IBPS-PO (English Language) Set 22_T1_03

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
words have been given in bold to help you locate them, while answering some of the
questions.

A tourist’s paradise, India is a magnum of diverse geography and cultures, offering

30 World Heritage sites, 25 biogeographical zones and attractive beaches. Tourism in
India accounts for 6.8% of the GDP, and is the third largest foreign exchange earner for
the country with USD 18.13 billion. Neglecting the promotion of tourism is harmful
to the Indian economy. In recent years, there has been an increased realization that the
tourism growth potential can be harnessed as a strategy for Rural Development. With
69% population living in rural India, and almost 6.5 million village units spread across the
country, India plays a vital role in harnessing rural tourism. The geographical diversity
of India makes it a unique spot for harnessing rural tourism which can include tourist
sites like desert, mountains, plains, plateaus, islands and coasts in different regions.
India showcases a variety of cultural patterns having different lifestyles, practices, art
and craft, and festivals. These can be incorporated and in the form of rural
tourism.
Factors such as increasing level of awareness, growing interest in heritage and culture,
and improved accessibility have fueled a move of trends towards rural tourism. This
will not only preserve the culture and heritage of the country, but will also generate
employment in the villages since it can be leveraged to provide skill development in
tourism related job roles such as that of guide, driver, cook, housekeeping and hospitality
to the tourists. Ministry of Tourism specifies that any form of tourism that showcases
the rural life, art, culture and heritage at rural locations, benefits the local community
economically and socially, and enables interaction between the tourists and the locals
can be termed as rural tourism. Rural tourism may include multiple facets such as farm
tourism, cultural tourism, nature tourism, adventure tourism, and eco-tourism. The
country has seen successful rural tourism models in states such as Kerala’s backwater,
Karnataka’s forest, and Tamil Nadu’s temple.

Question 1
What is the importance of tourism for the growth of the Indian economy?

(1) Tourism is crucial for the enhancement of India’s goodwill internationally.

(2) The contribution of travel and tourism to GDP in India is six and eight tenth
percent.
(3) Government earns a major part of its revenue from taxes on the tourism sector.
(4) Tourism is the third largest source of foreign exchange earnings in India.
(5) Both (2) and (4)
 Question 2
Which of the following fall(s) under the definition of rural tourism set by the Ministry of
Tourism?

(1) Tourism should have social and economic advantages for the local community.
(2) Tourism should exhibit heritage in villages, rural life, art, and culture.
(3) Tourism should promote interaction between tourists and the natives.
(4) All of these
(5) Only (1) and (3)

Question 3
In what ways rural areas get benefitted from tourism?

(1) Tourism gives rise to various employment opportunities and conserves culture and
heritage.
(2) Rural areas experience drastic transformation to become attractive enough for trav-
elers
(3) Local cuisines can get promoted through tourism, which in long run helps them in
getting GI tag.
(4) Rural people get opportunity to take their culture to national and international
level
(5) Both (1) and (2)

Question 4
What make(s) rural areas attractive tourist destinations?

(1) The heterogeneity of culture of Indian rural areas attracts tourists

(2) Green environment along with pollution-free fresh air tempts tourists
(3) Diversity in physical features of rural areas of India is a ground for tourism
(4) Hospitality of the rural population provokes tourism in Indian villages
(5) Both (1) and (3)

Question 5
Which of the following statements is Incorrect as per the information given in the pas-
sage?

(1) Adventure tourism is one of the several facets of tourism in India.

(2) Karnataka’s backwater has been a successful rural tourism model in India.
(3) India has 30 world heritage sites and 25 biogeographical zones.
 (4) India’s sixty-nine percent population resides in rural areas
(5) All are correct

Question 6
Which of the following words is a synonym of MOVE given in the passage?

(1) convey
(2) crawl
(3) shift
(4) mutter
(5) None of these

Question 7
Which of the following words is the most suitable for the given blank in the passage?

(1) amplified
(2) leveraged
(3) fortified
(4) invoked
(5) None of these

Question 8
Which of the following words is an antonym of VITAL given in the passage?

(1) retreat
(2) timid
(3) precise
(4) trivial
(5) None of these

Question 9
Which of the following words is a synonym of HARMFUL given in the passage?

(1) detrimental
(2) ameliorate
(3) fugitive
(4) consorted
(5) None of these
In the given question, six sentences are given. You have to rearrange these sentences
to make a contextually meaningful paragraph. After rearranging the given sentences,
answer the questions given below.

(A) Challenging Victorian dogma, Darwin argued that species were not immutable i.e.,
each one specially created by God.
(B) That is all he wrote about the dawning of the single most consequential species on
the planet.
(C) In 1859, Charles Darwin published the most important scientific book that has
been ever written ‘On the Origin of Species’.
(D) Rather life on Earth had evolved through descent from a common ancestor with
modification by means of natural selection.
(E) It revolutionized society’s understanding of the natural world.
(F) But, surprisingly, on Homo sapiens Darwin made only a passing mention, that
“light will be thrown on the origin of man and his history”.

Question 10
Which of the following will be the third statement after rearrangement?

(1) C
(2) B
(3) D
(4) F
(5) A

Question 11
Which of the following will be the fifth statement after rearrangement?

(1) C
(2) B
(3) D
(4) F
(5) A

Question 12
Which of the following will be the first statement after rearrangement?

(1) C
(2) B
 (3) D
(4) F
(5) A

Question 13
Which of the following will be the second statement after rearrangement?

(1) C
(2) B
(3) E
(4) D
(5) A

Question 14
Which of the following will be the only coherent rearrangement of the given sentences?

(1) CDEABF
(2) FDCBAE
(3) ECDBAF
(4) CEADFB
(5) BDCBFE

In each of the following questions, few sentences are given. Choose and mark the sentence
which does not contain any grammatical or contextual error in it. If all the sentences are
grammatically and contextually correct/incorrect, mark the “Option 5” as your answer.

Question 15

(1) An appreciation of beauty can and should involve consideration of virtue and the
improvement of morality character.
(2) Greek scholars and poets were held discussions in the walled recesses of exedrae,
which were often used for rest and contemplation.
(3) High glucose levels disrupt the body’s inflammatory system, leading for a host of
complications, and a number of diseases.
(4) Since the overthrow of the dictator Ferdinand Marcos, in 1986, the Philippines has
been a democracy, if an often dysfunctional one.
(5) All are incorrect
 Question 16

(1) Official days and months to recognize this or that group can seem gratuitous and
ultimately meaningless while we as a society choose to take them seriously.
(2) We argue rashly and adventurously by reason that our discourses have great par-
ticipation in the temerity of chance.
(3) Help is desperately needed to support wildlife rangers, local communities, and law
enforcement personnel to have prevented wildlife crime.
(4) Response to the pandemic has lead to the creation of the most intrusive and stringent
laws of modern times affecting every aspect of our lives.
(5) All are correct

Question 17

(1) Critics have long argued that the expansion of the fair-trade movement across the
European countries have come with significant costs.
(2) Events in the early 1990s mark the end of legislated apartheid, but the social and
economic effects remained deeply entrenched.
(3) Long, floating bridges are extremely sensitive to stormy weather and high winds
which can cause them to destabilise.
(4) Like all functional role concept, truth must be realized, and it may be realized in
different ways in different settings.
(5) All are correct

Question 18

(1) In terms of social cachet and temporal precedence, bicyclists are believed to be
worse off than everyone else.
(2) Funnelling investments through banks that toed the government line allowed polit-
ical considerations to take precedence over risk assessment.
(3) Last year, the government issued every taxpayer a $1200 refund in hopes of restoring
equilibrium to a depressed economy.
(4) The variety of New York’s geography provides not only great beauty but also op-
portunities for recreation.
(5) All are correct

Question 19

(1) In Descartes’ system, it would appear that laws of physics are necessary or that
eternal truths are necessary as well.
 (2) Travellers often complain that it isn’t fair to be charged more for a hotel room
during the summer from in the winter.
(3) Email exchanges can often escalate or fizzle out, whereas face-to-face meetings often
cut by some of the adversarial email responses sometimes generated by differences
in culture and approach.
(4) In an ideal society, a free people will be governed by a law that is not arbitrary, but
rather corresponds to what is fit, and is able to be apprehended by reason.
(5) All are correct

In each of the following questions, four words have been highlighted, which may or may
not be in their correct positions. Choose the rearrangement order of these highlighted
words from the given options so that it gives a coherent sentence.

Question 20
The business representative (A) is your custom-made letter (B) speaking for you and
is a permanent (C) record of your message (D).

(1) ADBC
(2) BDAC
(3) BACD
(4) CADB
(5) No rearrangement needed

Question 21
Although applications (A) of artificial intelligence (AI) and machine learning (ML)
by adoption (B) is still in the early days, the technology has matured enough for en-
trepreneurs to start gathering (C) information and evaluating opportunities for potential
enterprises (D).

(1) ABCD
(2) BDCA
(3) ADBC
(4) BACD
(5) No rearrangement needed

Question 22
There are more problems (A) today for opportunities (B) to focus on solving vertical
solutions (C) than creating horizontal entrepreneurs (D).

(1) ADCB
 (2) CDAB
(3) BDAC
(4) BCAD
(5) No rearrangement needed

In each of the following questions, four words have been highlighted, which may or may
not be in their correct positions. Choose the interchange needed between them to make a
grammatically correct and meaningful sentence.

Question 23
My art project (A) required me to assemble (B) a clippings (C) of magazine col-
lection (D).

(1) Only (A)-(B)

(2) Only (C)-(D)
(3) Both (A)-(C) and (B)-(D)
(4) Both (A)-(D) and (B)-(C)
(5) No replacement needed

Question 24
You will never be able to find a better (A) company than a dog, as a dog will always
loyal (B) by you and be stand (C) to you if you treat (D) him right.

(1) Only (A)-(C)

(2) Only (B)-(C)
(3) Both (A)-(B) and (C)-(D)
(4) Both (A)-(D) and (B)-(C)
(5) No replacement needed

Question 25
The playground was jumped (A) with equipment (B) as fifty students filled (C) and
climbed all over the mayhem (D)

(1) Only (A)-(C)

(2) Only (B)-(C)
(3) Both (A)-(C) and (B)-(D)
(4) Both (A)-(D) and (B)-(C)
(5) No replacement needed
Each question below has one blank, which is indicating that something has been omit-
ted. Find out which option can be used to fill up the blank in the sentence to make it
grammatically as well as contextually correct.

Question 26
The losing team made a but futile effort to catch up to their opponent.

(1) illustrious
(2) valiant
(3) refrained
(4) reached
(5) redundant

Question 27
My grandmother has extremely health so she sees her doctor once a week.

(1) cripple
(2) reliant
(3) splendid
(4) fragile
(5) elevated

In each of the following questions, a sentence is given with a part in bold. The given
phrase in the bold may or may not contain an error. Among the given options, one can
replace the incorrect phrase and that will be your answer. If the sentences are correct as
given, then select option (5) i.e. ‘No replacement required’ as your answer.

Question 28
If I will study, I would have passed the exam.

(1) I had studied

(2) had I studied
(3) I have studied
(4) Have I studied
(5) No replacement required

Question 29
She felt an overwhelming desire to return back home.

(1) desire of returning back

 (2) desires to return
(3) desire to returned back
(4) desire to return
(5) No replacement required

Question 30
No sooner had I closed my eyes than I fell asleep.

(1) No soon had I

(2) No soon I had
(3) I had no sooner
(4) No sooner I have
(5) No replacement required
IBPS-PO (Mathematics) Set 22_T1_03
Question 31
In the given question, two equations numbered I and II are given. Solve both the equations
and mark the appropriate answer.
I. x2 − 15x + 56 = 0
II. y 2 − 8y + 15 = 0

(1) x≥y
(2) x≤y
(3) x>y
(4) x<y
(5) x = y or no relation

Question 32
In the given question, two equations numbered I and II are given. Solve both the equations
and mark the appropriate answer.
I. x2 + 12x + 35 = 0
II. y 2 + 7y + 10 = 0

(1) x≥y
(2) x≤y
(3) x>y
(4) x<y
(5) x = y or no relation

Question 33
In the given question, two equations numbered I and II are given. Solve both the equations
and mark the appropriate answer.
I. x2 − 3x − 40 = 0
II. y 2 + 11y + 30 = 0

(1) x≥y
(2) x≤y
(3) x>y
(4) x<y
(5) x = y or no relation
 Question 34
In the given question, two equations numbered I and II are given. Solve both the equations
and mark the appropriate answer.
I. 2x2 + 14x − 16 = 0
II. y 2 − y − 12 = 0
(1) x≥y
(2) x≤y
(3) x>y
(4) x<y
(5) x = y or no relation

Question 35
In the given question, two equations numbered I and II are given. Solve both the equations
and mark the appropriate answer.
I. 2x2 − x − 3 = 0
II. 2y 2 − 6y + 4 = 0
(1) x = y or no relation
(2) x≤y
(3) x>y
(4) x<y
(5) x≥y

Read the given data carefully and answer the questions.

There are 900 students in a college and they are either from one or more categories, i.e.,
A, B and C games. The ratio of total students in only A, only B and only C is 2 : 3 : 5
respectively. Total students in all three categories are 50% of total students in only C.
The sum of total students who are in only B & C but not A and total students who are
in only A & C but not B is 155. Total number of students who are in A & B but not C
are 30 less than total number of students who are in only B.

Question 36
Find the difference between total students in all three categories and the number of
students in category A.
(1) 40
(2) can’t be determined
(3) 50
(4) 55
(5) 32
 Question 37
Find the ratio of total students in category B to that of in category C.

(1) can’t be determined

(2) 2:3
(3) 3:5
(4) 2:7
(5) 3:4

Question 38
If in only category A, 30% are boys, find the total number of girls in only category A.

(1) 56
(2) 70
(3) 49
(4) 72
(5) 80

Question 39
Find the total number of students are in at most two categories.

(1) 755
(2) 765
(3) 715
(4) 775
(5) 735

Question 40
Find the total number of students are in only one category.

(1) 300
(2) 500
(3) 400
(4) 600
(5) 800

Question 41
What will come in the place of question (?) mark in following number series?
2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
 (1) 46
(2) 42
(3) 44
(4) 48
(5) 52

Question 42
What will come in the place of question (?) mark in following number series?
24, 49, ?, 219, 388, 677

(1) 98
(2) 108
(3) 88
(4) 96
(5) 78

Question 43
What will come in the place of question (?) mark in following number series?
48, 55, 76, ?, 160, 223

(1) 122
(2) 101
(3) 111
(4) 119
(5) 114

Question 44
What will come in the place of question (?) mark in following number series?
15, 16.5, 19.5, 24, ?, 37.5

(1) 40
(2) 30
(3) 32
(4) 33
(5) 36

Question 45
What will come in the place of question (?) mark in following number series?
2, 6, 30, 210, ?, 20790
 (1) 1890
(2) 1860
(3) 1990
(4) 1830
(5) 1960

Question 46
Present age of A is 12 years more than C, while C is three years younger than B. The
ratio of present age of A to that of B is 6 : 5. Find the sum of ages (in years) of B and C
ten years hence.

(1) 117
(2) 103
(3) 107
(4) 111
(5) 105

Question 47
A and B invested Rs. x and Rs. (x + 900) respectively in a business. After eight months,
B left the business. At the end of a year, the total profit is Rs. 5800 and profit share of
B is Rs. 1000 more than that of A. Find x in (Rs.).

(1) 1000
(2) 1600
(3) 600
(4) 1200
(5) 800

Question 48
In a vessel water is 25% of the milk. When 10 l of mixture was taken out from the vessel
and 25 l milk was added in the vessel, then quantity of milk become 400% more than the
quantity of water in resulting mixture. Find the initial quantity (in liters) of milk in the
vessel.

(1) 116
(2) 108
(3) 102
(4) 112
(5) 114
 Question 49
The sum of cost prices of two articles A and B is Rs. 350. Both articles marked up 60%
above cost price. If marked price of article B is Rs. 80 more than that of A, then find the
cost price (in Rs.) of article A.

(1) 165
(2) 135
(3) 150
(4) 195
(5) 145

Question 50
Perimeter of a rectangle is 108 cm and length of rectangle is 40 cm. Find how many
semicircles of maximum radius can be drawn inside the rectangle.

(1) 12
(2) 13
(3) 14
(4) can’t be determined
(5) 17

Question 51
The ratio of upstream to downstream speed of a boat is 3 : 5 and the approximate time
to cover 60 km 3 m downstream and 60 km 2 m upstream is 16 h 10 min. Find time
(approx.) taken by boat to cover 37 km in upstream.

(1) 4h
(2) 8h
(3) 6h
(4) 12 h
(5) 10 h

Question 52
The station B lies between station A and C. The distance between A & B is 400 km and
the distance between B & C is 375 km. Time taken by a train to cover distance between A
& B and distance between B & C is same. If speed of the train to cover distance between
A & B is 40 km · h−1 , then find the difference between the average speed of the train and
the speed of train by which it covers distance between B & C.

(1) 1.75
(2) 1.25
 (3) 1.15
(4) 1.35
(5) 2.25

Question 53
Efficiency of Ritu is 60% more than Rakesh and difference between the number of days
taken by them to complete a work in 18 days. If efficiency of Rahul is 12.5% less than
Ritu, then find the time taken by all the three to together to complete the work.

(1) 10 days
(2) 12 days
(3) 9.5 days
(4) 7 days
(5) 5.5 days

Question 54
A man invested Rs. x and Rs. 2x at 15% simple interest and at 8% compound interest
(compounding annually) for two years respectively. If difference between simple interest
and compound interest received after two years is Rs. 820, then find the value of x.

(1) Rs. 25000

(2) Rs. 30600
(3) Rs. 28600
(4) Rs. 22200
(5) Rs. 26200

Question 55
A annualy saves 15% and 20% of his income in 2017 and 2018 respectively. If A annually
saves Rs. 45000 in 2017, then find the amount saved by A in 2018.

(1) Rs. 40000

(2) Rs. 36000
(3) Rs. 60000
(4) can’t be determined.
(5) Rs. 48000
The bar graph given below shows the amount ( in ’000) of tax paid by three different
people. Read the data carefully and answer the questions.
Y 2018
2019
70

60

50

40

30

20

10

0 X
Tarun Apurv Mayank

Question 56
If Apurv paid income tax and GST in 2019 in the ratio of 7 : 3 respectively, then find the
sum of income tax paid by Apurv in 2019 and total tax (in Rs.) paid by Tarun in 2018
(Apurv pain only income tax and GST).

(1) 72000
(2) 56000
(3) 66000
(4) 64000
(5) 60000

Question 57
Total tax paid by Tarun in both years is what percent (approx.) more or less than total
tax paid by Mayank in both years?

(1) 35%
(2) 33%
(3) 25%
(4) 27%
(5) 29%
 Question 58
Find the difference between total tax paid by Apurv in both years and total tax paid by
Mayank and Tarun in 2019.

(1) Rs. 35000

(2) Rs. 20000
(3) Rs. 50000
(4) Rs. 40000
(5) Rs. 30000

Question 59
Find the ratio of total tax paid by Tarun and Mayank in 2018 to total tax paid by Apurv
in 2018.

(1) 6:7
(2) 5:4
(3) 6:5
(4) 3:4
(5) 5:8

Question 60
Mayank paid 14 th of his income as tax in 2018 and his income increased by 25% in 2020
over the 2018, while the ratio of tax paid by Mayank in 2018 to that of in 2020 is 9 : 10. If
Mayank spends 16 th and 25% of his remaining income on rent in 2018 & 2020 respectively,
while remaining he saved. Find the difference between saving of Mayank in both years.

(1) Rs. 7500

(2) Rs. 15000
(3) Rs. 12500
(4) Rs. 17500
(5) Rs. 10000
Read the following table carefully and answer the questions given below. Table given below
shows the total number of registered votes in two (A and B) blocks and total number of
valid votes these in two blocks in two (2012 and 2015) different years.
Note: Number of votes registered in any year = Number of valid votes + Number of
invalid votes casted.

Registered Registered Valid votes Valid votes

Years votes in votes in in block A in block B
block A block B
2012 750 1200 200 1000
2015 900 1300 720 1000

Question 61
Out of the total invalid votes of block A in 2012, the ratio of male votes to female votes
was 6 : 5 respectively. Find the difference between the total female invalid votes of block
A in 2012 and the total invalid votes in block B in 2015.

(1) 25
(2) 45
(3) 60
(4) 50
(5) 40

Question 62
Total invlaid votes of blocks A and B together in 2015 is how much percent more or less
than the total valid votes in both the blocks in 2012?

(1) 60%
(2) 40%
(3) 25%
(4) 75%
(5) 20%

Question 63
If the invalid votes in block B in 2012 were again allowed for a recast and only 25%
were valid from them, then find the total number of valid votes in block B in 2012 after
recasting.

(1) 1405
(2) 1260
(3) 1075
 (4) 1190
(5) 1050

Question 64
Find the difference between average number of invalid votes of both blocks in 2012 and
average number of invalid votes of both blocks in 2015.

(1) 135
(2) 106
(3) 115
(4) 129
(5) 125

Question 65
Find the ratio of total valid votes of block A in 2012 to total votes registered of block B
in 2015.

(1) 1 : 11
(2) 2 : 13
(3) 10 : 17
(4) 12 : 11
(5) 9:7
IBPS-PO (General Intelligence) Set 22_T1_03
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Five people are living on different floors of five storey building. Ground floor is numbered
as 1st floor and the one just above 1st floor is numbered as 2nd floor and so on till the
topmost floor is numbered as 5th floor. Each of them uses different raw materials in
their cloths.
G lives three floors above the one who uses Fibres. No one lives between H and the one
who uses Fibres. D lives above H but not just above. F lives just above the one who
uses Leather. F lives on an odd numbered floor. The one who uses Cotton lives above
E. The one who uses Wool lives above the floor of the one who uses Silk but not just
above.

Question 66
How many people live between G and the one who uses Wool?

(1) None
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One
(5) Cannot be determined

Question 67
Who lives on the bottom most floor?

(1) D
(2) F
(3) None of these
(4) E
(5) H

Question 68
Which of the following is correct match?

(1) G-Silk
(2) F-Cotton
(3) E-Fibres
(4) D-Leather
(5) H-Wool
 Question 69
How many people live above H?

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) One
(4) Three
(5) Cannot be determined

Question 70
The number of people live above E is same as the number of people live below .

(1) F
(2) D
(3) The one who uses Cotton
(4) The one who uses Silk
(5) Both F and the one who uses Cotton

In the questions below some statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I
and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements, disregarding commonly known
facts. Give answers accordingly.

Question 71
Statements:

I. Some Hero are Film.

II. Some Film are Star.
III. All Star are Actor.

Conclusions:
I. Some Actor are Film.
II. Some Hero are not Star.

(1) If only conclusion I follows

(2) If only conclusion II follows
(3) If either conclusion I or II follows
(4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
(5) If both conclusions I and II follow
 Question 72
Statements:
I. Some A are B.
II. All C are D.
III. No B is C.

Conclusions:
I. Some D are not B.
II. Some D are B.

(1) If only conclusion I follows

(2) If only conclusion II follows
(3) If either conclusion I or II follows
(4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
(5) If both conclusions I and II follow

Question 73
Statements:
I. All Book are Pen.
II. Some Pen are Eraser.
III. All Eraser are Pencil.

Conclusions:
I. Some Book are Pencil.
II. No Pencil is Book.

(1) If only conclusion I follows

(2) If only conclusion II follows
(3) If either conclusion I or II follows
(4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
(5) If both conclusions I and II follow

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sit in a row but not necessarily in the same
order. Four of them faces north direction and rest of them faces south direction. At
most two people sit to the right of A who doesn’t face north direction. Three people sit
between A and B who is the only immediate neighbour of C. Three people sit between
E and G and none of them sits adjacent to A. H sits 2nd to the right of C. D and G sit
to the immediate right of each other. Immediate neighbours of A face same direction.
Number of people sitting to the right of H is two more than the number of people who
sit to the left of E.
 Question 74
How many people sit between A and H?

(1) None
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) One

Question 75
What is the position of F with respect to D?

(1) Immediate left

(2) 2nd to the right
(3) 3rd to the left
(4) 2nd to the left
(5) Cannot be determined

Question 76
Who among the following sits 3rd to the left of G?

(1) C
(2) F
(3) B
(4) A
(5) None of these

Question 77
Which of the following pair is adjacent to each other?

(1) G, B
(2) F, G
(3) F, A
(4) H, D
(5) None of these

Question 78
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus forms a group. Who among
the following doesn’t belong to that group?
 (1) F
(2) C
(3) E
(4) D
(5) H

Study the following information carefully and answer the related questions.
There are nine members i.e., H, R, D, W, K, T, F, X and A, living in a family. F is the
mother of R who is the only son of X. H is the sister-in-law of A who is the mother of
both K and T. H is married to D who is a parent of W. K is the only grandson of X.
Neither W nor X has any sibling. W is the niece of R.

Question 79
How is F related to T?

(1) Mother
(2) Aunt
(3) Daughter-in-law
(4) Grandmother
(5) None of the above

Question 80
Who is the mother-in-law of D?

(1) A
(2) F
(3) T
(4) X
(5) None of the above

Question 81
How is H related to T?

(1) Maternal Aunt

(2) Paternal Aunt
(3) Sister-in-law
(4) Niece
(5) None of the above
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Nine people are going to attend an event one after another. At most two people attend
the event before G. Three people attend the event between C and G. Two people attend
the event between C and B. One person attends the event between B and K who attends
the event after B. F attends the event just before L. There are as many people who
attend the event before L as there are after H. E attends the event exactly between B
and K. D attends the event before E.

Question 82
How many people attend the event after K?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Six
(5) More than six

Question 83
The number of people who attend the event between G and F is same as the number of
people who attend the event between and .

(1) L, B
(2) H, D
(3) E, L
(4) C, B
(5) H, G

Question 84
How many people attend the event between D and the one who attends just before K?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) One
(5) None of these

Question 85
The number of people who attend the event between K and G is half than the number of
people who attend the event after .

(1) B
 (2) E
(3) H
(4) L
(5) F

Question 86
Find the odd one out.

(1) VYT
(2) DGB
(3) MPK
(4) HKG
(5) TWR

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
A starts from point D towards east direction and walks 22 m to reach point L. He takes
his left turn and walks 10 m and reaches at point K. Now he takes his right and walks 30
m to reach at point H. After that he takes his left and walks 15 m to reach at point M.
B starts walking towards east direction from point M and walks 45 m to reach at point
E. He takes his right turn and walks 22 m to reach at point G. Now he takes his left
and walks 10 m to reach at point F. Finally, B walks 10 m right from point F to reach
at point N.

Question 87
What is the difference between the distances covered by A and B?

(1) 15 m
(2) 20 m
(3) 10 m
(4) 25 m
(5) 30 m

Question 88
In which direction is point F with respect to point L?

(1) North-East
(2) East
(3) North
(4) South-West
(5) None of these
 Question 89
If point X is 7 m south of point D then what is the shortest distance between point X
and point N?

(1) 112 m
(2) 118 m
(3) 106 m
(4) 107 m
(5) 110 m

Question 90
In the word ‘CHAIRMAN’, how many pairs of letters have the same number of letters
between them (both forward and backward direction) in the word as in the alphabet?

(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) Three
(5) More than four

Study the given information carefully and answer the related questions.
Six people sit around a circular table facing towards the centre. All of them have different
number of flowers viz. 29, 14, 36, 43, 51 and 47. One person sits between M and R who
has 14 flowers. Two people sit between the one who has 29 flowers and M. S sits to the
immediate left of A who doesn’t sit adjacent to the one who has 29 flowers. A doesn’t
have 29 flowers. S has more flowers than M and difference between the number of flowers
of both of them is 15. O neither has 29 flowers nor 43 flowers. H is one of the people.

Question 91
Who among the following has 29 flowers?

(1) M
(2) H
(3) S
(4) A
(5) None of these

Question 92
How many people sit between the one who has 43 flowers and H?

(1) One
 (2) Three
(3) Cannot be determined
(4) Either two or one
(5) Either three or one

Question 93
Which of the following combinations is correct?

(1) S - 36
(2) A- 47
(3) H- 29
(4) M- 43
(5) All are correct

Question 94
Who among the following sits just to the right of the one who has 36 flowers?

(1) O
(2) H
(3) S
(4) R
(5) None of these

Question 95
Who among the following faces M?

(1) The one who has 51 flowers

(2) A
(3) H
(4) The one who has 47 flowers
(5) None of these

Question 96
If we form a four-letter meaningful word by using the 2nd, 5th, 6th and 7th letters from
the left end of the word ‘HOPEFUL’, then which of the following will be the 2nd letter
of the meaningful word thus formed? If more than one meaningful word is formed, mark
Z as your answer. If no meaningful word is formed, mark X as your answer?

(1) Z
 (2) O
(3) L
(4) F
(5) X

In the following questions assuming the given statement to be true, find which of the
conclusion(s) among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers
accordingly.

Question 97
Statements:

I. A > M < X < V

II. D ≤ L = M
III. D > S

Conclusions:
I. A > S
II. A > V

(1) Only I is true

(2) Only II is true
(3) Either I or II is true
(4) Neither I nor II is true
(5) Both I and II are true

Question 98
Statements:

I. M > A ≥ P > U
II. E < R > U
III. E ≥ L > W

Conclusions:
I. M > L
II. W ≤ A

(1) Only I is true

(2) Only II is true
(3) Either I or II is true
 (4) Neither I nor II is true
(5) Both I and II are true

Question 99
Statements:

I. Q ≥ W > X > Z
II. E > Z
III. E > C

Conclusions:
I. C < Q
II. E ≤ W

(1) Only I is true

(2) Only II is true
(3) Either I or II is true
(4) Neither I nor II is true
(5) Both I and II are true

Question 100
Statements:

I. L > W < U < B

II. W ≥ X > P
III. P > T ≥ K

Conclusions:
I. L > T
II. K < U

(1) Only I is true

(2) Only II is true
(3) Either I or II is true
(4) Neither I nor II is true
(5) Both I and II are true