0.1 ohm resistance is doubled in length, its resistance becomes

a) 0.1 ohm
b) 0.02 ohm
c) 0.2 ohm
d) 0.05 ohm

Ans: (c)

42. The hot resistance of the bulbs’s filament is higher than its cold resistance because the temperature
coefficient of the filament is

a) Negative
b) Zero
c) Positive
d) About 5 ohms per degree

Ans: (c)
43. The square waveform of current has following relation between r.m.s. value and average value

a) R.M.S. value of current is greater than the average value

b) R.M.S. value of current is less than the average value
c) R.M.S. value of the current is to average value
d) There is no meaning of r.m.s value and average value for square wave

Ans: (c)

44. There are not transient in resistive circuits.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

45. Transient currents are not driven by any part of the applied voltage to circuit.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

46. The transient currents are associated with the

a) Applied voltage to the circuit

b) Changes in the stored energy in the inductors and capacitors
c) Resistance of the circuit
d) Impedance of the circuit

Ans: (b)

47. The double energy transients occur in the

a) R-L circuit
b) R-C circuit
c) Pure inductive circuit
d) R-L-C circuit

Ans: (d)
48. A closed switch has a resistance of

a) Infinity
b) Zero
c) About 500 ohms
d) About 50 ohms at room temperature

Ans: (b)

49. The ionization current in the liquids and gases results from

a) Protons
b) Electrons
c) Neutrons
d) Positive or negative or negative ions

Ans: (d)

50. Two 500 ohms, 1 watt resistors are connected in parallel. Their combined resistance and wattage
rating will be

a) 5000 ohms, 1 watt

b) 250 ohms, 2 watts
c) 1000 ohms, 2 watts
d) 500 ohms, 2 watts

Ans: (b)

51. A resistor is connected across a 45 volt battery to provides 13 mA of current. The required
resistance with suitable wattage rating will be

a) 4.5 ohms, 1 watt

b) 45 ohms, 10 watts
c) 1000 ohms, 2 watts
d) 45,000 ohms, 1/3 watt

Ans: (d)

52. A 2.2 lead acid cell

a) Is a primary cell
b) Is a secondary cell
c) Has unlimited shelf life
d) Has a maximum current rating of about 150 mA

Ans: (b)

53. The formation of the hydrogen bubbles around the carbon electrode in a dry cell is

a) Local action caused by chemical impurities

b) Polarization caused by electrolysis
c) Depolarization caused by manganese dioxide
d) An advantage because it increases the voltage output

Ans: (b)

54. When a lead acid battery is charged

a) The battery voltage must be more than charging voltage

b) Connect the positive battery terminal to the negative on the charging current

c) The charging current must flow in same direction as the discharging current

d) Connect negative to negative and positive to positive

Ans: (d)
55. The Edison cell

a) Is a primary cell
b) Uses sulphuric acid electrolyte
c) Has 2.5 volts output
d) Has nickel and iron electrolyte

Ans: (d)

56. The cells are connected in series to

a) Increase the current output

b) Increase the voltage output
c) Decrease the internal resistance
d) Decrease the amount of charging voltage required

Ans: (b)

57. A 45-volt source with an internal resistance of 2 ohms is connected across a wire-wound resistor.
The maximum power will be dissipated in the resistor when its resistance equals

a) Zero
b) Ohms
c) 45 ohms
d) Infinity

Ans: (b)

58. A magnet can pick up nail because of

a) Excess charge on the nail

b) Magnetic induction
c) Declination of magnetic field
d) Molecular magnets in the air around the nail

Ans: (b)

59. A magnetic compass point to the

a) Geographical poles
b) True north pole
c) Magnetic north pole
d) Agonic line of the earth filed

Ans: (c)

60. If the wire which is vertical to this page has electron flow downward the conductor will have

a) No magnetic field
b) A counter-clockwise field in the plane of the power
c) A clockwise field in the plane of the paper
d) A counter-clockwise field in the plane perpendicular to the paper

Ans: (b)
61. Which lines of forces produced by two magnetic fields, the field

a) Is stronger where the lines of force are in the same direction

b) Is stronger where the lines are in opposite direction
c) Has the same strength as for one magnet
d) Is weakest where the lines are in the same direction

Ans: (a)

62. A solenoid is a coil which

a) Acts as bar magnet only when there is no current in the conductor

b) Acts as bar magnet only when the current flows in the coil
c) Is similar to ring magnet because there is no air gap
d) Acts as bar magnet only when it has iron core

Ans: (b)

63. The force tending to make a loop of wire rotate is called

a) Energy
b) Power
c) Voltage
d) Torque

Ans: (d)

64. Motor action in a wire conducting current can be produced

a) Without any additional magnetic field

b) Move the conductor from weaker field toward stronger field
c) Move the conductor from stronger field toward a weaker field

d) Produce the motion of the conductor but not rotation

Ans: (c)
65. The r.m.s. value of an a.c. signal is 10 volts. The peak to peak value will be

a) 6.37 volts
b) 10 volts
c) 14 volts
d) 28 volts

Ans: (c)

66. When two waves are 90° out of phase

a) Each has its peak value at the same time

b) Each has its minimum value at the same time
c) One has its peak value when the other has zero value
d) One has its positive peak when the other has its negative peak

Ans: (c)

67. Which of the following can produce maximum induced voltage?

a) 1-amp. D.c. current

b) 50-amp. D.c. current
c) 1-amp. 60 cycles a.c. current
d) 1-amp. 490 cycles a.c. current

Ans: (d)

68. When the alternating voltage reverses in polarity, the current its produces

a) Reverses its direction

b) Has the same direction
c) Has phase angle of 180 degree
d) Alternates at 1.4 time the frequency of the applied voltage

Ans: (a)

69. An alternating current can induce voltage because it has

a) High r.m.s. value

b) Varying magnetic field
c) Stronger field than direct current
d) Constant magnetic field
Ans: (b)

70. If the length, number of turns, and area of a coil are doubled, the inductance of the coil is

a) The same
b) Double
c) Quadrupled
d) One-quarter

Ans: (c)

71. The d.c. resistance of a coil made with 100ft of gauge No. 30 copper wire is approximately

a) Less than one ohm

b) 10.5 ohms
c) 104 ohms
d) More than 1 M Ω

Ans: (b)

72. An open coil has

a) Zero resistance and high inductance

b) Infinite resistance and zero inductance
c) Infinity resistance and normal inductance
d) Zero resistance and inductance

Ans: (b)

73. Inductive resistance is measured in ohms because it

a) Reduces the amplitude of alternating current

b) Increases the amplitude of alternating current
c) Increases the amplitude of direct current
d) Has a back e.m.f. opposing the voltage output of a battery

Ans: (a)

74.Inductive reactance applied to sine wave only because it

a) Increases with lower frequency
b) Increases with lower inductance
c) Depends on the factor 2π
d) Decreases with the higher frequencies

Ans: (c)

75. In a sine wave a.c. circuit with 90 ohms R in series with 90 ohms XL, phase angle θ equals

a) 0°
b) 60°
c) 45°
d) 90°

Ans: (c)

76. An arc across the switch opening an R-L circuit is a result is a result of the

a) Long time constant

b) Large self-induced voltage across the inductance
c) Source of the voltage caused by IR drop across the resistance
d) Low resistance of the open switch

Ans: (b)

77. In a sine wave a.c. circuit with a resistive branch and inductive branch in parallel, the

a) Voltage across the inductor leads the voltage across the reactance by 90°
b) Resistance branch current is 90° out of phase with the inductive branch current
c) Resistive and inductive branch current are 180° out of phase
d) Inductive and resistive branch currents are in phase

Ans: (b)

78. A.d.c. voltage of 12 volts applied across an inductance in series with a switch

a) Can produce the induced voltage as the current decreases when the switch is opened
b) Cannot produce the induced voltage as the voltage applied has the one polarity
c) Produces more induced voltage when the switch is closed than the switch is opened
d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

79. Alternating current in the inductance will produce maximum induced voltage when the current has
its

a) Maximum value
b) Maximum change in magnetic field
c) Minimum change in magnetic field
d) 0.707 × Peak

Ans: (b)

80. Two 300-mh chokes connected in series will have the total inductance of

a) 60 mh
b) 300 mh
c) 150 mh
d) 600 mh

Ans: (d)

81. Which of the following statements is true?

a) Iron core has maximum eddy-current losses

b) Laminated iron core has minimum eddy-current losses
c) Power-iron core has the maximum eddy-current losses
d) Air core has the minimum eddy-current

Ans: (d)

82. Two waves have the frequency of 500 Hz and one is set at its maximum value whereas the other at
zero, the phase angle between them will be

a) 0°
b) 180°
c) 360°
d) 90°
Ans: (d)

83. Which of the following statements is true?

a) Ceramic capacitors must be connected in the correct polarity

b) Electrolytic capacitor must be connected in the correct polarity

c) Mica capacitors are available in capacitance value of 1 to 10 micro-farad

d) Air capacitors have a blackband to indicate the outside foil

Ans: (b)
84. Voltage applied across a ceramic dielectric produces an electrolytic field 100 times greater than
air. What will be the value of dielectric constant?

a) 33.333
b) 50
c) 1000
d) 100

Ans: (d)

85. If an a.c. voltage is applied to capacitive circuit, the alternating current can flow in the circuit
because

a) Of high peak value

b) Charging current can flow
c) Discharge current can flow
d) Varying voltage produces the charging and discharging currents

Ans: (d)

86. The amount of capacitive reactance with higher frequencies

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same for frequencies
d) Decreases as the voltage increases

Ans: (a)
87. A steady d.c. voltage is applied to capacitor, after changes to battery voltage, the current in the
circuit

a) Depends on the current rating of the battery

b) Is greater for larger values of capacitances
c) Is smaller for larger values of capacitances
d) Is zero for any value of capacitance

Ans: (d)

88. In sine wave a.c. circuit with Xc and R in series, the

a) Voltages across R and Xc are in phase

b) Voltages across R and Xc are 180° out of phase
c) Voltages across R leads the voltages across Xc by 90°
d) Voltage across R lags the voltage across Xc by 90°

Ans: (c)

89. A capacitor can store the change because it has dielectric between two conductors.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

90. The thinner the dielectric the more the capacitance and lower is the voltage breakdown rating for a
capacitor

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

91. In parallel L-C circuit, at the resonant frequency

a) A line current is maximum

b) The total impedance is maximum
c) The total impedance is maximum
d) The inductive branch current is maximum
Ans: (c)

92. The series and parallel resonance in L-C circuit differs in that

a) Series resonance needs a high-resistance source for sharp rise in current

b) Series resonance needs a low-resistance source for sharp rise in current
c) Parallel resonance needs a low-resistance source for a sharp increase in impedance
d) Parallel resonance needs a low-resistance source for a sharp rise in line current

Ans: (b)

93. In a series L-C circuit at the resonant frequency the

a) Current is minimum
b) Voltage across C is minimum
c) Impedance is maximum
d) Current is maximum

Ans: (d)

94. A ferrite core has less eddy-current loss than an iron core because ferrites have

a) Low resistance
b) High resistance
c) Low permeability
d) High hysteresis

Ans: (b)

95. A coil with large distributed capacitance has a

a) High resonant frequency

b) Low resonant frequency
c) High Q
d) Low a.c. resistance

Ans: ()

96. A capacitor with power factor of 0.002 has a Q of

a) 0.002
b) 20
c) 200
d) 500

Ans: ()

97. A permalloy enclosure is the best shield against a

a) Static change
b) Steady magnetic field
c) Varying magnetic field
d) Stray capacitance

Ans: ()

98. With stray capacitance of 10μF, the capacitive reactance at 160 MHz equals

a) 10 ohms
b) 160 ohms
c) 100 ohms
d) 1000 ohms

Ans: (c)

99. The intrinsic impedance of free space is

a) 500 ohms
b) 750 ohms
c) 637 ohms
d) 377 ohms

Ans: (d)

100.The dissipation factor of a good dielectric is of the order of

a) 0.02
b) 0.002
c) 0.2
d) 0.0002

Ans: (d)

101. The dissipation factor of a good dielectric is practically same as power factor of the dielectric.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

102. The velocity of propagation of an electromagnetic wave is given by

a) √LC
b) √(L/C)
c) √(1/LC)
d) 1/√LC

Ans: (d)

103. The total electric flux through any closed surface surrounding charges is equal to the amount of
charge enclosed. The above illustration is known as

a) Maxwell’s First Law

b) Maxwell’s Second Law
c) Gauss’s Law
d) Coulomb’s Square Law

Ans: (c)

104. The magnetic flux density B is analogous to

a) Electromotive force V
b) Displacement current D
c) Electric intensity
d) Electric displacement

Ans: (c)

105. Which of the following is the continuity equation ?

a) ∂p/∂t = div i
b) curl H = 𝒊
c) div D = P
d) div i = 0

Ans: (a)

06. The relative permeability of paramagnetic substance is

a) Unity
b) Slightly more than unity
c) Zero
d) Less than unity

Ans: (b)

107. The relative permeability of ferromagnetic material may have a value of several hundred or even
several thousand

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

108. If A is the vector which of the following statements is true?

a) Div curl A = A
b) Div curl A = curl A
c) Div curl A = 0
d) Div curl A = curl div A

Ans: (c)

109. Which of the following statements is true?

a) The magnetomotive force around a closed path is equal to the conduction current plus electric
displacement through any surface bounded by the path
b) The electromotive force around a closed path is equal to the time derivative of the electric
displacement through any surface bounded by the path
c) The total electric displacement through the surface enclosing a volume is not equal to total charge
within the volume
d) The net magnetic flux emerging through any closed surface is zero

Ans: (d)
110.Voltage across the resistance in R-L-C series circuit at resonance frequency is

a) Much higher than applied voltage

b) Much less than applied voltage
c) Function of value of inductance
d) Function of L/C ratio
e) Equal to applied voltage

Ans: (e)

111. A horseshoe magnet is head vertical with its ends resting on a horizontal board. The plane
passing through its poles (assumed to lie at its ends) is in magnetic meridian. If N-pole of the magnet
is towards magnetic south of the earth, the neutral point will lie

a) Within the poles of shoe magnet

b) At points along the axial line of the magnet
c) At point along the equatorial line of the magnet
d) At points not lying exactly on the horizontal board

Ans: (c)

112. A horseshoe magnet is far removed from magnetic substance. The magnetic potential will be
zero at a point

a) Lying on its axial line

b) Lying on the centre of the line joining the two poles
c) Lying anywhere on its equatorial line
d) On the centre of the magnet

Ans: (c)

113. Three capacitors each of the capacity C are given. The resultant capacity 2C/3 can be obtained by
using them

a) All in parallel
b) All in series
c) Two in series and third in parallel across this combination
d) Two in parallel and third in series with this combination

Ans: (d)

114. Two spheres of radii 10 and 20 cm have charges 100 and 200 e.s.u respectively. These are joined
by a fine wire. The loss of energy will be

a) 1/2 × (10 × 20)/(10 +10) (200 + 100)2 ergs

b) 1/2 × (10+20)/(10×20) (200 – 100 ) ergs
c) 1/2 × (200 - 100)2 ergs
d) Zero

Ans: (d)

115. What will be the frequency of the following wave

a) 10 KHz
b) 5 KHz
c) 100 KHz
d) 150 KHz

Ans: (c)

116.If the pulse repetition of a square wave is 60 microseconds, the pulse repetition rate will be

a) 5 KHz
b) 16 KHz
c) 10 KHz
d) 15 MHz
e) 15 Hz

Ans: (b)

117. Using the following figure, find the capacitor discharge voltage when the switch is first placed in
position A for 4.7 × 10-3 seconds, and then when the switch is placed in position B for 4.7 × 10-
3
seconds. Assume that the initial charge on the capacitor is zero.

a) 9.45 volts
b) 15 volts
c) 3.5 volts
d) 6 volts

Ans: (c)

118. The Ohm’s law states that

a) V is proportional to I
b) I is proportional to V
c) V is proportional to IR
d) V is proportional to R

Ans: (a)

119. The electromagnetic radiation can only be emitted or absorbed by a matter in small discrete unity
is called

a) Proton
b) Electron
c) Photon
d) Neutron

Ans: (c)

120. If the peak voltage of a wave is 15 V and pulse repetition time is 60 microseconds, with will be
the average value of voltage?

a) 10 volts
b) 5 volts approximately
c) 15 volts
d) 7 volts

Ans: (b)

121. A 100 watt, 250 V bulb will have more resistance than 60 watt, 250 V bulb.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)
122. The Kirchhoff᾽s laws fail in

a) Lumped parameters circuit

b) Distributed parameters circuit
c) Nonlinear circuits
d) Linear circuit
e) Bilateral circuit

Ans: (b)

123. When a circuit of 0.1 A is passed through a coil of 2000 turns, the MMF produced by the coil
will be

a) 100 AT
b) 200 AT
c) 300 AT
d) 10 AT

Ans: (b)

124. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) The magnetic flux inside and exciting coil is greater than its outside surface.
b) The magnetic flux inside and exciting coil is same as on its outside surface.

c) The magnetic flux inside an exciting coil is lower than its outside surface.

d) The magnetic flux inside an exciting coil is zero

Ans: (b)
125. All the lines of magnetic flux on a coil produced by a uniform magnetic field are parallel and
equidistance.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

126. The magneto-motive force is

a) The flow of an electric current
b) The sum of all the current embraced by one line of magnetic field
c) The passage of magnetic field through an exciting coil
d) The voltage across the two ends of exciting coil

Ans: (b)

127. The “Ampere-Turns” are

a) The product of the number of the turns and current of the coil
b) The number of the turns of a coil through which current is flowing
c) The currents of all turns of the coil
d) The turns of transformer winding

Ans: (a)

128. The uniform magnetic field is

a) The field a single conductor

b) The field of set of parallel conductors
c) Field in which all line of magnetic flux are parallel and equidistant
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

129. The reluctance of magnetic circuit depends on the length of magnetic flux path, cross-sectional
area presented to the magnetic field and magnetic properties of material in which the magnetic field is
generated

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

130. The change of cross-sectional area of conductor in magnetic field will affect

a) Resistance of conductor
b) Reluctance of conductor
c) (a) and (b) both in the same way
d) None of the above
Ans: (c)

131. The ferromagnetic materials have a relative permeability μr

a) Equal to one
b) Less than one
c) Far greater than one
d) Zero

Ans: (c)

132.The magnetic field can penetrate empty space.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

133. What will be the current passing through the ring shaped air cored coil when number of turns is
900 and ampere-turns are 2700?

a) 3
b) 1.5
c) 6
d) 9

Ans: (a)

134. What will be the magnetic potential difference across the air gap of 4 cm length in the magnetic
field of 400 AT/ m?

a) 4 AT
b) 8 AT
c) 16 AT
d) 20 AT

Ans: (c)
135. A certain amount of current flows through a ring-shaped coil with fixed number of turns. How
does the magnetic induction B varies inside the coil if an iron core is threaded into coil without
dimensional change of coil?

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains same
d) First increases and then decreases depending on the depth of iron core insertion

Ans: (a)

136. The initial permeability of an iron rod is

a) The permeability at the end of an iron rod

b) The permeability almost in non-magnetised state
c) The lowest permeability of iron rod
d) The highest permeability of iron rod

Ans: (b)

137. The magnetic reluctance of a material

a) Increases with increasing cross-sectional area of material

b) Decreases with increasing cross-sectional area of material
c) Does not vary with increasing cross-sectional area of material
d) Does vary from small increase in cross-sectional area of the material

Ans: (b)

138. The magnetic field strength H and magnetic induction B are independent of each other.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

139. Which part of the magnetic path requires largest MMF?

a) Core
b) Air gap
c) Coil
d) Inductance

Ans: (b)

140. The presence of magnetic field can be determined by

a) Detecting the lines of magnetic flux

b) Deflection of a magnetic compass needle
c) Heating the surrounding air
d) Touching the magnetically affected area

Ans: (b)

141. How does the magnetic compass needle behave in a magnetic field?

a) It starts rotating
b) It assures a position right angle to magnetic field
c) It assures a position which follows a line of magnetic flux
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

142. The magnetic reactance has the same unit as electric reactance.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

143. MMF is analogous to

a) Electric current in electrical circuit

b) Electromotive force
c) Current density in conductor
d) Voltage

Ans: (b)

144. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) The strength of magnetic flux in a simple magnetic field continuously increases from initial value
of final value.
b) The strength of magnetic flux in a simple magnetic field continuously decreases from initial value
to final value.

c) The strength of magnetic flux in simple magnetic field is constant and has same value in every part
of the magnetic field.
d) None of the above statements is correct.

Ans: (c)

145. There is no existence of such material which is completely impermeable to magnetic flux.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

146. The stray line of magnetic flux is defined as

a) A line of magnetic flux in a non-uniform field

b) A line of magnetic flux which does not follow the designed path
c) The mean length of a right shaped coil
d) A line vertical to the flux lines

Ans: (b)

147. In the given circuit, the voltage V is reduced to half. The current I will change to

a) 2I
b) I/2
c) I/[ √R2 + (XL- XC )]
d) I/[√(XL- XC )2 )]
Ans: (b)

148. The current in the loaded battery flows from

a) + ve to – ve plate
b) – ve to + ve plate
c) Between plates
d) Between terminals

Ans: (b)

149. In the circuit shown, the current in the resistance 1 shall be

a) 3/7I
b) 3/4I
c) I
d) 7/3I
e) 1/4I

Ans: (a)

150. The four bulbs of 40 watts each are connected in series with a battery across them, which of the
following statements is true?

a) The voltage across each bulb is same

b) The power dissipation in each bulb is not same
c) The current through each bulb is same
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

151. In the given circuit, the Kirchhoff’s current law at the point A is applied. Which of the following
relation is correct

a) I1 = I2- I3
b) I1 - I3+ I3=0
c) I1- (I2+ I3 )=0
d) I1= -(I2+ I3 )

Ans: (c)

152. The voltage source of 220 V shown in the figure will deliver the total current to the circuit of

a) 4 A
b) 2 A
c) 50 A
d) 100 A

Ans: (c)

153. An inductance coil of 10 H develops the counter voltage of 50 volts. What should be the rate
change of current in the coil ?

a) 5 A/sec
b) 10 A/sec
c) 1 A/sec
d) 100 A/sec

Ans: (a)

154. An peak value of the sinusoidal voltage is 10 volts. What will be the effective of voltage ?

a) 14.14 volts
b) 1.414 volts
c) 0.707 volts
d) 7.07 volts

Ans: (d)

155. If the effective voltage of the sinusoidal voltage is 11 volts. What will be the average value of
sinusoidal voltage ?

a) 5 volts
b) 10 volts
c) 1.1 volts
d) 11 volts
e) 121 volts

Ans: (b)

156. If a conductor is put in a magnetic field, at what angle the conductor should cut the magnetic
field to induce maximum current in it ?

a) 10°
b) 20°
c) 90°
d) 120°
e) 180°
f) -90°

Ans: (c)

157. For which of the following parameter variation, the capacitance of the capacitor remains
unaffected ?

a) Nature of dielectric
b) Thickness of the plates
c) Distance between the plates
d) Area of the plates

Ans: (b)

158. If two capacitors with 20 μF capacitance each are connected in series. What will be the net
capacitance of the circuit ?

a) 10 μF
b) 20 μF
c) 40 μF
d) 80 μF

Ans: (a)

159.In the above question, if the capacitors are connected in parallel, what will be the net
capacitance ?

a) 40 μF
b) 20 μF
c) 10 μF
d) 30 μF

Ans: (a)

160. The three vector diagrams are shown below. While of the diagram is for pure resistance circuit.

161. In the vector diagrams shown in Q.160, diagram (a) corresponds to

a) Pure inductive circuit
b) Pure resistive circuit
c) Pure resistive circuit
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

162. In the vector diagrams shown in Q. 160 the diagram (b) corresponds to

a) Pure inductive circuit

b) Pure resistive circuit
c) Pure capacitive circuit

Ans: (a)

163. Which of the following expression is true for apparent power in an AC circuit ?

a) Vr.m.s.×Ir.m.s.
b) Vmean×Imean
c) Vpeak×Ipeak
d) V I cos⁡ϕ

Ans: (a)

164. The sum of the rms potentials in the RC circuit does not follow the Kirchhoff’s law.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

165. The power dissipation in the pure capacitance of RC circuit will be

a) Zero
b) Small
c) Higher than dissipation in resistance
d) Equal to dissipation in resistance

Ans: (a)
166. Which of the following expression is correct for series reactance Xcs if three capacitors C1, C2 and
C3 are connected in series?

a) 1/Xcs = 1/Xc1 + 1/Xc2 + 1/Xc3

b) Xcs = Xc1 + Xc2 + Xc3
c) Xcs = 1/Xc1 + 1/Xc2 + 1/Xc3
d) Xcs = 1/Xc1 + Xc2+ Xc3

Ans: (b)

167. An RC network is shown blow, can be used as high pass and low pass filter as well. For which of
the condition lower cut-off frequency occurs as high pass filter ?

a) ES = ER
b) ES+ EC
c) ER=0.707 EC
d) ER= 0.707 ES

Ans: (d)

168. Which of the following relationship shown by curves is true for inductive circuit ?

169. The Laplace transform of the unit function is given by

a) 1/s
b) 1/s2
c) S
d) 1

Ans: (a)

170. The Laplace transform of the function ƒ(t) = E-at is given by

a) 1/a2+ s2
b) 1/a+s
c) 1/a+s
d) s2/a2+ s2

Ans: (b)
171. The Laplace transform of the function ƒ(t) = cos⁡βt is given by

a) β/s2+β2
b) s/s2+β2
c) 1/2+β2
d) β/s+β

Ans: (b)

172. The Laplace transform of the function ƒ(t) = sin⁡βt is given by

a) β/s+β2
b) β/s2+β2
c) s/s2+β2
d) β2/s+β

Ans: (a)

173. Whish of the following is the Laplace transform of ƒ(t) = t ?

a) 1/s
b) 1/s2
c) 1/s3
d) S

Ans: (a)

174. The expression £ (t) = n1/sn+1 is true the function

a) ƒ(t) = tn
b) ƒ(t) = ntn
c) ƒ(t) = t/n
d) ƒ(t) = tn

Ans: (a)

175. Which of the following conditions are necessary for validity of “Initial Value Theorem”

Line s F(s) = line ƒ(t)

s →∞ t → 0

a) ƒ(t) and its derivative ƒ(t) must have Laplace transformer

b) if the Laplace transform of ƒ(t) is F(s), the lim sF(s) must exist
c) only ƒ(t) must have Laplace transformer
d) (a) and (b) both

Ans: (d)

176. The Laplace transform of a unit impulse at t = 0 is

a) S
b) 1/s
c) Unity
d) 1/s2

Ans: (c)

177.If the Laplace transform of unit step is 1/s. How many poles will be located at the origin of the s-
plane?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) None

Ans: (a)

178. If the Laplace transform of the function ƒ(t) = e-at is 1/(s+α) then Which of the following
statement will be true?

a) One pole will be located on the real axis of s-plane at – α

b) One pole will be located on the imaginary axis of s-plane at ± ϳω
c) One complex pole will be located at the origin of s-plane
d) One complex pole will be located in s-plane at – α ± јω

Ans: (a)

179. For which of the following function the Laplace will be 2/s2
a) ƒ(t) = t
b) ƒ(t) = 1
c) ƒ(t) = δt
d) ƒ(t) = 2t
e) ƒ(t) = t2

Ans: (e)

180. Which of the following operations is to be carried on to get ramp function from unit impulse at t
=0?

a) integrate unit impulse function once

b) integrate unit impulse function twice
c) integrate unit impulse function thrice
d) differentiate unit impulse function twice
e) differentiate unit impulse once as a function of time

Ans: (c)

181. Which of the following function represents parabolic characteristics?

a) ƒ(t) = t
b) ƒ(t) = t2
c) ƒ(t) = e-at
d) ƒ(t) = Ut

Ans: (b)

182.The power factor of a purely resistive circuit will be

a) unity
b) zero
c) infinity
d) 0.5

Ans: (a)

183. The quality factor of RCL circuit will increase if the

a) R decreases
b) R increases
c) Voltage increases
d) Impedance increases

Ans: (a)

184.If the diameter of a current carrying conductor is doubled, the resistance will

a) Be reduced to half
b) To reduced to one-fourth
c) Remain same
d) Be doubled

Ans: (b)

185. The inductance across the points AB in the circuit shown is given by

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 5
e) 4

Ans: (d)

186. A pure inductance is connected with DC source as shown. The inductance will behave as

a) Open circuit
b) Closed circuit
c) Short circuit
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

187. A voltage divider and its Thevenin’s equivalent circuit is shown below. What will be the value of
voltage source V and resistance R.

a) 10 V, 80 Ω
b) 10 V, 120 Ω
c) 4 V, 48 Ω
d) 5 V, 50 Ω

Ans: (c)

188. In the circuit shown below, what will be the voltage uR at t = 0?

a) 0
b) V
c) V/2
d) 0.37 V
e) 0.63 V

Ans: (b)

189. In the figure of Q. 188, what will be the voltage uR at t = ∞?

a) 0
b) V
c) 0.37 V
d) 0.63 V
c) V/√3

Ans: (a)

190. In the figure of Q. 188, what will be the voltage uC at t = 0?

a) 0
b) V
c) 0.37 V
d) 0.63 V

Ans: (a)

191. In the figure of Q. 188, what will be the voltage uC at t = ∞?

a) V
b) 0
c) V/√3
d) 0.63 V

Ans: (a)

192. A pulse of width T seconds is applied to an RC circuit. The response of the circuit is shown
below. Which kind of filter circuit will produce this response?

a) Low pass filter

b) High pass filter
c) Medium pass filter
d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

193. If the output signal of a circuit appropriate the time integral of the input signal, such circuit is
called

a) Differentiator
b) Integrator
c) Multiplier
d) Divider

Ans: (b)

194. A pulse of T seconds width is applied to an RC circuit-produces the following response. What
kind of filter will generate such response?

a) Low pass filter

b) High pass filter
c) Medium pass filter
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

195. A pulse of T seconds width is applied to an RC circuit. What kind of circuit will be required to
produce a ramp response ?

a) Low pass filter with low time constant

b) Low pass filter with high time constant
c) An integrator
d) A differentiator
e) (b) or (c)

Ans: (e)

196. Two resistances R1 and R2 are connected in series across the voltage source where R1 > R2. The
largest voltage drop will be across

a) R1
b) R2
c) either R1 orR2
d) none of them

Ans: (a)

197. Which of the following statement is true?

a) A Norton equivalent is series circuit

b) A Thevenin equivalent is a parallel circuit
c) Resistive circuit is a dual pair
d) R-L circuit is a dual pair
e) L-C circuit is a dual pair

Ans: (c)

198. The time constant of a series RC circuit is given by

a) RC
b) R/C
c) R2C
d) RC2

Ans: (a)

199.If resistance is 10Ω and inductance is 1 H in an RL series circuit. What will be the time constant
of this series RL circuit?

a) 10 second
b) 0.1 second
c) 100 second
d) 0.001 second

Ans: (b)

200. The magnitude of the impedance 20-15j is given by

a) 5 Ω
b) 15 Ω
c) 25 Ω
d) 625 Ω

Ans: (c)

201. If an inductive coil has 50 Ω resistance and 500 Ω inductive reactance. What will be the quality
of factor Q?

a) 5
b) 50
c) 100
d) 10

Ans: (d)

202. The impedance Z1 = 4 + 3j and Z2 = 4 – 3j are added. What will be resultant impedance Z1 + Z2 ?

a) 5 <15°
b) 8 <0°
c) 8 <180°
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

203. The phasors for which of the following pair are 180° out of phase for VL, VC and VR ?

a) VL and VR
b) VC and VR
c) VC and VL
d) none of the above

Ans: (c)
204. If impedance Z1 = 10 <10° and Z2 = 10 <15°, what will be the value of Z1 × Z2 ?

a) 100 <15°
b) 10 <5°
c) 100 <50°
d) 20 <15°

Ans: (a)

205. In the Q. 204, what will be the value of Z1/Z2 ?

a) 1 <5°
b) 10 <2°
c) 1 <20°
d) 100 <2°

Ans: (a)

206. The Fourier series expansion of an odd periodic function contains

a) Cosine terms
b) Constant terms only
c) Sine terms
d) Cosec terms only

Ans: (c)

207.The Fourier series expansion of an even periodic function contains

a) Sine terms
b) Constant terms
c) Cosine terms
d) Harmonics

Ans: (c)

208. Which of the following conditions is true for even function?

a) ƒ(t) = - ƒ(n + T/2)

b) ƒ(t) = - ƒ(t)
c) ƒ(t) = ƒ(-t)
d) ƒ(t) = ƒ(t)

Ans: (c)

209. What will be the equivalent conductance G of the circuit shown below. G 1, G2 and G3 are the
conductance of individual circuit branch

a) G = G1 + G2 + G3
b) 1/G = G1 + G2 + G3
c) 1/G = 1/G1 + 1/G2 + 1/G3
d) G = 1/G1+G2+G3

Ans: (a)

210. If the electrical current is compared to the flow of water through a pipe, which part of the pipe
system is analogous to conductance ?

a) Cross-section of the pipe

b) Length of the pipe
c) Pipe gradient
d) Pipe material

Ans: (a)

211. The electrical circuit A and B are shown below. Which of the battery of the flowing circuit will
be loaded more and by what amount of current provided resistance of bulbs are same?

a) A, IA = 4IB
b) B, IA = IB
c) A, IB = 4IA
d) B, IA = 2IB

Ans: (a)

212.If one cycle of a.c. waveform occurs every second, what will be the frequency of this waveform?

a) 0.2 Hz
b) 0.5 Hz
c) 1 Hz
d) 2 Hz

Ans: (c)

213. A circuit is shown below. What will be the steady state value of the current?

a) 1 amp
b) 2 amps
c) 4 amps
d) 5 amps

Ans: (c)

214. There are two circuits shown below. Which of the following statement is true?

a) The lamp will be brightest when contact K moves to A in circuit (a)

b) The lamp will be brightest when the contact K moves to B in circuit (a)

c) The lamp will be brightest when contact K is moved to A the circuit (b)
d) Circuit (a) is a potential divider

Ans: (b)
215.In Q. 214, circuit (a) behaves as

a) Current limiting source

b) Potential divider
c) Light limiting source
d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

216. In the Q. 214, the circuit (b) behaves as

a) Current limiting source

b) Potential divider
c) Light limiting source
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)
217. Wheatstone bridge is used to measure

a) Current
b) Voltage
c) Resistance
d) Power

Ans: (c)

218. What will be the energy used by the battery if the battery has to drive 625 × 10 16 electrons with
potential difference of 10 V across the terminals?

a) 5 joules
b) 10 joules
c) 6.25 joules
d) 1.6 joules

Ans: (b)

219. If a night bulb is used at less brightness than rated one, which of the following method one will
choose to achieve required brightness?

a) Current-limiting resistor
b) Potential divider
c) Source Voltage Reduction
d) Either (a) or (b)

Ans: (d)

220. A sine wave of 220 V, 50 Hz AC will achieve its negative maximum value in

a) 10 m sec
b) 15 m sec
c) 20 m sec
d) 50 m sec

Ans: (b)

221. If a neon bulb of 60 watts is connected 220 V, Ac source and draws 272 mA current, what be the
resistance of the bulb filament?
a) 1000 Ω
b) 808 Ω
c) 800 Ω
d) 60 Ω
e) 272 Ω

Ans: (c)

222.An inductive circuit is shown below, which of the equation represents the circuit correctly?

a) V = Ldi/dt
b) V = IR + Ldi/dt
c) V = IR
d) V = IR + 1/L di/dt

Ans: (d)

223. Which of the following condition is true for maximum transfer of power if the internal
impedance of voltage source is Zs = R + jx

a) ZL = Zs
b) ZL = R – jx
c) ZL = R + jx
d) ZL = Zs/2

Ans: (b)

224. In the Q.223, what will be the maximum transfer of power to ZL ?

a) V2/R
b) V2/2R
c) V2/R2
d) V2/4R

Ans: (b)

225. An RC circuit is shown below, the current will reach its maximum value

a) After 1000 μ sec of turning on the switch

b) After 500 μ sec of turning on the switch
c) After 50 μ sec of turning on the switch
d) Immediately after turning on the switch

Ans: (d)

226. The maximum current in the circuit of Q. 225 will be

a) 1 A
b) 100 A
c) 2 A
d) 5 A

Ans: (a)

227.If D is the electric displacement density and E is the electric field strength, then D and E can be
related by

a) D = E2/ε
b) D = E/ε
c) D = εE2
d) D = εE
e) None of the above

Ans: (d)

228. If μr is the relative permeability of a given medium, μ is a permeability and μ 0 is the permeability
of the free space, then the expression for μr is given by

a) μr = μ0/μ
b) μr = μ/μ0
c) μr = μ0/μ2
d) μr = μ0/μ
e) None of the above

Ans: (d)

229. Which of the following statement is true?

a) The current in a discharging capacitor grows exponentially

b) The current in a discharging capacitor decays exponentially
c) The current in the discharging capacitor grows linearly

d) The current in the discharging capacitor decreases constantly

Ans: (a)
230. Which of the following indicates the units of displacement density?

a) Ampere-meter
b) Coulomb-meter
c) Coulomb/m2
d) Volt m2

Ans: (c)

231.If RC is the time constant of the R-C circuit, now much time the capacitor will take to get fully
charged?

a) RC seconds
b) 4 RC seconds
c) 3 RC seconds
d) 5 RC seconds

Ans: (c)

232. Find the change in potential energy of a system where change Q0 is carried to the charge Q1 at a
distance of 10 meters with a 10 N force?

a) 10 N/meter
b) 100 N-meter
c) 10 joules
d) 50 N/meter

Ans: (b)

233. Which of the following phenomenon takes place when an electromagnetic wave propagates
through free space?

a) Reflection
b) Phase shift
c) Attenuation
d) Distortion
Ans: (c)

234. Which of the following value is the intrinsic impedance of free space?

a) 100 Ω
b) 50 Ω
c) 317 Ω
d) 377 Ω
e) 370 Ω
f) 277 Ω

Ans: (d)

235. The resultant magnetic flux generated in the closed surface will be

a) Zero
b) Continuous
c) Constant
d) Unity

Ans: (a)

236.If the current in induction coil varies from 10 A to 20 A in one second and induces the voltage of
100 V, what will be the inductance of coil?

a) 10 H
b) 10 μH
c) 5 H
d) 1 H
e) 10 mH
f) 100 H

Ans: (a)

237. What will happen if electromagnetic wave is falling on a perfect dielectric?

a) The wave will be transmitted completely

b) The wave will be partially reflected and partly transmitted
c) The wave will be completely refracted
d) The wave will be partially absorbed

Ans: (b)

238. Which of the following gives the rate of energy flow?

a) Maxwell equation
b) Pointing vector
c) Poisson vector
d) Newton’s laws

Ans: (b)

239.The quality factor of an induction coil can be increased if

a) The length of the wire is increased

b) The diameter of wire decreased
c) The length of the wire is decreased

Ans: ()

240. Which of the following is normally designed for high value of quality factor?

a) Resistance
b) Inductance
c) Capacitance
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

241. Which of the following statement is true?

a) Div curl B = ∞
b) Div curl A = 0
c) Div curl B = 1
d) Div curl B = B

Ans: (b)

242. If X = q/4πr2, which of the following parameter will be X?

a) Electric field strength
b) Magnetic field strength
c) Electric displacement density
d) Permeability

Ans: (c)

243. Which of the following expression is correct for electric field strength?

a) E = D
b) E = πD
c) E = D/ε
d) E = r/ε

Ans: (c)

244. Which of the following distance in terms of wavelength is correct if the distance is measured
between maxima and minima of standing wave?

a) λ/2
b) λ/8
c) 4λ
d) λ/4

Ans: (d)

245. Polarization in the electromagnetic waves is attributed to

a) absorptive nature of waves

b) reflection of waves
c) longitudinal nature of waves
d) transverse nature of waves
e) electric field of waves

Ans: (d)

246. Which of the equation represents the following wavefrom?

a) y = sin⁡x/3
b) x = 2 sin⁡3x/2
c) y = 2sin⁡3x
d) y = 2 sin⁡2x
e) y = 2 sin⁡x

Ans: (c)

247. If 0 < θ1 < θ2 < π/2, which of the following statement is true ?

a) sin⁡θ1 < sin⁡θ2

b) cos⁡θ1 < cos⁡θ2
c) tan⁡θ1 < tan⁡θ2
d) (a)and (c) only
e) (b) and (c) only
f) (a) and (b) only

Ans: (d)

248. Which of the following statement is true?

a) The magnetic field inside the conductor is zero

b) The magnetic field inside the semiconductor is zero
c) The magnetic field inside superconductor is zero

d) The magnetic field inside the superconductor is zero

Ans: (c)
249. Wein Bridge may be used for

a) Resistance determination
b) Frequency measurements
c) Power factor measurements
d) Harmonic distortion analysis
e) Both (b) and (d)

Ans: (e)

250. The D’Arsonval instruments work on the principle of

a) Moving coil instruments
b) Moving iron instruments
c) Potentiometric instruments
d) Permanent magnet moving coil instruments
e) Induction instruments

Ans: (d)

251. When any material has negative magnetism, the material is called as

a) Paramagnetic
b) Diamagnetic
c) Ferromagnetic
d) Antiferromagnetic

Ans: (b)

252. The bar magnet has

a) The dipole movement

b) Monopole movement
c) (a) and (c) both
d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

253. There is no such material which has properties of magnetic monopole.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

254. Which of the following materials are diamagnetic?

a) Copper
b) Silver
c) Copper and silver
d) Iron
Ans: (c)

255. When of the following material fall in the category of paramagnetic materials?

a) Copper
b) Iron
c) Copper and iron
d) Nickel
e) None of the above

Ans: (d)

256. Which of the following type materials are not very important for engineering applications?

a) Paramagnetic
b) Ferromagnetic
c) Diamagnetic
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

257. The solids which have small but positive magnetic susceptibility are called

a) Ferromagnetic
b) Paramagnetic
c) Diamagnetic
d) Anti-ferromagnetic

Ans: (b)

258. The susceptibility of paramagnetic materials generally lies between

a) 10-3 and 10-7

b) 10-3 and 10-5
c) 10-4 and 10-8
d) 10-2 and 10-5

Ans: (b)
259. For which of the following materials the saturation value is the highest?

a) Ferrites
b) Ferromagnetic materials
c) Paramagnetic materials
d) Diamagnetic materials

Ans: (a)

260. For which of the following materials the relative permeability is less than one?

a) Ferromagnetic materials
b) Diamagnetic materials
c) Paramagnetic materials
d) Ferrites

Ans: (b)

261. The temperature above which an anti-ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic is called

a) Peak temperature
b) Critical temperature
c) Neel temperature
d) Weiss temperature

Ans: (c)

262. The inductance of the following circuit across A and B will be

a) L1+L2+M
b) L1+L2+2M
c) L1+L2-2M
d) L1+L2-M

Ans: (b)

263. The inductance of the following circuit across A and B will be

a) L1+L2-M
b) L1+L2+2M
c) L1+L2+M2-L1 L2
d) (L1 L2-M2)/(L1+L2+2M)

Ans: (b)

264. The transient currents may occur in following circuits

a) Pure resistive circuits

b) Capacitive circuits
c) RL circuits
d) RLC circuits
e) (b) or (c) or (d)

Ans: (e)

265. Which of the following coil will have large resonant frequency?

a) A coil with large distributed capacitance

b) A coil with low distributed capacitance
c) A coil with large resistance
d) A coil with low resistance

Ans: (a)

266. The transfer matrix |1&0 Y&1| belongs to which of the following circuits?

267. What will be the magnetic field in the toroid having N number of turns, diameter d and current I

a) 1/2π NI/d
b) 1/π NI/d
c) μo/π NI/d
d) (μo IN)/(πd2 )

Ans: (c)

268. A variable AC source is connected across the resistor. Which of the following curve represents
correct relationship between W and voltage V, if voltage is increased gradually.

269. Atypical radar antenna will have the bandwidth of

a) 4°
b) 6°
c) 1°
d) 2°

Ans: (d)

270. Which of the following antenna is non-resonant?

a) Broadside array
b) Marconi
c) Discone
d) Rhombic

Ans: (d)

271.Ferrimagnetic materials are generally classified as

a) Conductors
b) Semiconductors
c) Dielectric
d) Insulators

Ans: (b)

272. Which of the material one will choose for transformer core if the transformer has to work at
microwave frequency?

a) Supermalloy
b) Silicon
c) Ferrites
d) Iron

Ans: (c)

273. The magnetic materials exhibit the property of magnetization because of

a) Orbital motion electrons b) Spin of electrons

c) Spin of nucleus
d) Either of these
e) All of the above

Ans: (c)

274. A coil of 0.04 mH is carrying current of 1 A. If this current is reversed in 0.02 seconds, the
induced emf in the coil will be

a) 0.16 V
b) 0.008 V
c) 0.004 V
d) 0.04 V

Ans: (c)

275. A coil wound on the iron core which carries current I. The self induced voltage in the coil is not
affected by

a) Change of number of turns of coil

b) The resistance of magnetic path
c) Variation in voltage to the coil
d) Variation in coil current

Ans: (c)

276. How much energy will be stored in the magnetic field of coil which has self inductance of 10
mH and current of 20 A?

a) 1 joule
b) 10 joule
c) 2 joule
d) 20 joule

Ans: (c)

277. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Inductance of the coil carrying a constant DC current will increase the current
b) The inductance of the coil carrying a constant DC current will not affect the current
c) The inductance of the coil carrying a constant DC current will decrease the current
d) The inductance of the coil carrying a constant Dc current will change the current into pulses

Ans: (b)

278. If the frequency of power supply is 60 Hz, what will be the period of one cycle?

a) 0.02 sec
b) 0.015 sec
c) 0.017 sec
d) 0.03 sec

Ans: (c)

279. If a sinusoidal wave has frequency of 50 Hz with 15 A rms current which of the following
equation represents this wave

a) 15 sin⁡50 t
b) 30 sin⁡25 t
c) 42.42 sin⁡25 t
d) 21.21 sin⁡314 t

Ans: (d)

280. What will happen if the frequency of power supply in a pure capacitive circuit is doubled?

a) The current will be reduced to half

b) The current will also be doubled
c) The current will remain same
d) The current will increase by fourfold

Ans: (b)

281. The safest value of current the human body can carry more than 3 seconds is

a) 5 mA
b) 15 mA
c) 25 mA
d) 35 mA
e) 9 mA
Ans: (e)

282. Which of the following precaution will be taken first if a man suffers from electric shock?

a) Switch the power supply

b) Call the doctor
c) Make him lie on ground
d) Provide him glucose
e) Lie done on the ground and provide him artificial respiration

Ans: (e)

283. A transformer is designed to achieve 240 V AC 50 Hz supply with input of 3.3 kV, 50 Hz and
output of 415 V 50 Hz. The secondary of the transformer will have

a) Three phase 3 wire system

b) Three phase 2 wire system
c) Thhee phase 6 wire system
d) Three phase 4 wire system

Ans: (d)

284. The hysteresis losses do not depend on

a) Volume of material
b) Magnetic field
c) Frequency
d) Either of them
e) None of these

Ans: (e)

285. For which of the following materials the net magnetic moment should be zero.

a) Ferromagnetic materials
b) Diamagnetic materials
c) Anti-ferrimagnetic materials
d) Anti-ferromagnetic materials
Ans: (d)

286. What will happen if strong magnetic field is applied to ferromagnetic field?

a) The domain wall motion varies

b) The domain wall motion becomes constant
c) The domain wall motion becomes reversible
d) The domain wall motion becomes irreversible

Ans: (d)

287. The attraction capacity of electromagnet will

a) Increase if the flux density decreases

b) Increase if the flux density increases
c) Increase if the core area increases
d) Increase if the core length increases

Ans: (b)

288. Which of the following statement is correct?

a) The conductivity of ferromagnetic material is better than ferrites

b) The conductivity of ferrites is better than ferromagnetic materials
c) The conductivity of ferrites is same as that of ferromagnetic materials
d) The conductivity of ferrites is very high

Ans: (b)

289. The magnetization and applied field in ferromagnetic materials are related

a) Linearly
b) Non-linearly
c) Parabolically
d) Sinusoidally

Ans: (b)

290. The effective power in a pure capacitive circuit shall be

a) Energy stored by capacitor
b) Positive
c) Half of the energy stored
d) Zero

Ans: (d)

291. A pure inductance connected across 230 V 50 Hz supply consumes 50 W. this consumption can
be attributed to

a) The reactance of the inductor

b) The current flowing in the inductor
c) The big size of the inductor
d) The false statement made in this question

Ans: (d)

292. The heat generated by an electric iron is

a) Reactive power
b) True power
c) Apparent power
d) Reactive and power

Ans: (b)

293. In which of the materials the spin moments associated with two sets atoms are aligned
antiparallel to each other.

a) Ferromagnetic materials
b) Anti-ferromagnetic materials
c) Ferrites
d) Ferromagnetic materials

Ans: (b)

294. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Polarizer converts the produced hydrogen in the water in the carbon zinc battery
b) Depolarizer converts the produced hydrogen in the water in the carbon zinc battery
c) Carbon power converts the produced hydrogen in the water in the carbon zinc battery

d) Zinc chloride converts the produced hydrogen in the water in the carbon zinc battery

Ans: (b)
295. Manganese dioxide acts as depolarizer in

a) Lead acid battery

b) Carbon zinc cell
c) Dry cell
d) Zinc electrolyte cell

Ans: (c)

296. Which of the following acts as a depolarizer in carbon zinc cell?

a) Carbon power
b) Zinc chloride
c) Iron ore and carbon powder
d) Ammonia chloride

Ans: (c)

297. If the current is passed through a conductor which of the following phenomenon will be
observed?

a) The magnetic field will be developed in the conductor

b) The magnetic field and heat is developed in the conductor
c) The only heat is developed in the conductor
d) The molecules of the conductor attract each other

Ans: (b)

298. The standing wave ratio of 4 will be applicable to

a) 80 ohms transmission line feeding to a load of 320 ohms

b) 20 ohms transmission line feeding to a load of 100 ohms
c) 100 ohms transmission line feeding to a load of 300 ohms
d) 50 ohms transmission line feeding to a load of 500 ohms
Ans: (a)

299. A network which does not have either voltage source or current source is called

a) Active network
b) Passive network
c) Resistive network
d) Resistive and inductive network

Ans: (b)

Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) of Alternator and

Synchronous Motors page-1

1.The advantage of salient poles in an alternator is

a) Reduced windage loss

b) Reduced noise
c) Reduced bearing loads and noise
d) Adaptability to low and medium speed operations

Ans: (d)

2. The emf generated in alternator depends on

a) Frequency
b) Flux per pole
c) Coil span factor
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

3. The rotor of a salient pole alternator has 12 poles. The number of cycles of emf per revolution
would be

a) 4
b) 3
c) 6
d) 12

Ans: (c)

4. Salient pole type rotors are

a) Larger in diameter and smaller in axial length

b) Larger in diameter and larger in axial length
c) Smaller in diameter and larger in axial length
d) Smaller in diameter and smaller in axial length

Ans: (a)

5. The exciter for a generator is a

a) Shunt motor
b) Series motor
c) Shunt generator
d) Compound motor

Ans: (c)

6. The frequency of voltage generated in an alternator depends on

a) Number of poles
b) Speed of alternator
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Type of winding

Ans: (c)

7. The frequency per pole in an alternator is equal to

a) Number of poles
b) Number of armature conductors
c) Number of pair of poles
d) None of these
Ans: (c)

8. In alternators, cylindrical pole type rotors are generally used with prime movers of

a) High speed
b) Low speed
c) Medium speed
d) Both low and high speed

Ans: (a)

9. An alternator is said to be overexcited when it is operating at

a) Unity power factor

b) Leading power factor
c) Lagging power factor
d) Either lagging or leading power factor

Ans: (b)

10. In alternators, salient pole type rotors are generally used with prime movers of

a) Low speed
b) Medium speed
c) High speed
d) Any speed

Ans: a

11. As the speed of an alternator increases, the frequency

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) May increases or decreases depending on the power factor

Ans: (a)

12. The generator which gives dc supply to the rotor of an alternator is called
a) Convertor
b) Exciter
c) Inverter
d) Rectifier

Ans: (b)

13. The number of electrical degrees passed through in oue revoltion of a four pole synchronous
alternator is

a) 360°
b) 720°
c) 1440°
d) 2880°

Ans: (a)

14. The rotor of alternator has

a) No slip rings
b) Two slip rings
c) Three slip rings
d) Four slip rings

Ans: (b)

15. Alternator works on the principle of

a) Self and mutual induction

b) Self mutual induction
c) Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
d) Mutual induction

Ans: (c)

16. In an alternator, when the load increases due to armature reaction, the terminal voltage

a) Rises
b) Drops
c) Remains unchanged
d) May drop or rise

Ans: (d)

17. In a rotating electrical machine, the chording angle for eliminating fifth harmonic should be

a) 38°
b) 36°
c) 33°
d) 30°

Ans: (b)

18. The exciting field coil of an alternator is generally excited by

a) A separate dc generator driver by some source

b) A separate ac generator drive by some source
c) A dc generator coupled directly to the armature shaft
d) A battery

Ans: (c)

19. The material used for the manufacture of large turbo-alternator is

a) Cold rolled grain oriented steel

b) Hot rolled grain oriented steel
c) Wrought iron
d) Cast steel

Ans: (c)

20. The ratio of armature leakage reactance to synchronous reactance of large size modern
alternator is about

a) 0.05
b) 0.2
c) 0.4
d) 0.6
Ans: (b)

21. Use of damped winding in alternators results in

a) Elimination of harmonic effects

b) A low resistance path for the currents due to unbalancing of voltage
c) Oscillations when two alternators operate in parallel
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

22. High speed alternators usually have

a) Salient pole rotors

b) Cylindrical rotors
c) Both salient pole and cylindrical rotors
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

23. In a synchronous machine, if the field flux axis ahead of the armature field axis in the direction of
rotation, the machine is working as

a) Asynchronous generator
b) Asynchronous motor
c) Synchronous generator
d) Synchronous motor

Ans: (c)

24. Cylindrical rotor alternators have

a) Large length to diameter ratio

b) Small length to diameter ratio
c) Vertical configuration
d) None of these

Ans: (a)
25. In an alternator, the armature reaction is completely magnetizing when the load power factor is

a) Unity
b) 0.7
c) Zero lagging
d) Zero leading

Ans: (d)

26. To ensure effective cooling, cylindrical rotor alternators use

a) Axial ducts only

b) Radial dusts only
c) Forced air cooling
d) Both radial and axial ducts

Ans: (d)

27. Which of the following is not an integral path of a synchronous generator system?

a) Prime mover
b) Excitation system
c) Distribution transformer
d) Protection system

Ans: (c)

28. The main advantage of using fractional pitch winding in an alternator is to reduce

a) Amount of copper in the winding

b) Size of the machine
c) Harmonics in the generated emf
d) Cost of the machine

Ans: (c)

29. Cross magnetization in an alternator field results in output which is

a) True sinusoidal
b) Non sinusoidal
c) Harmonic free
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

30. The pitch factor in rotating electrical machines is defined as the ratio of the resultant emf of a

a) Full pitch to the phase emf

b) Full pitched coil to the of a chorded coil
c) Chorded coil to the of a full pitched coil
d) Chorded coil to the phase emf

Ans: (c)

31. In an alternator, in order to reduce the harmonics in the generated emf

a) Slots are skewed

b) Salient pole tips are changed
c) Winding is made well distributed
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

32. Overheating of windings of an alternator

a) Reduces life of the machine

b) Reduces power factor
c) Reduces generated voltage
d) Causes no significant evil effect

Ans: (a)

33. The necessary condition for parallel operation of two alternators is

a) Phase sequence should be the same

b) Frequency should be the same
c) Terminal voltage should be the same
d) All of these
Ans: (d)

34. When two alternators are running in parallel, if the prime mover of one of the alternators is
disconnected, then alternator will

a) Stop running
b) Run as a synchronous motor
c) Run as a generator
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

35.Two alternators are running in parallel. If the driving force of both the alternators is changed, there
will be changed in

a) Frequency
b) Back emf
c) Generated voltage
d) All of these

Ans: (a)

36. In a synchronous machine with damped winding, the damping torque at negative slip developed
by damped winding acts to

a) Increase the speed

b) Decrease the speed
c) Change the frequency
d) Either increases or decreases the speed

Ans: (b)

37. The rotor of high-speed turbo-alternator is made up of solid steel forging to get

a) Reduction of bearing friction

b) Reduction of eddy current loss
c) Economy
d) High mechanical stress
Ans: (d)

38. In a 3-phase alternator, the unsaturated synchronous reactance of 3Ω per phase. Then saturated
synchronous reactance is

a) 3Ω
b) >3Ω
c) <3Ω
d) >>3Ω

Ans: (c)

39. The rated voltage of alternators used in power stations is usually

a) 11 kV
b) 33 kV
c) 66 kV
d) 132 kV

Ans: (a)

40. In an alternator, use of short pitch coil of 160° will indicate the absence of following harmonic

a) Third
b) Fifth
c) Seventh
d) Ninth

Ans: (d)

1. The maximum current that can be supplied by an alternator depends on

a) Number of poles
b) Speed of the exciter
c) Exciter current
d) Strength of the magnetic field

Ans: (d)
42. For the same power rating, an alternator operating at lower voltage will be

a) Less noisy
b) Costlier
c) Larger in size
d) More efficient

Ans: (c)

43. In alternators, the distribution factor is defined as the ratio of emfs of

a) Concentrated winding to distributed winding

b) Distributed winding to full pitch winding
c) Full pitch winding to distributed winding
d) Distributed winding to concentrated winding

Ans: (b)

44. The following path play important role in over speed protection of an alternator

a) Governor
b) Differential protection
c) Alarm
d) Overcurrent relay

Ans: (a)

45. In large synchronous generators, protection provided against external faults is

a) Inter-turn fault protection

b) Sensitive earth fault protection
c) Biased differential protection
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

46. Unbalanced 3-phase stator currents in an alternator cause

a) Heating of rotor
b) Vibrations
c) Double frequency currents in the rotor
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

47. Permissible variation in supply frequency of alternators is

a) ± 1%
b) ± 2%
c) ± 4%
d) ± 6%

Ans: (b)

48.In a synchronous alternator, armature reaction is solely determined by

a) Power factor of the load

b) Amount of current drawn from the alternator
c) Speed of the prime mover driving the alternator

d) None of these

Ans: (a)

49. For zero factor leading, the effect of armature reaction in an alternator on the main flux is

a) Magnetizing
b) Demagnetizing
c) Cross-magnetizing
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

50. The emf generated in an alternator due to nth harmonic is

a) N times the fundamental emf

b) Equal to the fundamental emf
c) Less than the fundamental emf
d) Zero
Ans: (c)

51. The armature reaction of an alternator will be cross-magnetizing if the power factor of the load is

a) Zero leading
b) less than unity
c) Unity
d) More than unity

Ans: (c)

52. The effect of cross-magnetizing field in an alternator may be reduced by

a) Shifting the brush positions

b) Using interpoles
c) Using a magnetizing pole
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

53. The following method is best suited for finding the voltage regulation of an alternator

a) Synchronous impedance method

b) Politer triangle method
c) MMF method
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

54. Power factor of an alternator driven by constant prime mover input can be changed by changing
its

a) Speed
b) Load
c) Field excitation
d) Phase sequence

Ans: (c)
55. Salient pole machines have

a) Large number of poles

b) Small number of poles
c) Small diameters
d) Long cores

Ans: (a)

56. The stator of modern alternators are wound for

a) 60° phase groups

b) 120° phase groups
c) 180° phase groups
d) 240° phase groups

Ans: (a)

57. The armature reaction of an alternator influences

a) Windage losses
b) Operating speed
c) Generated voltage per phase
d) Waveform of generated voltage

Ans: (c)

58. When an alternator is supplying unity power factor load, the armature reaction will produce

a) Magnetization of the main field

b) Demagnetization of the main field
c) Distortion of the main field
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

59. Two alternators are running in parallel. The excitation of one of the alternators is increased. The
result will be that
a) Machine with excess excitation will burn
b) Both machines will start vibrating
c) Power output will decrease
d) Wattles component will change

Ans: (d)

60. Alternators are generally designed to generate

a) Fixed frequencies
b) Variable frequencies
c) Fixed currents
d) Fixed power factors

Ans: (a)

61. In thermal stations, the number of poles used in alternators are usually

a) 48
b) 12
c) 24
d) None

Ans: (d)

62. In a synchronous alternator, the frequency f in Hz is given by

a) ƒ = PN/120
b) ƒ = PN/60
c) ƒ = P/60N
d) ƒ = N/60P

Ans: (a)

63. In case of two alternators running in parallel and perfectly synchronized, the synchronizing power
is

a) zero
b) positive
c) negative
d) ideally infinite

Ans: (c)

64. On keeping the input to the prime mover of an alternator constant and increasing the excitation

a) kVA becomes leading

b) kVA become lagging
c) kW will change
d) pf of the load remains unaltered

Ans: (b)

65. If an alternator is operating at a leading power factor, its voltage regulation is

a) more than one

b) equal to zero
c) negative
d) none of these

Ans: (c)

66. Hunting in synchronous machines can be reduced by using

a) damped bars
b) flywheel
c) machines having suitable synchronization power
d) all of these

Ans: (d)

67. In parallel operation of alternators, the synchronizing power is maximum, if armatures have

a) reactance equal to resistance

b) reactance less than resistances
c) reactance greater than resistances
d) none of these
Ans: (d)

68. For same power rating, the higher voltage alternator is

a) larger in size
b) smaller in size
c) cheaper
d) costlier

Ans: (b)

69. To run two alternators in parallel, the black Amp test is performed to ensure proper

a) voltage matching
b) frequency matching
c) phase difference matching
d) phase sequence matching

Ans: (b)

70. In an a.c. machine, the armature winding is kept stationary while the field winding is kept rotating
for the following reason

a) armature handles very large currents and high voltages

b) armature friction deep slots to accommodate large coils is easy if armature is kept stationary
c) easy of cooling the stator than rotor
d) none of these

Ans: (d)

71. For given output, steam turbo-alternators are smaller in size than water turbine alternators for
the following reason

a) steam turbo-alternators have long speeds

b) steam turbo-alternators run at higher speed
c) steam turbo-alternators are built with smaller capacities
d) none of these
Ans: (b)

72. In a large alternator, the moving part is

a) the poles
b) armature
c) brushes
d) none of these

Ans: (a)

73. To reverse the phase sequence of voltage generated in an alternator, we should

a) reverse the connection of its field winding

b) interchange any two of its phase terminals
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of these

Ans: (c)

74. The length 1 of the rotor of a turbo-alternator and its diameter D are related as below

a) ɭ = D/2
b) ɭ = D
c) ɭ = 2D
d) ɭ >> D

Ans: (d)

75. If the terminal voltage of an alternator is required to decrease with increases of load, the pf of the
load should be

a) zero lagging
b) zero leading
c) unity
d) more than unity

Ans: (b)
76. Short pitch coils are used in alternators

a) to reduce the size of the machine

b) to reduce the stray losses
c) to reduce harmonic output
d) to reduce accurate phase shift of 120° between each phase

Ans: (c)

77. The most accurate method of measuring the hot spot temperature in field winding is

a) thermocouple method
b) thermometer method
c) by measuring the increase in winding resistances
d) none of these

Ans: (a)

78. Distributing the armature winding of alternator in more than one number of slop per pole per
phase results in

a) economy of material used in winding

b) reduction of irregularities produced in waveform
c) less weight of the entire armature
d) increase of generated emf per phase

Ans: (b)

79. Regulation of an alternator is likely to be negative case of

a) high speed alternators

b) low speed alternators
c) lagging power factor of the load
d) leading power factor of the load

Ans: (d)

80. Maximum power in a synchronous machine is obtained when the load angle is
a) 0°
b) 85°
c) 120°
d) 135°

Ans: (b)

81. One of the advantages of distributing the winding in alternator is to

a) Reduce noise
b) Same on copper
c) Improve voltage waveform
d) Reduce harmonics

Ans: (c)

82. In case of a uniformly distributed winding in an alternator, the value of distribution factor is

a) 0.995
b) 0.90
c) 0.80
d) 0.70

Ans: (a)

83. Two alternators are connected in parallel. Their kVA and kW load shares can be changed by
changing respectively their

a) Driving torque and excitation

b) Excitation and driving torque
c) Excitation only
d) Driving torques only

Ans: (b)

84. The voltage of field system for an alternator is usually

a) Less than 200 V

b) Between 200 V 500 V
c) 500 V
d) Above 500 V

Ans: (a)

85. An alternator is capable of delivering power at a particular frequency. The frequency can be
increased by

a) Increasing the current supplied to the field electromagnets

b) Reversing the armature rotation
c) Increasing armature speed
d) Reversing the field polarity

Ans: (c)

86. The slip rings employed in a three-phase alternator in hydrostation are insulated for

a) Full armature voltage

b) Extra high tension voltage
c) Low voltage
d) Very high voltage

Ans: (c)

87. In alternator, during hunting when the speed becomes supersynchronous, the damped bars develop

a) Reluctance torque
b) Pseudo-stationary torque
c) Eddy current torque
d) Induction generator torque

Ans: (d)

88. In parallel operation of two alternator, the synchronizing torque comes into operation where there
is

a) Phase difference between the two voltage

b) Frequency difference between two voltage
c) Voltage difference between the two voltage
d) Either (a), (b), or (c)
Ans: (d)

89. When a single alternator connected to infinite busbar supplies a local load, the change in
excitation of the machine results in change of

a) Power factor
b) Power output
c) Input power
d) Terminal voltage

Ans: (a)

90. For successful parallel operation of two alternators, it is necessary that

a) They are synchronized using synchroscope and dark and bright lamp method of synchronization
b) Their phase sequence, voltage, frequency and polarity be the same
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

91. The following are the experimental data required for politer method for finding the voltage
regulation of an alternator

a) No load curve, shunt circuit test values

b) No load curve, zero power factor curve
c) Zero power factor curve, short circuit test curve
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

92. Of the following conditions, the one which does not have to be met by alternators working in
parallel is

a) Terminal voltage of each machine must be the same

b) The machines must have the same phase rotation
c) The machines must operate at the same frequency
d) The machines must have equal ratings
Ans: (d)

93. Salient-pole rotors are not used for high speed turbo alternators because of

a) Large eddy loss

b) High centrifugal force and winding loss
c) Excessive bearing friction
d) Harmful mechanical oscillations

Ans: (b)

94. The power factors of an alternator is determined by its

a) Speed
b) Loud
c) Excitation
d) Prime mover

Ans: (b)

95. The short circuit characteristic of an alternator is

a) Always linear
b) Always nonlinear
c) Sometimes liner and sometimes nonlinear
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

96. With a load p.f. of unity, the effect of armature reaction on the main-field flux of an alternator is

a) Nominal
b) Demagnetizing
c) Magnetizing
d) Distortional

Ans: (d)
97. In an alternator, if the armature current is leading the generated voltage by 90, the effect of
armature reaction will be

a) Demagnetizing
b) Magnetizing
c) Partly magnetizing and partly cross-magnetising
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

98. An alternator and a synchronous motor are connected to an infinite bus. Both are working at unity
p.f. and reactive power handled by them is

a) Both deliver it to the bus

b) Both absorb it from the bus
c) Alternator is delivering it and motor is absorbing it
d) Neither of these machines is delivering nor absorbing it.

Ans: (d)

99. In order to reduce the harmonics in the emf generated in an alternator

a) Slots are skewed

b) Silent pole tips are chamfered
c) Winding is well distributed
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

100. large synchronous machines are constructed with armature winding on the stator because
stationary armature winding

a) Can be insulated satisfactorily for higher voltages

b) Can be cooled more efficiently
c) All of these
d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans: (d)

101. The hunting in synchronous machines can be guarded against by

a) Using a flywheel
b) Designing the synchronous machine with suitable synchronizing power
c) Damped bars
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

102. Main disadvantage of using short-pitch winding in alternators is that it

a) Reduces harmonics in the generated voltage

b) Reduces the total voltage around the armature coils
c) Produces a symmetry in the three phase windings
d) Increases Cu of end connections

Ans: (b)

103. One turn consists of

a) Two coilsides
b) Two conductors
c) Four conductors
d) Four coilsides

Ans: (b)

104. Main advantage of distributing the winding in slots is to

a) Add mechanical strength to the winding

b) Reduce the amount of copper required
c) Reduce the harmonics in the generated e.m.f.
d) Reduce the size of the machine.

Ans: (c)

105. In synchronous generator operating at zero pf lagging, the effect of armature reacting is

a) Demagnetizing
b) Magnetizing
c) Cross-magnetizing
d) Both magnetizing and cross-magnetizing.

Ans: (a)

106. The regulating of an alternator is

a) The reduction in terminal voltage when alternator is loaded

b) The variation of terminal voltage under the conditions of maximum and minimum
excitation
c) The increase in terminal voltage when load is thrown off
d) The change in terminal voltage from lagging power factor to leading power factor.

Ans: (c)

107. The advantage of a short pitch winding is

a) Low noise
b) Increased inductance
c) Suppression of harmonics
d) Reduced eddy currents.

Ans: (c)

108. If the machines are running in synchronism and the voltage of one machine is suddenly increased

a) The machines will burn

b) Both machines will stop
c) Synchronising torque will be produced to restore further synchronism
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

109. Maximum current that can be supplied by an alternator depends on

a) Speed of the exciter

b) Number of poles
c) Exciter current
d) Strength of the magnetic field.
Ans: (d)

110. Advantage of using short pitched windings in an alternator is that it

a) Improves cooling by better circulation of air.

b) Saves copper use in windings
c) Reduces the total voltage around the armature coils
d) Suppresses the harmonics in generated emf

Ans: (c)

111. When an alternator is running on no load, the power supplied by the prime mover is mainly
consumed

a) To meet iron losses

b) To meet copper losses
c) To meet all no load losses
d) To produce induced emf in armature winding.

Ans: (c)

112.Two alternators are running in parallel. If the field on one of the alternator is adjusted, it will

a) Change its frequency.

b) Change its power
c) Change its load
d) Reduce its speed

Ans: (c)
Objective Type Question or MCQ of Power System

Protection page-1

1.In a circuit breaker, are is initiated by the process of

a) Thermal emission
b) Alternators
c) Field emission
d) Transmission lines

Ans: (d)

2. Bulk oil circuit breaker is suitable for voltages upto

a) 4 kV
b) 25 kV
c) 10 kV
d) 36 kV

Ans: (d)

3. Circuit breakers are essentially

a) Current carrying contacts called electrodes

b) Arc extinguishers
c) Transformers to isolate two systems
d) Circuits to break the system

Ans: (a)

4. The voltage across the circuit breaker pole after final current zero is

a) Restriking voltage
b) Supply voltage
c) Recovery voltage
d) None of these

Ans: (c)
5. Which of the following circuit breakers takes minimum time installation?

a) Bulk oil circuit breaker

b) Minimum oil circuit breaker
c) Air blast circuit breaker
d) SF6 circuit breaker

Ans: (d)

6. In a power system, the rate of rise of restriking voltage depends upon

a) Circuit power factor only

b) Switching condition only
c) Both (a) and (b) above
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

7. In a circuit breaker, the arcing contents are made of

a) Aluminium
b) Electrolytic
c) Copper tungsten alloy
d) Tungsten

Ans: (c)

8. Fault diverters are basically

a) Circuit breakers
b) Fast switches
c) Relays
d) Fuses

Ans: (b)

9. The following medium is employed for extinction of arc in air break circuit breakers?

a) Air
b) Oil
c) Water
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

10. The following circuit breaker does not use pneumatic operating mechanism

a) Air break circuit breaker

b) Air blast circuit breaker
c) Bulk oil circuit breaker
d) SF6 circuit breaker

Ans: (c)

11. Which of the following circuit breaker is generally used in applications in railways?

a) Bulk oil circuit breakers

b) Minimum oil circuit breakers
c) Air break circuit breakers
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

12. Which of thermal protection switch is provided in power line system to protect against?

a) Over voltage
b) Short circuit
c) Temperature rise
d) Overload

Ans: (d)

13. Lightining arrestor should be located

a) Away from the circuit breaker

b) Near the transformer
c) Away from the transformer
d) Near the circuit breaker
Ans: (b)

14. The dielectric strength of air at 25°C and 76 cm of mercury is

a) 2.11 kV rms/cm
b) 21.1 kV rms/m
c) 211 kV rms/cm
d) 2110 kV rms/m

Ans: (b)

15. For remote operation, circuit breaker must be equipped with

a) Inverse shunt trip

b) Shunt trip
c) Time delay trip
d) Both (a) and (c) above

Ans: (b)

16. Arc voltage produced in ac circuit breaker is always

a) In phase opposition to the arc current

b) In phase with the arc current
c) Iagging the arc current by 45°
d) Leading the arc current by 90°

Ans: (b)

17. A high speed circuit breaker can complete its operation in

a) 2 to 3 cycles
b) 6 to 12 cycles
c) 3 to 8 cycles
d) 10 to 20 cycles

Ans: (c)

18. For a 400 kV system, the capacity of lightning arrester should be

a) 1 kA
b) 5 kA
c) 10 kA
d) 50 kA

Ans: (c)

19. The power factor of the arc in a circuit breaker is

a) Zero leading
b) Zero lagging
c) Unity
d) Any value from zero to unity

Ans: (c)

20. Air blast circuit breakers are preferred for

a) Short duty
b) Repeated duty
c) Intermittent duty
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

21. Buchholz relays are used for transformers of ratings above

a) 100 kV
b) 200 kV
c) 500 kV
d) 1000 kV

Ans: (c)

22. The voltage appearing across the contacts after the opening of the circuit breaker is called

a) Arc voltage
b) Recovery voltage
c) Surge voltage
d) Break open voltage

Ans: (b)

23. Air blasty circuit breaker is operated at a pressure of

a) 5 to 10 kg/cm2
b) 10 to 15 kg/cm2
c) 15 to 20 kg/cm2
d) 20 to 30 kg/cm2

Ans: (d)

24. The basic problem in a circuit breaker is to

a) Maintain the arc

b) Emit ionization electrons
c) Extinguish the arc
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

25. In oil and air blast circuit breakers, the current zero interruption is attained by

a) Lengthening of arc
b) Cooling and blast effect
c) Deionizing the oil with forced air
d) Both (a) and (b) above

Ans: (d)

26. Buchholz relay is used for the protection of

a) Alternators
b) Transformers
c) Switch yard
d) Transmission lines

Ans: (b)
27. Which of the following is a directional relay?

a) Reactance relay
b) Mho relay
c) Reactance relay
d) Both (b) and (c)

Ans: (d)

28. Which of the following is an instantaneous relay?

a) Induction type
b) Shaded pole type
c) Thermocouple type
d) Permanent magnet moving coil type

Ans: (d)

29. which of the following is not an instant-neous relay?

a) Polarized type
b) Balance beam type
c) Hinged armature type
d) Induction disc type

Ans: (d)

30. Directional relays respond to the

a) Voltage polarities
b) Flow of current
c) Flow of power
d) All of these

Ans: (c)

31. Plug setting of a relay can be altered by varying

a) Air gap of magnetic path

b) Number of ampere-turns
c) Adjustable back up stop
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

32. If the operation of a relay does not involve any change in air gap, then the ratio of rest to pick up
is usually

a) Low
b) Medium
c) High
d) Independent of the change in air gap

Ans: (c)

33. Drop out to cutoff ratio for most relays is of the order of

a) 0.2 to 0.3
b) 0.3 to 0.4
c) 0.4 to 0.6
d) 0.6 to 1.0

Ans: (d)

34. Basic quantity measured in a distance relay is

a) Impedance
b) Current difference
c) Voltage difference
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

35. Which of following are the desirable qualities of protective relays?

a) Stability, reliability
b) Speed sensitivity
c) Selectivity, adequacy
d) None of these
Ans: (d)

36. Protective relays are devices which detect abnormal conditions in electrical circuit by measuring

a) Current during abnormal condition

b) Voltage during abnormal condition
c) Both (a) and (b) simultaneously
d) Constantly the electrical quantities which differ during normal and abnormal conditions

Ans: (d)

37. Resistance offered by series reactor is usually

a) Low
b) High
c) Medium
d) Very high

Ans: (a)

38. Time interval from instant of contact separation to time of arc extinction is called

a) Arcing time
b) Opening time
c) Closing time
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

39. A distance relay measures

a) Current difference
b) Voltage difference
c) Impedance difference
d) Distance between two CT’s

Ans: (c)

40. Maximum short circuit current occurs due to

a) Line-to-line fault
b) Line-to-line circuit
c) Dead short circuit
d) Both (a) and (b) occurring simultaneously

Ans: (d)

41. Various power system faults in increasing order of severity are

a) LG,LL,LLG,LLLG
b) LLLG,LLG,LG,LL
c) LLG,LLLG,LL,LG
d) LL,LG,LLLG,LLG

Ans: (a)

42. Which of following are used to reduce short circuit fault currents

a) Reactors
b) Resistors
c) Capacitors
d) Parallel combination of all these

Ans: (a)

43. Which of the following type of reactors are popularly used in power systems?

a) Compensation reactors
b) Current limiting reactors
c) Suppression or Peterson reactors
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

44. Oil immersed type reactor has the advantage of

a) Higher safety against flashover

b) Smaller size with large thermal capacity
c) Limiting the fault voltage
d) Both (a) and (b) above

Ans: (a)

45. Shunt reactors are connected with transmission lines for

a) Limiting fault current

b) Absorbing reactive power
c) Absorbing high voltage surges
d) Limiting fault current

Ans: (b)

46. Which of the following method of protection is used to achieve earth fault operation?

a) Core balance method

b) Relay connected with neutral to ground
c) Frame leakage method
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

47. Minimum faults occur in which of the following power system equipment?

a) Transformer
b) Switch gear
c) CT, PT
d) Alternator

Ans: (d)

48. Large internal faults below oil level are protected by

a) Mho and ohm relays

b) Horn gap and temperature relay
c) Merz Price percentage differential relay
d) Earth fault and positive sequence relay

Ans: (b)
49. Interruption due to fault and maintenance is minimum in

a) Main and transfer bus arrangement

b) Single bus arrangement
c) Sectionalized single bus arrangement
d) Double bus, double breaker arrangement

Ans: (d)

50. When a line-to-line fault occurs, the short circuit current of an alternator depends upon its

a) Subtransient reactance
b) Transient reactance
c) Synchronous reactance
d) Short circuit reactance

Ans: (c)

51. For an arc length of 1 metres carrying fault current of I amperes, the arc resistance in ohms is

a) (2.9×103 ɭ)/I1.4
b) (2.9×104 ɭ)/I1.4
c) (2.9×104 ɭ)/I2
d) (2.9×104 ɭ)/I

Ans: (a)

52. Which of the following are the requirements of protection of power station building against direct
strokes?

a) Interception alone
b) Interception, conduction and dissipation
c) Interception and conduction
d) Conduction and dissipation

Ans: (b)

53. Generator internal fault protection is usually based the principle of

a) Differential protection
b) Cross-differential protection
c) Negative sequence protection
d) All of these

Ans: (a)

54. A relay is said to be high speed relay if it operation time is

a) 1 to 2 cycles
b) 3 to 5 cycles
c) 2 to 3 cycles
d) 5 to 7 cycles

Ans: (a)

55. The phase comparison relay has merit that

a) Its operation does not depend upon the direction of power flow
b) Correct relay action can be obtained by using series capacitors on the line

c) It can operate even for low value of fault current

d) None of these

Ans: (c)
56. Maximum demand of consumer is 2kW and his daily energy consumption is 20 units. His load
factor will be

a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 41.6%
d) None of above

Ans: (c)

57. The advantage of grounding a power system is that

a) Earth fault current can be used to operate relays

b) “Arcing ground” phenomenon is avoided
c) It provides symmetry to the line impedances
d) Both (a) and (b)above

Ans: (c)

58. Advantage of hydro-electric power station is

a) Low operating cost

b) Free from pollution problems
c) No fuel transportation problems
d) All of the above.

Ans: (d)

59. Pilot wire protection is basically used for the protection of

a) Transmission lines
b) Alternators
c) Switch gears
d) Transformers

Ans: (d)

60. A sodium graphite reactor uses

a) Sodium as moderator and graphite as coolant

b) Sodium as coolant and graphite as moderator
c) A mixture of sodium and graphite as coolant
d) A mixture of sodium and graphite as moderator.

Ans: (b)

61. Which of the following carrier frequency is used in a carrier current protection scheme?

a) 500 kHz to 5 kHz

b) 5 kHz to 50 kHz
c) 50 kHz to 500 kHz
d) 500 kHz to 5 kHz

Ans: (a)
62. No moving parts are required in

a) MHD generator
b) Tidal power plant
c) Thermioic conversion
d) OTEC power plant

Ans: (c)

63. Power system insulation problem involves

a) Selection of “basic insulation level” insulation level of system equipment and lightning arrestor
b) Determination of line insulation
c) Capacitance of earth and subsequent grounding
d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans: (a)

64. A fast breeder reactor

a) Operates with slow neutrons and produces more fissionable material than it consumes
b) Operates with slow neutrons and produces less fissionable material than it consumes

c) Operates with fast neutrons and produces more fissionable material than it consumes

d) Operates with fast neutrons and produces less fissionable material than it consumes

Ans: (c)
65. Typical gap length of rod type surge diverter used for 132 kV line is

a) 10 cm
b) 20 cm
c) 35 cm
d) 65 cm

Ans: (c)

66. Gas turbines can be brought to the bus bar from cold in about

a) 2 minutes
b) 30 minutes
c) 1 hour
d) 2 hour

Ans: (a)

67. A gas turbine works on

a) Carnot cycle
b) Dual cycle
c) Brayton cycle
d) Rankine cycle

Ans: (c)

68. Out of the following which one is not a unconventional source of energy?

a) Tidal power
b) Nuclear energy
c) Geothermal energy
d) Wind power

Ans: (b)

69. Maximum efficiency of an open cycle gas turbine is nearly

a) 30%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 60%

Ans: (a)

70. A 100 MW thermal power plant will consume nearly how many tones of coal in one hour?

a) 50 tonnes
b) 150 tonnes
c) 1500 tonnes
d) 15,000 tonnes
Ans: (a)

71. A cooling tower can be seen in

a) Gas turbine plant

b) Nuclear power plant
c) Hydroelectric power plant
d) Thermal power plant.

Ans: (d)

72. Which of the following is considered as superior quality of coal?

a) Coke
b) Lignite
c) Pent
d) Bituminous coal

Ans: (d)

73. Equipment used and temperature the coal is known as

a) Ball mill
b) Burner
c) Hopper
d) Stoker

Ans: (a)

74. In a super-heater

a) Pressure rises, temperature drop

b) Pressure rises, temperature remains constant
c) Pressure remains constant and temperature rises
d) Both pressure and temperature remains constant.

Ans: (c)
75. Tidal energy mainly makes use of

a) Kinetic energy of water

b) Potential energy of water
c) Both kinetic as well as potential energy of water
d) None of the above.

Ans: (b)

76. Pumped storage plant in India

a) Does not exist

b) Exists in Kadamparai (Tamil Nadu)
c) Exists in Gandhi Sagar Dam (Kota)
d) Is being installed in Haryana.

Ans: (b)

77.Connected load of a consumer is 2 kW and his maximum demand is 1.5 kW. The load factor of the
consumer will be

a) 0.75
b) 0.375
c) 1.33
d) None of the above

Ans: (d)

78. A module is a

a) Newly installed solar cell

b) Series parallel arrangement of solar cells
c) A series of solar cells when not used for power generation
d) None of above.

Ans: (b)

79. In hydrothermal source of geothermal energy

a) Hot water or steam is available
b) Hot gases are available
c) Molten lava is available
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

80. Efficiency of a plant is secondary consideration for

a) Base load power plants

b) Peak load power plants
c) Both peak load as well as base load power plants
d) Neither peak load nor base load power plants

Ans: (b)

81. most of the generators in thermal power plants run at

a) 3000 rpm
b) 1500 rpm
c) 1000 rpm
d) 750 rpm

Ans: (a)
Objective Type Question or MCQ of B. Economics of

Operation page-1

1.In order to have lower cost of electrical energy generation :

a) The load factor and diversity factor should be low.

b) The load factor should be low but diversity factor should be high.
c) The load factor should be low but diversity factor low.
d) The load factor and diversity factors should be high.

Ans: (d)

2. The cost of generation is theoretically minimum if :

a) The system constraints are considered.

b) The operational constraints are considered.
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) The constraints are not considered

Ans: (d)

3. If the loading of the line corresponds to the surge impedance the voltage at the receiving end is

a) Greater than sending end

b) Less than sending end
c) Equal to the sending end
d) None of the above is necessary.

Ans: (c)

4. If the penalty factor of a plant is unity, its incremental transmission loss is

a) 1.0
b) – 1.0
c) Zero
d) None of the above

Ans: (d)
5. If r is the radius of the conductor and R the radius of the sheath of the cable, the cable operates
stably from the view point of dielectric strength if

a) r/R > 1.0

b) r/R < 1.0
c) r/R < 0.632
d) r/R > 0.368

Ans: (d)

6. The loss coefficients for a two-bus system are

a) B11= 0.02, B22 = 0.05, B12= 0.01, B21 = 0.015

b) B11= 0.02, B22 = 0.04, B12= -0.01, B21 = 0.01
c) B11= 0.03, B22 = 0.005, B12= 0.001, B21 = -0.001
d) B11= 0.03, B22 = 0.05, B12= 0.001, B21 = -0.001

Ans: (c)

7. Shunt compensation in a EHV line is resorted to

a) Improve the stability

b) Reduce the fault level
c) Improve the voltage profile.
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

8. Most economic load on an overhead line is

a) Greater than natural load.

b) Less than the natural load.
c) Equal to the natural load.
d) None of the above is necessary.

Ans: (a)

9. If the penalty factor for bus 1 in a two-bus system is 1.25 and if the incremental cost of production
at bus 1 is Rs. 200 per MWhr, the cost of received power at bus 2 is
a) Rs. 250/M Whr.
b) Rs. 62.5/MWhr.
c) Rs. 160/MWhr.
d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

10. The p.u. impedance value of an alternator corresponding to be base values 13.2 kV and 30 MVA
is 0.2 p.u. The p.u. value for the base values 13.8 kV and 50 MVA will be

a) 0.306 p.u.
b) 0.33 p.u.
c) 0.318 p.u.
d) 0.328 p.u.

Ans: (a)

1. For economic, the generator with highest positive incremental transmission loss will operate at

a) The lowest positive incremental cost of production.

b) The lowest negative incremental cost of production.
c) The highest positive incremental cost of production.
d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

12. Impulse ratio of a gap of given geometry and dimension is

a) Greater with solid than with air dielectric.

b) Greater with air than with solid dielectric.
c) Same for both solid and air dielectric.

Ans: (a)

13. The impulse ratio of a rod gap is

a) Unity.
b) Between 1.2 and 1.5.
c) Between 1.6 and 1.8.
d) Between 2 and 2.2.

Ans: (b)

14. Insulation of the modern EHV lines is designed based on

a) Lighting voltage
b) Switching voltage
c) Corona
d) RI

Ans: (b)

15. The incremental transmission loss of a plant is

a) Positive always.
b) Negative always.
c) Can be positive or negative.
d) None of the above.

Ans: (c)

16. Effect of increase in temperature in overhead transmission lines is to

a) Increases the stress and length

b) Decreases the stress but increases the length.
c) Decreases the stress and length.
d) None of the above.

Ans: (b)

17. Presence of earth in case of overhead lines

a) Increases the capacitance.

b) Increases the inductance.
c) Decreases the capacitance.
d) Decreases the increases.

Ans: (a)
18. Sending end voltage of a feeder with reactance 0.2 p.u. is 1.2 p.u. if the reactive power supplied at
the receiving end of the feeder is 0.3 p.u., the approximate drop of volts in the feeder will be

a) 0.2 p.u.
b) 0.06 p.u.
c) 0.05 p.u.
d) 0.072 p.u.

Ans: (c)

19. Capacitance and inductance per unit length of a line operating at 110 kV are 0.01 mF and 2 mH.
The surge impedance loading of the line will be

a) 40 MVA
b) 30 MVA
c) 27 MVA
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

20. Surge impedance of 50 miles long underground cable is 50 ohms. For a 25 miles length it will be

a) 25 ohms
b) 50 ohms
c) 100 ohms
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

21.Self GMD method is used to evaluate

a) Inductance
b) Capacitance.
c) Inductance and capacitance both
d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

22. Most economic load an underground cable will be

a) Greater than its surge loading.
b) Less than the surge loading.
c) Equal to the surge loading.
d) None of the above is necessary.

Ans: (b)

23. Corona loss on a particular system at 50 Hz is 1 kW/phase per km. The corona loss on the same
system with supply frequency 25 Hz will be

a) 1 kW/phase/km.
b) 0.5 kW/phase/km.
c) 0.667 kW/phase/km.
d) None of the above.

Ans: (c)

24. Effect of bonding the cable is

a) To increase the effective resistance and inductance.

b) To increase the effective resistance but reduce inductance.

c) To decreases the effective resistance and inductance.

d) To decrease the effective resistance but increases the inductance.

Ans: (b)

25. For effective application of counterpoise it should be buried into the ground to a depth of

a) 1 meter.
b) 2 meters.
c) Just enough to avoid theft.
d) None of the above.

Ans: (c)

26. Corona loss is less when the shape of the conductor is

a) Circular.
b) Flat.
c) Oval.
d) Independent of shape.

Ans: (a)

27. A system is said to be effectively grounded if its

a) Neutral is grounded directly.

b) Ratio of X0/X1 > 3.0.
c) Ratio of X0/X1 > 2.0.
d) Ratio of X0/X1 < 3.0.

Ans: (d)

28. Velocity of travelling wave through a cable of relative per mittivity 9 is

a) 9 × 108 metres/sec.
b) 3 × 108 metres/sec.
c) 108 metres/sec.
d) 2 × 108 metres/sec.

Ans: (c)

29. Voltage at the two ends of a line are 132 kV and its reactance is 40 ohms. The capacity of the line
is

a) 435.6 MW.
b) 217.8 MW.
c) 251.5 MW.
d) 500 MW.

Ans: (a)

30. For a lumped inductive load, with increase in supply frequency

a) P and Q increases.
b) P increases, Q decreases.
c) P decreases, Q increases.
d) P and Q decreases.

Ans: (c)

Related topics :

31. Stringing chart useful for

a) Finding the sag in the conductor.

b) In the design of tower.
c) In the design of insulator string.
d) Finding the distance between the tower.

Ans: (a)

32. For an existing a.c. transmission line the string efficiency is 80. Now of d.c. voltage is supplied for
the same set up, the string efficiency will be

a) 80%
b) More than 80%
c) Less than 80%
d) 100%

Ans: (d)

33. Coefficient of reflection for current for an open ended line is

a) 1.0
b) 0.5
c) – 1.0
d) Zero.

Ans: (c)

34. Leakage resistance of a 50 km long cable is 1 MΩ. For a 100 km long cable it will be

a) 1 MΩ
b) 2 MΩ
c) 0.66 MΩ
d) None of the above

Ans: (d)

35. A voltmeter gives 120 oscillations per minute when connected to the rotor. The stator frequency is
50 Hz. The slip of the motor is

a) 2%
b) 4%
c) 5%
d) 2.5%

Ans: (b)

36. Solution of coordination equations takes into account

a) All the system constraints.

b) All the operational constraints.
c) All the system and operation constraints.
d) None of the above.

Ans: (d)

37. Charging reactance of 50 km length of line is 1500 Ω. The charging reactance for 100km length of
line will be

a) 1500 Ω
b) 3000 Ω
c) 750 Ω
d) 600 Ω

Ans: (c)

38. In a two plant system, the load is connected at plant no 2. The loss coefficients

a) B11, B12, B22 are nonzero.

b) B11 and B22 are nonzero but B12 is zero.
c) B11 and B12 are nonzero but B22 is zero.
d) B11 is nonzero but B12 and B22 are zero.
Ans: (d)

39. Ferranti effect on long overhead lines is experienced when it is

a) Lightly loaded.
b) On full load at unity p.f.
c) On full load at 0.8 p.f. lag.
d) In all these case.

Ans: (a)

40. In-rush current of a transformer at no load is maximum if the supply voltage is switched on

a) At zero voltage value.

b) At peak voltage value.
c) At V/2 value.
d) At √3/2 value.

Ans: (a)

41. If the inductance and capacitance of a system are 1.0 H and 0.01 μF respectively and the
instantaneous value of current interrupted is 10 amp, voltage across the breaker contacts will be

a) 50 kV
b) 100 kV
c) 60 kV
d) 57 kV

Ans: (b)

42. In case of a 3-phase short circuit in a system, the power fed into the system is

a) Mostly reactive.
b) Mostly active.
c) Active and reactive both equal.
d) Reactive only.

Ans: (a)
43. Standard impulse testing of a power transformer requires

a) Two applications of chopped wave followed by one application of a full wave.

b) One application of chopped wave followed by one application of a full wave.
c) One application of chopped wave followed by two applications of a full wave.
d) None of the above.

Ans: (a)

44. Phase modifier is normally installed in the case of

a) Short transmission lines.

b) Medium length lines.
c) Long length lines.
d) For all length lines.

Ans: (c)

45. In order to eliminate sheath losses, a successful method is

a) To transpose the cable along with cross bonding.

b) Transpose the cable only.
c) Cross bonding the cables is enough.
d) None of the above effective.

Ans: (a)

46. Capacitance of a 3-core cable between any two conductors with sheath earthed is 2 μF. The
capacitance per phase will be

a) 1 μF
b) 4 μF
c) 0.667 μF
d) 1.414 μF

Ans: (b)

47. For the system shown in diagram below, a line-to-ground fault on the side of the trans-former is
equivalent to
a) A line-to-ground fault on the generator side of the transformer.
b) A line-to-line fault on the generator side of the transformer.
c) A double line-to-ground fault on the generator side of the transformer.
d) A 3-phase fault on the generator side of the transformer.

Ans: (b)

48. For a synchronous phase modifier the load angle is

a) 0°
b) 25°
c) 30°
d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

49. Size of conductor on modern EHV lines is obtained based on

a) Voltage drop
b) Current density
c) Corona
d) Above (a) and (b)

Ans: (c)

50. The insulation resistance of a cable of length 10 km is 1 MΩ, its resistance for 50 km length will
be

a) 1 MΩ
b) 5 MΩ
c) 0.2 MΩ
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

51. Three insulating materials with breakdown strengths of 250 kV/cm, 200 kV/cm, 150 kV/cm and
permittivities of 2.5, 3.0 and 3.5 are used in a single core cable. If the factor of safety for the
materials is 5, the location of the materials with respect to the core of the cable will be
a) 2.5, 3.0, 3.5
b) 3.5, 3.0, 2.5
c) 3.0, 2.5, 3.5
d) 3.5, 2.5, 3.0

Ans: (a)

52. At a particular unbalanced node, the real powers specified are

Leaving the node 20 MW, 25 MW

Entering the node 60 MW, 30 MW
Balance power will be

a) 30 MW leaving the node.

b) 45 MW leaving the node.
c) 45 MW entering the node.
d) 22.5 entering the node and 22.5 MW leaving the node.

Ans: (b)

53. Three insulating materials with same maximum working stress and permittivities 2.5, 3.0, 4.0 are
used in a single core cable. The location of the materials with respect to the core of the cable will be

a) 2.5, 3.0, 4.0

b) 4.0, 3.0, 2.5
c) 3.0, 2.5, 3.5
d) 4.0, 2.5, 3.0

Ans: (b)

54. Positive sequence component of voltage at the point of fault is zero when it is a

a) 3-phase fault
b) L-L fault
c) L-L-G fault
d) L-G fault

Ans: (a)

55. Select the correct statement

a) The negative and zero sequence voltages are minimum at the fault point and increase towards the
neutral.
b) The negative and zero sequence voltages are maximum at the fault point and decrease towards
the neutral.
c) The negative sequence is maximum and zero sequence minimum at the fault point and decreases
and increase respectively towards the neutral.
d) None of the above.

Ans: (b)

56. If Ia1 is the positive sequence current of an alternator and Z1, Z2 and Z0 are the sequence
impedances of the alternator. The drop produced by the current Ia1 will be

a) Ia1 Z1
b) Ia1 (Z1 + Z2)
c) Ia1 (Z1 + Z2 + Z0)
d) Ia1 (Z2 + Z0)

Ans: (a)

57. Tick out the correct one

a) The insulators and lightning arresters should have high impulse ratio.
b) The insulators and lightning arresters should have low impulse.
c) The insulators should have high impulse ratio and lightning arrester low.
d) The insulators arrester should have high impulse ratio but insulator low.

Ans: (c)

58. An overhead line with surge impedance 400 ohms is terminated through a resistance R. A surge
travelling over the line does not suffer any reflection at the junction if the value of R is

a) 20 ohms
b) 200 ohms
c) 800 ohms
d) None of the above

Ans: (d)

59. In case of a large size alternator the voltage control becomes serious if
a) SCR is high.
b) SCR is low.
c) Voltage control is independent of SCR.
d) None of the above.

Ans: (b)

Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) of Circuit Breaker page-

1.Ionization in circuit breakers is facilitated by

a) Increase of field strength

b) Increase of mean free path
c) High temperature
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

2. Arc interruption is done by

a) High resistance interruption

b) Low resistance interruption
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

3. Part of circuit breaker helpful in breaking the current is

a) Trip Coil
b) Contacts
c) Handle
d) Medium

Ans: (b)

4. Desired tripping of a circuit breaker is

a) Manually
b) Automatically
c) That it should give warning
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

5. Arcing time is the time between

a) Separation of circuit breaker and extinction of arc

b) Separation of circuit breaker and rise of recovery voltage
c) Normal current interruption and arc extinction
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

6. For single frequency transients, ratio of peak restriking voltage to time between voltage zero and
peak voltage is called

a) Restriking voltage
b) Recovery voltage
c) Rate of rise restriking voltage
d) Active recovery voltage

Ans: (c)

7. Time between energisation of trip coil and separation of contacts is called

a) Closing time
b) Opening time
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (d)

8. In circuit breaker, to facilitate arc quenching, dielectric strength can be increased by

a) Lengthening of the gap

b) Cooling
c) Blast effect
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

9. Rate of rise restriking voltage depends upon

a) Active recovery voltage

b) Natural frequency of oscillations
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Rating of circuit breaker

Ans: (c)

10. An ideal circuit breaker should offer

a) Zero & infinite impedance before & after interruption respectively

b) Infinity & zero impedance before & after interruption respectively
c) Equal impedance before & after interruption
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

11. Interrupting a low inductive current may lead to

a) Very high restriking voltage

b) Very high current
c) Rupture of circuit breaker
d) Current chopping

Ans: (d)

12. Instantaneous voltage in a circuit breaker depends upon

a) Restriking voltage
b) Rate of rise restriking voltage
c) Power factor
d) Frequency

Ans: (c)
13. Current chopping can be avoided by

a) Resistance switching
b) Inductive switching
c) Capacitive switching
d) Diode switching

Ans: (a)

14. Recovery voltage is the value of the r.m.s. voltage that re-appears across the poles of a circuit
breaker before

a) Restriking voltage
b) Final arc distinction
c) Rise of voltage
d) All of these

Ans: (b)

15. Time between separation of contacts and energisation of trip coil is called

a) Opening time
b) Closing time
c) Arching time
d) Decaying time

Ans: (a)

16. Which of the following is not a protective gear?

a) Fuse
b) Circuit breaker
c) Relay
d) None of these

Ans: (d)

17. Difficulty of performing the circuit breaking operation is a function of

a) Circuit voltage
b) Magnitude of the current
c) Electrical constants of the circuit
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

18. When contacts of circuit breaker opens

a) Arc is produced
b) Voltage rises
c) Breaker fails
d) Arc chamber is broken

Ans: (a)

19. A.C. air break circuit breakers are used for

a) Very high voltage

b) Very low voltage
c) Medium voltage
d) Medium and low voltage

Ans: (d)

20. Quantity of oil in bulk oil circuit breakers increases with

a) Decrease in voltage
b) Increase in voltage
c) Pressure of arc
d) Mechanical stresses

Ans: (b)

21. Air blast circuit breakers are preferred for

a) Short duty
b) Intermittent duty
c) Repeated duty
d) All of these

Ans: (c)

22. Rating of circuit breaker depends upon

a) Breaking capacity
b) Making capacity
c) Short time capacity
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

23. Phenomenon of arc interruption takes place at

a) Zero voltage
b) Zero current
c) High current
d) High voltage

Ans: (b)

24. Symmetrical breaking current is

a) Peak value of a.c. component

b) Average value of a.c. component
c) R.m.s. value of a.c. component
d) All of these

Ans: (c)

25. Over voltage may be due to

a) Lightning impulse waveform

b) 50 Hz a.c.
c) Peak value of 50 Hz a.c.
d) All of these

Ans: (d)
26. In vacuum breakers, current wave

a) Reaches its maximum value

b) Attains its r.m.s. value
c) Is chopped
d) Attains its average value

Ans: (c)

27. In oil circuit breakers, dielectric strength of oil should be

a) High
b) Low
c) Medium
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

28. Main disadvantage (s) of oil circuit breaker is that it

a) Is easily inflammable
b) May from an explosive mixture with air
c) Requires maintenance
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

29. Breaker should adjust itself to

a) Fault magnitude and time

b) Increased arc and time of quenching
c) R R R V
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

30. At higher currents, the switchgear exhibit

a) Corona effect
b) Skin effect
c) Mechanical stresses
d) Poor regulation

Ans: (b)

31. Plain circuit breaker can’t be used for voltage above

a) 400 V
b) 3.3 kV
c) 11 kV
d) 33 kV

Ans: (c)

Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) of Fuse

1.Fusing factor should be

a) Equal to zero
b) Less than now
c) Equal to one
d) More than one

Ans: (d)

2. Fuse wire should possess

a) High specific resistance and high melting point

b) High specific resistance and low melting point
c) Low specific resistance and low melting point
d) Low specific resistance and high melting point

Ans: (d)

3. If strands are twisted, then fusing current will

a) Increase
b) Reduce
c) Remain same
d) May increase or decrease

Ans: (b)

4. Fusing factor is defined as the ratio between

a) Maximum fusing current and rated voltage

b) Maximum fusing current and rated current
c) Minimum fusing current and rated current
d) Minimum fusing current and rated voltage

Ans: (c)

5. Fuses can serve upto a current of

a) 25 A
b) 50 A
c) 75 A
d) 100 A

Ans: (d)

6. Cut-off current in a fuse is the

a) Maximum value actually reached

b) R.m.s. value actually reached
c) Average value actually reached
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

7. Best practicable material for a fuse wires is

a) Aluminium
b) Copper
c) Iron
d) Tin

Ans: (b)
8. H.R.C. fuses has

a) High rating of current

b) High rupturing capacity
c) High resistance capacity
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

9. Cartridge type fuse can be used upto a voltage of

a) 400 V
b) 11 kV
c) 20 kV
d) 33 kV

Ans: (d)

10. Liquid type H.R.C. fuses are used upto a voltage of

a) 33 kV
b) 66 kV
c) 132 kV
d) 200 kV

Ans: (c)

11. Selection of fuse is based on

a) Steady load
b) Fluctuating load
c) A & b
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) of Protective Relays

page-1
1.A single phasing relay can be used with

a) 1ɸ motor
b) 2r ɸ motor
c) 3 ɸ motor
d) All of these

Ans: (c)

2. A relay is used to

a) Break the fault current

b) Sense the fault
c) Sense the fault and direct to trip the circuit breaker
d) All of these

Ans: (c)

3. In impedance relay, current element torque should be

a) Equal to voltage element torque

b) Greater than voltage element torque
c) Less than voltage element torque
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

4. Over current fault is most likely in

a) Transformer
b) Overhead line equipment
c) Alternator
d) Motors

Ans: (b)

5. Plug setting of a relay can be changed by changing

a) Air gap
b) Back up stop
c) Number of ampere turns
d) All of these

Ans: (c)

6. Distance relays are generally

a) Impedance type
b) MHO type
c) Reactance type
d) All of these

Ans: (b)

7. Buchholz relay is used to protect against

a) Inter-turn fault
b) External faults
c) Rotor faults
d) Every internal faults

Ans: (d)

8. Instantaneous relay should operate within

a) 0.0001 sec
b) 0.001 sec
c) 0.01 sec
d) 0.1 sec

Ans: (c)

9. MHO relay is inherently a

a) Directional type
b) Non-directional type
c) Unidirectional type
d) None of these
Ans: (a)

10. Basic relay connection requirement is that the relay must operate for

a) Load
b) Internal faults
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

11. An impedance relay is used for

a) Earth faults
b) Interphase faults
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

12. Relay gets its operating energy from

a) Transformer
b) Alternator
c) Overhead lines
d) C.T., P.T.

Ans: (d)

13. Good relay should possess

a) Speed & reliability

b) Aped & sensitivity
c) Adequateness & selectivity
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

14. Earthing transformer is used to

a) Improve neutral wire’s current capacity
b) Avoid overheating of transformer
c) Provide artificial earthing
d) Avoid harmonics

Ans: (c)

15. Percentage differential protection is used to prevent against

a) Inter-turn faults
b) Heavy Loads
c) External Faults
d) Magnetizing current

Ans: (d)

16. Back up protection is needed for

a) Over voltage
b) Short circuits
c) Over current
d) All of these

Ans: (b)

17. An instantaneous relay is

a) Permanent moving magnet

b) Induction cup
c) Shaded pole
d) Moving coil

Ans: (a)

18. Relays for transmission line protection are

a) In three zones
b) In two zones
c) Independent of zone
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

19. Induction cup relays responds to

a) Current
b) Power
c) Voltage
d) Impedance

Ans: (d)

20. Split-phase relay responds to

a) Over load faults

b) Over voltage
c) Inter turn faults
d) All of these

Ans: (c)

21. Time classification of relays includes

a) Instantaneous relays
b) Definite time lag
c) Inverse time lag
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

22. Directional relays responds to

a) Power
b) Voltage
c) Current
d) Reactance

Ans: (a)
23. Single phase preventers are used for

a) Transmission lines
b) Transformers
c) Motors
d) Underground cables

Ans: (c)

24. In carrier current protection, wave trap is used is for trapping

a) High frequency waves entering in generating units

b) Power frequency waves
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

25. Operating current in relay is

a) A.c. only
b) D.c. only
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

26. For phase fault on long line, which relay is used?

a) MHO relays
b) Reactance relays
c) Impedance relays
d) All of these

Ans: (c)

27. For motor protection, which relay is used?

a) Thermocouple type relays

b) Bimetallic relays
c) Electronic relays
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

28. For protection against synchronizing power surges, which relay is used?

a) Split-phase relays
b) Impedance relays
c) Reactance relays
d) MHO relays

Ans: (d)

29. Pilot wire protection is for

a) Overhead lines
b) Transformer
c) Motors
d) Cables

Ans: (a)

30. Under voltage relays are used for

a) Motors
b) Alternators
c) Bus bars
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

31. In an impedance relay, fault current is maximum if fault occurs near the

a) Relay
b) Center of the line
c) Transformer
d) None of these
Ans: (a)

32. More faults occur in

a) Generators
b) Under ground cables
c) Transformers
d) Over head lines

Ans: (d)

33. Actual tripping of a static relay is obtained by

a) SCR
b) Thyristors
c) UJT
d) None of these

Ans: (d)

34. Instantaneous relay is

a) Hinged armature type

b) Polarized type
c) Balanced beam type
d) All of these

Ans: (a)

35. It is possible to work on ungrounded systems of 11 kV for a length of

a) 10 Kms
b) 50 Kms
c) 90 kms
d) 110 Kms

Ans: (d)

36. Advantage of grounded neutral is

a) Persistent arcing grounds are eliminated
b) Earth fault are utilized to disconnect the fault
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

37. Neutral can be grounded by

a) Solid grounding
b) Resistance grounding
c) Reactance grounding
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

38. Thyrite is used in lightning arrestors because of its

a) Straight line characteristic

b) Non-linear characteristic
c) None of these
d) All of these

Ans: (b)

39. Location of lightning arrestor is

a) After the transformer

b) After the distributor
c) Before the transformer
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

40. Lightning arrestors are

a) Surge reflectors
b) Surge divertors
c) Surge absorbers
d) Surge attenuators

Ans: (b)

41. Relays for transmission line protection are

a) In three zones
b) In two zones
c) Independent of zone
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

Objective questions and answers or MCQ of Electrical

Machines page-6

1.The fleming left-hand rule is applicable to

(a) generator
motor
(c) transformer
(d) (a) and (b) both
(e) (a) or (b)

2. The eddy current losses in the transformer will be reduced if

(a) the laminations are think

(b) number of turns in the primary winding is reduced
(c) the number of turns in the secondary winding is reduced
the laminations are thin

3. The speed of d.c. series motor at no load is

(a) zero
(b) 1500 r.p.m.
infinity
(d) 3000 r.p.m.
(e) none of the above
4. A sinusoidal voltage of frequency 1 Hz is applied to the field of d.c. generator. The armature
voltage will be

(a) 1 Hz square wave

1 Hz sinusoidal voltage
(c) d.c. voltage
(d) none of the above

5. The function of the commutator in a d.c. machine is

(a) to change alternating current to a direct current

(b) to improve commutation
(c) for easy control
to change alternating voltage to direct voltage

6. The phase sequence of voltage generated in the alternator can be reversing its field current.

(a) true
false

7. The rotation of three phase induction motor can be reversed by interchanging any two of the supply
phases.

true
(b) false

8. The starting torque of the three phase induction motor can be increased by

(a) increasing the rotor reactance

increasing the rotor resistance
(c) increasing the stator resistance
(d) none of the above

9. In the induction motor the torque is

proportional to slip
(b) inversely proportional to slip
(c) proportional to the square of the slip
(d) none of the above

10. The single phase induction motor (capacitor start capacitor run ) basically is
(a) single phase motor
two phase motor
(c) a.c series motor
(d) none of the above

11.For the equal output the total current is more in

(a) wave winding

lap winding
(c) simplex lap winding
(d) none of the above

12. The maximum starting torque in the induction motor is developed when

(a) the reactance of the rotor is half of the resistance

(b) the reactance of the rotor is twice of the rotor resistance
the reactance of the rotor is equal to the rotor resistance
(d) none of the above

13. The direction of rotation of a d.c. series motor can be changed

(a) by interchanging supply terminals

by interchanging field terminals
(c) either (a) or (b)
(b)none of above

14. A d.c. shunt generator driven at a normal speed in the normal direction fails to build up armature
voltage because

(a)the resistance of armature is high.

(b) field current is not sufficiently high.
there is no residual magnetism.
(d) field winding has small number of turns.

15. The skin effect can be reduced

By increasing the radius of the conductor

(b) By decreasing the radius of the conductor
(c) By increasing the frequency of the supply
(d) If the hollow conductor is used
(e) (b) and (d) both

16. If a d.c. motor is connected across a.c. supply, the d.c. motor will

Burn as the eddy currents in the field produce heat

(b) Run at its normal speed
(c) Run at a lower speed
(d) Run continuously but the sparking takes place at the burshes

17. What would happen if the field of d.c. shunt motor is opened?

(a) The speed of the motor will be reduced

(b) It will continue to run at its normal speed
The speed of the motor will be enormously high and might destroy itself
(d) The current in the armature will increase

18. A single phase induction motor can be on two or three phase lines.

(a) true
false

19. What is the standard direction of a motor ?

(a) Clockwise when looking at the front end of the motor

Counter-clockwise when looking at the front end of the motor

20. If the field of a synchronous motor is under excited the power factor will be

lagging
(b) leading
(c) unity
(d) more than unity

21. The rotation of wound-rotor induction motor can be reversed by

(a) Transposing any two leads from the slip rings.

Transposing any two line leads.
(c) None of the above
22. A split-phase motor has high stating torque.

(a) true.
false

23. The direction of rotation of a split phase motor can be reversed

(a) By reversing the leads of main winding.

(b) By reversing the leads of auxiliary winding.
(a) and (b) both are true.
(d) None of the above

24. The capacitor-start motor has a high starting torque.

true.
(b) false

25. A universal motor can be run either on a.c. or d.c.

true.
(b) false

26. The phase relationship between the primary and secondary voltages of a transformer is

(a) 90 degrees out of phase.

(b) In the same phase.
180 degrees out of phase.
(d) None of the above

27. For point starter in the d.c. motor is used

(a) To increase the field current.

(b) To decrease the field current.
Not to affect the current passing through HOLD ON coil even if any change in the field current
takes place.
(d) None of above

28.Which of the following motor is used in the locomotives motor drives?

(a) A.C. series motor.

(b) Induction motor.
 D.C. series motor.
(d) Synchronous motor

29. Which of the following motors has high starting torque ?

(a) D.C. shunt motor.

(b) Squirrel cage induction motor.
D.C. series motor.
(d) A.C. series motor

30. The efficiency of d.c. shunt generator is maximum when

(a) Magnetic losses are equal to mechanical losses.

Armature copper losses are equal to constant losses.
(c) Field copper losses are equal to constant losses.
(d) Stray losses are equal to copper losses

31. In the case of d.c. shunt generation, the shunt copper loss, is practically constant.

true.
(b) false

32. Armature reaction is attributed to

(a) The effect of magnetic field set up field current.

The effect of the magnetic field set up by armature current.
(c) The effect of the magnetic field set up by back e.m.f.
(d) None of the above

33. The dummy coil in the d.c. machines is used to

(a) Eliminate armature reaction.

Bring out mechanical balance of armature.
(c) Eliminate reactance voltage.
(d) None of above

34. Equilizer rings in the d.c. in the d.c. generator (lap winding ) are used

To avoid unequal distribution of current at the brushes there by helping to get sparkles
commutation.
(b) To avoid harmonics developed in the machine.
(c) To avoid noise developed in the machine.
(d) To avoid overhang

35. The speed of the d.c. motor decreases as the flux in the field winding decreases.

(a) True.
false

36. The sparking at the brushes in the d.c. generator is attributed to

(a) quick reversal of current in the coil under commutation.

(b) Armature reaction.
Reactance voltage.
(d) High resistance of the brushes

37. Interpoles in the armature of d.c generator are used

(a) To neutralize the reactance voltage only.

To neutralize the reactance voltage and cross-magnetizing effect of armature reaction.
(c) To neutralize the cross-magnetizing effect of armature reaction only.
(d) None of the above

38. The transformer is not used in the d.c. line because

(a) There is no need to step up the d.c. voltage.

(b) Losses in the d.c. circuit are high.
Faraday`s law is not valid as the rate of change of flux is zero.
(d) Harmonics developed in the transformer will cause distortion in the voltage

39. The transformer is analogous to gear trains.

true.
(b) false

40. The d.c. shunt generators are not suited for parallel operation because of their slightly drooping
voltage characteristics.

(a) true.
false

41. The relationship between no-load generated e.m.f. in the armature and field excitation of a d.c.
generator is known as
(a) Internal characteristic of generator.
(b) External characteristic of generator.
Magnetic characteristic or open circuit characteristic of generator.
(d)Total characteristic of generator.

42. The critical resistance of the d.c. generator is the resistance of

(a) armature.
(b) load.
field.
(d) brushes.

43. When a bank of two single-phase transformers in an open delta arrangement is used, each of them
supplies

(a) 33.3% of its output rating.

86.6% of its output rating.
(c) 48.6% of its output rating.
(d) 100% of its output rating.

44. Two single phase transformers with proper connections can be used to achieve a three phase
output from three phase input.

true.
b)false.

45. A thicker wire is used in the d.c. series field winding than d.c. shunt field winding in d.c.
machines

(a) To prevent mechanical vibrations.

(b) To produce large flux.
Because it carries the load current which is much higher than shunt field current for the same
rating of d.c machines.
(d) To provide strength.

46. Transformer core is laminated

(a) Because it is difficult to fabricate solid core.

(b) Because laminated core provides high flux density.
To avoids eddy current and hysteresis losses.
(d) To increase the main flux.
47. The mechanical power developed by the d.c. motor is maximum when

(a) Back e.m.f. is equal to applied voltage.

(b) Back e.m.f is equal to zero.
Back e.m.f. is equal to half the applied voltage.
(d) None of the above.

48. Which of the motor is used to drive the constant speed line shafting, lathes, blowers and fans ?

D.C. shunt motor.

(b) D.C. series motor.
(c) Cumulative compound motor.
(d) None of the above.

49. In series-parallel control method when two d.c. series motors are connected in series, the speed of
the set is

(a) Half of the speed of the motors when connected in parallel.

One-fourth of the speed of motors when connected in parallel.
(c) Same as in parallel.
(d) Rated speed of any one of the motors.

50. The torque produced by series combination of two d.c. series motors is

(a) Equal to the torque when they are connected in parallel.

(b) Half of the torque when they are connected in parallel .
Four times of the torque when they are connected in parallel.
(d) Twice of the torque when they are connected in parallel.

51. The use of the starter in d.c. motors is necessary because

(a) They are not self-starting.

Initially there is no back e.m.f. and armature current is very high which is to be avoided by using
high resistance starter.
(c) To overcome back e.m.f..
(d) None of the above.

52. The speed of the d.c. motor can be varied

(a) By varying field current only.

(b) By varying field current or armature resistance.
(c) By varying supply voltage only.
(b) or (c).

53. The electrical energy can be converted into chemical energy.

true.
(b)false.

54. The mercury are rectifier can be used as an inverter.

true.
(b) false.

55.The hum in the transformer is mainly attributed to

(a) Laminations of the transformer.

Magnetostriction.
(c) Oil of the transformer.
(d) Walls of the tanks.

56. To obtain the sinusoidal voltage the poles should have the shape such that the length of the air gap
at any point is

(a) Proportional to 1/sinθ, where θ is the angle measured in electrical degrees between the point in
the question and centre of the pole.
Proportional to 1/cos⁡θ, where θ is same as defined in (a).
(c) Proportional to sin⁡θ.
(d) Proportional to cos⁡θ.

57. The power transformer is a

(a) Constant current device.

Constant main flux device.
(c) Constant voltage device.
(d) Constant power device.

58. An induction motor is

(a) Self-starting with zero torque.

(b) Self-starting with high torque.
 Self-stating with small torque than rated torque.
(d) None of the above.

59.As the load is increased the speed of d.c. shunt motor will

(a) Increase proportionately.

(b) Remains almost constant.
(c) Increase slightly.
Reduce slightly.

60. Two transformers operating in parallel will share the load depending upon their

(a) ratings.
(b) leakage reactance.
(c) efficiency.
per unit impedance.

61. The equalizer rings are used in

Lap winding.
(b) Wave winding.
(c) Multilayer wave winding.
(d) None of the above.

62.The generator is called flat compounded if

The series field ampere turns are such as to produce the same voltage at rated load as at no
load.
(b) The series field turns are such as that the rated load voltage is greater than no load voltage.
(c) The rated voltage is less than the no load voltage.
(d) None of the above.

63. The slip test is used

(a) To measure the slip of the induction motor.

(b) To measure the torque of the induction motor.
To measure the X_d and X_q of the alternator.
(d) For none of the above.

64. What will happen if the back e.m.f. in the d.c. motor absent ?
(a) Motor will run faster than rated value.
Motor will burn.
(c) Armature drop will be reduced substantially.
(d) None of the above.

65. The armature torque of the d.c. shunt motor is proportional to

Armature current only.

(b) Field flux only.
(c) Armature current and flux both.
(d) None of the above.

66. The back e.m.f. has no relation with armature torque in d.c. motor.

(a) true.
false.

67. The speed of the d.c shunt motor increases as the armature torque increases.

(a) true.
false.

68. The horsepower obtained from the shaft torque is called

(a) Indicated horsepower or I.H.P.

Brake horsepower or B.H.P.
(c) F.H.P.
(d) None of the above.

69. For d.c. shunt motors the speed is dependent on back e.m.f, only because

Flux is practically constant in d.c shunt motor.

(b) Flux is proportional to armature current.
(c) Armature drop is negligible.
(d) Back e.m.f. is equal to armature drop .

70.It is preferable to start d.c. series motor with some mechanical load because

It may develop excessive speed otherwise and damage itself.

(b) It will not run at no load .
(c) A little load will act as a starter to the motor.
(d) None of the above.

71. When the torque of the d.c. series motor is doubled the power is increased by

(a) 70% .
50% to 60% .
(c) 20% .
(d) 100%.

72. When two d.c. series generators are running in parallel an equalizer bar is used

Because two similar machines will pass approximately equal currents to the load.
(b) To reduce the combined effect of armature reaction of both machines.
(c) To increase the speed and hence generated e.m.f..
(d) To increase the series flux.

73. The speed of the d.c. motor can be controlled by

(a) Controlling flux only.

Controlling flux, armature resistance and voltage.
(c) Controlling voltage and flux only.
(d) Controlling armature resistance and voltage only.

74. The diverter in d.c. machine is basically potential divider.

(a) true.
false.

75. The speed/current curve for a d.c. series motor with resistance in series field will lie above the
curve without resistance in series field.

(a) true.
false.

76. A diverter across the armature of d.c. motor cannot be used for giving speed lower than the rated
speed

a) true.
false.

77. the field flux of the d.c. motor can be controlled to achieve.
 The speeds above the rated speed.
(b) The speeds lower than rated speed.
(c) The speeds above and below the rated speed.
(d) Steady speed.

78. The reversal of rotation of motors and as electric braking is known as

(a) regenerative braking .

plugging.
(c) dynamic braking .
(d) none of the above.

79. Which of the following methods of braking is used in rolling mills?

plugging .
(b) regenerative braking.
(c) dynamic braking.
(d) mechanical brakes.

80. Regenerative method of braking is based on that

Back e.m.f. of motor is more than the applied voltage.

(b) Back e.m.f. is equal to the applied voltage.
(c) Back e.m.f is less than the applied voltage.
(d) None of the above.

81. Swinburne’s test is applied to

Those machines in which the flux is practically constant.

(b) Those machines in which flux is varying.
(c) Those machines in which flux is proportional to armature current.
(d) None of the above.

82. The retardation test is applicable to shunt motors and generators and is used to find

the stray losses.

(b) the copper losses.
(c) the eddy current losses.
(d) the friction losses.

83. In the load Field’s test the two similar d.c. series machines are mechanically coupled. The output
of the generator is fed to the resistance and hence is called regenerative test.

(a) true.
false.

84. The use of higher flux density in the transformer design

Reduce the weight per KVA.

(b) Increases weight per KVA.
(c) Has no relation with the weight of the transformer.
(d) Increases the weight per KW.

85. The oil used in the small transformer provides

(a) cooling only.

(b) insulation only.
insulation and cooling both .
(d) lubrication only.

86. The oil used in the transformer should be free from moisture because

(a) Moisture will reduce the density of the oil which is slightly undesirable.
Moisture will reduce the dielectric strength of the oil and hence insulation is weakened.
(c) Moisture will reduce the lubricating property of the oil.
(d) Moisture will develop rust.

87. ASKARELS is the trade name given to

(a) Natural mineral oil used in the transformer.

Synthetic insulating fluids used in the transformer.
(c) Insulating materials for transformers.
(d) Insulating materials for motors and generators.

88. The conservator is used in the transformer

(a) To supply oil to transformer whenever needed.

To protect transformer from damage when oil expands due to rise in temperature. It stores the
increasing volume of the oil.
(c) To provide the fresh air cool down the oil.
(d) To store ware for transformer cooling.

89. Which of the following statement is correct ?

(a) Induction coil works on A.C.

(b) Transformer is used to step up the potential of d.c.
The output current of induction coil is nearly unindirectional.

(d) In the step down transformers, the transformation ratio is always greater than one.
90. The induced e.m.f. in the transformer secondary will depend on

(a) Frequently of the supply only.

(b) Number of turns in secondary only.
(c) Maximum flux in core and frequency only.
Frequency, flux and number of turns in the secondary.

91. No load primary input is practically equal to the iron loss in the transformer because primary
current is very small.

true.
(b) false.

92. If R2 is the resistance of secondary winding of the transformer and K is transformation ratio than
the equivalent secondary resistance referred to primary will be

(a) R2/K2.
(b) R2/2/K2.
R2/K2.
(d) R2/√K.

93. A transformer with magnetic leakage is equivalent to an ideal transformer with inductive coils
connected in both primary and secondary.

true.
b) false.

94. The leakage flux links both of the winding of transformer and hence contributes to the transfer of
energy from primary of the transfer of energy from primary of the transformer to secondary.
(a) true.
false.

95. The vector diagram of the three phase transformer is equivalent to the vector diagram of three
phase induction motor with short circuited secondary. If the secondary of the transformer is wounded
on a shaft and treated as rotor and primary is fed three phase supply, the rotor will run and behaves
like an induction motor.

(a) true.
false.

96.The short circuit test in the transformer is used to determine

(a) The iron loss at any load.

The copper loss at any load or at full load.
(b) The hysteresis loss.
(c) The eddy current loss.

97. If the power factor is leading the regulating of a good transformer will be higher than when it is
lagging.

(a) true.
false.

98. A good transformer must have regulation as high as possible.

(a) true.
false.

99. The percentage resistance, reactance and impedance have the same whether referred to primary or
secondary of the transformer.

true.
b) false.

100. Which of the following electrical machines has the highest efficiency ?

(a) D.C. shunt motor.

Transformer.
(c) Induction motor.
(d) Synchronous motor.
101. The efficiency of the transformer is independent of power factor.

a) true
b) false

Ans: (b)

102. The condition for the maximum efficiency of the transformer is that

a) Copper losses are half of the iron losses

b) Copper losses are equal to iron losses
c) Copper losses are negligible in comparison to iron losses
d) Iron losses are zero

Ans: (b)

103. If the iron loss and full load copper losses are given then the load at which two losses would be
equal ( i.e. corresponding to maximum efficiency ) is given by

a) full load × (iron loss)/(f.l.cu-loss)

b) full load × ((iron loss)2)/(f.l.cu-loss)
c)full load × √((iron loss)/(f.l.cu-loss))
d) full load × √((f.l.cu-loss)/(iron loss))

Ans: (c)

104. The distribution transformers are designed to keep core losses minimum and copper losses are
relatively less important because

a) The primary of such transformers is energized for all twenty-four hours and core losses occur
throughout the day whereas copper losses will occur only when secondary is supplying load
b) Core losses are always more than copper losses
c) Core losses may destroy the insulation
d) Core losses will heat up the oil of the transformer rapidly

Ans: (a)

105. The tapping in the transformer are always provided in the low voltage side
a) true
b)false

Ans: (b)

106.Enumerate the conditions for successful parallel operation of the single phase transformers

a) The percentage impedance should be equal

b) The transformers should be properly connected with regard in polarity
c) The primary winding of the transformers should be suitable for the supply system voltage and
frequency
d) The voltage ratings of transformers of primary and secondary winding should be identical

Ans: ()

107. What will happen if the transformers working in parallel are not connected with regard to
polarity?

a) Incorrect polarity will result in dead short-circuit

b) The transformers will not share load in proportion to their KVA rating
c) The power factors of two transformers will be different from the power factor of common load
d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

108. What will happen if the percentage impedances of the two transformers working in parallel are
different?

a) Parallel operation will not be possible

b) Parallel operation will still be possible, but the power factors at which the two
transformers operate will be different from the power factor of the common load
c) Transformers will be over heated
d) Power factors of both of the transformers will be same

Ans: (b)

109. Which of the following connections is most suitable and economical for small, high-voltage
transformers?
a) Delta-delta connection
b) Star-star connection
c)Star-delta connection
d)Delta-star connection

Ans: (b)

110. Delta-delta connection is economical for large, low-voltage transformers in which insulation
problems is not urgent.

a) true
b) false

Ans: (a)

111. The average power factor at which open-delta bank of single phase transformers operates is less
than that of load.

a) true
b) false

Ans: (a)

112. Scott connection is used

a) To accomplish three phase to three phase transformation only

b) To accomplish three phase to two phase transformation only
c) To accomplish three phase to three phase and three phase to two phase transformation
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

113. Under balanced load conditions, main transformer rating in the Scott connection is

a) 10% greater than teaser transformer

b) 15% greater than teaser transformer
c) 57.7% greater than teaser transformer
d) 66.6% greater than teaser transformer

Ans: (b)
114. If the load is balanced on one side of the transformer in the Scott connection, the load is balanced
on the other side as well.

a) true
b) false

Ans: (a)

115. If K is the transformation ratio of main transformer in the Scott connection then the
transformation ratio of the teaser will be

a) K/√3
b) √(3/2K)
c) 2K/√3
d) √(K/2)

Ans: (c)

116. The rotor slots are usually given slight skew in the squirrel case indication motor

a) To increase the tensile strength of the rotor bars and hence strength
b) To reduce the magnetic hum and locking tendency of the rotor
c) To see the copper used
d) Because of easy in fabrication

Ans: (b)

117. The starting torque of the slip ring induction motor can be increased by

a) Adding external resistance to the rotor

b) Adding the external inductance to the rotor
c) Adding both resistance and inductance to the rotor
d) Adding external capacitance to the rotor

Ans: (a)

118. What will happen if the relation speed between the rotating flux of stator and rotor of the
induction motor is zero?

a) The rotor will not run

b) The rotor will run at very high speed
c) The slip of the motor will be zero
d) The torque produced will be very large

Ans: (a)

119. When the rotor starts rotation the frequency of the rotor of induction motor will depend on
relative speed of the stator and the rotor.

a) true
b) false

Ans: (a)

120. A 400 KW, 3 phase, 440 volts, 50 Hz AC induction motor has a speed of 950 rpm on full load.
The machine has 6 poles. The slip of machine will be

a) 0.06
b)0.10
c) 0.04
d) 0.05

Ans: (d)

121. If the rotor of the induction motor is assumed non-inductive, the torque acting on each conductor
will be positive or unidirectional.

a) true
b) false

Ans: (a)

122. Which of the following statement is most appropriate if T is the starting torque developed in the
rotor and V is the supply voltage to the stator.

a) T is proportional to V2
b) T is proportional to V
c) T is proportional to √V
d) T is proportional to V1/4

Ans: (a)
123. A change of 5% in supply voltage to an induction motor will produce a change of approximately

a) 5% in the rotor torque

b) 7% in the rotor torque
c) 25% in the rotor
d) 10% in the rotor torque

Ans: (c)

124. The torque of a rotor in an induction motor under running condition is maximum

a) At the value of the slip which makes rotor reactance per phase equal to the resistance per phase
b) At the value of the slip which makes the rotor reactance half of the rotor resistance
c) At the unit value of the slip
d) At the zero value of the slip

Ans: (a)

125. By varying the rotor resistance in the slip ring induction motor the maximum torque can be
achieved at any desired slip or speed of.

a) true
b) false

Ans: (a)

126. The maximum torque of an induction motor varies directly as applied voltage.

a) true
b) false

Ans: (a)

127. The shape of the torque/slip curve of induction motor is

a) hyperbola
b)parabola
c) straight line
d) rectangular parabola
Ans: (d)

128. Which of the following statement is correct when referred to induction motor?

a) The maximum torque will depend on rotor resistance

b) Although the maximum torque does not depend on rotor resistance yet the exact location of
maximum torque is depend on it
c) The maximum torque will depend on standstill reactance of rotor
d) The slip of the induction motor decreases as the torque increases

Ans: (b)

129. If an induction motor has a slip of 2% at normal voltage, what will be the approximate slip when
developing the same torque at 10% above normal voltage?

a) 1.6%
b) 2%
c) 1.65%
d) 1.1%

Ans: (c)

130. The slip of the induction motor can be measured by comparing the rotor and stator supply
frequencies.

a) true
b) false

Ans: (a)

131. When the frequency of the rotor of induction motor is small, it can be measured by

a) Galvanometer
b) D.c. moving coil millivoltmeter
c) D.c. moving coil ammeter
d) A.c. voltmeter

Ans: (b)
132. The rotor efficiency of induction motor is called

a) I.H.P.
b) F.H.P.
c) B.H.P.
d) none of the above

Ans: (c)

133. The rotor efficiency of induction motor is defined as the ratio of actual speed of rotor to
synchronous speed of rotor.

a) true
c) false

Ans: (a)

134. The synchronous watt can be defined as follows :

a) This is the unit of rating of synchronous machine

b) This is the unit of torque defined at radius unit

c) This is the torque, which at the synchronous speed of the machine under consideration, would
develop a power of 1 watt
d) This is the unit of the power when the power factor in the power equation omitted

Ans: (c)
135. The synchronous wattage of an induction motor equals the power transferred across the air gap to
the rotor in the induction motor.

a) true
c) false

Ans: (a)

136. When it is said that an induction motor is developing a torque of 900 synchronous watts, it
means that the rotor input is 900 watts and that torque is such that the power developed would be 900
watts provided the rotor was running synchronously and developing the same torque.

a) true
c) false
Ans: (a)

137. The power output of induction motor will be maximum when

a) The equivalent load resistance is equal to the standstill reactance of the motor
b) The equivalent load resistance is equal to the resistance of the rotor
c) The equivalent resistance is equal to the standstill leakage impedance of the motor
d) The slip is zero

Ans: (c)

138. The complete circle diagram of induction motor can be drawn with the help of data found from

a) no load test
b) blocked rotor test
c) (a) and (b) both
d) (a), (b) and stator resistance test

Ans: (d)

139. The transformation ratio of the induction motor cannot be defined in terms of stator and rotor
currents.

a) true
b) false

Ans: (b)

140. The maximum torque of induction motor varies directly as standstill reactance of rotor.

a) true
b) false

Ans: (b)

141. The value of transformation ratio of an induction motor can be found by

a) Short circuit test only

b) Open circuit test only
c) Slip test
d) Stator resistance test

Ans: (a)

142. The power scale of circle diagram of an induction motor can be found from

a) No load test only

b) Short circuit test only
c) Stator resistance test
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

143. The starting torque of induction motor cannot be determined from circle diagram

a) true
b) false

Ans: (a)

144. It is advisable to avoid line-starting of induction motor and use starter because

a) Starting torque is very high

b) Motor takes five to seven times its full load current
c) It will pick-up very high speed and may go out of step
d) It will run in reverse direction

Ans: (b)

145. The induced e.m.f. in the rotor of an induction motor is proportional to

a) Supply voltage only

b) Relative velocity between flux and rotor conductors
c) (a) and (b) both
d) Slip

Ans: (c)

146. The relation between maximum torque and full load torque (Tmax, Tf respectively) when referred
to induction motor is given by
a) Tf/Tmax =2a/(a2 + s2)
b) Tf/Tmax =2/(a2 + s2)
c) Tf/Tmax =2as/(a2 + s2)
d) Tf/Tmax =a/(a2 + s2)

Ans: (c)

Where s is the slip and a = R2/X2 = (Resistance of the rotor)/(Resistance of the rotor)

147.In the above question the relation between standstill torque (Ts) and maximum torque (Tmax) is
given by

a) Ts/Tmax = 2a/(1 + a2 )
b) Ts/Tmax = 2a/(S2 + a2 )
c) Ts/Tmax = 2/(1 + s2 )
d) Ts/Tmax = 2a/(S2 + 1)

Ans: (a)

148. The slip of the induction motor can be calculated if the rotor copper losses and rotor input are
known.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

149. The auto-starters (using three auto-transformers) can be used to start cage induction motor of the
following type :

a) Star connected only

b) Delta connected only
c) (a) and (b) both
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

150 The torque developed in the cage induction motor with auto-starter is

a) K × torque with direct switching

b) K/ torque with direct switching
c) K2 × torque with direct switching
d) K2/torque with direct switching

Ans: (c)

Where tapping of transformation ratio K is used in case of auto-transformer.

151. Percentage tapping required of an auto-transformer for a cage motor to start the motor against 1/4
of full load will be

a) 70%
b) 71%
c) 71.5%
d) 72.2%

Ans: (d)

When the short circuit current on normal voltage is 4 times the full load and full load slip is 30%.

152. The start-delta switch is equivalent to auto-transformer of ratio (when applied to delta connected
cage induction motor)

a) 57%
b) 56.5%
c) 86.6%
d) 58% approximately

Ans: (d)

153. The rotor current can be reduced by introducing star connected resistance starter in the rotor
circuit of the cage motor and slip ring motor as well.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

154. The slip ring motor can be started under load conditions.

a) True
b) False
Ans: (a)

155. The crawling in the induction motor is caused by

a) Improper design of the machine

b) Low voltage supply
c) High Loads
d) Harmonics developed in the motor

Ans: (d)

156. Cogging in the induction motor usually occurs at high voltage.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

157. The outer cage in the double squirrel cage motor has low resistance copper bars.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

158. The torque/speed characteristics of double squirrel cage induction motor may be taken to be sum
of two motors, one having a high resistance rotor and other a low resistance one.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

159. When the equivalent circuit diagram of double squirrel cage induction motor is constructed the
two rotor cages can be considered

a) In parallel
b) In series parallel
c) In series
d) In parallel with stator
Ans: (a)

160. The speed of the cage induction motor cannot be controlled from the rotor side.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

161. Which of the following methods is easily applicable to control the speed of the squirrel cage
induction motor?

a) Rotor rheostat control

b) By operating two motors in cascade
c) By injecting an e.m.f. in the rotor circuit
d) By changing the number of stator poles

Ans: (d)

162. Rotor rheostat control to control the speed of the induction motor is only applicable to slip-ring
induction motors.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

163. The injected e.m.f. in the rotor of induction motor must have

a) The same frequency as the slip frequency

b) The same phase as the rotor e.m.f.
c) High value for the satisfactory speed control
d) Zero frequency

Ans: (a)

164. The additional stator winding is used in the compensated repulsion motor
a) To improve power factor and provide better speed regulation
b) To eliminate armature reaction
c) To prevent hunting in the motor
d) To provide mechanical balance

Ans: (a)

165. Repulsion start induction-run motor can be applicable to commercial refrigerators.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

166. The rotation of the repulsion induction motor can be reversed by the usual brush shifting
arrangement.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

167. The power factor improvement of a.c. series motor is only possible by

a) Increasing the magnitude of inductances of field and armature winding

b) Decreasing the magnitude of reactances and armature winding
c) Equalizing the armature resistance to armature reactance
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

168. If the number of the turns on the field winding in a.c. series motor is decreased, the speed of
motor increases but torque decreases.The same torque can be achieved by

a) Increasing the number of turns on armature winding proportionately

b) Decreasing the number of turns on armature winding
c) Increasing armature resistance
d) Equalizing the armature resistance to the armature reactance

Ans: (a)
169. In conductively-compensated a.c. series motors, the compensating winding is

a) Connected in parallel with the armature

b) Short-circuited and has no interconnection with the motor circuit
c) Connected in series with the armature
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

170. The current in inductively compensated winding of the a.c. series motor is proportional to the
armature current and 180 degree out of phase.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

171. The huge voltage, induced in the short-circuited coil (by transformer action) of a.c. series motor
when commutation takes place is neutralized by

a) Increasing inductance of the compensating winding

b) Increasing resistance of the compensating winding
c) Decreasing the number of turns in the compensating winding
d) Shunting the winding of each commutating pole with non-inductive resistance

Ans: (d)

172. A universal motor is defined as a motor which may be operated either on d.c. or single phase a.c.
supply at

a) Same output but different speeds

b) Same speed and different output
c) Approximately same output and same speed
d) Synchronous speed

Ans: (c)

173. It is preferred to use single turn coil in the armature of the single phase a.c. series motors

a) To facilitate commutation and avoid sparking at the brushes

b) To reduce the resistance of the armature
c) To reduce the resistance of the armature
d) To reduce the weight of the armature

Ans: (a)

174. Which of the following motor is unexcited single phase synchronous motors?

a) A.C. series motor

b) Universal motor
c) Repulsion motor
d) Reluctance motor

Ans: (d)

175. Which of the following motors is most suitable for signalling devices and many kinds of timers?

a) D.C. series motor

b) A.C. series motor
c) Induction motor
d) Reluctance motor

Ans: (d)

176. The wide-open type slots in the design of stator of alternator will present the following
disadvantage?

a) The size of the machine will increase

b) The size of the stator will increase
c) Air gap flux is distributed in the tufts and produce ripples in the wave of generated e.m.f.
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

177. What kind of rotor is most suitable for turbo-alternators which are designed to run at high
speed?

a) Salient pole type

b) None-salient pole type
c) (a) or (b)
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

178. The power developed in the alternator having salient type rotor is less than of having non-
salient pole.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

179. The damping winding in the synchronous motors is often used

a) To prevent hunting only

b) To prevent hunting and provide the starting torque
c) To maintain proper synchronism
d) To provide the starting torque only

Ans: (b)

180. The turbo-alternators are seldom characterized by small diameters and very long axial or rotor
length.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

181. The maximum speed of an alternator at power frequency of 50 Hz will be

a) 3600 rpm
b) 3300 rpm
c) 3000 rpm
d) 1500 rpm

Ans: (c)

182. Which of following statement is correct?

a) Short pitched coils in the alternators are used to reduce the size of the machines.
b) Short pitched coils are used to reduce the harmonics or to eliminate the harmonics from the
generated e.m.f.
c) Short pitched coils are used to provide accurate phase difference of 120 degree to one phase to
other.
d) Short pitched coils are used to reduce copper losses.

Ans: (b)

183. The disadvantage of using short pitched coils in the alternator is that

a) Total induced e.m.f. is increased

b) Total induced voltage is reduced
c) Total induced voltage is distorted
d) Total induced voltage is more and hence more insulation is required

Ans: (b)

184. The coil span factor is defined as

a) (vector sum of induced e.m.fs. per coil)/(terminal voltage of the generator)

b) (arithmetic sum of induced e.m.fs. per coil)/(vector sum of induced e.m.fs. per coil)

c) (vector sum of induced e.m.fs. per coil)/(arithmetic sum of induced e.m.fs. per coil)

d) (arithmetic sum of induced e.m.fs. per coil)/(terminal voltage of the generator)

Ans: (c)

185. The induced e.m.f. in an alternator with distributed winding is always more than of with
concentrating winding.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

186. A three phase, 4 pole, 24- slots alternator has its armature coil short pitched by one slot. The
distribution factor of alternator will be
a) 0.96
b) 0.9
c) 0.933
d) 0.966

Ans: (d)

187. In case of an alternator, the power factor of the load has a considerable effect on the armature
reaction unlike d.c. generators.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

188. When the power factor of load is unity, the armature flux of an alternator will be

a) Demagnetizing
b) Cross-magnetizing
c) Square waveform
d) N phase with current

Ans: (b)

189. When the load has power factor zero lagging, the main flux of the alternator will decrease.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

190. The armature reaction of an alternator will be completely magnetizing when

a) Load power factor is unity

b) Load power factor is zero lagging
c) Load power factor is zero leading
d) Load power factor is 7.0 lagging

Ans: (c)
191. The synchronous reactance is defined as the

a) Reactance due to armature reaction of the machine

b) Reactance of synchronous machine
c) Reactance due to leakage flux
d) Combined reactance due to leakage of flux and armature reaction

Ans: (d)

192. In case of leading load power factor, the terminal voltage of alternator as the fall on removing the
full load.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

193. The rise of the voltage of alternator when the load is thrown off is same as the fall in the voltage
when full load is applied.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

194. Give the three methods of determining the voltage regulation of the alternator.

i) Synchronous Impedance Method

ii) M.M.F. Method
iii) Potier Triangle Method

Ans: ()

195. The synchronous impedance method will not give accurate voltage regulation because

a) The value of synchronous impedance found is always less than actual value
b) The value of synchronous impedance found is always less than the actual value

c) The value of the synchronous impedance is independent of saturation

d) The reactance due to armature reaction is considered separately

Ans: (b)
196. The value of the voltage regulation found by the M.M.F. method is always less than the actual
value.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

197. Which of the following methods is better to find the voltage regulation?

a) M.M.F. Method
b) Potier Triangle Method
c) Synchronous Impedance Method
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

198. The operation of connecting an alternator in parallel with another alternator or with common bus
bar is known as

a) Proper machine
b) Mechanizing
c) Synchronizing
d) Asynchronizing

Ans: (c)

199. Give the three conditions for the proper synchronization of alternator

i) The terminal voltage for the incoming alternator must be same as bus bar voltage.
ii) The speed of the incoming machine must be such that its frequency (=pn/120) equals bus bar
frequency.

iii) The phase of the alternator voltage must be identical with the phase of the bus bar
voltage. It means that switch must be closed at (or very near) the instant of the two voltage have
correct relationship.

Ans: ()
200. In three phase alternators, it is necessary to synchronize one phase only, the other phases will be
synchronized automatically.
a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

201. When the alternators are running in proper synchronism the synchronizing power will be zero

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

202. If the two alternators are running in proper synchronism and the voltage of one machine is
suddenly increased

a) The machine will burn

b) Both of the machines will stop
c) The synchronization torque will be produced to restore further synchronism
d) Synchronization cannot be attained automatically

Ans: (c)

203. If the input prime-move of an alternator is kept constant but the excitation is changed then

a) The reactive component of the output is changed

b) The active component of the output is changed
c) The power factor of the load remains constant
d) (a) and (b) takes place simultaneously

Ans: (a)

204. The load taken up by the alternator directly depends upon the driving torque or in other words
upon the angular advance of its rotor.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

205. A synchronous motor is inherently self-starting motor.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

206. The working of synchronous motor is, in many ways, similar to

a) The power transformer

b) The hydraulic motor
c) The gear train arrangement
d) The transmission of mechanical power by a shaft

Ans: (d)

207. The coupling angle or load angle of synchronous motor is defined as

a) The angle between the rotor and the stator poles of same polarity
b) The angle between the rotor and the stator poles of opposite polarity
c) The angle between the rotor and the stator teeth
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

208. The coupling angle of synchronous motor is independent of load.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

209. The torque developed by the synchronous motor is independent of coupling angle.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

210. The back e.m.f. set up in the stator of synchronous motor will depend on
a) The rotor excitation only
b) The rotor excitation and speed both
c) The rotor speed only
d) The coupling angle only

Ans: (a)

211. If the synchronous motor (properly synchronized to the supply) is running on no load and is
having negligible loss then.

a) The stator current will be very high

b) The stator current will be zero
c) The stator current will be very small
d) The back e.m.f. will be more than the supply voltage

Ans: (b)

212. The maximum power developed in the synchronous motor will depend on

a) The supply voltage only

b) The rotor excitation only
c)The rotor excitation and supply voltage both
d) The rotor excitation, supply voltage and maximum value of coupling angle (90 degree)

Ans: (d)

213. The armature current of the synchronous motor

a) Has large values for low excitation only

b) Has large values for high excitation only
c) Has large values for low and high excitation
d) Has large current for low lagging excitation

Ans: (c)

214. The minimum armature current of the synchronous-motor

a) Corresponds to 0.8 power factor

b) Corresponds to zero power factor
c) Corresponds to 0.866 power factor
d) Corresponds to unity power factor

Ans: (d)

215. The synchronous motor can be used as phase advancer.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

216. A synchronous capacitor is nothing but a synchronous motor running on no load with over
excitation.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

217. If the field of the synchronous motor is left short circuited and connected to supply through auto-
transformer

a) The motor will run at its normal speed

b) The motor will just crawl
c) The motor will run as induction motor
d) The armature will burn because there is no back e.m.f. in the armature

Ans: (c)

218. The synchronous motor can be operated at desired power factor by varying the excitation to the
motor.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

219. The rotary convertor can be used to

a) Convert a.c. to d.c.

b) Convert d.c. to a.c.
c) Convert liner motion to rotary motion
d) (a) and (b) both

Ans: (d)

220. A rotary convertor is used to convert a.c. to d.c. but cannot be used to convert d.c. to a.c.

a) True
b) false

Ans: (a)

221. A 2 kW single phase rotary convertor operates at full load from 230 voltage a.c. source.
Assuming unity power factor and 100% efficiency the d.c. current will be

a) 6 A
b) 6.15 A
c) 8.7 A
d) 5 A

Ans: (b)

222. A rotary convertor can be run as a

a) Induction motor
b) Synchronous motor
c) D.c. series motor
d) D.c. compound motor

Ans: (a)

223. In the operation of the poly-phase rotary convertors, which of the following should be introduced
between the a.c. sources and slip rings?

a) Amplifier
b) Rectifier
c) Transformer
d) Diode
Ans: (a)

224. Which of the following statements is true?

a) A rotary convertor can be called a Synchronous invertor.

b) A rotary convertor can be called a Synchronous convertor.

c) A rotary convertor can be called a Synchronous divertor.

d) A rotary convertor can be called a Synchronous capacitor.

Ans: (b)
225. Which of the following rotary convertors is used in the standard practice?

a) Single phase rotary convertor.

b) Three phase rotary convertor.
c) Six phase rotary convertor.
d) Twelve phase rotary convertor.

Ans: (c)

226. For a given temperature rise and hence output, a six-phase convertor is smaller than three or two
phase convertor.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

227. Given the four methods to control d.c. voltage of rotary convertor :

a) By using tap changing transformer.

b) Series reactance control method.
c) Induction regular.
d) Synchronous booster control method.

Ans: ()

228. The mercury arc rectifier is used as

a) Convertor only
b) Inventor only
c) (a) and (b) both
d) Transducer

Ans: (c)

229. The arc between the anode and cathode of mercury arc rectifier will persist

a) When anode is as positive potential with respect to cathode

b) When anode is at negative potential with respect to cathode
c) When anode will repel the electrons
d) When anode is at very low temperature

Ans: (a)

230. The purpose of introducing reactor in the ignition circuit of mercury arc rectifier is

a) To limit the rate of change of flux in the circuit

b) To limit the voltage of the circuit
c) To limit the rate of change of the current in the circuit
d) To limit the current in the circuit

Ans: (d)

231. The advantage of using larger phase mercury arc rectifier is that

a) They are easily available

b) They work noiselessly
c) They are very cheap
d) Their output is much smoother

Ans: (d)

232. The utility factor of mercury-arc rectifier is defined as

a) (actual power)/(full load rating)

b) (wattless power component)/(full load rating)
c) (actual power)/(half load rating)
d) (total a.c. input)/(total d.c. output)
e) (total d.c output)/(total d.c. input)

Ans: (a)

233. Angle of overlap is related to

a) Diode rectifier
b) Silicon controlled rectifier
c) Mercury-arc rectifier
d) Metal rectifier

Ans: (c)

234. Give the three types of voltage drop when mercury-arc rectifier is on load :

a) Reactance drop
b) Mean resistance drop
c) Arc voltage drop

Ans: ()

235. The utilization factor of the six-phase mercury arc rectifier is more than that of three-phase
mercury-arc rectifier.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

236. The utilization factor is maximum for

a) Three-phase mercury arc rectifier

b) Six-phase mercury arc rectifier
c) twelve-phase mercury arc rectifier
d) Single phase mercury arc rectifier

Ans: (a)

237. If the air gap of the induction motor is increased

a) The power factor will increase
b) The power factor will decrease
c) The magnetizing current of the rotor will increase
d) The magnetizing current of the rotor will decrease
e) The speed of the motor will decrease

Ans: (d)

238. The squirrel cage induction motor has

a) One slip rings

b) two slip rings
c) three slip rings
d) zero slip rings

Ans: (d)

239. What will happen if the supply terminals of d.c. shunt motor are interchanged

a) motor will stop

b) motor will run at its normal speed in the same direction as it was running
c) the direction of rotation will reverse
d) motor speed will increase

Ans: (c)

240. An amplidyne can be used as

a) a d.c. series motor

b) a d.c. shunt motor
c) a d.c. compound motor
d) magnetic amplifier

Ans: (c)

241. The torque/slip characteristic of induction motor is shown, which is the unstable region?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D

Ans: (b)

242. Find the odd man out

a) Tachometer
b) Voltmeter
c) Ammeter
d) Galvanometer

Ans: (a)

243. The mechanical load across the induction motor is equivalent to electrical load of

a) R2 (1/s – 1)
b) R2 (1/s – 1)
c) R2 (s – 1)
d) 1/R2 (s – 1)

Ans: (b)

Where R2 is the resistance of the rotor in terms of secondary and s is the slip of motor.

244. If the supply frequency to the transformer is increased the iron loss

a) Will decrease
b) Will increase
c) Will not change
d) Will reach nearly zero

Ans: (b)

245. In the d.c. motors iron losses occur in

a) The yoke
b) The pole shoe
c) The armature
d) The field
Ans: (b)

246. With the use high flux density in the transformer

a) The size of core will decrease

b) Less copper will be used
c) Core losses will decrease
d) Voltage output will decrease

Ans: (a)

247. The induced e.m.f. in the armature of d.c. machine rotating in the stationary field will be

a) Sinusoidal voltage
b) Direct voltage
c) Sinusoidal with even harmonics
d) Sinusoidal with oil harmonics

Ans: (a)

248. The air gap between poles has

a) No magnetic field
b) No magnetic unless the poles are far apart
c) A strong magnetic field
d) A magnetic field if the poles tough

Ans: (c)

249. Magnetic induction results in

a) Induced poles opposite from the original poles

b) Induced poles the same as the original field
c) Two north poles
d) An induced magnetic field but no induced pole

Ans: (a)

250. Which of the following statement is true?

a) Iron, steel, and nickel are magnetic materials.
b) Copper, iron, steel, and air are magnetic materials.
c) Paper, wood, and steel are magnetic materials.
d) Iron is magnetic materials but steel is non-magnetic.

Ans: (a)

251. In an electromagnet

a) Current must flow through the coil to produce magnetic field

b) The magnetic field has the same strength with or without current
c) Current must flow but no voltage need be applied across the coil
d) The coil must have high resistance for minimum coil current

Ans: (a)

252. The motor action in a wire conducting current can be produced

a) Without any additional magnetic field

b) By moving the conductor from a weaker field towards stronger field
c) By moving the conductor from stronger field towards weaker field
d) By producing the motion by not rotation

Ans: (c)

253. The requirement for producing induced voltage is

a) Magnetic flux moving across a conductor

b) Magnetic flux moving across a dielectric
c) An insulated wire free from any external magnetic field
d) A bare wire moving parallel to an external magnetic field

Ans: (a)

254. A 5:1 voltage step up transformer has 120 volts across the primary and 600 ohms resistance
across the secondary. Assuming 100% efficiency the primary current equals

a) 1/5 amp
b) 500 ma
c) 10 amps
d) 20 amps
e) 5 amps

Ans: (e)

255. In a transformer, the voltage induced in the secondary winding must always be 90 degree out of
phase with the

a) Primary voltage
b) Primary current
c) Secondary voltage
d) Secondary current

Ans: (b)

256. A ferrite core has less eddy-current loss than an iron a core because

a) Ferrites have low resistance

b) Ferrites have high resistance
c) Ferrites have low permeability
d) Ferrites have high hysteresis

Ans: (b)

257. Which of the following motors is usually used in household refrigerators?

a) D.c. shunt motor

b) Reluctance motor
c) Single phase induction motor (split phase start or induction run motor)
d) Synchronous motor

Ans: (c)

258. If the refrigerator unit runs continuously maintaining cabinet coil, the failure of unit is attributed
to

a) Extreme hot weather conditions

b) Poor door seal at gasket
c) Defective motor
d) Defective thermostat

Ans: (d)

259. The maximum temperature permitted for Class A insulation is

a) 180° C
b) 105° C
c) 120° C
d) 155° C

Ans: (b)

260. The cotton, silk paper, and wood are

a) Class A insulation
b) Class Y insulation
c) Class H insulation
d) Class B insulation

Ans: (b)

261. Rheostatic breaking gives greater braking torque than plugging.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

262. Which of the following rules states that the direction of an induced current is always such that
the magnetic field which it produces reacts in opposition to the change of flux.

a) Thumb rule
b) Lenz’s law
c) Kirchhoff’s law
d) Faraday’s law

Ans: (b)

263. What conditions are necessary for an induced voltage to be created by means of rotation.
a) A magnetic field
b) Movably placed loops conductors (turns)
c) Lump conductors
d) (a) and (b) both

Ans: (d)

264. In the following diagram of a line conductor, in which direction do the magnetic lines of force
run if the observer is looking in the direction of current?

a) Counter-clockwise around the conductor

b) Clockwise around the conductor
c) Around the conductor
d) Outside the conductor

Ans: (b)

265. Which of the following rule is applied to above question to field direction of magnetic lines?

a) Left-hand rule
b) Right-hand rule
c) Corkscrew rule
d) Lenz’s law

Ans: (c)

266. In the adjacent figure, what kind of voltage is generated by linear movement of a horizontally or
vertically loop in or counter to the direction of magnetic field?

a) A D.C. voltage
b) An A.C. voltage
c) No voltage
d) Pulse voltage

Ans: (c)

267. What kind of voltage is induced in a loop conductor rotating in an homogeneous magnetic field?
a) A.C.
b) D.C.
c) No voltage
d) Pulse voltage

Ans: (b)

268. If a loop conductor is rotated in the magnetic field, a voltage is induced in it. This voltage
increases only with the

a) Density of the magnetic lines of force

b) Active length of conductor in exciting field
c) Velocity of the loop
d) Length of conductor, velocity and flux density

Ans: (d)

269. A loop conductor is rotated in a homogeneous magnetic field the magnetic flux

a) Changes its intensity constantly

b) Changes its direction with constant density
c) Changes in intensity with its direction periodically
d) Changes its intensity with its direction randomly

Ans: (c)

270. The operation of the electric generator and motor is based on the interaction between

a) Magnetic field and electric field

b) Magnetic field and electric current
c) Electric field and law of induction
d) Law of induction and dynamo-electric principle

Ans: (b)

271. What type of current is normally used to excite the synchronous and DC generators?

a) DC
b) AC single phase
c) AC three phase
d) AC two phase

Ans: (a)

272. Under what conditions will an Electromotive force be exerted on an electric conductor in a
magnetic field?

a) The conductor must have diameter

b) The conductor must have current passing through it
c) Magnetic field must be intensified
d) The conductor must be in coil from

Ans: (b)

273. Which of the following statement is correct?

a) A magnetic field exerts a force on-line conductor

b) The cause of force effect lines in the fact that original magnetic field and that of line conductor
affected each other

c) The repulsion takes place in the direction of mutually reducing field forces
d) All the above statements are correct

Ans: (d)
274. Which of the following transformer will have smallest size with same electrical specifications?

a) Oil Natural Air Natural (ONAN) cooled transformer

b) Dry type transformer
c) Oil Natural Air Force (ONAF) cooled transformer
d) Oil Forced Water Force (OFWF) cooled transformer

Ans: (b)

275. Which of the following Indian Standards deal with Induction motors?

a) IS: 2026
b) IS: 325
c) IS: 2208
d) IS: 3427
Ans: (b)

276. 1 H.P. is equivalent to

a) 0.746 W
b) 0.746 kW
c) 7.46 W
d) 7.46 kW

Ans: (b)

277. What kind of bushings will be used in the transformers above 33kV rating?

a) Porcelain type
b) Condenser type
c) Oil-filled type
d) (b) or (c)

Ans: (d)

278. If the percentage reactance of a power is 5.0, what will be the per unit reactance?

a) 0.05
b) 0.4
c) 1.0
d) 0.5

Ans: (a)

279. The eddy current loss in the transformer occurs in the

a) Primary winding
b) Secondary winding
c) Laminations
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)
280. A transformer with output of 250 kV at 3300 volts, has 1000 turns on its primary winding and
100 turns on secondary winding. What will be the transformation ratio the transformer?

a) 10
b) 4
c) 5
d) 3

Ans: (a)

281. In the Q. 280, what will be the primary rated voltage of the transformer?

a) 33,000 V
b) 1650 V
c) 16,500 V
d) 1500 V

Ans: (c)

282. The speed-torque characteristics for single-phase induction motor shown below are for

a) Shaded pole motor

b) Split phase motor
c) Capacitor-start motor
d) Repulsion-start run motor

Ans: (c)

283. The induced e.m.f. in one phase of the rotor winding is 120 V when the rotor is blocked and, the
resistance and reactance per phase of stator winding are 0.2 Ω and 0.3 Ω respectively. What will be
the rotor current?

a) 330 A
b) 332 A
c) 250 A
d) 200 A

Ans: (b)
284. A circuit for the auto transformer is shown below. The point b is located half way between
terminals a and c. The resistance of entire winding is 0.1 ohm, and the resistance of the position bc is
0.40 ohm. What will be the copper loss at an output of 10 A when the exciting current is neglected?

a) Watts
b) 2.5 Watts
c) 10 Watts
d) 4 Watts

Ans: (b)

285. In the figure of Q. 284, if the reactance of part ab is 0.2 ohm and that of common part is 0.1 ohm,
what will be the input current if primary voltage is 20 V?

a) 60 A
b) 33.3 A
c) 63.3 A
d) 30 A

Ans: (c)

286. What will wattmeter indicate is connected across supply line in the figure of Q. 284, provided
V1 = 20 V and reactance of ab is 0.2 ohm, reactance of common part is 0.1 ohm and the core loss is
neglected

a) 200 Watts
b) 100 Watts
c) 500 Watts
d) 400 Watts

Ans: (d)

287. A series motor has 2 poles and 95 turns per pole. The resistance of 2 field coils connected in
series is 3.02 ohms. The voltage drop across the field is 62 V and current is 3.55 A at 60 Hz. What
will be the field reactance?

a) 27 ohms
b) 60 ohms
c) 17.2 ohms
d) 68 ohms

Ans: (c)
288. The armature winding of repulsion motor is excited

a) Conductively
b) Inductively
c) Resistively
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

289. The armature winding of series motor is excited

a) Conductively
b) Inductively
c) Resistively
d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

290. Which of the following parameters contributes to the friction loss in the alternators?

a) Temperature
b) Lubrication of bearings
c) Load variation
d) Velocity of the shaft
e) All above parameters

Ans: (e)

291. The difference between input and I2Rloss will give the

a) Friction loss
b) Windage loss
c) Core loss
d) Sum of (a), (b) and (c)

Ans: (d)

292. The friction, winding and core losses of alternator can easily be determined by
a) Running the alternator at synchronous speed
b) Running the alternator as a synchronous motor at rated speed at full load
c) Running the alternator as a synchronous motor at rated speed at no load
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

293. The eddy-current loss in the alternator will be minimum if the air gap

a) Between poles and the slots of the armature is large compared to width of the slot
b) Between poles and the slots of the armature is minimum compared to width of the slot
c) Does not exist
d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

294. Eddy current losses in the alternator are

a) Dependent on the load

b) Independent of the load
c) Dependent on the excitation
d) (b) and (c) both
e) None of the above

Ans: (d)

295. The skewing of the rotor bars of the induction motor

a) Will reduce the induced voltage in each bar to a value less than if the base were unskewed
b) Will increase the induced voltage in each bar to a value more than if the bars were unskewed
c) Increases the cogging
d) Increases the motor noise

Ans: (a)

96. Which of the following motors have almost constant speed over their full load range?

a) DC series motors
b) AC series motors
c) DC shunt motors
d) Low resistance squirrel cage motors
e) (c) and (d) both

Ans: (e)

297. If two wound-rotor induction motors are arranged so that the stator of one is connected to an
external source and its rotor output is connected to the other, what will be the input conditions for the
other induction motor?

a) The second motor will run at its own slip but at voltage of first motor
b) The second motor will run at slip frequency and voltage of first motor
c) The second motor will run
d) The second motor will act as frequency converter

Ans: (b)

298. In the Q. 297, the first motor acts as

a) Voltage converter
b) Frequency converter
c) Current converter
d) Power converter

Ans: (b)

299. In the Q. 297, the slip frequency of the second motor

a) Is the difference between its applied frequency and its frequency of rotation
b) Is the difference between of slip-frequency first motor and its frequency of rotation
c) (a) or (b)
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

300. Four speed-torque curves are shown below, which of the curve is drawn for repulsion start
induction run

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D

Ans: (a)

301. The torque developed in D.C motor depends on

a) Armature Current
b) Magnetic field
c) Magnetic field and Magnetic Current
d) Speed

Ans: (c)

302. The speed regulation of D.C. motor can be ideally achieved with

a) Variable excitation to the field of the motor

b) Constant excitation to the field of the motor
c) A.C. excitation to the field of the motor
d) No excitation to the field of the motor

Ans: (b)

303. If the excitation to the field of the D.C. motor is constant then the torque developed in the motor
is proportional to

a) Armature current
b) Field current
c) Speed
d) Magnetic flux

Ans: (a)

304. For which of the following machine residual magnetism is a requirement to build up voltage
output?

a) Separately excited generator

b) Self-excited generator
c) All A.C. generators
d) None of them
Ans: (b)

305. What will happen to the d.c. generator if the field winding attains the critical resistance?

a) It will generate maximum voltage

b) It will generate maximum power
c) It will not develop voltage at all
d) None of them

Ans: (c)

306. Which of the following conditions hold true for paralleling two d.c. generators ?

a) Their polarities must match

b) Their phase sequence must match
c) Their polarities and voltages must match
d) (b) and (c) both

Ans: (c)

307. The armature voltage control is suitable if the d.c. machine is driven at

a) Constant current
b) Constant torque
c) Constant speed
d) Constant magnetic field

Ans: (b)

308. Which of the following parameter to achieve the variable speed of d.c. drive ?

a) Magnetic field
b) Armature resistance
c) Voltage
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)
309. The Ward Leonard method of speed control of d.c. machin controls the speed below or above
normal speed in clockwise and anti-clockwise directive.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

310. Which of the following motor one will choose to drive the rotory compressor?

a) Universal motor
b) Synchronous Motor
c) D.C. series motor
d) D.C. shunt motor

Ans: (b)

311. The electric current in the motor generator

a) Heat only
b) Magnetic field only
c) (a) and (b)
d) Power only

Ans: (c)

312. Which of the following machine will be preferred to charge the batteries?

a) Series generator
b) Series motor
c) Shunt generator
d) Compound generator
e) Shunt motor
f) None of the above

Ans: (c)

313. If the speed of a d.c. shunt motor is increased, the back emf of the motor will
a) Decrease
b) Increase
c) Remain same
d) Increase then decrease

Ans: (b)

314. The large number of slots in induction motor

a) Provides better overload capacity

b) Reduces overload capacity
c) Provides bigger size of motor
d) Reduces the size of motor

Ans: (a)

315. The good power factor of an induction motor can be achieved if the average flux density in air
gap is

a) Large
b) Small
c) Infinity
d) Absent

Ans: (b)

316. Why the d.c. motors are preferred for traction applications?

a) The torque is proportional to armature current.

b) The torque is proportional to square root of armature current.
c) The speed is inversely proportional to the torque and the torque is proportional to square of
armature current.
d) Torque and speed are inversely proportional to armature current.

Ans: (c)

317. Which of the following generating machine will offer constant voltage on all loads?

a) Separately excited generator

b) Self-excited generator
c) Level compound generator
d) All the above machines

Ans: (c)

318. The d.c. generator will be preferred if it has

a) 100% regulation
b) Small
c) 10% regulation
d) Infinity

Ans: (b)

319. The number of bushings in a transformer can be reduced if

a) The tapping are provided at the phase ends

b) The tapping are provided at the high voltage side
c) The tapping are provided in middle of the transformer

d) The tapping are provided on the low voltage side

Ans: (a)
320.Which of the following transformers will use oil natural cooling with tubes?

a) 100 kVA
b) 800 kVA
c) All the above transformers

Ans: (c)

321. An induction motor with 1000 rpm speed will have

a) 2 poles
b) 6 poles
c) 4 poles
d) 8 poles

Ans: (b)
322. Which of the following equipment will draw the reactive power?

a) Electrical iron
b) Tubelight
c) Three phase motor
d) rectifier

Ans: (c)

323. The large number of narrow slots in stator of an a.c. motor is preferred because

a) It is easier to make narrow slots than wide open slots

b) Large number of narrow slots reduces motor noise
c) Large number of narrow slots reduces noise and tooth pulsation losses
d) It helps in uniform distribution of flux

Ans: (c)

324. The number of parallel paths in wave winding of machine is

a) 4
b) 6
c) 2
d) 8

Ans: (c)

325. The alternators are normally designed for the torque angle of the order of

a) 3° to 5°
b) 2 rad to 3 rad
c) 15° to 30°
d) 1° to 3°

Ans: (d)

326. Which of the material is used to insulate the segments of commutator?

a) Fibre glass
b) Plastic
c) Mica
d) PVC

Ans: (c)

327. The brushes of electrical machines are made of

a) Carbon
b) Copper
c) Cast iron
d) Steel

Ans: (a)

328. If the resistance of the field winding of d.c. generator is increased, then the output voltage

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Decreases proportional the resistance of field winding

Ans: (a)

329. Which of the following generation will be preferred if they are required to be run in parallel ?

a) Series generators
b) Shunt generators
c) Shunt and series generators
d) Compound generators

Ans: (b)

330. To separately excited motors have

a) Excitation which is independent of load current

b) The advantage over self excited motor that it can be utilised for zero volt to its maximum rated
capacity
c) A and b both
d) None of the above
Ans: (c)

331. The armature voltage control of dc motor will provides

a) Constant current drive

b) Constant voltage drive
c) Constant torque drive
d) Constant torque drive

Ans: (d)

332. The field current control of d.c. shunt motor will provide

a) Constant current drive

b) Constant voltage drive
c) Constant HP drive
d) Constant torque drive

Ans: (a)

333. Which of the following method of speed control of d.c. machine will offer minimum efficiency?

a) Armature control method

b) Field control method
c) Voltage control method
d) All above methods

Ans: (a)

334. In which of the following methods of speed control computation is unsatisfactory?

a) Field control method

b) Armature current control method
c) Voltage control method
d) All above method

Ans: (a)

335. The dynamic braking can be used for

a) Series motors
b) Shunt motors
c) Compound motors
d) All above motors

Ans: (d)

336. The plugging gives the

a) Smallest torque breaker

b) Highest torque breaker
c) Zero torque breaker
d) None of them

Ans: (b)

337. Which of the method of breaking will be selected if the highest braking torque is required?

a) Plugging
b) Dynamic braking
c) Counter breaking
d) Regenerative braking
e) (a) or (c)

Ans: (e)

338. If the terminals of armature of d.c. machine are interchanged, this action will offer following
kind of braking.

a) Plugging
b) Regenerative
c) Dynamic braking
d) Any of the above

Ans: (a)

339. If a d.c. motor for 45°C ambient temperature is to be used for 55°C ambient temperature, then
the motor
a) Is to be derated by a factor recommended by manufacturer and select next higher HP motor
b) Can be used for 55°C ambient also
c) Of lower HP should be selected
d) Of high speed should be selected

Ans: (a)

340. If we have to control the speed of 150 HP d.c. motor from zero to 1000 rpm having rated speed
of 1500 rpm. Then it will be preferred to

a) Select a motor of 150 HP, 1500 r.p.m.

b) Select a motor of 1.5 × 150 HP, 1500 r.p.m.
c) Select a motor of 150 HP, 750 r.p.m.
d) Select a motor of 75 HP, 1500 r.p.m.

Ans: (b)

341. For which of the following alternators, the distribution factor will be 0.96?

a) Three phase alternator, 4 pole wound on 72 slots core

b) Three phase alternator, 8 pole wound on 80 slots core
c) Three phase alternator, 8 pole wound on 72 slots core
d) Three phase alternator, 6 pole wound on 72 slots core

Ans: (c)

342. Which of the synchronous alternators will complete 1080 electrical degrees in one revolution?

a) 8 pole synchronous alternator

b) 6 pole synchronous alternator
c) 4 pole synchronous alternator
d) 10 pole synchronous alternator

Ans: (b)

343. How many cycles of alternating current will be generated in one revolution of 8 pole
synchronous alternator?

a) 10 cycles
b) 4 cycles
c) 8 cycles
d) 16 cycles

Ans: (b)

344. How many poles will be required if an alternator runs at 1500 rpm and given frequency of 50
Hz?

a) 8 pole
b) 6 pole
c) 4 pole
d) 2 pole

Ans: (c)

345. Two generators are running in parallel. One of the generator may run as motor for following
reasons?

a) The speed of that generator is increased

b) The direction that generator is reversed
c) The generator takes large share of loads
d) The field of that generator is weakened

Ans: (c)

346. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) A single phase induction motor has very high starting torque.

b) A single phase induction motor has zero starting torque.
c) A single phase starting torque is as good as that of 3 phase induction motor.
d) A single phase motor has very small torque but greater than zero.

Ans: (b)

347. The primary applied voltage in an ideal transformer on no load is balanced by

a) Primary induced emf

b) Secondary induced emf
c) Secondary voltage
d) Core and copper losses
Ans: (b)

348. The air cores in transformers are preferred for

a) Low frequency transformers

b) High frequency transformers
c) 5 kVA, 50 Hz transformers
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

349. The synchronous motor can be made self starting by providing.

a) Damper winding on rotor poles

b) Damper winding on stator
c) (a) or (b)
d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

350. The amplidyne is

a) Fully compensated cross field machine

b) Half compensated cross field machine
c) Over-compensated cross field machine
d) Under-compensated cross field machine

Ans: (a)

MCQ of Basic Electrical page-1

1.The terminals across the source are .......... if a current source is to be neglected.

Open-circuited
b) Short-circuited
c) Replaced by a capacitor
d) Replaced by a source resistance
2.An active element in a circuit is

Current source
b) Resistance
c) Inductance
d) Capacitance

3. A bilateral element is

a) Resistor
b) Inductor
c) Capacitor
All of these

4.The circuit having same properties in either direction is called

Bilateral circuit
b) Unilateral circuit
c) Irreversible circuit
d) Reversible circuit

5. Kirchhoff’s laws are valid for

a) Liner circuits only

b) Passive time-invariant circuits
c) Non-linear circuits only
Both linear and non-liner circuits

6. Kirchhoff’s laws are not applicable to circuits with

Distributed parameters
b) Lumped parameters
c) Passive elements
d) Non-liner resistances

7. Kirchhoff’s current law is applicable only to

a) Electric circuits
b) Electronic circuits
Junctions in a network
d) Closed loops in a network
8. Kirchhoff’s voltage law is concerned with

a) IR drop
b) Battery emfs
Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

9. According to Kirchhoff’s voltage law, the algebraic sum of all IR drops and emfs in any closed
loop of a network is always

a) Negative
b) Positive
Zero
d) Determined by emfs of the batteries

10. The algebraic sign of an IR drop primarily depends upon the

Direction of flow of current

b) Battery connections
c) Magnitude of current flowing trough it
d) Value of resistance

11. Maxwell circulating current theorem

Utilizes Kirchhoff’s voltage law

b) Utilizes Kirchhoff’s current law
c) Is a network reduction method
d) Is confined to single loop circuits

12. The insulation on a current carrying conductor is provided to prevent

a) Current leakage
Shock
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

13. EMF of a zinc-carbon cell is about

a) 1.2 V
1.5 V
c) 1.75 V
d) 2.2 V

14. The emf of primary cell depends upon the

a) Physical dimensions of cell

b) Nature of electrolyte
c) Both (a) and (c)
None of these

15. The internal voltage drop of a voltage source

a) Is independent of load current supplied

Depends upon internal resistance of the source
c) Does not influence the terminal voltage
d) Does affect the emf of the source

16. A voltage source of emf E volts and internal resistance r ohms will supply, on short circuit, a
current of

E/r amperes
b) zero
c) Infinite
d) E× r amperes

17. When two batteries of unequal voltages are connected in parallel, the emf of the combination will
be equal to the

Emf of the large battery

b) Emf of the small battery
c) Average of the emf of two batteries
d) None of these

18. At the center of a current carrying single turn circular loop, magnetic field is

B = μl/2R
b) μl/(.2 πR)
c) B = μl/(4πR^2 )
d) None of these

19. The magnitude of force acting on current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field is
independent of
a) Flux density.
b) Length of the conductor.
Cross-sectional area of the conductor.
d) Current flowing through the conductor.

20. The direction of mechanical force experienced on a current carrying conductor placed in a
magnetic field is determined by

Fleming’s left-hand rule.

b) Fleming’s right-hand rule.
c) Helix rule.
d) Corkscrew rule.

21.In Fleming’s left-hand rule thumb always represents direction of

a) Current flow
b) Induced emf
c) Magnetic field
Mechanical force

22. If a current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, the mechanical force experienced on
the conductor is determined by

a) Simple product
b) Dot product
Cross product
d) Any of these

23. The force experienced by a current carrying conductor lying parallel to a magnetic field is

Zero
b) B І 𝑙
c) B І 𝑙 sin⁡θ
d) B І 𝑙 cos⁡θ

24. An electric field is parallel but opposite to a magnetic field. Electrons with some initial velocity
enter the region of the fields at an angle θ along the direction of the electric field. The electron path
will be

a) Straight
Helical
c) Circular
d) Elliptical

25. The field at any point on the axis of a current carrying coil will be

a) Perpendicular to the axis.

Parallel to the axis.
c) At an angle of 45° with the axis.
d) Zero.

26.The magnetic flux inside the exciting coil

Is the same as on its outer surface.

b) Is zero.
c) Is greater than that on its outside surface.
d) Is lower than that on its outside surface.

27. If the two conductors carry current in opposite directions there will be

a) A force of attraction between the two conductors.

A force of repulsion between the two conductors.
c) No force between them.
d) None of these

28. If a straight conductor of circular cross-section carries a current, them

a) No force acts on the conductor at any point.

b) An axial force acts on the conductor tending to increase its length.
A radial force acts towards the axis tending to reduce its cross-section.
d) A radial force acts away from the axis tending to increase its cross-section.

29. mmf of the magnetic circuit is analogous to

a) Current
Emf
c) Resistance
d) Power

30. Unit of reluctance of magnetic circuit is

a) AT/m
b) Webers/m
AT/weber
d) H/m.

31. Property of a material which opposes the production of magnetic flux in it is called

a) mmf
reluctance
c) permeance
d) Permittivity

32. Unit of mmf is

AT
b) Weber/ampere
c) Henry
d) AT/m

33. Conductance is analogous to

a) Reluctance
b) M.m.f
Permeance
d) Inductance

34. An air gap is usually inserted in magnetic circuits to

Prevent saturation.
b) Increase in mmf.
c) Increase in flux.
d) Increase in inductance.

35. Permeability is reciprocal of

Reluctivity
b) Susceptibility
c) Permittivity
d) Conductivity

36. The magnetic reluctance of a magnetic circuit decreases with

a) Decrease in cross-sectional area.
Increase in cross-sectional area.
c) Increase in length of the magnetic path.
d) Decrease in relative permeability of the magnetic material of the circuit.

37. A ring-shaped coil with fixed number of turns of it carries a current of certain magnitude. If an
iron core is threaded into the coil without any change in coil dimensions, the magnetic induction
density will

Increase
b) Reduce
c) remain unaffected
d) unpredictable

38. The ratio of total flux (flux in the iron path) to useful flux (flux in the air gap) is called

a) utilization factor
b) fringing factor
leakage factor
d) depreciation factor

39. According to Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction, an emf is induced in a conductor

whenever it

a) lies in a magnetic field.

b) Lies perpendicular to the magnetic field.
Cuts the magnetic flux.
d) Moves parallel to the direction of magnetic field.

40. “In all cases of electromagnetic induction, an induced voltage will cause a current to flow in a
closed circuit in such a direction that the magnetic field which is caused by that current will oppose
the change that produces the current”, is the original statement of

Lenz’s law.
b) Faraday’s law of magnetic induction.
c) Fleming’s law of induction.
d) Ampere’s law.

41. The emf induced in a coil due to relative motion of a magnet is independent of

Coil resistance
b) Magnet not visible
c) Number of coil turns.
d) Pole strength of the magnet.

42. When a single turn coil rotates in a uniform magnetic field, at uniform speed the induced emf will
be

Alternating
b) Steady
c) Pulsating
d) None of these

43. Principle of dynamically induced emf is used in a

a) Choke
b) Transformer
Generator
d) Thermo-couple

44. The direction of dynamically induced emf in a conductor can be determined by

a) Fleming’s left-hand rule.

Fleming’s right-hand rule.
c) Helix rule.
d) Corkscrew rule.

45. Principle of statically induced emf is used in

Transformer
b) Motor
c) Generator
d) Battery

46. Magnitude of statically induced emf depends on the

a) Coil resistance
b) Flux magnitude
Rate of change of flux
d) None of these

47. The property of a coil by which a counter emf is induced in it, when the current through the coil
changes, is called
 Self inductance
b) Mutual inductance
c) Capacitance
d) None of these

48. If in an iron cored coil the iron core is removed so as to make the air-cored coil, the inductance of
the coil will be

a) More
Less
c) The same
d) None of these

49. Lower the self-inductance of a coil

a) More will be the weber-turns.

b) More will be the emf induced.
c) Lesser the flux produced by it.
Smaller the delay in establishing steady current through it.

50. When an electric current is passed through a bucket full of water, lot of bubbling is there. The
electric current is

a) Ac.
Dc.
c) Pulsating
d) None of these

Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) of Electronics page-2

16. The unit of the amplification factor is

a) decibels
b) volt
c) neper
d) none of the above
Ans: (d)

17. To define the amplification faction of the tube which of the following quantity remains constant?

a) Plate voltage
b) Plate current
c) Grid voltage
d) Grid current

Ans: (b)

18. The bypass capacitor used in self-biased amplifier must have

a) Very high capacitance

b) Very low capacitance
c) Low capacitance for low frequency signal
d) Low capacitance for high frequency signal

Ans: (a)

19. The unit of the transconductance is

a) ohm
b) mho
c) henry
d) none of the above

Ans: (b)

20. In the pentode the screen grid is placed closer to

a) plate
b) cathode
c) heater
d) heater than suppression grid

Ans: (b)

21. The pentode cannot be used for the amplification purposes.

a) true
b) false

Ans: (b)

22. The p-n junction behaves like a

a) diode
b) triode
c) tetrode
d) pentode

Ans: (a)

23. In the n-p-n transistors under forward biased condition, p layer is extremely thin because

a) The material used for p-type semiconductor is very costly

b) The p-type semiconductor requires more energy to disturb the electrons in the valence band
c) 90% electrons can be collected at the collector
d) 90% electrons can be controlled at the emitter

Ans: (c)

24. The function of the base in the transistor is analogous to

a) Plate in the triode

b) Cathode in the triode
c) Grid in the triode
d) Heater in the triode

Ans: (c)

25. In many ways the base transistor is more analogous to the screen grid of a pentode than the grid of
the triode.

a) true
b) false

Ans: (a)
26. The screen grid in the pentode carries

a) Zero current
b) Small current
c) High current
d) Current equal to control grid

Ans: (b)

27. The characteristic curves of the transistor are much more like those of

a) diode
b) triode
c) pentode
d) tetrode

Ans: (c)

28. The choice of the bias voltage of the transistor will depend on

a) Emitter current
b) Collector current
c) Nature of the signal source
d) Nature of the output

Ans: (c)

29. The impedance of the operational amplifier is

a) infinite
b) zero
c) very small but not zero
d) very high

Ans: (c)

30. The input impedance of the operational amplifier is

a) infinite
b) zero
c) very high but not infinite
d) very small

Ans: (c)

31. The output voltage of an operational amplifier is

a) 90° out of phase from the input

b) 180° out of phase from the input
c) 45° out of phase from the input
d) - 90° out of phase from the input

Ans: (b)

32. If the current gain and voltage gain of common-emitter amplifier are given, the power gain cannot
be found with given data.

a) true
b) false

Ans: (b)

33. The collector current in the transistor will

a) Increase if the temperature increases

b) Decrease if the temperature decreases
c) Not change with the temperature variation
d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

34. The phenomenon “Thermal Runaway” is connected with

a) the diode
b) the transistor
c) tetrode
d) pentode

Ans: (b)
35. The electrons are the majority carrier in the

a) N-p-n transistor

b) P-n-p transistor
c) N-type semiconductor
d) P-type semiconductor

Ans: (a)

36. Why the bias is used in the transistor amplifier circuit?

a) To increase the current capacity of the transistor

b) The biased circuit will saturate at the high current
c) To avoid the use of separate power source for the input and output circuit of the transistor-
amplifier
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

37. A measure of an amplifier’s stability against temperature thermal runaway is the ratio of

a) (change in collector current)/(change in collector leakage current)

b) (change in emitter current)/(change in collector leakage current)
c) (change in emitter current)/(change in collector current)
d) (change in collector leakage current)/(change in collector current)
e) (change in collector current)/(change in emitter current)

Ans: (a)

38. The emitter-follower is

a) Common collector amplifier

b) Common emitter amplifier
c) Common base amplifier
d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

39. The output in the cathode follower is taken across

a) The bias resistance R connected to the cathode of the triode
b) Between the plate and cathode
c) Between the grid and plate
d) Between the grid and cathode

Ans: (a)

40. In the cathode-follower the output voltage

a) Is in phase with the input voltage

b) Is 180° out of phase from the input voltage
c) Is 90° out of phase from the input voltage
d) Is 45° out of phase from the input voltage

Ans: (a)

41. If the grid current in the cathode follower is increased the plate current

a) will increase
b) will decrease
c) will not change
d) will be zero

Ans: (a)

42. The voltage gain of the cathode-follower is

a) unity
b) less than unity
c) more than unity
d) any one of the above

Ans: (c)

43. The common base amplifier is used

a) In very high frequency circuits

b) In low frequency circuits
c) In medium frequency circuits
d) In low current circuits

Ans: (a)

44. The bipolar transistors have

a) Low input resistance compared to FET

b) High input resistance compared to FET
c) Zero input resistance
d) Infinity resistance

Ans: (a)

45. The field effect transistors contain

a) holes carrier only

b) electrons carrier only
c) either (a) or (b)
d) (a) and (b) both

Ans: (c)

. Which of the following transistor is unipolar?

a) n-p-p transistor
b) p-n-p transistor
c) field2 effect transistor
d) none of the above

Ans: (d)

47. The field-effect transistor can be used as

a) A variable capacitance
b) A variable reactance
c) A variable inductance
d) A variable resistance
e) None of the above
Ans: (d)

48. In the field effect transistor the drain voltage above which there is no increase in the drain
current is called

a) pick off voltage

b) critical voltage
c) pinch off voltage
d) breakdown voltage

Ans: (c)

49. The RC coupled amplifier is used in radio receiver

a) To minimize the noise

b) To increase the bandwidth
c) To isolates a.c. signal from d.c. signal
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

50. The phase shift between the input and output signals in the RC coupled amplifier for high pass
network can be expressed in terms of lower frequency response limit f1 or upper frequency
response limit f2.

a) true
b) false

Ans: (a)

51. If the gain of the RC coupled amplifier decrease

a) The phase shift will increase

b) The phase shift will decrease
c) The phase shift will not vary
d) The phase shift has no relation with gain

Ans: (a)
52. If three amplifiers having same bandwidth are cascaded, the bandwidth of resulting amplifier will
be

a) Better than that of each stage

b) Worse than that of each stage
c) Same as that of each stage
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

53. The bandwidth of the resulting amplifier in above question will

a) Increase as the number of identical amplifier stages increases

b) Decrease as the number of identical amplifier stages increases

c) Not change as the number of identical amplifier stages increases

d) Be very high as the number of identical amplifier stages increases

Ans: (b)

54. The transformer coupling of the amplifiers provides a more efficient signal transfer than RC
coupling because

a) The problem of impedance matching is solved

b) There is a little power loss in the transformer winding
c) The use of transformer is cheaper than the RC coupled network
d) Of easy control of voltage output

Ans: (b)

55. Which of the following amplifier is used to operate a loudspeaker?

a) Audio voltage amplifier

b) Audio power amplifier
c) Audio current amplifier
d) Any one of the above

Ans: (b)
56. If the triode is used as an amplifier the maximum power will be developed in the load when

a) Plate resistance is equal to the load resistance

b) Plate resistance is less than the load resistance
c) Plate resistance is more than the load resistance
d) Load resistance is very high

Ans: (a)

57. The transformer coupling of amplifier will provide proper impedance matching between circuits.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

58. Sometimes the power required for the load is more than can be handled by convenient
amplification elements. Which of the following amplifiers is called for?

a) RC coupled amplifier
b) Transformer coupled amplifier
c) Push-pull amplifier
d) Audio power amplifier

Ans: (c)

59. The two input signals applied to push-pull amplifier are

a) 60° out of phase

b) 180° out of phase
c) In phase
d) 90° out of phase

Ans: (b)

60. The amplifier which provides the push-pull output stage with equal but opposite signals is called

a) Phase-converter amplifier
b) Phase-inverter amplifier
c) Phase-diverter amplifier
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

61. Zener breakdown of p-n junction will occur if

a) The electrons drifting through the depletion region pick up sufficient K.E. to ionize other atoms
with which they collide and produce sudden large reverse current
b) There is large forward bias current to cause breakdown
c) There is large reverse bias current to break covalent bonds and produce free electron-hole pairs
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

62. If the diode is reversed biased, the sudden increase of the current in the diode is attributed to

a) Zener breakdown only

b) Avalanche breakdown only
c) Either (a) or (b)
d) (a) or (b) both

Ans: (d)

63. The output of thermocouple is

a) D.C. voltage
b) A.C. voltage
c) Square wave
d) Sinusoidal voltage

Ans: (a)

64. The chopper amplify d.c. signal

a) Without converting it to alternation current

b) First converting to alternating current and amplify it, then reconverts to direct current
c) Either (a) or (b)
d) None of the above
Ans: (b)

65. Which of the following amplifier has the largest bandwidth?

a) RC coupled amplifier
b) Transformer coupled amplifier
c) Direct-coupled amplifier
d) Difference amplifier

Ans: (c)

66. If one which to amplify the potential difference between two points in a circuit when neither of
these points is grounded.

Which of the following amplifiers will be used?

a) RC coupled amplifier
b) Transformer coupled
c) Difference amplifier
d) Audio power amplifier

Ans: (c)

67. Any electrical conductor acts as an antenna for the reception of the electromagnetic radiation in
the radio frequency range.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

68. If a mechanical movement is converted into an electrical signal in an instrument and acts as a
noise to the system, this effect has been given the name

a) Stereophonic
b) Microphonic
c) Electro-chemical conversion
d) Vibrational echo

Ans: (b)
69. The thermal noise in the electronic tubes is completely eliminated at a temperature of

a) 0° C
b) Absolute zero
c) 0 °F
d) 273° K

Ans: (b)

70. In a cascaded amplifier the last stage contributes the most towards the total noise in the amplifier
output

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

71. The upper cutoff frequency of the RC coupled amplifier is mainly due to

a) Coupled capacity
b) Cathode bypass capacity
c) Output capacitance of the signal source
d) Inter-electrode capacitance and stray capacitance

Ans: (d)

72. If the bandwidth of an amplifier is reduced, the thermal noise in the amplifier will

a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Not be affected
d) Become random in the nature

Ans: (b)

73.The temperature coefficient for forward voltage drop across a p-n junction is

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Zero
d) Unity

Ans: (b)

74. The noise factor of an amplifier which contributes no noise will be

a) Zero
b) One
c) Infinity
d) Less than zero

Ans: (b)

75. The tuned amplifier can be used for

a) The ratio range of frequency only

b) The audio range of frequency only
c) (a) and (b) both
d) Video range of frequency only

Ans: (c)

76. The negative feedback is applied in many oscillator circuits to

a) Increase its output impedance

b) Decrease its output impedance
c) Stabilize the frequency of the oscillators
d) Stabilize the output amplitude

Ans: (d)

77. The negative feedback used in the amplifiers will reduce the noise by the same factor as gain

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

78. Enumerate the four benefits of negative feedback used in the amplifiers
a) Increased input impedance
b) Reduced output impedance
c) Improved gain stability
d) Extended bandwidth

Ans: ()

79. When the same amount of current can be controlled from the low impedance source to high
impedance source then this is called

a) Power amplification
b) Current amplification
c) Voltage amplification
d) Gain amplification

Ans: (c)

80. When the signal feedback to the amplifier circuit is proportional to the output current rather than
output voltage, an amplifier is said to have

a) Power feedback
b) Voltage feedback
c) Current feedback
d) Signal feedback

Ans: (c)

81. An element is said to have negative resistance when

a) The element has negative temperature

b) The current/voltage curve has negative slope
c) The element has negative specific resistance
d) The current/voltage curve has positive slop

Ans: (b)

82. The feedback oscillator would oscillate at all frequencies for which

a) Aβ = 0
b) Aβ ≤ 1
c) Aβ ≥ 1
d) A β= 1

Ans: (c)

83. The phase-shift network fulfills the oscillation condition of regenerative feedback for only one
frequency

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

84. When R and C are same for all three high pass filters in series the frequency of oscillation of
oscillator will be

a) fo+4 = 1/2π √RC

b) f0+4 = 1/2π √3RC
c) f0+4 = 1/2π √6RC
d) f0+4 = 1/√RC

Ans: (c)

85. The turned circuit in the oscillator may be connected to

a) The grid circuit only

b) The plate circuit only
c) (a) or (b)
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

86. The grid has no control over the electrons activities when the ionization of gas has occurred in the
thyratron tube because

a) Grid becomes more negative

b) Reid because more positive
c) Grid is neutralized as it is surrounded by positive ions
d) Grid is disconnected from the circuit
Ans: (c)

87.The unijunction transistor can be used as a voltage divider

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

88. What will happen if the emitter current increases in the unijunction transistor

a) The junction resistance increases and emitter voltage decreases

b) The junction resistance decreases and the emitter voltage decreases
c) The junction resistance decreases and emitter voltage increases
d) The junction resistance decreases and emitter voltage increases

Ans: (b)

89. The tunnel diode cannot be used as a very stable relaxation oscillator

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

90. A grounded shield used in choppers ( to convert the d.c. balance signal in potentiometer to a.c.
signal ) helps

a) To reduce the vibrational noise

b) To reduce the noise component from pick-up and leakage
c) To avoid the electrical shocks
d) To avoid the need of earth wire

Ans: (b)

91. How many thyratron tubs will be used to have directional rotation of d.c. motor when speed of
the motor is being controlled?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

Ans: (b)

92. Which of the following statement is true?

a) When the speed of the d.c. motor is controlled by using thyratron, the plate voltage determines
the armature current and the motor speed.
b) When the speed of the d.c. motor is controlled by using thyratron, the grid voltage determines
the armature current and the motor speed.
c) When the speed of the d.c. motor is controlled by using thyratron, the type of gas used in the tube
will determine the armature current and the motor speed.
d) When the speed of the d.c. motor is controlled by using thyratron, the size of the thyratron will
determine the armature current and the motor speed.

Ans: (b)

93. An operational amplifier should have

a) Zero output impedance

b) Low output impedance
c) High output impedance
d) Infinity impedance

Ans: (b)

94. The operational amplifiers are seldom used for differentiation because

a) The problem of drift exists with the differentiating circuits

b) The noise pulses are amplified and this can be significant in the output

c) The problem of drift does not exist in the differentiating network

d) The differentiating circuits are not economic

Ans: (b)
95. The problems of drift exists in the differentiating network when the operational amplifier is used
in the circuit
a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

96. When it is necessary to sum signals at any amplifier input operational feedback is used and with
operational feedback

a) The signal potentials are being added

b) The signal current are being added
c) Either (a) or (b)
d) (a) and (b) simultaneously

Ans: (b)

97. A operational amplifier cannot be used as voltage or current amplifier

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

98. Enumerate the three major sources of error in the integrator circuit where an operational amplifier
has been used to fabricate the integrator

a) Zero-level offset
b) Current leakage of the summing point
c) Capacity leakage

Ans: ()

99. If the gain of the chopper amplifier is 1000 and the operational amplifier gain is 50,000, the d.c.
gain of the chopper stabilized operational amplifier will be

a) 50,000
b) 50 × 106
c) 1000
d) 50

Ans: (b)
100. The chopper amplifier detects offset by measuring the potential at the summing point of the
operational amplifier.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

101. In some cases the operational amplifier can be used as a precision waveform generator

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

102. The term “fly back” is associated with

a) CRT
b) Transistor
c) Operational amplifier
d) Rectifier
e) Electronic tube

Ans: (a)

103. Which of the following waveform is referred as “sweep”

a) Square waveform
b) Sinusoidal waveform
c) Triangular waveform
d) Sawtooth waveform

Ans: (d)

104. The silicon Zener diode has a theoretical switching time of about

a) 1 × 10-6 seconds
b) 1 × 10-8 seconds
c) 8 × 10-6 seconds
d) 1 × 10-12 seconds
Ans: (a)

105. The diode-resistor circuit can be used as a limiter by connecting the load

a) In series with the diode only

b) In shunt with the diode only
c) (a) or (b)
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

106. The “d.c. resistor” is the name given to

a) Clipper
b) Clamper
c) Limiter
d) Shunt limiter

Ans: (b)

107. Enumerate the four advantages of SCR over the thyratron?

a) No filament current is required

b) Smaller size
c) Higher current handling capacity
d) Much smaller voltage across the “on"SCR

Ans: ()

108. The thyristors are not made of the germanium because

a) Germanium is costlier than the silicon

b) Germanium is not used as semiconductor
c) The leakage current is high in germanium
d) The current handling capacity of germanium is less than the silicon

Ans: (c)
109. A voltage amplifier is shown below. What is the highest voltage gain accurate to one per cent
obtainable with an amplifier whose open loop gain is 1000?

a) 100
b) 10
c) 1000
d) 10,000

Ans: (b)

110. The circuit diagram of the Question 109 is used measure d.c. voltage of 10 volts having a source
resistance of 1 kilo-ohm. If Rin = 10 kilo-ohms and Rf = 100 kilo-ohms, what will be the value of e0 ?

a) – 90 volts
b) – 91 volts
c) – 10 volts
d) – 100 volts

Ans: (b)

111. The operational amplifier shown in figure below is said to limit when the current output or
voltage reaches values of ± 1 mA or ± 50 volts respectively, eref= 10 volts, Z2 is a resistive load, and
Z1= 0. What is the voltage across Z2 ?

a) 7.5 volt
b) 5 volt
c) 100 volt
d) 10 volt
e) 2.5 volt

Ans: (d)

112. When the transistor is saturated

a) The emitter potential is more than base and collector

b) The collector potential is more than the emitter and base potential
c) The base potential is more than the collector and emitter potential
d) The base, emitter and collector are all at essentially the same potential

Ans: (d)
113. The transistors are seldom used as switching devices because

a) Use of transistors as switching device is not economic

b) They can handle only high voltage but not high current

c) Of slowness of response and inability of withstand high voltage

d) They need separate circuitry when used as switching device

Ans: (c)
114. Which of the following multivibrator is called the flip-flop

a) Astable multivibrator
b) Monostable multivibrator
c) Bistable multivibrator
d) (a) or (b)

Ans: (c)

115. The external triggering is not needed for the transition of state in the

a) Bistable multivibrator
b) Monostable multvibrator
c) Astable multivibrator
d) (b) and (c) both

Ans: (c)

116. The term “free running” is associated with

a) Bistable multivibrator
b) Monostable multivibrator
c) Astable multivibrator
d) (b) or (c)

Ans: (c)

117. Astable multivibrator cannot be used for frequency division.

a) True
b) False
Ans: (b)

118. The blocking oscillator can perform many of the same functions as multivibrators and can be

a) An astable multivibrator
b) A monostable multivibrator
c) A bistable multivibrator
d) (a) or (b)

Ans: (d)

119. A 10 volts rectangular plus with a 1 m-sec plus is applied at time to to a series RC circuit shown
below with R = 100 kilo-ohms and C = 1000 pF, what will be the voltage across R at t =t o ?

a) 10 volts
b) 5 volts
c) 7.5 volts
d) 2.5 volts

Ans: (a)

120. A 100 volts peak to peak sine wave is applied to the circuit shown below. Z 2 is a 30 volts Zener-
diode. The output voltage is 55 volts peak to peak. What will be the breakdown voltage of Z 2 ?

a) 100 volts
b) 155 volts
c) 30 volts
d) 25 volts
e) 85 volts

Ans: (d)

121. For a carbon–composition resistor colour-coded with yellow. Violet, orange and silver stripe
from left to right, the resistance with tolerance is

a) 740 ohms ± 5%
b) 4700 ohms ± 10%
c) 7400 ohms ± 1%
d) 47,000 ohms ± 10%
Ans: (d)

122. With input frequencies from zero upto 16 kHz, a high pass filter allows the maximum voltage to
be developed across the load resistance for which of the following frequencies?

a) Direct current
b) 16 Hz
c) 160 Hz
d) 16,000 Hz

Ans: (d)

123. With input frequencies from zero upto 16 kHz, a low pass filter allows the most output voltage to
be developed across the load resistance which of the following frequencies?

a) Direct current
b) 160 Hz
c) 16Hz
d) 16,000 Hz

Ans: (a)

124. An R-C coupled circuit is a high pass filter for pulsating d.c. voltage because

a) C has high reactance for high-voltages

b) C blocks d.c. voltages
c) C has low reactance for low voltages
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

125. A transformer with isolated secondary winding is considered as high pass filter pulsating direct
primary current because

a) The d.c. primary current has no magnetic field

b) Working component of primary current has the strongest field
c) The secondary voltage is maximum for direct current in the primary

d) Only variations in the primary current can induce secondary voltage

Ans: (d)
126. Which of the following statement is true?

a) L-type filter with series C and shunt L is low pass filter

b) π-type filter with series C and shunt L is low pass filter
c) T−type filter with series C and shunt L is low pass filter
d) L-type filter with series C and Shunt C is low pass filter

Ans: (d)

127. With input frequencies from zero to 100 kHz for which of the following frequencies output
voltage is developed is a bandpass filter for a audio frequencies is cut off at 20 Hz at the low and 20
kHz at the high end?

a) Zero to 20 Hz
b) 20 cps to 20 kHz
c) Zero 20 kHz
d) 20 cps to 100 kHz

Ans: (b)

128. A power-line filter for rejecting of interference has

a) R.F. coupling capacitor in series with the power line

b) 50 Hz chokes in series with the power line
c) R.F. capacitors in shunt across the power line
d) R.F. chokes in shunt across the power line

Ans: (c)

129. Which of the following L-type filter is the best bandstop filter?

a) Parallel resonant L-C circuits in series and in parallel with the load
b) Series resonant L-C circuit in series and in parallel with the load

c) Series resonant L-C circuits in series with the load and parallel resonant L-C circuit in shunt
d) Parallel resonant L-C circuit in series with the load parallel resonant L-C circuit in shunt

Ans: (d)
130. The plate current in a triode, tetrode or pentode will increase if
a) Control grid is made more negative
b) Plate voltage is made less negative
c) Control grid voltage is made less negative
d) Screen grid voltage is made less negative

Ans: (c)

131. The screen grid in the pentode is used to

a) Make the plate current more dependent on plate voltage

b) Have the same potential as cathode
c) Decrease the grid-plate capacitance as compared with triode
d) Eliminate the problem of secondary emission from the plate

Ans: (c)

132. The suppression grid in the pentode is used to eliminate the problem of secondary emission.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

133. In the half-wave rectifier diode conducts when the

a) A.C. input voltage is at its average value of zero

b) Anode is made positive by positive alteration of the a.c. input voltage
c) Plate is made negative by negative alteration of the a.c. input voltage
d) Cathode is made positive

Ans: (b)

134. With an indirectly heated cathode in the tube the heater voltage

a) Is applied to cathode
b) Is separate from the cathode circuit
c) Must be steady voltage
d) Is equal to the capacitor bias voltage
Ans: (b)

135. The transistor has no heater and hence it presents

a) High power rating upto 10 kW

b) Long warm up time in amplifier circuit
c) No hum from heater cathode leakage
d) Short service life because of solid construction

Ans: (c)

136. When the germanium is doped with a controlled amount of purity

a) P-type semiconductor with excess holes is produced by doping with arsenic

b) N-type semiconductor with excess electrons is produced by doping with arsenic
c) N-type semiconductor with excess electrons is produced by doping with indium
d) N-type semiconductor with excess hold is produced by doping with arsenic

Ans: (b)

137. The hold current is the movement of

a) Positive charges in the opposite direction from electron current

b) Positive charges in the same direction from electron current
c) Neutral changes in the opposite direction from electron current
d) Negative charges in the opposite direction from electron current

Ans: (a)

138. The barring voltage at p-n or p-n junction is approximately

a) 5 volt aiding forward current

b) 0.2 volt opposing forward current
c) 2.5 volts opposing forward current
d) 2.5 volts opposing reverse current

Ans: (b)

139. The collector circuit in a transistor amplifier circuit is

a) Forward bias at all times
b) Reverse bias for p-n-p and forward bias for n-p-n transistor
c) Rever bias at all times
d) Reverse bias for n-p-n forward bias for p-n-p transistor

Ans: (c)

140. Which of the following circuit is mostly used as an amplifier?

a) Common base circuit because it has high voltage gain

b) Common emitter circuit because it has high voltage and current gain

c) Common collector circuit because it has high gain

d) Common emitter circuit is of a little use because it has extremely low input resistance

Ans: (b)
141. The arrow in the symbol for a transistor indicates the direction of

a) Hole current in the collector

b) Electron current in the emitter
c) Hole current in the emitter
d) Electro current in the collector

Ans: (c)

142. When a change in base current from 40 to 50 mA change the collector current from 600 to 1000
mA, the β factor of this power transistor equals

a) 800
b) 400
c) 3
d) 40

Ans: (d)

143. A heat sink is often used with transistors and semiconductor diodes to

a) Increase the forward current

b) Increase the reverse current
c) Prevent excessive temperature rise
c) Compensate for excessive doping

Ans: (c)

144. The skin effect will produce the least losses with r.f. current flowing in a

a) Square thin wire

b) Round thin wire
c) Hollow tubular conductor of large diameter
d) Long thin wire

Ans: (c)

145. Which of the following is the best bypass a 1 MΩ resistor at 50 MHz?

a) 100 μμF ceramic capacitor

b) 1 μF paper capacitor
c) 1 μF electrolyte capacitor
d) 40 μF electrolyte capacitor

Ans: (a)

146. For a r.f. electromagnetic field the best shield is

a) Iron enclosure
b) Farady screen
c) Permalloy
d) Copper or aluminium enclosure

Ans: (d)

147. The current through an external plate load resistor is the same as the internal electron flow in
tube to the plate.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)
148. The emitter is always forward biased which the collector has the reverse bias in the transistor.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

149. The input characteristic of the transistors in the ratio of the collector current to the base current.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

150. The + make on the silicon diode power rectifier indicates where positive d.c. output voltage is
obtained

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

151. The “slide rule” is said to be

a) Analog computer
b) Digital computer
c) Hybrid computer
d) Tele-type machine

Ans: (a)

152. The series combination of the resistance and capacitance is put across the thyristor to protect it
from

a) High current
b) High voltage
c) High rate of change of voltage
d) High rate of change of current
e) Thermal runaway
Ans: (c)

153. A radar measures the distance by measuring the

a) Voltage amplitude of the transmitted r.f. pulses

b) Voltage amplitude of an echo
c) Time between transmitted r.f. pulses
d) Time between its r.f. pulse and its echo

Ans: (d)

154. Inductors are not common in ICs.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

155. Sio2 is a conductor.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

156. In semiconductor ICs a resistance is made when the base of the transistor is made.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

157. In semiconductor ICs a diode is similar to a capacitor.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

158. It is easy to make n-p-n and p-n-p transistors on the same chip.
a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

159. Hybrid ICs are generally cheaper than other type ICs.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

160. In triggering triac with a gate pulse a low current has a long turn on time and a high current a
short turn on time.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

161. A 4-volt change in control grid voltage is equal to a 4-volt change in plate voltage on the amount
of electrons reaching plate.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

162. All electrons emitting materials are placed on the filaments.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

163. An increase in grid bias of thyratron will require an increase in anode voltage to make it conduct.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)
164. What is the distance between crests of a radio wave whose frequency is 3 × 108 Hz?

a) 1 m/cycle
b) 1 cm/cycle
c) 40 cm/cycle
d) 10 cm/cycle

Ans: (a)

165. The phototubes are relatively high resistance devices even when they conduct.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

166. The reverse bias in the semiconducting devices will

a) Increase the potential barrier

b) Decrease the potential barrier
c) Not affect the potential barrier
d) Make the potential barrier zero

Ans: (a)

167. The bipolar transistors have larger voltage gain than JFET for a given supply voltage.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

168.MOSFET is

a) A current-driven device
b) A voltage-driven device
c) A low input impedance
d) An inefficient switching device
e) A power driven device
Ans: (b)

169. MOSFETs essentially require dual polarity power supply to turn them ON and OFF.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

170. The typical value of leakage current for MOSFET is

a) 10-14 A
b) 10-4 A
c) 10-10 A
d) 10-12 A

Ans: (a)

171. MOSFETs are suitably used where source resistance ranges from

a) A few ohms to thousand ohms

b) 10 to 100 MΩ
c) 100 MΩ and above
d) Milliohms to a few ohms

Ans: (c)

172. Which of the following device is the best for improving switching speeds of bipolar transistors?

a) Speed-up capacitor
b) Transistor with higher cut-off frequency
c) Clamping diode
d) Clamping diode with zero storage time

Ans: (d)

173. Which of the following makes an active circuit?

a) inductor
b) resistor
c) Field effect transistor
d) Bipolar transistor
e) (c) and (b) both
f) Capacity

Ans: (e)

174. Which of the following displays has minimum power consumption?

a) Light emitting diode (LED)

b) Liquid crystal display (LCD)
c) Nixie tubes
d) Fluorescent

Ans: (b)

175. Which of the following displays has slowest switching speed?

a) LEDs
b) LCD
c) Nixie tubes
d) Fluorescent

Ans: (b)

176. A transistor is faster switching device than silicon controlled rectifier of same capacity.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

177. For the operation of FET with TTL logic, the threshold voltage of FET shall be

a) 4 V
b) -12 V
c) -4 V
d) 2.2 V

Ans: (d)

178. An operational amplifier shall have zero voltage output for zero input voltage.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

179. The output offset of an operational amplifier is attributed to

a) An input-voltage offset
b) An input current offers
c) Either (a) or (b)
d) (a) and (b) both

Ans: (c)

180. Offset voltages of an amplifier are dependent of circuit gain.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

181. The conduction in JEFT is always by the

a) Majority carriers
b) Minority carriers
c) Holes
d) Electrons
e) Holes and electrons simultaneously

Ans: (a)

182. Which of the following can be used as an adjustable temperature coefficient device?
a) Zener diode
b) Gas filled tubes
c) JFET
d) P-n-p transistor

Ans: (c)

183. The “pinch off” voltage of a JFET can range from

a) 4 to 8 V
b) -4 to -8 V
c) 0.4 to -0.8 V
d) -0.4 to -8 V
e) 0.4 to 8 V

Ans: (d)

184. Multiplexer is an electronic device which is used for

a) Multiplication of two or more quantities

b) Superimposition of two or more electrical signals of different frequencies for their parallel
transmission through one channel
c) Scanning of analog or digital inputs on “Time-Sharing” basis
d) (b) and (c) both

Ans: (d)

185. MOSFETs are not suitable for low voltage switching.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

186. Enumerate five special features of MOSFETs

a) Fast switching
b) Low drive current
c) No second breakdown
d) Ease of paralleling
e) Excellent temperature stability

Ans: (c)

187. What is the critical range of conduction-angle control of a thyristor outside which the
conduction-angles have very little effect on percentage applies power to the load?

a) 30° to 90°
b) 0° to 90°
c) 40° to 140°
d) 0° to 180°
e) None of the above

Ans: (c)

188. If an SCR is manufactured for maximum junction temperature of 130°C, ambient temperature of
85°C and thermal resistance (from junction to ambient) of 1.5°C per watt, what will be the maximum
internal power dissipation?

a) 30 watts
b) 60 watts
c) 175 milliwatts
d) 300 milliwatts

Ans: (a)

189. An SCR cannot be brought in conduction state without gate current.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

190. The disease “sleeping sickness” is observed in

a) Junction transistors
b) Coated cathodes valves
c) (a) and (b) both
d) Integrated circuits
Ans: (c)

191. If the diagonal measure of television screen in 50 centimetres, what will be the width of screen as
per American Standard?

a) 30 cm
b) 40 cm
c) 50 cm
d) 35 cm

Ans: (a)

192. Which of the following diodes has almost zero minority carrier storage time?

a) Rectifier
b) Schottky
c) PIN
d) Zener
e) Tunnel

Ans: (b)

193. Schottky diode essentially consists of

a) P-n junction
b) Metal-to-semiconductor junction
c) P and n regions separated by an intrinsic region
d) P-n junction with every heavy dropping

Ans: (b)

194. Schottky diode is a majority carrier device.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

195. The UJT often reduces the number of components necessary to perform a given function to less
than half that required if bipolar transistors are used
a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

196. In which of the following device the base resistors are not added in the package but added
externally?

a) UJT
b) CUJT
c) PUT
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

197. Diodes are somewhat analogous to

a) Toggle switches
b) Relays
c) Circuit breakers
d) Fuses

Ans: (a)

198. Transistors are analogous to

a) Toggle switches
b) Relays
c) Circuit breakers
d) Fuses

Ans: (b)

199. The oscillator circuits with only d.c. power source can produce

a) A.C. wave only

b) Square wave only
c) Sawtooth wave only
d) Any of the above
Ans: (d)

200. With no voltage applied between the gate and source electrodes in MOSFETs, the impedance
between the drain and source terminals very low.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

201. The Thermionic Integrated Micro-Module (TIMM) is the trade name for

a) Vacuum diodes
b) Vacuum tubes
c) Vacuum diodes and tubes with no heaters
d) Triodes
e) Pentodes

Ans: (c)

202. The forward resistance of Thermionic Diodes is

a) Zero
b) Very small
c) In range of 100 to 1000 ohms
d) Very large

Ans: (c)

203. The interlectode capacitance of thermionic diode is

a) Small
b) Zero
c) Of the order of 5 pf
d) Very large

Ans: (c)

204. The plate characteristics of triode plotted with positive and negative grid voltages will have
a) Same slopes
b) Completely different slopes
c) Almost same slopes
d) Positive and negative slope respectively

Ans: (c)

205. The reciprocal of slope of plate characteristics of the triode will generate

a) Plate resistance
b) Amplification factor
c) Mutual conductance of triode
d) Penetration factor

Ans: (a)

206. The plate-grid capacitance in triode is

a) Less than that of tetrode

b) More than that of tetrode
c) Equal to tetrode
d) Zero

Ans: (b)

207. In the cathode follower the voltage drop across cathode is

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Zero
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

208. The “grid base” of the tube is

a) Dependent on the peak voltage of the plate

b) Independent of the peak voltage of the plate
c) Dependent on the cathode voltage
d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

209. A triode tube has an amplification factor 8 and operated at plate voltage of 240 volts. What grid
potential is required to reduce the plat current to zero?

a) 30 volts
b) -30 volts
c) 5 volts
d) -5 volts
e) -15volts

Ans: (b)

210. The following circuit will behave as

a) Triode with high amplification factor

b) Triode with medium amplification factor
c) Tetrode with high amplification factor
d) Tetrode with medium amplification factor

Ans: (a)

Multiple Choice Question

(MCQ) of Control Systems
page-1
1.Transient response in the system is basically due to

a) Forces
b) Friction
c) Stored energy
d) Coupling

Ans: (c)
2. Effect of feedback on the plant is to

a) Control system transient response

b) Reduce the sensitivity to plant parameter variations
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

3. Transfer function of a system is defined as the ratio of output to input in

a) Z-transformer
b) Fourier transform
c) Laplace transform
d) All of these

Ans: (c)

4. In an open loop system

a) Output control the input signal

b) Output has no control over input signal
c) Some other variable control the input signal
d) Neither output nor any other variable has any effect on input

Ans: (d)

5. Transfer function of a system can used to study its

a) Steady state behavior

b) Transient behavior
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

6. Electrical resistance is analogous to

a) Intertia
b) Dampers
c) Spring
d) Fluid capacity

Ans: (b)

7. Automatic control system in which output is a variable is called

a) Closed loop system

b) Servomechanism
c) Automatic regulating system
d) Process control system

Ans: (d)

8. Output of the feedback control system should be a function of

a) Input
b) Reference and output
c) Feedback signal
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

9. Steady state error is always zero in response to the displacement input for

a) Type 0 system
b) Type 1 system
c) Type 2 system
d) Type (N > 1) system for N= 0, 1, 2….N

Ans: (d)

10. Relation between Fourier integral and Laplace transformer is through

a) Time domain
b) Frequency domain
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
Ans: (c)

11. At resonance peak, ratio of output to input is

a) Zero
b) Lowest
c) Highest
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

12. 0 type system has

a) Zero steady state error

b) Small steady state error
c) High gain constant
d) Higher error with high K

Ans: (b)

13. If gain of the system is zero, then the roots

a) Coincide with the poles

b) Move away from the zeros
c) Move away from the poles
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

14. Settling time is inversely proportional to product of the damping ratio and

a) Time constant
b) Maximum overshoot
c) Peak time
d) Undamped natural frequency of the roots

Ans: (b)
15. If gain of the critically damped system is increased, the system will behave as

a) Under damped
b) Over damped
c) Critically damped
d) Oscillatory

Ans: (a)

16. If gain of the system is increased, then

a) Roots move away from the zeros

b) Roots move towards the origin of the S-plot
c) Roots move away from the poles
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

17. A low value of friction coefficient

a) Minimize the velocity lag error

b) Maximize the velocity lag error
c) Minimize the time constant of the system
d) Maximize the time constant of the system

Ans: (a)

18. Physical meaning of zero initial condition is that the

a) System is at rest and stores no energy

b) System is at rest but stores energy
c) Reference input to working system is zero
d) System is working but stores no energy

Ans: (a)

19. If overshoot is excessive, then damping ratio is

a) Equal to 0.4
b) Less than 0.4
c) More than 0.4
d) Infinity

Ans: (b)

20. For a desirable transient response of a second order system damping ratio must be
between

a) 0.4 and 0.8

b) 0.8 and 1.0
c) 1.0 and 1.2
d) 1.2 and 1.4

Ans: (a)

21. For second order linear system, setting time is

a) 1/4 of the time constant

b) 1/2 of the time constant
c) 4 times the time constant
d) 2 times the time constant

Ans: (c)

22. System generally preferred is

a) Under damped
b) Critically damped
c) Over damped
d) Oscillatory

Ans: (a)

23. For unity damping factor, the system will be

a) Under damped
b) Critically damped
c) Over damped
d) Oscillatory
Ans: (b)

24. Second-derivative input signal adjust

a) Time constant of the system

b) Time constant and supress the oscillations
c) Damping of the system
d) Gail of the system

Ans: (b)

25. In the derivative error compensation

a) Damping decreases and setting time increases

b) Damping increases and settling time increases
c) Damping decreases and setting time decrease
d) Damping increases and setting time decreases

Ans: (d)

26. If for second order system damping factor is less than one, then system response will be

a) Under damped
b) Over damped
c) Critically damped
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

27. With feedback system sensitivity to parameter

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Becomes zero
d) Becomes infinite

Ans: (a)

28. In a closed loop system, source power is modulated with

a) Error signal
b) Reference signal
c) Actuating signal
d) Feed back signal

Ans: (a)

29. With feedback system, transient response

a) Decays constantly
b) Decays slowly
c) Decays quickly
d) Rises fast

Ans: (c)

30. Non-Linearity in the servo system due to saturation is caused by

a) Servo motor
b) Gear trains
c) Relays
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

31. In control system non-Linearity caused by gear trains is

a) Backlash
b) Dead space
c) Coulomb friction
d) saturation

Ans: (a)

32. Time sharing of an expansive control system can be achieved by using a/an

a) a.c. control system

b) analog control system
c) Sampled date control system
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

33. Differential is used in synchro differential unit for generators only

a) Indicating difference of rotation angle of two synchro generators only

b) Indicating sum of rotation angle of two synchro generators only
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

34. Microsyn is the name given to

a) Potentiometer
b) Magnetic amplifier
c) Resolver
d) Rotary differential transformer

Ans: (c)

35. Laplace transformer is not applicable to non-linear system because

a) Non-linear systems are time-varying

b) Time domain analysis is easier than frequency domain analysis
c) Initial conditions are not zero in non-linear systems
d) Superposition law is not applicable to non-linear system

Ans: (d)

36. Value of i(0+) for the system whose transfer function is given by the equation I(s) =
(2s+3)/((s+1)(s+3)) is

a) 0
b) 2
c) 1
d) 3
Ans: (b)

37. Liner differential transformer is an

a) Electromechanical device
b) Electrical device
c) Electromagnetic device
d) Electrostatic device

Ans: (a)

38. If transfer function of the system is 1/(TS+1), then steady state error to the unity step
input is

a) 1
b) T
c) Zero
d) Infinite

Ans: (c)

39. Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a modern control system?

a) No oscillation
b) Accuracy
c) Quick response
d) Correct power level

Ans: (a)

40. Power amplification in a magnetic amplifier can be increased

a) By negative feed back

b) By positive feed back
c) With higher inductance of a.c. coil
d) None of these

Ans: (d)
. Device used for conversion of coordinates is

a) Syschros
b) Microsyn
c) Synchro resolver
d) Synchro transformer

Ans: (c)

42. Friction coefficient is usually kept low to

a) Minimize velocity-lag error

b) Maximize velocity-lag error
c) Minimize time constant
d) Maximize speed of response

Ans: (a)

43. Most common use of the synchros is as

a) Error detector
b) Transmission of angular
c) Transmission of arithmetic data
d) For synchronization

Ans: (d)

44. To decrease time of the servomechanism

a) Decreases inertia of the system

b) Increases inertia of the system
c) Increases damping of the system
d) Decreases torque of the servomotor

Ans: (a)

45. If steady state error for type 1 system for unit ramp input is kept constant, then constant
output is
a) Distance
b) Velocity
c) Acceleration
d) Power

Ans: (b)

46. Servomechanism is called a proportional error device when output of the system is
function of

a) Error
b) Error and its first derivative
c) First derivative of error
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

47. For type 2 system, position error arises at steady state when input is

a) Ramp
b) Step displacement
c) Constant acceleration
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

48. Which of the following motor is suitable for servomechanism?

a) A.c. series motor

b) 1 ɸ induction motor
c) 2 ɸ induction motor
d) 3 ɸ induction motor

Ans: (c)

49. To decrease the number of system

a) First integrator and then differentiator is inserted

b) First differentiator and then integrator is inserted
c) Only differentiator is inserted in the forward path
d) Only integrator is inserted in the forward path

Ans: (c)

50. Servomechanism with step-displacement input is

a) Type 0 system
b) Type 1 system
c) Type 2 system
d) Type 3 system

Ans: (b)

51. If feedback is introduced in the system the transient response

a) Does not very

b) Decays very fast
c) Decays slowly
d) Dies off

Ans: (b)

52. Main difference between servomotor and standard motor is that

a) Servomotor has low inertia and higher starting torque

b) Servomotor has inertia low starting torque
c) Servomotor has high inertia and high starting torque
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

53. The frequency range over which response of the system is within acceptable units is
called the system

a) Band width
b) Modulation frequency
c) Demodulation frequency
d) Carrier frequency
Ans: (a)

54. Self balancing instrument uses

a) D.C. servomotor
b) A.C. servomotor
c) Tachometer
d) Magnetic amplifier

Ans: (b)

55. Lead compensation in the system add

a) Zeros
b) Poles
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

56. In type 1 system steady state acceleration error is

a) 0
b) 1
c) Infinity
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

57. Lead lag compensation improve

a) Transient response of the system

b) Steady state response of the system
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

58. If poles of the system are lying on the imaginary axis in s-plane, then system will be
a) Stable
b) Marginally stable
c) Conditionally stable
d) Unstable

Ans: (b)

59. If open loop transfer function of a system is G(s) H(s) = K/(S(1+T1 S)(1+T2 S)) then
system will be

a) Unstable
b) Conditionally stable
c) Stable
d) Marginally stable

Ans: (c)

60. According to Hurwitz criterion the characteristic equation s2+ 8 s3+18 s2+16 s + 5 = 0 is

a) Unstable
b) Marginally stable
c) Conditionally stable
d) Unstable

Ans: (a)

61. A system is called absolutely stable is any oscillations set up in the system are

a) Damped out
b) Self-sustaining and tend to last indefinitely
c) Negative peaked only
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

62. To increase damping of pair of complex roots compensator used is

a) Phase lag
b) Phase lead
c) Phase lag lead
d) One with 60° lead circuit

Ans: (b)

63. Best method to determine stability and transient response of the system is

a) Bode plot
b) Signal flow graph
c) Nyquist plot
d) Root locus

Ans: (c)

64. For type 3 system, lowest frequency asymptote will have the slop of

a) 15 db/octave
b) -16 db/octave
c) 17 db/octave
d) -18 db/octave

Ans: (d)

65. If poles of system are lying on the imaginary axis in s-plane, the system will be

a) Unstable
b) Marginally stable
c) Conditionally stable
d) Unstable

Ans: (b)

66. If a pole is added to a system it causes

a) Lag compensation
b) Lead compensation
c) Lead-lag compensation
d) None of these
Ans: (b)

67. The number of pure integrations in the system transfer function determine

a) Degree of stability
b) Stability of the system
c) Transient performance of the system
d) Steady state performance

Ans: (d)

68. For steady state transient improvement, compensator used is

a) Lead compensator
b) Lag compensator
c) Lead lag compensator
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

69. Which system conveniently see the impact of poles and zeros on phase and gain margin?

a) Root locus
b) Nyquist plot
c) Routh-Hurwitz criterion
d) Bode plot

Ans: (d)

70. Which gives the information between number of poles and zero of the closed loop
transfer function?

a) Routh Hurwitz criterion

b) Bode diagram
c) Root locus method
d) Nyquist plot

Ans: (d)
71. Factor which cannot be can cancelled from numerator and denominator of G(s)
E(s) in

a) Bode plot
b) Nyquist plot
c) Higher frequencies
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

72. To study time delay of the system which of the following is used?

a) Nyquist plot
b) Bode plot
c) Routh Hurwitz method
d) Nicholas chart

Ans: (a)

73. Intersection of root locus branches with the imaginary axis can be determined by the use
of

a) Polar plot
b) Routh’s criterion
c) Nyquist criterion
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

74. Closed loop ples are

a) Zeros of 1+G(S). H(s)

b) Zeros of G(s) H(s)
c) Poles of G(s) H(s)
d) Poles of 1 + G(s) H(s)

Ans: (a)

75. If gain is zero, then

a) Roots move away from zeros
b) Roots coincide with poles
c) Roots move away from poles
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

76. Maximum over shoot is the function of

a) Damping ratio
b) Natural frequency of oscillation
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Damped frequency of oscillation

Ans: (b)

77. If value of gain is increased, then roots of the system will move to

a) Origin
b) Lower frequencies
c) Higher frequencies
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

78. Feed back control system are basically

a) Low pass filter

b) High pass filter
c) Band pass filter
d) Band stop filter

Ans: (a)

79. In root if 𝓴 is greater than critical value, then increasing 𝓴 will

a) Increase value of the real part of closed loop

b) Decrease value of the real part of closed loop
c) Not change value of the real part of closed loop
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

80. A liner system obeys the principle of

a) Homogeneity
b) Reciprocity
c) Superposition and homogeneity
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

81. Plot of the constant gain loci of the system is

a) Asymptote
b) Circle with centre at the origin
c) Parabola
d) Ellipse

Ans: (b)

82. If poles are more than zeros in G(S) F(S), then number of root locus segment is equal to

a) Number of poles
b) Number of zeros
c) Sum of poles and zeros
d) Difference of poles and zeros

Ans: (a)

83. In root locus technique, angle between adjacent asymptote is

a) 180°/(m + n)
b) 360°/(m + n)
c) 360°/(m - n)
d) 180°/(m - n)

Ans: (c)
84. For G(S) F(S) = (k(S+z))/(S+p), (z < p) the plot is

a) One pole on the imaginary axis

b) One zero on the right-hand side of the plane
c) One pole and one zero on the left-hand side of plane
d) 2 poles and 2 zeros on the left-hand side of plane

Ans: (c)

85. Frequency response mean

a) Transient response of a system to a sinusoidal input

b) Steady state response of a system to a sinusoidal input
c) Oscillatory response of a system to a sinusoidal input
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

86. Number of root-locus segment which do not terminate on the zeros is equal to

a) Number of poles
b) Number of zeros
c) Sum of poles and zeros
d) Difference of poles and zeros

Ans: (d)

87. Bode plot approach is applied to

a) Minimum phase network

b) Non minimum phase network
c) Any network
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

88. In a root locus plot, the increase in 𝓴 will

a) Increase damping ratio
b) Decrease damping ratio
c) Not change damping ratio
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

89. The type of transfer function used in Bode plot is

a) G(s)
b) G(j)
c) G(jw)
d) G(js)

Ans: (a)

90. In a root locus plot, increase in 𝓴 will

a) Increase overshoot of the response

b) Decrease overshoot of the response
c) Not change overshoot of the response
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

91. Bode analysis method can be applied

a) If transfer function has no poles and zeros on R.H. of s-plane

b) If transfer function has no poles on R.H. of s-plane

c) If transfer function has no zero on R.H. of s-plane

d) To all transfer functions

Ans: (a)
92. In a root locus plot, increase in 𝓴 will

a) Result in decrease in the damped and undamped natural frequencies

b) Result in increase in the damped and undamped natural frequencies
c) Not change the damped and undamped natural frequencies
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

93. Cut off is the slope of log-magnitude curve

a) At the start of curve

b) At the end of curve
c) Near the cut off frequency
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

94. Gain margin expressed in decibels is

a) Positive if Kg greater than 1 and negative for Kg less than 1

b) Negative if Kg greater than 1 and negative for Kg less than 1
c) Always zero
d) Infinity for Kg equal to 1

Ans: (a)

95. Bandwidth gives an indication of

a) Characteristic equation of the system

b) Speed of response of a control system
c) Transfer function of the control system
d) Transients in the system

Ans: (b)

96. Nyquist stability criterion requires polar plot of

a) Characteristic equation
b) Closed loop transfer function
c) Open loop transfer function
d) None of these

Ans: (c)
97. Cut off frequency is the frequency at which magnitude of closed loop frequency
response is

a) 1 db below its zero frequency

b) 2 db below its zero frequency
c) 3 db below its zero frequency
d) 4 db below its zero frequency

Ans: (c)

98. In Nyquist criterion roots of the characteristic equation are given by

a) Zeros of open loop transfer function

b) Zeros of closed loop transfer function
c) Poles of closed loop transfer function
d) Poles of open loop transfer function

Ans: (c)

99. For all frequencies, a unit circle in the Nyquist plot transformer into

a) Db line of amplitude plot in Bode diagram

b) 1 db line of amplitude plot in Bode diagram
c) Either (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

100. Transfer founction, when the bode diagram is plotted should be of the form

a) (1+T)
b) (1+S)
c) (Ts)
d) (1+Ts)

Ans: (d)

101. For relative stability of the system which of the following is sufficient?
a) Gain margin
b) Phase margin
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

102. Slope in Bode plot is expressed as

a) – 6 db/decade
b) – 6 db/octave
c) – 7 db/octave
d) – 8 db/octave

Ans: (b)

103. Polar plots for+ve and –ve frequencies

a) Are always symmetrical

b) Can never be symmetrical
c) May be symmetrical
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

104. Gain margin of a first or second order system is

a) Zero
b) 100
c) 1
d) Infinity

Ans: (d)

105. Frequency range over which response of the system is within acceptable limits is called
system

a) Modulation frequency
b) Demodulation frequency
c) Carrier frequency
d) Band width

Ans: (d)

106. By adding a pole at s = 0, Nyquist plot of the system will

a) Shift 90° clockwise

b) Shift 90° anticlockwise
c) Shift 180°
d) Not change at all

Ans: (a)

107. A complex-conjugate pair of poles near the jw axis will produce a

a) High oscillatory mode of transient response

b) Steady state mode of response
c) Sinusoidal mode of response
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

Multiple Choice Question

(MCQ) of Measurements
page-1
1.The torque produced in a wattmeter is proportional to

a) The average value of current in the two coils

b) The r.m.s. value of currents in the two coils
c) The average value of the supply voltage
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

2.The Dielectric heating is used for heating the

a) Wood
b) Steel billets
c) Zinc cells
d) Furnace

Ans: (a)

3. To measure the e.m.f. of a Weston standard cell one would use

a) A moving coil voltmeter

b) A hot wire voltmeter
c) An electrostatic voltmeter
d) Galvanometer
e) Potentiometer

Ans: (e)

4. Which would be large as regards the space occupied?

a) 1 ohm. 54 watt resistor

b) 500 ohms, 5 watt resistor

Ans: (a)

5. Which of the following is the best conduct?

a) Copper
b) Aluminium
c) Silver
d) Iron

Ans: (c)

6. The resonant frequency of R-L-C circuit can be changed

a) By changing inductance only

b) By changing inductance or capacitance
c) By changing resistance only
d) By changing capacitance only
Ans: (b)

7. The Dielectric loss can be measured by

a) Energymeter
b) Wheatstone bridge
c) Electrostatic wattmeter
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

8. The design of Inductance coil is desirable for

a) Low time constant

b) High time constant
c) Zero time constant
d) R-C time constant

Ans: (b)

9. Three-phase four-wire energymeter is used to measure

a) Three-phase balanced energy

b) Three-phase unbalanced energy
c) Single-phase energy
d) Two-phase energy

Ans: (b)

10. The potentiometer can be used to measure the current.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

11. The ampere-hour efficiency of a cell does not take into account the varying
voltage of charge and discharge.
a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

12. Watt-hour efficiency of a cell is always less than ampere-hour efficiency because

a) It takes into account the varying voltage of charge and discharge

b) Charge volts are constant
c) Discharge volts are constant
d) Polarization is neglected

Ans: (a)

13. The capacity of a cell is measured in

a) Ampere
b) Volts
c) Ampere-hours
d) Watts

Ans: (c)

14. The capacity of a cell increase as the temperature increases.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

15. The gassing is the phenomenon which occurs in

a) Oil transformers
b) Cells
c) Mercury are rectifier
d) Oil cylinders

Ans: (b)

16. The ampere-hour efficiency of a lead acid cell is

a) 80%
b) 90 to 95%
c) 72 to 80 %
d) 85%

Ans: (b)

17. The gravity controlled instruments have scales which are not uniform but crowded
because

a) Balance weight is more than control weight

b) Current is proportional to deflection angle
c) Current is proportional to sin⁡θ, where θ is deflection angle
d) Balance weight itself is not uniform

Ans: (c)

18. Which of the following instrument will be used to measure alternating current?

a) Moving iron voltmeter

b) Permanent Magnet type ammeter
c) Induction type ammeter
d) Moving iron (attraction type) ammeter

Ans: (d)

19. Eddy current damping cannot be used for moving iron instrument because

a) The size of the instrument will increase

b) Eddy currents will pass through the iron and thereby causing loss
c) The presence of a permanent magnet required for such purpose would affect the
defection and hence the reading of the instruments
d) Weight of instrument will increase

Ans: (c)

20. The deflection of a hot wire instrument depends on

a) Instantaneous value of alternating on
b) Average value of current
c) R.m.s. value of alternating current
d) voltage

Ans: (c)

1. Which of the following instruments will be used measure 500 kV a.c. voltage ?

a) Moving coil voltmeter

b) Electrostatic voltmeter
c) Moving iron voltmeter
d) Hot wire instrument

Ans: (b)

22. The steady speed of the disc in the energymeter is achieved when

a) Operating torque is to braking torque

b) Operating torque is half of the braking torque
c) Breaking torque is zero
d) Braking torque is more than operating torque

Ans: (a)

23. Creeping is the phenomenon which occurs in

a) Voltmeter
b) Wattmeter
c) Energymeter
d) Ammeter

Ans: (c)

24. The induction type signal phase energymeter is

a) An ampere-hour meter
b) True watt-hour meter
c) Wattmeter
d) VAR meter

Ans: (b)

25.Two holes are drilled in the disc of energymeter on the opposite side of the spindle

a) To reduce the weight of the disc for easy rotation

b) To eliminate creeping on no load
c) For proper ventilation
d) To increase the deflection torque

Ans: (b)

26. Given three methods of localizing the short circuit fault fault in the cables

a) Murray loop test

b) Varley loop test
c) Fisher loop test

Ans: ()

27. This induction method of testing which is used for localization of ground faults in cables
can be applied successfully when the cables has metallic sheath.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

28. Which of the following instruments will be used to measure the temperature above 1400
degree centigrade?

a) A simple thermometer pyrometer

b) Electrical resistance pyrometer
c) Thermo-electric pyrometer
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

29. The temperature coefficient of carbon is negative.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

30. Given the name of three-thermo junctions

a) Copper-constantan
b) Silver-constantan
c) Iron-constantan

Ans: ()

31.The thermo-electric e.m.f. of platinum with platinum-rhodium (alloy) at 500

degree centigrade is

a) 7.4 millivolts
b) 4.4 millivolts
c) 5 millivolts
d) 1 millivolts

Ans: (b)

32. Which of the following statement is true?

a) Alternating current and voltage waveforms do not in general, contain even

harmonics
b) Alternating current and voltage waveforms in general do not contain odd
harmonics
c) Alternating current and voltage waveforms in general contain even harmonics
d) Alternating current and voltage waveforms contain even and odd harmonics in
general

Ans: (a)

33. The shape of the waveform when, an e.m.f. whose wave contains harmonics is applied to
a circuit, is not, in general, the same as that of impressed e.m.f. wave but depends upon the
resistance, capacitance and inductance.
a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

34. The inductance in the circuit

a) Reduces the amplitude of harmonics in current wave

b) Enlarges the amplitude of harmonics in current wave
c) Does not effect the wave shape at all
d) Reduces the amplitude of the harmonics in the current wave and causes the latter
to approach more nearly to the sinusoidal wave shape than e.m.f. wave

Ans: (a)

35. The e.m.f. whose wave contains harmonics is applied to resistive circuit, the current
waveform is of the same form as that of the impressed e.m.f.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

36. The resonance effect can be used to ascertain whether any particular harmonics exists in
an e.m.f. waveform or not.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

37. The power factor of a circuit in which voltage and current waves are non-sinusoidal
requires the following definition

a) It is the cosine of the angle of phase difference between the voltage and current
waves
b) It is the cosine of the angle of phase difference between the two complex wave
c) It is the cosine of the angle of phase difference between two “equivalent sine
waves” having respectively r.m.s. values equal to those of the voltage and current in
the circuit
d) It is the sine of the angle of phase difference between the two complex waves

Ans: (c)

38. The electron beam in the cathode ray oscilloscope may be deflected by

a) Electrostatic field only

b) Electromagnetic field only
c) (a) or (d)
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

39. The temperature at which the readings of Fahrenheit and Centigrade thermometer are the
same is

a) Zero
b) 25° C
c) -40° C
d) 32° C

Ans: (c)

40. The alloying element which really makes the steel corrosion resistant is

a) Chromium
b) Magnesium
c) Nickel
d) Molybdenum

Ans: (c)

41. The resistance of the coil of 1000 watt, 250 V electric lamp is

a) 2.5 ohms
b) 6.25 ohms
c) 62.5 ohms
d) 625 ohms
Ans: (c)

42. The rating of the batteries is given by

a) KW
b) Ampere-house
c) KVA
d) VARH

Ans: (b)

43. A moving coil instrument can be used to measure

a) Low frequency alternating current

b) High frequency alternating current
c) Direct current
d) Direct current and alternating current both

Ans: (c)

44. The cost of a capacitor increase as

a) The size of a capacitor increase

b) Voltage rating of the capacitor increases
c) Microfarad rating of the capacitor increases
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

45. A 100 microfarad, 200 V capacitor will have larger size than the 10 microfarad, 200 V
capacitor.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

46. The thermal time constant is the time

a) To reach the final steady temperature if the initial rate of increase of temperature
were maintained constant
b) To reach 63% of fined steady temperature
c) To reach 86.6% of final steady temperature
d) To reach 37% of final steady temperature

Ans: (a)

47. The current transformer can also be used to measured high d.c. current.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

48. Two voltmeters are connected in series. The atomic weight of Ag and Cu are 108 and 64
respectively. If 0.5 gm of copper is deposited in one voltmeter than mass of silver deposited
in the second will be

a) 0.5 × 108/64 gm
b) 0.5 × 64/108 gm
c) 0.5 × 108/32 gm
d) 0.5 × 32/108 gm

Ans: (c)

49. The secondary of the current transformer is always short circuited through low resistance
ammeter or low resistance

a) To get accurate measurement

b) To avoid excessive current in the primary
c) To avoid the risk of high voltage because the unopposed primary m.m.f. will set up
an abnormally high flux in the core which produces excessive core less with high
heating and a high voltage across the secondary of the transformer
d) Because the current in the primary is not determined by load in primary

Ans: (b)

50. The current in the primary of the potential transformer is determined by the load in
primary.
a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

1. A 100: 5 transformer is used in conjunction with a 5 amp ammeter. If latter reads

2.5 amps the line current will be

a) 2.5 × 100/5 amps

b) 2.5 × 5/100 amps
c) 2.5 × (5/100)2
d) 2.5 × (100/5)2

Ans: (a)

52. Which of the following circuit has no transients?

a) Pure resistive circuit

b) L-C circuit
c) R-L-C circuit
d) R-L circuit

Ans: (a)

53. Which of the following statement is true?

a) A galvanometer with low resistance in series is an ammeter

b) A galvanometer with high resistance in series is an ammeter
c) A galvanometer with high resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
d) A galvanometer with low resistance in parallel is a voltmeter

Ans: (a)

54. A voltage source can be converted into constant current source by adding

a) Low resistance in parallel with the voltage source

b) High resistance in parallel with the voltage source

c) Low resistance in series with the voltage source

d) High resistance in series with the voltage source

Ans: (d)
55. permeability in the magnetic circuit is analogous to

a) Resistance in electrical circuit

b) Resistivity in electrical circuit
c) Conductivity in electrical circuit
d) Current density
e) None of the above

Ans: (c)

56. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) 1 volt = 1 wb
b) 1 volt = 1 wb/second
c) Volt has no relation with Weber
d) 1 volt = 1 wb-second

Ans: (b)

57. A conductor of length 100 cm moves right angle to a magnetic field of flux density of 2
wb/m2 with the velocity of 25 m/second. The induced e.m.f. in the conductor will be

a) 25 volts
b) 50 volts
c) 75 volts
d) 100 volts

Ans: (b)

58. The ratio error in the current transformer is attributed

a) Wattles component of the current in the primary

b) Exciting current
c) Power factor of the primary
d) Leakage flux
Ans: (b)

59. The phase angle error of current transformer is of no importance if it is feeding an

ammeter.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

60. Wheatstone bridge is analogous to

a) Cantilever
b) Simple level system
c) Gear train
d) Mechanical clutch

Ans: (b)

61. The bring by which inductance is measured in terms of capacitance and

resistance is called

a) Maxwell-Wein bridge
b) Wein bridge
c) Anderson bridge
d) Schering bridge

Ans: (c)

62. The dielectric loss of capacitance can be measured by

a) Owen bridge
b) Schering bridge
c) Wein bridge
d) Maxwell bridge

Ans: (b)

63. A television receiver used 240 watts from 60 volts power source
a) 2 ma
b) 2 amps
c) 240 amps
d) 60 amps
e) 4 amps

Ans: (e)

64. The difference between power and energy is that

a) Power is the time rate doing work while the energy does not involve time
b) Energy is the time rate of doing work while the power does not involve time

c) Energy is V × I without taking time into account

d) Power can be measured in watt-hours where energy cannot

Ans: (a)
65. If one ampere current is allowed to accumulate charge for 5seconds, the resultant change
equals

a) 2 coulombs
b) 10 coulombs
c) 5 amps
d) 10 amps
e) 5 coulombs

Ans: (e)

66. A 50 micro-ampere meter movement has 500 ohms resistance, what shunt resistance is
required to extend the range to 250 micro-ampere?

a) 111.1 ohms
b) 125 ohms
c) 250 ohms
d) 50 ohms

Ans: (b)

67. To connect ammeter in series

a) Open the circuit at one point and use the meter to the circuit
b) Open the circuit at the positive and the negative terminals of the voltage source
c) Short the resistance to be checked and connect the meter across it
d) Open the circuit at one end connect the meter to one end

Ans: (a)

68. A voltmeter using 50 micro-ampere meter movement has a sensitivity of

a) 500 ohms per volt

b) 5000 ohms per volt
c) 2000 ohms per volt
d) 20,000 ohms per volt

Ans: (d)

69. To connect the voltmeter in parallel to read IR drop

a) Open the circuit at one and use the meter to complete the circuit
b) Open the circuit at two points and connect the meter across both points
c) Let remain the circuit as it is and connect the mater across the resistance
d) Allow the circuit to remain closed but disconnect the voltage source

Ans: (c)

70. The shunt used in the milliameter

a) Will extend the range and reduces the meter resistance

b) Will extend the range and increases the resistance
c) Will decrease the range and meter resistance
d) Will decrease the range but increases the inter resistance

Ans: (a)

71. To check the continuity of the circuit by multimeter, the best of the following
ranges to use is R ×

a) 1,000
b) 10,000
c) 100,000
d) 1

Ans: (d)

72. The applied voltage is to the circuit being checked is disconnected when an ohmmeter is
used because

a) The voltage source will increase the resistance

b) The current will decrease the resistance
c) The ohmmeter has its own battery
d) No current is needed for matter movement

Ans: (c)

73.When the voltage is measured by a multimeter, the multiplier for voltage is

a) A high resistance in series with the meter movement

b) A high resistance in parallel with the meter movement
c) Less than one ohm in series with the meter movement
d) Less than one ohm in parallel with the meter movement

Ans: (b)

74. A VTVM has negligible loading effect on the circuit being cheeked because it has

a) A high resistance range of R × 1 M Ω

b) High input resistance of 11 MΩ or more
c) Low current ranges of 59 micro-ampere or less
d) Low input resistance equal to the lowest value on the R × 1 range

Ans: (b)

75. The Wheatstone bridge is used to measure

a) Low value of current

b) High value of current
c) High value of voltage
d) Low value of voltage
e) Resistance value

Ans: (e)

76. The insulating materials are used to

a) Conduct very large current

b) Present an open circuit between the voltage source and the load
c) Prevent short circuit between conducting wires
d) Store very high currents

Ans: (c)

77. The internal resistance of the milliammeter must be very low for

a) High sensitivity
b) High accuracy
c) Maximum voltage drop across the meter
d) Minimum effect on the current in the circuit

Ans: (d)

78. The internal resistance of the voltmeter must be very high in order to have

a) High voltage range

b) Minimum current through the meter
c) Maximum loading effect
d) More current supplied by the voltage source

Ans: (d)

79.The total flux of 5000 lines equal

a) 1,26 gilberts
b) 5,000 gauss
c) 5,000 maxwells
d) 16,000 kilolines

Ans: (c)
80. The flux of 4,000 lines through 4 cm2 equals a flux density of

a) 1,000 gauss
b) 2,000 gauss
c) 4,000 gauss
d) 16,000gauss

Ans: (a)

81. The flux density of 2000 gauss equals

a) 2,000 lines per cm2

b) 2,000 lines per cm2
c) 2,000 kilolines per cm2
d) 400,000 lines per cm2

Ans: (b)

82. In ohm’s law for magnetic circuit

a) M.m.f. corresponds to current

b) Gilbert corresponds to volt
c) Reluctance corresponds to ampere
d) Gauss corresponds to ohm

Ans: (b)

83. In the given circuit how much the voltmeter will read ?

a) 0 volt
b) 10 volts
c) 4 volts
d) 5 volts
e) 3.33 volts

Ans: (e)

84. A voltage source and a voltmeter have

a) Zero and ideally infinity zero input impedance respectively
b) Ideally infinite and zero input impedances respectively
c) High and low input impedances respectively
d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

85. The r.m.s. value of the following half wave with its maximum, Imax is

a) Imax/2
b) Imax/√2
c) Imax
d) Imax/√3

Ans: (a)

86. Which of the following instrument will be used to measure a very high frequency but
small current ?

a) Electrodynamic ammeter
b) Moving coil galvanometer
c) Thermocouple type instrument
d) Induction type instrument

Ans: (c)

87. If n identical cell of e.m.f. E and internal resistance r are connected in series, they produce
a current though an external resistance R equal to

a) nE/R + r
b) nE/R
c) nE/r + n.r
d) E/R + r

Ans: (c)

88. The hysteresis and eddy current are used for

a) Dielectric heating
b) Induction heating
c) Wood heating
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

89.A dielectric between the plates of a capacitor

a) Decreases the capacitance

b) Increases the capacitance
c) Provides the strength to the capacitor plates
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

90. A rectifier type a.c. voltmeter

a) Generally uses the iron-vane type of a.c. movement

b) Has a linear scale because it uses a.d.c. meter movement
c) Has a none-linear scale crowded at the left because it uses the dynamometer type
of meter movement
d) Needs a thermocouple for low frequencies

Ans: (b)

91. The wattmeter

a) Has voltage and current coils to measure the real power

b) Has three connections two of which are used at a time
c) Measures apparent power because the current is same in the voltage and current
coils
d) Can measure d.c. power but not 60 cps a.c. power

Ans: (a)

92. Which of the following statement is true ?

a) The hysteresis loss can be determined from the area of B-H curve
b) Eddy current loss is determined from the area of B-H curve
c) Hysteresis and eddy current losses can be determined from the area of the B-H
loop
d) None of the above losses is determined from the B-M loop

Ans: (a)

93. The damping of the ballistic galvanometer is kept very small

a) To make the system oscillating

b) In order to get first deflection large
c) In order to get first deflection small
d) To make the system critically damped

Ans: (b)

94. The grosset fluxmeter is special type of ballistic galvanometer in which

a) Controlling torque is small and damping is heavy

b) Controlling torque and damping are large
c) Controlling torque is large but damping is small
d) Controlling torque and damping are small

Ans: (a)

95. Ballistic galvanometer can be used to measure the current and flux both.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

96. Which of the following frequency meter is suitable to measure radio frequency ?

a) Electrical resonance frequency meter

b) Weston frequency meter
c) Heterodyne frequency meter
d) Either (b) or (c)

Ans: (c)
97. Enumerate the advantages of moving iron power factor meter over the dynamometer type
power factor meter

a) Large working forces

b) A scale which extends to 360°
c) The absence of ligaments to lead in current to moving coils, all coils in the moving
iron types being fixed

Ans: ()

98. Enumerate the sources of errors in the moving coil instruments

a) Weakening of permanent magnets due to ageing and temperature effect

b) Weakening of spring due to ageing and temperature effect
c) Change of resistance of moving coil with temperature

Ans: ()

99. Enumerate the errors in moving iron instruments with both A.C. and D.C.

a) Hysteresis error
b) Stray magnetic fields
c) Temperature error

Ans: ()

100. Enumerate the errors in moving iron ammeter with a.c. only

a) Frequency errors
b) Reactance of instrument coil
c) Eddy currents

Ans: ()

101. For a good 0.5 micro-farad paper capacitor, the ohm-meter reading should

a) Go quickly to 100 ohms and remain there

b) Show low resistance momentarily and back off to a very high resistance
c) Not move at all
d) Show very high resistance first and then low
Ans: (b)

102. Which of the following error may arise in wattmeter if it is not compensated for the
errors?

a) Voltage coil inductance

b) Voltage coil capacitance
c) Eddy currents
d) (a), (b) and (c)

Ans: (d)

103. Which of the following is methods is the commonest method of measuring three
balanced or unbalanced power?

a) One wattmeter method

b) Two wattmeter method
c) Three wattmeter method
d) Ammeter method

Ans: (b)

104. One-Wattmeter method is used to measure

a) The power when load is balance in three phase circuit

b) The power when load is unbalanced in three phase circuit
c) (a) or (b)
d) Single phase power with balanced load

Ans: (a)

105. The reactive power can be measured with wattmeter when voltage across voltage coil is
adjusted to be out of phase with the current by

a) 90°
b) 180°
c) 45°
d) 0°
e) 120°
Ans: (a)

106.The change of frequency affects the circuit parameters of wattmeter connected to

measure power of three-phase AC system

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

107. Which of the following devices are required to measure three phase balance power?

a) One wattmeter
b) One wattmeter and one voltage transformer of 1:1 ratio
c) One wattmeter and two current transformers of 1:1 ratio
d) Either (b) or (c)

Ans: (d)

108. The total power P measured in Y star three-phase circuit is given by

a) P = 3VI cos ⁡ϕ
b) P = √I cos ⁡ϕ
c) P = √3VI cos ⁡ϕ
d) P = √2VI cos⁡ϕ

Ans: (c)

Where V and I are the line voltage and line current respectively.

109.In the above question, the power in delta three-phase circuit is given by

a) P = 3 VI cos ⁡ϕ
b) P = √3 VI cos ⁡ϕ
c) P = √2 VI cos ⁡ϕ
d) P = √3 VI sin ⁡ϕ

Ans: (b)
110. The dynamometer wattmeter can be used to measure

a) AC power only
b) DC power only
c) AC or DC power
d) AC power of single-phase circuits

Ans: (c)

11.The pointer deflection of wattmeter is proportional to

a) Torque produced in the wattmeter b) Voltage

c) Current
d) Power
e) (a) or (b)

Ans: (e)

112. Induction wattmeters can be used to measure

a) AC power
b) DC power
c) AC or DC power
d) AC power of single phase only

Ans: (a)

113. Motor meters can be used to measure AC or DC

a) Watt-hours
b) Ampere-hours c) Current
d) Voltage
e) (a) or (b)

Ans: (c)

114. Motor meter can be used to measure

a) AC energy
b) DC energy
c) AC or DC energy
d) None of the above

Ans: (d)

115. The one “unit” of energy measured in AC circuit is equivalent to

a) One watt-hour
b) One kilowatt-hour
c) One watt
d) One kilowatt
e) One joule

Ans: (b)

116. Which of the following energy meter is universally accepted to measure AC encrgy?

a) Motor meter
b) Induction type meter
c) Mercury motor meter
d) Reason Electrostatic meter

Ans: (b)

117. Which of the following loads are dangerous for thermal heating of wattmeter even if
meter reading is low?

a) Loads with high value of power factor

b) Loads with low value of power factor
c) Chokes
d) (b) and (c)

Ans: (d)

118. The eddy current torque on a metallic disc rotating between poles of permanent magnet
in energy meter is directly proportional to the angular velocity of the disc.
a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

119. If the reading of two wattmeters in two-wattmeter method of power measurement are 4
kW and 3 kW respectively and the latter reading being obtained after reversing connection of
the current coil of wattmeter, what will be the power?

a) 6 kW
b) 1 kW
c) 4 kW
d) 5 kW
e) 7 kW

Ans: (b)

120.An AC potentiometer can be used to measure the loss in an iron ring made up of thin
stampings.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

121. Which of the thermocouple one will choose to measure the temperature of
500°C?

a) Chromal Alumal (Cr Al)

b) Iron Constantan (Fe K)
c) Platicum-Platinum Rhydium (Pt Pt Rh)
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

122. Cr Al thermocouple can be used to measure the temperature upto

a) 500° C
b) 800° C
c) 1200° C
d) 1800° C

Ans: (c)

123. The output of thermocouple is in the range of

a) Volts
b) Millivolts
c) Amperes
d) Milliamperes

Ans: (b)

124.A resistance temperature detector (RTD) is used to sense the temperature. Which of the
following converter will be used to receive a milliampere signal from RTD ?

a) MU/MA Converter
b) A/MA Converter
c) R/MA Converter
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

125. A moving iron instrument will not given erroneous reading upto frequency upto

a) 1000 Hz
b) 1500 Hz
c) 2000 Hz
d) 5 kHz

Ans: (d)

126. Which of the following device is used to measure the leakage resistance of a capacitor ?

a) Schering bridge method

b) Megger
c) Potentiometric bridge
d) Loss of charge method
Ans: (d)

127. Eddy current error does not exist in

a) DC moving iron instruments

b) AC moving iron instruments
c) (a) and (b) both
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

128. Capacitance cannot be measured with ballistic galvanometer.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

129. The movement of the moving element of an electrical indicator is dependent of

a) Restoring torque
b) Number of turns of the coil
c) Resistance of the indicator circuit
d) (a) and (c) only
e) (a), (b) and (c)

Ans: (e)

130. The ballistic galvanometer with high oscillation period and high critical resistance will
be most suitable for the measurement of

a) Inductance
b) Voltage
c) Capacitance
d) Current

Ans: (c)

131. The internal resistance of an ammeter will be

a) Infinity
b) Zero
c) Very small
d) Large

Ans: (c)

132. The internal resistance of the voltameter is

a) Zero
b) Very high
c) Infinity
d) Very small

Ans: (b)

133. Which of the following instruments will have poorest overloading capacity?

a) Moving coil instruments

b) Induction type instruments
c) Permanent magnet instruments
d) Hotwire instruments

Ans: (d)

134. The impulse ratio of any insulator is

a) Zero
b) Unity
c) Less than unity
d) More than unity

Ans: (d)

135.The impulse ratio depends on the

a) Polarity of the impulse voltage

b) Steepness of the impulse wave-front
c) Time of decay of the impulse voltage
d) All the above

Ans: (d)

136. “The magnetic strength is inversely proportional to the distance from the conductor in
which the current flows.” The above law is known as

a) Lenz’s Law
b) Biot Law
c) Biot and Savart’s Law
d) Ampere’s Theorem

Ans: (c)

137. The value of magnetizing force H = NI/L is true for a solenoid only when

a) Radius of the solenoid is more than length

b) Radius of the solenoid is much less than its length
c) Radius of the solenoid is equal to length of the solenoid
d) Number of turns are unlimited

Ans: (b)

138.The magnetization curve is shown below. The ratio of ∆B to ∆H is known as :

a) Permeability
b) Incremental permeability
c) Flux density
d) Incremental magnetization force

Ans: (b)

139. Which of the following dimensions are for electrical charge?

a) LT-2
b) MLT-2
c) ε1/2 L3/2 M1/2 T-1
d) LT-1
Ans: (c)

140. Dimension of the current are

a) LT-2
b) MLT-2
c) ε1/2 L3/2 M1/2 T-2
d) ε1/2 L2 M-1/2 T2

Ans: (c)

141. The dimension of voltage are

a) ML2 T-2
b) ML2 T-2 Q-1
c) εLT-1
d) M1/2 L1/2 μ-1/2

Ans: (b)

142. If the dimension of work done and time are given, will it be possible to find the
dimensions of power?

a) Yes
b) No

Ans: (a)

143. The dimensions of electric energy are given by

a) L2 MT-2
b) L2 MT-3
c) LT-3 μ
d) Lμ

Ans: (a)

144. Which of the following quantity quantity has same dimension in electromagnetic and
electrostatic system?
a) Electric power
b) Electric energy
c) Current
d) (a) and (b) both

Ans: (d)

145.Which of the following outputs of the current transformers are commonly specified?

a) 1 A, 10 A
b) 2 A, 20 A
c) 1 A, 5 A
d) 0.1 A, 1 A

Ans: (c)

146. The power of 6 phase circuit can be measured with minimum

a) One wattmeter
b) Three wattmeters
c) Five wattmeters
d) Six wattmeters

Ans: (c)

147. The hot-wire instruments have more power consumption in comparison with other
electrical instruments for similar instruments.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

148. Which of the following quantity is equivalent to one farad?

a) 10-9 e.m.u.
b) 10-9 e.m.u
c) 10/9 e.m.u.
d) 9/10 e.m.u.
Ans: (b)

149. The most of the voltmeters for general use are designed for the power loss of

a) 1 Watt
b) 5 Watts
c) 0.2 to 0.5 Watts
d) 10 Watts

Ans: (c)

150. Which of the following quantity is equivalent to one henry?

a) 109 e.m.u.
b) 10-9 e.m.u
c) 10/9 e.m.u
d) 9/10 e.m.u.

Ans: (a)

151. In the moving iron instruments, the torque is proportional to

a) Inductance of instruments
b) First derivative of inductance with respect to time
c) First derivative of inductance of instruments with respect to deflection angle
d) Current

Ans: (c)

152. Which of the instrument are free from hysteresis and eddy current losses?

a) Moving iron instruments

b) Electrodynameter type instruments
c) Electrostatic instruments
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)
153. The electrostatic instruments rely for their operation upon the

a) Current
b) Voltage
c) Fact that a force exists between the two plates having opposite charges
d) Power

Ans: (c)

154. Which of the following instruments can be used to measure only A.C. currents?

a) Moving iron instruments

b) Electrodynamic instruments
c) Induction type instruments
d) Hotwire instruments

Ans: (c)

155. The permeability of magnetic circuits is analogous to

a) Current of electrical circuits

b) Voltage of electrical circuits
c) Current density of electrical circuits
d) Resistance of electrical circuits
e) Conductivity of electrical circuits

Ans: (e)

156. The current ratio of current transformers is constant under all load conditions.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

157. The ratio error in the current transformers is largely dependent upon

a) Iron loss component of magnetizing current

b) Magnetizing component of the magnetizing current
c) (a) and (b) both
d) (a) or (b)

Ans: (a)

158. The material used for the core of current transformer should have

a) Low reluctance and low iron loss

b) High reluctance and high iron loss
c) Low reluctance and high iron loss
d) High reluctance and low iron loss

Ans: (a)

159. What will happen if the secondary winding of the current transformer is opened when
current is flowing in the primary current?

a) There will be high current in the secondary winding

b) There will be very high induced voltage in the secondary winding

c) There will be very weak flux density in the core

d) The transformer will burn immediately

Ans: (b)
160. Which of the secondary winding of current transformer is opened, the ampere-turns of
primary winding will

a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain same
d) Be very small

Ans: (c)

161. Which of the following transformers have secondary current of same order as
magnetizing current?

a) Current transformer
b) Voltage transformer
c) Power transformer
d) Distribution transformer

Ans: (b)

162. Turns compensation in the current transformers is used to

a) Eliminate phase angle error

b) Eliminate ratio error
c) Obtain a transformation ratio more nearly equal to nominal ratio of the
transformer
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

163. If the burden of the current transformer is 15 VA, and secondary current is 5 A. what
will be the impedance of connected load?

a) 6 ohms
b) 0.6 ohms
c) 60 ohms
d) 5 ohms

Ans: (b)

164. What will be secondary terminal voltage of the current transformer in the above Q. 163?

a) 4 V
b) 6 V
c) 3 V
d) 12 V
e) 1 V
f) 5 V

Ans: (c)

165. The inaccuracy in balancing the bridge circuit is attributed to

a) Temperature
b) Thermal e.m.f.
c) Battery of circuit
d) Resistance of the bridge

Ans: (b)

166. Which of the bridge will be used to measure the inductance in terms of the resistance
and capacitance?

a) Wein bridge
b) Schering bridge
c) Anderson bridge
d) Maxwell bridge

Ans: (c)

167. The high quality factor Q of the inductance can be measured by

a) Hay bridge
b) Anderson bridge
c) Wein bridge
d) Schering bridge

Ans: (a)

168. An additional ratio arm in the bridge circuit is used to counterbalance the

a) Leads resistance
b) Thermal e.m.f.
c) Observation errors
d) Temperature

Ans: (b)

169. The higher limit of the resistance measured by bridge method is determined by contact
resistance and resistance of connecting wires.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)
170. The lower limit of the resistance measured by the bridge methods is determined by the
sensitivity of the detector.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

71. Which of the following is used to measure the low impedance components?

a) Series connection Q-meter

b) Parallel connection Q-meter
c) (a) or (b)
d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

172. Which of the following is used to measure the high impedance components?

a) Parallel connection Q-meter

b) Series connection Q-meter
c) (a) or (b)
d) (a) and (b) simultaneously

Ans: (a)

173. Ballastic galvanometer can be used to measure the mutual inductance.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

174. Which of the following bridge is called Wein-bridge?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
Ans: (c)

175. Which of the following bridge will be used to measure the low values of resistance?

a) Wein bridge
b) Maxwell bridge
c) Schering bridge
d) Anderson bridge

Ans: (b)

176. What will happen when quartz (SiO2) crystal is compressed?

a) The size of the crystal will be reduced

b) There will be a great amount of heat because of molecules movement
c) The electrical changes will be set up across the crystal ends
d) The crystal will melt

Ans: (c)

177. The quartz (SiO2) crystal is compressed to develop the voltage across the ends, this
phenomenon is known as :

a) Voltaic effect
b) Piezo-electrical effect
c) Hall effect
d) Photo-voltaic effect

Ans: (b)

178. A switchgear control consists of

a) A main switch to isolate the apparatus from the supply

b) Fuses
c) Circuit breaker and fuses
d) Overvoltage relay
e) Interlocks and earth connections
f) (a), (c), (d) and (e)
Ans: (f)

179. The peak factor of the sinusoidal wave is defined as :

a) (r.m.s. Voltage)/(peak Voltage)

b) (Peak Voltage)/(r.m.s. Voltage)
c) (Peak Voltage)/(Average Voltage)
d) (Peak Voltage)/(d.c. Voltage)

Ans: (b)

180. In the peak voltage is to be measured by “Rectified Capacitor Charging Current

Method”, the peak voltage is given by :

a) Iaverage/(4 cf)
b) Irms/(4 cf)
c) Idc/(4 cf)
d) Iaverage/cf

Ans: (a)

181. Which of the following voltmeters can indicate peak, r.m.s. alternating and d.c.
high voltage?

a) Electrostatic voltmeter
b) Galvanometric voltmeter
c) Ionic wind voltmeter
d) Vacuum tube voltmeter

Ans: (c)

182. Following are the curves for different thermocouple. Which of the curve is drawn for
platinum-platinum Rhodium thermocouple?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
Ans: (a)

183. Alundum is the name given to

a) Fused alumina
b) Fused fireclay
c) Fused alumina and fireclay
d) Fused platinum

Ans: (c)

184. The alternating current and voltage wave from do not, in general, contain even
harmonics.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

185. If the voltage wave form having all odd harmonics is applied to the resistive circuit, then
the current wave form will

a) Be similar to voltage wave form

b) Be different from voltage wave from
c) Have even harmonics
d) Be sinusoidal

Ans: (c)

186. The primary winding of Ct has

a) Thicker wire than secondary winding

b) Thinner wire than secondary winding
c) Same thickness as secondary winding
d) More turns than secondary

Ans: (a)

187. The self-balancing potentiometer is used

a) For experimental purpose in the laboratory
b) For vibration measurements
c) For industrial measurements
d) In recorders

Ans: (c)

188. Which of the following bridge can be used to measure high frequency oscillations?

a) Schering bridge
b) Anderson bridge
c) Wein bridge
d) Maxwell bridge

Ans: (c)

189.Which of the method one will choose for the low resistance measurement?

a) Schering bridge method

b) Maxwell bridge method
c) Kelvin’s double bridge method
d) Potentiometric method

Ans: (c)

190. Two voltmeters each with the range of 0-100 V and resistances 40,000 Ω and 10,000 Ω
respectively are connected in series across the power supply source of 50 V. The voltmeters
will indicate

a) 40 V, 10 V respectively
b) 30 V, 20 V respectively
c) 50 V, 0 V respectively
d) 20 V, 30 V respectively

Ans: (a)

191. A rectifier type instrument is used to measure d.c. voltage of 220V. What will
the instrument indicate?
a) 220 V
b) 110 V
c) 178 V
d) 0 V

Ans: (d)

192. If a circuit has inductance of 20 H and 10 Ω resistance, after how many seconds the
current will attain 63% of the steady state value which is 24 A?

a) 20 seconds
b) 2 seconds
c) 1 second
d) 0.02 second

Ans: (b)

193. Which of the methods can be used to measure the unbalance load of three-phase system?

a) One wattmeter method

b) Two wattmeter method
c) Three voltmeter method
d) Three ammeter method

Ans: (b)

194. The one wattmeter method can only be used to measure balance load of the three phase
electric system.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

195. The wattmeter is connected in the three phase balanced circuit as shown. The wattmeter
will indicate

a) Active power
b) Wattles power
c) Reactive power
d) (b) or (c)

Ans: (d)

196. The induction testing method is used to find which of the following fault in the cables?

a) Short circuit fault

b) Earth fault
c) Open circuit fault
d) (b) or (c)

Ans: (b)

197. The breakdown of the insulation of the cable will be termed as

a) Earth fault
b) Short circuit fault
c) Open circuit fault
d) (a) or (c)

Ans: (a)

198. loop tests are applied to find the

a) Ground fault of the cable

b) Open circuit fault of the cable
c) Short circuit fault of the cable
d) (a) or (c)

Ans: (d)

199. The stroboscopic method can be used to measure the rotational speed of the electrical
drives.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

200.The power factor meter have

a) Only current coil
b) Only voltage coil
c) Current and voltage coils both
d) Only inductive voltage circuit
e) Only inductive current circuit

Ans: (c)

201. Which of the following instruments have poor overload capacity?

a) All electronics instruments

b) Galvanometric instruments
c) Wattmeters
d) Hot wire instruments

Ans: (d)

202. A Voltmeter should have

a) Infinite resistance
b) Very high resistance
c) Low resistance
d) Zero resistance

Ans: (b)

203. The internal resistance of an ammeter should be

a) Infinite resistance
b) Very small resistance
c) Zero resistance
d) High resistance

Ans: (b)

204. Find the odd man out.

a) Copper Constantan
b) Iron Constantan
c) Platinum-Platinum Rhodium
d) Lead Carbon
e) Nickel Chromium

Ans: (b)

205. The Quality factor meter operates on the principal of series resistance

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

206. Which of the following instruments have self balancing property?

a) Galvanometric type
b) Potentiometric type
c) Digital type
d) Ammeters

Ans: (b)

207. Which of the following instruments are most susceptible to vibrations?

a) Galvanometric type
b) Potentionmetric type
c) Digital type
d) Voltmeters

Ans: (a)

208. The source of reference voltage for A.C. potentiometers is a standard cell

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

209. Which of the following transducers offer the best accuracy?

a) Strain guage type
b) Diaphragm type
c) Capacitance type
d) Capsule type

Ans: (c)

210. The flow can be measured directly by

a) Pressure transducer
b) Differential Pressure Transducer
c) Differential Pressure transducer and Square Root Extractor
d) Pressure Switch

Ans: (c)

211. The resolution of a digital ammeter with 3 digit display is

a) 1/10000
b) 1/1000
c) 1/4
d) 1/3

Ans: (b)

212. The accuracy of measuring instruments at high frequency

a) Decrease
b) Becomes zero
c) Increases
d) Does not change

Ans: (a)

213. How many coils are required in the megger?

a) One
b) four
c) Two
d) Five

Ans: (c)

214. What will be the reading of megger if the measuring terminals are open circuited?

a) Infinity
b) 500 ohms
c) Zero
d) 10,000 ohms

Ans: (a)

215. Which of the following instrument will have same calibration on A.C. and D.C.?

a) Moving coil instruments

b) Moving iron instruments
c) Induction type instruments
d) Electrodynamometer instruments

Ans: (d)

216. The measurement of reproducibility of an instrument given an indication of

a) Resolution
b) Damping
c) Efficiency
d) Accuracy
e) Precision

Ans: (e)

217. The internal resistance of an instrument is normally based on criterian that

a) It draws large power

b) The instrument can be connected in any circuit
c) It does not change the parameters of the circuit to which this is connected
d) It draws minimum power for its operation
Ans: (c)

218. The dynamic error of an instrument is defined as

a) The difference is full scale reading and actual readings

b) The difference in actual and indicated values
c) The difference in two consecutive readings of the scale
d) None of them

Ans: (b)

219. The multimeter normally employs

a) The so many potentiometers inside it

b) The only one coil with variable number of turns arrangement
c) The multiple series or shunt resistance inside it
d) The completely electronic circuit

Ans: (c)

220. The standard resistors are generally fabricated out of

a) Platinum
b) Copper
c) Meganin
d) Chromium

Ans: (c)

221. The air fraction damping is used for the instruments which have

a) Very high magnetic field

b) Very low magnetic field
c) Zero magnetic field
d) (a) or (b)

Ans: (b)
222. If the instrument scale is cramped for large values, then the scale is calibrated as per

a) Square scale law

b) Uniform scale law
c) Logarithmic scale law
d) None of them

Ans: (c)

223. Generally how many turns in the primary of CT are used?

a) 2
b) 1 to 5
c) 5 to 10
d) 10 to 40

Ans: (b)

224. Which of the method will be used for precision measurement of resistance

a) Voltmeter method
b) Potentiometer method
c) Multimeter method
d) Megger test
e) Bridge method
f) CRO method

Ans: (e)

225. The major application of self-balancing potentiometer is found in

a) Calibration instruments
b) Power systems
c) Electronics
d) Control systems

Ans: (d)

226. The radio frequency can be measured with

a) Resonance frequency meter
b) Weston frequency meter
c) Heterodyne frequency meter
d) Either of the above

Ans: (c)

227. The rectifier instruments do not have the following errors

a) Temperature errors
b) Wave shape errors
c) Frequency error
d) (a), (b) and (c)

Ans: (d)

228. The sensitivity factor of strain gauges is normally of the order of

a) 1 to 1.5
b) 1.5 to 2
c) 0.5 to 1
d) 5 to 10

Ans: (b)

229. CT is used to

a) Step down the current

b) Step up the current
c) Step up the current but step down the voltage
d) Measure very high currents

Ans: (a)

230. Which of the following instrument has poor overload capacity?

a) Moving iron instrument

b) Induction type instruments
c) Electronic instruments
d) Hot wire instruments

Ans: (d)

231. The pulse transformer employs

a) Air core
b) Iron core
c) Ferrite core
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

232. The resolution of potentiometer shall be

a) Zero
b) very small
c) Very large
d) Proportional to its reference voltage

Ans: (c)

233. Which of the following potentiometer is supposed to have infinite resolution?

a) Resistance potentiometer
b) Deposited film potentiometer
c) Kelvins potentiometer
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

234. The LVDT can be used to measure

a) Level
b) Acceleration
c) Speed
d) All of these

Ans: (d)
235. Which of the following recorders are known as null recorders?

a) Strip chart recorders

b) Galvanometric recorders
c) Potentiometric recorders
d) Any of the above

Ans: (c)

236. The Null balance potentiometers are

a) High frequency device

b) Low frequency device
c) Low frequency device with frequency limit of 10 Hz
d) Independent of frequency

Ans: (c)

237. The potentiometric recorders have

a) High sensitivity
b) High sensitivity and independence of lead length
c) Low sensitivity
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

238. The inductance of the current coil of wattmeter is kept

a) As high as possible
b) As low as possible
c) 10 H
d) 1 to 10 H

Ans: (b)

239. The potential coil of wattmeter is designed for

a) Very high inductance

b) Minimum inductance
c) Very low inductance
d) 1 to 10 H

Ans: (b)

240. The potential coil of wattmeter is designed for minimum inductance to

a) Achieve high phase difference between current and voltage

b) Keep current and voltage in same phase
c) Minimize the reactance of the coil
d) Increase the reactance of the coil

Ans: (b)

Objective Type Question

or MCQ of Transmission
and Distribution page-1
1.The topmost conductor in hv transmission line is

a) B-phase conductor
b) Y- phase conductor
c) R- phase conductor
d) Earth conductor

Ans: (d)

2. Corona has the disadvantage(s) of

a) Power loss
b) Introduction with neighbouring communication circuits
c) Introducing the harmonics, predominately third harmonics, into transmission lines
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

3. Insulators used on EHT transmission lines are

a) PVC
b) Glass
c) Stealite
d) Porcelain

Ans: (d)

4. The dielectric strength of air under normal conditions is around

a) 30 kV/cm.
b) 150 kV/cm.
c) 100 kV /cm.
d) 200 kV/cm

Ans: (a)

5. The insulators used on 220 kV transmission lines are of

a) Suspension type
b) Pin type
c) Shackle type
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

6. Power loss due to corona is directly proportional to

a) Radius of conductor
b) Supply frequency
c) Spacing between conductors.
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

7. HV transmission line uses

a) Pine type insulators

b) Suspension insulators
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

8. Corona occurs between two transmission conductors when they

a) Have high potential difference

b) Are closely spaced
c) Carry dc power
d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans: (d)

9. Critical voltage limit of a transmission line is increased by

a) Reducing the radius of the conductors

b) Reducing the spacing between conductors
c) Increasing the spacing between conductors
d) Increasing the radius of the conductors

Ans: (d)

10. Which of the following affects the corona least?

a) Size and charge per ion

b) Number of ions
c) Atmospheric temperature
d) Mean free length

Ans: (c)

11. Transmission line constants are

a) Capacitance
b) Inductance
c) Resistance
d) All of these

Ans: (d)
12. The effect of corona is

a) Increased inductance
b) Increased reactance
c) Increased power loss
d) All of these

Ans: (c)

13. The inductance of line is minimum when

a) G M D is high
b) G M R is high
c) Both G M D and G M R are high
d) G M D is low but G M R is high

Ans: (d)

14. Corona is affected by

a) Size of conductor
b) Shape and surface condition of the conductor
c) Operating voltage
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

15. The inductance of single phase two wire power transmission line per km gets doubled
when the

a) Radius of the wore is double

b) Distance between the wires is increased as square of the original distance
c) Distance between the wires is doubled
d) Distance between the wires is doubled

Ans: (b)

16. Capacitance of a transmission line

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains same with increase in its length
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

17. The only advantage of corona is that is

a) Ozone gas is produced

b) works as a safety valve for surges
c) makes line current sinusoidal
d) produces a pleasing luminous glow

Ans: (b)

18. Compared with solid conductor of the same radius, corona appears on a stranded
conductor at a lower voltage, because stranding

a) assists ionization
b) makes the current flow spirally about the axis of the conductor
c) produces oblique sections to a plane perpendicular to the axis of the conductor
d) produces surfaces of smaller radius

Ans: (d)

19. The skin effect of a conductor reduces with the increase in

a) permeability of conductor material

b) x-section of conductor
c) Resistivity of the conductor material
d) Supply frequency

Ans: (c)

20. High voltage transmission lines are transposed because then

a) Phase voltage imbalances can be minimized

b) Voltage drop in the lines can be minimized
c) Computations of inductance becomes easier
d) Corona losses can be minimized

Ans: (a)

21. Skin effect

a) Reduces the effective resistance but increases the effective internal reactance.
b) Increases the effective resistance but reduces the effective internal reactance
c) Reduces the effective resistance and effective internal reactance
d) Increases the effective resistance and effective internal reactance

Ans: (b)

22. Transposition of transmission line is done to

a) Reduce corona
b) Balance line voltage drop
c) Reduced skin effect
d) Reduce line loss

Ans: (b)

23. Increase in frequency of transmission line causes

a) No change in line resistance

b) Increases in line resistance
c) Decreases in line resistance
d) Decreases in line series reactance

Ans: (b)

24. Transposition of transmission line is done to reduce the

a) Line losses
b) Capacitive effect
c) Disturbance to nearby communication circuits
d) Effect of surge voltages induced on the line
Ans: (c)

25. The conductor carries more current on the surface in comparison to its core. This
phenomenon is called the

a) Skin effect
b) Ferranti effect
c) Corona
d) Lenz’s effect

Ans: (a)

26. The presence of earth in case of overhead lines

a) Increases the capacitance

b) Increases the inductance
c) Decreases the capacitance and increases the inductance
d) Does not effect any of the line constants

Ans: (a)

27. Skin effect in transmission line is due to

a) Supply frequency
b) Self inductance of conductor
c) High sensitivity of material in the centre
d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans: (d)

28. If the effect of earth is taken into account, then the capacitance of line to ground

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains unaltered
d) Becomes infinite

Ans: (b)
29. In a transmission line the distributed constants are

a) Resistance and shunt conductance only

b) Resistance and inductance only
c) Resistance, inductance and capacitance only
d) Resistance, inductance, capacitance and shunt conductance.

Ans: (d)

30. The presence of earth in case of overhead lines

a) Increases the capacitance

b) Increases the inductance
c) Decreases the capacitance
d) Decreases the inductance

Ans: (a)

31. Capacitance in equivalent circuit of transmission line is due to

a) Current in the line

b) Difference in potential of line
c) Leakage of current
d) Presence of magnetic flux

Ans: (b)

32. Skin effect in conductor is proportional to

a) (diameter of conductor).1/2
b) diameter of conductor.
c) (diameter of conductor).2
d) (diameter of conductor).4

Ans: (c)

33. Proximity effect

a) Is more pronounced for large conductors, high frequencies and close proximity
b) Increases the resistance of the conductors and reduces the self reactance
c) Is substantially eliminated with stranded conductors
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

34. Which of the following is neglected while analyzing a short transmission line?

a) Power losses
b) Shunt admittances
c) Series impedance
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

35. Following effects are associated with transmission lines

1. Skin effect
2. Corona effect
3. Proximity effect
The effective resistance of conductor is increased by
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3

Ans: (c)

36. For 11 kV transmission line the inductance per km will be about

a) 1 H.
b) 0.1 H.
c) 1 𝑚H.
d) 0.1 mH.

Ans: (c)

37.For 11 kV transmission line the capacitance per km will be about

a) 0.01 F.
b) 0.1 F.
c) 0.1μF.
d) 0.01μF.

Ans: (a)

38. The transmission lines are said to be long if the length of the line exceeds

a) 50 km.
b) 150 km.
c) 250 km.
d) 500 km.

Ans: (b)

39. Percentage regulation of transmission line is given by the expression

a) (VR - VS)/VR × 100

b) (VR - VS)/VS × 100
c) (VS - VR)/VR × 100
d) (VS - VR)/VS × 100

Ans: (c)

40. Shunt capacitance is neglected in case of

a) Medium and long transmission lines

b) Long transmission lines
c) Medium transmission lines
d) Short transmission lines

Ans: (d)

1. Which of the following regulations is considered best?

a) 21/2%
b) 15%
c) 25%
d) 40%

Ans: (a)

42. The effect of capacitance can be neglected when the length of overhead transmission line
does not exceed

a) 20 km.
b) 60 km.
c) 120 km.
d) 300 km.

Ans: (b)

43. For a short line if the receiving end voltage is equal to sending end voltage under loaded
conditions

a) The receiving end power factor is leading

b) The sending end power factor is leading
c) The receiving end power factor is unity
d) The sending end power factor is unity

Ans: (c)

44. 120 km long transmission line is considered as a

a) Short line
b) Medium line
c) Long line
d) Either (a) or (b)

Ans: (b)

45. Transmission efficiency of a transmission line increases with the

a) Decrease in power factor and voltage

b) Increases in power factor and voltage
c) Increases in power factor but decreases in voltage
d) Increases in voltage but decreases in power factor
Ans: (b)

46. A 25 km 33 kv transmission line is considered to be

a) Short transmission line

b) Medium transmission line
c) Long transmission line
d) High power line

Ans: (a)

47. A 160 km, 110 kv transmission line falls under the category of

a) Short transmission line

b) Medium transmission line
c) Long transmission line
d) Ultra high voltage line

Ans: (c)

48. Constant power locus of a transmission line at a particular sending end and receiving end
voltage is

a) A straight line
b) A parabola
c) An ellipse
d) A circle
Ans: (d)

49. The surge impedance of a long power transmission line is of the order of

a) 50 Ω
b) 75 Ω
c) 400 Ω
d) 800 Ω

Ans: (c)
50. As the height of the transmission tower is increased, the line capacitance and line
inductance respectively

a) Decreases, decreases
b) Increases, decreases
c) Decreases, remains unlatered
d) Increases, increases

Ans: (c)

d) Arc of a circle

Ans: (a)

55. Voltage control in a power transmission line is achieved by

a) Booster transformer
b) Tap-changing transformer
c) Injection of reactive power
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

56. In a power transmission line, the sag depends on

a) Conductor material alone

b) Tension in conductors alone
c) Span of transmission line
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

57. For maximum efficiency in transmission of bulk ac power, the power factor of the load
should be

a) Unity
b) Considerably less than unity
c) Slightly less than unity leading
d) Slightly less than unity lagging
Ans: (d)

58. Use of bundle conductors causes the critical voltage for corona formation

a) To decrease
b) To increase
c) To remain unlatered
d) Does not existent

Ans: (b)

59. The function of guard ring transmission lines is

a) To reduce the transmission losses

b) To reduce the earth capacitance of the lowest unit
c) To increase the earth capacitance of the lowest unit
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

60. Series acapacitors on transmission lines are of little use when the required reactive
voltamperes are

a) Small
b) Large
c) Fluctuating
d) Any of these

Ans: (a)

61. Phase modifier is normally installed in case of

a) Short transmission lines

b) Medium length lines
c) Long lines
d) For any length of lines

Ans: (c)
62. A synchronous phase modifier as compared to synchronous motor of the same rating has

a) Large shaft diameter and higher speed

b) Smaller shaft diameter and higher speed
c) Large shaft diameter and smaller speed
d) Smaller shaft diameter and smaller speed

Ans: (d)

63. Constant voltage transmission have the advantage(s) of

a) Increase of short-circuit current of the system

b) Large reserve of lines in case of line trouble
c) Improvement of power factor at the times of moderate and heavy loads
d) All of these

Ans: (c)

64. The surge impedance of a transmission line differs from its characteristic impedance in
that the surge impedance considers line

a) Inductance to be zero
b) Capacitance to be zero
c) Resistance to be infinite
d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans: (c)

65. Pin insulators are normally used for voltages upto

a) 30 kV
b) 50 kV
c) 70 kV
d) 100 kV

Ans: (a)

66. Transposition of conductors in transmission line system is done when

a) The conductors are not spaced equilaterally
b) The conductors are spaced equilaterally
c) A telephone line runs parallel to power line
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

67. On transmission line, whenever the conductors are dead ended or there is change in the
direction of transmission line, the insulators used are

a) Strain type
b) Suspension type
c) Pin type
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

68. The current by alternate charging and discharging of transmission line due to ac voltage is
called

a) Oscillating voltage
b) Charging current
c) Line current
d) Discharging current

Ans: (b)

69. For high voltage applications, the insulators used are of

a) Suspension type
b) Pin type
c) Strain type
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

70. Ground wire is used in transmission system

a) To give good insulation

b) To avoid overloading
c) To connect a circuit conductor or other device to an earth plate
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

71. sheaths are used in power cable to

a) Prevent moisture from entering the cable

b) Increase the strength of the cable
c) Provide adequate insulation
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

72. Charging current in a transmission line

a) Decreases the line losses

b) Increases the line losses
c) Does not effect the line losses
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

73. The topmost wire in a distribution line is

a) Phase wire
b) Earth wire
c) Neutral wire
d) Any of these

Ans: (b)

74. Surge conductance in power transmission lines is due to leakage over

a) Jumpers
b) Poles
c) Conductors
d) Insulators
Ans: (c)

75. The string efficiency of an insulator can be increased by

a) Reducing the number of strings in the insulator

b) Increasing the number of strings in the insulator
c) Correct grading of insulators of various capacities
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

76. Due to skin effect at high frequencies, the effective value of conductor resistance

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains unaltered
d) May increases or decrease

Ans: (a)

77. Conductors used in high voltage transmission lines are stranded to

a) Increases its tensile strength

b) Increase its conductivity
c) Reduce the cost
d) Make it easy to handle

Ans: (a)

78. If the span of a transmission line is increased by 10%, the sag of line increases by about

a) 7%
b) 21%
c) 14%
d) 28%

Ans: (b)

79. String efficiency is defined as

a) VϜn/VϜ1
b) n VϜ1/VϜn
c) VFn/( nVϜ1)
d) VϜ1/ VϜn

Ans: (c)

where VϜ1 is the flash aver voltage of one unit VϜn is the flash over voltage of string of n-
units.

80. Relative to fair weather, in humid weather corona occurs at

a) Almost the same voltage

b) Higher voltage
c) Lower voltage
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

81. Transmission lines are classified as short, medium and long depending on the

a) Length of line
b) Charging current or on load current
c) Capacitance of line
d) Both (a) and (b) above

Ans: (d)

82. In power transmission line, grounding is generally done at

a) Middle of the line

b) The receiving end
c) The supply end
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

83. A series compensated transmission line has better

a) Reactive capacity
b) Short circuit capacity
c) Steady circuit capacity
d) Transient stability

Ans: (d)

84. Earthing of power transmission line is necessary to provide protection against

a) Electric shock
b) Voltage fluctuation
c) Overload
d) Temperature rise of conductors

Ans: (a)

85. Reactive power can be injected into a transmission line by using

a) Series capacitors
b) Shunt capacitors and reactors
c) Synchronous capacitors
d) Any of these

Ans: (d)

86. As the height of a transmission tower is altered, the parameter which changes is

a) Conductance
b) Capacitance
c) Inductance
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

87. The earthing switch is generally installed on

a) Isolator frame
b) Main board
c) Circuit breaker fame
d) none of these

Ans: (a)

88. In conductor of power transmission line, the voltage gradient is maximum at its

a) Surface
b) Circle with half the radius
c) Centre
d) Somewhere between (b) and (c) above

Ans: (a)

89. Corona is observed on

a) A.c. transmission lines only

b) D.c. transmission lines only
c) Both a.c. and d.c. transmission lines
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

90. EHV cable are filled with thin oil under pressure to

a) Prevent formation of voids

b) Prevent entry of moisture
c) To strengthen the cable conductor
d) To provide insulation

Ans: (a)

91. An advantage of corona on transmission lines is that

a) It minimized power loss

b) It reflects electrical surges
c) It works as a surge modifier during overloads
d) None of these

Ans: (c)
92. cables in power transmission line are provided with intersheaths to

a) Minimize charging current

b) Provide uniform stress distribution
c) Minimize high voltage
d) Minimize stress

Ans: (b)

93. Temperature increase produces which of the following effect on a transmission line?

a) Tension of the conductor and its sag decreases

b) Tension of the conductor and its sag increases
c) Tension of the conductor decreases and its sag increases
d) Tension of the conductor increases and its sag decreases

Ans: (c)

94. Impedance and capacitance of a transmission line depend upon

a) Current in the line alone

b) Voltage in the line alone
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Physical configuration of conductors in space

Ans: (d)

95. Transformer connection at the sending end of a transmission line is usually

a) Star-delta
b) Delta-delta
c) Delta-star
d) Star-star

Ans: (a)

96. High tension cable can be used for power transmission for voltages not exceeding

a) 11 kV
b) 22 kV
c) 33 kV
d) 110 kV

Ans: (c)

97. In short overhead transmission line (upto 80 km), we may neglect

a) Series resistance
b) Shunt conductance
c) Shunt capacitance
d) Both shunt conductance and capacitance

Ans: (d)

98. As the moisture content in the air increases, the disruptive critical voltage

a) Remain constant
b) Decreases
c) Increases
d) May increases or decreases

Ans: (b)

99. If the voltage as well as reactance of a transmission line is double, the maximum steady
state power limit of the line

a) Remains unaltered
b) Doubles
c) Becomes 4 times
d) Becomes 8 times

Ans: (b)

100. The critical voltage of a transmission line may be increased by

a) Increasing the conductor diameter

b) Increasing the air spacing between the conductors
c) Both (a) and (b) above
d) None of these
Ans: (c)

101. Rise of temperature of transmission line

a) Increases the stress and decreases the length

b) Increases the stress and increases the length
c) Decreases the stress and increases the length
d) Decreases the stress and decreases the length

Ans: (c)

102. Bundle conductors are used to reduce the effect of

a) Inductance of the circuit

b) Capacitance of the circuit
c) Corona and power loss due to corona
d) Both (a) and (b) above

Ans: (c)

103. A short transmission line has equivalent circuit consisting of

a) Series resistance R and series inductance L

b) Series resistance R and series capacitance C
c) Series resistance R and series capacitance G
d) Series inductance L and series capacitance G

Ans: (a)

104. Void formation in the dielectric material of an underground cable may be controlled by

a) Using a high permittivity solid dielectric

b) Providing a strong metallic sheath outside the cable
c) Filling oil at high pressure as dielectric
d) None of these

Ans: (c)
105. Proximity effect is due to current flowing in the

a) Earth
b) Sheath
c) Neighbouring conductor
d) All of these

Ans: (c)

106. When the conductors of a 3-phase transmission line are not spaced equilaterally,
transmission is done to

a) Balance the 3 phase of the circuit

b) Minimize the effect of abjoining communication circuit
c) Decreases the line inductance per phase
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

107. Insulation resistance of a cable decreases with

a) Increases in the length of the insulation of cable

b) Decreases in the length of the insulation of cable
c) Increases in electric stress
d) Increases in temperature

Ans: (a)

108. Size of the earth wire is determined by

a) The ampere capacity of the service

b) The voltage of the service wires
c) The atmospheric conditions
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

109. The amount of active power transmitted over a transmission line is proportional to
a) Sending end voltage VS
b) Receiving end voltage VR
c) Torque angle δ between VS and VR
d) Difference voltage (VS - VR)

Ans: (c)

110. As per Indian Standards, the cross-sectional area of the neutral wire in a 3-phase 4 wire
system is

a) One-fourth that of a phase conductor

b) Half that of a phase conductor
c) Equal to that of a phase conductor
d) Twice that of a phase conductor

Ans: (a)

11. The characteristic impedance of a lossless cable is typically

a) 40 to 60 Ω
b) 100 to 120 Ω
c) 400 to 600 Ω
d) 1000 to 1500 Ω

Ans: (a)

112. Compared to the normal impedance, the fault impedance of a circuit is

a) Lower
b) Higher
c) The same
d) May be lower or higher

Ans: (a)

113. Visual corona takes place in parallel wires at a voltage

a) Higher than disruptive critical voltage

b) Higher than Curie voltage
c) Equal to disruptive voltage
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

114.Corona loss is maximum when using

a) ACSR
b) Unstranded wire
c) Stranded wire
d) Transposed wire

Ans: (b)

115. Corona always cause

a) System faults
b) Radio interference
c) Insulation failure
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

116. If fault occurs near an impedance relay, the V I ratio is

a) Constant for all the locations of fault

b) Lower than the value if fault occurs away from the relay
c) Higher than the value if fault occurs away from the relay
d) May be lower or higher than the value if fault occurs away from the relay

Ans: (b)

117. The fault MVA is given by

a) (Base MVA)/(P.U.Xeq)
b) Base MVA × P.U. Xeq
c) (Base MVA)/((P.U.Xeq)2 )
d) None of these
Ans: (a)

Where Xeq is the fault impedance at the point where fault has occurred

118.While calculating the fault current, the reactances of the machines connected to the
power system are taken to be

a) Zero
b) Constant
c) Increases with load
d) Decreases with load

Ans: (b)

119. During rains, the direct capacitance of suspension type insulator

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remain unchanged
d) May increase or decrease

Ans: (b)

120. Guy is attached to a transmission line pole to

a) Reduce the sag

b) Hold the telephone lines
c) Strengthen the pole
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

121. To increases the power transmitting capacity of a transmission line we

a) Increases its line capacitance

b) Increases its line inductance
c) Decreases its line capacitance
d) None of these
Ans: (a)

122. For a power system, to be stable, the phase constant β of its transmission line should be

a) (RL RO)/(RO +RL )

b) (RL -RO)/(RL +RO )
c) (RL +RO)/(RL -RO )
d) (RL RO)/(RO RL )

Ans: (b)

123. For the same voltage boost, the reactive power capacity is more for a

a) Shunt capacitor.
b) Series capacitors.
c) It is same for both series and shunt.
d) None of these.

Ans: (a)

124. The power loss in along transmission line at no load equals

a) 0
b) 1/4 I02 R
c) 1/3 I02 R
d) 1/2 I02 R

Ans: (c)

125. In a transmission line, the shunt conductance results due to

a) Short circuiting of line by the load

b) Leakage over the insulator
c) Radial over the insulator
d) Axial current in the conductor

Ans: (b)

126. Any voltage surge travelling on the transmission line first enters
a) Step down transformer
b) Over voltage relay
c) Switch gear
d) Lightning arrestor

Ans: (d)

127. The sag of a transmission line is affected by

a) Its own weight and weight of the ice formed

b) Temperature and wind condition
c) Both (a) and (b) above
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

128. If the neutral of 3-phase star assembly is ground, then for line currents Ia, Ib and Ic the
current in the neutral wire is

a) 0
b) Ia+Ib+Ic
c) (Ia+Ib+Ic)/2
d) √2(Ia+Ib+Ic)

Ans: (b)

129. Compared to the insulation level of the station equipment, the line insulation is

a) The same
b) Less
c) Greater
d) Not directly related

Ans: (d)

130. For a 400 kV transmission line, the number of standard disc used in practice are

a) 8
b) 12
c) 16
d) 24

Ans: (d)

31. Which of the following system is preferred for good efficiency and high economy
in distribution system?

a) Single phase system

b) 2 phase 3 wire system
c) 3 phase 3 wire system
d) 3 phase 4 wire system

Ans: (c)

132. For a 400 kV transmission line, the switching overvoltage crest in kV is

a) 400
b) 400√2
c) 825
d) 1155

Ans: (d)

133. Breakdown of insulation of a cable can be avoided economically by the use of

a) Insulating material with different dielectric

b) Intersheath
c) Both (a) and (b) above
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

134. Two transmission line each having surge impedance of 75Ω are separated by cable link.
For zero reflection, the surge impedance of the cable should be

a) 0Ω
b) 75Ω
c) 150Ω
d) 300Ω

Ans: (b)

135. For most reliable distribution supply, the configuration used is

a) Radial main
b) Ring main
c) Parabolic main
d) Balancing main

Ans: (b)

136. ACSR is used for transmission of power in preference to copper conductors because

a) It is lighter
b) It is more economical
c) It has higher current carrying capacity
d) It can stand higher surge voltages

Ans: (b)

137. The peak short circuit current equals

a) √2 ac component
b) 1.8 ×√2 ac component
c) √3 ×√2 ac component
d) 2 ×√2 ac component

Ans: (b)

138. Bundled conductors are used to

a) Reduce radio interference

b) Reduce reactance
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (b)
139. Due to skin effect, resistance of the conductor

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) Uncertain

Ans: (b)

140. In a short line

a) Shunting effects are neglected

b) Shunting effects are included
c) May include or neglect
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

141. Considerable power is taken up for charging

a) D.C. transmission
b) A.C. transmission
c) Electron transmission
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

142. Charging current of a line is more at

a) Mid-point
b) Sending end
c) Receiving end
d) One-third of line

Ans: (b)

143. As the transmission voltage increases. Percentage resistance drop

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remain same
d) Increases in random manner

Ans: (a)

144. For bulk power transmission over a long distance, economical method is transmission of

a) Higher voltage
b) Higher current
c) Lower voltage
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

145. The primary parameters of transmission line are

a) Shunt capacitance
b) Series and shunt resistance
c) Series inductance
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

146. Angle between sending and receiving end voltage is called

a) Power angle
b) Torque angle
c) Load angle
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

147. If a long transmission line is very lightly loaded or left open then the receiving end
voltage rises. This effect is called

a) Ferranti effect
b) Raman effect
c) Einstein’s effect
d) Joules effect

Ans: (a)

148. Two terminal networks representing a 3 phase line is called

a) Active network
b) Passive network
c) Either (a) or (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

149. Transposition of power lines is done to

a) Reduce copper losses

b) Prevent short circuit between two lines
c) Prevent interference with telephone lines
d) All of these

Ans: (c)

150. Real part of propagation constant of a transmission line is called

a) Phase constant
b) Gain constant
c) Attenuation constant
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

151. In short lines, regulation and pressure drop are

a) Vectorially equal
b) Equal in phase
c) Numerically equal
d) None of these
Ans: (c)

152. Secondary transmission and distribution system are of

a) Radial structure
b) Ring structure
c) Mesh structure
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

153. For a short line, receiving end voltage is more than sending end for

a) Lagging power for

b) Leading power factor
c) Unity power factor
d) Zero power factor

Ans: (b)

154. Capacitance current of transmission system is usually reckoned in the case of

a) Short line
b) Medium line
c) Long line
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

155. Synchronous machines can be controlled by

a) Terminal voltage and rotor current

b) Rotor current and reactance
c) Terminal voltage and phase angle
d) Terminal voltage and reactance

Ans: (b)

156. In power systems, regulating transformer are used to control

a) Current flow
b) Electrons flow
c) Load flow
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

157. Unit for energy transmission under steady state condition is called

a) Static transmission capacity

b) Static distribution
c) Either (a) or (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

158. Typical load always consumers

a) Active power
b) Reactive power
c) Inverse power
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

159. Characteristic impedance of a telephone line is the order of

a) 50 Ω
b) 75 Ω
c) 60 Ω
d) 100 Ω

Ans: (b)

160. Difference between surge impedance and characteristic impedance is that in surge
impedance

a) Line resistance is considered

b) Line impedance is assumed to be zero
c) Line capacitance is assumed to be zero
d) Line resistance is assumed to be zero

Ans: (a)

161. Increases of temperature in transmission line

a) Decreases stress & increases length

b) Decreases stress & length
c) Increases stress & length
d) Increases stress & decreases length

Ans: (a)

162. Now-a-days copper is replaced by aluminum in line because of

a) Scarcity of copper
b) Heavy weight of copper
c) High cost copper
d) Less conductivity of copper

Ans: (a)

163. Vertical loading in pole results on account of

a) Vibration of conductors
b) Dead weight of the equipment
c) Conductor tension at angles in lines
d) Interference in transmission lines

Ans: (b)

164. Voltage control method used in transmission system is by

a) Tap changing transformers

b) Injection of reactive power
c) Booster transformer
d) All of these
Ans: (d)

165. Concrete pole are used because of their

a) Longer life
b) Less maintenance cost
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

166. Booster transformer is located at

a) Mid point of line

b) Receiving end
c) Sending end
d) Anywhere on the line

Ans: (a)

167. Entire line performance can be determined by

a) Sending end power circle diagram

b) Receiving end power circle diagram
c) Universal power circle diagram
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

168. Shunt conductance in power transmission is due to leakage over

a) Poles
b) Ground
c) Insulator
d) Conductors

Ans: (c)

169. With impurities in copper, conductivity

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Does not affect
d) Uncertain

Ans: (b)

170. Voltage gradient is highest at the

a) Centre of the conductor

b) Surface of the conductor
c) 1/3 of the conductor
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

171. If height of transmission tower is increased, line inductance

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains same
d) Uncertain

Ans: (c)

172. Power loss due to corona in winter is

a) Same as in summer
b) Less than in summer
c) More than in summer
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

173. Corona loss occurs in

a) Transmission lines
b) Distribution transformer
c) Generator
d) Cables

Ans: (b)

174. Corona introduces

a) Harmonic current
b) High current
c) Leading current
d) Lagging current

Ans: (a)

175. Topmost wire in a transmission line carrying distribution line is

a) Phase wire
b) Neutral wire
c) Earth wire
d) All of these

Ans: (c)

176. Corona

a) Minimizes the power losses

b) Works as surge modifier during over voltage
c) Reflects electrical surges
d) All of these

Ans: (b)

177. Power transmission capacity of the transmission line is

a) Proportional to voltage
b) Proportional to square of operating voltage
c) Inversely proportional to voltage
d) Inversely proportional to square of voltage

Ans: (b)
178. Corona loss is more in

a) Naked wires
b) Unstranded wire
c) Stranded wire
d) Equal in all wires

Ans: (b)

179. Spacing of the conductors is determined by

a) Mechanical considerations
b) Electrical considerations
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

180. Transfer reactance of a line is reduced by

a) Series compensation
b) Shunt compensation
c) Mixed series & shunt compensation
d) It can not be compensated

Ans: (a)

81. With 10% increase in span of the line, sag increases by

a) 18%
b) 19%
c) 20%
d) 21%

Ans: (d)

182. Inductance and capacitance of a transmission line depend upon

a) Voltage of the line
b) Volume of the line
c) Current in the line
d) Physical configuration

Ans: (d)

183. As transmission voltage increases, volume of the conductor

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remain same
d) Increases proportionately

Ans: (b)

184. Inductance due to conductor’s own current is called

a) Self inductance
b) Mutual inductance
c) Internal inductance
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

185. Guy is fastened to a pole to

a) Strengthen the pole

b) Hold telephone cables
c) Keep the wires from sagging
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

186. Corona always results in

a) Insulation failure
b) Faults in line
c) Radio interference
d) All of these

Ans: (c)

187. In a d.c. 3 wire transmission system, cross-section of the neutral is generally

a) 1/2 of the outer conductor

b) 1/4 of the outer conductor
c) 1/3 of the outer conductor
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

188. Capacitance of a transmission line is a result of

a) Potential difference between the conductors

b) Current in the conductors
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

189. Transformer at sending end of a line usually

a) Star-star
b) Star-delta
c) Delta-star
d) Delta-delta

Ans: (b)

190. Cross-section area of the neutral wire in a 3phase, 4 wire system is equal to

a) That of phase conductor

b) 1/2 times that of phase conductor
c) 1/4 times that of phase conductor
d) 2 times that of phase conductor

Ans: (c)
191. Critical voltage of the line can be increased by increasing

a) Diameter
b) Spacing
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

192. An infinite bus bar has a surge impedance equal to

a) Zero
b) Infinite
c) Surge impedance of the transmission line connected to it
d) All of these

Ans: (a)

193. Corona power loss can be reduced by

a) Increases the wire diameter

b) Decreases the wire diameter
c) Using insulated wire
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

194. Ground wire is provided in an overhead line to

a) Provided more mechanical strength to the line

b) Provide a return path for all zero sequence currents
c) Work as lightening conductor
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

195. By corona, surge voltage

a) Attenuates
b) Amplifies
c) Has no effect
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

196. Lines above 50 kV uses

a) Pin type insulator

b) Suspension type insulator
c) Strain type insulator
d) Any of these

Ans: (b)

197. For high voltage applications, the insulator used is

a) Suspension type
b) Pin type
c) Strain type
d) All of these

Ans: (a)

198. Insulators are used on overhead line to insulate the wire from

a) The pole
b) Each other
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

199. Insulators are required to withstand

a) Electrical stresses
b) Mechanical stresses
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

200. Insulator disc subjected to maximum stress is

a) Near the conductor

b) Near the cross arm
c) In the middle of string
d) Are experiences equal stress

Ans: (a)

201. In string type insulator, if number of discs are increased the string efficiency

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) Uncertain

Ans: (a)

202. A guard ring is used to

a) Decreases potential across each units

b) Increases potential across each units
c) Make potential across each unit equal
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

203. Number of insulators used for a 230 kV line is

a) 13
b) 14
c) 15
d) 16

Ans: (d)
204. For improving string efficiency, ratio of capacity to each to capacity per insulator should

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remain same
d) Uncertain

Ans: (a)

205. In case of wet suspension type insulator

a) String efficiency is increased

b) String efficiency is decreases
c) Capacitance between units is decreased
d) Capacitance between units is increased

Ans: (d)

206. For greater flexibility, degree of stranding for a cable when compared with overhead
lines should be

a) Lesser
b) Higher
c) Same
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

207. Under ground cable are generally not used for more than a distance of

a) 50 km
b) 75 km
c) 90 km
d) 100 km

Ans: (d)

208. Pressure cable are filled with

a) Oil
b) Nitrogen
c) Air
d) Helium

Ans: (b)

209. In underground cable, maximum stress is at the

a) Surface of the conductor

b) Centre of the conductor
c) Sheath surface of the cable
d) Between sheath and the conductor

Ans: (a)

210. Pressure in pressure cable is approximately

a) 5 to 7 atm
b) 7 to 9 atm
c) 9 to 12 atm
d) 12 to 15 atm

Ans: (d)

211. Cable are sheathed to

a) Protect the insulation

b) Increase the cable capacity
c) Increase the rate of heat dissipation
d) Protect the cable from mechanical stresses

Ans: (a)

212. If inductance calculating method for overhead lines is applied to the underground cable
also, then result will involve an error because of the

a) Sheath effects
b) Skin and proximity effects
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

213. Cables are pulled into a conduit and spliced in a

a) Pole
b) Manhole
c) Feeder pillar
d) All of these

Ans: (b)

214. Formation of volds in the dielectric of a cable is due to effect of

a) Loading cycles in service

b) Extra potential difference
c) Increased pressure
d) All of these

Ans: (a)

215. Capacitance grading of a cable mean that the cable

a) Uses different dielectrics

b) Uses different intersheaths
c) Is classified according to its capacitance
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

216. Sheath loss is a function of

a) (frequency)2
b) Maximum voltage
c) Power factor
d) Corona loss
Ans: (a)

217. In H.S.L. type cable

a) Each case has its own lead sheath

b) Screen is perforated and each core has separate lead sheath
c) Each core is surrounded by a metallised and perforated paper which is kept at
earth potential
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

218. cables should not be operated too hot because

a) Sheath may burst due to oil expansion

b) Decreased viscosity at high temperature cause oil to drain off from the higher
levels
c) Due to unequal expansion the voids may be created
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

219. Cable with varnished cambric insulation has

a) High dielectric strength

b) High mechanical stresses bearing capacity
c) High insulation resistance
d) All of these

Ans: (c)

220. For oil impregnated cables, maximum operating temperature is

a) 10° C
b) 25° C
c) 45° C
d) 65° C
Ans: (d)

221. Induced currents in the sheaths are

a) Induction current
b) Sheath circuit eddy current
c) Sheath eddy current
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

222. Transformers and network protectors used in underground cable system may be

a) Submersible type
b) Non-submersible type
c) Combined (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

223. Grading of cable is done to

a) Increase its conduction efficiency

b) Increase its strength
c) Achieve a uniform stress distribution
d) All of these

Ans: (c)

224. All high voltage cable usually operate at a power factor

a) Large and lagging

b) Small but leading
c) Close to unity
d) Small but lagging

Ans: (b)
225. Underground cable have large charging current which

a) Lags the voltage by 90°

b) Leads the voltage by 90°
c) Is in phase with voltage
d) Is out of phase by 180° with voltage

Ans: (b)

226. Dielectric losses in the insulation in case of cable is negligible in

a) D.C. transmission
b) A.C. transmission
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

227. Test for conductor failure in cable can be done by comparing

a) Resistance of the conductors

b) Capacitance of the insulated conductors
c) Maximum pressure on conductors
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

228. Safe value of current carrying capacity of cables is determined by

a) Maximum voltage
b) Maximum temperature
c) Power factor
d) Maximum pressure

Ans: (b)

229. Outdoor busbars are of

a) Strain type
b) Rigid type
c) Strain or rigid type
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

230. Synchronous motors installed at sub-station give

a) Unity power factor

b) Lagging power factor
c) Leading power factor
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

231. Outdoor sub-station are preferred for voltages above

a) 3.3 kV
b) 11 kV
c) 33 kV
d) 66 kV

Ans: (c)

232. Bus coupler is needed in

a) Main and transfer bus arrangement

b) Double bus breaker arrangement
c) Single bus arrangement
d) All of these

Ans: (a)

33. In d.c. transmission, voltage between feeder and distribution is changed by using

a) Mercury arc rectifiers

b) Rotating machines
c) Generator
d) Transformers
Ans: (b)

234. System which suffers from maximum voltage fluctuations is

a) Ring type
b) Mesh type
c) Radial type
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

235. Low voltage a.c. distribution is

a) 220 V between phases

b) 400 V between phases
c) 3.3 kV between phases
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

236. Light points available in the houses are

a) Voltage source
b) Current source
c) Power source
d) All of these

Ans: (a)

237. Systems getting supply from one end only are

a) Ring type
b) Mesh type
c) Radial type
d) All of these

Ans: (c)

238. By increasing potential of a conductor

a) Its potential gradient increases
b) Insulation required is less
c) Corona loss is reduced
d) Potential between conductor and ground decreases

Ans: (a)

239. Rectification at the ends of E.H.V. d.c. transmission is done by using

a) Shunt generations
b) Power capacitances
c) SCR
d) Motor-generator set

Ans: (c)

240. On a lightly loaded transmission line

a) Receiving end voltage can exceed sending end voltage

b) Receiving end voltage can’s exceed sending end voltage
c) Capacitive charging current is reduced
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

241. For E.H.V. transmission bundled conductors are preferred because

a) Of less cost, line inductance & corona loss

b) They are easy to fabricate
c) Only bundled conductors can withstand high voltages
d) All of these

Ans: (a)

242. E.H.V. cables are filled with oil under pressure of gas because

a) Pressure provides the necessary strength

b) Pressure provides the necessary voltage bearing capacity
c) Pressure will avoid the formation of voids
d) All of these

Ans: (c)

243. Series reactors have

a) Low impedance
b) Low resistance
c) Low reactance
d) High resistance

Ans: (b)

244. EHV system is beyond

a) 11 kV
b) 33 kV
c) 132 kV
d) 200 kV

Ans: (d)

MCQ of D.C generators

page-1
1.The operation of an electric motor or generator is based on

a) The law of electromagnetic induction

b) Interaction between magnetic field and current carrying conductor
c) Interaction between two electric fields
d) Interaction between magnetic field and electric field

Ans: (b)

2. All rotating electric machines are basically

a) D.c. machines
b) A.c. machines
c) Electro-mechanical convertors
d) Machines using electromagnetic induction

Ans: (c)

3. All rotation electrical machines have

a) Rotating armature and fixed field

b) Rotating field and fixed armature
c) Either (a) or (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

4. In any dc generators, the emf generated in the armature is maximum when

a) Flux linkage with conductors is maximum

b) Flux linkage with conductors is minimum
c) Rate of change of flux linkage is maximum
d) Rate of change of flux linkage is minimum

Ans: (c)

5. Under commutation in a dc machine gives rise to

a) Sparking at the trailing edge of the brush

b) Sparking at the leading edge of the brush
c) Sparking at the middle of the brush
d) No sparking at all

Ans: (a)

6. The function of commutation in a dc machine is

a) To provide easy speed control

b) To change ac voltage into dc voltage
c) To change dc voltage into dc voltage
d) To improve commutation

Ans: (b)

7. V×B = e is the equation of the electrical machines which

a) Converts mechanical energy into electrical energy

b) Has magnetic poles
c) Works as a motor
d) Is a dc machine

Ans: (a)

8. All dc machines are characterized by

a) Magnetic poles
b) Electric brushes
c) Armature
d) Commutator

Ans: (d)

9. In a dc generator, if the brushes are given a small amount of forward shift, the effect of
armature reaction is

a) Totally cross-magnetizing
b) Totally magnetizing
c) Totally demagnetizing
d) Partly demagnetizing and partly cross-magnetizing

Ans: (d)

10. Commutation in a dc machine may be improved by

a) Reducing to number of turns in the armature and segments of commutator
b) Increasing the resistance of brushes
c) Neutralizing the reactance voltage by producing a reverse emf in the coil
undergoing commutation
d) All of these

Ans: (d)
11. In the commutation process in a dc machine, which of the following quantity
reverses?

a) Both voltage and current

b) The voltage
c) The current
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

12. A conductor is rotating within a magnetic field. At which of the following positions do
the zero voltages occur?

a) At right angles to the axis of the magnetic field

b) Along the axis of the magnetic field
c) At 45° with the axis of the magnetic field
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

13. Increase in the number of commutator segments of dc machine results in

a) Decrease in the total output power

b) Increase in the total output power
c) Smoothening of the shape of output dc wave
d) Increase in the magnitude of output voltage

Ans: (c)

14. In a dc machine, the laminated parts are the armature core and

a) Pole shoes
b) Yoke
c) Shaft
d) base

Ans: (a)

15. The commutator in dc machine works as

a) mechanical rectifier
b) mechanical inverter
c) energy converter
d) either (a) or (b)

Ans: (a)

16. Which of the following forms an energy converter ?

a) magnetor-striction effect
b) piezo-electric effect
c) hall effect
d) all of these

Ans: (d)

17. Each commutator segment is connected to the armature conductor by means of

a) resistance wire
b) carbon brush
c) insulator
d) copper lug

Ans: (d)

18.Brushes for commutator are made of

a) carbon
b) copper
c) aluminium
d) synthetic rubber

Ans: (a)

19. In a dc generator, brushes are always placed

a) along bisector of GNA and MNA

b) along magnetic neutral axis (MNA)
c) along geometrical neutral axis (GNA)
d) arbitrarily
Ans: (b)

20. In dc generators, brushes remain in contact with the conductors which lie

a) under south pole

b) under north pole
c) arbitrarily
d) in the interpolar region

Ans: (d)

21. In a dc generator, sparking between brushes and commutator surface may be

due to

a) undercommutation
b) overcommutation
c) to rapid reversal of current
d) any of these

Ans: (d)

22. Commutation is possible in dc machines

a) only when the armature is rotating in the field

b) only when the field is rotation in the armature
c) either (a) or (b)
d) none of these

Ans: (a)

23. Which of the following parts helps the commutation process?

a) compensating winding
b) pole shoes
c) interpoles
d) all of these

Ans: (c)
24. Commutation segments in a dc machine are separated by thin layers of

a) paper
b) PVC
c) Synthetic rubber
d) Mica

Ans: (d)

25.Which winding on dc generators is preferred for generating large current?

a) Retrogressive wave winding

b) Progressive wave winding
c) Lap winding
d) All winding give similar results

Ans: (c)

26. Equalizer rings can be used by

a) Both lap and wave wound armatures

b) Lap wound armatures only
c) Wave wound armatures only
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

27. The function of equalizing ring in lap wound dc generator is

a) To increase the efficiency of the machine

b) To avoid short circuit current
c) To neutralize the armature reaction
d) To help get sparklers commutation

Ans: (d)

28.In a ring wound commutator, the brush width equals the width of

a) One commutator segment and two mica insulations

b) One commutator segment and one mica insulation
c) Two commutator segments and two mica insulations
d) Two commutator segments and one mica insulation

Ans: (b)

29. In a dc machine without any brush shift, the shift of the magnetic natural axes due to
armature reaction is

a) In the direction of rotation for the generator and against the direction of rotation
for the motor
b) In the direction of rotation for both the generator and the motor
c) Against in the direction of rotation for both the generator and the motor
d) Against the direction of rotation for the generator and in the direction of rotation
for the motor

Ans: (a)

30. In a dc machine without interpoles, to get improved commutation, the brush shift angle
must be

a) Zero degree
b) Kept constant
c) Varied with change in load
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

31. Equalizer rings in lap wound armatures are used to

a) Get sparking commutation

b) Avoid unequal current distribution at brushes
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) To neutralize the armature reaction

Ans: (c)

32. In a dc generator, sparking at brushes results due to

a) Winding distribution
b) Armature reactance
c) High constant resistance of the brushes
d) Reactance voltage in coil undergoing commutation
Ans: (d)

33. The maximum number of brushes which may be used in an electrical machine is equal to

a) Number of poles in the machine

b) 4
c) 2
d) Either (a) or (c)
Ans: (d)

34. The commutator pitch of a quadruplex lap winding in a dc generator is

a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8

Ans: (c)

35. Commutator of a dc machine acts as a

a) Fullwave rectifier
b) Halfwave rectifier
c) Inverter
d) Controlled rectifier

Ans: (a)

36. Carbon brushes are used in dc machines to

a) Brush off carbon deposits in the commutator

b) Provide a path for flow of current
c) Prevent overheating of armature winding
d) Prevent sparking during commu-tation
Ans: (b)

37. Brushes for commutators for 220 V dc generator are generally made of

a) Copper
b) Carbon copper
c) Electrographite
d) Graphite copper

Ans: (c)

38. In a dc machine commutator, pre-ssure on the brush is usually

a) Less than 1 kg/cm2

b) About 3 kg/cm2
c) About 5 kg/cm2
d) About 10 kg/cm2

Ans: (a)

39. In a dc generator, rapid brush wear may be due to

a) Rough commutator surface

b) Severe sparking
c) Imperfect contact with commutator
d) Any of these

Ans: (d)

40. Generators are often run in parallel because it

a) Keeps stability of supply

b) Gives facility of repair which results in fewer breakdown
c) Gives facility of an additional unit to be installed as and when required
d) All of these

Ans: (d)
41. In case of parallel operation of compound generators, for proper division of load
from no load to full load, it is essential that

a) The regulation of each armature should be the same

b) Their series field resistance should be equal
c) Their ratings should be equal
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

42. Equalizer connections are required when paralleling two

a) Bipolar generators
b) Shunt generators
c) Series generators
d) Compound generators

Ans: (d)

43. An ideal dc generator has regulation of

a) Zero
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 40%

Ans: (a)

44. The load characteristic of a generator is the curve between

a) Load voltage and field current

b) Generated emf and armature current
c) Load current and terminal voltage
d) Load current and voltage drop in armature winding

Ans: (c)

45. The internal characteristic of generator is the curve between

a) Armature current and generated emf
b) Load current and terminal voltage
c) Field current and no-load voltage
d) Armature current and IR drop

Ans: (a)

46. Main reason for break point in the load characteristic of a dc generator is

a) Armature drop
b) Armature reaction
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

47.Stray losses in a dc generator are the same as

a) Mechanical losses
b) Magnetic losses
c) Both (a) and (b) add together
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

48. Standing or constant losses of a dc generator are

a) Field losses of shunt generator

b) Armature losses of a compound generator
c) Stray losses
d) Both (a) and (b) added together

Ans: (d)

49. Out of the following four sources of losses in a dc generator which one is minimum?

a) Copper losses
b) Hysteresis losses
c) Eddy current losses
d) Winding losses

Ans: (d)

50. Overall efficiency of dc generators is usually of the order of

a) 60 to 70%
b) 70 to 80%
c) 80 to 90%
d) 85 to 95%

Ans: (d)

51. DC shunt generator has terminal voltage versus load current characteristic which
is

a) Constant
b) Slightly drooping
c) Slightly rising
d) Highly drooping

Ans: (d)

52. Which of the following type of dc generator gives constant output voltage at all loads ?

a) Shunt generator
b) Series generator
c) Shot shunt compound generator
d) Level compound generator

Ans: (d)

53. The terminal voltage of dc shunt generator drops on load because of

a) Armature reaction
b) Armature resistance
c) Weakening of the field due to armature reaction
d) All of these
Ans: (d)

54. If the load on an over-compounded dc generator is reduced, the terminal voltage

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains unchanged
d) May increase or decrease

Ans: (b)

55. Copper losses in armature of dc generator amount to which of the following percentage of
full load losses ?

a) 5 to 10%
b) 10 to 20%
c) 20 to 30%
d) 30 to 40%

Ans: (d)

56. Armature in a dc machine is made of laminated steel instead of wood because it has

a) Low permeability
b) High permeability
c) More mechanical strength
d) More mechanical strength and high permeability

Ans: (d)

57.In dc machines, armature windings are placed on the rotor because of the necessity for

a) Electromechanical energy conversion

b) Generation of voltage
c) Commutation
d) Development of torque

Ans: (c)
58. In a dc machine, the armature MMF is always directed along the

a) Polar axis
b) Brush axis
c) Interpolar axis
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

59. A dc shunt generator driven at normal speed in the normal direction fails to build up
armature voltage because

a) The resistance of the armature is high

b) There is no residual magnetism
c) The field current is too small
d) None of these
Where ϕ is the flux and N is the speed

Ans: (b)

60. In a dc generator, in armature conductor along MNA

a) Maximum current is produced

b) Maximum emf is produced
c) Minimum emf is product
d) Minimum current is produced

Ans: (c)

61. Armature magnetic field in a dc generator produces which of the following

effect?

a) It demagnetizes or reduces the main flux

b) It cross-magnetizes the main flux
c) It magnetizes or reinforces the main flux
d) Both (a) and (a)

Ans: (d)
62. In a dc generator, the polarity of the interpole is

a) Always N
b) Always S
c) Same as the main pole ahead
d) Same as main pole behind

Ans: (c)

63. In a dc generator, compared to the air gap under field poles, the interpole air gap is made

a) Larger
b) Smaller
c) The same
d) Much smaller

Ans: (a)

64. A dc machine is provided with both interpole winding (IPW) and compensating winding
(CPM). With respect to the armature

a) Both IPW and CPW are in parallel

b) Both IPW and CPW are in series
c) IPW is in series and CPW is in parallel
d) IPW is in parallel and CPW is in series

Ans: (b)

65. The function of using compensating winding in dc machines is to neutral-lize the

a) Armature reaction in the interpole zone

b) Armature reacting in the commu-tating zone
c) Armature reaction under the pole faces
d) Cross-magnetizing armature reaction

Ans: (c)

66. Thy yoke of a dc generator is made of cast iron because

a) It is cheaper
b) It completes the magnetic path
c) It gives mechanical protection to the machine
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

67. The conductors of the compensating winding are housed

a) Entirely in the armature slots

b) Entirely in the slots in the pole faces
c) Partly in armature slots and partly in slots in pole faces
d) Around the pole core

Ans: (b)

68. The armature mmf wave from in a dc machine is

a) Pulsating
b) Rectangular
c) Triangular
d) Sinusoidal

Ans: (c)

69. Two dc shunt generators are operating in parallel. If it is desired to shut down one of the
generators

a) Its main switch is suddenly opened

b) Its field current is gradually reduced
c) The input to its prime move is suddenly reduced to zero
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

70. Residual magnetism is necessary in

a) Self-excited generator
b) Separately excited generator
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

71. If number of poles in a lap wounded generator is increased by a factor 2, then

generated emf will

a) Increase by a factor of 4
b) Remain same
c) Increase by a factor 2
d) Decrease by a factor 2

Ans: (b)

72. Which of the following accounts for smallest part of full load losses?

a) Magnetic losses
b) Mechanical losses
c) Field copper loss
d) Armature copper loss

Ans: (b)

73. Stray losses in a d.c generator are same as

a) Mechanical losses
b) Magnetic losses
c) Winding losses
d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans: (d)

74. In dc generator, the principal reasons for delay in the reversal of current is

a) Reactance voltage
b) The capacitor action with two segment as electrodes and mica as the dielectric
c) The air gap between the brushes and the commutator surface
d) None of these
Ans: (a)

75. The circuit resistance of dc generator is the resistance of

a) Field
b) Brush
c) Armature
d) Compensating pole

Ans: (a)

76. One method of neutralizing the armature reaction in a dc generator is to

a) Shift the brushes in lagging direction of rotation

b) Shift the brushes in leading direction of rotation
c) Interchange the terminals at the brushes
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

77. Efficiency of a d.c. shunt generator is maximum when

a) Stray losses are equal to copper losses

b) Magnetic losses are equal to mechanical losses
c) Armature copper losses are equal to constant losses
d) Field copper losses are equal to constant losses

Ans: (c)

78. Copper loss in armature of d.c. generator accounts for

a) 0 - 10% of full load losses

b) 10 -20% of full load losses
c) 20 – 30% of full load losses
d) 30 – 40 % of full load losses

Ans: (d)

79. Constant losses of a d.c. generator are defined as

a) Stray losses
b) Field losses of shunt generator
c) Armature losses of a compound generator
d) Both (b) and (c)

Ans: (d)

80. Equalizer ring in the lap winding of d.c. generator are used to

a) Avoid overhang
b) Avoid noise
c) Avoid harmonics
d) Avoid unequal distribution of current at brushes

Ans: (d)

81. The critical resistance of a dc generator can be increased by

a) Increasing the field current

b) Increasing its speed
c) Increasing the armature resistance
d) All of these

Ans: (b)

82. A series dc generator does not build up voltage. The reason is

a) Short-circuited terminals
b) Reversed terminal of field winding
c) Reversed terminal of armature winding
d) Disconnected load

Ans: (a)

83. D.C. generator have normally an over-all efficiency of the order of

a) 85 – 95 %
b) 75 – 85 %
c) 65 – 75 %
d) 55 – 65 %

Ans: (a)

84. Difference between interpoles and compensation winding is that

a) Interpoles additionally supply mmf for counter acting the reactance voltage
induced in the coil under going commutalion
b) Action of interpoles is localized
c) Interpoles also helps in equalizing distribution of current in brushes
d) (Both (a) and b)

Ans: (d)

85. Sparking at the brushes in the d.c. generator is due to

a) High resistance of the brushes

b) Reactance voltage
c) Armature reaction
d) Quick reversal of current in the coil

Ans: (b)

86. Armature magnetic field has the effect that it

a) Cross magnetizes it
b) Demagnetizes it
c) Strengthens the main flux
d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans: (d)

87. Generator is called flat compounded if

a) Rated voltage is less than no load voltage

b) Series field AT produces same voltage at rated and no load
c) Series field AT produces rated voltage grated then and no load
d) Series field AT produces rated voltage less than no load
Ans: (b)

88. Commutation process can be improved by

a) Increasing the resistance of the brushes

b) Reducing the number of turns in armature coil
c) Neutralizing reactance voltage
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

89. When two d.c. series generators are running in parallel, equalizer bar is used

a) To increase the series flux

b) Because both will pass equal currents to the load
c) To reduce combined effect of armature reaction of both
d) To increase speed and hence generated emf.

Ans: (b)

90. In d.c. generator, if field winding attains critical resistance then it will

a) Not develop voltage at all

b) Generate maximum power
c) Generate maximum voltage
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

91.For paralleling two d.c. generators, their

a) Polarities must be same

b) Phase sequence must be same
c) Polarities and voltage must be same
d) Both (b) and (c)

Ans: (d)
2.Equalizer rings can be used by

a) Lap wound armature

b) Wave wound armature
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

93. In the commutation process

a) Current is reversed
b) Voltage is reversed
c) Both current and voltage are reversed
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

94. Circuit resistance of the d.c. generator is the resistance of

a) Field
b) Load
c) Brushed
d) Armature

Ans: (a)

95. Function of compensating winding is to neutralize

a) Cross-magnetization effect of armature reaction

b) Demagnetization effect of armature reaction
c) Reactance voltage
d) All of these

Ans: (b)

96. Interpoles in the armature of d.c. generator are used to

a) Neutralize the reactance voltage only
b) Neutralize the reactance voltage and cross-magnetization effect of armature
reaction
c) Neutralize demagnetization effect
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

97. Brushes are always placed along

a) Geometrical neutral axis

b) Magnetic neutral axis
c) Perpendicular to magnetic neutral axis
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

98. Over-compounded generator is used for

a) Long distance transmission

b) Short distance transmission
c) Medium distance transmission
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

99. Circuit resistance of d.c. generator can be increased by

a) Increasing its speed

b) Decreasing its armature resistance
c) Decreasing its speed
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

100. Which generators are in hotels and office building?

a) Under-compounded generators
b) Over-compounded generators
c) Flat-compounded generators
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

101. A series generator, any voltage may not build up because

a) Field winding is reversed

b) Load is connected
c) Very high load is connected
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

102. If a.c. voltage is applied on the field of d.c. generator, then output will be

a) D.c. voltage
b) A.c. voltage
c) No output
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

103. In an over compounded generator, field turns are adjusted such that no load voltage is

a) Equal to the rated load voltage

b) Greater than rated load voltage
c) Less than rated load voltage
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

104. If there is no saturation of flux in the poles of a d.c. generator, then it will

a) Not run
b) Burn due to extraordinarily high potential building up in the armature
c) Not build up any voltage
d) Run under unstable operating conditions.
Ans: (c)

105. Main reason of drop due to armature reaction in a d.c. generator is

a) Armature flux due to armature current

b) Load current
c) Shunt and series field current
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

106. Lap winding in lap wound d.c. generator is provided because it

a) Makes the current distribution at brushes equal to avoid sparks

b) Helps the noiseless operation of the machine
c) Provides a path for the circulation of unbalanced current
d) Provides mechanical strength for the winding of the armature

Ans: (a)

107. Drop in the terminal voltage of a shunt generator under load conditions is due to

a) Armature resistance drop

b) Armature reaction
c) Decrease in field current
d) All of then

Ans: (d)

108. A shunt generator do not build up any voltage at no load because

a) Shunt coil may be connected in reverse direction

b) There is no resistance magnetism in the poles
c) Its shunt field resistance is more than critical resistance
d) Any one of the above

Ans: (d)

109. Generators are often run in parallel because of

a) Greater reliabilty
b) Greater efficiency
c) Meeting more load demands
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

110. External characteristics of a d.c. generator can be obtained by

a) Internal characteristic
b) No load saturation characteristic
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

111. Commutator machines can be of the type of

a) D.C. machines
b) A.C. machines
c) Universal machines
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

112. Which of the following is most suitable for parallel operation?

a) Series generator
b) Shunt generator
c) Compound generator
d) Any one of then

Ans: (b)

113. If two generator are running in parallel and field of one of the generator is weakened too
much, then it will

a) Take a smaller shunt of the total load

b) Run as the motor in the same direction
c) Take a large share of the total load
d) Run in the opposite direction as motor

Ans: (b)

114. Critical resistance is resistance of the field winding of a generator

a) At which it develops maximum voltage

b) At which it supply maximum power
c) Beyond which it can not develop any voltage
d) At which the speed of generator is infinity

Ans: (c)

115. With the increase of the winding of a d.c. generator, terminal voltage will

a) Decrease
b) Increase
c) Remain same
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

Multiple Choice Question

(MCQ) of Induction Motors
page-1
1.At zero in an induction motor

a) Motor runs as a generator

b) Motor does not run
c) The motor runs an at synchronous speed
d) Slip produced is zero

Ans: (b)
2. In an induction motor, rotor slots are usually not quite parallel to the shaft but are given a
slight skew

a) To reduce the magnetic hum

b) To reduce the locking tendency of the rotor
c) Both (a) and (b) above
d) To increase the speed of the motor

Ans: (c)

3. The field of an induction motor rotor rotates relative to the stator at

a) Rotor speed
b) Synchronous speed
c) Slip speed
d) Very low speed

Ans: (b)

4. In an induction motor, rotor runs at a speed

a) Equal to the speed of stator field

b) Lower than the speed of stator field
c) Higher than the speed of stator field
d) Having no relation with the speed of stator field

Ans: (b)

5. Starters are used in induction motor because

a) Its starting torque is high

b) It is run against heavy load
c) It can not run in reverse direction
d) Its starting current is five times or more than its rated current

Ans: (d)

6. When an induction motor runs at rated load and speed, the iron losses are
a) Negligible
b) Very heavy
c) Independent of supply frequency
d) Independent of supply voltage

Ans: (a)

7. By synchronous wattage of an induction motor is meant

a) Stator input in watts

b) Rotor output in watts
c) Rotor input in watts
d) Shaft output in watts

Ans: (c)

8. The emf induced in the rotor of an induction motor is proportional to

a) Voltage applied to stator

b) Relative velocity between flux and rotor conductors
c) Both (a) and (b) above
d) Slip

Ans: (c)

9. The synchronous speed of an induction motor is defined as

a) Natural speed at which a magnetic field rotates

b) The speed of a synchronous motor
c) The speed of an induction motor at no load
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

10. The starting torque of an indication motor is maximum when

a) Rotor resistance equals rotor reactance

b) Rotor resistance is twice the rotor reactance
c) Rotor resistance is half the rotor reactance
d) Rotor resistance is R2 times the rotor reactance

Ans: (a)

Three-phase induction motor is mainly suitable for which of the following

application

a) For running different machine tools where several speeds are required
b) For running paper machine requiring exact speed control
c) For running electric vehicles
d) For running rolling mills needing exact speed control

Ans: (a)

12. Wattmeter reading in no-load test of induction motor gives

a) Copper losses in the stator

b) Friction and winding losses
c) Sum of (a) and (b) above
d) Total losses in the rotor on no load

Ans: (d)

13. The slip frequency of an induction motor is

a) The frequency of rotor currents

b) The frequency of stator currents
c) Difference of the frequencies of the stator and rotor currents
d) Sum of the frequencies of the stator and rotor currents

Ans: (a)

14. The field winding of a three phase synchronous machine is excited by

a) Single-phase ac supply
b) Three- phase ac supply
c) Dc supply
d) Supply obtained from an inverter
Ans: (c)

15. With increase of load, the speed of induction motor operating in the stable region

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Increases and then becomes constant

Ans: (b)

16. When a polyphase induction motor is loaded

a) Increases and its frequency decreases

b) Increases and its frequency increases
c) Decreases and its frequency increases
d) Decreases and its frequency decreases

Ans: (a)

17. In the following motor, external resistance can be added to start the motor

a) Slip ring induction motor

b) Squirrel cage induction motor
c) Salient pole synchronous motor
d) Wound rotor synchronous motor

Ans: (a)

18. If in a 3-phase induction motor, two phases open accidently, the motor will

a) Run at dangerously high speed

b) Stop
c) Continue to run depending on load
d) None of these

Ans: (c)
19. An induction motor is running at its rated torque and rated applied voltage of 440 volts.
The effect of reducing the applied voltage to say 350 volts is

a) That the motor stops

b) Current decreases slightly
c) Speed reduces slightly
d) Motor heats up with passage of time

Ans: (d)

20. A three-phase synchronous machine is a

a) Single excited machine

b) Double excited machine
c) Machine in which three-phase supply is fed to both stator and rotor winding
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

21. The disadvantage of starting an induction motor with a star-delta starter is that

a) The starting torque is one-third of the torque in case of delta connection

b) During starting high losses result
c) The starting torque increases and the motor runs with jerks
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

22. Squirrel cage induction motor has

a) Zero starting torque

b) Very small starting torque
c) Medium starting torque
d) Very high starting torque

Ans: (b)

23. Improvement of the power factor in an induction motor results in

a) Decreased torque
b) Increased torque
c) Increased torque current
d) Increased torque and decreased current due to increased impedance

Ans: (d)

24. The purpose of blades in a squirrel cage induction motor is

a) To reduce the magnetic resistance of the rotor

b) To cool the rotor
c) To reduce the electrical resistance of rotor cage
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

25. Which of the following function is served by the resistance placed in parallel with one
phase of three-phase induction motor?

a) Smooth starting
b) Higher starting torque
c) Higher maximum torque
d) Higher reduced starting torque

Ans: (a)

26. Which of the following is the advantage of double squirrel cage rotor as compared to the
round bar cage rotor?

a) Large slip
b) Lower starting torque
c) Higher power factor
d) Higher efficiency

Ans: (b)

27. The rotor output of an induction motor is 15 kW and the slip is 4%. Then the rotor copper
loss is
a) 600 watts
b) 300 watts
c) 700 watts
d) 1200 watts

Ans: (a)

28. On open circuiting the rotor of a squirrel cage induction motor, the rotor

a) Makes noise
b) Does not run
c) Does not run
d) Runs at dangerously high speed

Ans: (c)

29. Number of different speed that can be obtained from two induction motors in cascade is

a) 6
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2

Ans: (b)

30. The drawback of speed control of a slip ring induction motor with the help of resistance
in the circuit is that

a) It is applicable only to motors having power of more than 100 kW

b) It results in high losses
c) With reduction in speed, the torque decreases significantly
d) The speed can be controlled only very broadly

Ans: (b)

31. Advantage of slip ring induction motor over squirrel cage induction motor is

a) Suitability of high speeds

b) Higher efficiency
c) Higher power factor
d) That it can be started using factor resistance

Ans: (d)

32. In an induction motor, the rotor input is 600 W and slip is 4%. The rotor copper loss is

a) 700 W
b) 625 W
c) 600 W
d) 650 W

Ans: (b)

33. The starting torque of a cage rotor induction motor can be increased by using rotor having

a) Low inductance and low resistance

b) Low inductance and high resistance
c) High inductance and high resistance
d) High inductance and low resistance

Ans: (c)

34. For smooth starting of three-phase squirrel cage induction motor, the starting method
preferred is

a) Rotor resistance
b) Star-delta
c) Auto-transformer
d) Stator resistance

Ans: (c)

35. Large air gap in an induction motor results in

a) Reduced noise
b) Reduced pulsation losses
c) Better cooling
d) Increased overload capacity
Ans: (b)

36. The power factor of star connected induction motor is 0.5. On being connected in delta,
the power factor will?

a) Increase
b) Reduce
c) Remain the same
d) Become zero

Ans: (b)

37. Simplest method of eliminating the harmonic induction torque is

a) Integral slot winding

b) Chording
c) Skewing
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

38. Any odd harmonic in the current of an induction motor will result in magnetic field which

a) Is stationary relative to the field of the fundamental

b) Rotates in forward direction at the harmonic speed
c) Rotates in backward direction
d) Oscillates at harmonic frequency

Ans: (c)

39. The drive generally used for lathe machines are

a) Dc shunt motors
b) Slip ring induction motors
c) Synchronous motors
d) Squirrel cage induction motors

Ans: (d)
40. Cogging of motor implies that motor

a) Refuses to start at load

b) Refuses to start at no load
c) Runs at low speed and then stops
d) Runs at very low speed

Ans: (b)

41. Motor commonly used for traction purpose is

a) Induction motor
b) Dc series motor
c) Dc shunt motor
d) Synchronous motor

Ans: (b)

42. In a double cage induction motor, the inner cage has

a) Low R and low X

b) Low R and high X
c) High R and high X
d) High R and low X

Ans: (b)

43. Maximum power developed in a synchronous motor occurs at a coupling angle of

a) 0°
b) 60°
c) 90°
d) 120°

Ans: (c)

44. The back emf set up in the stator of synchro-nous motor depends on
a) Speed of the rotor
b) Input to prime mover
c) Rotor excitation
d) Coupling angle

Ans: (c)

45. The speed of a three-phase cage-rotor induction motor depends on

a) Number of pole alone

b) Frequency of the supply alone
c) Input voltage
d) Number of poles and frequency of supply

Ans: (d)

46. Synchronous induction motors are mostly used for driving

a) Rotary compressors
b) Cranes
c) Lathe machines
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

47.Dispersion coefficient o is the ratio of

a) Magnetizing current to ideal short circuit current

b) Magnetizing current to supply voltage
c) Open circuit voltage to short circuit current for the same excitation
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

48. The noise and tooth pulsation losses may be reduced by using

a) Large number of open slots in stator

b) Large number of narrow slots in stator
c) small number of open slots in stator
d) Small number of narrow slots in stator

Ans: (b)

49. The faction slip of an induction motor is to ratio

a) Rotor Cu loss/rotor input

b) Rotor Cu loss/rotor output
c) stator Cu loss/stator input
d) Rotor Cu loss/stator Cu loss

Ans: (a)

50. When a 3-phase synchronous motor is switched on, three exists a rotating magnetic field.
The magnitude of this field flux

a) Varies with power factor

b) Varies with load
c) Is constant at all loads
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

51. The complete circuit diagram of a 3-phase induction motor can be drawn with
the help of

a) Block rotor test alone.

b) Running-light and blocked-rotor and stator-resistance tests
c) Both running-light and blocked-rotor tests
d) Running-light test alone

Ans: (b)

52. Which of the following motors is most suitable for best speed control?

a) Dc shunt motor
b) Dc series motor
c) Induction motor
d) Synchronous motor
Ans: (a)

53. A SCIM runs at constant speed only so long as

a) Stator flux remains constant

b) Its torque exactly equals the mechanical load
c) Its supply voltage remains constant
d) Torque developed by it remains constant

Ans: (b)

54. If the frequency of input power to an induction motor increases, the rotor copper loss

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains the same
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

55. The synchronous speed of a linear induction motor does NOT depend on

a) Width of pole pitch

b) Number of poles
c) Supply frequency
d) Any of the above

Ans: (a)

56. The stator frame in an induction motor is used

a) To provide ventilation to the armature

b) To protect the whole machine
c) To hole the armature stampings/stator
d) As a return path for the flux

Ans: (d)

57.If the stator voltage and frequency of an induction motor are reduced proportionately, its
a) Locked rotor current is reduced
b) Torque developed is increased
c) Magnetizing current is decreased
d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans: (d)

58. Motor A has deeper and narrow slots, whereas motor B. It has shallow and wide slots.
Induction motor A, as compared to motor B, has

a) More operating slip

b) Lass starting torque
c) More pull-out torque
d) More starting torque

Ans: (b)

59. If a single phase motor runs hot. The probable cause may be

a) Overload
b) Low voltage
c) High voltage
d) Amu pf the above

Ans: (d)

60. Which of the following single phase motors is relatively free from mechanical and
magnetic vibration?

a) Reluctance motor
b) Hysteresis motor
c) Universal motor
d) Shaded pole motor

Ans: (b)

1. Single phase induction motor can be made self-starting by

a) Adding series combination of capacitor and auxiliary winding in parallel with the
main winding
b) Adding an auxiliary winding in parallel with the main winding
c) Adding an auxiliary winding in series with a capacitor and the main winding
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

62. Which of the following single phase motors does not have constant speed characteristic?

a) Reluctance motor
b) Hysteresis motor
c) Universal motor
d) All of the above

Ans: (c)

63. For the same rating which of the following motors has the highest starting torque?

a) Universal motor
b) Split phase motor
c) Synchronous motor
d) All have identical starting torque

Ans: (a)

64. All single phase motors have

a) Large starting torque

b) Zero starting torque
c) Medium starting torque
d) Very small starting torque

Ans: (b)

65. If a single phase motor fails to start, the probable cause may be

a) Open circuit in auxiliary winding

b) Open circuit in many winding
c) Blown fuses
d) Any of the above

Ans: (d)

66. Single phase motors generally get overheated due to

a) Overloading
b) Short winding
c) Bearing troubles
d) Any of above

Ans: (d)

67. The speed of the split phase induction motor can be reversed by reversing the leads of

a) Auxiliary winding
b) Mani winding
c) Either (a) or (b)
d) Speed can not be reversed

Ans: (c)

68. If a single phase motor runs slow, it may be due to

a) Overload
b) Low frequency
c) Low voltage
d) Any of these

Ans: (d)

69. A capacitor start single phase induction motor will usually have power factor of

a) Units
b) 0.6 leading
c) 0.8 leading
d) 0.6 lagging
Ans: (d)

70. Which of the following single phase motors is cheapest?

a) Capacitor run motor

b) Capacitor start motor
c) Reluctance motor
d) All have almost the same cost

Ans: (b)

MCQ of D.C motor page-1

1.Effect of armature flux on the main flux in a d.c. motor is that

a) It makes distribution of the flux density across both sections unequal

b) It inclines lines of force through the air gap such that they do not remain radial.
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

2. For a series motor, field flux is

a) Proportional to temperature
b) Constant
c) Proportional to armature current
d) Inversely proportional to armature current

Ans:(c)

3. Speed of d.c. series motor at no load is

a) 1500 rpm
b) 3000 rpm
c) Infinity
d) Zero
Ans:(c)

4. Field flux is constant in

a) Compound motor
b) Shunt motor
c) Series motor
d) None of these

Ans:(c)

5. Function of the commutator in a d.c. machine is

a) To change alternating voltage to direct voltage

b) To change a.c. to d.c.
c) To improve commutation
d) For easy speed control

Ans:(a)

6. Dummy coil in a d.c. machine is used to

a) For mechanical balance of armature

b) Eliminate armature reaction
c) Eliminate reactance voltage
d) None of these

Ans:(a)

7. If back e.m.f. suddenly disappears in a d.c. motor

a) Motor will start action as a generator

b) Motor will stop
c) Windings will burn due to high armature current
d) Nothing will happen

Ans:(c)

8. Four point in d.c. motor is used

a) To increase the field current
b) Not to affect the current through hold on coil even if any change in field current
takes place
c) To increase the field current
d) None of these

Ans:(b)

9. Torque-speed characteristic of a series motor is

a) Parabola
b) Rectangular hyperbola
c) Linear
d) None of these

Ans:(b)

10. Direction of rotation of a d.c. series motor can be changed by interchanging

a) Field terminals
b) Voltage terminals
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

Ans:(c)

11. Shunt motor has

a) Low speed at high loads and high speed at low loads

b) Low speed at low loads and high speed at low loads
c) Widely varying speed
d) Constant speed

Ans: (d)

12. If a d.c. motor is connected across a.c. supply, the motor will

a) Run at lower speed

b) Burn
c) Run at normal speed
d) Run continuously but for sparking at brushes

Ans: (b)

13. If field current of a shunt motor is changed, then

a) Torque remains constant but h.p. will change

b) Horse power remains constant but torque will change
c) Both remains constant
d) Both will change

Ans: (b)

14. In series-parallel control method when two d.c. series motors are connected in series,
speed of the set is

a) Half of the speed of the motors

b) Rated speed of any of the motors
c) One-fourth of the speed of the motors
d) Same as in parallel

Ans: (c)

15. The torque produced by a series combination of two d.c. series motor is

a) Half the torque when they are connected in parallel

b) Twice the torque when they are connected in parallel
c) Four times the torque when they are connected in parallel
d) Equal to the torque when they are connected in parallel

Ans: (c)

16. Synchronous reactance is defined as reactance

a) Due to armature reaction and leakage of flux both

b) Due to armature reaction of the machine
c) Due to leakage flux
d) Of synchronous machine
Ans: (a)

17. Armature winding of a series motor is excited

a) Resistively
b) Conductively
c) Inductively
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

18. Speed of a d.c. motor depends upon

a) Field flux
b) Armature resistance
c) Applied voltage
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

19. For most of the application purpose

a) Depends on requirement
b) Compound motor is used
c) Shunt motor is used
d) Series motor is used

Ans: (a)

20. Use of the starter in d.c. motors is necessary because

a) They are not self-starting

b) To light the high initial current by inserting high resistance
c) To overcome back emf
d) None of these

Ans: (b)
21. In the field flux method of speed control

a) Any speed can be attained

b) Speeds above normal speed can be attained
c) Speeds below normal speed can be attained
d) None of these

Ans:(b)

22. Speed of the d.c. motor can be varied by

a) Varying armature resistance

b) Varying supply voltage
c) Either (a) or (b)
d) Varying field current

Ans:(c)

23. Dynamic braking is generally used for

a) Shunt motors
b) Compound motors
c) Series motors
d) All of these

Ans:(d)

24. Stalling current is the maximum value of

a) Load current for which speed is zero

b) Field current for which speed is maximum
c) Load current for which speed is maximum
d) Diverter current for which speed is maximum

Ans:(c)

25. Torque developed in d.c. motor depends on

a) Armature
b) Speed
c) Magnetic field
d) Both (a) and (c)

Ans:(d)

26. As the load is increased, speed of d.c. shunt motor will

a) Increase slightly
b) Reduce slightly
c) Remains constant
d) None of these

Ans:(b)

27. Which method of speed control has minimum efficiency ?

a) Field control method

b) Voltage control method
c) Armature control method
d) None of these

Ans:(c)

28. Field flux of d.c. motor can be controlled to

a) Steady speed
b) Speeds above rated speed
c) Speeds below rated speed
d) Speeds above and below rated speed

Ans:(b)

9. In case of regenerative braking, the motor

a) Dissipates energy in armature circuit

b) Dissipates energy in field circuit
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Supply energy to source

Ans: (d)

30. If plugging is applied to series motor for a long time, then

a) It will start revolving in other direction at low speed

b) Motor will stop
c) Motor will burn
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

31. Disadvantage of the field-control method of speed control is

a) That speed above normal speed can be achieved

b) That commutation becomes unsatisfactory
c) Its low efficiency
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

32. Speed regulation of a d.c. motor can be ideally achieved with

a) A.C. excitation to the field of the motor

b) Variable excitation to the field of the motor
c) constant excitation to the field of the motor
d) no excitation to the field of the motor

Ans: (c)

33. Disadvantage of ward-Leonard system is

a) increased maintenance cost

b) its high initial cost
c) its low efficiency at light loads
d) all of them

Ans: (d)
34. Ward-Leonard method is basically a

a) field diverter method

b) field control method
c) armature resistance control method
d) voltage control method

Ans: (d)

35. In ward-Leonard system, minimum number of machines required are

a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five

Ans: (b)

36. Ward-Leonard method of speed control is basically usefully where usually

a) wide range of sensitive speed control is required

b) wide range of speed control is required
c) narrow range of speed control is required
d) none of these

Ans: (a)

Multiple Choice Question

(MCQ) of D.C. Machines
page-1
1.A shunt motor is fitted with a field regulator for speed control. For constant torque
load, the speed will be minimum when the resistance of the regulator is

a) 0Ω
b) Infinite
c) About 10Ω
d) About 100Ω

Ans: (a)

2. Carbon brushes are used in electric motors to

a) Prevent sparking during commutation

b) Provide a path for flow of current
c) Brush off carbon deposits on the commutator
d) None 0f these

Ans: (b)

3. The resistance of the field regulator of a dc shunt motor is of order of

a) 0.1Ω
b) 1Ω
c) 10Ω
d) 100Ω

Ans: (d)

4. Interpoles in dc motors are used for

a) Increasing the speed of motor

b) Reducing sparking at the commutation
c) Decreasing the counter emf
d) Converting armature current to dc

Ans: (b)

5. The dc compound motors are generally

a) Cumulative compound
b) Differential compound
c) Level compound
d) None of these

Ans: (a)
6. Small dc motors upto 5 HP usually have

a) 2 poles
b) 4 poles
c) 6 poles
d) 8 poles

Ans: (a)

7. The air gap between stator and armature of an electric motor is kept as small as possible

a) To get a stronger magnetic field

b) To improve the air circulation
c) To reach a higher speed of rotation
d) To make the rotation easier

Ans: (a)

8. The resistance of the starter of a 220 v, 5 HP dc shunt motor is of the order of

a) 0.01Ω
b) 0.1Ω
c) 1Ω
d) 10Ω

Ans: (d)

9. In a dc motor, unidirectional torque is produced with the help of

a) Brushes
b) Commutator
c) End plates
d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans: (d)

10. A dc motor can be easily identified by

a) Yoke
b) Size of conductor
c) Commutator
d) Winding

Ans: (c)

11. The back emf of a dc motor

a) Adds to the supply voltage

b) Regulates its armature voltage
c) Helps in energy conversion
d) Usually exceeds the supply voltage

Ans: (c)

12. In dc motor, the rotor is

a) Welded to the shaft

b) Keyed to the shaft
c) Soldered to the shaft
d) Both to the shaft

Ans: (b)

13. In a dc motor, pole shoes are fixed to the magnet core by

a) Set of screws
b) Key
c) Soldering
d) Welding

Ans: (a)

14. In a dc motor, the ratio of back emf to supply emf is an indication of its

a) Efficiency
b) Speed regulation
c) Starting torque
d) Running torque
Ans: (a)

15. The armature of a dc motor is laminated

a) To reduce hysteresis loss

b) To reduce eddy current loss
c) To reduce the cost of core
d) To reduce the mass of the armature

Ans: (b)

16.The value of diverter resistance for a series dc motor is of the order of

a) 0.1Ω
b) 2Ω
c) 20Ω
d) 400Ω

Ans: (a)

17. The mechanical power developed by the armature of a dc motor is equal to

a) power input mainus copper loss

b) armature current multiplied by back emf
c) armature current multiplied by supply emf
d) power input minus mechanical loss

Ans: (b)

18. As the load on a dc shunt motor is increased, its speed

a) Increases proportionately
b) Remains constant
c) Increases slightly
d) Reduces slightly

Ans: (d)

19. A large series motor is never started without some load on it, otherwise
a) It draws very current
b) It develops excessive speed and get damaged
c) There results heavy sparking at the brushes
d) Circuit gets open circuited

Ans: (b)

20. When load is removed, which of the following dc motors will run at excessively high
speed?

a) Shunt motor
b) Series motor
c) Cumulative compound motor
d) Differential compound motor

Ans: (b)

1. Speed of a motor may be varied by varying

a) Field current
b) Applied voltage
c) Resistance in series with armature
d) Any of these

Ans: (d)

22. In a dc motor, maximum power is developed when supply voltage is equal to

a) 1/2 back emf

b) √2 back emf
c) 2 back emf
d) 1/√2 back emf

Ans: (c)

23. The speed of a series wound dc motor

a) Can be controlled by shunt field regulator

b) Can not be controlled by diverter
c) Increases as flux decreases
d) Increases as armature circuit resistance increases

Ans: (c)

24. The speed of a dc motor is

a) Always constant
b) Directly proportional to back emf
c) Directly proportional to flux
d) Inversely proportional to the product of back emf and flux.

Ans: (b)

25. The highest speed attained by a dc shunt motor at rated flux is

a) Infinity
b) Higher than no load speed
c) Equal to the no load speed
d) Lower than the no load speed

Ans: (c)

26. If the applied voltage to a dc shunt motor is halved and the load torque doubled, the
armature current will be

a) Unaltered
b) Zero
c) Doubled
d) Halved

Ans: (c)

27. A dc motor is preferred to an ac motor for the application in

a) Low speed operation

b) High speed operation
c) Variable speed variation
d) Fixed speed operation
Ans: (c)

28. The starting resistance of a dc motor is usually

a) Infinitely large
b) Large
c) About 100Ω
d) Small

Ans: (d)

29. If 220 V dc series motor is connected to a 220 V ac supply, then at will

a) Not run
b) Burn out
c) Run smoothly
d) Run with less efficiency and high sparking

Ans: (d)

30. Which of the following dc motor has approximately constant speed?

a) Series motor
b) Shunt motor
c) Cumulatively compound motor
d) Differentially compound motor

Ans: (b)

31. The back emf of a dc motor depends on

a) Field flux
b) Shape of conductors
c) Type of slip rings
d) Brush material

Ans: (a)
32. The back emf of dc motor depends on

a) Armature speed N
b) Field flux ɸ
c) Number of armature conductors
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

33. The air gap between the stator and armature of a dc motor is kept small in order to

a) Facilitate high speed operation without vibration

b) Produce strong magnetic field
c) Reduce noise
d) Improve cooling

Ans: (b)

34. In a dc machine prominent and noisy blue and green sparks indicate

a) Excessive brush wear

b) Winding fault
c) Worn out insulation
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

35. When the direction of power flow reverses, a differentially compounded motor becomes

a) Differentially compounded generator

b) A shunt generator
c) Cumulatively compounded generator
d) A series generator

Ans: (c)

36. When the direction of power flow reverses, a cumulatively compounded motor becomes

a) A differentially compounded generator

b) A cumulative compounded generator
c) A shunt generator
d) A series generator

Ans: (a)

37. Frog leg winding is

a) Same as simplex winding

b) Same as duplex winding
c) Combined lap and wave windings on a single rotor
d) Duplex wave winding on a single rotor

Ans: (c)

38. In a compound dc motor, the shunt field winding as compared to series winding will have

a) More turns of smaller diameter

b) Less turns of larger diameter
c) More turns of larger diameter
d) Less turns of smaller diameter

Ans: (a)

39. The flux is maximum in following unit of a dc motor

a) Yoke leading end of pole shoe

b) Trailing end of pole shoe
c) Yoke
d) Any of the above

Ans: (c)

40. In dc motor, the amount of flux leakage depends on

a) Length of air gap

b) Shape of the magnet core
c) Flux density used in core and teeth
d) All of these
Ans: (d)

41. In a dc motor, the flux leakage coefficient is typically

a) 0.5 to 0.7
b) 0.8 to 1.0
c) 1.1 to 1.3
d) 1.4 to 1.6

Ans: (c)

42. The direction of rotation of a dc motor can be reversed by reversing the connection to

a) Armature
b) Series field
c) Shunt field
d) Any of the above

Ans: (a)

43. The current flowing in conductors of a dc motor is

a) Ac
b) Dc
c) Ac as well as dc
d) Transient

Ans: (a)

44. The armature reaction in a dc motor is attributed to

a) The effect of magnetic field set up by field current

b) The effect of magnetic field set up by armature current
c) The effect of magnetic field set up by back emf
d) Copper losses in the armature

Ans: (b)
45. When an electric traian is moving down a hill the dc motor acts as

a) Dc series motor
b) Dc shunt motor
c) Dc series generator
d) Dc shunt generator

Ans: (c)

46. If the armature current of a dc motor is increased keeping the field flux constant, then the
developed torque

a) Increases proportionately
b) Decreases in reverse proportion
c) Remains constant
d) Increases proportional to the square root of current

Ans: (a)

47. The armature current drawn by a dc motor is proportional to

a) The speed of the motor

b) Flux required in the moor
c) Torque required
d) Voltage applied to the motor

Ans: (c)

48. In a dc motor if the brushes are given a backward shift, then

a) Commutation improves and speed decreases

b) Commutation is unaffected and speed increases
c) Commutation improves and speed increases
d) Commutation worsens and speed decreases

Ans: (c)

49. A dc shunt motor is driving a constant torque load with rated excitation. If the field
current is reduced to half, then the speed of the motor will become
a) Half
b) Slightly more than half
c) Double
d) Slightly less than double

Ans: (d)

50. The back emf Vb of a dc motor

a) Opposes the applied voltage

b) Assists the applied voltage
c) Does not influence the applied voltage
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

51. All d.c. machines are characterized by

a) Electric brushes
b) Armature
c) Commutator
d) Magnetic poles

Ans: (c)

52. Armature voltage control is suitable if d.c. machine is driven at constant

a) Torque
b) Magnetic field
c) Speed
d) Current

Ans: (a)

53. Current normally used to excite synchronous and d.c. generators is

a) D.C
b) A.C. single phase
c) A.C. two phase
d) A.C. three phase

Ans: (a)

54. In all electric machines, basic action taking place is

a) Motor action
b) Generator action
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) All of these

Ans: (c)

55. In case of a motor

a) Only motor action takes place

b) Motor action precedes generator action
c) Generator action precedes motor action
d) Both take place precedes simultaneously

Ans: (b)

56. All rotating machines are basically

a) D.C. machines
b) A.C. machines
c) Electro-mechanical convertors
d) Heat converters

Ans: (c)

57. All machines have the structure such that

a) Armature is rotating and field is fixed

b) Field is rotating and armature is fixed
c) Either (a) or (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (a)
58. All electrical machines have poles with

a) A hetro-polar structure
b) A horse shoe structure
c) (a) above (b)
d) None of these

Ans: (a)

59. Maximum number of brushes which can be used in a machine is

a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) Number of poles in the machine or 2

Ans: (d)

60. Voltage applied across the shunt motor has to

a) Overcome the back emf

b) Supply armature ohmic drop
c) Supply fied ohmic drop
d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans: (d)

61. If back emf of d.c. motor is doubled while its speed is also doubled, then torque
developed by the machine will

a) Remain same
b) Become four times
c) Double
d) Becomes half

Ans: (a)

62. If field of d.c. shunt motor is opened, then

a) Current in the armature will increase
b) It will run at its normal speed
c) Speed of motor will be reduced
d) Speed of motor will be high

Ans: (d)

63. Which of the following motors has high starting torque?

a) D.C. shunt motor

b) Induction motor
c) D.C. series motor
d) A.C. series motor

Ans: (c)

64. What is the standard direction of a motor?

a) Clockwise
b) Anti-clockwise
c) None of these
d) Either (a) or (b)

Ans: (b)

65. Left hand rule is applicable to

a) Motor
b) Generator
c) Transformer
d) Mercury are rectifier

Ans: (a)

66. A dc shunt motor is driving a mechanical load at rated voltage and rated excitation. If the
load torque becomes double, then the speed of the motor

a) Increases slightly
b) Decreases slightly
c) Becomes double
d) Becomes half

Ans: (b)

67. A dc series motor is running with a diverter connected across its field winding. If the
diverter resistance is increased, then the speed of the motor

a) Decreases/increase
b) Increase
c) Remains unchanged
d) Becomes very high

Ans: (a)

68. A dc series motor is running at rated speed. If a resistance is placed in series, the speed of
the motor

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains unchanged
d) Increases very much

Ans: (b)

69. In a dc shunt motor, field excitation is kept at maximum value during starting to

a) Increase acceleration time

b) Reduce armature heating
c) Prevent voltage dip in the supply mains
d) Decrease starting torque

Ans: (b)

70. If the field circuit of a dc shunt motor running at rated speed gets open circuited, then
immediately thereafter the speed of the motor would tent to

a) Decrease
b) Increase
c) Remain unchanged
d) Increase excessively

Ans: (b)

71. Two dc series motors connected in series are driving the same mechanical load. If
now the motors are connected in parallel, the speed becomes

a) Slightly more than double

b) Slightly less than double
c) Slightly more than half
d) Slightly less than half

Ans: (a)

72. The direction of rotation of a dc series motor can be reversed by interchanging

a) The supply terminals only

b) The field terminals only
c) The supply and the field terminals
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

73. By putting a variable resistance (diverter) across the series field in a dc series motor,
speed above normal can be obtained because

a) Armature current decreases

b) Flux gets reduced
c) Line current gets decreased
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

74. The speed of a dc series motor decreases if the flux in the field winding

a) Remains constant
b) Decreases
c) Increases
d) None of these
Ans: (c)

75. The speed of a series dc motor at no load is

a) Zero
b) Medium
c) High
d) Tending to infinity

Ans: (d)

76. Which of the following dc motors has the least reduction in speed from no load to rated
load?

a) Shunt motor with commutating poles

b) Series motor with commutating poles
c) Series motor without commutating poles
d) Compound motor without commutating poles

Ans: (a)

77. Which of the following statements about a series motor is correct

a) It can run easily without load.

b) It has poor torque.
c) It has an almost constant speed.
d) Its field winding consists of small number of thick wires.

Ans: (d)

78. The output power of any electrical motor is taken from

a) The armature
b) The conductors
c) The coupling mounted on the shaft
d) The poles

Ans: (c)
79. Torque of a motor is

a) Force on N-m acting on the rotor

b) Product of tangential force on the rotor and its radius
c) The electrical power in kW
d) Power given to the load

Ans: (b)

80. In a dc machine dull yellow spark indicates

a) Winding fault
b) Excessive brush wear
c) Excessive noise
d) None of these

Ans: (d)

81. If the back emf of a dc motor suddenly vanishes

a) The motor will run faster

b) The motor will start hunting the efficiency of the motor will increase
c) The motor will start hunting
d) The motor will burn out

Ans: (d)

82. If the supply voltage to a shunt motor is increased by 25%, which of the following will
decrease?

a) Starting torque
b) Full load speed
c) Full load current
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

83. In dc motor, which of the following part can withstand the maximum rise in temperature?
a) Armature winding
b) Field winding
c) Commutator winding
d) Slip rings

Ans: (b)

84. A dc shunt motor has external resistance R1 in the field circuit and resistance R2 in the
armature circuit. The starting armature current for the motor will be minimum when

a) R1 is minimum and R2 is maximum

b) R1 maximum and R2 is minimum
c) Both R1 is minimum and R2 is maximum
d) Both R1 is minimum and R2 is minimum

Ans: (a)

85. Two dc series motor are coupled. One motor runs as generator and the other as motor.
The friction losses of the two machines will be equal when

a) Both operate at same voltage

b) Both have same back emf
c) Both have same speed
d) Both have same excitation

Ans: (c)

86. Two dc series motor are mechanically coupled. One machine runs as motor and the other
as generator. The iron losses of the two machines will be identical when

a) Both have the same excitation

b) Both have the same speed
c) Both have the same back emf
d) Both operate at the same voltage

Ans: (a)

87. The brush voltage drops in dc in / of the order of

a) 2 V
b) 10 V
c) 20 V
d) 40 V

Ans: (a)

88. The armature torque of a dc motor is a function of its

a) Field flux alone

b) Armature current along
c) Speed alone
d) Both field flux and armature current

Ans: (d)

89. The shaft torque of a dc motor is less than its armature torque because of

a)Copper losses
b) Mechanical losses
c) Back emf
d) Rotational losses

Ans: (d)

90. Under constant load condition, the speed of a dc motor is effected by

a) Field flux alone

b) Armature current alone
c) Back emf
d) Both armature current and field flux

Ans: (a)

1. If the load on a dc shunt motor is increased, its speed decreases primarily due to

a) Increase in its flux

b) Decrease in back emf
c) Increase in armature current
d) Decrease in brush drop

Ans: (b)

92. If the load current and flux of a dc motor are held constant and voltage applied across are
held constant and voltage applied across its armature is increased by 10 per cent, its speed
will

a) Decrease by about 10 per cent

b) Remain unchanged
c) Increase by about 10 per cent
d) Increase by 20 per cent

Ans: (c)

93. If the field circuit of a loaded shunt motor s suddenly opened

a) It slow down
b) It would draw extremely high armature current
c) Its speed becomes dangerously high
d) Torque developed by the motor would be reduced to zero

Ans: (c)

94. If the pole flux of a dc motor approaches zero, its speed will

a) Approach zero
b) Approach infinity
c) Not change
d) Approach a stable value between zero and infinity

Ans: (b)

95. The speed of a dc shunt motor is required be more than full load speed. This may be
achieved by

a) Increasing the armature current

b) Decreasing the armature current
c) Increasing the excitation current
d) Reducing the field current
Ans: (d)

96. If the speed of a dc shunt motor increases, the back emf

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains unchanged
d) Fist increases and then decreases

Ans: (a)

97.For a dc motor operating under condition of maximum transfer of power, the efficiency of
the motor is

a) 100%
b) About 90%
c) 75%
d) Less than 50%

Ans: (d)

98. DC motors are considered most suitable for the applications in

a) Fans
b) Water pumps
c) Traction
d) flour mills

Ans: (c)

99. Which of the following dc motors will have least percentage increase in input current for
a given percentage increase in torque?

a) Series motor
b) Shunt motor
c) Separately excited
d) Cumulatively compound motor

Ans: (a)
100. Which dc motor will have highest percentage increase in input current for a given
percentage increase in torque?

a) Series motor
b) Shunt motor
c) Cumulatively compound motor
d) Separately excited motor

Ans: (b)

101. In a dc series motor, the shaft torque is less than the armature torque due to

a) Eddy current losses

b) Stray losses
c) Hysteresis losses
d) Copper losses

Ans: (b)

102. If the load current and flux of dc motor are kept construe while the voltage applied
across the armature is increased by 4 percent, the aped of the motor will

a) Remain unchanged
b) Decrease by 4%
c) Increase by 4%
d) Increase by 16%

Ans: (c)

Multiple Choice Question

(MCQ) of C. Power System
Protection page-1
1.Current copping tendency is minimized by using the F6 gas at relatively

a) High pressure and low velocity.

b) High pressure and high velocity.
c) Low pressure and low velocity.
d) Low pressure and high velocity.

Ans: (c)

2. Order of the lightning discharge current is

a) 10,000 amp
b) 100 amp
c) 1 amp
d) 1 microampere

Ans: (a)

3. For the same rupturing capacity, the actual current to be inter-rupted by an HRC fuse is

a) Much less than any CB.

b) Mush more than any CB.
c) Equal to the CB.
d) None of the above is necessary.

Ans: (a)

4. Arcing on transmission lines is prevented by connecting a suitable

a) Circuit breaker.
b) Protective relay.
c) Inductor in the neutral.
d) Capacitor in the neutral.

Ans: (c)

5. For rural electrification in a country like India with complex network it is preferable to use

a) Air break C.B.

b) Oil C.B.
c) Vacuum C.B.
d) M.O. C.B.
Ans: (c)

6. Shape of the disc of an induction disc relay is

a) Circular
b) Spiral
c) Elliptic

Ans: (b)

7. A Mho relay is a

a) Voltage restrained directional relay.

b) Voltage controlled over current relay.
c) Directional restrained over current relay.
d) Directional restrained over voltage relay.

Ans: (a)

8. Number of pilot wires required for protecting 3-phase transmission lines using translay system of
protection is

a) 6
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2

Ans: (d)

9. Mho relay is normally used for the protection of

a) Long transmission lines.

b) Medium length lines.
c) Short length lines.
d) No length criterion.

Ans: (a)

10. Resistance switching is normally resorted in case of

a) Bulk oil circuit breakers.
b) Minimum oil circuit breakers.
c) Air blast circuit breakers.
d) All types of breakers.

Ans: (c)

11. Stability of arc in vacuum depends upon

a) The contact material only.

b) The contact material and its vapour pressure.
c) The circuit parameters only.
d) The combination of (b) and (c).

Ans: (d)

12. Chances of arc interruption in subsequent current zeros

a) Increases in case of ABCD but decreases in OCB.

b) Decreases in case of ABCD but decreases in OCB.
c) Decreases in both the cases.
d) Increases in both the cases.

Ans: (b)

13. A 3-phase braker is rated at 2000 MVA, 33kV, its making current will be

a) 35 kA
b) 49 kA
c) 70 kA
d) 89 kA

Ans: (d)

14.Per cent bias for a generator protection lies between

a) 5 to 40
b) 40 to 45
c) 45 to 20
d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

15. An overhead line with series compensation is protected using

a) Impedance relay
b) Reactance relay
c) Mho relay
d) None of the above

Ans: (d)

16. Minimum oil circuit breaker has volume of oil because

a) There is insulation between contacts.

b) The oil between the breaker contacts has greater strength.
c) Solid insulation is provided for insulating the contacts from earth.
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

17. Shunt fault is characterized by

a) Increase in current, frequency and p.f.

b) Increases in current reduction in frequency and p.f.
c) Increase in current and frequency but reduction in p.f.
d) None of the above.

Ans: (b)

18. Carrier current protection scheme is normally used for

a) HV transmission lines only.

b) HV cables only.
c) HV transmission and cables.
d) None of the above.

Ans: (a)
19. Where voltages are high and current to be interrupted is low the breaker preferred is

a) Air blast C.B.

b) Oil C.B.
c) Vacuum C.B.
d) Any one of the above.

Ans: (c)

20. To limit current chopping in vacuum circuit breakers, the contact material used has

a) High vapour pressure and low conductivity properties.

b) High vapour pressure and high conductivity properties.
c) Low vapour pressure and high conductivity properties.
d) Low vapour pressure and low conductivity properties.

Ans: (a)

21. If the time of operating of a relay for unity TMS is 10secs., the time of operation
for 0.5 TMS will be

a) 20 secs.
b) 5 secs.
c) 10 secs.
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

22. If the phase angle of the voltage coil of a directional relay is 50° the maximum torque
angle of the relay is

a) 130°
b) 100°
c) 25°
d) None of the above

Ans: (d)

23. A fault is more severe from the view point of RRRV if is a

a) Short line fault.
b) Medium length line fault.
c) Long line fault.
d) None of these.

Ans: (a)

24. A reactance relay is

a) Voltage restrained directional relay.

b) Directional restrained over-current relay.
c) Voltage restrained over-current relay.
d) None of the above.

Ans: (b)

25. For measuring positive, negative and zero sequence voltages in a system, the reference is
taken as

a) Neutral of the system only.

b) Ground only.
c) For zero sequence neutral and for positive and negative the ground.
d) None of the above.

Ans: (d)

26. Positive, negative and zero sequence impedances of a solidly grounded system under
steady state condition always follow the relations

a) Z4>Z2>Z0
b) Z2>Z4>Z0
c) Z0>Z4>Z2
d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

27. Phase comparators in case of static relays and electro-mechanical relays normally are

a) Sine and cosine comparators respectively

b) Cosine and sine comparators respectively.
c) Both are cosine comparators.
d) Both are sing comparators.

Ans: (b)

28. For reducing tower footing resistance it is better to use

a) Chemical and ground rods only.

b) Chemical and counterpoise only.
c) Ground rod and counterpoise only.
d) Chemical, ground rods and counterpoise.

Ans: (c)

29. Rate of rise of restriking voltage depends

a) Type of circuit breaker.

b) Inductance of the system only.
c) Capacitance of the system only.
d) Inductance and capacitance of the system

Ans: (d)

30. Breakdown strength of air at STP is 24 kV/cm. Its breakdown strength at 30°C and 72 cm
of Hg will be

a) 24.25 kV/cm.
b) 20.2 kV/cm.
c) 23 kV.
d) 49.5 kV/cm.

Ans: (d)

31. Capacitor switching is easily done with

a) Air blast circuit breaker.

b) Oil C.B.
c) Vacuum C.B.
d) Any one of the above.
Ans: (c)

32. The normal practice to specify the making current of a circuit breaker is in terms of

a) R.m.s. value
b) Peak value
c) Average value
d) Both r.m.s. and peak value.

Ans: (b)

33. High voltage d.c. testing for HV machines is resorted because

a) Certain conclusions regarding the continuous ageing of an insulation can be

drawn.
b) The stress distribution is a representation of the service condition.
c) Standardization on the magnitude of voltage to be applied is available.
d) The stresses do not damage the coil end insulation.

Ans: (a)

34. For protection of parallel feeders fed from one end the relays required are

a) Non-directional relays at the source end and directional relays at the load end.
b) Non-directional relays at both the ends.
c) Directional relays at the source end and non-directional at the load end.
d) Directional relays at both the ends.

Ans: (a)

35. If the fault current is 2000 amps, the relay setting 50% and the C.T. ratio is 400/5, then
the plug setting multiplier will be

a) 25 amps
b) 45 amps
c) 50 amps
d) None of the above
Ans: (d)

36. For effective use of a counterpoise wire

a) Its leakage resistance should be greater than the surge impedance.

b) Three-phase and two-earth fault relays are required.
c) Two-phase and two-earth fault relays are required.
d) Two-phase and one-earth fault relays are required.

Ans: (b)

37. If the inductance and capacitance of a system are 4 H and 0.04 μF respectively and the
instantaneous value of current interrupted is 40 amps, the value of shunt resistance across the
breaker for critical damping is

a) 400 kΩ
b) 40 kΩ
c) 5 kΩ
d) 4 kΩ

Ans: (c)

38. Chances of are interruption in subsequent current zero

a) Increases in case of OCB.

b) Decreases in case of OCB.
c) Interruption is always at first current zero (in OCB)
d) None of the above.

Ans: (a)

39. For L – L fault, network consists of

a) Positive sequence
b) Zero sequence
c) Negative sequence
d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans: (d)
40. Series reactor should have

a) High sequence
b) High impedance
c) Low resistance
d) Low impedance

Ans: (c)

41. For L – G fault, all networks are in

a) Series
b) Parallel
c) Star
d) Delta

Ans: (a)

42. Negative sequence component of a voltage is equal to

a) Zero sequence component

b) Positive sequence component
c) Complex conjugate of the positive sequence component
d) Complex conjugate of the zero sequence component

Ans: (c)

43. 3ɸ, short circuit current will be

a) Infinity at infinite time

b) Maximum at infinite time
c) Zero at infinite time
d) 10 mA at infinite time

Ans: (c)

44. In a generator, 3ɸ, short circuit current is limited by

a) Transient reactance
b) Synchronous reactance
c) Sub-tranisent reactance
d) All of these

Ans: (b)

45. Reactance used in case of generator is

a) Synchronous reactance
b) Transient reactance
c) Sub-tranisent reactance
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

46. Power system uses

a) Suppression coils
b) Current limiting resistors
c) Compensation reactors
d) All of these

Ans: (d)

47.Surge impedance of 400 W implies

a) Open circuit impedance of 400 Ω

b) Line can be theoretically loaded upto 400 Ω
c) Line can be practically loaded upto 400 Ω
d) Short circuit impedance of 400 Ω

Ans: (b)

48. System frequency and system voltage respectively control

a) Active power, reactive power

b) Active power, active power
c) Reactive power, reactive power
d) Reactive power, active power

Ans: (a)

49. Impedance relays can be used for

a) Phase faults only

b) Earth fault only
c) Both phase and earth faults
d) None of these

Ans: (c)

50. A large-size alternator is protected against overloads by providing

a) Overcurrent relays.
b) Temperature sensitive relays.
c) A combination of (a) and (b).
d) A combination of (b) and (c).

Ans: (b)

51. Most suitable C.B. for short line fault without switching resistor is

a) Air blast C.B.

b) M.O.C.B.
c) SF6 Breaker
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

52. If a combination of HRC fuse and circuit breaker is used, the C.B. operates for

a) Low overload currents.

b) Short circuit current.
c) Under all abnormal current.
d) The combination is never used in practice.

Ans: (a)
Multiple Choice Question
(MCQ) of Power Systems
page-2
22. The string efficiency of the insulator can be increased by

a) Increasing the number of strings in the insulator

b) Increasing ratio, capacity to earth/capacity per insulator
c) Correct grading of the various capacitances
d) Reducing the number of strings

Ans: C

23. The dielectric strength of the air barometric pressure of 76 cm and 25°C is

a) 30 KV per meter
b) 21.1 KV r.m.s. per cm
c) 21.1 KV r.m.s. per cm
d) 21.1 KV per cm

Ans: B

24. In case of parallel wires the visual corona begins

a) At disruptive critical voltage

b) At visual critical voltage which is higher than disruptive critical voltage
c) At lower voltage than disruptive critical voltage
d) None of the above

Ans: B

25. corona helps in avoiding the effect of lightning or surges on the transmission line.

a) true
b) false

Ans: A
26. Corona will not involve energy loss when the transmission is d.c.

a) true
b) false

Ans: B

27. High tension cables can be used upto

a) 22 kV
b) 11 kV
c) 44 kV
d) 33 kV

Ans: D

28. Sheath is used in the cables to

a) Prevent the moisture from entering the cable

b) Provide the strength to the cable
c) Avoid the chances of the rust on the stands
d) Provide proper insulation

Ans: A

29. The extra high-tension cables are usually filled with thin oil under pressure of gas filled
because

a) The pressure of oil or gas will avoid the formation of the voids
b) The pressure will provide the strength to the cable

c) The pressure will enable the cable to withstand the high voltage
d) The gas and oil at high pressure will work as insulator

Ans: A

30. The voltage stress in maximum in the cable

a) At the surface of the sheath

b) At the surface of the conductor
c) At the surface of the insulator
d) At the surface of the armouring

Ans: B

31. The intersheaths in the cables are used

a) To provide the uniform stress distribution

b) To avoid the requirement of the good insulation
c) To minimize the stress
d) To avoid moisture

Ans: A

2. The graded cables used the dielectric of different

a) permittivities
b) permeabilities
c) (a) and (b) both
d) (a) or (b)

Ans: (a)

33. The charging current in the cables

a) Lags the voltage by 90°

b) Leads the voltage by 90°
c) Leads the voltage by 180°
d) Lags the voltage by 45°

Ans: (b)

34. The dielectric losses increase with the increase of temperature

a) true
b) false

Ans: (a)
35. If A, B, C and D are the constants of the medium transmission line, which of the
following relation is correct ?

a) AB – CD = - 1
b) AD + BD = 1
c) BC – AD = - 1
d) AC – BD = 1

Ans: (c)

36. What is the unit of constant D?

a) ohm
b) mho
c) henry
d) none of the above

Ans: (d)

37. While finding out the relation between VS and VR capacitance is neglected in

a) A short transmission line

b) A long transmission line
c) A medium transmission line
d) All the above cases

Ans: (a)

38. The capacitance in the medium transmission line is

a) Lumped
b) Distributed over the entire length of line
c) (a) or (b) depending on the transmission voltage
d) Variable non-linearity over line

Ans: (b)

39. The surge impedance of the underground cable is more than the surge impedance of the
overhead transmission line.
a) true
b) false

Ans: (b)

40. The surge impedance for an underground cable is

a) 60 to 100 ohms
b) 40 to 60 ohms
c) 40 to 600 ohms
d) 30 to 75 ohms

Ans: (b)

41. The surge impedance of the long transmission line is given by

a) Zc = √(L/C)
b) Zc =√(Z/Y)
c) Zc =√(Y/Z)
d) Zc =√(R/Y)

Ans: (b)

42. The surge impedance cannot be determined in the terms of A, B, C and D constants of the
line.

a) true
b) false

Ans: (b)

3. Ferranti effect states that under certain conditions the sending end voltage is

a) Less that receiving end voltage

b) Greater than receiving end voltage
c) Equal to receiving end voltage
d) Abnormally high

Ans: (a)
44. The surge impedance of a line having negligible resistance and no shunt leakage, is pure
resistance, i.e., Zc = √(L/C).

a) true
b) false

Ans: (a)

45. The use of the transformers does not affect the performance of the transmission line.

a) true
b) false

Ans: (b)

46. The entire line performance can be determined by

a) Sending end power circle diagram

b) Receiving end power circle diagram
c) Universal power circle diagram
d) (a) or (c)

Ans: (c)

47. Transducer type regulators are electromechanical voltage regulators.

a) true
b) false

Ans: (b)

48. If the shunt admittance of the transmission line is neglected, the maximum power will
occur when torque angle

a) 45°
b) – 90°
c) 90°
d) 180°

Ans: (c)
49. If the receiving end voltage is assumed same as the sending end voltage, and the
impedance of the line is the resistance of the line. What will be the maximum steady state
power transmitted over the line.

a) (VR2)/Z
b) (VS2)/Z
c) zero
d) very high

Ans: (c)

50. If the reactance of the line is varied and resistance is kept constant, the maximum steady
state power that could be transmitted over the line would be greater when

a) X = R/√3
b) X = 3R
c) X = √3R
d) X = R/3

Ans: (c)

51. The equal area criterion of stability is applicable to

a) Two machine system and infinite busbars

b) One machine system and infinite busbars
c) Multi-machine system only
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

52. if the torque angle δ increases infinitely, the system will show

a) stability
b) instability
c) steady state stability
d) none of the above

Ans: (b)

53. If VS = VR = 33 kV for three phase transmission and reactance is 13 ohms per phase.
What will be the maximum power transmission per phase?
a) 29 MW
b) 28 MW
c) 30 MW
d) 60 MW

Ans: (b)

54. The switching operations will not affect the transient stability of the system.

a) true
b) false

Ans: (b)

55. The size of the feeder is determined primarily by

a) The current it is required to carry

b) The percentage variation of voltage in the feeder
c) The voltage across the feeder
d) The distance over which the transmission is made

Ans: (a)

56. If the voltage is increased n times, the current in the feeder is reduced to (for a given
power delivered )

a) 1/n times of the original

b) 1/n2 times of the original
c) 1/√n times of the original
d) √n times of the original

Ans: (a)

57. In the d.c. three wire transmission system the cross-section of the neutral is generally

a) 1/4 of the outer conductors

b) 1/2 of the outer conductors
c) 1/3 of the outer conductors
d) Equal to the outer conductors
Ans: (b)

58. The radial system of the distribution is better than the ring main system

a) true
b) false

Ans: (b)

59. The metal clad is related to

a) Amplidyne
b) Switchgear system
c) Synchros
d) Relays

Ans: (b)

60. As the transmission voltage increases the percentage resistance drop

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Will not change
d) Will increase in random manner

Ans: (b)

61. As the transmission voltage increases the volume of the conductor

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Will not change
d) Will increase proportionately

Ans: (b)

62. The power transmission capacity of the transmission line is

a) Proportional to the square of the operating voltage
b) Inversely proportional to the voltage
c) Proportional to the voltage
d) Inversely proportional to the square of the voltage

Ans: (a)

63. The overall capital cost of the transmission decreases the voltage of transmission
increases.

a) true
b) false

Ans: (a)

64. Which of the following power plant has the maximum efficiency?

a) Thermal power plant

b) Hydro-electric power plant
c) Atomic Reactor
d) MHD

Ans: (c)

65. The corona loss in the transmission line can be reduced by increasing spacing between the
conductors or the diameter of the conductors.

a) true
b) false

Ans: (a)

66. The bundle conductors are preferred for EHV transmission line because

a) It is easy to fabricate thin conductors and combine them to make a bundle

b) Overall inductance of the line is reduced and corona loss and radio influences are
minimum
c) Height of the tower is reduced and hence cheap transmission
d) Fabrication of the conductor is cheap
e) Of erection difficulties
Ans: (b)

67. EHV d.c. transmission over large distance is cheaper than EHV a.c. transmission

a) true
b) false

Ans: (a)

68. The percentage reactance is defined as

a) The percentage of the ratio of change in reactance in transient condition to the

total reactance of the machine
b) The percentage of the ratio of change in reactance in transient condition of the
total resistance of the machine

c) The percentage of the ratio of voltage drop due to reactance synchronous

machine to the rated voltage when full load rating current is flowing
d) Either (a) and (c)

Ans: (c)
69. If the secondary of the transformer having the reactance of 4% is short circuited with
normal voltage applied to the primary the symmetrical short circuit current will be

a) 4 times of the full load current

b) 25 times of the full load current
c) 2 times of the full load current
d) 8 times of the full load current
e) 40 times of the full load current

Ans: (b)

70. If the base kVA is 25,000 then a 5000 kVA alternator with 8% reactance will have

a) A 4% reactance
b) A 40% reactance
c) A 16% reactance
d) A 20% reactance
Ans: (b)

71. The percentage reactance can be converted into ohmic value which the following
formula

a) Xohms = (X(%) ×100 (kV)2)/kVA

b) Xohms = (X(%) ×1000 (kV)2)/kVA
c) Xohms = (X(%)×(KV)2)/(1000 kVA)
d) Xohms = (X(%)×10(kV)2)/kVA

Ans: (d)

72. When an alternator is short circuited on the three phases, it settles down to the steady
short circuit value and limited by

a) Sub-transient reactance
b) Transient reactance
c) Synchronous reactance
d) Either (a) or (c)

Ans: (c)

73. The short circuit current of an alternator when short circuited on three phases will be

a) Zero as time goes to infinity

b) Maximum when time goes to infinity
c) Infinity when time goes to infinity
d) Small as time goes to infinity but not zero
e) None of the above

Ans: (a)

74. The reactors used to limit the short circuit current in the alternators have very small
resistance in comparison to reactance

a) Because the high resistance will not help to limit the short circuit current
b) To avoid the energy waste
c) Because the high resistance will raise the temperature and insulation of reactor
will be spoiled
d) To improve power factor

Ans: (b)

75. ‘a’ is an operator used to symmetrical component analysis

a) Which rotates the vector, it operates upon, through an angle 90° in the clockwise
direction
b) Which rotates the vector, it operates upon, through an angle 120°, in the counter-
clockwise direction
c) Which rotates the vector, it operates upon, through an angle120°, in the clockwise
direction
d) Which rotates the vector, it operates upon, through an angle 240°, in the
clockwise direction

Ans: (b)

76. Which of the following statement is true?

a) a = 0.5 – j 0.866
b) a = 0.5 + j 0.866
c) a4 = - a
d) a2 = - (1 + a)

Ans: (d)

77. The arc voltage produced in the circuit breaker is always

a) In the phase with the are current

b) Lagging the arc current by 90°
c) Leading the arc current by 90°
d) Leading the are current by 180°

Ans: (a)

78. The fusing factor of the fuse always greater than one.
a) true
b) false

Ans: (a)

79. The material used for fuse must have

a) Low melting point and low specific resistance

b) Low melting point and high specific resistance
c) High melting point and low specific resistance
d) Low melting point with any specific resistance

Ans: (b)

80. The Buchholz relay is used to protect the

a) Alternators against all internal faults

b) Oil immersed transformers against all internal faults
c) Synchronous motors against all internal faults
d) Transmission lines against all short circuit faults

Ans: (b)

The torque produced in induction type relay (shaded pole structure) is

a) Proportional to square of current

b) Proportional to the current
c) Inversely proportional to the square of the current
d) Inversely proportional to the current

Ans: (c)

82. In an impedance relay the torque produced by the current element is balanced against the
torque of a voltage element

a) true
b) false

Ans: (a)
83. If the fault occurs near the impedance relay, the V/I ratio will be

a) Lower than that of if fault occurs away from the relay

b) Higher than that of if the fault occurs away from the relay
c) Constant for all distances
d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

84. Admittance relay is

a) The directional relay

b) The none directional relay
c) The impedance relay
d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

85. The impedance relay can be used for earth faults and phase faults too

a) true
b) false

Ans: (a)

86. A saturable reactor can be used to realize the relay action.

a) true
b) false

Ans: (a)

87. A 132 kV three phase, 50 Hz overhead line is 50 km long and has a capacitance to earth
for each line of 0.0157 microfarad/km. What will be the inductance of the arc suppression
coil suitable for the system.

a) 4 henrys
b) 4.3 henrys
c) 5 henrys
d) 2 henrys
Ans: (b)

88. The earthing transformer is used

a) To avoid the harmonics in the transformers

b) To provide artificial neutral earthing where the neutral points of the three phase
system are not accessible
c) To improve the current capacity of the neutral wire
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

89. The third harmonics current flows from the generator line terminals through the system
and returns by way of comparatively low zero-sequence reactance path to the neutral
terminals will give rise to

a) Overheating of generator only

b) Overheating of generator and neutral resistors of earthing transformer
c) Overheating of earthing transformer only
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

90. The save value current (r.m.s.) which a human body can tolerate for greater than 3
seconds

a) 15 mA
b) 25 mA
c) 5 mA
d) 9 mA

Ans: (d)

91. The effect of shock in the human body will depend on

a) Line voltage
b) Line current
c) Current flowing in the body
d) None of the above
Ans: (c)

92. To protect the power transformer (Y-Y, with neutral earthed) against fault, the current
transformer will have

a) Delta-delta connection
b) Delta-star connection
c) Star-delta connection
d) Star-star connection

Ans: (a)

93. To protect the power transformer (Delta-delta) against fault current transformer will have

a) Delta-delta connection
b) Delta-star connection
c) Star-delta connection
d) Star-star connection

Ans: (d)

94. Which of the following alloy is used for the core of the transformer?

a) Invar
b) Nichrome
c) Elinvar
d) Perminvar

Ans: (d)

95. The requirement of the insulation in the transformer or electrical machines design is
determined by

a) Current
b) Voltage
c) Rate of the change of the current
d) Rate of the change of voltage
e) Power
Ans: (b)

96. The class C insulation can withstand

a) 180° C
b) 150° C
c) 200° C
d) 105° C

Ans: (a)

97. If the star connected circuit is transformed into delta connected circuit, which of the
following statement is true?

a) Ra = R1R2+ R2R3+ R1R3 /R3

b) Ra = R3/R1+ R2
c) Ra = R3/R1 R2 + R2R3+ R1R3
d) Ra = R1 + R2 + R3 /R1 + R2

Ans: (a)

98. The location of the lightning arresters is

a) Near the transformer

b) Away from the transformer
c) Near the circuit breaker
d) Away from the circuit breaker

Ans: (a)

99. The steady-state stability of the power system can be increased by

a) Using machines of high impedance

b) Connecting lines in series
c) Connecting lines in parallel
d) Reducing the excitation of the machines

Ans: (c)
100. With the single frequency transients, the ratio of peak restriking voltage/time between
voltage zero and peak voltage is known as

a) Recovery voltage
b) Restriking voltage
c) Rate of rise restriking voltage
d) Active recovery voltage

Ans: (c)

101. Which of the following power system distribution gives the greater reliability?

a) Radial system of the distribution

b) Ring system of the distribution
c) D.C. three wire system of the distribution
d) A.C. three phase four wire system

Ans: (b)

102. The diversity factor is defined as the

a) (Average demand)/(Maximum demand)

b) (Sum of consumers maximum demand)/(Maximum load on the station)
c) (Maximum demand)/(Sum of consumers maximum demand)
d) (Average demand)/(Maximum load on the station)

Ans: (b)

103. In the transformers

a) High tension winding is used near the core

b) High tension winding is used away from the core
c) Low tension winding is used near the core
d) Low tension winding is used away from the core

Ans: (a)

104. For the system shown below the base, voltage is

a) 11 kV for whole system
b) 132 kV for the whole system
c) 11 kV for generator side and 132 kV for transmission side
d) Cannot be determined from the given data

Ans: (c)

105. The efficiency of the transformer line between

a) 70 to 80%
b) 80 to 90%
c) 90 to 98%
d) none of the above

Ans: (c)

106. For the three phase transformer, which of the following statement is true?

a) True ratio = line voltage ratio

b) True ratio = phase voltage ratio
c) True ratio = √3 phase voltage ratio
d) True ratio = √3 lines voltage ratio

Ans: (a)

107. A distribution transformer usually is a

a) Star-delta transformer
b) Delta-star transformer
c) Star-star transformer
d) Delta-delta transformer

Ans: (b)

108. From a resistance test carried on transformer, it was found that the resistance of primary
and secondary windings are 8 ohms and 16 ohms respectively. The primary will be

a) H.V. side
b) L.V. side
c) Cannot be determined from the test
d) Either of two may be L.V. side

Ans: (b)

109. The effect of series capacity on a transmission line is to improve

a) The steady stability

b) The transient stability
c) (a) and (b) both
d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

110. The power intended to be available even under emergency condition is called

a) Firm power
b) Hot reserve
c) Cold reserve
d) Spinning reserve

Ans: (c)

111. Which of the following generating station has the minimum running cost?

a) Hydro-electric station
b) Nuclear power station
c) Thermal power station
d) Diesel power plant

Ans: (a)

112. Which of the following motors is used for locomotive drive?

a) D.C. shunt motor

b) D.C. series motor
c) A.C. series motor
d) Synchronous motors
Ans: (b)

113. The rating of the circuit breaker used for a system whose has been increased from
10,000 to 20,000 kVA will

a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain constant
d) Remain same but size of the circuit breaker increases

Ans: (a)

114. The inductive interference between power and communication line can be minimized by

a) Increasing the distance between the conductors

b) Transposition of the power line
c) Transposition of the communication line
d) (b) and (c) both

Ans: (d)

115. The two transmission lines of the surge impedance of 600 ohms each is linked by a
cable. What should be the surge impedance of the cable is there were no reflection at the
junction?

a) 300 ohms
b) 30 ohms
c) 600 ohms
d) 60 ohms

Ans: (c)

116. A delta and star capacitances configurations are shown. Find CY in term of CD, so that
the capacitances between any corresponding points in the star circuit

a) CY = 2CL
b) CY = 3CD
c) CY = CD
d) CY = CD/2
Ans: (b)

117. For 11 kV underground system, it is possible to work upon a length of

a) 800 miles
b) 100 miles
c) 400 miles
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

118. The magnetizing inrush current which energisation of a transformer will be

a) Larger than full load current

b) Less than full load current
c) Equal to full load current
d) Approximately equal to load current

Ans: (a)

119. Overfluxing protection is recommended for

a) Generator transformer of the power plant

b) Auto-transformer of the power plant
c) Station transformer of the power plant
d) Distribution transformer

Ans: (a)

120. Harmonic restraint in differential protection for transformer is provided to prevent the
mal-operation caused by

a) Magnetizing inrush current

b) Unmatched VTs
c) Unmatched CTs
d) Demagnetizing flux

Ans: (a)
121. Which of the following statement is true if restricted earth fault protection is
provided to star winding of the generator transformer

a) One CT in each phase and fourth in the neutral are provided and their secondaries
are connected in parallel
b) One CT is provided in the neutral
c) Two CT are provided, one in R-phase and other in Y-phase with a CT in neutral
d) In fact CTs are not required at all the fault current is not very high

Ans: (a)

122. Series capacitors are used to

a) Improve line voltage

b) Compensate for line inductive reactance
c) Compensate for line capacitive reactance
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

123. Air blast circuit breakers for 400 kV power system are design to operate in

a) 5 sec
b) 0.5 sec
c) 0.1 sec
d) 50 millisecond
e) 100 micro-second

Ans: (d)

124. Carrier transfer-trip schemes do not operate faster than carrier blocking schemes

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

125. The auxiliary power supply system in any kind of power station is arranged such that the
power supplies are
a) Redundant only
b) Redundant and independent only
c) Reliable
d) Independent
e) None of the above

Ans: (b)

126. High water level of a boiler drum can damage

a) Boiler tubes only

b) Turbine and steam line
c) Turbine only
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

127. Which of the following statement is true ?

a) The zero sequence reactance of a transformer is approximately equal to negative

sequence reactance.
b) The zero sequence reactance of transformer is approximately equal to positive
sequence reactance.
c) The zero sequence reactance depends on the connection and winding of the
transformer.
d) The zero sequence reactance is large than negative sequence reactance but less
than positive sequence reactance in the transformer.

Ans: (c)

128. The capacity voltage transformer is used

a) Upto 11 kV
b) Upto 33 kV
c) Above 220 kV
d) Above 132 kV
e) Above 110 kV
Ans: (d)

129. The MHO relay inherently a

a) Directional unit
b) None-directional unit
c) None of the above

Ans: (a)

130. The operation time of instantaneous relay is usually

a) Of an order of a few second

b) Without any time delay
c) One second
d) 0.01 second

Ans: (d)

131. For which of the following ratings of the transformer differential protection is
recommended

a) Above 50 kV
b) Equal to and above 5 MVA
c) Equal to and above 20 MVA
d) Either of the above cases

Ans: (b)

132. When the stator neutral of a generator is grounded through a resistor, the stator ground
fault is detected through

a) An under-voltage relay connected across the resistor

b) An over-voltage relay connected across the resistor
c) An over-current relay connected to the current CT
d) Any ground fault relay

Ans: (c)
133. The longitudinal differential relaying system responds in faults between turns of
winding of a transformer.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

134. Over voltage protection is recommended for

a) Steam turbine generators

b) Hydro-electric generators
c) Gas turbine generators
d) All the above
e) None of the above

Ans: (d)

135. Distance relays are generally

a) MHO relays
b) Reactance relays
c) Impedance relays
d) Split-phase relays

Ans: (a)

136. Which of the following relay is preferred for phase fault on short transmission line

a) Reactance relay
b) Impedance relay
c) MHO relay
d) Induction type relay

Ans: (a)

137. In case of multi-terminal line the first zero of the distance relay is set to reach 80 to
90%of the distance from the nearest terminal.
a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

138. The knee-point in the magnetizing characteristics of a CT is a point where 10% increase
in the secondary voltage increases

a) The exciting current by 10%

b) The exciting current by 30%
c) The exciting current by 50%
d) The exciting current by 14.4%
e) The primary voltage by 10%

Ans: (c)

139. Fuses are used where relays and circuit breakers

a) Fail to interrupt heavy short circuit currents

b) Are not economically justified
c) Are not available
d) Require more care and maintenance
e) Take more time to clear the fault

Ans: (b)

140. The impedance relay does not have directional features.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

141. The short circuit in any windings of the transformer is the result of

a) Impulse voltage
b) Insulation failure
c) Mechanical vibration
d) Magnetostriction force
e) Loose connection

Ans: (b)

142. Percentage differential protection in a transformer is recommended to prevent mal-

operation due to

a) External fault currents

b) Internal fault currents
c) Magnetizing currents
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

143. harmonic restraint in differential relay is provided so that the relay operates when
harmonic current in transformer

a) Does not exceed 15% of fundamental

b) Exceed 15% of fundamental
c) Exceed 14.4% of fundamental
d) Exceed 17.3% of fundamental

Ans: (b)

144. The inverse definite mean time relays are used for over-current and earth fault protection
of transformer against

a) External short circuits

b) Internal short circuits
c) Heavy overloads
d) All the above cases

Ans: (b)

145. Which of the following statement is true?

a) Shunt reactors are used for power factors improvement

b) Shunt reactor are used to control the line voltage

c) Shunt reactors are used to reduce the line impedance

d) Shunt reactors are used to eliminate line to ground capacitance

Ans: (a)
146. When a stator neutral of a generator is earthed through a distribution transformer, the
stator earth fault is detected through

a) An over-voltage relay connected across the secondary of the transformer

b) An over-current relay connected across the secondary of the transformer
c) An under-voltage relay connected across the secondary of the transformer
d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

147. Split-phase relaying responds to faults between turns of a transformer.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

148. A single ground fault in the field circuit of a large generator causes damage to the rotor.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

149. Which of the following relays are used for phase fault on long line?

a) Impedance relays
b) Reactance relays
c) MHO relays
d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

150. For a detection of the occurrence of the severe synchronizing power surges

a) Impedance relays are best suited

b) MHO relays best suited
c) Reactance relays are best suited
d) Split-phase relays are best suited

Ans: (b)

151. The protection from negative sequence currents is provided for

a) Transformers
b) Generators
c) Transmission line
d) Motors

Ans: (b)

152. phase comparison relays require voltage transformers.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

153. If high pressure heaters of steam cycle in power plant have high water level, what
precaution shall be taken?

a) Trip the turbine

b) Trip the boiler
c) Trip the boiler feed pump
d) Bypass the heater from waterside and close extraction valve

Ans: (d)

154. Which of the following device shall be used to measure the stator winding temperature
of the generator

a) Thermometer
b) Resistance thermometer
c) Pyrometer
d) Thermocouple
Ans: (b)

155. How many relays will be used to detect inter-phases fault of a three line?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Six

Ans: (b)

156. What will be the value of current I shown in the following circuit?

a) Zero
b) 10 A
c) 100 A d) 1 A
e) None of the above

Ans: (e)

157. If the transmission voltage is increased from 11 kV to 33 kV, then diameter of the
conductor will be

a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Same as for 11 kV system
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

158. Which of the relation is correct if the transmission voltage of a power line is V and
regulation is R?

a) RV = K
b) R/V = K
c) R = KV2
d) R = KV3
e) R = K/V2
where K is constant.

Ans: (e)
159. The characteristic impedance of the power line is the same as surge impedance

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

160. The power line resistance are concerned to

a) Surge impedance
b) Characteristic impedance
c) (a) and (b) both
d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

161. If the height of the transmission tower is decreased, the inductance of the line
will

a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain same
d) Increase exponentially

Ans: (c)

162. If the height of the transmission tower is decreased, the capacitance of the line will

a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain same
d) Decrease exponentially

Ans: (a)
163. AC system has the following disadvantages over DC system

a) Skin effect exists

b) Line regulation is more
c) Charging current exists

Ans: ()

164. The power loss is important for the design of

a) Generator
b) Motor
c) Feeder
d) Transmission line

Ans: (d)

165. The voltage regulation is an important factor for the design of

a) Generator
b) Motor
c) Feeder
d) Transmission line

Ans: (c)

166. The booster transformer is used to increase the voltage at

a) Intermediate points
b) Receiving end of transmission line
c) Sending end of transmission line
d) Any point desired

Ans: (a)

167. Which of the statement is true?

a) The fault current in an impedance relay will be maximum when fault occurs near
the relay.
b) The fault current an impedance relay will be minimum when fault occurs near the
relay.
c) The fault current in an impedance relay will be maximum when fault occurs away
from the relay.
d) The fault current in an impedance relay will be maximum when fault occurs near
the transmitting end.

Ans: (a)

168. The lightning arrester acts as

a) Surge diverter
b) Surge coil
c) Surge absorber
d) Surge reflector

Ans: (a)

169. The air blast circuit-breakers are preferred for intermittent duty.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

170. The under-voltage relay can be used for

a) Busbars
b) Motor
c) Transformers
d) Generator
e) All of them

Ans: (e)

171. The capital cost of the thermal power plant will depend on

a) The size of the plant

b) The fuel cost
c) (a) and (b) both
d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

172. The fixed tariff consists of the interest on the capital cost, depreciation, insurance and
other taxes.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

173. The running cost of the plant comprises cost of fuel, consumable materials and operation
and maintenance cost.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

174. Which of the following plant has highest capital cost?

a) Diesel power plant

b) Thermal power plant
c) Hydro-power plant
d) Nuclear power plant

Ans: (d)

175. The running cost, among conventional power plant, is minimum for hydro-plant.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

176. The hydro-power plant operates at higher load factor than thermal power plant.

a) True
b) False
Ans: (a)

177. Which of the following frequency range is suitable for A.C. network analyser?

a) 400 Hz to 500 Hz
b) 50 Hz to 100 Hz
c) 40 Hz to 50 Hz
d) dc to 50 Hz

Ans: (a)

178. The distance relay basically measures

a) current
b) voltage
c) impedance
d) either of the above

Ans: (c)

179. The relay with inverse time characteristic will operate within

a) 2 secs
b) 5 to 10 secs
c) 5 to 20 secs
d) 20 to 30 secs

Ans: (b)

180. The disruptive critical voltage will

a) Increase if the moisture content in the air increases

b) Decreases if the moisture content in the air decreases
c) Decrease if the moisture content in the air increases
d) Decrease if the moisture content in the air increases

Ans: (c)
1. corona loss in the power lines is more in winter season than the summer season.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

182. The single phasing relays are used for the protection of

a) Single phase motor only

b) Two-phase motors only
c) Two single phase motor running in parallel
d) Three phase motors

Ans: (d)

183. Two protection zone in the electrical transmission system is decided

a) Location of PT
b) Location of CT
c) Relay’s size
d) Relay’s sensitivity

Ans: (b)

184. Which of the following device will receive Voltage Surge first traveling on the
transmission line

a) Step-down transformer
b) Relays
c) Switchgear
d) Lightning arresters

Ans: (d)

185. The fault impedance of the line is

a) Less than the impedance of healthy line

b) More than the impedance of healthy line
c) Equal to the impedance of the healthy line
d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

186. Which of the following parameter can be neglected for a short line?

a) Resistance
b) Inductance
c) Reactance
d) Capacitance

Ans: (d)

187. The stability of a salient pole alternators is better than the stability of a non- salient pole
alternators.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

188. Series reactors should have

a) High resistance
b) Low resistance
c) High impedance
d) Low impedance

Ans: (b)

189. Which of the following frequency variation for power frequency is as per IS?

a) 2.5%
b) 5%
c) ±5%
d) ±2.5%

Ans: (c)

190. Which of the following device will be preferred to control the power system voltage?
a) Transformers
b) Shunt capacitors
c) Series capacitors
d) Electronic amplifiers
e) Synchronous conductors

Ans: (e)

191. The back-up protection is provided with time delay during which main
protection to the power system must operate when fault occurs. If main protection
fails to operate, the back-up protection will operate.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

192. What kind of insulator will be used if the direction of the transmission line is changed?

a) Suspension type of insulators

b) Pin type of insulators
c) Rubber insulators
d) Strain type insulators

Ans: (d)

193. Which of the insulator disc will be exposed to maximum electrical stress?

a) One which is near to the conductor

b) One which is away from the conductor
c) One which is at the bottom of string
d) One which is in the center of string

Ans: (a)

194. If ACSR conductor has specification as 48/7, which of the following explanation is
correct for the conductor?
a) The conductor has 48 strands of steel and 7 strands of aluminum.
b) The conductor has 7 strands of steel and 48 strands of aluminum.
c) The conductor has 48 strands.
d) The conductor has 55 strands.

Ans: (b)

195. The skin effect in the conductor increases the effective value of resistance of the
conductor.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

196. The inductance in the transmission line is caused by the

a) Current flowing in the conductor

b) Current flowing in the other conductor
c) Voltage difference among the conductors
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

197. Which of the parameters can be neglected which calculation the transmission line faults?

a) Reactance
b) Resistance
c) Capacitance
d) Inductance

Ans: (c)

198. Which of the following systems are more prone to faults?

a) Motors
b) Generators
c) Underground cables
d) Overhead lines
e) Transformers
f) Reactors

Ans: (d)

199. The power loss due to corona effect depends on

a) The surface condition of the conductor

b) The material density of the conductor
c) (a) and (b)
d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

200. The dielectric losses of an electrical system are 50 Watts. What will be the dielectric
losses if the voltage of the system is doubled?

a) 50 watts
b) 100 watts
c) 300 watts
d) 200 watts

Ans: (d)

201. The capacitance of the transmission line will be affected if the distance between
conductors and earth is varied.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

202. The inductance of the transmission line will be affected if the distance between
conductors and earth is varied.

a) True
b) false

Ans: (b)
203. The sending end voltage of the transmission line controls the

a) active power
b) reactive power
c) (a) and (b) both
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

204. The frequency of the power system control the

a) Active power
b) Reactive power
c) (a) and (b) both
d) None of them

Ans: (a)

205. Which of the following equipment one will choose to study the stability of A.C. power
system?

a) Energy meter
b) Network analyser
c) Network synthesizer
d) (b) or (c)

Ans: (b)

206. The breaking torque which plugging the machine at zero speed will be

a) Zero
b) High
c) Small
d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

207. The dynamic breaking of the machine offers the highest breaking torque in comparison
to other breaking methods.
a) True
b) False

Ans: (b)

208. The drop in the terminal voltage of the shunt generator on load may be attributed to

a) Increase in armature resistance

b) Drop in field current due to armature reaction
c) Drop in field current due to drop in armature resistance
d) (b) and (c) both

Ans: (d)

209. If the load is not connected to the d.c. series motor then

a) It will not build up the voltage

b) It will build up very high voltage
c) It will have very low speed (d) none of the above

Ans: (a)

211. The power factor of an alternator depends on load.

a) True
b) False

Ans: (a)

212. Which of the following transmission line has refection coefficient as one?

a) Open circuit transmission line

b) Short circuit transmission line
c) Either (a) or (b)
d) Long transmission line

Ans: (a)

213. Which of the following transmission line has the reflection coefficient of minus one?
a) Open circuit transmission line
b) Short circuit transmission line
c) Long transmission line
d) Short transmission line

Ans: (b)

214. Which of the following circuit breaker has high reliability and minimum maintenance?

a) Oil circuit breaker

b) Air blast circuit breakers
c) Vacuum circuit breakers
d) Circuit breaker with SF6 gas

Ans: (d)

215. The insulation resistance of HV circuit breakers should be of the order of

a) 50 ohms to 100 ohms

b) 100 K ohms to 1000 K ohms
c) 10 Mega ohms
d) 50 Mega ohms to 100 Mega ohms
e) 100 Mega ohms and above.

Ans: (e)

216. If the capacitance of the transmission line is increased, the transmitted power will

a) Remain same
b) Increase
c) Decrease
d) Tend to zero at receiving end

Ans: (b)

217. If the inductance of transmission line is decreased, the power transmitted will

a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Will not change
d) Tend to be very high at receiving end

Ans: (a)

218. The installation of a synchronous motor at receiving end of the transmission line will

a) Only improve the p.f. of the line under large loads

b) Keep same voltage at sending and receiving ends
c) Help in transmitting larger power
d) Decrease the inductance of the line
e) (a), (b) and (c) only

Ans: (e)

219. The difference between sending end voltage and receiving end voltage of transmission
line controls

a) Active power
b) Reactive power
c) Frequency
d) None of these

Ans: (b)

220. What will be the reflection coefficient of the wave of load connected to transmission line
if surge impedance of the line is equal to load?

a) Unity
b) Infinity
c) Zero
d) 10

Ans: (c)

21. What will be the reflection coefficient in above question of surge impedance is
half of the load?
a) 2/3
b) 1/3
c) 3
d) 1/6

Ans: (b)

222. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Arc in a circuit breaker is interrupted at maximum current

b) Arc in a circuit breaker is interrupted at zero current
c) Arc in a circuit breaker is interrupted at maximum voltage
d) Arc in a circuit breaker is interrupted at minimum voltage

Ans: (b)

223. The sag of a transmission line with 50 M span is 1 M. What will be the sag if the height
of the transmission line is increased by 20%?

a) 1.2 M
b) 2 M
c) 1.25 M
d) 1 M

Ans: (d)

224. For which of the following increased value of horizontal tension three will be increase of
20% in tension of the line for certain span?

a) 50%
b) 10%
c) 5%
d) 20%

Ans: (d)

225. The method of image cannot be used to find out the

a) Line capacitance
b) Line inductance
c) Line resistance
d) (b) and (c)

Ans: (d)

226. Which of the following insulator will be selected for high voltage application?

a) Strain type
b) Disc type
c) Suspension type
d) Pin type

Ans: (c)

227. The strain type is insulators used when

a) The transmission line is dead ended

b) The direction of transmission line changes
c) The transmission line short
d) (a) and (b)

Ans: (d)

228. The voltage regulation is the main criterion for designing the

a) Transmission line
b) Feeder
c) Motor
d) Generator

Ans: (d)

229. The power loss is very important factor for designing the

a) Feeder
b) Transmission line
c) Motor
d) Generator
Ans: (b)

230. Which of the following method may be used to inject reactive power in the transmission
line?

a) Series capacitor
b) Series capacitors
c) Synchronous capacitors
d) All above

Ans: (d)

ILLUMINATION

MCQ No - 1

Candela is the unit of which?

(A) Wavelength.

(B) Luminous intensity.

(C) Luminous flux.

(D) Frequency.

Answer
B

MCQ No - 2

Candela/metre square is the unit of which quantity?

(A) Illuminance

(B) Luminous flux

(C) Luminance

(D) Luminous Intensity

Answer
C

MCQ No - 3
In illumination technology total lumens emitted by source / total lumens
available after waste of light is equal to
(A) Waste light factor.

(B) Utilization factor.

(C) Beam factor.

(D) Absorption factor.

Answer
A

MCQ No - 4

Illumination can be expressed in

(A) Radians.

(B) Lux.

(C) Lumens.

(D) Candela.

Answer
B

MCQ No - 5

Solid angle is expressed in terms of

(A) Radians / meter

(B) Radians

(C) Steredians

(D) Degree

Answer
C

MCQ No - 6

Which lamp has the best Colour Rendering Index (CRI)?

(A) LED

(B) Fluorescent

(C) Incandescent

(D) High pressure sodium vapour

Answer
C

MCQ No - 7

What is the ratio of illuminance at a point 5m just below a lamp emitting 100
candelas and at a point 5m away from the first point on the same horizontal
plane?
(A) 1:2

(B) 2√2 : 1

(C) 1: 2√2

(D) 2:1

Answer
B

MCQ No - 8

Which lamps can be directly connected to a solar cell?

(A) Incandescent

(B) Metal Halide

(C) Compact Fluorescent

(D) LED

Answer

MCQ No - 9

Which lamp is best suited for lighting an International sports arena?

(A) Incandescent

(B) Metal Halide

(C) Compact Fluorescent

(D) LED

Answer
B

MCQ No - 10

What is the work of a driver in case of an LED?

(A) To convert AC to DC

(B) To convert DC to AC
(C) Both A and B

(D) None of these

Answer
A

No - 11

The range of visual spectrum is

(A) 300nm - 1000nm.

(B) 480nm - 1000nm.

(C) 480nm - 760nm.

(D) 300nm - 760nm.

Answer
C

MCQ No - 12

What will be the number of lamps, each having 300 lumens, required to obtain
an average illuminance of 50 lux on a 4m × 3m rectangular room?
(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 6

Answer
A

MCQ No - 13

A 1000 W bulb fitted with a reflector illuminates an area of 3 m x 3 m with an

average illumination of 450 lux. If the bulb has and efficiency of 9 lumens /
watt the efficiency of the reflector is
(A) 70 %.

(B) 30 %.

(C) 20%

(D) 45 %.

Answer
D

MCQ No - 14

What will be the total flux emitted by a source of 60 candle power?

(A) 754.2 lumens.

(B) 0.001326 lumens.

(C) 60 lumens.

(D) None of these.

Answer
A

MCQ No - 15

From a uniform light source having luminous intensity of 300 candelas, there
exists a plane surface 15 m below. The value of illuminance at a point on the
plane surface where the luminous flux rays are inclined at an angle of 30 to
the surface is
(A) 1.53 lux.

(B) 1.15 lux.

(C) 58.45 Kilo lux.

(D) 17.32 lux.

Answer
B

MCQ No - 16

The solid angle subtended by an area of 2400 cm2 on the surface of a sphere
of diameter 1.2 m is
(A) 3 / 2.

(B) 1 / 3.

(C) 2 / 3.

(D) 2 / 5.

Answer
C

MCQ No - 17
The illumination at a point 5 meters below a lamp is 6 lux. The candle power
of the lamp is
(A) 30

(B) 140

(C) 150

(D) 200

Answer
C

MCQ No - 18

Which among the following lamps has the maximum burning hours?
(A) LED.

(B) Incandescent.

(C) Metal halide.

(D) Compact fluorescent.

Answer
A

MCQ No - 19

A 200 candle power lamp is hung 4 m above the centre of circular area of 5 m
diameter. The illumination at centre of the area is
(A) 13.5 lux.

(B) 12.5 lux.

(C) 17.5 lux.

(D) 18.5 lux.

Answer
B

MCQ No - 20

Luminous efficacy of a typical HPSV lamp is in between

(A) 40 - 70 lm/watt.

(B) 70 - 120 lm/watt.

(C) 120 - 200 lm/watt.

(D) 10 - 40 lm/watt

Answer B
Important Electric Heating Multiple
Choice Questions and Answers
1. In induction heating ........is abnormally high
A. Phase angle
B. Frequency
C. Current
D. Voltage
AnswerB. Frequency
2. For heating element high resistivity material is chosen to
A. Reduce the length of heating element
B. Increase the life of the heating element
C. Reduce the effect of oxidation
D. Producing large amount of heat
AnswerA. Reduce the length of heating element

3. Induction heating takes place in which of the following ?

A. Insulating materials
B. Conducting materials which are magnetic
C. Conducting materials which are non-magnetic
D. Conducting materials which may or may not be magnetic
AnswerD. Conducting materials which may or may not be magnetic
4. In resistance heating highest working temperature is obtained from
heating elements made of
A. Nickel copper
B.. Nichrome
C. Silicon carbide
D. Silver
Answer C. Silicon carbide
5. In the indirect resistance heating method, maximum heat transfer takes
place by
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Any of the above
Answer A. Radiation
6. ...........has the highest value of thermal conductivity
A. Copper
B. Aluminium
C. Brass
D. Steel
Answer A. Copper
7. Which of the following heating methods has maximum power factor ?

A. Arc heating
B. Dielectric heating
C. Induction heating
D. Resistance heating
Answer D. Resistance heating
8. For the transmission of heat from one body to another
A. Temperature of the two bodies must be different
B. Both bodies must be solids
C. Both bodies must be in contact
D.. At least one of the bodies must have some source of heating
Answer A. Temperature of the two bodies must be different

9. Heat transfer by condition will not occur when

A. Bodies are kept in vacuum
B. Bodies are immersed in water
C. Bodies are exposed to thermal radiations
D. Temperatures of the two bodies are identical
Answer D. Temperatures of the two bodies are identical
10. Which of the following methods of heating is not dependent on the
frequency of supply?
A. Induction heating
B. Dielectric heating
C. Electrical resistance heating
D. All of the above ans. C
11. It is desirable to operates the arc furnaces at power factor of
A. Zero
B. 0.707 lagging
C. Unity
D. 0.707 leading
Answer B. 0.707 lagging
12. Induction heating process is based on which of the following
principles ?
A. Thermal ion release principal
B. Nucleate heating principal
C. Resistance heating principal
D. Electromagnetic induction principle
AnswerD. Electromagnetic induction principle
13. Which of the following has the highest value of thermal conductivity ?
A. Water
B. Steam
C. Solid ice
D. Melting ice
AnswerC. Solid ice
14. In an electric press mica is used
A. As an insulator
B. As a device for power sector improvement
C. For dielectric heating
D. For induction heating
AnswerA. As an insulator
15. The temperature inside a furnace is usually measured by which of the
following ?
A. Optical Pyrometer
B. Mercury thermometer
C. Alcohol thermometer
D. Any of the above
Answer A. Optical Pyrometer
16. Hysteresis loss and eddy current loss are used in
A. Induction heating of steel
B. Dielectric heating
C. Induction heating of brass
D. Resistance heating
Answer A. Induction heating of steel
17. Ajax Wyatt furnace he's started when
A. It is filled below core level
B. It is filled above core level
C. It is fully empty
D. None of the above
AnswerB. It is filled above core level
18. In direct arc furnace which of the following has highest value?
A. Current
B. Voltage
C. Power factor
D. All of the above
Answer A. Current
19. Direct arc furnaces have which of the following power factors?
A. Unity
B. Low, lagging
C. Low, leading
D. Any of the above
AnswerB. Low, lagging
20. .......... Is used for heating non-conducting materials
A. Eddy current heating
B. Arc heating
C. Induction heating
D. Dielectric heating ans.D

ILLUMINATION
Q.1 _____ is defined as radiant energy from a hot body which produces the visual
sensation upon the human eye.
1/1
Light

Glare
Luminous flux
none of the above

Q.2 What is the aim of artificial light?

1/1
Supplement the day light
Even to replace day light completely
Both A and B

all of the above

Q.3 The advantages of good lighting system is/are__

1/1
ensures increase in production
Reduces worker’s fatigue
protects worker’s health, eyes and nervous system and accidents
all of the above

Q.4 The light radiations are emitted from within the atom in specific quantity in
succession called ____.
1/1
light quanta
photons
Both A and B

light energy

Q.5 All the electromagnetic waves have same speed of ______ in free space.
1/1
3 x 10^8 meters/sec

3 x 10^10 meters/sec
3 x 10^19 meters/sec
3 x 10^-8 meters/sec
Q.6 who had shown light to form a small portion on the electromagnetic spectrum?
1/1
Hooke’s
Gauss
Maxwell

Galileo

Q.7 Which of the following is correct for the velocity of propagation of the waves?
1/1
V = λ/f
V = λf

V = 1/f
V = f / λ [V = velocity, λ = wavelength, f = frequency]

Q.8 wavelength is expressed in the unit of ____.

1/1
Meter/ sec
Angstrom

m/sec^2
meter

Q.9 One angstrom is equal to _____meters.

1/1
10^12
10^-10

10^10
10^-19

Q.10 Visible spectrum lies in between wavelength of ___.

1/1
4000 A.U to 7000 A.U

5000 A.U to 7000 A.U

3000 A.U to 6000 A.U
4000 A.U to 9000 A.U
Q.11 which of the following has longer wavelength than visible light?
1/1
Ultraviolet
Infra-red radiation

Gama rays
all of the above

Q.12 ____ has shorter wavelength than visible light.

1/1
Infra-red radiation
beta rays
Ultra violet

none of the above

Q.13 Part of ultraviolet radiations can be converted into visible light by ___.
1/1
Incandescent body
Fluorescent substance

Radiating body
any of the above

Q.14 Which of the following is/are natural source of light?

1/1
Moon
stars
Planets
Sun
Q.15 Which of the following is correct according to wavelength?

1/1
Violet, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, Red

Blue, Violet, Yellow, Red, Orange, Green

Green, Yellow, Orange, Red, Violet, Blue
Red, Orange, Yellow, Green, Blue, Violet

Q.16 Luminous flux is defined as the total quantity of ________ from a luminous
body like lamp.
1/1
light energy emitted per second

light energy emitted

light energy falling on the illuminated surface
energy absorb by a luminous body

Q.17 What is the unit of luminous flux?

1/1
Candle power
Lumens

Lux
none of the above

Q.18 _____ is defined as the flux emitted by the source per solid angle.
1/1
Illumination
Luminous flux
Luminous intensity

Lumen

Q.19 Unit of luminous intensity is___

1/1
Lumens
Candela

Candle power
Lux

Q.20 The _____ defined as the amount of luminous flux given out in a space
represented by one unit of solid angle by a source having an intensity of one
candle power in all directions.
1/1
Candle power
plane angle
lumen

solid angle
Q.21 Lumens is equal to _____
1/1
Candle power x solid angle

Candle power per second

solid angle
candle power x plane angle

Q.22 One candle power is equal to __.

1/1
8л lumens
4л lumens

2л lumens
None of the above

Q.23 Candle power of the source is defined as the number of lumens emitted by
that ________in a given direction.
1/1
source per unit plane angle
candle power per unit solid angle
source per unit solid angle

candle power per hour

Q.24 ____ is subtended at a point and is enclosed by two straight lines laying the
same plane.
1/1
Solid angle
Plane angle

Angle at which light is fall on the surface

None of the above

Q.25 Plane angle is expressed in ____.

1/1
Angle in radian or Angle in degree

in mechanical degree
Both A or B
In electrical degree
Q.26 Magnitude of the plane angle is given by____ radians.
1/1
Ѳ = arc/ radians
Ѳ = radius/arc
Ѳ = radians/radius
Ѳ = arc/radius

Q.27 One radian is the angle subtended by an arc of a circle whose length is equal
to the _____ of that circle.
1/1
circumference
radius

diameter
area

Q.28 ___ is the angle generated by the line passing through the point in space and
the periphery of the area.
1/1
Solid angle

Plane angle
Angle of light source mounted
Angle at which light is fall on the surface

Q.29 Solid angle is measured in __.

1/1
Radians
Degree
Steradians

all of the above

Q.30 Magnitude of solid angle is given by__.

1/1
ω = area/ radius
ω = area/ (radius)^2

ω = area/radians
ω = volume / radians
Q.31 when the light is fall upon the surface, the phenomenon is called as ___, the surface
is illuminated.

1/1
illumination
degree of illumination

illuminance

all of the above

Q.32 Illumination is defined as the luminous flux (number of lumens) falling on the _____.

1/1
surface
surface per unit area

surface per unit volume

none f the above

Q.33 Unit of illumination is ___

1/1
lux
meter candle

Both A and B

Candle power

Q.34 One lux is equal to __.

1/1
1 lumen per square meter

1lumens per area

luminous flux per meter

none of the above

Q.35 ______of a light source is the ratio of its mean spherical candle power to its mean
horizontal candle power

1/1
Reflected light
Incident light

Absorption factor

Reduction factor

Q. 36 The ratio of luminous flux to the power input to a lamp is known as___.

1/1
Lamp efficiency
luminous efficiency

Both A and B

light falling on the surface

Q.37 Specific consumption is the ratio of _____ to the source of light to its ______.

1/1
power output, luminous flux
power input, luminous intensity

luminous flux, luminous intensity

power output, luminous intensity

Q.38 Unit of specific consumption is___

1/1
watt per hours
candle power per hours

watt per candle power

none of the above

Q.39 Lamp efficiency is measured in ___.

1/1
Lumens per watt

watt per lumen

lumens per candle power

watt per lux

Q.40 __ is defined as luminous intensity per unit projected area of either a surface is
source light or illuminated surface.

1/1
Brightness
Luminance

illumination

Both A and B

Q.41 The brightness within the field of vision of such a character as to cause discomfort,
interference with vision or eye fatigue is called___.

1/1
Glare
bad lighting

reflected light

all of the above

Q.42 Brightness is measured in __.

1/1
candle per meter
meter per candle

candle per meter square

candle power per unit area

Q.43 Utilization factor or coefficient of utilization is the ratio of __.

1/1
total lumens reaching the working plane to the total lumens given out the lamp

total lumens reaching the working plane to total light absorbed by the surface

total lumens given out by the lamp to the total lumens reaching the working plane

none of the above

Q.44 Utilization factor is ___.

1/1
more than unity
unity

less than unity

any of the above

Q.45 The value of utilization factor for direct lighting is ____ and for indirect lighting is ___.
1/1
0.1 to 0.3, 0.25 to 0.5
0.25 to 0.5, 0.1 to 0.5

0.5 to 0.8, 0.1 to 0.5

0.25 to 0.5, 0.1 to 0.3